1. What are the basic elements for 'Classic T' format?.

(Level 2)
A. Direction, altitude and height.
B. Airspeed, pitch and roll.
C. Airspeed, attitude, altitude and direction.
2. With radio coupled autopilot, what are the inputs?. (Level 1)
A. ADF and VOR.
B. ILS and VOR.
C. ADF and ILS.
3. What sort of gate requires two positive voltages to operate?. (Level
2)
A. AND.
B. OR.
C. NOT.
4. When will a NAND gate give logic 0 at the output?. (Level 2)
A. When both inputs are at 1.
B. When the inputs are different.
C. When both inputs are at 0.
5. Which logic gate can be represented as a parallel circuit?. (Level 2)
A. Exclusive OR.
B. NAND.
C. OR.
6. The output of a NOT gate is logic 1. The input is. (Level 2)
A. logic 0.
B. logic 1.
C. both logic 1.
7. When the voltage that represents a logic 1 state is less than the
voltage that represents a logic 0 state, the logic being used is. (Level 2)
A. either positive or negative.
B. positive.
C. negative.
8. The output of an AND gate having two inputs A and B is logic 1. The
two inputs will have the logic states of. (Level 2)
A. A = 0, B = 0.
B. A = 1, B = 0.
C. A = 1, B = 1.
9. The output of an OR gate having two inputs A and B is logic 0. The
two inputs will have the logic states of. (Level 2)
A. A = 1, B = 0.
B. A = 0, B = 1.
C. A = 0, B = 0.
10. Which logic gate has both inputs high to get an output?. (Level 2)
A. AND gate.
B. OR gate.
C. NAND gate.
11. A NAND and NOR to become a NOT gate have. (Level 2)
A. inputs inverted.
B. outputs inverted.
C. inputs connected together.
12. An AND gate with inverted inputs and an inverted output is
equivalent to. (Level 2)
A. an AND gate.
B. a NOR gate.
C. an OR gate.
13. An EADI display of flight director commands are coloured. (Level 1)
A. cyan.
B. magenta.
C. red.
14. Logic gates internal operating mechanisms are produced from.
(Level 2)
A. thin film resistors.
B. transistors.
C. diodes.
15. A logic 1 may be represented in an analogue system by (where Q
is an output of a latch / flip-flop). (Level 2)
A. switch closed / light off / Not Q.
B. positive / magnetised / Q.
C. switch open / light on / Q.
16. What sort of gate requires two negative input voltages to
operate?. (Level 2)
A. OR.
B. NAND.
C. NOT.
17. What sort of gate requires two negative input voltages to
operate?. (Level 2)
A. NAND.
B. OR.
C. NOT.
18. In Positive Logic representation. (Level 2)
A. both states have same positive voltages but stage 1 has more current.
B. state 1 is more positive than state 0.
C. state 0 is more positive than state 1.
19. Switching within logic gates is normally achieved with the use of.
(Level 2)
A. BTB's.
B. relays.
C. diodes.
20. The truth table of A =0011 B=0101 and =0110 indicates that the
logic device is. (Level 1)
A. an ECLUSIVE OR gate.
B. a NOR gate.

C. an AND gate.
21. A NAND gate has inputs A and B and output C. If the output (c) was
zero, what are the inputs?. (Level 2)
A. A=1 B=1.
B. A=0 B=0.
C. A=1 B=0.
22. The 'fan-in' in a gate is the. (Level 2)
A. number of inputs to a gate.
B. number of outputs from a gate.
C. number of inputs and outputs of a gate.
23. Tristate devices are found. (Level 1)
A. on input circuits.
B. on output circuits.
C. on both input and output circuits.
24. EFIS systems have two control panels, their purpose is. (Level 2)
A. one to control the type of EFIS display and the other to select the
source of the information being displayed.
B. one for the EADI display and one for the EHSI display.
C. to provide display control by one control panel whilst the other
provides a standby.
25. A full adder has. (Level 2)
A. three inputs and two outputs.
B. two inputs and one output.
C. three inputs and one output.
26. In a computer memory device, which one of these has the slowest
access time?. (Level 1)
A. floppy disk.
B. magnetic tape.
C. 8mm video tape.
27. The advantage of DRAM over SRAM is. (Level 2)
A. are cheaper to manufacture.
B. has a larger storage capacity per chip area.
C. they operate slower.
28. A BYTE is usually. (Level 1)
A. an 8 bit word.
B. a six bit word.
C. a 12 bit word.
29. What is the definition of baud rate?. (Level 1)
A. 1 word per second.
B. 1 byte per second.
C. 1 bit per second.
30. Which would have the least components?. (Level 2)
A. ALU.
B. CPU.
C. LSI.

31. What is a baud?. (Level 1)

A. A bit of data.
B. A block of data.
C. A byte of data.
32. In a bi-stable memory circuit. (Level 1)
A. the memory is retained indefinably.
B. the memory is lost as soon as power is removed.
C. the memory needs to be refreshed constantly, even when power is
on.
33. What is the advantage of series over parallel message sending?.
(Level 2)
A. Only one pair of conductors.
B. More information sent.
C. Quicker.
34. A typical example of a mass storage memory device which is also
WORM (Write Once Read Many) is. (Level 1)
A. an IC.
B. a magnetic tape.
C. a CD Rom.
35. What would you expect to see displayed on an EADI display?.
(Level 1)
A. Compass heading, selected heading and VOR.
B. Course information, weather radar, way point alert and bearing
pointers.
C. Flight director command bars, slip indicator, rate to altitude &
autoland.
36. A computer using RAM would utilize. (Level 1)
A. magnetic tape.
B. a compact disc.
C. an integrated circuit (chip).
37. Magnetic materials are used in. (Level 2)
A. ROMs only.
B. some RAMs.
C. EPROM.
38. A typical example of a mass storage device is. (Level 2)
A. IC.
B. magnetic tape.
C. CD.
39. What is EPROM?. (Level 1)
A. Enhanced programmable read only memory.
B. Erasable programmable read only memory.
C. Erasable programming read only module.
40. How many bytes can be carried in a 32bit word?. (Level 2)
A. 8 bytes.
B. 4 bytes.

C. 2 bytes.
41. A common used material in computer manufacturing is. (Level 1)
A. ferrite material.
B. permeamag material.
C. ferromagnetic material.
42. Ferrite medium is used for computer memory because. (Level 2)
A. data is stored after the power is removed.
B. it is light.
C. it has low eddy current losses.
43. Data is usually stored in. (Level 2)
A. RAM.
B. ROM.
C. EEPROM.
44. Registers are used in digital computers to. (Level 2)
A. store bits of information in a permanent memory.
B. store a limited amount of information on a temporary basis.
C. keep a count of operations completed.
45. A computer consist of at least the C.P.U and. (Level 1)
A. memory and input & output port.
B. memory, ALU, input & output port.
C. register section, ALU, timing and control section.
46. An EFIS ADI display will show along with pitch and roll. (Level 2)
A. flight director bars, autoland, compass rose, altitude.
B. decision height, autoland, rad alt , altitude.
C. flight director bars, autoland, altitude, range to altitude, decision
height.
47. A basic computer would consist of. (Level 1)
A. register section, ALU and timing and control section.
B. memory, input/output ports and CPU.
C. RAM/ROM and input/output ports.
48. DRAM. (Level 2)
A. requires a refreshing charge.
B. memory is stored when power supply is removed.
C. it does not require a refreshing charge.
49. Bubble memory stores data on. (Level 1)
A. magnetic tape.
B. semiconductor material.
C. ferrite core.
50. An EPROM. (Level 1)
A. is non-volatile memory.
B. requires constant refreshing.
C. is erased after reading.
51. A computer requires to operate, a. (Level 2)
A. address bus, a data bus only.
B. data bus, a control bus, a address bus.

C. data bus, a control bus only.

52. data bus, a control bus only. (Level 2)
A. DRAM.
B. SRAM.
C. RAM.
53. A computer is acting in real time when. (Level 2)
A. the CPU requires a clock pulse.
B. the output is equal to the input of data.
C. the time to access memory is equal to the data speed in.
54. Some of the advantages of fibre optic cable over copper cables are.
(Level 1)
A. non conductive, easy to manufacture and assemble, more robust,
cheap.
B. smaller in size and weight, non conductive, higher security and higher
bandwidth.
C. non conductive, smaller in size and weight, easy to manufacture and
assemble and higher security.
55. A fibre optic cable consists of. (Level 1)
A. a silica glass core with a cladding having a lower refractive index.
B. a silica glass core with a cladding having a higher refractive index.
C. a plastic core with a cladding having a higher refractive index.
56. Fibre optic cables. (Level 1)
A. are immune to EMI.
B. attenuate EMI.
C. are susceptible to EMI.
57. If the glideslope pointer is below the centre mark the aircraft is.
(Level 1)
A. below the glideslope.
B. on the glideslope.
C. above the glideslope.
58. Two connected fibre optic cable ends are parallel but not quite
touching. This is called. (Level 1)
A. end to end coupling.
B. lens connector.
C. end fire coupling.
59. A disadvantage of a fibre optic cable is. (Level 1)
A. couplings susceptible to ingress of fluid.
B. end terminals are susceptible to environmental contamination.
C. shallow bend radius allowed.
60. What kind of light is used in a fibre optic systems?. (Level 1)
A. Infrared.
B. Visible.
C. Ultraviolet.
61. Fibreoptic data is sent by. (Level 1)
A. modulating the frequency of a laser beam.

B. a strobe light.
C. modulating the frequency of a filament beam.
62. HIRF is prevented from entering a fibre optic cable by. (Level 1)
A. using an opto-isolator coupling.
B. grounding the fibre at both ends.
C. enclosing it in a metal braid.
63. Continuity of a fibreoptic cable is checked by. (Level 1)
A. a calibrated light source.
B. a calibrated light source and an opto-power meter.
C. a light source and an opto-power meter.
64. A fibreoptic data bus used on an aircraft. (Level 1)
A. can send only one message at a time.
B. can transmit on several channels at the same time.
C. connects non-essential systems only.
65. Light travels along a fibre optic by. (Level 1)
A. refraction.
B. reflection.
C. dispersion.
66. What is the main disadvantage of a fibre optic data bus?. (Level 1)
A. Less strong and durable when compared to twisted pair and coaxial
cable.
B. Expensive to install.
C. Bend radius and moisture ingress at connections.
67. A typical fibre optic connector is. (Level 1)
A. F-type connector.
B. coupling type, with lens fitted.
C. push-pull connector.
68. On an EFIS system the weather radar is displayed on. (Level 2)
A. the FMC CDU.
B. the EADI.
C. the EHSI.
69. Which of the following is an optoelectronic device?. (Level 1)
A. Triac.
B. Laser Diode.
C. Thyristor.
70. What is the advantage of a single mode fibreoptic over ordinary
wire?. (Level 1)
A. Not prone to damage.
B. Large bandwidth.
C. Small bend radius.
71. A fibreoptic light source is normally. (Level 1)
A. a strobe light.
B. a filament lamp.
C. a laser or LED.

72. The fibreoptic cable can be identified on aircraft by its jacket

colour which is. (Level 1)
A. purple.
B. yellow.
C. red.
73. For a fibre optic cable connector that is not regularly disconnected
you would use the. (Level 1)
A. butt type.
B. ball lens type.
C. ceramic lens type.
74. What maintenance problems are associated with fibreoptics?.
(Level 1)
A. Corrosion.
B. Kinking and contamination of connectors.
C. Earthing faults.
75. A fibreoptic data bus. (Level 1)
A. can transmit several messages simultaneously.
B. is only used for non essential messages.
C. can only transmit 1 message at a time.
76. A fiberoptic cable to LRU connector should be connected. (Level 1)
A. very carefully to ensure alignment and reduce light loss.
B. using torque-loaded pliers.
C. hand tight only.
77. Some of the advantages of fibreoptic cable over copper cable are.
(Level 1)
A. smaller size and weight, non conductive, more rugged, higher
security.
B. non conductive, easy to manufacture and assemble, higher
bandwidth.
C. non conductive, higher bandwidth, higher security, smaller size and
weight.
78. In a single mode fibreoptic cable. (Level 1)
A. several waves travel down the cable.
B. the diameter of the cable is dependent on the wavelength of the light
used.
C. the distortion of the signal is dependent on the length of cable.
79. EADI displays show. (Level 2)
A. pitch, roll and waypoints.
B. pitch and roll attitudes.
C. heading and weather radar.
80. A semiconductor which emits photons and releases electrons when
stimulated by photons is called. (Level 1)
A. a photodiode.
B. a laser diode.
C. an LED.

81. What does a fibreoptic star connection do?. (Level 1)

A. Provides a continuous loop of fibre interconnecting all nodes.
B. Provides direct point-to-point services to units on dedicated lines
emanating from the central hub.
C. Shares a common bandwidth of a common cable.
82. A fibreoptic lens type coupling with lens and integral LED
compared to an end-fire coupling is. (Level 1)
A. more efficient.
B. less efficient.
C. equally efficient.
83. Passive sensors in fibreoptics. (Level 1)
A. process the signal but do not require power.
B. require power for processing the signal before they send them down
the fibre optic.
C. require no power and they do not process signals.
84. The inside of a CRT consists of. (Level 2)
A. an oxide coating and rare mercury gas.
B. a phosphor coating and rare mercury gas.
C. iodine and rare mercury gas.
85. CRT horizontal beam control is achieved by a. (Level 2)
A. sinusoidal wave.
B. square wave.
C. sawtooth wave.
86. In a CRT, if the magnetic field is parallel to the Y plates, what will
be the direction of the electron beam movement?. (Level 1)
A. Horizontal.
B. Vertical.
C. No movement.
87. Primary colours of a CRT are. (Level 1)
A. red, green and yellow.
B. red, blue and yellow.
C. red, green and blue.
88. What are the effects of the X and Y plates on a CRT?. (Level 1)
A. Y plates move the beam vertically, X plates move the beam
horizontally.
B. X plates move the beam vertically, Y plates move the beam
horizontally.
C. X and Y plates can move the beam in either direction.
89. EADI sky and ground display is provided by. (Level 1)
A. synthetic TV signals.
B. stroke pulse.
C. raster scan.
90. On an EHSI in weather radar mode, a severe storm would be
shown as. (Level 2)
A. orange areas with black or yellow surrounds.

B. red areas with black surrounds.

C. blue areas with white background.
91. What frequency creates the raster effect on a CRT?. (Level 2)
A. 50/60 Hz.
B. 250Hz.
C. 400 Hz.
92. The sweep waveform used on a electromagnetic CRT is. (Level 2)
A. trapezoidal.
B. sinusoidal.
C. sawtooth.
93. What shape does the waveform take to counter the impedance
effect of the coils in an electromagnetic controlled CRT?. (Level 1)
A. Sawtooth.
B. Rectangular.
C. Trapezoid.
94. Magnetic deflection in a CRT is achieved by. (Level 1)
A. a sawtooth waveform.
B. a trapezoidal waveform.
C. a sinusoidal voltage.
95. The timebase in a CRT consists of. (Level 1)
A. an amplifier and an oscillator.
B. an oscillator only.
C. an amplifier only.
96. What creates the raster effect on a CRT?. (Level 2)
A. Sawtooth frequency.
B. Trapezoidal frequency.
C. Sinusoidal frequency.
97. LCD screens are driven by. (Level 1)
A. AC voltage.
B. variable current DC voltage.
C. fixed current DC voltage.
98. A Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) has the advantage over a CRT that.
(Level 2)
A. it requires no cooling.
B. it displays more colours.
C. it requires less servicing.
99. The release of a photon by another photon is the principle of.
(Level 1)
A. a photo diode.
B. a zener diode.
C. an LED.
100. If a magnetic field is parallel to the X plates in a CRT, which way
will the beam move?. (Level 2)
A. Vertically.
B. Horizontally.

C. Diagonally.
101. During flight (non fault conditions) the EICAS system displays on
the lower CRT. (Level 1)
A. flight phase page.
B. secondary engine parameters.
C. synoptic display.
102. An LED display is. (Level 2)
A. monochrome only.
B. red and green.
C. high definition.
103. An LCD display uses what type of power supply?. (Level 2)
A. DC voltage.
B. Continuous AC.
C. Variable level DC voltage.
104. A beam deflection on EFIS displays are. (Level 1)
A. electrostatic.
B. electromagnetic.
C. solid state.
105. The supply to an LCD is. (Level 1)
A. AC.
B. current restricted DC.
C. voltage restricted DC.
106. An LED will emit light when. (Level 1)
A. it is reverse biased.
B. either forward or reverse biased if a sufficient level of ac voltage is
applied.
C. it is forward biased.
107. A CRT display has the advantage over an LCD display of a. (Level
1)
A. brighter clearer output.
B. more energy efficient.
C. large viewing angle.
108. To display a circle on a CRT you use. (Level 2)
A. 2 square wave 90 degrees out of phase.
B. 2 sine waves 180 degrees out of phase.
C. 2 sine waves 90 degrees out of phase.
109. To deflect the beam of a CRT horizontally, coils are placed on the
neck of the tube. (Level 2)
A. each side.
B. top and bottom.
C. one on the side, one at the bottom.
110. If the magnetic deflection plates produce a magnetic field which
is parallel to the horizontal then the trace is deflected in. (Level 1)
A. circular motion.
B. horizontal axis.

C. vertical axis.
111. The most common CRT control for an EFIS system screen is. (Level
1)
A. a combined system.
B. an electrostatic system.
C. an electromagnetic system.
112. Typical displays on an EHSI are. (Level 2)
A. Engine indications.
B. VOR, Map, Plan and weather radar.
C. VOR, Plan, Map and Attitude.
113. Radio altitude is displayed on an EFIS system. (Level 1)
A. on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator.
B. on the Electronic Attitude Direction Indicator.
C. on the RMI.
114. L.E.D.s can give. (Level 1)
A. high definition displays.
B. monochrome displays only.
C. red and green displays only.
115. At low ambient temperatures, an LCD screen. (Level 2)
A. is slower to update as data changes.
B. viewing angle becomes larger.
C. loses contrast.
116. Colour CRT shadow mask screen resolution is. (Level 1)
A. 400 lines per square inch.
B. 84 triads.
C. 600 lines per scan.
117. An LCD display. (Level 2)
A. has three colours only.
B. is monochrome.
C. has infinite colours.
118. A segmented configuration for the display of alphanumeric data
requires. (Level 1)
A. the starburst display for numbers and lower case letters only.
B. 16 segments to display the full range of capital letters and numerals.
C. at least 13 segments for all upper and lower case letters.
119. Electronic CRT beam display is used typically in. (Level 2)
A. weather radar indicators.
B. IRU control display units.
C. distance measuring indicators; digital counters.
120. In a colour cathode ray tube, how is the phosphor arranged in the
tube. (Level 2)
A. A single phosphor layer containing red, green and blue.
B. A red layer on the front with two green layers behind it.
C. Layers of red, blue and green.
121. A colour LCD which is back lit has. (Level 2)

A. three colours.
B. monochrome.
C. an infinite amount of colours.
122. A dot matrix/LED construction is. (Level 1)
A. 4*7 or a 9*5 rolling end display.
B. 5*9 or a 4*7 rolling end display.
C. 4*7 or a 5*7 rolling end display.
123. What are the advantages of an LCD display over an LED?. (Level 1)
A. It is brighter.
B. It uses less current.
C. There are no advantages.
124. An EFIS system ADI displays pitch, roll. (Level 1)
A. autoland, altitude, compass rose and flight director bars.
B. autoland, decision height, range to altitude and flight director bars
and slip indicator.
C. autoland, rad alt, decision height and slip indicator.
125. A seven segment display is used to. (Level 1)
A. display alpha-numeric characters.
B. display octal and decimal numbers only.
C. display octal and binary numbers only.
126. ESDS bags are sealed by. (Level 2)
A. ESDS labels.
B. zip locks.
C. twine (100% cotton).
127. What precautions are required when removing ESDS equipment?.
(Level 1)
A. Wear a wrist strap connected to an approved ground point.
B. No special precautions are required.
C. Keep one hand on the airframe.
128. A flight deck CRT LRU is being replaced. What does the ESDS label
indicate?. (Level 1)
A. Wrist straps should be worn.
B. Do not touch plug pins or leave them exposed.
C. Remove power before connecting.
129. During an EFIS screen fit. (Level 2)
A. dont touch terminals.
B. no tooling is required.
C. use bonding strap.
130. With a relative humidity of 10% to 20%, if you walked over a
carpet what electrostatic voltage value would you expect to
see?. (Level 2)
A. 35,000 volts.
B. 6,000 volts.
C. 12,000 volts.

131. Before fitting a Printed Circuit Board you should check the. (Level
1)
A. resistance between skin and strap end plug is less than 10 megohms.
B. resistance between skin and strap end plug is more than 1 megohms.
C. resistance between strap and strap end plug is less than 1 megohms.
132. The resistance of the wrist strap used as part of anti static
precautions should be. (Level 2)
A. 0 - 200 ohm.
B. 20 megohm - 200 megohm.
C. 250 kilohm - 1.5 megohm.
133. When handling PCB's labelled ESDS, what precaution are taken?.
(Level 1)
A. Do not touch its pins as copper contamination can occur.
B. Isolate electrical power before installing on Aircraft.
C. First earth with aircraft then to it.
134. After attaching a wrist strap to your wrist (which is connected to
aircraft ground), prior to removal of ESDS equipment, the resistance
measured. (Level 2)
A. between your skin and the pin ground must be >1 megohms.
B. between the strap and the pin ground must be <1 megohms.
C. between the strap and the pin ground must be >1 Megohms.
135. An electronic flight instrument display consists of. (Level 1)
A. Mode control panel, Raster and Stroke generator display,
microprocessor and Data inputs.
B. ADC, Altimeter, VSI and ASI.
C. ADI, HSI and Symbol generator.
136. Which of the following ESDS devices can withstand higher static
electricity voltage?. (Level 2)
A. MOSFET.
B. SCR.
C. ECL.
137. A wrist band must be worn when working with ESDS devices.
(Level 1)
A. to dissipate and prevent static build-up on the operator.
B. to prevent the operator from getting an electric shock.
C. to dissipate static charge on the device.
138. A humid atmosphere. (Level 1)
A. reduces static charge.
B. eliminates static charge.
C. has no effect on the level of charge.
139. Electrostatic discharge occurs when. (Level 1)
A. the ground lead on a wrist strap touches the skin.
B. materials are rubbed together or pulled apart.
C. materials of different potential are brought in close proximity to each
other.
140. Before removing an assembly from an aircraft, with regards to
HIRF, you must first ensure that there is minimum current flow
between. (Level 1)
A. the assembly and the aircraft.
B. you and the assembly.
C. you and the aircraft.
141. When removing a PC card from an ESDS assembly ensure a low
current path between. (Level 2)
A. aircraft and ground.
B. you and the assembly.
C. you and the aircraft.
142. An aircraft system that, should it fail due to a software error,
would cause a significant reduction in safety margins may also cause.
(Level 1)
A. no injuries to occupants.
B. injuries to some occupants.
C. the loss of the aircraft.
143. An aircraft system allocated a software level of C that, should it
fail due to a software error, may cause. (Level 2)
A. injuries to some occupants.
B. injuries to a large proportion of occupants.
C. no injuries to occupants.
144. An aircraft system allocated a Criticality Category of Hazardous
has a Software Level of. (Level 1)
A. A.
B. B.
C. C.
145. An aircraft system that, should it fail due to a software error,
would cause a slight increase in crew workload, has a software level
of. (Level 1)
A. D.
B. B.
C. C.
146. The EFIS system consists of. (Level 2)
A. EHSI, Mode control panel, EADI.
B. EADI, EHSI, Symbol generators.
C. Mode control Panel, RDMI, EHSI.
147. An aircraft system with a software level of D, should it fail due
to a software error, may cause the aircraft safety margin to be. (Level
2)
A. slightly decreased.
B. slightly increased.
C. significantly decreased.
148. If due to a software error in an aircraft system that would cause
injuries to some of the occupants, the system has a software criticality
category of. (Level 2)
A. major effect.
B. hazardous effect.
C. minor effect.
149. An aircraft system that, should it fail due to a software error,
would cause no injuries to occupants, has a criticality category of.
(Level 1)
A. major effect.
B. minor effect.
C. hazardous effect.
150. Requirements for software control can be found in. (Level 2)
A. JAR AWO.
B. AWN 43.
C. JAR OPS.
151. Software can be modified by. (Level 1)
A. the manufacturer.
B. using the same rules as apply as to modifications to hardware
C. licensed avionics engineers.
152. Who is responsible for producing the operational program of the
FMS?. (Level 2)
A. The manufacturer.
B. The pilot.
C. The engineer.
153. Software documentation procedures are laid down in. (Level 2)
A. MOE.
B. JAA Ops.
C. AWN (45).
154. Control of software is carried out by. (Level 1)
A. the aircraft manufacturers.
B. a licensed engineer.
C. the National Aviation Authority.
155. What is the definition of level one software?. (Level 1)
A. Non-essential.
B. Essential.
C. Critical.
156. Who can sign for a software update?. (Level 1)
A. Design organization or the aircraft manufacturer.
B. Engineer.
C. Chief pilot.
157. ILS indications on PFD/ND are shown in. (Level 2)
A. cyan.
B. magenta.
C. green.
158. What is the effect of a level 1 software failure?. (Level 1)
A. Significant reduction in safety margins.
B. Large reduction in safety margins.

C. Loss of aircraft and / or fatalities.

159. Software changes come under the responsibility of. (Level 2)
A. the engineer.
B. the national aviation authority.
C. the aircraft constructor.
160. Who can design new software?. (Level 2)
A. BCAR section A8 approved company.
B. BCAR section A1 approved company.
C. The CAA.
161. As far as a software product is concerned. (Level 1)
A. the 'Software Release' phase is the same as the 'Finished Product'
phase.
B. the 'Validation' phase is done to the software rather than to the
component.
C. the 'Verification' phase includes performance testing a programmed
EPROM.
162. AWN 43 requires that. (Level 1)
A. the aircraft operator be responsible for software assessment.
B. the CAA be responsible for software assessment.
C. the aircraft constructors be responsible for software assessment.
163. Level 1 software failure. (Level 1)
A. is defined as essential and will reduce safety margins.
B. is defined as essential and may have a minor effect.
C. is defined as critical and can lead to loss of aircraft.
164. Requirements for configuration management of software can be
found in. (Level 2)
A. AWN 43.
B. JAR Ops (M).
C. ATA Chapter 46, Information Systems.
165. Where would you find the rules regarding upgrade of software?.
(Level 1)
A. JAR OPS.
B. The aircraft manufacturer.
C. AWN 43.
166. In order to maintain HIRF protection, bonding checks between
airframe and electrical components carrying voltages greater than 50
volts RMS or DC or main earth return should not exceed. (Level 1)
A. 0.05 ohm.
B. 1 ohm.
C. 1 megohm.
167. Ribbon cables effected by mutual impedance and current loop
leakage should be protected by. (Level 2)
A. earthing each alternative conductor to separate point.
B. connecting all conductors to a common earth.
C. shielding each individual conductor.

168. Convert 011101 Base2 to octal. (Level 1)

A. 25
B. 35
C. 33
169. To shield a fibre optic from EMI you must. (Level 1)
A. earth both transducer and couplings.
B. shield it with a braided shield.
C. use an opto-isolator.
170. Manufacturers of aircraft can ensure HIRF protection by. (Level 2)
A. advising operators of all points susceptible to deterioration due to
corrosion, moisture ingress, flexing etc.
B. designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF.
C. ensuring all single wires are shielded with metal conduit.
171. Which of the following could be a primary cause of HIRF
protection failure?. (Level 2)
A. Broken or missing static wicks.
B. Corrosion on bonding leads.
C. Unserviceable radio filters.
172. Manufacturers of aircraft can ensure HIRF protection. (Level 1)
A. by designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF.
B. by ensuring all single wires are shielded with metal conduit.
C. by advising the operator of parts of the aircraft susceptible to
degradation due to corrosion, moisture ingress, flexing etc.
173. HIRF protection of LRUs is provided by. (Level 1)
A. internally shielded cables.
B. built in filters and overvoltage circuits.
C. built in filters only.
174. To stop earth loops forming, you would. (Level 1)
A. earth both ends of the cable screen.
B. leave both ends of the cable screen open circuit.
C. earth only one end of the cable screen.
175. An aircraft may have been HIRF affected. (Level 1)
A. A bonding load check is required.
B. A static wick check is required.
C. Test all radio frequencies for interference.
176. Testing of HIRF on aircraft systems is done. (Level 2)
A. by periodically listening for interference on all systems.
B. at and during production and testing (initial certification).
C. only after a report of radio interference.
177. When carrying out a bonding check on a surface protected by
anodic film. (Level 2)
A. the film is conductive so no preparations are required.
B. the anodic film should be removed locally to ensure a good contact.
C. add a bonding factor to the result of the test to account for the
resistance of the anodic film.

178. When clamping cable looms containing co-axial cables. (Level 1)

A. avoid distortion to the co-axial cable to maintain the dielectric
constant.
B. the clamps must be no more than 1 metre apart.
C. distortion of the outer sheath is allowed providing the inner cable is
not affected.
179. The binary number 11010111 expressed as a decimal is. (Level 1)
A. 215
B. 223
C. 207
180. When incorporating an aerial cable it must be. (Level 1)
A. in the centre of the other wires.
B. outside the other wires for easy access.
C. positioned separately from the loom.
181. When carrying out airframe bonding checks as part of a program
of HIRF prevention the airframe bonding resistance should be less
than. (Level 1)
A. 100 milliohms.
B. 1 ohm.
C. 50 milliohms.
182. Electromagnetic compatibility is achieved by. (Level 2)
A. shielding, screening, earthing, bonding and interference filters.
B. coating in a conductive paint.
C. enclosing the system with same frequency and strength of which
screening is done.
183. To reduce HIRF on radio equipment. (Level 1)
A. ensure all static wicks are in place.
B. periodically check bonding leads for condition.
C. transmit on all radio frequencies to determine which frequencies are
causing the interference.
184. For braided cables, the amount of braiding. (Level 2)
A. must conform to the requirement for the shielding to cover at least
50% of the surface of the cable.
B. keeps radiated power inside the emitting assembly or away from the
susceptible circuit.
C. is a trade-off design feature.
185. HIRF is acronym for. (Level 1)
A. Heavily Ionised Radio Frequencies.
B. High Intensity Radiated Field.
C. High Intensity Radio Frequencies.
186. HF aerials are protected against lightning strike by. (Level 2)
A. current mode coupler.
B. bus terminal.
C. spark gap.

187. An FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-

nav, also provides. (Level 2)
A. GPWS warnings.
B. dedicated status and warnings.
C. take-off and landing warnings.
188. The minimum standards for aircraft instrumentation is set by.
(Level 2)
A. CAA.
B. ICAO.
C. JAA.
189. EADI sky and ground display is provided by. (Level 1)
A. raster scan.
B. stroke pulse.
C. synthetic TV signals.
190. The octal number 1001 expressed as a decimal is. (Level 1)
A. 9
B. 65
C. 513
191. HSI heading is valid if the heading flag is. (Level 1)
A. in view.
B. green.
C. out of view.
192. MFD is the abbreviation for. (Level 1)
A. Multi function display.
B. Mandatory flight display.
C. Master flight display.
193. A TCAS uses the radar mile definition in its calculations, which is.
(Level 1)
A. 12.36 microsecond.
B. 6.18 microsecond.
C. 24.72 microsecond.
194. GPS navigation uses a constellation of satellites that is made up
of. (Level 2)
A. 21 active and 3 spare.
B. 28 active and 7 spare.
C. 23 active and 5 spare.
195. An IRS is only certifed for alingment up to. (Level 2)
A. +88.45 and -88.45 degrees.
B. +78.25 and -78.25 degrees.
C. +60 and -60 degrees.
196. The command bars on an ADI relate to. (Level 1)
A. roll indications.
B. path being followed.
C. path required.
197. ECAM has at its heart. (Level 1)

A. a multi function symbol generator.

B. a central maintenance computer.
C. ACARS.
198. The recording medium in an FDR is. (Level 1)
A. copper foil coated with ferrite.
B. a high density floppy disc.
C. magnetic tape coated with ferrite.
199. An FMS databank memory is updated. (Level 2)
A. every 365 days.
B. every 28 days.
C. every 32 days.
200. What does the CADC feed?. (Level 1)
A. cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / altimeter.
B. Altimeter / FMS / secondary radar.
C. standby altimeter / machmeter.
201. What is 345 in binary?. (Level 1)
A. 100111001
B. 101011001
C. 110011001
202. In a Flight Management System (FMS), data is input manually to
the computing system through the. (Level 2)
A. Data Acquisition Unit.
B. Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring control panel.
C. Control and Display Unit.
203. In a Global Positioning System (GPS), the number of satellites
required to achieve a 3 dimensional fix is. (Level 1)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
204. In a Global Positioning System (GPS), each satellite transmission
identifies the satellite using a. (Level 2)
A. different channel frequency.
B. pseudo random code.
C. whisper shout method.
205. In a Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites below the Mask
Angle are ignored as these may cause. (Level 2)
A. range errors.
B. clock errors.
C. ephemeris errors.
206. Information required by a Flight Management System (FMS) to
function correctly is indicated on the display by. (Level 2)
A. dashes.
B. a flashing cursor.
C. boxes.

207. A flight data recorder can obtain information from aircraft

instruments. (Level 1)
A. provided there is adequate damping.
B. provided there is adequate isolation.
C. by direct connection to the instruments.
208. The inputs and outputs of a CADC are. (Level 1)
A. pitot and static in; altitude, attitude, CAS and VS out.
B. pitot and static in; altitude, CAS, mach and VS out.
C. pitot in; static, altitude, mach, CAS and VS out.
209. EICAS provides the following:. (Level 1)
A. Engine parameters and engine warnings only.
B. Engine parameters and system warnings only.
C. Engine parameters only.
210. A central maintenance computer provides. (Level 1)
A. ground and flight monitoring and testing on an on-board computer.
B. ground and BITE testing using a portable control panel.
C. display of system warnings and cautions.
211. The rising runway is positioned from information derived from.
(Level 2)
A. barometric height.
B. radio altimeter.
C. vertical speed.
212. What is hex 110 in decimal?. (Level 1)
A. 282
B. 272
C. 32
213. Where are the Digital Flight Data Recorder outputs supplied to?.
(Level 2)
A. The recording unit.
B. There are no outputs.
C. Flight instruments.
214. FMS failure and warnings are. (Level 1)
A. EFIS warnings only.
B. displayed on EICAS.
C. engine warnings only.
215. Flight director command bars are moved to the correct position
by. (Level 1)
A. calibration.
B. position feedback.
C. amplifier gain.
216. What information is required before completion of the
alignment of an Inertial Navigation System?. (Level 1)
A. Aircraft present position.
B. Heading and attitude.
C. Aircraft present position and heading.

217. IRS accelerometers are mounted. (Level 2)

A. 90° to each other.
B. 45° to each other.
C. 60° to each other.
218. An FMS navigation database is updated. (Level 1)
A. once a month.
B. every 28 days.
C. at the operators request.
219. A single failure of a fly-by-wire system. (Level 2)
A. will reduce operational heights and speeds.
B. will limit the flight profile.
C. has no effect on aircraft operation.
220. Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent conditions will
result in. (Level 1)
A. spoilers moving symmetrically upwards.
B. ailerons moving symmetrically upwards.
C. ailerons and spoilers moving symmetrically upwards.
221. Fly-by-wire roll control is achieved by. (Level 2)
A. spoilers and ailerons.
B. ailerons.
C. spoilers.
222. The movement of fly-by-wire control surfaces are. (Level 2)
A. hydraulically controlled and electrically actuated.
B. both electrically controlled and electrically actuated.
C. electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated.
223. Convert the binary word 1100 to decimal. (Level 1)
A. 11
B. 16
C. 12
224. An FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-
nav, also provides. (Level 2)
A. dedicated status warnings.
B. take-off and landing warnings.
C. GPWS warnings.
225. If an EFIS has 3 symbol generators. What is the purpose of the 3rd
symbol generator?. (Level 1)
A. Comparison with No.1 symbol generator.
B. Parity function.
C. Standby.
226. FMS operational program is updated every. (Level 1)
A. 90 days.
B. 28 days.
C. 7 days.
227. An FDR fitted to a helicopter begins recording. (Level 1)
A. when power is applied to the aircraft.

B. on take-off.
C. on engine start-up.
228. The FMS databases consist of. (Level 1)
A. one navigation and one performance database.
B. one performance and two navigation databases.
C. two performance and one navigation database.
229. The FMS can update the IRS position outputs by using
information from either. (Level 2)
A. VOR and DME only.
B. GPS, DME, LOC and VOR.
C. DME and GPS only.
230. The accepted error from INS/IRS is. (Level 2)
A. 3 miles / hour + 3 miles.
B. 2 miles per hour + 3 miles.
C. 1 mile/hour+3 miles.
231. Before an IRS can complete the alignment sequence. (Level 1)
A. the current present position must be entered.
B. either the last or current position must be entered.
C. the shutdown present position must be entered.
232. What warnings can an FMS provide?. (Level 1)
A. Discrete warnings.
B. Spurious faults.
C. Ground faults only.
233. Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System. (Level 1)
A. performs in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by carrying out
a BITE interrogation.
B. performs in-flight BITE interrogation only.
C. give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status.
234. If a data message is made up of 1s and 0s, it is. (Level 1)
A. analogue.
B. binary.
C. digital.
235. The control of the speed or rate that the flight director command
bars move can be controlled by. (Level 2)
A. position feedback.
B. rate or velocity feedback.
C. amplifier gain.
236. The Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance
mode of operation. (Level 1)
A. on the ground only.
B. in the air only.
C. either in the air or on the ground.
237. The third EFIS Symbol Generator is operated. (Level 2)
A. in an emergency.
B. with EICAS.

C. as a standby to the No1 and No2 system.

238. EFIS displays of the right hand and left hand displays are
compared by comparators in the. (Level 2)
A. FMS.
B. EICAS.
C. Symbol Generators.
239. What is the approximate earth rate?. (Level 2)
A. 10°/hour.
B. 5°/hour.
C. 15°/hour.
240. An IRS has. (Level 2)
A. two or three accelerometers depending on the system.
B. three accelerometers.
C. two accelerometers.
241. IRS Laser Ring Gyros provide. (Level 2)
A. rate of movement about an axis.
B. displacement about an axis.
C. both rate and displacement about an axis.
242. What are the outputs of a Digital ADC?. (Level 2)
A. TAS, MACH, Altitude and TAT.
B. TAS, MACH, Altitude, TAT and SAT.
C. TAS, MACH and Altitude.
243. Fly By Wire systems in the fully active mode, the actuators will.
(Level 2)
A. both be active.
B. both be in damping mode, awaiting control inputs.
C. one in active mode, one in damping mode.
244. On a Fly By Wire system, what controls the stab trim?. (Level 2)
A. ELAC and SEC.
B. SEC.
C. ELAC.
245. Convert the binary word 1110 to decimal. (Level 1)
A. 12
B. 14
C. 15
246. The minimum requirement for a cockpit voice recorder to begin
operating is. (Level 2)
A. on engine start-up.
B. on commencing the takeoff roll.
C. once established in the en-route climb.
247. Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting Systems is
used to. (Level 2)
A. download aircraft status reports.
B. make telephone calls.
C. allow the pilot of an aircraft to talk to base.

248. B-RNAV system must be capable of. (Level 2)

A. holding six waypoints.
B. displaying distance and bearing to waypoint.
C. reversing the waypoints for.
249. The basic principle of radar is based upon. (Level 2)
A. the amount of power in the signal returned.
B. the time delay between outward and returning pulse.
C. ultrasonic wave propagation.
250. What systems does the ADC feed?. (Level 2)
A. Altimeter / FMS / secondary radar.
B. Cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / Altimeter.
C. Standby altimeter/machmeter.
251. Which systems does a modern ADC give information to?. (Level 2)
A. EFIS.
B. EICAS.
C. Flight control computer, Air Data Instrument, Engine systems.
252. Where do the outputs from a DADC go?. (Level 2)
A. EHSI.
B. EADI.
C. IRMP: Inertial Reference Mode Panel.
253. How many satellite signals are required to achieve precise 3D
positioning?. (Level 2)
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
254. The minimum requirement for an aeroplane CVR is. (Level 2)
A. from power on.
B. from engine start.
C. from beginning of take off roll.
255. An Inertial Navigation System (INS/IRS) computes distance from
acceleration by. (Level 2)
A. two successive integrations.
B. a simple integration.
C. a differentiation followed by an integration.
256. Convert the binary number 110010 to decimal. (Level 1)
A. 80
B. 50
C. 34
257. Before the aircraft is moved from the loading pier the pilot must.
(Level 2)
A. insert the longitude and latitude of the first waypoint into the INS.
B. set the altitude to be fed into the INS.
C. insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the IRS.
258. An IRS has. (Level 2)
A. accelerometers and gyros fixed to a the airframe.

B. accelerometers fixed to the airframe and gyros on a stable platform.

C. accelerometers on a stable platform and gyros fixed to the airframe.
259. An IRS system requires data for wind computation from. (Level 2)
A. Doppler System.
B. satellites.
C. central Air Data Computer.
260. The FMS carries out a Rho/Theta navigation function, the purpose
of this is to. (Level 2)
A. update the IRS system with an accurate position fix of latitude and
longitude.
B. to update the VOR and DME systems with an accurate position fix.
C. to update the EMS with the new lateral flight profile for the flight
plan.
261. The FMS is updated. (Level 2)
A. automatically by update data from the ACARS.
B. by an aircraft engineer updating the system either by a magnetic tape
or floppy disc.
C. by the aircrew by reference to the Tech Log.
262. Pitch Control of a fly by wire system is achieved by. (Level 2)
A. stabilizer only.
B. elevators only.
C. stabilizer and elevator.
263. In a fly by wire system, if the pilot control input is derived from a
side stick controller:. (Level 2)
A. there is no control surface feedback to the side stick.
B. control surface feedback is fed to the side stick.
C. there will be only control surface feedback to the side stick after a
computer failure.
264. A basic IRS platform has. (Level 2)
A. 3 accelerometers and 2 laser gyros.
B. 2 Accelerometers and 3 laser gyros.
C. 3 accelerometers and 3 laser gyros.
265. What must be entered into the IRS before the aircraft can be
moved?. (Level 2)
A. Flight plan.
B. Present position.
C. Cruise height.
266. The FMS Operational Database is. (Level 2)
A. updated once a month.
B. is fed with information on aircraft weight, cruise altitude and cost
index before take off.
C. needs no update information.
267. Convert the hexadecimal number D into decimal. (Level 1)
A. 13
B. 15

C. 14
268. Control surface feedback is fed back to. (Level 2)
A. the Flight Control Computer only.
B. the side stick controller only.
C. the Flight Control Computer and side stick controller.
269. The accelerometer output in an INS/IRS is. (Level 2)
A. integrated once to give distance.
B. integrated twice to give velocity.
C. integrated twice to give distance.
270. An INS/IRS Battery Unit provides. (Level 2)
A. standby power only whilst in flight.
B. standby power when airborne and on the ground.
C. standby power only on the ground.
271. If a fly by wire actuator loses hydraulic power the control surface
will. (Level 2)
A. automatically move back to the neutral position.
B. remain rigid in the failure position.
C. remain in the failure position but may move due to aerodynamic
pressure.
272. IRS alignment. (Level 2)
A. takes up to 10 minutes and the present position can be entered at
any time during alignment.
B. takes up to 10 minutes and present position must be entered before
alignment.
C. takes up to 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down present
position is used for the alignment.
273. A fault light appears on the IRS Mode Selector Unit during the
alignment sequence. The correct action is. (Level 2)
A. immediately switch off and select the standby system.
B. select HDG/STS on the Inertial System Display Unit (ISDU), observe
the action code in the right alpha/numeric display.
C. refer to the warning display on the EICAS/ECAM system.
274. A FMS has a total of how many Databases. (Level 2)
A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
275. Fly by wire High Speed protection is. (Level 2)
A. to prevent tuck under.
B. to increase the pitch angle as speed increases.
C. to prevent high speed stall.
276. An IRS Laser gyro provides. (Level 2)
A. detection of the rate of movement about an aircraft axis.
B. detection of the earths gravitational force to establish true north.
C. detection of the earths rotation to establish true north.
277. The left and right cockpit displays. (Level 2)

A. are supplied from separate Symbol Generators at all times.

B. are supplied from the same Symbol Generator.
C. will only be supplied from the same symbol generator when all other
symbol generators have failed.
278. Convert decimal 15 into binary. (Level 1)
A. 1111
B. 1101
C. 1110
279. A single failure of a fly by wire control surface computer will.
(Level 2)
A. cause the system to revert to an alternate law of operation.
B. not have any operational effect on the system.
C. cause the system to revert to a direct law of operation.
280. What are the outputs from digital clocks used for?. (Level 2)
A. Flight data acquisition unit, Flight management computer and Voice
recorder.
B. VOR, ILS and DME.
C. Weather radar, TCAS and ACARS.
281. A full operation system BITE check will carry out a internal system
test that ensures the system meets design requirements and is
operational. (Level 2)
A. but will not move the controls.
B. as well as checking full system and will move the controls to their
stops.
C. as well as checking full system but will not move the controls to their
stops.
282. All Monitors for EIS
A. are same type in all aircrafts
B. are same type in an aircraft
C. are difference type in an aircraft
283. All modern aircraft use
A. Electronic Instrument Display Systems
B. Analoge Indicator
C. Analoge technology
284. Convert 448 to hex. (Level 1)
A. 22 Base16.
B. 36 Base16.
C. 24 Base16.
285. Convert decimal 15 into hexadecimal. (Level 1)
A. G.
B. E.
C. F.
286. What is 345 in binary?. (Level 1)
A. 100111001
B. 110011001

C. 101011001
287. Convert 1D to binary. (Level 1)
A. 11101
B. 29
C. 101001
288. Convert 2C hex to octal. (Level 1)
A. 35
B. 44
C. 54
289. A hexadecimal is a number to base. (Level 1)
A. 2
B. 16
C. 8
290. 1012 converted to decimal is. (Level 1)
A. 52
B. 210
C. 510
291. The binary coded decimal number 10011000 expressed as a
decimal number is. (Level 1)
A. 1528
B. 9810
C. 1522
292. The decimal number 7 expressed as a binary number is. (Level 1)
A. 101 Base 2.
B. 111 Base 2.
C. 7 Base 2.
293. Convert 011101 binary to octal. (Level 1)
A. 25
B. 35
C. 33
294. Binary Number: 110010 is. (Level 1)
A. 80
B. 50
C. 34
295. Binary addition of 1101 + 101101 is. (Level 1)
A. 58
B. 70
C. 61
296. The binary number 11010111 is expressed as a decimal is. (Level
1)
A. 107
B. 215
C. 53
297. The octal number 1001 expressed as a decimal is. (Level 1)
A. 713

B. 613
C. 513
298. Engine parameters are displayed on. (Level 1)
A. ECAM.
B. EHSI.
C. FMSCDU.
299. If a signal has quantity in volts and physical position it is. (Level 1)
A. digital.
B. synchronous.
C. analogue.
300. Within a computer controlled flight system, position feedback is
converted from. (Level 1)
A. position feedback to rate feedback.
B. analogue to digital.
C. digital to analogue.
301. What is serial to parallel and vice-versa called?. (Level 1)
A. Switching.
B. Multiplex/Demultiplex.
C. Encoder/Decoder.
302. A thyristor is a device which has. (Level 1)
A. a positive temperature coefficient.
B. a negative temperature coefficient.
C. a temperature coefficient of zero.
303. Physical variables in quantitative forms, such as voltage or
angular rotation of a shaft are. (Level 1)
A. digital.
B. analogue.
C. binary.
304. A D to A converter is required to produce an output range of 0 to
10V. This can be achieved by. (Level 1)
A. a non inverting op amp connected in series with output.
B. an inverting op amp connected in series with output.
C. a differentiator with a 100 Kilohm feedback resistor.
305. A D to A converter would use a precision amplifier to. (Level 1)
A. compensate for the variation of the feedback resistor with
temperature.
B. ensure that the output voltages remain accurate.
C. ensure that the input voltage remains accurate.
306. A given transducer provides a voltage which corresponds to true
heading. This voltage can beconverted to 'bits' by using a. (Level 1)
A. analogue to digital converter.
B. digital to analogue converter.
C. commutator.
307. An A to D converter uses successive approximation to. (Level 1)
A. increase resolution.

B. increase accuracy.
C. increase speed.
308. An R-2R D to A converter uses. (Level 1)
A. two values of resistors whose precision is not important.
B. two values of precision resistors.
C. resistors whose values are logarithmic.
309. What is the fixed feature of an ADI?. (Level 1)
A. The glideslope pointer.
B. The aircraft symbol.
C. The lateral deviation bar.
310. In arinc 629, LRUs are programmed to transmit. (Level 2)
A. one at a time.
B. one transmits and one recieves.
C. all at the same time.
311. In aircraft use, fibre optic cables should comply with. (Level 2)
A. ARINC 629 standard.
B. ARIND 429 standard.
C. ARIND 636 standard.
312. ARINC 629 databus is. (Level 2)
A. one cable, bi-directional.
B. two cables, uni-directional.
C. two cables, bi directional.
313. An ARINC 573 data bus is used. (Level 2)
A. to input into a Digital Flight Data Recorder.
B. to supply digital inputs from a Symbol Generator to the EADI and
EHSI.
C. to input into a FDR Digital Acquisition Unit.
314. An ARINC 429 bus uses. (Level 2)
A. a twisted shielded pair of wires.
B. two bi-directional twin sheathed and earthed wires.
C. a single twin wire cable for each transmitter.
315. The ARINC 429 data bus word systems use. (Level 2)
A. binary coded decimal.
B. decimal numbering.
C. hexadecimal numbering.
316. ARINC 573 is related to what system?. (Level 2)
A. Weather Radar.
B. FDR.
C. INS.
317. ARINC 629 current mode couplers are. (Level 2)
A. capacitive.
B. resistive.
C. inductive.
318. ARINC 629 databus is. (Level 2)
A. one bus, bi-directional data flow.

B. two buses, unidirectional.

C. two buses, bi-directional data flow.
319. Normal transmission order of ARINC 629 LRUs in periodic mode
is in order of. (Level 2)
A. shortest to largest TI.
B. shortest to largest TG.
C. power up.
320. On an EADI, the Flight Director command bars show. (Level 2)
A. the path with respect to the horizon.
B. the required path with respect to the actual path.
C. the actual path with respect to the required path.
321. In an ARINC 429 wordstring, bits 1 to 8 represent the. (Level 2)
A. destination LRU address.
B. monitored parameter.
C. message.
322. ARINC 629 terminal transmit interval is. (Level 2)
A. common to each terminal.
B. unique to each terminal.
C. when all terminals are quiet.
323. MIL-STD-1533 is a data bus for. (Level 2)
A. Inertial Reference System.
B. Flight Data Recorders.
C. Digital Information Transfer System.
324. ARINC 629 periodic mode is used for. (Level 2)
A. transferring data only on events important to aircraft operation.
B. database loads.
C. normal operation.
325. How is data coupled to an ARINC 629 data bus?. (Level 2)
A. By a resistive pickup.
B. By an inductive pickup.
C. By a capacitive pickup.
326. How does MIL-STD-1533 put data onto the databus?. (Level 2)
A. Through the bus controller.
B. R1 (remote terminal).
C. SSIFU (sub-system interface unit).
327. The parity bit in digital information is used. (Level 2)
A. to check the validity of data information.
B. for BITE programs.
C. to check the status of the system.
328. ARINC 429 SDI word format is at bits. (Level 2)
A. 32
B. 1-8.
C. 9-10.
329. What is the parity bit for on an ARINC 429 bus?. (Level 2)
A. To act as a terminal gap in an emergency.

B. To delay the signal.

C. To check for corruption during transmission of a word.
330. An ARINC 429 word label format is. (Level 1)
A. hexadecimal.
B. octal.
C. binary.
331. What instrument includes a display of a rising runway?. (Level 2)
A. ECAM.
B. EHSI.
C. EADI.
332. How many LRUs can be connected to an ARINC 429 data bus?.
(Level 2)
A. 120
B. 60
C. 20
333. ARINC 629 terminal transmit interval is. (Level 1)
A. common to each terminal.
B. is when all transmissions are quiet.
C. unique to each terminal.
334. An ARINC 429 bus uses. (Level 2)
A. a twisted shielded pair of wires.
B. a single twin cable for each transmitter.
C. two bi-directional twin, sheathed and earthed wires.
335. ARINC 429 data bus systems uses. (Level 2)
A. hexadecimal numbering.
B. binary coded decimal.
C. decimal numbering.
336. An ARINC 429 Binary Coded Decimal word occupies word bits.
(Level 1)
A. 1-8.
B. 11-29.
C. 11-28.
337. An ARINC 429 system uses a. (Level 2)
A. 20 bit word over a bi-directional bus.
B. 32 bit word over a twisted pair of wires.
C. 16 bit word over a twisted pair of wires.
338. An ARINC 629 characteristic is. (Level 2)
A. all LRUs can transmit and receive at the same time.
B. data can transmit in both directions down the data bus.
C. all LRUs can transmit at the same time.
339. What limits the number of ARINC 429 receivers on a bus?. (Level
2)
A. The speed and size.
B. The weight.
C. The parallel input impedance.

340. Data is transferred on the MIL-STD-1553B by. (Level 1)

A. non return to zero.
B. Manchester bi-phase.
C. bi-polar return to zero.
341. How are engine indications sent to the FDR?. (Level 2)
A. Source isolated.
B. Via ARINC 629.
C. Via ARINC 573.
342. What functions are available on the EHSI?. (Level 1)
A. Full arc and Wx only.
B. Full arc, Wx and Map Mode.
C. Full Arc only.
343. What system uses base 8?. (Level 1)
A. ARINC 429, in dataword labels only.
B. ARINC 573.
C. ARINC 629.
344. On an ARINC 629 data bus, the maximum amount of current-
mode couplers per data bus is. (Level 2)
A. 46
B. 120
C. 64
345. To connect an LRU to the data bus. (Level 2)
A. a terminal controller and interface module only is required.
B. current mode coupler, terminal controller and a production break is
required.
C. a current mode coupler, serial interface module and terminal
controller is required.
346. A current-mode coupler contains an E-Core assembly. The
purpose of the E-Core is to provide effective screening of the signal
through the. (Level 2)
A. current-mode coupler.
B. couple the signal to the data bus.
C. enable easy access for monitoring of the signal.
347. The ARINC 429 low rate of transmission is. (Level 2)
A. 100 kbits/second with high of 12-14 Mbits/second.
B. 12-14 Kbits/second with high of 100 kBits/second.
C. 12-14 Mbits/second with high of 100 Mbits/secon.
348. A NOR gate with both inputs inverted becomes a. (Level 2)
A. NAND gate.
B. AND gate.
C. OR gate.
349. Adding invertors to the two inputs of an AND gate makes a. (Level
2)
A. OR gate.
B. NOR gate.

C. NAND gate.
350. Which logic gate can be represented as a parallel circuit?. (Level
2)
A. OR gate.
B. Exclusive OR gate.
C. NAND gate.
351. Making an inverter from a NAND or NOR gate is achieved by.
(Level 2)
A. connecting the inputs.
B. inverting the input.
C. connecting two in series.
352. An AND gate output is 1 when inputs are. (Level 2)
A. both 1.
B. both 0.
C. 1 and 0.
353. A typical Electronic System has the following components
A. Display Computers, Display Units and Control Panels
B. Display Computers, Display Units and Keyboards
C. Display Computers, Display Units and Mouse
354. What generation of display unit are installed in the early 80’s
A. LCD display units
B. Simple cathod ray tubes
C. Display units
355. Which generation of display unit are installed since 90’s
A. LCD display units
B. Simple cathod ray tubes
C. Analogue Display Units
356. Which Display Unit indicate the data of naviagtion system?
A. Primary Flight Display (PFD)
B. Navigation Display (ND)
C. System Display (SD)
357. The lower center display unit is called
A. System display
B. Engine Indication display
C. Warning display
358. The two groups indicators in the cockpit are
A. Flight surveillance and Engine surveillance
B. Aircraft surveillance and Engine surveillance
C. Flight surveillance and Aircraft surveillance
359. The inputs of Display computers are:
A. Navigation data, Auto Flight System data and Display Unit
B. Engine data and Auto Flight System data and Display Unit
C. Navigation data, Auto Flight System data, Engine data and Data from
various aircraft systems.
360. Each pilot has two Display Units. They are

A. Primary Flight Display (PFD) and System Display (SD)

B. Primary Flight Display (PFD) and Navigation Display (ND)
C. Navigation Display (ND) and System Display (SD)
361. How many display computers on aircraft?
A. Two display computers
B. Three display computers
C. There are at least two display computers. Large aircraft have a third
display computer for redundancy
362. Which informations are displayed on the Electronic Flight
Instruments?
A. The navigation data
B. The navigation data and the information about the activities of the
auto flight system
C. The information about the activities of the auto flight system
363. The upper center display shows
A. Alerts from various aircraft systems if something is out of limit
B. Aircraft System data
C. The information about the activities of the auto flight system
364. Which components are form a display unit
A. Cathod ray tube and Symbol Generator Unit (SGU)
B. Cathod ray tube and symbol generator
C. Cathod ray tube and Display Management Computer (DMC)
365. Which indicator is belongs to Flight surveillance group?
A. Heading indicator
B. Position Indication
C. EGT indicator
366. Which indicator is belongs to Aircraft surveillance group?
A. Position indication
B. Altimeter
C. Fuel indicator
367. The Base of Binary Number System is
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
368. What is used for the power of 10?
A. Binary.
B. Decimal.
C. Octal
369. If a data message is made up of 1s and 0s, it is.
A. analogue
B. binary
C. digital
370. A hexadecimal is a number to base
A. 2
B. 8

C. 16
371. A computer message 3B4 is.
A. Binary
B. hexadecimal
C. Octal
372. A number represented as a physical quantity, e.g. voltage or
speed of rotation is
A. digital
B. analogue
C. Discrete
373. If a signal has quantity in volts and physical position it is
A. digital
B. synchronous
C. analogue
374. An A/D (Analogue/Digital) converter converts
A. A continuous voltage signal, or analog signal into a multi-bit digital
word
B. A continuous voltage signal into a multi-bit digital word
C. Discrete signal into a multi-bit digital word
375. The sawtooth principle uses
A. a sawtooth created by the converter and compates it with the output
voltage
B. a sawtooth created by the converter and compates it with the input
voltage
C. a sawtooth created by the converter and compates it with the input
current
376. A ramp generation A/D converter compares
A. the unknown input voltage to a D/A with output voltage
B. the certain input voltage to a D/A connected as a ramp generator
C. the unknown input voltage to a D/A connected as a ramp generator
377. Why does an ARINC databus system send data to LRUs in series?
A. Saves weight
B. More information can be sent
C. Takes less time
378. An ARINC 429 bus uses
A. a single twin cable for each transmitter
B. a twisted shielded pair of wires
C. two bi-directional twin, sheathed and earthed wires
379. In the ARINC 429 digital information transfer system, data may
travel in
A. both directions on the same bus simultaneously
B. one direction only
C. both directions on the same bus sequentially by time multiplexing
380. ARINC 629 is used for
A. emergency only

B. a backup to ARINC 429

C. supports a multi-transmitter and bidirectional approach to digital
data communications
381. ARINC 629 is
A. half duplex
B. full duplex
C. simplex
382. A simplex system has
A. one transmitter, one receiver
B. a bus controller and separate controller
C. one transmitter, many receivers
383. An ARINC 429 system uses a.
A. 20 bit word over a bi-directional bus
B. 32 bit word over a twisted pair of wires
C. 16 bit word over a twisted pair of wires
384. RZ bi-polar modulation consists of bits which are one of
states?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
385. Where is the parity bit installed in a data word?
A. Front
B. End LSB
C. End MSB
386. What system uses base 8?
A. ARINC 429, in dataword labels only
B. ARINC 573
C. ARINC 629
387. ARINC 429 SDI word format is at bits
A. 32
B. 30-31
C. 9-10
388. In an ARINC 429 digital word bit number 32 is used for
A. terminating the data field
B. identifying word type
C. checking parity
389. In an ARINC 429 Word label-representing heading is 320, this is
represented in bits 1- 8 as
A. 01011001
B. 00001011
C. 01101000
390. How is the word label 206 written in ARINC 429?
A. Binary 11000110
B. Octal 01100001
C. Decimal 206

391. An ARINC 429 Binary Coded Decimal word occupies word bits
A. 1-8
B. 11-28
C. 11-29
392. In ARINC 429 data field is bits 11 to 28. If the bits 11 to 18 had pad
bits, the L.S.B. Of the data would be
A. Bit 11
B. Bit 18
C. Bit 19
393. An ARINC 629 stub cable
A. connects single directional data between the LRU and current mode
coupler
B. connects bi-directional data between the LRU and current mode
coupler
C. connects bi-directional data between two LRUs
394. The general arrangement of ARINC 629 includes
A. databus cable, current mode coupler, stub cable
B. current mode coupler, databus cable only
C. current mode coupler, stub cable only
395. To connect an LRU to the data bus
A. a terminal controller and interface module only is required
B. current mode coupler, terminal controller and a production break is
required
C. a current mode coupler, serial interface module and terminal
controller is required
396. ARINC 629 current mode couplers are
A. capacitive
B. inductive
C. resistive
397. When the voltage that represents a logic 1 state is less than the
voltage that represents a logic 0 state, the logic being used is
A. positive
B. negative
C. either positive or negative
398. In Positive Logic representation
A. state 1 is more positive than state 0
B. state 0 is more positive than state 1
C. both states have same positive voltages but stage 1 has more current
399. The output of a NOT gate is logic 1. The input is
A. logic 0
B. logic 1
C. both logic 0 and 1
400. For logical combination there are only three basic functions
A. INVERTER function, AND function and SUB function
B. INVERTER function, SUB function and OR function

C. INVERTER function, AND function and OR function

401. With INVERTER function. What is correct statement?
A. If the input signal is a logical 1. The output signal is also a logical 1
B. If the input signal is a logical 0. The output signal is also a logical 0
C. If the input signal is a logical 1. The output signal is a logical 0 and vice
versa
402. The Inverter (NOT-Function)
A. inverts the input signal
B. is called a boolean
complement
C. inverts the input signal. It is also called a boolean complement
403. For logic AND gate, the output has a logic 0 if
A. All inputs have a logic 0
B. One or more inputs have a logic 0
C. All inputs have a logic 1
404. For logic AND gate, the output has a logic 1 if
A. All inputs have a logic 1
B. One or more inputs have a logic 1
C. All inputs have a logic 0
405. An AND gate with inverted inputs and an inverted output is
equivalent to
A. an OR gate
B. a NOR gate
C. a NAND gate
406. A NAND gate has inputs A and B and output C. If the output (c)
was zero, what are the inputs?
A. A=0, B=0
B. A=1 , B=1
C. A=1 ,B=0
407. Adding invertors to the two inputs of an AND gate makes a
A. OR gate
B. NOR gate
C. NAND gate
408. What sort of gate requires two positive voltages to operate?
A. AND
B. OR
C. NAND
409. Which logic gate can be represented as a parallel circuit?
A. OR gate
B. Exclusive OR gate
C. AND gate
410. For logic NAND gate (Not-AND-Gate), the output have logic 1 if
A. All inputs have a logic 1
B. One input has a logic 1
C. One input has a logic 0

411. For logic NAND gate (Not-AND-Gate), the output have logic 0 if
A. All inputs have a logic 0
B. All inputs have a logic 1
C. One input has a logic 1
412. What sort of gate requires two negative input voltages to
operate?
A. NAND
B. AND
C. NOR
413. What is a Computer?
A. is a machine that processes data by means of digital technologies
B. is a machine that processes data by means of analogue technologies
C. is a machine that receive data by means of digital technologies
414. What does Hardware mean?
A. all devices that are required to process binary data in analogue
systems
B. all devices that are required to collect binary data in analogue
systems
C. all devices and components that are required to process binary data
in digital systems
415. What is the software?
A. Software is an order of instructions that tells how to process data
B. Software is a common word which is used to describe all kinds of
programms
C. Software is a programm
416. Which following form a computer?
A. Hardware and Processor
B. Program and Software
C. Hardware and Software
417. A computer consist of at least the C.P.U and
A. Memory and input & output port
B. Memory, ALU, input & output port
C. Memory, input & output interface and bus system
418. Which components are In the “Computation“ section of the FCC?
A. Processor and Analogue Digital Converter
B. Processor and Memory
C. Processor and Bus-System
419. How many bytes can be carried in a 32 bit word?
A. 8 bytes
B. 32 bytes
C. 4 bytes
420. The advantage of DRAM over SRAM is
A. Are cheaper to manufacture
B. Has a larger storage capacity per chip area
C. They operate slower

421. DRAM
A. requires a refreshing charge
B. memory is stored when power supply is removed
C. it does not require a refreshing charge
422. Which type of memory that the information stored is lost as soon
as the power supply is switched off?
A. ROM
B. PROM
C. RAM
423. Fibre optic cables
A. are immune to EMI (Electromagnetic Interference)
B. attenuate EMI
C. are susceptible to EMI
424. A disadvantage of a fibre optic cable is
A. Couplings susceptible to ingress of fluid
B. Shallow bend radius allowed
C. Terminations require special care
425. What is the main disadvantage of a fibre optic data bus?
A. Less strong and durable when compared to twisted pair and coaxial
cable
B. Multiple connections are economically impractical
C. Bend radius and moisture ingress at connections
426. What kind of light is used in a fibre optic systems?
A. Infrared
B. Visible
C. Ultraviolet
427. Light travels along a fibre optic by
A. refraction
B. reflection
C. dispersion
428. CRT’s are used in
A. CDU’s and EIS or IDS
B. CDU’s, EIS or IDS and Weather-Radar Displays
C. EIS or IDS and Weather-Radar Displays
429. Advantages of CRT is
A. Coloured multifunctional displays
B. Light weight
C. Low power consumption
430. Disadvantages of CRT are
A. limited lifespan and temperature sensitive
B. thermal and temperature sensitive
C. limited lifespan and high power consumption
431. In CRT. The electron beams are pulled towards the screen
(Anode) by
A. a high voltage

B. a low voltage
C. all voltage
432. A Colour-CRT contains
A. three terminals
B. three cathodes
C. three anodes and one cathode
433. A CRT display
A. is monochrome
B. has three colours only
C. has infinite colours
434. When mixing Red and Green colours get
A. Cyan colour
B. Yellow colour
C. Magenta colour
435. Three different colours which A picture is composed are
A. green, blue and yellow
B. green, yellow and red
C. red, green and blue
436. Advantages of LCD are
A. low energy consumption and good illuminated
B. good illuminated and temperature sensitive
C. low energy consumption and temperature sensitive
437. Disadvantages of LCD is
A. Flat
B. High energy consumption
C. Temperature sensitive
438. For CRT display In case one of the colours fails
A. All pictures still available
B. a white picture is no longer displayable
C. a red picture is no longer displayable
439. Which mode deflects the electron beam in lines across the
screen?
A. stroke scan mode
B. stroke scan mode and raster scan mode
C. raster scan mode
440. Which mode deflects the electron beam along the shape of the
symbols to be displayed?
A. stroke scan mode
B. raster scan mode
C. stroke scan mode and raster scan mode
441. Which mode is used for background indications like the
blue/brown picture from the artificial horizon?
A. stroke scan mode
B. raster scan mode
C. stroke scan mode and raster scan mode

442. An LCD display has the advantage over a CRT display of a

A. low energy consumption
B. temperature sensitive
C. the fluid might freeze
443. An LCD display has the advantage over a CRT display of a
A. temperature sensitive
B. the fluid might freeze
C. long lifespan
444. At low ambient temperatures, an LCD screen
A. is slower to update as data changes
B. viewing angle becomes larger
C. loses contrast
445. To drive LCDs
A. Direct current must be used
B. Alternate current must not be used
C. Direct current must not be used
446. HUD are succsessively installed in many aircraft to
A. improve takeoff abilities under bad weather conditions
B. improve landing abilities under bad weather conditions
C. use in cruise only
447. OLED−Technology has the advantage over LCD−Technology of
A. The colours are brighter
B. The screen can also be read from a side view
C. The colours are brighter, the screen can also be read from a side view
and is thinner and even flexible
448. What is electrostatic discharge?
A. Electrostatic discharge is always present in our environment,
consequently also at our place of work
B. Electrostatic discharge is not present in our environment
C. Electrostatic discharge occurs whena. the ground lead on a wrist
strap touches the skin
449. ESD is acronym for
A. Electrical System Data
B. Electrostatic Sensitive Devices
C. Electronic System Display
450. A BITE-Test (Built In Test Equipment) is
A. is a test that runs when the equipment is switched on and checks the
hardware (Power-Up Test)
B. is a test that check the system operation
C. is a test that checks the software
451. Die Check Sum
A. is the sum of digits retrieved via the software
B. is the sum of digits retrieved via the software but which can not
detect faults in the memory

C. is the sum of digits retrieved via the software and which can detect
faults in the memory
452. Electrostatic discharge can be
A. Non destructive
B. Little destructive
C. Very destructive
453. What precautions are required when removing ESDs equipment?
A. No special precautions are required
B. Keep one hand on the airframe
C. Assuring that suitable grounding techniques are applied to set both
personnel and the device with the same potential
454. Personnel performing work on ESD components and devices must
have
A. ESD tools
B. A good knowledge of the procedural guide−lines pertaining to ESD
C. Protect
455. How to identifying components sensitive to ESD?
A. By a label on component
B. By refer to associated document
C. All aircraft components are ESD components
456. The static load is stored in those material which are
A. Non-conductive and tend to look for the nearest way to discharge
B. Conductive and tend to look for the nearest way to discharge
C. No special precautions are required
457. The damage result of ESD is
A. Always reparable
B. Always irreparable
C. Not effect to system
458. The Electrostatic discharge can be
A. extremely fast
B. full of energy
C. be extremely fast and full of energy
459. Which voltage can be absolutely fatal for components?
A. Voltages from well below 100 volts
B. Voltages from above 1000 volts
C. Any voltages
460. Static electricity is created as soon as
A. two materials are rubbed together
B. two materials are rubbed together, are separated
C. two materials are rubbed together, are separated or are in moving in
some kind of fluid or gaseous form
461. To transport and dispatch ESD components
A. using conductive material
B. using non-conductive material
C. using semiconductive material

462. Personnel performing work on ESD components and devices must

A. assuring that suitable grounding techniques are applied to personnel
B. assuring that suitable grounding techniques are applied to device
C. assuring that suitable grounding techniques are applied to set both
personnel and the device with the same potential
463. To prevent any charging of personnel, tools and workbench
A. No special precautions are required
B. Application of static neutralizers
C. Keep one hand on the workbench
464. What is the software?
A. the program of the arithmetic process in the computer
B. the program of the logic process in the computer
C. the program of the arithmetic and logic process in the computer
465. Each digital LRU (Line Replaceable Unit) consists of the
A. Hardware and Software
B. Hardware and Programm
C. Hardware and Memory
466. Software Level A failure is defined as
A. No Effect
B. Catastrophic
C. Major
467. Software Level B failure is defined as
A. Minor
B. Major
C. Hazardous
468. Software Level C failure is defined as
A. Major
B. Minor
C. Catastrophic
469. Software Level D failure is defined as
A. Hazardous
B. Minor
C. No Effect
470. Software Level E failure is defined as
A. Catastrophic
B. Major
C. No Effect
471. Software can be done by maintenance personnel is classified in
A. level A
B. level E
C. level B
472. In any case software must be guaranteed that
A. other systems will be affected
B. no other systems will be affected
C. Inprogress loading must be acknowledged

473. Which software also known as Application Software?

A. The Core Software
B. Data Base Software
C. The Operational Software
474. Which software can be done by maintenance personnel, but only
if respective documentation is available?
A. Software which is classified in level A
B. Software which is classified in level B
C. Software which is classified in level E
475. Which software only authorized personal may modify?
A. Software which is classified in level A
B. Software which is classified in level B
C. Software which is classified in level C
476. An aircraft system allocated a software level of C that, should it
fail due to a software error, may cause
A. injuries to a large proportion of occupants
B. injuries to some occupants
C. no injuries to occupants
477. An aircraft system allocated a Criticality Category of Hazardous
has a Software Level of
A. Level A
B. Level C
C. Level B
478. An aircraft system that, should it fail due to a software error,
would cause a slight increase in crew workload, has a software level of
A. Level D
B. Level B
C. Level C
479. An aircraft system with a software level of D, should it fail due to
a software error, may cause the aircraft safety margin to be
A. slightly increased
B. slightly decreased
C. significantly decreased
480. If due to a software error in an aircraft system that would cause
injuries to some of the occupants, the system has a software criticality
category of
A. hazardous effect
B. minor effect
C. major effect
481. An aircraft system that, should it fail due to a software error,
would cause no injuries to occupants, has a criticality category of
A. minor effect
B. major effect
C. hazardous effect
482. What is the effect of a level A software failure?

A. Significant reduction in safety margins

B. Loss of aircraft and / or fatalities
C. Large reduction in safety margins
483. Who can sign for a software update?
A. Design organization or the aircraft manufacturer
B. Chief pilot
C. Engineer
484. HIRF is acronym for
A. Heavily Ionised Radio Frequencies
B. High Intensity Radiated Field
C. High Intensity Radio Frequencies
485. Which systems are operated by transmitting controlled EM
radiation?
A. Radio communication systems
B. Navigation systems
C. Radio communication and navigation systems
486. The components installed in aircraft are subject to
A. Build regulations
B. Disassembly regulations
C. Installed regulations
487. EMC is acronym for
A. Electrical Monitoring Center
B. electromagnetic compability
C. Electrical Management Computer
488. EMI is acronym for
A. Electrical Measurement Index
B. Electromagnetic Indication
C. Electromagnetic interference
489. Which equipments influence the environment by electromagnetic
radiation?
A. All electric/electronic equipments
B. All electric equipments
C. All electronic equipments
490. Aircraft Components test procedures and the limitations are fixed
in
A. RTCA Document DO−160C
B. Eurocae document ED−14C
C. RTCA Document DO−160C, or in Eurocae document ED−14C
491. If the new aircraft component is critical to flight safety
A. the examination is repeated
B. the examination is repeated in reverse
C. the examination is done after install
492. How many terms are used for Electromagnetic Environment?
A. 2
B. 3

C. 4
493. The use of mobile phones is not permitted at any time in flight
due to
A. they can interfere with an aircrafts electric systems
B. they can interfere with an aircrafts electronic systems
C. they can interfere with all aircrafts systems
494. What does EMC (electromagnetic compability) mean?
A. meaning units will not adversely affect one another
B. meaning units will affect one another
C. the maximum interference allowable for a particular transmission on
495. For Aircraft Components. The specification of the appliance
describes
A. its Technical Standard Order (TSO)
B. Its Joints Technical Standard Order (TSO)
C. Its Technical Standard Order (TSO) for the American area, or Joint TSO
for the European area
496. What is EMI (Electromagnetic interference)?
A. is the minimum interference allowable for a particular transmission
on a bus or wire
B. is the maximum interference allowable for a particular transmission
on a bus or wire
C. is the maximum interference allowable for a particular reception on a
bus or wire
497. To keep EMI (Electromagnetic interference) within limits it can be
necessary to install
A. EMI-filter on the receiver and transmitter side of the unit
B. EMI-filter on the receiver side of the unit only
C. EMI-filter on the transmitter side of the unit only
498. HIRF (high intensity radiated field) is
A. the zone of high radiation which is caused by environment
B. the zone of high radiation which is caused by lightning
C. the zone of high radiation which is caused by equipment such as
weather radar
499. To keep EMI (Electromagnetic interference) within limits
A. Good grounding techniques must be provided for the shielding of
antenna
B. Good grounding techniques must be provided for the shielding of
screened wires as the shielding may act as an antenna
C. Good grounding techniques must be provided for the shielding of
screened wires
500. To ensures Aircraft Components they do not exceed their fixed
tolerance values you perform
A. Testing of components
B. Remove compnent and send to shop
C. Visual check

501. Which terms are used for Electromagnetic Environment?

A. EMC (electromagnetic compability), EMI (electromagnetic
interference) and Lightning / lightning protection
B. HIRF (high intensity radiated field), EMI (electromagnetic
interference) and Lightning / lightning protection
C. EMC (electromagnetic compability), EMI (electromagnetic
interference), HIRF (high intensity radiated field) and Lightning /
lightning protection
502. With Lightning / lightning protection. What statement is correct?
A. High voltage electric discharges can produce low currents
B. High voltage electric discharges can produce high currents
C. Low voltage electric discharges can produce high currents
503. To aviod intense bursts of EM radiation
A. braids are used on wires and cables
B. braids are used on wires
C. braids are used on cables
504. ECAM system was adopted for
A. Airbus A320
B. Both Boeing and Airbus aircraft
C. Boeing 757 and 767 aircraft
505. Modern aircraft with electronic displays would display
information on airframe and engine on which system?
A. Flight management system
B. Electronic centralised aircraft monitoring system (ECAM)
C. Flight management system
506. In a typical 'Glass Cockpit' EICAS provides the following.
A. engine parameters and engine warnings only
B. engine warnings only
C. engine parameters and system warnings only
507. ACARS is an acronym for
A. Aircraft Communicating Addressing and Reporting System
B. ARINC Communicating Addressing and Reporting System
C. Airborne Communicating Addressing and Reporting System
508. The advantage of a fly by wire is
A. the reduction in mechanical connections between the computer and
control surfaces
B. the reduction in mechanical connections between the cockpit and
control surfaces
C. the reduction in electrical connections between the cockpit and
control surfaces
509. An FMS database memory is updated
A. every 365 days
B. every 28 days
C. every 30 days
510. An INS/IRS Battery Unit provides

A. standby power only whilst in flight

B. standby power only on the ground
C. standby power when airborne and on the ground
511. GPS navigation uses a constellation of satellites that is made up
of
A. 21 active and 3 spare
B. 28 active and 7 spare
C. 3 active and 21 spare
512. In a Global Positioning System (GPS), the number of satellites
required to achieve a 3 dimensional fix is
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
513. The TCAS (Traffic Alert Collision Avoidance System) computer
communicates via
A. It's antennas
B. The antennas with the TCAS computer of other aircraft
C. The antennas with the ATC transponders of other aircraft
514. Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting Systems is
used to
A. download aircraft status reports
B. make telephone calls
C. allow the pilot of an aircraft to talk to base
515. The movement of fly-by-wire control surfaces are
A. hydraulically controlled and electrically actuated
B. both electrically controlled and electrically actuated
C. electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated
516. In a fly by wire system, if the pilot control input is derived from a
side stick controller
A. there is no control surface feedback to the side stick
B. control surface feedback is fed to the side stick
C. there will be only control surface feedback to the side stick after a
computer failure
517. Control surface feedback is fed back to
A. the side stick controller only
B. the Flight Control Computer and side stick controller
C. the Flight Control Computer only
518. Fly-by-wire roll control is achieved by
A. ailerons
B. spoilers
C. spoilers and ailerons
519. On a Fly By Wire system, what controls the stab trim?
A. ELAC and SEC
B. SEC (Spoilers Elevator Computer)
C. ELAC (Elevator Aileron Computer)

520. Pitch Control of a fly by wire system is achieved by

A. stabilizer only
B. stabilizer and elevator
C. elevators only
521. In a Flight Management System (FMS), data is input manually to
the computing system through the
A. Data Acquisition Unit
B. Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring control panel
C. Multipurpose Control and Display Unit
522. The IRU primarily provides output signals for
A. attitude, ground speed, wind and inertial vertical speed
B. attitude, heading, ground speed, wind and inertial vertical speed
C. attitude, heading, wind and inertial vertical speed
523. What information is required before completion of the alignment
of an Inertial Navigation System?
A. Aircraft present position
B. Heading and attitude
C. Aircraft present position and heading