12-01-2025

2404CMD303032240015 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

1) Find the height over the earth's surface at which the weight of a body becomes half of its value at
the surface.

(1) time of radius of earth

(2) Equal to radius of earth
(3) times the radius of earth
(4) None of these

2) A body is projected up with th the escape velocity from earth's surface. The height reached by
the body is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A stone is dropped from height 'h' reaches to Earth surface in 1 sec. If the same stone taken to
Moon and dropped freely from same height then it will reach the surface of the Moon in the time
(The 'g' of Moon is 1/6 times of Earth):–

(1) second
(2) 9 second
(3) second
(4) 6 second

4) Two concentric shells have masses M and m and their radii are R and r respectively, where R > r.
What is the gravitational potential at their common centre ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

5) By what amount, the energy of a satellite of mass m has to be increased to shift it from an orbit of

radius r to orbit of radius ? (mass of earth is M)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) The depth from the surface of the earth at which the effective value of acceleration due to gravity

is is (Re = radius of earth)

(1) Re

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) If gravitational force between planet and the satellite depends on where r is orbital radius. If
v0 is orbital velocity then :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) In a certain region of space, the potential is given by : V = k[2x2 – y2 + z2]. The gravitational field
at the point (1,1,1) has magnitude = :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
9) The gravitational field in the region is given by . The work done by field in the
position shift of particle of mass 2 kg from (0,0) to (5, 4) will be :-

(1) 100 J
(2) 180 J
(3) 80 J
(4) 20 J

10) A solid sphere of diameter 0.1 m and mass 5 kg is rolling down an inclined plane with a speed
of 4 m/s. The total kinetic energy of the sphere is :

(1) 28 J
(2) 56 J
(3) 84 J
(4) 112 J

11) The escape velocity on a planet with radius double that of earth and mean density equal to that
of earth will be (escape velocity on earth = 11.2 km/sec) :-

(1) 11.2 km/sec

(2) 22.4 km/sec
(3) 5.5 km/sec
(4) 15.5 km/sec

12) Which one of the following plots represents the variation of gravitational field on a particle with
distance r due to a thin spherical shell of radius R? (r is measured from the centre of the spherical
shell)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A body rolls without slipping. The radius of gyration of the body about an axis passing through
its centre of mass is k. if radius of the body be R, then the fraction of total energy associated with its
rotational energy will be :-

(1) (k2 + R2)

(2) (k2/R2)
(3) k2/(k2 + R2)
(4) R2/(k2 + R2)

14) A solid sphere of mass m and radius R rolls without slipping on a horizontal surface such that
vc.m. = v0.

(1)
The kinetic energy of rotation is

(2)
The total kinetic energy is

(3)
The mechanical energy (assume the ground as reference) is mgR +
(4) All options are correct

15) A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls without slipping down an inclined plane of length L
and height h. What is the speed of its centre of mass when the cylinder reaches its bottom:-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

16) A body is rolling down an inclined plane. If kinetic energy of rotation is 40% of kinetic energy in
translatory state, then the body is a :-

(1) Ring
(2) Cylinder
(3) Hollow ball
(4) Solid ball

17) When a solid sphere rolls without slipping down an inclined plane making an angle θ with the
horizontal, the acceleration of its centre of mass is a. If the same sphere slides without friction, then
its acceleration will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) A thin wire of length L and mass m is bent in the form of a semicircle [Fig]. Its moment of inertia
about the axis joining its free ends will be :-

(1) Zero
(2) mL2

(3)

(4)

19) If v = v0 sinωt and I = I0 cos , calculate phase difference between 'v' and 'I' :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) The r.m.s. value of current for variable current is __________.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) An alternating current in a circuit is given by I = 20 sin(100πt + 0.05π)A. The r.m.s. value and
the frequency of current respectively are

(1) 10 A & 100 Hz

(2) 10 A & 50 Hz
(3) 10 A & 50 Hz
(4) 10 A & 100 Hz

22) The current 'i' in an inductance coil varies with time 't' according to following graph
 Which one of the following plots shows the variations of voltage in the coil

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Eddy currents are produced when

(1) A metal is kept in varying magnetic field

(2) A metal is kept in a steady magnetic field
(3) A circular coil is placed in magnetic field
(4) Through a circular coil current is flowing

24) A conducting loop having a capacitor is moving out as shown in following fig. from the magnetic

field then which plate of the capacitor will be positive :-

(1) Plate - A
(2) Plate - B
(3) Plate - A and Plate - B both
(4) None

25) A square coil ABCD is placed in x-y plane with its centre at origin. A long straight wire, passing
through origin, carries a current in negative z-direction. Current in this wire increases with time.

The induced current in the coil is :

(1) clockwise
(2) anticlockwise
(3) zero
(4) alternating

26) A wire is bent to form the double loop shown in the figure. There is a uniform magnetic field
directed into the plane of the loop. If the magnitude of this field is decreasing, induced current will

flow from

(1) A to B and C to D
(2) B to A and D to C
(3) A to B and D to C
(4) B to A and C to D

27) In a circuit a coil of resistance 2 , then magnetic flux changes from 2.0Wb to 10.0Wb in 0.2 sec.
The charge flow in the coil during this time is :–

(1) 5.0 C
(2) 4.0 C
(3) 1.0 C
(4) 0.8 C

28) Flux ϕ (in weber) in a closed circuit of resistance 10 ohm varies with time t (in sec) according to
the equation:
ϕ = 6t2 – 5t +1
What is the magnitude of the induced current at t= 0.25 sec ?

(1) 1.2 A
(2) 0.8 A
(3) 0.6 A
(4) 0.2 A

29) A uniform but time-varying magnetic field B(t) exists within a circular region of radius 'a' and is
directed into the plane of the paper as shown in figure. The magnitude of the induced electric field
at the point P at a distance 'r' from the centre of the circular region :-

(1) Is zero

(2)
Decreases as
(3) Increases as r

(4)
Decreases as

30) An emf of 5 volt is produced by a self inductance, when the current changes at a steady rate
from 3A to 2A in 1 millisecond. The value of self inductance is :

(1) Zero
(2) 5 H
(3) 5000 H
(4) 5 mH

31) A direct current of 4 A and an alternating current of peak value 4 A flow through resistance of
3Ω and 2Ω respectively. The ratio of heat produced in the two resistances in same interval of time
will be :

(1) 3 : 2
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 3 : 4
(4) 4 : 3

32) An electromagnet has stored 648 J of magnetic energy, when a current of 9A exists in its coils.
What average emf is induced if the current is reduced to zero in 0.45s?

(1) 320V
(2) 160 V
(3) 32 V
(4) 3.2 V

33) In a L-R circuit the stored energy in the inductor coil is 5 Joule and rate of heat generation is 10
Watt at a charge flow rate of one coulomb per second. The time constant of circuit is :

(1) 2 second
(2) 1 second
(3) 1.5 second
(4) Data insufficient
34) A current I = 10sin(100 πt) A is passed in first coil, which induces a maximum emf of 5 πV in
second coil. The mutual inductance between the coils is :-

(1) 5 mH
(2) 10 mH
(3) 15 mH
(4) 20 mH

35) Two coils of self inductances 2 mH and 8 mH are placed so close together that the effective flux
in one coil is completely linked with the other. The mutual inductance between these coils is :-

(1) 4 mH
(2) 16 mH
(3) 10 mH
(4) 6 mH

SECTION - B

1) A spherical shell is cut into two pieces along a chord as shown in figure. P is a point on the plane
of the chord. The gravitational field at P due to the upper part is I1 and that due to the lower part is

I2. What is the relation between them :-

(1) I1 > I2
(2) I1 < I2
(3) I1 = I2
(4) None of these

2) A very small tunnel passing through centre is made in the earth and a particle of mass m is placed

at distance from the centre, escape speed of the particle from that place is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Figure shows elliptical path abcd of a planet around the sun S such that the area of triangle csa
is the area of the ellipse. (See figure) With db as the major axis, and ca as the minor axis. If t1 is
the time taken for planet to go over path abc and t2 for path taken over cda then :

(1) t1 = 4t2
(2) t1 = 3t2
(3) t1 = t2
(4) t1 = 2t2

4) Gravitational potential difference between surface of a planet and a point situated at a height of
20m above its surface is 2 J/kg. If gravitational field is uniform, then the work done in taking a 5kg
body upto height 4 meter above surface will be :

(1) 2 J
(2) 20 J
(3) 40 J
(4) 10 J

5) A ball is thrown on a horizontal surface in such a way that it initially slides with a speed v0 without
rolling. It gradually picks up rotation motion. Find the speed of the ball at which there will be rolling
without slipping–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A uniform disc of radius 20 cm is performing pure rolling on a moving surface, if it's angular

velocity is 5 rad/s then find velocity of it's centre of mass:-

(1) 1 m/s
(2) 2 m/s
(3) 3 m/s
(4) None of these
7) A rod of length l whose lower end is fixed on a horizontal plane, starts toppling from the vertical
position. The velocity of the upper end when it hits the ground is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

8) The voltage of an ac supply varies with time (t) as V = 120 sin100πt cos100πt. The maximum
voltage and frequency respectively are

(1) 120 volts, 100 Hz

(2)
volts, 100 Hz
(3) 60 volts, 200 Hz
(4) 60 volts, 100 Hz

9) The r.m.s. value of current from t = 0 to t = 3 s for the current i = (3t) A is

(1) 2 A
(2) 1.45 A
(3) 4 A
(4) 5.19 A

10) Assertion : Coefficient of self-induction of an inductor depends upon the rate of change of
current passing through it.

Reason : Self induced e,m.f. in an inductor is So,

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

11) In the circuit shown, X is joined to Y for a long time, and then X is joined to Z. The total heat

produced in R2 is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

12) In a decaying L–R circuit, the time after which energy stored in the inductor reduces to one-
fourth of its intitial value is :-

(ℓn2)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A conducting rod AC of length 4ℓ is rotated about a point O in a uniform magnetic field
directed into the paper. AO = ℓ and OC = 3ℓ. Then :–

(1)

(2)
2
(3) VA – VC = 4Bωℓ

(4)

14) For given arrangement (in horizontal plane) the possible direction of magnetic field :-

(1) towards right

(2) towards left
(3) Vertically upward
(4) vertically downward

15) A conducting rod AB of length ℓ = 1 m is moving at a velocity v = 4 m/s making an angle 30º
with its length. A uniform magnetic field B = 2T exists in a direction perpendicular to the plane of

motion. Then :-

(1) VA – VB = 8V
(2) VA – VB = 4V
(3) VB – VA = 8V
(4) VB – VA = 4V

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

1) Which of the following give Bad smell when treated with CHCl3 / KOH?

(1)

(2) CH3 – NH – CH3

(3)

(4)

2) Reagent used in Clemmensen reduction is

(1) NaHSO3
(2) NaBH4
(3) Zn – Hg/HCl
(4) NH2 – NH2/ ethylene glycol/Δ

3) Water soluble vitamin among the following is

(1) Vitamin A
(2) Vitamin C
(3) Vitamin E
(4) Vitamin K
4) The major product P is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

5) Which of the following when heated with KOH and primary amine gives carbylamine test

(1) CHCl3
(2) CH2Cl2
(3) CH3OH
(4) CCl4

6) Compare rate of electrophilic substitution reaction:

(1) a > b > c

(2) b > c > a
(3) a > c > b
(4) b > a > c

7) , this reaction known as :-

(1) Gatterman aldehyde synthesis

(2) Gatterman-koch synthesis
(3) Williamson's synthesis
(4) Reed's reaction

8) Which is correct order for the rate of sulphonation of benzene ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
9) Which ring has more e– density in the following compound ?

(1) I
(2) II
(3) I = II
(4) None

10) Substitution take place at the position :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) Both (1) and (3)

11) What is product of following reaction?

Product formed is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
12)
the electrophile involved in the above reaction :

(1) Formyl cation

(2) Phenoxide ion
(3) Carbocation
(4) Dichlorocarbene

13) Consider the following reaction :

Identify product A and B.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Sucrose on hydrolysis gives :

(1) α-D-Fructose + β-D-Fructose

(2) β-D-Glucose + α-D-Fructose
(3) α-D-Glucose + β-D-Glucose
(4) α-D-Glucose + β-D-Fructose

15)

The reagent needed to convert 2-butyne to cis-2-butene is :-

(1) H2/Pt
(2) H2/Lindlar's catalyst
(3) Li/NH3
(4) None of these
16) Product
The product of above reation will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Consider the reaction

product
The alkene formed in major amount :-

(1) CH3–CH=CH–CH3

(2)

(3) CH3–CH2–CH=CH2
(4) Both (1) and (3)

18) Which of following has highest Ka value :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19)
Most stable carbocation is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Aromatic compound is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) In which of the following, entropy decreases ?

(1) Dissolving sucrose in water

(2) Vaporisation of camphor
(3) Melting of ice
(4) Stretching of rubber band

22) The enthalpy change for transition of liquid water to steam is 3.73 kJ mol–1 at 373 K. Find ΔS in
J/mol K :-

(1) 100 J/mol K

(2) 10 J/mol K
(3) 1000 J/mol K
(4) None of these

23)

If change in gibbs energy at 300 K is –300 KJ/mol and ΔSsystem = +500 J/K-mol.
Find ΔStotal

(1) –501 J/K-mol

(2) +500 J/K-mol
(3) –499 J/K-mol
(4) –1500 J/K-mol

24) During isothermal expansion of I mol of an ideal gas from 10 atm to 1 atm at 300 K, the work
done is :

(1) –895.8 cal

(2) –1112.6 cal
(3) –1381.8 cal
(4) –1499.6 cal

25) ΔH and ΔU for the reaction, S(s) + O2(g) → SO3(g) are related as:

(1) ΔH = ΔU – 0.5 RT
(2) ΔH = ΔU – 1.5 RT
(3) ΔH = ΔU + RT
(4) ΔH = ΔU + 1.5 RT

26) If 10 moles of an ideal expands in vacuum, then the work done will be

(1) Zero
(2) 10 J
(3) 8 J
(4) 12 J

27) Calculate difference between heat of combustion of methane at constant pressure and volume at
27°C in KJ :-

(1) 0
(2) –5KJ
(3) +5KJ
(4) None

28) Out of boiling point (I), entropy (II), pH (III) and e.m.f. of a cell (IV), intensive properties are :-

(1) I, II
(2) I, II, III
(3) I, III, IV
(4) All of the above

29) Which of the following is correct :-

(1) ΔHf (CO2) = ΔHc (C, graphite)

(2) ΔHf (H2O) = ΔHc (H2)
(3) ΔHf (I2,s) = 0
(4) All of the above

30) The enthalpy of formation of NH3 is – 46 . The enthalpy change for the reaction :
2NH3 → N2 + 3H2 is ?

(1) 46 kJ/mol
(2) 92 kJ/mol
(3) – 23 kJ/mol
(4) – 92 kJ/mol

31) If the bond energies of H–H, Br–Br and H–Br are 433, 192 and 364 kJ mol–1 respectively, ΔH° for
the reaction, is

(1) –261 kJ
(2) +103 kJ
(3) +261 kJ
(4) –103 kJ

32) Which of the following equation gives the values of heat of formation (ΔHf°)

(1) C(diamond) + O2(g) → CO2(g)

(2)

(3) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) → 2NH3 (g)

(4) H2(g) + F2 (g) → 2HF (g)

33) The e/m ratio of cathode rays depends on :-

(1) Nature of gas

(2) Cathode
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) None of above

34) Which of the following is not permissible arrangement of electrons in an atom?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

35) If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then uncertainty in velocity is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION - B

1) The given below reaction is known as :-

(1) Mendius reaction

(2) Hofmann's mustard oil reaction
(3) Gabrial phthalimide synthesis
(4) Perkin's reaction

2) Which of the following product is formed in the given reaction ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Compare the Rate of ESR-

(1) a > b > c > d

(2) b > a > c > d
(3) a > c > d > b
(4) a > c > b > d

4) The intermediate compound ‘X’ in the following chemical reactions is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

5)
Colour of resultant solution is :-

(1) Red
(2) Blue
(3) Orange
(4) Colourless

6) Choose the correct option ?

(A) R–OH + SOCl2 → (P) Finkelstein reaction

(B) R–X(Cl,Br) + NaI → (Q) Wurtz fittig reaction

(C) R–X(Cl,Br) + AgF → (R) Darzen process

(D) (S) Swarts reaction

(1) A → P
(2) B → R
(3) C → S
(4) D → Q

7) Major product formed in the following reaction is a mixture of :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Product is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Arrange these compounds in decreasing order of basic strength

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

(2) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv)
(3) (iv) > (i) > (iii) > (ii)
(4) (iv) > (i) > (ii) > (iii)
10) Assertion :- compound is optical active.
Reason :- Above Compound does not having plane of symmetry and center of symmetry.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

11)

For which reaction, ΔS will be maximum ?

(1) H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)

(2) N2(g) + 2O2(g) → N2O4(g)

(3)
S(s) + O2(g) → SO3(g)
(4) 2C(s)+ O2(g) → 2CO(g)

12)

Standard entropy of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40 and 50 JK–1mol–1. For the reaction, ,
If ΔH = –30 KJ, to be at equilibrium the temperature will be :-

(1) 1250 K
(2) 500 K
(3) 750 K
(4) 1000 K

13) Assuming that, water vapour is an ideal gas. the internal energy change (ΔU) when 1 mol of
water is vaporised at 1 bar pressure and 100°C, (given : molar enthalpy of vaporisation of water at 1
bar and 373 K : 41 kJ mol–1 and R = 8.3 JK–1 mol–1) will be :

(1) 41.00 kJ mol–1

(2) 4.100 kJ mo1–1
(3) 3.7904 kJ mol–1
(4) 3.7904 kJ mol–1

14) For the reactions,

(i) H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) → 2HCl(g) + x kJ
(ii) H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) → 2HCl(ℓ) + y kJ
Which one of the following statements is correct ?

(1) x > y
(2) x < y
(3) x = –y
(4) x = y

15) Given :

What is the abundance of M50 :-

(1) 15%
(2) 45%
(3) 75%
(4) 85%

BOTANY

SECTION - A

1) In the cross given below:

AaBbccDd ×AabbCCDd
What percentage of progeny will have genotype aaBbCcDD?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) With respect to ABO blood groups, how many genotypes and phenotypes, respectively, are
possible in the population of human being?

(1) 6 and 4
(2) 4 and 6
(3) 3 and 4
(4) 4 and 8

3)

In antirrhinum majus when a pink flowered plant is crossed with red flowered plant then total 120
plants are obtained. What will be percentage of phenotype in offspring :-

(1) 100% red flowered

(2) 50% white flowered
(3) 75% pink flowered
(4) 50% pink flowered

4) In a plant one allelic pair is incompletely dominant and another allelic pair also incompletely
dominant then what will be percentage of offspring with genotype (TtRr) by selfing of a plant with
genotype TtRr.

(1) 1/16
(2) 4/16
(3) 1/8
(4) 6/16

5)

Test cross in plant involves crossing :-

(1) AaBb × AaBb

(2) aabb × aabb
(3) AABB × aabb
(4) AaBb × aabb

6) Which Mendelism idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1 generation resembles both the
parents?

(1) co-dominance
(2) incomplete dominance
(3) law of dominance
(4) inheritance of one gene

7) How many of following are the examples of codominance?

(A) O blood group
(B) Sickle cell anaemia carrier
(C) Size of starch grain in pea plant
(D) Seed shape
(E) Coat colour in cattles

(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Five
(4) Three

8)

In which of the following case phenotype is generally influenced by environment also?

(1) Multiple allelism

(2) Polygenic inheritance
(3) Co-dominance
(4) Dominant-recessive interaction

9) Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene 'I' that controls ABO blood groups.

(1) Allele 'i' does not produce any sugar.

(2) The gene (I) has three alleles.
(3) A person will have only two of the three alleles.
(4) When IA and IB are present together, they express same type of sugar.

10) Multiple alleles can be found during study of

(1) Gametes
(2) Individual
(3) Population
(4) All above

11) ABO blood grouping in human beings cites the example of

(1) Incomplete dominance

(2) Co-dominance
(3) Multiple allelism
(4) Both (b) and (c)

12) In pea plant which of the following character is controlled by pleiotropic gene :-

(1) Hight and flower colour

(2) Seed shape and size of starch grain
(3) Seed colour and pod colour
(4) Flower colour and seed shape

13) Mr. and Mrs. Jones are carriers of sickle cell anaemia disease. What is their chance of having a
child with sickle cell anaemia ?

(1) 25%
(2) 0%
(3) 50%
(4) 100%

14) Skin colour in human is example of ?

(1) Polygenic inheritance

(2) Monogenic quantitative inheritance
(3) Incomplete Dominance
(4) Co Dominance
15) A polygenic trait is controlled by 3 polygenes A, B and C. In a cross AaBbCc × AaBbCc, the
phenotypic ratio of the offsprings was observed as :
1 : 6 : x : 20 : x : 6 : 1
what is the possible value of x?

(1) 3
(2) 9
(3) 15
(4) 25

16) The height of a plant is under control of polygenic inheritance. The plant having genotype 'aabb'
has 20 cm height and height of plant having genotype AaBb is 50 cm. what will be the maximum
height of the plant :-

(1) 45 cm
(2) 60 cm
(3) 80 cm
(4) 15 cm

17) Drosophila melanogaster was found very suitable for hybridisation experiments due to the
following reasons, except :

(1) It could be grown on simple synthetic medium in the laboratory.

(2) It completes it’s life cycle in about two months.
(3) A single mating could produce a large number of progeny flies.
(4) There is a clear differentiation of the sexes.

18) In the Morgan's experiment on Drosophila, The percent of recombination between y and w genes
is

(1) more than w and m

(2) less than w and m
(3) same as w and m
(4) none of the above

19) There are three genes a, b, c percentage of crossing over between a and b is 20%, b and c is
15% and a and c is 5%. What is the sequence of genes on chromosome :-

(1) b, a, c
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, c, b
(4) None

20) Heterogamety is found in the female of :-

(1) Human
(2) Drosophila
(3) Domestic chicken
(4) All the above

21) X body was discovered by :-

(1) Mary Lyon

(2) Henking
(3) Stevens
(4) Wilson

22)

XO type of sex determination is found in :-

(1) Grasshopper
(2) Honey bee
(3) Pigion
(4) Moths

23) A male human is heterozygous for autosomal genes A and B and is also hemizygous for
hemophilic gene h. What proportion of his sperms will be abXh

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) On selfing of a trihybrid (AaBbCc) plant how many types of phenotype are obtained if A and B
gene are completely linked :

(1) 8-types
(2) 4-types
(3) 2-types
(4) one types

25) Which of the following meristem is present between mature tissues ?

(1) Apical meristem

(2) Intercalary meristem
(3) Lateral meristem
(4) Both 1 & 3

26) Axillary bud is derived from :

(1) Root apical meristem
(2) Phellogen
(3) Cork
(4) Shoot apical meristem

27) Growth in length of internodes occurs by the activity of :-

(1) Lateral meristem

(2) Procambium
(3) Intercalary meristem
(4) Apical meristem

28) Which of the followings is a living mechanical tissue ?

(1) Parenchyma
(2) Collenchyma
(3) Sclerenchyma
(4) Aerenchyma

29) Phloem of gymnosperms contains :-

(1) Sieve cells and companion cells

(2) Sieve tube elements and companion cells
(3) Sieve cells and albuminous cells
(4) Sieve tube elements and albuminous cells

30) In primary structure of monocot stem, xylem is

(1) Endarch
(2) Exarch
(3) Mesarch
(4) Could be of any orientation

31) Which is not part of stele ?

(1) Pericycle
(2) Pith
(3) Vascular bundles
(4) Cortex

32) Which of the following is not part of stomatal apparatus ?

(1) Stomatal pore

(2) Guard cell
(3) Cork cell
(4) Subsidiary cell
33) How many in the list given below are the part of ground tissue system :-
Epidermis, Root hair, Xylem, Phloem, Cortex, Pericycle, Pith

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

34) The tangential as well as radial walls of the endodermal cells have a deposition of water
impermeable waxy material suberin in the form of:-

(1) Casparian strips

(2) Radial Micelles
(3) Paramular bodies
(4) Callose plugs

35) Mark the correct sequence of layers found in root anatomy :-

(1) Epiblema (epidermis), cortex, endodermis, pericycle

(2) Cortex, epiblema (epidermis), pericycle, endodermis
(3) Epiblema (epidermis), pericycle, endodermis, cortex
(4) Cortex, epiblema (epidermis), endodermis, pericycle

SECTION - B

1) The Punnett square shown below represents the pattern of inheritance in dihybrid cross when
yellow (Y) is dominant over white (y) and round (R) is dominant over wrinkled (r) seeds.

YR Yr yR ry
YR F J N R
Yr G K O S
yR H L P T
ry I M Q U
A plant of 'H' type will produce seeds with the genotype identical to seeds produced by the plants of
:
(1) Type M
(2) Type J
(3) Type P
(4) Type N

2) In F2-generation, genotype and phenotypic ratios are same in case of :-

(1) Co-dominance
(2) Incomplete dominance
(3) Test cross
(4) All the above
3) Observe the given diagram & select the correct option :-

(1) It is the diagrammatic representation of a out cross.

(2) It is the comparison of two monohybrid crosses, used to find out the phenotype of organisms.
(3) It is the diagrammatic representation of reciprocal cross to find out the genotype of organism.
It is the diagrammatic representation of test cross to find out the genotype of dominant
(4)
organisms.

4) Statement I: The F1 generation in a cross between true-breeding red-flowered (RR) and true-
breeding white-flowered (rr) Four-O-clock plant is pink.
Statement II: This pink phenotype indicates incomplete dominance.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

5) Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal linked recessive trait that can be transmitted from parents to
the offspring when both the partners are carrier or heterozygous. The disease is controlled by a

single pair of allele, HbA and HbS. Identify X, Y and Z:-

(1) GTG, GAC, Val
(2) CAC, GTG, Val
(3) GTA, GAG, Val
(4) GTC, GAC, Val

6) What will be the probability of parental phenotype in the F2 generation of a quantitative character
regulated by three polygenes.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

(1) a-female Drosophila, b-male Drosophila

(2) a-male Drosophila, b-female Drosophila
(3) a-female Musca domestica, b-female Musca domestica
(4) a female honey bee, b-honey bee

8) Match the column I and column II and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II

A. Linkage. i. Non- sister chromatids

Non- parental gene

B. Recombination ii.
combinations

Physical association
C. Cross over iii.
of genes

Segregation of
D. Anaphase - I iv. homologous
chromosomes
(1) A - i, B-ii, c-iii, D-iv
(2) A - iii, B-ii, c-iv, D-i
(3) A - iii, B-ii, c-i, D-iv
(4) A - ii, B-iv, c-iii, D-i

9) A dihybrid plant with genotype AaBb. It produces four types of gametes in following number
AB = 200, ab = 200, Ab = 800, aB = 800
Then what is the distance between linked genes?

(1) 30 cM
(2) 10 cM
(3) 25 cM
(4) 20 cM

10) Which of the following options gives the correct category of organisms and their pattern of sex
determination ?

XY male type XO male type ZZ male type

Human beings, Drosophila, Crocodile,

1
cockroach fowl frog

Human beings, Cockroach, Fowl,

2
Drosophila grass hopper Pigeon

Drosophila, Cockroach, Crocodile,

3
Honey bees Grasshopper fowl

Human Fishes,
4 Honey bees, Drosophila
pigeon Tortoise
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Two crosses A and cross B were carried out by Morgan on Drosophila. What percentage of
parental offsprings were obtained in F2 generation in cross-A and cross-B respectively?

(1) 62.8% and 98.7%

(2) 1.3 % and 37.2%
(3) 98.7% and 62.8%
(4) 37.2% and 1.3%

12) Which of the following statements is true :-

(1) In monocot plants, collenchyma occurs below epidermis

(2) Sclerenchyma is dead and thus without protoplasts
(3) Xylem parenchyma is living, thin-walled with lignification on cell wall
(4) Campanion cells are specialized sclerenchyma cells
13) The figure below shows A, B and C select the option giving the correct identification :-

(1) A is xylem
(2) B is phloem
(3) C is cambium
(4) B is cambium

14) What type of vascular bundles are A, B and C ?

(1) Radial; open collateral conjoint; close collateral conjoint

(2) Close collateral conjoint; open collateral conjoint; Radial
(3) Open collateral conjoint; close collateral conjoint; Radial
(4) Bicollateral; Concentric; Radial

15) In Zea Maize root, the primary xylem is called exarch. Because ?

(1) the protoxylem lies towards the centre and the metaxylem lies towards the periphery
(2) the protoxylem lies towards the periphery and the metaxylem lies towards the centre
(3) both the protoxylem and the metaxylem lie towards the centre
(4) the protoxylem is surrounded by the metaxylem.

ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A

1) Assertion (A):- The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within scrotum.
Reason (R):- Lower temperature for the testes is necessary for spermatogenesis.

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the

(1)
correct explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(2)
the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

2) The following refers to schematic representation of oogenesis. Identify A to E correctly

(1) (A) Fetal life (B) Birth (C) Puberty (D) Adult reproductive life (E) child hood
(2) (A) Fetal life (B) Birth (C) Childhood (D) Puberty (E) Adult reproductive life
(3) (A) Adult reproductive life (B) Birth (C) puberty (D) child hood (E) Fetal life
(4) (A) Birth (B) child hood (C) Fetal life (D) puberty (E) adult reproductive life

3) Match the following and choose the correct answer :-

(A) Implantation (i) Vagina
(B) Capacitation (ii) Ovary
(C) Folliculogenesis (iii) Uterus
(D) Fertilisation (iv) Fallopian tube

(1) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)

(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(3) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)

4) Statement-I : Secondary reproductive organ do not play role in reproduction.

Statement-II : They only help in nourishment transport and fusion of gamete.

(1) Both correct

(2) Both incorrect
(3) I correct, II incorrect
(4) I incorrect, II correct

5)

Read the following statements and choose the correct option

Statement A: Formation of zygote is followed by formation and development of blastocyst and its
attachment to the uterine wall.
Statement B: Humans are sexually reproducing and oviparous.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

6) Arrange the events of fertilization sequentially and choose the correct option :-
I. Acrosomal reaction
II. Karyogamy
III. Entry of sperm into egg cytoplasm
IV. Plasmogamy
V. Zygote formation

(1) I → II → III → V → IV
(2) II → I → III → V → IV
(3) I → III → II → IV → V
(4) I → III → IV → II → V

7) If a female can not produce labour pain during parturition, then what step should be taken by
doctor ?

(1) Wait and watch

(2) Oxytocin injections given
(3) Progesterone is given
(4) Cesarian done

8) How many of the given developing stages during gametogenesis are haploid?

Spermatozoa, Secondary oocyte, Spermatid, Oogonia, Primary

spermatocyte
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 4

9) If vas deferens is cut & tied then what will happen?

(1) Inhibits spermatogenesis.

(2) Motility of sperms will be reduced.
(3) Inhibits release of semen.
(4) Seminal plasma without sperms is released.

10) What procedure follows for functional maturation of sperms in epididymis ?

(1) Cholesterol layer covers the acrosome of sperm

(2) Inhibitory proteins are released by epididymis which conserve the energy of sperms
(3) Epididymis provides more ATP energy to sperms
(4) Both (1) and (2)
11) Which of the following structure help in fertilisation of sec. oocyte ?

(1) Centriole of ovum

(2) Acrosome
(3) Tail of sperm
(4) Mitochondria of sperm

12) Which hormone regulates the growth of mammary glands and formation of milk in them ?

(1) Progesterone
(2) Oestrogen
(3) Prolactin
(4) Relaxin

13) Which phase of menstrual cycle is of constant duration, even if there is changes in total number
of day in a cycle :-

(1) Progesterogenic phase

(2) Post ovulatory phase
(3) Proliferative phase
(4) Both 1 and 2

14) Scrotum communicates with abdominal cavity through

(1) urethra
(2) inguinal canal
(3) vas deferens
(4) epididymis

15) In mammals, failure of testes to descend into scrotum is known as

(1) Paedogenesis
(2) Castration
(3) Cryptorchidism
(4) Impotency

16) Sustentacular cells are found in

(1) Testis of mammal

(2) Ovary of mammal
(3) Testis of ascaris
(4) Pancreas of frog

17) Which one of the following is the correct matching of the events occuring during menstruation
cycle?
(1) Menstruation : Breakdown of myometrium
(2) Proliferative phase : Estrogen gradually decrease
(3) Ovulation : Only Due to FSH surge
(4) Secretory phase : Development of corpus luteum

18) Which of the following is incorrectly paired with its function ?

(1) Epididymis – Maturation and storage of sperms

(2) Fallopian tube – Collection of secondary oocyte
(3) Seminal vesicle – Its secretions contain a sugar
(4) Corpus luteum – Secrete h.C.G. for maintenance of the endometrium

19) Smegma release from _____.

(1) Seminal vesicle

(2) Prostate gland
(3) Cowpers gland
(4) Preputial gland

20) Which of the following helps in elevation of testes ?

(1) Gubernaculum
(2) Inguinal canal
(3) Cremastor muscle
(4) Crura muscle

21) When released from ovary, human egg contains :-

(1) 1 Y-chromosome
(2) 2 X-chromosome
(3) 1 X-chromosome
(4) XY-chromosome

22) Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as :

(1) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal imbalance

(2) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal imbalance
(3) Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus.
(4) Implantation of defective embryo in the uterus

23) Which piece of a sperm is called power house ?

(1) Head piece

(2) Neck piece
(3) Middle piece
(4) Tail piece
24)

If in a sperm, proximal centriole becomes

non-functional, which of the following process will be affected?

(1) Fertilization
(2) Spermiogenesis
(3) Movement of sperm
(4) Cleavage

25) Placenta contains :

(1) Only chorionic villi

(2) Chorionic villi and uterine tissue
(3) Trophoblast and Amnion
(4) Only uterine tissue

26) Which is not correct about amnion?

(1) It provides a fluid medium to the developing embryo

(2) It acts as a shock absorber
(3) It takes part in the formation of human placenta
(4) Both (1) and (2)

27) Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of :-

(1) The pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar level

(2) The parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate
(3) The kidney, leading to suppression of renin-angiotensin-aldolsterone pathway
(4) The adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine

28) Cushing's disease is caused by hyperactivity of

(1) GH
(2) Thyroxine
(3) Insulin
(4) Cortisol

29) Which hormone is a amino acid derivative ?

(1) Cortisol
(2) Epinephrine
(3) Estradiol
(4) Progesterone

30) Herring bodies are found in

(1) Adenohyophysis
(2) Neurophyophysis
(3) Thyroid
(4) Adrenal medulla

31)

Calcium homeostasis is maintained by a group of hormones. Which hormone increases Calcium in

bones?

(1) T3
(2) Calcitonin
(3) Thyroxine
(4) PTH

32) Hormones are :-

(1) Intra cellular, nutritive substance

(2) Intercellular, Non nutritive substance
(3) Maximum secreted always
(4) Species specific, Non nutritive substance

33) One of the following conditions is not linked to deficiency of thyroid hormones

(1) Cretinism
(2) Simple Goitre
(3) Myxoedema
(4) Exopthalmic goitre

34) There is national eradication programme for a disease caused by the deficiency of an element

(1) Iodine
(2) Boron
(3) Copper
(4) Chlorine

35) Which gland secretes melatonin hormone ?

(1) Pineal
(2) Adrenal
(3) Thymus
(4) Pituitary

SECTION - B

1) Assertion (A): Placenta is combined structure of foetal tissue & maternal tissue
Reason (R): Complete Placenta formation occurs at 6 weeks of pregnancy.

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the

(1)
correct explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(2)
the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

2)
See the diagram carefully and choose incorrect option:-

(1) 'A' help in collection of the ovum after ovulation

(2) 'B' communicates with the C through an opening called internal os
(3) 'C' is a non glandular tube like organ
(4) 'D' is a funnel shaped structure called infundibulum

3) The figure below shows development of follicles (A, B, C, D). Select the option giving correct

identification together with its function ?

(1) B – Secondary Follicle – secrete progesterone

(2) D – Corpus albicans – Secrete estrogen
(3) A – Tertiary follicle – Secrete FSH & LH
(4) C – Corpus luteum – Secrete progesterone

4) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Proliferative Formation of
(A) (a) 14th day (i)
phase corpus luteum

Secrectory Development of
(B) (b) Ist - 4th day (ii)
phase graafian follicle
 Menstruation Shedding of
(C) (c) 15th - 28thday (iii)
phase stratum functionale

Ovulatory Release of
(D) (d) 5th - 13tn day (iv)
phase secondary oocyte
(1) A-d-iii, B-c-i, C-b-iv, D-a-ii
(2) A-c-ii, B-b-iii, C-a-i, D-d-iv
(3) A-d-ii, B-c-i, C-b-iii, D-a-iv
(4) A-d-iii, B-b-iv, C-a-ii, D-c-i

5) Which one of the following structure of sperm is mismatched?

(1) Acrosome Contain spermlysins that help in fertilisation

(2) Nucleus Contain haploid DNA

Proximal
(3) Starts cleavage in zygote
centriole

Contain numerous mitochondria, which produce

(4) Tail
energy for movement of tail
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Study the cycle shown below and select the option which gives correct words for all four blanks A,

B, C, D :-

A B C D

(1) Foetus Zygote Morula Gastrula

(2) Zygote Morula Blastocyst Gastrula

(3) Embryo Blastocyst Gastrula Cleavage

(4) Zygote Morula Gastrula Cleavage

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
7) Consider the following statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones
only:
(a) In human allantois does not function to store the excretory wastes. (b) During parturition,
secretion of progesterone decreases but secretion of estrogen increases from placenta (c)
Progesteron, hCG, hPL and estrogens are produced in women only during pregnancy (d) The first
movement of the foetus and appearance of hairs on the head are usually observed during the third
month of pregnancy

(1) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a) and (b)
(4) All statements (a), (b), (c) and (d)

8) Which of the following structures are not include in external genitalia of female ?
(a) Mons pubis (b) Labia majora
(c) Hymen (d) Clitoris
(e) Cervix (f) Fallopian tube

(1) Only c, e, f
(2) Only e, f
(3) Only d, f
(4) a, d, e, f

9)
Find out A, B, C respectively :-
Option :-
A B C
(1) GH FSH LH
(2) GnRH ICSH FSH
(3) GH FSH ICSH
(4) GnRH FSH LH

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10)

Consider the following four statements and select the correct ones.
(a) Crura muscles are relaxed during erection
(b) Ejaculation is done by sympathetic nervous system
 (c) Breast are secondary sex organs
(d) In females one pair greater vestibular gland is present

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, d
(4) a, c, d

11) Assertion A: Endocrine glands are referred to as ductless glands because they release hormones
directly into the blood.
Reason R: Hormones are defined as non-nutrient chemicals that act as intercellular messengers and
are produced in trace amounts.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

12) Identify the gland in following diagram :- ?

(1) Thyroid gland

(2) Thymus gland
(3) Parathyroid gland
(4) Pituitary gland

13) Statement-I : The posterior pituitary is under the direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus.
Statement-II : The hormones of hypothalamus reach the pituitary gland through portal circulatory
system and regulate the functions of anterior pituitary.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement-I is correct.
(4) Only Statement-II is correct.

14) Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) T4 (i) Hypothalamus

(B) PTH (ii) Thyroid

(C) GnRH (iii) Pituitary

(D) LH (iv) Parathyroid

 A B C D A B C D
(1) i ii iii iv (2) iii i ii iv
(3) ii iv i iii (4) ii iv ii i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) A person is having problems with calcium and phosphate metabolism in his body. Which one of
the following glands may not be functioning properly?

(1) Pituitary
(2) Pancreas
(3) Pineal
(4) Parathyroid
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 1 4 4 2 2 2 2 2 2 4 3 4 2 4 3 4 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 2 1 1 3 3 2 4 2 4 2 1 2 1 1

SECTION - B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 3 2 1 3 3 2 4 4 3 1 1 3 4 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 1 3 2 2 1 1 2 1 1 4 3 4 2 4 2 2 3 3 3 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 2 4 3 1 1 2 3 4 2 4 2 4 2 3

SECTION - B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 1 3 2 2 3 3 2 3 1 4 3 4 2 1

BOTANY

SECTION - A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 1 4 2 4 1 2 2 4 3 3 2 1 1 3 3 2 2 3 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 1 2 2 2 4 3 2 3 1 4 3 3 1 1

SECTION - B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 4 1 2 1 2 3 4 2 3 2 4 1 2

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION - A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 3 4 3 4 2 2 4 4 2 3 4 2 3 1 4 4 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 3 3 4 2 3 4 4 2 2 2 2 4 1 1

SECTION - B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 2 4 3 4 2 3 2 4 3 1 3 1 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

2)

3) ,

5)

6)

7) Fg = FCP ⇒

8)

9)

W = 2(50 + 40) J
11) Ve =

Ve ∝ R

V2 = 22.4 km/sec

12)

13)

15)

mgh = mv2

V=

16)

17) Acceleration of the solid sphere when it rolls without slipping down an inclined plane is

For a solid sphere,

∴
Acceleration of the same sphere when it slides without friction down an same inclined plane is
a´ = g sin θ
divide (ii) by (i), we get,

19)

V = V0 sinωt & I = I0 sin

20)

21) I = 20 sin(100πt + 0.05π)

∴ Irms =
ω = 100π ⇒ f = 50 Hz.

22)

ε= = L × slope of i-t graph

24)

As loop is moving out from magnetic field So flux of loop decreases so induced current in loop
must flow clockwise (Magnetic field of it in same direction as of external)

25) in the plane of loop so no flux is through the loop

26) As inward B decreases, so CW current in bigger loop & ACW current in smaller loop.
31)

H1 = i2R1t H2 =

H1 = 16(3)t H2 =
H2 = 16t

32) Magnetic energy

U= LI2 ⇒ L = = 16H

Induced emf e = L

= 16 × = 320V

33) =5⇒ L=5×2

I R = 10 ⇒ R = 10 ⇒ τ = 1 sec.
2

34)
eind = (M)1000π cos(100πt)
eind = 5π = (1000π) M (compare max. values)
M = 5 × 10–3 H
M = 5 mH

35)

36) ⇒ ⇒

37)
38)

Let area of ellipse = A

By Kepler's second law,

3t2 = t1.

39) Gravitational field intensity

Eg =
Hence gravitational force = mEg
= 5(0.1) = 0.5N
Work = Force × displacement = (0.5)(4) = 2J

40)
By conserving angular momentum about 'O'

⇒v=

41)

v – ωr = 2
v = ωr + 2
 v=
v = 3 m/s

43) V = 120 sin 100 πt cos 100πt = 60 sin 200πt

Vmax = 60 V and f = 100Hz

45)

46) H =

47)

UF = Uin

L = ×

Now
i = i0

= i0 e– Rt/L

t = (ℓn 2)

48) By using

For part AO ; eOA = eO – eA =

For part OC; eOC = eO – eC =

∴ eA – eC = 4Bℓ2ω

49)

According to Fleming Right hand rule.

direction of magnetic field vertical downward.

CHEMISTRY

51) NCERT XII / Part II / Page-393

52) NCERT Reference: XII, Part-II, Page No. 369

53) NCERT Reference: XII, Part-II, Page No. 426

54)

Propanamide undergoes Hoffmann degradation with NaOH and Br2 to give ethanamine.

55)

62) This reaction is Reimer-Tiemann reaction and the electrophile is dichlorocarbene.

63)

64) Sucrose α-D-Glucose+β-D-Fructose

65)

67)
69) (+M, –I)

72)

H2O(ℓ) → H2O(g)

ΔS =

74) w = 2.303 nRT

= 1381.8 cal
wexpansion = –1381.8 cal

75)

ΔH = ΔU + ΔngRT

80)

and 2NH3 → N2 + 3H2; ΔH = +92 KJ/mol

81) ΔH = Σ(ΔB.E.H)Reactants – Σ(ΔB.E.H)Prod.

85) From Heiscnbcrg uncertainty principle

87) NCERT-XII, Part-II, Edition 2023-24, Pg. # 272

92)
 94)

Basic strength

98) ΔU = ΔH – ΔnRT
= 41000 – 1 × 8.314 × 373
= 37898.878 J mol–1
= 37.9 kJ mol–1

BOTANY

110)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 77

113)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 58

114) NCERT-XII, Pg. no. # 85

117) NCERT pg: 83

118) NCERT pg: 83

125)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 85

 126) NCERT XIth Pg.#85 Para-8.1.1

129)

NCERT XIth Pg.#88, 1st Para (E & H)

133) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 89

134)

NCERT Pg. # 91

137)

NCERT XII Pg. # 60, 61

139)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 60

140)

Ncert Pg No. 74 (2022 edition) Figure 4.15

141) NCERT XII Pg. # 85[E], 93[H]

142) Ncert Pg No. 83

143) Ncert Pg No. 84

146) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 84

148) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 90

150) NCERT XI Pg # 87

ZOOLOGY

154) NCERT Pg # 21

155) NCERT, Pg # 26
158)

NCERT Pg. 49

167)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 34

177)

NCERT - 2023 -24 . Pg. 244

179) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 338

182)

NCERT Pg. No. # 330

186)

Placenta formation is completed after 3 months (12 weeks) of pregnancy.

187) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 45 Figure 3.3

193)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 30

194)

196)

The assertion is true as endocrine glands do not have ducts and release their secretions,
hormones, directly into the blood. The reason is also true and provides the correct explanation
for the assertion, as hormones are indeed non-nutrient chemicals that serve as intercellular
messengers and are produced in very small amounts.

198) NCERT Pg. 332

200) NCERT (E) Pg # 334