06-07-2025

1015CMD303055250002 MD

PHYSICS

1) At what angle should the two forces 2P and act so that the magnitude of resultant force is
:-

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 120°

2) If & are mutually perpendicular then :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of the above

3) Two vectors and have equal magnitude. If magnitude of ( ) is equal to n times the
magnitude of ( ), then the angle between and is :

(1)
cos–1

(2)
cos–1

(3)
sin–1

(4)
sin–1

4) A force of 100 N is acting on a block as shown in figure. Its horizontal and vertical components
are respectively :-

(1) 50 N, 50 N
(2)

(3)
50N, N

(4)
N, 50N

5) and are two vectors given by and . The magnitude of the component of
along is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) The torque of the force acting at the point m about the

origin be: (Torque = )

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) If angle between is θ then match the column :-

(P) (I) A2B2sin2θ

(Q) (II) A2B2sinθcosθ

(R) (III) 0

(S) (IV) A2B2cos2θ

(1) (P)-(I) ; (Q)-(III) ; (R)-(IV) ; (S)-(II)

(2) (P)-(III) ; (Q)-(I) ; (R)-(II) ; (S)-(IV)
(3) (P)-(IV) ; (Q)-(II) ; (R)-(I) ; (S)-(III)
(4) (P)-(I) ; (Q)-(III) ; (R)-(II) ; (S)-(IV)

8) Which of the following is not a vector :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) If & are coplanar then which of the following will always be zero :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) All of the above

10) If , then ........ :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) –1
(4)

11) What is the angle between and :-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4) π

12) A person moves 10 m along north direction, then moves 40 m along east direction and finally
moves 20 m along north direction then magnitude of displacement is :-

(1) 70 m
(2) 50 m
(3) m
(4) Zero

13) The numerical ratio of magnitude of displacement to the distance covered is always :

(1) Less than one

(2) Equals to one
(3) Equal to or less than one
(4) Equal to or greater than one

14) A particle moves along the sides AB, BC, CD of a square of side 25 m with a speed of 15 ms–1. Its
average velocity is :

(1) 15 ms–1
(2) 10 ms–1
(3) 7.5 ms–1
(4) 5 ms–1

15) A car moves a distance of 60 km with 10 km/hr and next 120 km with 20 km/hr. Calculate
average speed for total journey :-

(1) 15 km/hr
(2) 12 km/hr
(3) 18 km/hr
(4) 16 km/hr

16) A man travels half time of its journey with speed of 5 m/s and for remaining half time he moves
half of its remaining distance travelled, with speed of 3 m/s & remaining half distance with speed 6
m/s. Then his average speed of man is :-

(1) 3 m/s
(2) 6 m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 4.5 m/s

17) If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance with v1 speed and 3/5th distance with v2 then average
speed is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) A body is moving with velocity 30 m/s towards east. After 10 seconds its velocity becomes 40 m/s
towards north. The average acceleration of the body is :-

(1) 1 m/s2
(2) 7 m/s2
(3)
(4) 5 m/s2

19)

Consider case of rectilinear motion with the sign convention given in figure. Choose INCORRECT
statement :-

(1) v > 0, a > 0 particle is speeding up

(2) v > 0 , a < 0 particle is slowing down
(3) v < 0, a < 0 particle is speeding up
(4) v < 0, a > 0 particle is speeding up

20) A particle moves at a constant speed v from point A to point B along a circle of radius r. If points
A and B have an angular displacement of θ, the magnitude of change in velocity in moving from A to
B is :

(1) Zero
(2) 2v sin (θ/2)
(3) 2v sin θ
(4) 2v cos (θ/2)

21) The acceleration of a particle moving in a straight line varies with its displacement as a = 2S +
1. Velocity of the particle is zero at zero displacement. Find the relation between velocity and
displacement :-

(1) v = S(S + 1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

22)

The position vector of a particle is given as . The time after which the
velocity vector and acceleration vector becomes perpendicular to each other is equal to :-

(1) 1 sec.
(2) 2 sec.
(3) 1.5 sec.
(4) 5 sec.
23) The value of cos α is find the value of sin2α :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24)

cos2(75°) – sin2(75°) = ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) For ellipse , the co-ordinates of points A and B are respectively:-

(1) (0, 3) and (4, 0)

(2) (3, 0) and (0, 4)
(3) (4, 0) and (0, 3)
(4) (16, 0) and (0, 9)

26)

Find =?

(1)

(2)

(3) 0
(4)

27)

y = ecos x, =?

(1) –sin x ecos x

(2) –sin x esin x
(3) esin x
(4) e–sin x

28) A current of 1.6 A is flowing through a wire having cross-sectional area 1 mm2. If density of free
electrons in the material of the wire is 1029 per m3, the drift velocity of electrons will be :-

(1) 10–4 m/s

(2) 10–3 m/s
(3) 10–2 m/s
(4) 0.1 m/s

29) Which of the following is not equal to drift velocity ? (Symbols have their usual meanings)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) According to graph shown in diagram find total charge flown from t = 2 sec to t = 8 sec.

(1) 40 C
(2) 40 μC
(3) 45 μC
(4) None of these

31) An electron is revolving with a uniform speed 3.14 × 106 m/s in a circular track of radius 1.6 cm.
Find out the electric current at a point on the circle (in multiple of 10–11) :
(1) 1 A
(2) 1.5 A
(3) 0.5 A
(4) 2 A

32) When the current i is flowing through a conductor, the drift velocity of free electrons is v. If 2i
current is flowed through the same metal but having double the area of cross-section, then the drift
velocity will be:-

(1) v/4
(2) v/2
(3) v
(4) 4v

33) A potential difference is applied across the ends of a metallic wire. If the potential difference is
doubled, the drift velocity :

(1) will be doubled

(2) will be halved
(3) will be quadrupled
(4) will remain unchanged

34) A metal wire is subjected to a constant potential difference. When the temperature of the metal
wire increases, the drift velocity of the electron in it

(1) increases, thermal velocity of the electron increases

(2) decreases, thermal velocity of the electron increases
(3) increases, thermal velocity of the electron decreases
(4) decreases, thermal velocity of the electron decreases

35) When no current, is passed through a conductor:-

(1) The free electrons do not move

(2) The average speed of a free electron over a large period of time is zero
(3) The average velocity of a free electron over a large period of time is zero
(4) The average of square of velocities of all the free electrons at an instant is zero

36) If n,e,τ and m respectively represent the density, charge, relaxation time and mass of the
electron, then the resistance of a wire of length ℓ and area of cross-section A will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

37) A copper wire is drawn through a die to double its length. If the original reistance was r then the
new reistance of the wire will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 4r
(4) 16 r

38) Which part of the curve represents the negative resistance ?

(1) AB
(2) BC
(3) CD
(4) EF

39) At what temperature will the resistance of a copper wire becomes three times its value at 0°C if
temperature cofficient of resistance for copper is 4 × 10–3 per °C :-

(1) 400°C
(2) 450°C
(3) 500°C
(4) 550°C

40) The specific resistance of a wire is ρ , its volume is 3m3 and its resistance is 3 ohms, then its
length will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Two wires A and B of equal masses and of the same metal are taken. The diameter of the wire A
is half the diameter of the wire B. If the resistance of the wire A be 24 ohm, the resistance of the
wire B is :-
(1) 3Ω
(2) 1.5 Ω
(3) 4.5 Ω
(4) 6Ω

42) Two different conductors have same resistance at 0oC. It is found that the resistance of the first
conductor at t1oC is equal to the resistance of the second conductor at t2oC. The ratio of the
temperature coefficients of resistance of the conductors. α1/α2 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) If 1021 electrons and 1021 positrons are approaching towards each other per sec. Then find
current in the region. (Positron is anti particle of electrons)

(1) Zero
(2) 3.2 × 102 amp
(3) 1.6 × 10–2 amp
(4) 3.2 × 10–2 amp

44) The masses of three wires of copper are in the ratio of 1 : 3 : 5 and their lengths are in the ratio
5 : 3 : 1. The ratio of their electrical resistance is :-

(1) 1 : 3 : 5
(2) 5 : 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 15 : 125
(4) 125 : 15 : 1

45) The current density at a point is . Find the rate of charge flow through a

cross sectional area

(1) 400 A
(2) 600 A
(3) 40 A
(4) 6 A

CHEMISTRY
1)

What is the name of

(1) 2-methylpropanenitrile
(2) Isopropyl Cyanide
(3) Isobutyronitrile
(4) All of these

2) The IUPAC name of the is :

(1) 2-(Bromomethyl)-3-oxopentane carboxamide

(2) 1-Bromo-2-carbamoylpentan-3-one
(3) 5-Bromo-4-carbamoylpentan-3-one
(4) 2-(Bromomethyl)-3-oxopentanamide

3) The IUPAC name of Isopentyl Alcohol is :-

(1) 1-Hydroxy-2-methyl pentene

(2) 3-Methyl butan-1-ol
(3) 2-Methy propanol
(4) 2-Methyl-butan-2-ol

4) Which is incorrect combination of structure and IUPAC name ?

(1) CH2=CH–C≡CH But-1-en-3-yne

(2)
2-chloropent-2-en-4-yne

(3)

2-methyl-3-propylbutan-1,4-dial

(4)
Ethyl-3-oxobutanoate

5) Which of the following is primary radical ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) , Total number of carbon atoms in parent carbon chain is :-

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 3

7) The IUPAC name of the structure is:

(1) 3-Amino-2-formyl butane-1, 4-dioic acid

(2) 3-Amino-2, 3-dicarboxy propanal
(3) 2-Amino-3-formyl butane-1, 4-dioic acid
(4) 1-Amino-2-formyl succinic acid

8) What is correct IUPAC name of given compound is ?

(1) Methyl-2-Hydroxy pentanoate

(2) 2-Hydroxy-4-Methoxypentan-3-one
(3) 4-Hydroxy-2-Methoxypentan-3-one
(4) 2-Methoxypentanoic acid

9) The correct sequence of functional group according to IUPAC :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) The correct IUPAC name of given compound is :

(1) 3-Ethanoyloxycyclopent-4-ene carboxylic acid

(2) 4-Ethanoyloxycyclopent-2-ene carboxylic acid
(3) 4-Ethanoyloxycyclopent-3-ene carboxylic acid
(4) 4-Ethanoyloxycyclopent-1-ene-5-carboxylic acid

11) What is correct structure of "6–bromo-2-chlorocyclohexa-2,4-dienecarboxylic acid" :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12)

Match the following :-

(1) P – ii, Q – iv, R – ii, S – iii
(2) P – iv, Q – i, R – iii, S – ii
(3) P – iv, Q – i, R – ii, S – iii
(4) P – iv, Q – ii, R – i, S – iii

13)

The IUPAC name of is :-

(1) 2-Bromo-3-methyl but-2-ene

(2) 4-Bromo-3-methyl pent-2-ene
(3) 2-Bromo-3-methyl pent-3-ene
(4) 4-Bromo-2, 3-dimethyl but-2-ene

14) The correct IUPAC name of given compound is :-

(1) 1–Bromo–2–chloro–5–ethyl cyclo hexane

(2) 2–Bromo–1–chloro–4–ethyl cyclo hexane
(3) 3–Bromo–4–chloro–1–ethyl cyclo hexane
(4) 1–Bromo–5–chloro–3–ethyl cyclo hexane

15) The IUPAC name of the hydrocarbon

CH ≡ CCH = CH – CH = CH2

(1) Hexa–3,5–diene–5–yne
(2) Hexa–1, 2–dien–1–yne
(3) Hexa–1,3–dien–5–yne
(4) Hexa–3,5–dien–1–yne

16) Number of 1°, 2° and 3° H in isooctane :

(1) 13, 3, 2
(2) 15, 2, 1
(3) 12, 5, 1
(4) 9, 5, 1

17) Which of the following general formula is not correctly matched ?

(1) Alkadiene CnH2n–2

(2) Carboxylic acid CnH2nO2
(3) Carboxylic anhydride CnH2nO3
(4) Ether CnH2n+2O

18) IUPAC name of following compound is :-

(1) Propane-1,2,3-triamide
(2) 1,2,3-triamidopropane
(3) Propane-1,2,3-tricarboxamide
(4) Propane-1,2,3-triaminoketone

19) Assertion :- Olefinic and acetylenic bonds have π-bonds.

Reason :- All π-bonds are Olefinic and acetylenic bonds.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

20) The Neopentyl amine is :-

(1) 1° amine
(2) 2° amine
(3) 3° amine
(4) None of these

21) Which statement is incorrect for

(1) IUPAC name is propane-1,2,3-tricarbonitrile

(2) Carbon is sp3 and sp hybridised
(3) Five 2° hydrogen atoms are present
(4) All nitrogen atoms are sp hybridised

22) Assertion :- IUPAC numbering in

CH2 = CH – C ≡ CH is started from left to right.
Reason :- According to IUPAC numbering is always started from double bond side.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

23) Match the columns

Column–I Column–II

(A) Non-benzenoid compound (p)

(B) Alicyclic compound (q)

(C) Benzenoid compound (r)

(D) Heterocyclic aromatic compound (s)

(1) A–r; B–p; C–s; D–q

(2) A–s; B–p; C–q; D–r
(3) A–p; B–r; C–s; D–q
(4) A–r; B–p; C–q; D–s

24) For reaction 2X(g) → Y(g) + 3Z(g)

rate of formation of Z in M/sec in time interval 0 to 300 sec. will be :-

(1) 4.5 × 10–3 M/sec

(2) 3 × 10–3 M/sec
(3) 2.5 × 10–3 M/sec
(4) 2 × 10–3 M/sec

25) For the first order reaction, A → product (t1/2 = 10 minutes), the fraction of reactant degraded
after an hour from the reaction has started is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) The time for half life period of a certain reaction A → Products is 1 hour. When the initial
concentration of the reactant 'A', is 2.0 mol L–1, how much time does it take for its concentration to
come from 0.50 to 0.25 mol L–1 if it is a zero order reaction ?

(1) 0.25h
(2) 1h
(3) 4h
(4) 0.5h

27) In a reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) —→ 2NH3(g), the rate of appearance of NH3 is 2.5×10–4 molL–1 sec–1.
The rate of reaction & rate of disappearance of H2 will be (In molL–1 sec–1)

(1) 3.75 × 10–4, 1.25 × 10–4

(2) 1.25 × 10–4, 2.5 × 10–4
(3) 1.25 × 10–4, 3.75 × 10–4
(4) 5.0 × 10–4, 3.75 × 10–4

28) The reaction mechanism for the reaction

P → R is as follows.

P 2Q(Fast)

The rate law for the main reaction (P → R) is :

(1) K1[P][Q]
(2) K1K2[P]

(3)

2
(4) K1K2[P]

29) For the reaction

Experiment 1: The value of was, obtained by experiment(s), 2.25 torr/sec for a pressure of 450
torr of NO(g) and 0.25 torr/sec for a pressure of 150 torr, the pressure of H2(g) being constant.
Experiment 2: The value of –dp /dt was 1.90 torr/sec for H2(g) pressure of 291 Torr and 0.951
torr/sec for H2(g) pressure of 145 torr the pressure of NO(g) being constant.
Which analytical statement is correct on the basis of above experiment(s)
(I) Order of reaction is 3
(II) Order with respect to NO(g) and H2(g) are 3 and 0 respectively
(III) Order with respect to H2(g) and NO(g) are 1 and 2 respectively
(IV) Rate of reaction depend upon the concentration/pressure of reactant(s)

(1) I, II and IV
(2) I and III
(3) I, III and IV
(4) I only

30)

Consider the energy diagram of a reaction :

B → A, on the basis of given diagram select the correct code for matching Column-I and Column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) X–A (p) Enthalpy of reaction

(B) X–B (q) Energy of transition state

(C) A–B (r) Activation energy of forward reaction

(D) X (s) Activation energy of backward reaction

(1) A-(s),B-(r),C-(q),D-(p)
(2) A-(q),B-(r),C-(p),D-(s)
(3) A-(r).B-(s).C-(p),D-(q)
(4) A-(s),B-(r),C-(p),D-(q)

31) , means that-

(1) on increasing temperature rate of reaction increases

(2) on increasing temperature rate of reaction decreases
(3) on increasing temperature rate of reaction remain unchanged
(4) Cannot predict
32) The rate constant of first order reaction depends on the-

(1) Volume of the reaction mixture

(2) Concentration of reactant
(3) Concentration of products
(4) Temperature

33) Half life and completion time of reaction :

A(1M) 2B are :

(1) 500 min, 750 min

(2) 500 sec, 750 sec
(3) 500 sec, 1000 sec
(4) 500 sec, 50 sec

34) Assertion : An elementary reaction cannot have fractional order.

Reason : Stoichiometric coefficients in an elementary reaction can be fractional.

(1) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true and Reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion is wrong and Reason is true.

35) Calculate the order of reaction from the following data :

2NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3H2(g)

Pressure of NH3 (mm Hg) 50 100 200

Half lives (min) 3.6 1.8 0.9

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

36) The half life of a first order reaction is 60min. How long will it take to consume 90% of the
reactant ?

(1) 200 min

(2) 300 min
(3) 400 min
(4) 600 min

37) A zero-order reaction is 25% complete in 30 seconds. What time does it take for 50%
completion?

(1) 40 s
(2) 70 s
(3) 50 s
(4) 60 s

38) In a zero order reaction, for every 10° rise of temperature, the rate is doubled. If the
temperature is increased from 10°C to 60°C, the rate of the reaction becomes

(1) 32 times
(2) 16 times
(3) 64 times
(4) 128 times

39) For the reaction at 273 K

NO(g) + O3(g) → NO2(g) + O2(g)
It is observed that the pressure of NO(g) falls from 700 mm Hg to 510 mm Hg in 250 seconds.
Calculate the average rate of reaction in atm s–1.

(1) 0.76
(2) 0.38
(3) 10–3
(4) 10–2

40) The Ea of exothermic reaction X → Y is 40 KJ/mol. Heat of reaction is 30 KJ/mol. Ea for the
reaction Y → X will be ?

(1) 10 KJ/mol
(2) 70 KJ/mol
(3) 40 KJ/mol
(4) 30 KJ/mol

41) A first order reaction is 50% completed in 20 minutes at 27°C and in 5 minutes at 47°C. The
energy of activation of the reaction is :-

(1) 43.85 kJ/mol

(2) 55.14 kJ/mol
(3) 11.97 kJ/mol
(4) 6.65 kJ/mol

42) Choose the rate law with the help of following data for the reaction :
A + B → Product
(1) Rate = k[B]3
(2) Rate = k[B]4
(3) Rate = k[A][B]3
(4) Rate = k[A]2[B]2

43)

For reaction 2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g), following results are obtained :

[NO] [O2] Rate of

(mol L–1) (mol L–1) formation of NO2

0.3 0.3 0.096 mol L–1 S–1

0.6 0.3 0.384 mol L–1 S–1

0.3 0.6 0.192 mol L–1 S–1

0.6 0.6 0.768 mol L–1 S–1

Rate law is -
2
(1) r = k [NO] [O2]
(2) r = k[NO] [O2]
2
(3) r = k[NO] [O2]
2 2
(4) r = k[NO] [O2]

44) At 25°C, the values of rate constant, activation energy and Arrhenius constant of a reaction are 3
× 10–4 sec–1, 129 kJ/mol and 2 × 1015 sec–1 respectively.
The value of rate constant as T → ∞ is :-

(1) zero
(2) 2 × 1015
(3) 3 × 10–4
(4) 6 × 1011

45) The slope of graph of ℓnk vs is :-

(1) –Ea/R
(2) Ea/R
(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Perivitelline space occurs between :-

(1) Zona pellucida and cells of corona radiata

(2) Sperms and zona pellucida
(3) Sperms and cells of corona radiata
(4) Membrane of ovum and zona pellucida

2) identify the A, B and C :-

A B C

(1) GnRH LH FSH

(2) GnRH FSH LH

(3) Somatotrophic ICSH STH

(4) Somatotrophic Androgen STH

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Where sertoli cells are found and what function do they perform ?

(1) Found in pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin

(2) Found in ovaries and secrete progesterone
(3) Found in adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline
(4) Found in seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to germ cells

4) Why is the presence or absence of hymen not a reliable indicator of virginity or sexual
experience?

(1) In some women, the hymen persists even after performing coitus.
(2) Hymen can also be ruptured by sudden fall.
(3) Hymen also broken by insertion of a vaginal tampon.
(4) All of the above.

5) Which one of the following statements is wrong about mammary gland ?

(1) The lactiferous ducts of each lobe join to form mammary ampulla.
(2) Several mammary ducts join to form a mammary ampulla.
(3) Each breast is divided into 15-20 mammary lobes.
(4) Colostrum contains several antibodies.

6) Which of the following structures are not included in external genitalia of female ?
(a) Mons pubis (b) Labia majora
(c) Hymen (d) Labia minora
(e) Cervix (f) Fallopian tube

(1) c, e and f
(2) Only e and f
(3) Only d and f
(4) a, d, e and f

7) During oogenesis, the meiosis division in secondary oocyte is arrested at which stage ?

(1) Prophase I
(2) Prophase II
(3) Metaphase I
(4) Metaphase II

8) The following refers to schematic representation of oogenesis.

Identify A to E correctly :

(1) A - Fetal life, B - Birth, C - Puberty, D - Adult reproductive life, E - Child body
(2) A - Fetal life, B - Birth, C - Child hood, D - Puberty, E - Adult reproductive life
(3) A - Adult reproductive life, B - Birth, C - Puberty, D - Child hood, E - Fetal life
(4) A - Birth, B - Child hood, C - Fetal life, D - Puberty, E - Adult reproductive life

9) How many of the following are diploid structures ?

Primary oocyte, spermatozoa, spermatid, oogonium, ovum, second polar body, secondary
spermatocyte, spermatogonium.
(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 6

10) What is true about polar bodies formed during gametogenesis in human?

(1) These are formed during the fetal life of female.

(2) These contain same number of chromosomes as in the secondary oocyte.
(3) These contain same number of chromosomes as in the primary oocyte.
(4) These are formed during both spermatogenesis and oogenesis.

11) During oogenesis, first meiotic division and second meiotic division are respectively :-

(1) Unequal division, Unequal division

(2) Equal division, Unequal division
(3) Equal division, Equal division
(4) Unequal division, Equal division

12) When both ovaries of human are removed then which of the following hormone is decreased in
blood ?

(1) Oxytocin
(2) Prolactin
(3) Estrogen
(4) Gonadotropin releasing factor

13) Menstruation is initiated by :-

(1) A sudden release of FSH from the anterior pituitary

(2) A lack of progesterone due to degeneration of the corpus luteum
(3) An increased release of estrogen and progesteron from the corpus luteum
(4) A sudden drop in FSH level

14) At the time of puberty, how many primary follicles are left in each ovary ?

(1) 60,000 – 80,000

(2) 7 million
(3) 10,000 – 20,000
(4) 1,20,000 – 1,60,000

15) Which of following is an incorrect statement:-

(1) The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomere is called morula

Placenta act as a temporary endocrine gland which secrete several hormone like hCG, hPL,
(2)
estrogen, progesterone etc.
(3) Appearance of hairs on the head are usually observed during first trimester
(4) Menstrual cycles ceases around 50 years of age that is called menopause

16) Select the hormone that is not secreted by placenta:-

(1) hCG
(2) Estrogen
(3) Progesterone
(4) LH

17) Identify the human embryonic stage shown below and select the correct option with its matching

with site of occurance in a normal pregnant female.

Developmental
Site of occurrence
stage

(1) Blastocyst (i) Uterine cavity

Early part of
(2) 8-celled morula (ii)
fallopian tube

Middle part
(3) Late morula (iii) of fallopian
tube

End part of
(4) Blastocyst (iv)
fallopian tube
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) Read the given statements and choose correct option about them :-
(A) Each lobule of testis contains one to three highly coiled seminiferous tubules and it is lined inside
by only columnar cells
(B) The vasa efferentia leave the testis and open into vas deferens
(C) Functional maturation of sperms take place in epididymis.
(D) Seminal plasma is rich in fructose, calcium and certain enzymes.

A B C D

(1) True False True True

(2) False False True True

 (3) False False False False

(4) True True False False

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) Fill in the blanks in the following statements :-

The human male ejaculates about ........ million sperms during a coitus of which, for normal fertility,
at least ........... percent sperms must have normal shape and size and at least ........ percent of them
must show vigorous motility.

(1) 400 - 500, 60, 40

(2) 100 - 120, 40, 60
(3) 200 - 300, 60, 40
(4) 200 - 300, 40, 60

20) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding female external genitalia ?

(1) Mons pubis is a cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic hairs
(2) Clitoris lies at the upper junction of labia minora below the urethral opening
(3) Hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity
(4) Labia majora are fleshy folds of tissue

21) A functional mammary gland is the characteristic feature of :-

(1) All mammals

(2) All primates
(3) All male mammals
(4) All female mammals

22) If ampulla of mammary gland is blocked, the milk will not go from :-

(1) Alveoli to mammary duct

(2) Mammary tubule to mammary duct
(3) Mammary duct to lactiferous duct
(4) Mammary duct to mammary tubule

23)

Read the following

(A) It is a thick layer of smooth muscles
(B) It is highly glandular layer
(C) It exhibits strong contraction during delivery of the baby
(D) It is a thin membranous layer
Which of the above statements are correct with respect to myometrium?
(1) A and B
(2) B, C and D
(3) A and C
(4) A, B and C

24) The ovaries are located one on each side of the lower abdomen and is connected to pelvic wall
and uterus by :-

(1) Ligament
(2) Tendon
(3) Loose connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

25) Which one of the following structure of sperm is mismatched?

(1) Acrosome - Filled with enzyme that help in fertilisation of the ovum
(2) Nucleus - Contains an elongated and haploid nucleus
(3) Proximal centriole - Starts cleavage in zygote
(4) Tail - Contains numerous mitochondria, which produce energy for movement of tail

26) If germ cells in female and male gonads begin undergoing meiosis simultaneously. What will be
ratio of ova and sperms produced?

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 2 : 1

27) Spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty due to :-

(1) Significant increase in growth hormones in male body

(2) Significant increase in number of germ cells
(3) Significant increase in GnRH secreted from hypothalamus.
(4) Significant decrease in GnRH secreted from hypothalamus

28) Level of which hormone reaches peak during follicular phase of menstrual cycle ?

(1) Estrogen
(2) Progesterone and estrogen
(3) Luteinizing hormone and hCG
(4) F.S.H. and progesterone

29)

Arrange following events of female reproductive cycle in (human) in sequence :-

(I) Secretion of FSH
(II) Growth of corpus luteum
(III) Growth of follicles
(IV) Ovulation
(V) Sudden increase in level of LH.
(VI) Formation of corpus albicans

(1) III → I → IV → II → VI → V
(2) I → III → V → IV → II → VI
(3) I → IV → III → V → II → VI
(4) II → I → III → IV → VI → V

30) Assertion (A) :- Colostrum from mother is essential for new born babies.
Reason (R) :- Colostrum contains antibodies.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

31) Assertion: Menstruation occurs if the released ovum is not fertilised.

Reason: In the absence of fertilisation, the corpus luteum degenerates.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

32) Assertion : The male sex accessory ducts include rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas
deferens.
Reason : These ducts store and transport the sperms from the testis to the outside through urethra.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

33) Assertion : Humans are sexually reproducing and viviparous.

Reason : Oxytocin is main parturition hormone.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

34) Assertion : Parts of the female reproductive system along with a pair of the mammary gland are
integrated structurally & functionally.
Reason : This integrated system is to support the process of pregnancy, birth & childcare.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason is True but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

35) Assertion (A) : Testes are situated in side the abdominal cavity within a pouch called scrotum.
Reason (R) : The scrotum help in maintaing the high temperature of the testes (2-2.5 higher than
the normal internal temperature) necessary for spermatogenesis.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R incorrect.

36) Statement - 1 :- Testis are covered by dense covering made up of white fibrous coat
Statement - 2 :- Both testis has about 250 compartments called testicular lobules.

(1) Only statement 2 correct

(2) Only statement 1 correct
(3) Both statement 1 and 2 incorrect
(4) Both statement 1 and 2 correct

37) Statement -1 :- seminiferous tubules of the testis open into vas-deferens through the rete-testis.
Statement -2 :- Epididymis lead to vas-deferens that ascends to the abdomen and loops over ureter.

(1) Both statement 1 and 2 correct

(2) Only statement 1 correct
(3) Only statement 2 correct
(4) Both statement 1 and 2 incorrect

38) Statement-1 : Tertiary follicle is characterised by a fluid filled cavity called antrum.
Statement-2 : Release of secondary oocyte from the ovary by the process called ovulation.

(1) Both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect

(2) Both statement 1 and 2 are correct
(3) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect
(4) Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct

39) Statement-1 :- Lack of menstruation is always indicative of pregnancy.

Statemtne-2 :- Used sanitary napkins should be disposed without wrapping it.

(1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are incorrect.

(2) Statement-2 is correct but statement-1 is incorrect.
(3) Statement-2 is incorrect but statement-1 is correct.
(4) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct.
40) Given below are two statements :
Statement-I : No new follicles are developed during luteal phase of menstrual cycle.
Statement-II : During pre-ovulatory phase growing follicles secrete progesterone.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

41) Read the given statement's & choose the correct option ?
Statement-1 : The first menstruation begins at puberty and is called menarche.
Statement-2 : One ovum is released during the middle of each menstrual cycle.

(1) Both statements are incorrect.

(2) Only statements-1 are correct.
(3) Both statements are correct.
(4) Only statements-2 are correct.

42) Read the following statement and choose the appropriate option given below.
Statement-I Menstrual cycle stars with the menstrual phase when menstrual flow occurs and it
lasts for 3-5 days.
Statement-II The menstrual flow results due to breakdown of myometrial lining of the uterus and
its blood vessels.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

43) Statement-I : The reproductive cycle in the all Non-primates mammals is called menstrual
cycle.
Statement-II : One ovum is released just after end of each menstrual phase.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

44) Statement-I : The process of fusion of a sperm with an ovum is called fertilisation.
Statement-II : Fertilisation can only occur if the ovum and sperms are transported simulteneously
to the ampullary region.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.
45) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Syngamy – Fusion of male and female gamete

(2) Insemination – Transfer of semen in vagina
(3) Fertilization site – Uterine cavity
(4) Sex of baby – Determined by Father

46) Hybrid seeds tremendously increases productivity yet has created problems for farmer like loss
of hybrid vigour from generation to generation. This is because of :-

(1) Autogamy
(2) Segregation of characters
(3) Poor adaptability
(4) Recombination of characters

47) In the cross given below :

AaBbccDd ×AabbCCDd
What percentage of progeny will have genotype aaBbCcDD?

(1) 6.2 %
(2) 3.1 %
(3) 12.4 %
(4) 25 %

48) If Tt pea plant is crossed with Tt pea plant, then the offsprings will be -
A- 75% plants are Tall
B- 25% plants are Dwarf
C- 50% plants are homozygous
D- 50% plants are heterozygous
Select the correct option -

(1) Only A, C, D
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) Only B, C, D
(4) Only A, B, C

49) Observe the given diagram & select the correct option :-
(1) It is the diagrammatic representation of a out cross.
(2) It is the comparison of two monohybrid crosses, used to find out the phenotype of organisms.
(3) It is the diagrammatic representation of reciprocal cross to find out the genotype of organism.
It is the diagrammatic representation of test cross to find out the genotype of dominant
(4)
organisms.

50) A test cross enables us to -

(1) Determine the viability of cross.

(2) Distinguish between homozygous dominant and heterozygous dominant.
(3) Determine whether two species can interbreed or not.
(4) Determine the similarities in the DNA of two species.

51) Which of the following is incorrect for garden pea?

Character Genotype Phenotype

Homozygous
(1) Flower position Terminal
or heterozygous

Homozygous
(2) Seed colour Yellow
or heterozygous

Homozygous
(3) Pod colour Green
or heterozygous

Homozygous
(4) Pod shape Inflated
or heterozygous
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

52) In dihybrid Mendelian cross how many types of genotype and phenotype will be obtained :-

(1) 4 and 9 respectively

(2) 16 and 4 respectively
(3) 9 and 4 respectively
(4) 4 and 16 respectively

53) A diploid organism is heterozygous for 6 loci, how many types of gametes can be produced ?

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 2
(4) 64

54) Mendel proposed which of the following term for hereditary units ?

(1) Factor
(2) Genome
(3) Genetic particle
(4) Gene

55) An organism's genetic constitution is called its :-

(1) Genotype
(2) Phenotype
(3) Holotype
(4) Homozygous

56) Law of segregation is also known as :-

(1) Law of dominance

(2) Law of Independent assortment
(3) Law of purity of gametes
(4) Incomplete dominance

57) When different form of gene present on same locus in homologous chromosome then it is called:

(1) Pseudoallele
(2) Non Allele
(3) Allele
(4) Jumping gene

58) (A) A true breeding line is one that having undergone continuous self pollinatoin
(B) Show stable trait inheritances expression for several generation
(C) Mendel selected 14 true breeding pea plant varieties as pair which were dissimilar except for
one character with contrasting traits
(D) It increase homozygosity for every character that is under consideration
Regarding to pure lines select the correct statement

(1) A, B, C
(2) A, B, D
(3) A & C
(4) B & C

59) "When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of characters is
independent of the other pair of characters". This explains :-

(1) Law of dominance

(2) Law of segregation
(3) Law of independent assortment
(4) Postulate of paired factors

60) Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product, when :-

(1) More than one gene influence the same phenotype.

(2) More than one phenotype is influenced by the same gene.
(3) More than one genotype is influenced by the same gene.
(4) More than one allele are there for a character.

61) Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Monohybrid
(1) (a) Tt × tt (i) 9:3:3:1
cross

Dihybrid
(2) (b) Tt × TT (ii) 3:1
cross

Test
(3) (c) TT × tt (iii) 1:1
cross

Out
(4) (d) RRYY × rryy (iv) 1:1
cross
(1) 1 - a - ii, 2 - d - i, 3 - c - iv, 4 - b - iii
(2) 1 - b - iii, 2 - a - i, 3 - c - ii, 4 - d - iv
(3) 1 - c - iv, 2 - d - ii, 3 - b - iii, 4 - a - i
(4) 1 - c - ii, 2 - d - i, 3 - a - iii, 4 - b- iv

62) In 1900 A. D. three biologists independently discovered Mendel's principles. They are :-

(1) De Vries, Correns and Tschermak

(2) Sutton, Morgan and Bridges
(3) Avery, McLeod and McCarthy
(4) Bateson, Punnet and Bridges

63) In a dihybrid cross between RRYY and rryy parents, the number of RrYy genotypes in F2
generation will be :-

(1) 4/16
(2) 3/16
(3) 2/16
(4) 1/16

64) Which of the following represent gamete ?

(1) TtRG
(2) TRrG
(3) TRRG
(4) TRG

65) Incomplete dominance can be seen in:

(1) Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa

(2) Flower colour in Pisum sativum
(3) Size of starch grains in Garden pea
(4) 1 and 3 both

66) Statement I : ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene I.

Statement II : The plasma membrane of the red blood cells has sugar polymers that protrude from
its surface & the kind of sugar is controlled by the gene.

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statements I and II are correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

67) When we make the selfing of hetrozygous round (Bb) seed shape Pea plant then in their progeny
in what fraction we obtained large starch grain size seed :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

68) In Mirabilus jalapa RR × rr gives rise to Rr-pink flower. Characteristic pink colour of Rr plants is
due to

(1) Partial expression of r

(2) Complete expression of R
(3) Amount of pigment produced half as compare to RR plant.
(4) Red colour produced by R, get diluted by white pigment produced by r.

69) Theoratically, the modified allele could be responsible for the production of :
(1) Less efficient enzyme
(2) A non functional enzyme
(3) Non enzyme at all
(4) All the above

70) In a dihybrid cross, how many plants are Heterozygous for one character in F2 - generation out
of 2000 plants :-

(1) 1000
(2) 500
(3) 250
(4) 2000

71) Progeny with blood group "O" can't be obtained in cross :-

(1) A × A
(2) A × B
(3) O × AB
(4) B × B

72) In a family, father has a blood group 'A' and mother has a blood group 'B'. Their children show
50% probability for a blood group 'AB' indicating that –

(1) Father is heterozygous

(2) Mother is heterozygous
(3) Either of parent is heterozygous
(4) Mother is homozygous

73) Which statement is correct :

(A) ABO blood group can be studied in the individual but not in population
(B) Multiple alleles located on same locus of homologous chromosome
(C) Unmodified allele is responsible for production of normal enzyme

(1) Only A
(2) A and C
(3) B and C
(4) A, B and C

74) Identify A, B and C :-

(1) A – CAC ; B – GUG ; C – Val
(2) A – CAC ; Y – GAG ; C – Val
(3) A – CTC ; B – GUG ; C – Val
(4) A – CTC ; B – GAG ; C – Glu

75) How many of following are the examples of codominance?

(A) O blood group
(B) Sickle cell anaemia carrier
(C) Size of starch grain in pea plant
(D) Seed shape
(E) Coat colour in cattles

(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Five
(4) Three

76) Which of the following is true regarding Mendel's experiments ?

(1) F1 progenies are exactly similar to either of their parents in appearance.

(2) 50% of F2–plants showed parental genotype
(3) 50% of F2-plants showed F1-genotype
(4) All the above

77) Mendel proposed

A. Dominance
B. Segregation
C. Co-dominance
D. Independent assortment
Which of the following answer is correct ?

(1) A, C, D
(2) A, B, D
(3) B, C, D
(4) A, B, C

78) Albinism is determined by a recessive gene in human. The presence of albinism in 50% children
born to a couple proves that :-

(1) Both parents are homozygous normal

(2) Father is homozygous normal and mother is albino
(3) Both parents are homozygous albino
(4) Father is carrier and mother is albino.

79) (A) A true breeding line is one that having undergone continuous self pollination.
(B) Show stable trait inheritances expression for several generation
(C) Mendel selected 7 true breeding pea plant varieties as pair which were dissimilar except for
one character with contrasting traits
Regarding to pure lines select the correct statement

(1) A, B and C
(2) A and B
(3) A and C
(4) B and C

80) Identify the correct match :

(1) Incomplete dominance – Carrier of sickle cell anaemia

(2) Pleiotropic gene – ABO blood group
(3) Multiple allele – Colour of skin in human
(4) Cytoplasmic inheritance – Mirabilis jalapa branch colour

81) A plant with red flower dominant over white flower are crossed. Half of the offspring have red
flowers and half have white flowers. What are the genotypes of the parent plants ?

(1) RR and rr
(2) R and r
(3) Rr and rr
(4) Rr and Rr

82) A monohybrid cross between two plants, one having 24 cm long internode and other having 12
cm long internode, produces F1 hybrid, all having 18 cm long internodes. This is a case of

(1) Complete dominance

(2) Incomplete dominance
(3) Co-dominance
(4) Multiple allelism

83) The ratio between carrier, disease free & diseased individual on marriage between two carriers
of sickle cell anaemia will be -
(1) 0 : 2 : 1
(2) 0 : 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 1
(4) 2 : 1 : 1

84) A gene regulates many characters is known as-

(1) Repressor gene

(2) Multiple alleles
(3) Antibiotic Resistance Gene
(4) Pleiotropic gene

85) In a family, both husband and wife have blood group 'A'. The first child born to them was found
to have 'O' Blood group. What will be the probability of their next child will have blood group 'A' ?

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.75
(3) 0.25
(4) 1

86)

A plant has genotype TtRrYyBB. On selfing of this plant, how many total phenotypic categories will
produced ?

(1) 256
(2) 64
(3) 27
(4) 8

87) When a cross is made between tall plant with yellow seed (TtYy) and tall plant with green seed
(Ttyy), what proportion of phenotype in the offspring could be expected to be tall and green.

(1) 25%
(2) 12.5%
(3) 37.5%
(4) 50%

88) The defect sickle cell anaemia is caused by the ___ of glutamic acid by valine at the 6th position
of the ___globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule

(1) Substitution, β
(2) Deletion, α
(3) Duplication, β
(4) Translocation, α

89) Statement-I :- In case of incomplete dominance F1 hybrid does not resemble to any of the
parent.
Statement-II :- In incomplete dominance both alleles are equally dominant in heterozygous
condition.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

90) A plant with genotype TtRr is test crossed. Find out the phenotypic and genotypic ratio
respectively ?

(1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 and 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 and 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 : 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 1 and 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(4) 3 : 1 and 1 : 1
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 2 1 2 2 2 2 2 4 2 2 3 4 1 4 4 4 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 1 1 3 3 3 1 1 2 2 3 3 1 2 3 1 3 3 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 4 2 4 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 4 2 2 3 2 3 2 2 2 3 3 2 2 3 2 3 3 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 2 1 3 1 3 3 3 4 1 4 3 3 3 1 4 1 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 1 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 4 4 1 2 4 2 3 2 1 3 2 1 3 4 1 2 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 3 3 1 4 3 3 1 2 4 1 1 2 1 4 2 4 2 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 2 1 3 2 2 2 4 2 1 3 4 1 1 3 3 2 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 1 1 4 4 3 3 3 4 1 3 3 3 4 2 4 2 4 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 2 4 4 2 4 3 1 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

R2 = A2 + B2 + 2AB cos θ
10 P2 = 4P2 + 2P2 + 4 P2 cos θ
4P2 =

cos θ =
θ = 45°

2)

All of the above

3) Let θ be angle between vectors and .

(Given)

Then,
A2 + 2AB cos θ + B2 = n2 [A2 – 2AB cos θ + B2]
A2 + 2A2 cos θ + A2 = n2 [A2 – 2A2 cos θ + A2]

2A2 + 2A2 cos θ = n2 [2A2 – 2A2 cos θ]

[n2 + 1] cos θ = (n2 – 1) ⇒ cosθ =

or θ = cos–1

4) FHz = 100sin30° = 50N

Fvertical = 100cos30° =

5) Component of along =

6)
7) =0

= A2B2sin2θ

= A2B2sinθcosθ

= A2B2cos2θ

8)

9)

10)
sinθ =
tanθ =
θ = 120°
∴
=

11) is perpendicular to the plane formed by and .

lies in this plane. Hence is perpendicular to .

12)

∴ = 50 m

13) ∴ Distance ≥ |Displacement|

or

14)

Average velocity =
15)

16)
A to B

<v> = v' = = 4 m/s

∴ O→B

<v> = = 4.5 m/s

17) Average speed =

18)

19)

If and are in opposite direction, particle slows down.

20)
change in velocity

⇒ Δv = 2v sin

21) a = 2s + 1
22)

4t – 8 + 4t = 0
t = 1 sec

23)

sin2α = 2sinα cosα =

24)

cos2θ – sin2θ = cos2θ

∴ cos150° = cos(180 – 30) = –cos30° =

25)

For point-A y = 0 ∴ x = 4 ⇒ (4, 0)

For point-B x = 0 ∴ y = 3 ⇒ (0, 3)

26)

27)

y = ecosx

28) i = neA Vd

Vd =
 =

29)

J = nevd

J = σE = nevd ⇒ nevd ⇒ vd =

J = nevd ⇒ vd =

J = σE = nevd ⇒

∴
So option 2 is not possible

30)

Area under the curve represent charge.

= A1 + A2

31) i = =

32)

I = neAvd
∴ I∝Avd

=v

33)
∴ ud ∝ V

34) Question Explanation:

Question is asking for drift velocity of e– when temperature increases keeping ΔV = const.
Concept:

Vd =

Solution:
As temperature increases atomic vibrations increases causing more collisions reducing
relaxation time (τ) leading to decrease in drift velocity (Vd) whereas thermal velocity of
e– increases.

Final Answer: The correct option is (2).

35)

In the absence of electric field average thermal velocity = 0.

36)

37)

If length of conductor is increased by stretching then r ∝ ℓ2

⇒
⇒ r2 = 4r1

38)

Inverse of slope of E-V curve is resistance.

39)
take R=3R0
3R0 = R0(1+4×10-3× )
= 500°C

40) R = and Volume = Aℓ

R= ⇒ℓ=

41)

mA = mB
 ℓ1d = (πr2)ℓ2d

⇒ ...... (1)

Now

=4×
= 16

⇒ R2 = = 1.5 Ω

42)

R(1 + ∝1T1) = R(1 + ∝2T2)

∴ α1 T1 = α2T2

43)

= 2 × 1021 × 1.6 × 10–19

= 3.2 × 102 A

44)

R=ρ and m = πr2ℓd

∴R∝

∴ R1 : R2 : R3 = = 125 : 15 : 1

45) The rate of flow of charge = current = I =

CHEMISTRY

46)
(i) 2-methyl propanenitrile (IUPAC)
(ii) Isopropylcyanide (radical dependent)
(iii) Isobutyronitrile (Radical independent)

47)

48)
Isopentyl Alcohol

49)

50) Fact.

51)

52)

Numbering is Done by alphabetical order

53)
54)

According to Priority table

55)

56)

57)

58)
4-Bromo-3-methyl pent-2-ene

59) 2-bromo-1-chloro-4-ethyl cyclohexane

60)

Numbering according to alphabetical order ene > yne

 61)

62)

General formula of carboxylic anhydride

⇒ CnH2nO3

63) Special suffix

64) Question Explanation - Determine the Assertion and Reason is true or false and find
relation b/w then?

Given Data -
Assertion :- Olefinic and acetylenic bonds have π-bonds.
Reason :- All π-bonds are Olefinic and acetylenic bonds.

Answer Explanation -

A. Carbon - Carbon double bond are known as olefinic bonds & carbon - carbon triple bond are
known as acetylic bonds. and DB and TB have Π-bond. So Assertion is true.
B. Π-bond are formed in b/w same atoms or different atoms like C = C, C ≡ C, C = O, C ≡ N

So All Π-bond are not olefinic and acetylic bond. Therefore Reason is false.

Final Answer - option 2

Assertion is true and reason is false.

Level - Easy

65)

66)
 propane-1,2,3-tricarbonitrile

67)
If locants are same then check alphabetical order.

68)

(A) Benzoid compound (p)

(B) Nonbenzold compound (q)

(C) Alicyclic compound (r)

(D) Heterocyclic aromatic compound (s)

69)

2x(g) → Y(g) + 3Z(g)

Rate = =+ =

– =

Rate of formation of z = =
= 4.5 × 10–3 m/sec

70)
71)

72)

According to stoichiometry of reaction :

= = rate of reaction

⇒ rate of reaction =

⇒ rate of disappearance = 3.75 × 10–4

73) Slow step is rds

r = K3 [Q]2[P]1

74)

For 1st experiment, hydrogen pressure is constant

____(I)
____(II)

On dividing

For IInd experiment, NO pressure is constant

1.90 = kii(291)b _______(III)
0.951 = kii(145)b _______(IV)

On Diving
75)

76)

Temperature ↑ K ↑

77)

Rate constant depends on temperature

78) , t100% =

79)

For elementary reaction stoichiometry and order are same.

80)
⇒1=n–1→n=2

81) t =

t=

82)

x = kt

83)

84) ROR = ROD (NO) =

 =

85)

86)

87)

Rate = k[B]3

88) NCERT (2021), Pg.# 101, Part-1

89)
at T → ∞, K = A

90)

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 35

92)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 31

93)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 27

94)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 30
95)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 31

96)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 30

97)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 32

98)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 33

99)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 33

100)

NCERT-XII Pg#33

101)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 32

102)

NCERT-XII Pg#35

103)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 35

104)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 32

105)

NCERT-XII Pg#38

106)
NCERT-XII, Pg # 37

107)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 36

108)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 27

109)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 32

110)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 30

111)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 31

112)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 30

113)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 30

114)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 28

115)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 32

116)

NCERT-XII Pg#33

117)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 31
118)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 35

119)

NCERT-XII Pg#34,35

120)

Colostrum is nutritious contains proteins, several antibody, essential fatty acids for proper
development of baby.

121) If released ovum is not fertilized than corpus luteum turns into corpus albicans on 28/29th
Day. So menstruation occurs.

122) NCERT Pg#43

123)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 26, 38

124)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 28

125)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 27

126) NCERT XII Page No. 27

127) NCERT XII Page No. 27

128) NCERT XII Pg # 32 (E), 36 (H)

129) NCERT, Pg. # 24

130) Module-8, Pg. # 51, 53

131) NCERT Page No.- 54

 132) NCERT Pg. No. # 50

133) NCERT Pg. 33

134) NCERT XII Pg. # 57

135) NCERT XII Pg # 35,36

136) NCERT XII Pg # 57

137)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 62
OR
The Correct answer is : 2%

3.1%

138)

NCERT XII Pg # 57

139)

NCERT XII Pg # 59

OR It is the diagrammatic representation of a test cross to find out the genotype of dominant
organisms.

140)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 59

141)

NCERT XII Pg # 54

142) NCERT XII Pg # 64

143)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 78
OR
AaBbCcDdEeFf
n=6
 (2)6 = 64

144)

NCERT XII Pg # 56

OR Mendel referred to the hereditary units as "factors." These factors are now known as genes,
which determine the inheritance of traits from one generation to the next.

145)

NCERT XII Pg # 56

146)

NCERT XII Pg # 64

OR Law of Segregation states that allele pairs separate (segregate) during gamete formation,
ensuring each gamete carries only one allele for each gene.
This is also called the Law of Purity of gametes because gametes receive only one allele from each
parent without blending.
Correct Answer :-
Option 3 : Law of purity of gametes

147)

NCERT XII Pg # 56

OR

The correct answer is 3: Allele

Explanation: When different forms of a gene are present at the same locus on homologous
chromosomes, they are called alleles.

148)

NCERT XII Pg # 54

149)

NCERT XII Pg # 64

150) NCERT XII Pg # 62

151) NCERT XII Pg # 57

152)
 NCERT XII Pg # 65

OR

Explanation: In 1900, three biologists—De Vries, Correns and Tschermak—independently

rediscovered Mendel's principles of inheritance.

The correct answer is 1: De Vries,Correns and Tschermak

153)

NCERT XII Pg # 63

OR RRYY × rryy
↓
RrYy → F1
RrYy × RrYy (Selfing)
↓

F2 → Rr Yy

154)

NCERT XII Pg # 57

155)

NCERT XII Pg # 60

156)

NCERT XII Pg # 61

157)

NCERT XII Pg # 62

OR Bb × Bb
↓
BB Bbbb

Large size
Starch grain

158)

NCERT XII Pg # 60

159)
 NCERT XII Pg # 60

OR A modified allele can lead to different effects depending on the mutation it causes:

A. Less efficient enzyme : The modified allele could produce an enzyme that functions, but is
less efficient than the normal enzyme.
B. Non-functional enzyme : The modified allele could result in an enzyme that is produced but
has no functional activity due to a mutation.
C. Non-enzyme at all : The modified allele could lead to a mutation that prevents the enzyme
from being produced altogether.

Thus, a modified allele could result in any of these outcomes, making all the above correct.

160)

Explanation: In a dihybrid cross, 50% of the F2 generation plants will be impure for one
character (heterozygous). Thus, out of 2000 plants, 1000 plants will be impure for one
character.

The correct answer is 1 : 1000

161)

NCERT XII Pg # 61

162)

NCERT XII Pg # 61

163)

NCERT XII Pg # 61

164) NCERT XII Pg # 74

165)

NCERT XII Pg # 61

OR

Explanation: Codominance occurs when both alleles in a heterozygous individual contribute

equally to the phenotype.

A. (B) Sickle cell anaemia carrier: In carriers (heterozygous), both normal and sickle-shaped
cells are present, which is an example of codominance.

B. (E) Coat colour in cattles: In some cattle, coat colour shows codominance, where both the
black and white colours are expressed in heterozygous individuals.
The correct answer is 2 : Two

166) NCERT XII Pg # 57

167)

NCERT XII Pg # 59

168)

Father is carrier and mother is albino.

169)

NCERT XII Pg # 54

170)

NCERT XII Pg # 60

171) NCERT XII Pg # 60

172)

NCERT XII Pg # 60

173)

NCERT XII Pg # 74

OR HbSHbA × HbSHbA
↓
Hb HbS HbAHbA HbAHbS
S

1 1 2
Disease Disease Carrier
Free

174) NCERT XII Pg # 75

175) NCERT XII Pg # 61 OR

 176)

NCERT XII Pg # 58

OR Tt Rr Yy BB
n=3
(2)n = (2)3 = 8

177)

To find the probability of tall and green offspring:

P(tall and green) = P(tall)×P(green)

= × = 3/8

percentage: ×100=37.5%

178)

NCERT XII Pg # 74

179) NCERT XII Pg # 60

180)

NCERT XII Pg # 59

OR TtRr × xttrr
↓
Genotype TtRr Ttrr ttRR ttrr
1 : 1 : 1 : 1