28-07-2024

2404CMD303032240003 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

1) A car travels half the distance with constant velocity of 40 kmph and the remaining half with a
constant velocity of 60 kmph. The average velocity of the car in kmph is

(1) 40
(2) 45
(3) 48
(4) 50

2) A particle moving with a uniform acceleration travels 24 m and 64 m in the first two consecutive
intervals of 4 sec each. Its initial velocity is

(1) 1 m/sec
(2) 10 m/sec
(3) 5 m/sec
(4) 2 m/sec

3) At what angle to the horizontal should an object be projected so that the maximum height reached
is equal to the horizontal range?

(1) tan θ = 2
(2) tan θ = 4
(3) tan θ = 2/3
(4) θ = 3

4) The velocity of a body depends on time according to the equation v = 20 + 0.1t2. The body is
undergoing

(1) uniform acceleration

(2) uniform retardation
(3) non-uniform acceleration
(4) zero acceleration

5)

A projectile is fired horizontally with a initial speed of 20 m/s. Its horizontal speed 3 sec later will be

(1) 20 m/s
(2) 6.67 m/s
(3) 60 m/s
(4) 29.4 m/s

6) Find the acceleration of particle at x = 5m with the help of graph. where v-velocity and x-

displacement

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A stone is dropped from the top of the tower and reaches the ground in 3 s. Then the height of the
tower is
(g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 18.6 m
(2) 39.2 m
(3) 44.1 m
(4) 98 m

8) The displacement of a particle is given by . The initial velocity and

acceleration are respectively.

(1) b, -4d
(2) -b, 2c
(3) b, 2c
(4) 2c,-4d

9) A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration at time t = 0 is 5 m/s2 which varies with time as shown
in the figure. The maximum speed of the particle will be :
(1) 7.5 m/s
(2) 15 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 37.5 m/s

10) Three projectiles A, B and C thrown from the same point in the same plane and their trajectories

are shown in the figure then which of the following statement is true?

(1) The time of flight is the same for all the three
(2) The launch speed is largest for particle C
(3) The horizontal velocity component is largest for particle C
(4) All of the above

11)

Velocity-time graph corresponding to displacement-time graph shown in fig.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

12) The variation of velocity of a particle with time moving along a straight line is illustrated in the

following figure. The distance traveled by the particle in 4 s is :

(1) 60 m
(2) 55 m
(3) 25 m
(4) 30 m

13) A particle moving along semicircle of radius 10m in 5 seconds. The average velocity of the
particle is :-

(1) 2π m/sec
(2) 4π m/sec
(3) 2 m/sec
(4) 4 m/sec

14) Assertion : Distance travelled and magnitude of displacement are same, when direction of
velocity doesn't change.
Reason : For a particle moving on a straight line, distance travelled is always equal to the
magnitude of displacement.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

15) A ball is dropped from top of a tower of 100m height. Simultaneously another ball was thrown
upward from bottom of the tower with a speed of 50 m/s (g = 10 m/s2). They will cross each other
after :-

(1) 1s
(2) 2s
(3) 3s
(4) 4s

16) The given graph shows the variation of velocity with displacement. Which one of the graph given

below correctly represents the variation of acceleration with displacement ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A point moves such that its displacement as a function of time is given by x = t3 + 1. Its
acceleration will be :-

(1) 0
(2) 6t
(3) 6
(4) 6t2

18) A particle is moving with velocity where k is a constant. The general

equation for its path is

(1) y = x2 + constant
(2) y2 = x + constant
(3) xy = constant
(4) y2 = x2 + constant
19) A charge Q is placed at any one vertex of a cube then flux passing from any one of the opposite

faces of cube is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) What is the electric flux linked with closed surface?

(1) 1011 N-m2/C

(2) 1012 N-m2/C
(3) 1010 N-m2/C
(4) N-m2/C

21) Two identical metal charged with +12µC and –8µC are kept at certain distance in air. They are
brought into contact and then kept at the same distance. The ratio of the magnitudes of electrostatic
forces between them before and after contact is :-

(1) 12:1
(2) 8:1
(3) 24:1
(4) 4:1

22) A charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges Q. The system of the
three charges will be in equilibrium, if q is equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

23) If q1 + q2 = q, then the value of the ratio , for which the force between q1 and q2 is maximum is
:-

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.75
(3) 1
(4) 0.5

24) A point charge is at distance 5 cm above the centre of a square of side 10 cm (as shown
in figure) what is the magnitude of the electric flux through the square (in Nm2 C–1)

(1) 36 × 104
(2) 18 × 104
(3) 9 × 104
(4) 6 × 104

25) Two point charges Q and - 3Q are placed at some distance apart. If the electric field at the
location of Q is E, then at the locality of - 3Q, it is

(1) –E
(2) E/3
(3) –3E
(4) – E/3

26) Two point charges separated by a distance r in vacuum and a force F acting between them. After
putting them in a dielectric medium having dielectric constant K, the force remains same then new
separation is

(1)

(2)

(3) Kr2
(4)

27) If suppose force between two point charges is proportional to distance between them, then the
force between a charged object and neutral object -

(1) always zero

(2) attractive
(3) may be repulsive
(4) None

28) Quantization of charge can be neglected -

(1) Never
(2) Always
(3) For microsecopic charges
(4) For macroscopic charges

29) The number of electrons in a body of –1C charge is :-

(1) 6 × 1018
(2) 1.6 × 1019
(3) 6 × 1019
(4) 1.6 × 1018

30) Consider a neutral conducting sphere. A positive point charge is placed outside the sphere. The
net charge on the sphere is then:

(1) negative and distributed uniformly over its surface.

(2) negative and appears only at the point on the sphere closest to the point charge
(3) negative and distributed non-uniformly over its entire surface of the sphere
(4) zero

31) In the figure electric field lines of three charges are shown. If q1 = +8 mC and q3 = –12 mC,

what is value of charge q2 ?

(1) 6 mC
(2) –6 mC
(3) 8 mC
(4) 10 mC
32)

A cubical region of side a has its centre at the origin. It encloses three fixed point charges,
–q at (0, –a/4, 0), + 3q at (0, 0, 0) and –q at (0, + a/4, 0).

Choose the correct option(s)

(i) The net electric flux crossing the plane x = + is equal to the net electric flux crossing the plane x

=–

(ii) The net electric flux crossing the plane y = + is more than the net electric flux crossing the

plane y = –

(iii) The net electric flux crossing the entire region is .

(iv) The net electric flux crossing the plane z = + is equal to the net electric flux crossing the plane

x=+

(1) (i), (ii)

(i), (iii)
(2)

(3) (i), (iii), (iv)

(4) (ii), (iii), (iv)

33) Velocity - time graph for a particle moving in a straight line is given the displacement of the

particle in first 4 seconds is :

(1) 0
(2) 2m
(3) 4m
(4) 1m

34) A ball is projected from the foot of a tower. The ball crosses the top of tower twice after an
interval of 6s and the ball reaches the ground after 12s. The height of tower is (g = 10 m/s2):-
(1) 120 m
(2) 135 m
(3) 175 m
(4) 80 m

35) A ball is projected vertically upward from ground at 20m/s. Immediately after 2sec what will be
the direction of displacement, velocity and acceleration ? (g = 10 m/s2)

Displacement Velocity Acceleration

1. up down down

2. down down down

3. up down up

4. up up down
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

SECTION - B

1) The x and y co-ordinates of a particle at any time t are given by x = 7t + 4t2 and y = 5t where x
and y are in metre and t in sec. The acceleration of the particle at 5 s is

(1) zero
(2) 8 m/s2
(3) 20 m/s2
(4) 40 m/s2

2) A particle is thrown to its maximum range 160m. Calculate its velocity of projection

(1) 60 m/s
(2) 20 m/s
(3) 40 m/s
(4) 10 m/s

3) A particle is moving along a straight line according to the position-time graph shown in the figure.

Acceleration of the particle will be :

(1) Positive
(2) Negative
(3) Zero
(4) Infinite

4) The displacement-time graph for two particles A and B are straight lines inclined at angles of 30°
and 60° with the time axis. The ratio of velocities of VA : VB is :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 :
(3) :1
(4) 1 : 3

5) A man walks for some time 't' with velocity (v) due east. Then he walks for same time 't' with
velocity (v) due north. The average velocity of the man is :

(1) 2v
(2)
(3) v

(4)

6) A stone is dropped into a well in which the level of water is h below the top of the well. If v is
velocity of sound, the time T after which the splash is heard is given by

(1) T = 2h/v

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) For motion of an object along the x-axis the velocity v depends on the displacement x as v = 3x2 –
2x, then what is the acceleration at x = 2m.

(1) 48 ms–2
(2) 80 ms–2
(3) 18 ms–2
(4) 10 ms–2

8) Smallest unit of charge is

(1) Coulomb
(2) Stat-coulomb
(3) Faraday
(4) None

9) Five point charges each of value +q, are placed on five vertices of a regular hexagon of side L.
The magnitude of the force on a point charge of value –q coulomb placed at the centre of the
hexagon is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Infinite charges are lying at x = 1, 2, 4, 8…meter on X-axis and the value of each charge is Q.
The value of intensity of electric field at point x = 0 due to these charges will be

(1) N/C
(2) Zero
(3) N/C
(4) N/C

11) The force between two point charges in air 100 N. Calculate the force if the distance between
them is increased by 50%.

(1) 400/9 N
(2) 64.8 N
(3) 150 N
(4) 200 N

12) Two small spherical balls each carrying a charge Q = 10 μC are suspended by two insulating
threads of equal lengths 1 m each, from a point fixed in the ceiling. It is found that in equilibrium
threads are separated by an angle 60° between them, as shown in the figure. What is the tension in
the threads

(1) 18 N
(2) 1.8 N
(3) 0.18 N
(4) None of the above
13) For the given diagram; the magnitude of electric field at the centre is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

14) For the acceleration-time (a-t) graph shown in figure, the change in velocity of particle from t =
0 to t = 6 is:-

(1) 10 m/sec
(2) 4 m/sec
(3) 12 m/sec
(4) 8 m/sec

15) By which velocity a ball be projected vertically so that the distance covered by it in 5th second is
twice the distance it covers in its 6th second (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 58.8 m/s

(2) 49 m/s
(3) 65 m/s
(4) 19.6 m/s

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

1) Which of the following conformations of n–butane is the least stable -

(1) Gauche
(2) Anti
(3) Partial Eclipsed
(4) Fully eclipsed

2) Configuration of the given compound is :-

(1) 2S, 3S
(2) 2R, 3R
(3) 2S, 3R
(4) 2R, 3S

3) Which of the following will show geometrical isomerism?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) If compound have optical rotation is +80°, then compound - have optical

rotation is :-

(1) +80°
(2) –80°
(3) Zero
(4) Unpredictable

5) Which conformer of cyclohexane is most stable ?

(1) Chair form

(2) Twist boat
(3) Boat form
(4) Half chair

6) Racemic mixture is :-

(1) 80% d + 20 % ℓ
(2) 30% d + 70 % ℓ
(3) 50% d + 50 % ℓ
(4) 60% d + 40 % ℓ

7) The "Z"-isomer is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8)

Which of the following biphenyls is optically active?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9)

Chiral molecule is:

(1) Which possess chiral carbon atoms

(2) Which is non-superimposable on their mirror image
(3) Which is superimposable on their mirror image
(4) Which possess tetrahedral carbon atoms
10) Relation between given species is :

&

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Identical
(4) Structural isomers

11) If angle of rotation of is +62° then angle of rotation of is :-

(1) 0°
(2) +124°
(3) –62°
(4) Nothing can be said

12) Which of the following is correct :

(1) Nonsuperimposable mirror image are called enantiomer

(2) Cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene are diastereomers

(3)
show geometrical isomerism
(4) All of these

13) How many chiral carbon atoms present in :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

14) Identify R configuration

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Which of the following correctly ranks the cycloalkanes in order of increasing ring strain per
methylene?

(1) Cyclopropane < cyclopentane < cyclobutane < cyclohexane

(2) Cyclobutane < cyclopropane < cyclobutane < cyclohexane
(3) Cycloheptane < Cyclobutane < cyclopentane < cyclopropane
(4) Cyclohexane < cycloheptane< cyclobutane < cyclopropane

16)

Which of the following compound will not show geometrical isomerism.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

17) The number of optically active isomers possible for -

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

18) Which of the following groups has the highest priority using the CIP (Cahn, Ingold, Prelog) rules
?

(1)

(2)

(3) –CH2OH
(4) – O – CH3

19) Which of the following will show optical as well as Geometrical isomerism ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

20)
A and B are :-

(1) Homomer
(2) Enantiomer
(3) Diastereomer
(4) Not isomer

21) Statement-I :- Mirror image of optically active will be optically active.

Statement-II :- Configuration of mirror image of R-2-Chlorobutane will be S-2-Chlorobutane.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

22) Assertion (A):– Staggered form of ethane is more stable than eclipsed form
Reason (R):– Torsional strain in a staggered form of ethane is less than in eclipsed form

(1) Both A and R are true and R explains A

(2) Both A and R are true but R doesn't explain A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false

23) Geometrical isomerism is possible in :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

24)

Which of the following is meso compound ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Which conformation of butane will have the minimum energy?

(1) Gauche
(2) Anti
(3) Eclipsed
(4) None

26)

Which of the following represents the correct order of increasing electron gain enthalpy with
negative sign for the elements O, S, F and Cl ?

(1) Cl < F < O < S

(2) O < S < F < Cl
(3) F < S < O < Cl
(4) S < O < Cl < F

27)
Which of the following order of radii is correct?

(1) Li < Be < Mg

(2) H+ < Li+ < H–
(3) O < F < Ne
(4) Na+ > F– > O–2

28)

K+, Ar, Ca2+ and S2– contains -

(1) Same electronic configuration and atomic volume

(2) Different electronic configuration but same IP
(3) Same electronic configuration but different atomic volume
(4) None

29) The correct order of electron affinity is :-

(1) Be < B < C < N

(2) Be < N < B < C
(3) N < Be < C < B
(4) N < C < B < Be

30) Match the columns :-

Column-I Column-II
(Atomic No.) (Block)

(a) 52 (p) s-block

(b) 56 (q) p-block

(c) 57 (r) d-block

(d) 60 (s) f-block

(1) a–(q), b–(p), c–(r), d–(s)
(2) a–(r), b–(p), c–(q), d–(s)
(3) a–(p), b–(r), c–(q), d–(s)
(4) a–(q), b–(r), c–(p), d–(s)

31)

Which of the following order of atomic/ionic radius is not correct?

(1) I– > I > I+

(2) Mg+2 > Na+ > F–
(3) P+5 < P+3
(4) Li > Be > B
32) The process requiring the absorption of energy is:-

(1) F → F–
(2) Cl → Cl–
(3) O → O2–
(4) H → H–

33) Element with atomic no. 50 will fall in :-

(1) Period = 4, Group = 10

(2) Period = 5, Group = 14
(3) Period = 5, Group = 16
(4) Period = 4, Group = 12

34) Which of the following statement is not correct

(1) In the transition elements the incoming e– occupy (n–1)d subshell in preference to np.
(2) Elements having atomic number 57 to 71 belong to same group
(3) Lanthanum is the first element of Lanthanoids
(4) Actinium violates the Aufbau's principle

35) IE1, IE2 and IE3 of an element are 10 eV, 15 eV, 45 eV respectively, the most stable oxidation
state of the element will be :-

(1) + 1
(2) + 2
(3) + 3
(4) + 4

SECTION - B

1) Which of the following is chiral compound?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

2) Assertion :- compound is optical active.

Reason :- Above Compound does not having plane of symmetry and center of symmetry.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

3) What is relation between following molecules ?

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Homomers
(4) Geometrical isomers

4) In following

positional isomer's are :-

(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) II and III
(4) All of these

5) &
Both compound are :-

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Positional isomer
(3) Both 1, 2
(4) Homologous

6)
CH3–NH–C2H5 and (CH3)3N show which type of isomerism :

(1) Position
(2) Functional
(3) Chain
(4) None

7) Degree of unsaturation in is

(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 9

8)

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Position isomer
(3) Metamer
(4) Functional isomer

9) IUPAC name is :-

(1) 3,4-Dichloro-1-bromo pentane

(2) 5-Bromo-2,3-dichloro pentane
(3) 1-Bromo-2,3-dichloro pentane
(4) 1-Bromo-3,4-dichloro pentane

10)

The IUPAC name of the compound shown below is :

(1) 2-bromo-6-chlorocyclohex-1-ene
(2) 6-bromo-2-chlorocyclohexene
(3) 3-bromo-1-chlorocyclohexene
(4) 1-bromo-3-chlorocyclohexene

11) Increasing order of Zeff is :-

(1) K+ < K
(2) Cl < Cl–
(3) Ca+ < Ca+2
(4) O– < O–2

12) Which has maximum number of unpaired e–?

(1) Na
(2) Mn
(3) Cr
(4) Fr+2

13) Which is the correct order of electronegativity?

(1) Cl > S > P > Si

(2) Si > Al > Mg > Na
(3) F > Cl > Br > I
(4) All of these

14) Atomic radius of F and Ne are:

(1) 0.90 Å, 1.34 Å

(2) 1.34 Å, 0.90 Å
(3) 0.90 Å, 0.90 Å
(4) 1.34 Å, 1.34 Å

15) Assertion : Mg2+ is smaller atomic size than F–.

Reason : Mg2+ has less number of e– s than F–.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True, but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

BOTANY

SECTION - A

1) Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.

Column I Column II
 A Plant Virus (i) BSE

B Animal virus (ii) Potato spindle tuber

C Viroids (iii) Polio

D Prions (iv) Tobacco mosaic

(1) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(2) A-(i), B-(ii), c-(iii), D-(iv)
(3) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(4) A-(ii), B-(iii), c-(iv), D-(i)

2) Which of the following is wrongly matched ?

(1) T. O. Diener - Viroids are found to be a free DNA

(2) W. M. Stanley - Showed virus could be crystallized.
(3) M. W. Beijerinck - Contagium vivum fluidum
(4) D. J. Ivanowski - Microbes smaller than bacteria cause mosaic disease of tobacco

3) White spots disease on the leaves of mustard is caused by:

(1) Albugo
(2) Aspergillus
(3) Agaricus
(4) Alternaria

4) Which of the following is correct w.r.t imperfect fungi?

(1) Possess aseptate and coenocytic mycelium

(2) Reproduce sexually by oospores
(3) Include truffles and morels
(4) Reproduce asexually by conidia

5) Which of the following is odd regarding asexual spores in fungi ?

(1) Conidia
(2) Sporangiospores
(3) Zoospores
(4) Oospore

6) Which of the following is not a member of the class deuteromycetes :-

(1) Alternaria
(2) Colletotrichum
(3) Trichoderma
(4) Saccharomyces
7) Choose the correct sequence of steps in sexual reproduction in Basidiomycetes.
(i) Formation of Basidium
(ii) Formation of Basidiospores
(iii) Karyogamy and meiosis
(iv) Fusion of 2 somatic cells of different genotypes

(1) (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv)
(2) (iv)-(i)-(iii)-(ii)
(3) (iv)-(iii)-(i)-(ii)
(4) (iii)-(iv)-(ii)-(i)

8) Many members of this class are decomposer on litter and its examples are alternaria,
colletotricum and trichoderma this class is :-

(1) Ascomycetes
(2) Basidiomycetes
(3) Deuteromycetes
(4) All of these

9) Which of the following fungi is used extensively in biochemical and genetic work ?

(1) Clavicep
(2) Puccinia
(3) Ustilago
(4) Neurospora

10) The main chemical component of fungal cell wall is

(1) Peptidoglycan
(2) Chitin
(3) Hemicellulose
(4) Pectin

11) Edible fungus :

(1) Rhizopus, mucor

(2) Neurospora
(3) Morels, truffles
(4) Alternaria

12) Which is incorrect :

(1) T.O. Diener discovered virus in 1981

(2) RNA of viroid was of low molecular weight
(3) Lichens are symbiotic association
(4) Lichens are good pollution indicator
13) Which pair of the following belongs to basidiomycetes :

(1) Puffballs and Claviceps

(2) Mucor and Ustilago
(3) Morels and Mushrooms
(4) Bracket fungi and Puffballs

14) Which of the following is unicellular fungi

(1) Rhizopus
(2) Yeast
(3) Puccinia
(4) Spirogyra

15) Ustilago belongs to

(1) Ascomycetes
(2) Basidiomycetes
(3) Zygomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes

16) Dikaryon formation occurs in

(1) Phycomycetes and slime moulds

(2) Ascomycetes and slime moulds
(3) Basidiomycetes and phycomycetes
(4) Ascomycetes and basidiomycetes

17) Fungi growing on dung are called

(1) Parasite
(2) Lithophytes
(3) Coprophilous
(4) Predators

18) Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option given below :
Assertion : Phycomycetes, commonly called as sac fungi
Reason : In phycomycetes , ascospore are produced endogenously in sac like asci

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

19) In which class of fungi plasmogamy immediately follow by karyogamy?

(1) Ascomycetes
(2) Deuteromycetes
(3) Phycomycetes
(4) Basidiomycetes

20) Mycelium of basidiomycetes is :

(1) Branched and septate

(2) Unbranched and aspeptate
(3) Branched and coenocytic
(4) Unbranched and coenocytic

21) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

A Carrageen (i) Brown algae

B Algin (ii) Red algae

C Agar-agar (iii) Gelidium

(iv) Gracilaria
(1) A = (ii), B = (iii, iv), C = (iv)
(2) A = (i), B (ii, iii), (C) = (iv)
(3) A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iii, iv)
(4) A = (i, ii), B = (iii), C = (iv)

22) Mosses are gregarious because they

(1) Have vascular tissue

(2) Have indirect germination of spores
(3) Have direct germination of spores
(4) Have spore mother cells

23) Archegoniophore is present in :-

(1) Marchantia
(2) Chara
(3) Adiantum
(4) Cycas

24) Rhizoid and roots both are commonly seen in

(1) Algae
(2) Bryophytes
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Pteridophytes
25) Phloem in gymnosperms lacks

(1) Albuminous cells and sieve cells

(2) Sieve tubes only
(3) Companion cells only
(4) Both sieve tubes and companion cells

26) Which one of the following events is precursor to the seed habit?

(1) Heterospory
(2) Haplontic life cycle
(3) Free living gametophyte
(4) Sporophyte dependent on gametophyte

27) Most advanced group of Algae is :-

(1) Myxophyta
(2) Chlorophyta
(3) Rhodophyta
(4) Phaeophyta

28) Floridean starch is found in :-

(1) Chlorophyceae
(2) Rhodophyceae
(3) Pheophyceae
(4) Cyanophyceae

29) Identify the red algae marked as A and B :-

(1) A = Gracilaria, B = Gelidium

(2) A = Fucus, B = Laminaria
(3) A = Porphyra, B =Polysiphonia
(4) A =Batrachospermum, B =Laminaria

30) Recognise the given figure and find the labelled parts :-
(1) a-Frond, b-Stipe, c-Holdfast
(2) a-Stipe, b-Frond, c-Holdfast
(3) a-Frond, b-Holdfast, c-Stipe
(4) a-Stipe, b-Holdfast, c-Frond

31) Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme environmental conditions because of :-

(1) thick cuticle

(2) presence of vessels
(3) broad hardy leaves
(4) superficial stomata

32) In ferns, fertilization does not involves

(1) Archegonia
(2) Water
(3) Pollen tube
(4) Flagellated anterozoids

33) Female Oocyte arrest at which stage

(1) Leptotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Zygotene
(4) Diplotene

34) Match the column-I and II choose the correct option.

Column -
Column - I
II
 Terminalisation
A P Metaphase-I
of chiasmata

Bivalent
chromosomes
B align on the Q Anaphase-I
equatorial
plate

Homologous
C chromosomes R Diakinesis
separation

Nuclear
membrane and
D S Telophase-I
nucleolus
reappear
(1) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S
(2) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S
(3) A-S, B-P, C-R, D-Q
(4) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S

35) During S-phase of cell cycle

(1) Replication of DNA takes place

(2) Synthesis of tubulin protein takes place
(3) Translation takes place
(4) Both (1) & (3)

SECTION - B

1) Choose the wrong statement

(1) Penicillium is multicellular and produces antibiotics

(2) Neurospora is used in the study of biochemical genetics
(3) Morels and truffles are poisonous mushrooms
(4) Yeast is unicellular and useful in fermentation

2) Aseptate coenocytic mycelium is a feature unique to:-

(1) Penicillium & Saccharomyces

(2) Mucor & Rhizopns
(3) The rare unicellular sac-fungi yeast
(4) Neurospora & Claviceps

3) Which is the following is true about basidiomycetes:

(a) Also called bracket fungi
(b) Sex organs absent, but plasmogamy is brought about by fusion of two vegetative cells of different
genotypes
(c) Karyogamy and meiosis takes place outside the basidium
(d) Basidiospores are produced exogenously

(1) a and b are correct

(2) b and c are correct
(3) a, b, c and d all are correct
(4) a, b and d are correct

4) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III :-

Column I Column II Column III

(1) Albugo (a) Ascomycetes (i) Obligate parasite

(2) Agaricus (b) Deuteromy cetes (ii) Decomposer of litter

Branched and septate my

(3) Aspergillus (c) Phycomycetes (iii)
celium

(4) Alternaria (d) Basidiomy cetes (iv) edible fungus

(1) 1-c-i, 2-a-iv, 3-a-iii, 4-b-ii
(2) 1-c-i, 2-d-iv, 3-d-iii, 4-a-ii
(3) 1-c-i, 2-a-iii, 3-d-iv, 4-b-ii
(4) 1-c-i, 2-d-iv, 3-a-iii, 4-b-ii

5) Match the following Column-I and Column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

A Ulothrix i Isogamy

B Fucus ii Diplontic

C Polysiphonia iii Oogamy

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii
(2) A-i, B-iii, C-ii
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-i
(4) A-iii, C-ii, C-i

6) Assertion-A : Chlorella and Spirulina are used as food supplements by space travellers.
Reason-R : These are unicellular green algae

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false,
(4) Both assertion and reason are false statements.

7) Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to represent a significant step towards evolution of seed
habit because
(1) Female gametophyte is free and later gets dispersed
(2) Female gametophyte lacks archegonia
(3) Megaspores possess endosperm and embryo sorrunded by coat
(4) Embryo develops in female gametophyte which is retained on parent sporophyte

8) Gemma cups are found on: -

(1) Dorsal surface of Marchantia

(2) Branches of Sphagnum
(3) Rhizophore of Selaginella
(4) Rhizome of Fern

9) Select incorrect statement with respect to given diagram :-

(1) Spores germinate to produce creeping, green, branches and frequently filamentous protonema
(2) Sex organs are present at apex of leafy shoot of protonema
(3) Sporophyte has foot, seta and capsule
(4) Spore germination gives rise to protonema

10) The gametophyte is not an independent, free living generation in :-

(1) Polytrichum
(2) Adiantum
(3) Marchantia
(4) Cycas
11) The members of rhodophyceae commonly called red algae because of the

(1) They are found in greater concentrations of warmer area of ocean

(2) They have floridean starch as a stored food
(3) Prodominance of r-phycoerythrin in their body
(4) They show complex post fertilization developments

12) Which of the following is true for nucleolus?

(1) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells

(2) It is a membrane-bound structure
(3) It takes part in spindle formation
(4) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis

13) During which phase(s) of the cell cycle the amount of DNA remains at 2C only in a cell?

(1) G0 and G1
(2) G2 and M
(3) G2 only
(4) G1 and S

14) Match List I with List II :

Proteins are
M Phase (I)
synthesized
G2 Phase (II) Inactive phase
Interval between
Quiescent
(III) mitosis and initiation of
stage
DNA replication
G1 Phase (IV) Equational division

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

15) Statement-I : Chromosomal material condenses to form compact mitotic chromosomes at G1

phase.
Statement-II : During G1 phase the cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does not
replicate its DNA.

(1) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect, Statement-II is correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
 ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A

1) Which of the following group belongs to alkaline amino acid ?

(1) Alanine and Glycine

(2) Glutamic acid and valine
(3) Lysine and Arginine
(4) Glycine and arginine

2) Which of the following secondary metabolites used in drugs?

(1) vinblastine and curcumin

(2) anthocyanin
(3) gums and cellulose
(4) abrin and ricin

3) Which of the following is the non-protein component of the enzyme?

(1) Cofactor
(2) Activator
(3) Coenzyme
(4) All of these

4) The substrate combines more rapidly with enzyme when :

(1) Km is high
(2) Km is low
(3) Ki is high
(4) Ki is low

5) Match column I and II and choose correct option :-

Column I Column II
Adhering Help to stop substances from
A I
junction leaking across tissue
Perform cementing to keep
B Gap junctions II
neighbouring cells together
Facilitate the cells to
C Tight junctions III
communicate each other
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II
6) Which of the following statement is incorrect about lung alveoli ?

(1) lined by simple squamous epithelium

(2) primary sites of gaseous exchange
(3) partial pressure of CO2 in alveoli is 46 mmHg
(4) partial pressure of O2 in alveoli is 104 mmHg

7) Recognize the figure and find out correct labelling :-

(1) 'a' – unicellular glandular epithelium like goblet cells of alimentary canal.
(2) 'a' – unicellular glandular epithelium like salivary gland.
(3) 'a' – Multicellular glandular epithelium like salivary gland.
(4) 'a' – Multicellular glandular epithelium like goblet cells of alimentary canal.

8) Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Alkaloid (i) Anthocyanin

(b) Toxins (ii) Abrin

(c) Essential oils (iii) Morphine

(d) Pigment (iv) Lemon grass oil

(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

9)

Choose the incorrect option for Enzymes :

(1) Enzymes generally function in a narrow range of temperature and pH

(2) Enzymatic activity declines below the optimum value of temperature
(3) Enzymatic activity increases above the optimum value of temperature
When the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular structure and inhibits the
(4)
activity of enzyme, it is known as competitive inhibitor.

10) Identify the connective tissues labelled as (i) and (ii) alongwith the parts labelled as A, B and C.
 (i) (ii) A B C

Collagen Haversian
1 Cartilage Bone Chondrocyte
fibres canal

Haversian Collagen
2 Cartilage Bone Chondrocyte
canal fibres

Haversian Collagen
3 Bone Cartilage Chondrocyte
canal fibres

Haversian Collagen
4 Bone Cartilage Chondrocyte
canal fibres
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Which of the following statement regarding enzyme inhibition is correct?

Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an
(1)
inhibitor protein
Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the same active
(2)
site on the enzyme
(3) Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of substrate
(4) Non-competitive inhibitors always bind to the enzyme irreversibly

12) Which one of the graphs shows the effect of pH on the enzymatic activity (EA)?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

13) Pharynx have which type of epithelium ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Find out the value of A, B, C and D in the given diagram ?

 A = 40 mm Hg, B = 95 mm Hg,
(1)
C = 40 mm Hg, D = 45 mm Hg
A = 45 mm Hg, B = 40 mm Hg,
(2)
C = 104 mm Hg, D = 45 mm Hg
A = 95 mm Hg, B = 45 mm Hg,
(3)
C = 40 mm Hg, D = 45 mm Hg
A = 40 mm Hg, B = 95 mm Hg,
(4)
C = 45 mm Hg, D = 40 mm Hg

15) Choose the correct sequence representing the partial pressure of oxygen (in mm Hg) in
Atmospheric Air, Alveolar air, Deoxygenated Blood, Oxygenated Blood and Tissues.

(1) 159, 104, 95, 40 and 40

(2) 159, 104, 40, 95 and 40
(3) 159, 104, 45, 95 and 40
(4) 104, 159, 40, 95 and 45

16) Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

Catalyzes a transfer
of a group (other
(A) Oxidoreductases (i) than hydrogen)
between a pair of
substrate

Catalyzes
interconversion of
(B) Transferases (ii) optical, geometric
or positional
isomers
 Catalyzes
oxidoreduction
(C) Isomerases (iii)
between two
substrates
(1) A–iii, B–i, C–ii
(2) A–iii, B–ii, C–i
(3) A–ii, B–i, C–iii
(4) A–ii, B–iii, C–i

17) Which of the following factors favour the formation of Oxyghaemoglobin in lungs ?

(1) , Temperature , H⊕concentration

(2) , Temperaturet ,H⊕ concentration

(3) , Temperature↓,H⊕concentration↓
(4) , Temperature↓,H⊕ concentration↓

18) Muscle of expiration are :-

(1) Diaphragm
(2) EICM
(3) Diaphragm and EICM
(4) Abdomen muscle and IICM

19) The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A, B, C and D.
Select the option which gives correct identification and main function and/or characteristic :-

(1) D – Lower end of lungs – diaphragm pulls it down during inspiration

(2) A – trachea - long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air
(3) B – pleural membrane - surround ribs on both sides to provide cushion against rubbing
(4) C–Alveoli - thin walled vascular bag like structures for exchange of gases

20) Match the following :

Column-I Column-II

(i) Tidal Volume (A) TV + IRV + ERV

 Additional
amount of air
Residual
(ii) (B) inhaled beyond
volume
TV during a
deep breath

Amount of
Expiratory air remaining in
(iii) reserve (C) lungs after
volume forceful
expiration

Inspiratory
(iv) reserve (D) TV + IRV
volume

Volume of air
Inspiratory inhaled or
(v) (E)
capacity exhaled for one
breath

Amount of air
exhaled in
(vi) Vital capacity (F)
forced
exhalation
(1) (i)-C, (ii)-E, (iii)-B, (iv)-F, (v)-D, (vi)-A
(2) (i)-E, (ii)-F, (iii)-C, (iv)-B, (v)-A, (vi)-D
(3) (i)-E, (ii)-C, (iii)-F, (iv)-B, (v)-D, (vi)-A
(4) (i)-E, (ii)-C, (iii)-B, (iv)-F, (v)-A, (vi)-D

21) Blood carries the CO2 in 3 forms. The correct percentages of CO2 in these forms are -

As
Dissolved form
carbamino haemoglobin As bicarbonates
in plasma
in RBC

(A) 20-25% 70% 7%

(B) 70% 20-25% 7%

(C) 20-25% 7% 70%

(D) 7% 20-25% 70%

(1) A & B both
(2) C & D both
(3) A only
(4) A & D both

22)

Read the following statements :-

(a) Respiratory rhythm centre is present in medulla region.
(b) Chemosensitive area is highly sensitive to CO2 and hydrogen ions.
(c) The role of oxygen in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite significant.
(d) Pneumotaxic centre is present in pons region.
(e) Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid artery can recognise changes in CO2 and
H⊕ concentration.

How many statements are correct about regulation of respiration ?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Two

23) Mark the correct match pair

(1) Respiratory rhythm centre-Pons

(2) Pneumotaxic centre – Pons
(3) Chemosensitive area – Highly sensitive for O2
+
(4) Aortic arch – Recognise high concentration of CO2, O2 and H

24) If in a person functional residual capacity is 2300 ml, residual volume is 1200 ml and inspiratory
capacity is 3500 ml then find out its vital capacity-

(1) 5800 ml
(2) 7000 ml
(3) 4600 ml
(4) 2300 ml

25) Functional residual capacity (FRC) include

a. TV b. IRV
c. RV d. ERV

(1) a + c
(2) b + d
(3) c + d
(4) a + b + d

26) Which one of the following can not be measured by spirometer ?

(1) Tidal volume

(2) Expiratory reserve volume
(3) Residual volume
(4) Inspiratory reserve volume

27) The normal rate of respiration (breathing) in man is:

(1) 40-50 times per minute

(2) 20-30 times per minute
(3) 12-16 times per minute
(4) 5-10 times per minute

28) What is the vital capacity of our lungs?

(1) Inspiratory reserve volume + expiratory reserve volume

(2) Total lung capacity - Residual volume
(3) Inspiratory reserve volume + Tidal volume
(4) Total lung capacity- Expiratory reserve volume

29)

In each 100 ml of oxygenated blood :-

(A) 3% of O2 is dissolved in blood plasma
(B) 97% of O2 is bound to haemoglobin
(C) 7% of CO2 is dissolved in blood plasma

(D) 23% of CO2 is bound to haemoglobin

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A and D

30) Study the following spirogram and select the option that correctly identifies the lung volumes

labelled A, B, C and D ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) Which of the following diseases is/are occupational respiratory disorder ?

(1) Silicosis, fibrosis and asbestosis

(2) Emphysema and mountain sickness
(3) Asthma and Emphysema
(4) Asthma and Hepatitis

32) Which disorder of lungs occurs due to cigarette smoking :-

(1) Asthma
(2) Pneumonia
(3) Bronchitis
(4) Emphysema

33) Following is the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve, mark the conditions in which that curve
will shift from A to B.

a. Increase in DPG
b. Increase in partial pressure of carbon dioxide
c. Low temperature
d. Increase in pH, blood becomes more alkaline.

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) c and d
(4) a and d

34)

Given below graph shows an oxygen dissociation curve.

 where in the body will haemoglobin be saturated at the percentage shown at points x, y, z.
x-Pulmonary vein, y-Hepatic vein,
(1)
z-Hepatic vein during exercise
x-Pulmonary artery, y-Hepatic vein,
(2)
z-Hepatic vein during exercise
x-Left ventricle, y-Right ventricle,
(3)
z-Systemic artery
x-Systemic artery, y-Pulmonary artery,
(4)
z-Carotid artery

35) The carbon dioxide is transported via blood to lungs mainly_________

(1) In the form of bicarbonates

(2) As carbaminohaemoglobin
(3) In combination with haemoglobin
(4) Dissolved in blood plasma

SECTION - B

1) The Basement membrane is secreted by :

(1) Epithelium tissue

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Muscular tissue

2) Surface area can be increased in a tissue by having _____.

(1) Microvilli
(2) Stereocilia
(3) Kinocilia
(4) Both 1 & 2

3) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of connective tissue. Identify the parts
labelled A, B, C and D, and select the right option about them.
 Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

(1) Macro-phage Collagen fibres Fibroblast Mast cell

(2) Mast cell Collagen fibres Fibroblast Macro-phage

(3) Macro-phage Fibroblast Collagen fibres Mast cell

(4) Mast cell Macro-phage Fibroblast Collagen fibres

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Identify given structures A and B -

(1) A- Nucleotide, B- Alanine

(2) A-Nucleoside, B-Serine
(3) A-Nucleotide, B-Sugar
(4) A-Nitrogen base, B-Palmitic acid

5) Match column I with column II and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II

(a) Antibody (i) Sensory reception

(b) GLUT-4 (ii) Fights infectious agents

(iii) Enables
(c) Receptor
glucose transport into cells

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Which of the following options correctly identifies the structural formulae shown in figure?

A B

(1) Fructose Ribose

(2) Glucose Deoxyribose

(3) Glucose Ribose

(4) Glucose Fructose

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Which of the following statements regarding cofactors of enzymes is correct ?

(1) Zinc is a cofactor for the proteolytic enzyme carboxypeptidase

(2) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide contain the vitamine riboflavin
(3) Cofactor is the part of enzyme which does not affect the catalytic activity of the enzyme
Prosthetic groups are distinguished from other cofactors in that prosthetic groups are loosely
(4)
bound to the apoenzyme

8) Identify enzymes A and B

CO2 + H2O H2CO3 HCO3– + H+

(1) A – Carbonic anhydrase B - Oxidase

(2) A - Oxidase B - Carbonic anhydrase
(3) A - Carbonic anhydrase B - Carbonic anhydrase
(4) A - Oxidase B - Oxidase

9) Match the column I and column II :-

Column-I Column-II
(I) Asthma (A) Fibrosis
 Respiratory surface
(II) Bronchitis (B)
decreased
(III) Emphysema (C) Continue Coughing
Occupational
(IV) (D) Wheezing
respiratory disease
(1) I-D II-C III-A IV-B
(2) I-D II-C III-B IV-A
(3) I-A II-D III-B IV-C
(4) I-B II-C III-A IV-D

10) Find incorrect match in the given diagram ?

(1) A - Blood vessels

(2) B - Blood capillary
(3) C - Red blood cells
(4) D - Basement substance

11) Match the items in column-I with those in column-II :

Column-A Column-B

Aquatic
A. 1. Moist cuticle
molluscs

B. Birds 2. Lungs

C. Insects 3. Gills

Tracheal
D. Earthworm 4.
tubes
(1) A→3, B→2, C→4, D→1
(2) A→2, B→3, C→4, D→1
(3) A→3, B→2, C→1, D→4
(4) A→2, B→3, C→1, D→4

12) Select the correct match

(1) Oropharynx – Portion of pharynx which is the common passage for food and air.
(2) Sound box – Pharynx opens through trachea into this
(3) Epiglottis – Thick, collagenous flap guarding food pipe
(4) Pleural fluid – Promotes friction on the lung surface
13)

Above diagram shows which phenomenon of respiration ?

(1) Inspiration : Contraction in diaphragm and external intercoastal muscles

(2) Expiration : Contraction in diaphragm and external intercoastal muscles
(3) Expiration : Relaxation in diaphragm and external intercoastal muscles
(4) Inspiration : Contraction in diaphragm and relaxation in internal intercoastal muscles

14) During swallowing, glottis can be covered by a thin elastic cartilaginous flap called ....A..... to
prevent the entry of food into larynx. Trachea is a straight tube extending upto ....B.... cavity, which
divides at the level of 5th thoracic vertebra into right and the left primary...C... .
Choose the correct option for A, B and C from the given four option to complete the above
statement.

(1) A-epiglottis, B-bronchi, C- bronchioles

(2) A-epiglottis, B-mid thoracic, C- bronchi
(3) A-epiglottis, B-hind thoracic, C -bronchi
(4) A-epiglottis, B-Pre thoracic, C- bronchi

15) Switch off point is ............

(1) Apneustic centre

(2) Rhythm centre
(3) Chemosensitive area
(4) Pneumotaxic centre
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 2 3 1 4 3 3 3 4 2 2 4 3 2 1 2 4 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 2 4 4 2 2 3 4 1 4 1 3 1 2 1

SECTION - B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 3 2 4 4 2 2 2 4 1 1 2 1 2 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 4 3 4 3 1 3 4 2 2 1 3 4 3 3 4 2 4 4 1 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 4 3 2 2 2 3 2 1 2 3 2 3 2

SECTION - B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 1 3 4 1 2 2 3 4 3 3 3 4 1 3

BOTANY

SECTION - A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 1 1 4 4 4 2 3 4 2 3 1 4 2 2 4 3 4 3 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 2 1 4 4 1 2 2 3 1 1 3 4 1 4

SECTION - B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 4 4 1 3 4 1 2 4 3 4 1 2 2

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION - A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 4 2 2 3 3 1 3 3 2 3 4 1 2 1 4 4 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 2 2 3 3 3 3 2 1 2 1 4 1 1 1

SECTION - B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 4 3 2 2 3 1 3 2 1 1 1 3 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

Distance travelled in 4 sec

3)

4)

5)

No acceleration in horizontal direction.

So, horizontal speed remains same.

6)

7)

Let H is the height of tower

 8)

9) Area b/w a-t graph & time axis is change in velocity

10)

As 'H' is same means 'uy' is same

⇒ T is same
and RC is maximum so ux for C is greatest so speed of C is largest.

11)

In the portion OA, slope (= velocity) of the curve is +ve; at the point A, slope of the curve is zero;
while in the portion AB, slope of the curve is –ve. Hence (v – t) curve will be as shown in fig.

12)

Area under v-t graph gives distance

Area = × 1 × 20 + 1 × 20 + × 1 × 10 + 1 × 10 + 1 × 10 = 55 m

13)

14)

Assertion is true but Reason is false.

15)

h1 = gt2
h2 = 50t – gt2
Given h1 + h2 = 100m
50t = 100 ⇒ t = 2sec

16) From given v – x graph

Equation is v =
⇒ v = –3x + 30

as a =
⇒ a = (–3x + 30) (–3)
⇒ a = 9x – 90

17) differentiate
x3 = t3 + 1

= 2x + x2 = 2t

= = 2t –

= = =

18)
 19) Flux through Cube =

Flux through one surface of Cube =

20)

21) For idential sphere after redistribution

23)

Let r be the distance between q1 and q2. According to Coulomb’s law, the force between them is,

F=

= ( q1 + q2 = q)

For F to be maximum = 0 as q and r are constants.

q – 2q1 = 0

24) Consider the charge placed at centre of imaginary cube.

 ϕ per surface = =
ϕ = 6 × 10 Nm C
4 2 –1

25)

Let the charge Q and –3Q be placed respectively at A and B at a distance x.

Now we will determine the magnitude and direction to the field produced by charge - 3Q at A, this is
E as mentioned in the Example.

∴ (along AB directed towards negative charge)

Now field at location of - 3Q i.e. field at B due to charge Q will be (along AB directed
away from positive charge)

26)

27) will be repulsive as similar charges are at larger distance will have higher force.

28) NCERT -XII , Part -1 (Q. 1.5 (b))

29)

q = ne

⇒ n=

30)

31)

No of field lines orignater/terminate from charge is directly proportional to magnitude of charge

q2 → +ve (∵ field lines orignate)
So 4EFL → 8, 6EFL → 12
therefore 3EFL → 6

32)
For

Charges are placed symmetrically

Total flux

33) S = area of v-t graph

S= ×2×2– ×2×2=0

34)

h = (u sinθ)

...(1)
t2 – t1 = 6s ...(2)

....(3)
from (1) × (2)
2t2 = 18
t2 = 9s
t1 = 3s
From (3)

35)

Ball is coming down after t = 2s.

• Acceleration is always downwards.
• Velocity is downwards as ball is coming down.
• Ball is still in +y direction. So, displacement is upwards.

36)
 37) Rmax =

∴ 160 =
u = 40 m

38)

NCERT Pg # 46

As the slope (i.e., velocity) is decreasing, the acceleration will be negative.

39)

Slope of line in time-displacement represents the velocity. Therefore

40)

41)
Suppose, t1 = time taken by stone to reach the level of water
t2 = time taken by sound to reach the top of well
so, T = t1 + t2
For t1 : u = 0

h = ut + gt2 h = 0 + gt12 t1 =
For t2 : As the velocity of sound is constant
 h = Vt2 ⇒ t2 =

Therefore, T =

42) v = 3x2 – 2x

a (x = 2) = 80 m/s2

43) Smallest unit of charge is stat -coulomb

44)

If there had been a sixth charge +q at the remaining vertex of hexagon, force due to all the six
charges on –q to O will be zero.
Now if F is the force due to sixth charge and f due to the remaining five charges, them

45)

By the superposition, Net electric field at origin

46)
 47)

In the following figure, in equilibrium

Fe=T sin 30o, r = 1 m

48)
on solving using relation

∴ Enet =

49)

Area under (a-t) curve = change in velocity

50)

By formula = =

CHEMISTRY
 54)
Due to plane of symmetry optical rotation is zero.

70)

(A) and (B) are not mirror images, So (A) and (B) are diastereomers.

71)
Both configuration are optically active

99) Radius order

Ne > F

BOTANY

103) NCERT :2021-2022 Pg No: 23

104) NCERT :2021-2022 Pg No: 24

105)

NCERT XI Pg # 23

106)

NCERT XI Pg # 24
 108)

NCERT, Pg. # 24

109)

NCERT, Pg. # 24

121)

Allen Module

123)

XI NCERT page 34

126)

NCERT pg no. 38

129) NCERT [Link]. 31

130) NCERT [Link]. 31

141)

Allen Module

144) NCERT [Link]. 35

ZOOLOGY

151) NCERT [Link] 144

155)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 102

156)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 273

157)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 102, Fig. 7.2(b)

158)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 174

 163)

NCERT XI (E)Pg.# 102, figure 7.1(c), (d), (b), 7.3

NCERT XI (H)Pg.# 102, para 2
figure 7.1(c), (d), (b), 7.3
figure 7.1(c), (d), (b), 7.3

166) NCERT Page # 117

172)

NCERT (XI)(E) Pg. # 275

173)

NCERT-XI, Page # 275

176)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 271

179)

NCERT XI, Page # 274, para-2

182)

NCERT Pg.#276

187)

NCERT XI Pg. # 101

188)

NCERT XI Pg.# 103

189) NCERT Page No. # 145

190) NCERT Pg. no. 147

191)

Glucose and ribose both are carbohydrates. Ribose sugar constitutes RNA nucleotides. Glucose is a
hexose sugar while ribose is a pentose sugar.

192)

NCERT Pg. # 159

195)
NCERT Pg. # 275, Fig. 17.4

198) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 271