Physicsaholics

Module
Photoelectric Effect,
Atomic Structure & X-Rays
(Physicsaholics)

[Link] Unacademy

Exercise-1

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PHOTO ELECTRIC EFFECT

Q 1. Dual nature of radiation is shown by -

(1) diffraction and reflection
(2) refraction and diffraction
(3) photo-electric effect alone
(4) photo electric effect and diffraction

1
Q 2. In photoelectric equation h = h0 + mv2 of Einstein which classical law is followed -
2
(1) conservation of momentum
(2) conservation of energy
(3) conservation of charge
(4) conservation of mass

Q 3. The energy of photon of visible light with maximum wavelength in eV is

(1) 1 (2) 1.6 (3) 3.2 (4) 7

Q 4. What is the momentum of a photon having frequency 1.5 × 1013 Hz?

(1) 3.3 × 10–29 kg m/s (2) 3.3 × 10–34 kg m/s
–34
(3) 6.6 × 10 kg m/s (4) 6.6 × 10–30 kg m/s

Q 5. Energy of a photon is 20eV then its momentum is -

(1) 5.33 × 10–27 kg-m/sec
(2) 10.66 × 10–25 kg-m/sec
(3) 10.66 × 10–27 kg-m/sec
(4) 5.33 × 10–30 kg-m/sec

Q 6. The strength of photoelectric current is directly proportional to

(1) Frequency of incident radiation (2) Intensity of incident radiation
(3) Angle of incidence of radiation (4) Distance between anode and cathode

Q 7. When light is incident on surface, photo electron are emitted. For photoelectrons
(1) The value of kinetic energy is same for all
(2) Maximum kinetic energy do not depend on the wavelength of incident light
(3) The value of kinetic energy is equal to or less than a maximum kinetic energy
(4) None of the above

Q 8. When light falls on a photosensitive surface, electron are emitted from the surface. The
kinetic energy of these electros does not depend on the
(1) wavelength of light (2) frequency of light
(3) type of material used for the surface (4) intensity of light

Q 9. A monochromatic source of light operating at 200 W emits 4 × 1020 photons per second.
Find the wavelength of light.
(1) 400 nm (2) 200 n
(3) 4 × 10–10 Å (4) None

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Q 10. The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause
photoelectron emission from this substance is approximately
(1) 540 nm (2) 400 nm (3) 310 nm (4) 220 nm

Q 11. Four elements A, B, C, D have work function 2, 2.4, 2.8, 3.2 eV. Light of wavelength 4000 Å is
incident on them. The elements which emit photo electrons are -
(1) A, B, C, D (2) A, B, C
(3) A, B (4) A

Q 12. Photoelectric effect takes place in element A. Its work function is 2.5 eV and threshold
wavelength is . A other element B is having work function of 5 eV. Then find out the
maximum wavelength that can produce photoelectric effect in B

(1) (2) 2 (3)  (4) 3
2

Q 13. A radio station is transmitting waves of wavelength 300 m, If diffracting power of

transmitter is 10 kw, then numbers of photons diffracted per second is-
(1) 1.5 × 1035 (2) 1.5 × 1031
(3) 1.5 × 1029 (4) 1.5 × 1033

Q 14. When light of wavelength lesser than 6000 Å is incident on a metal, electrons are emitted.
The approximate work-function of the metal is
(1) 1 eV (2) 2 eV (3) 4 eV (4) 6 eV

Q 15. Surface of sodium is illuminated by a light of 600 Å wavelength. Work function of sodium is
1.6 eV. Then minimum K.E. of emitted electrons is
(1) 0 eV (2) 1.53 eV (3) 2.46 eV (4) 4.14 eV

Q 16. When ultraviolet light of energy 6.2 eV incidents on a aluminimum surface, it emits photo
electrons. If work function for aluminium surface is 4.2 eV, then maximum kinetic energy of
emitted electrons is-
(1) 3.2 × 10–19 J (2) 3.2 × 10–17 J
(3) 3.2 × 10–16 J (4) 3.2 × 10–11 J

Q 17. Two different photons of energies, 1 eV and 2.5 eV, fall on two identical metal plates having
work function 0.5 eV, Then the ratio of maximum KE of the electrons emitted from the two
surface is-
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1

Q 18. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on photo-sensitive material. If
the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled, the photo-current becomes -

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(1) quadrupled (2) doubled
(3) halved (4) zero

Q 19. When a point source of monochromatic light is at a distance of 0.2 m from a photoelectric
cell, the cut-off voltage and the saturation current are 0.6 volt and 18 mA respectively. If the
same source is placed 0.6 m away from the photoelectric cell, then
(1) the stopping potential will be 0.2 V (2) the stopping potential will be 0.6 V
(3) the saturation current will be 6 mA (4) the saturation current will be 18 mA

Q 20. The maximum wavelength of light for photoelectric effect from a metal is 200 nm. The
maximum kinetic energy of electron which is emitted by the radiation of wavelength 100 nm
will be
(1) 12.4 eV (2) 6.2 eV (3) 100 eV (4) 200 eV

Q 21. Ultraviolet light of wavelength 280 nm is used in an experiment on photo electric effect with
lithium ( = 2.5 eV) cathode. Stopping potential will be-
(1) 1 .9 eV (2) 1.9 V
(3) 4.4 eV (4) 4.4 V

Q 22. The stopping potential as a function of frequency of incident radiation is plotted from two
different surfaces A and B. The graphs show that the work function of A is

(1) Greater than that of B (2) Smaller than that of B

(3) Same as that of B (4) No comparison can be done from given graphs

Q 23. The stopping potential for photo electrons does not depend on -
(1) the intensity of incident light
(2) the nature of stopping electrode
(3) distance between photo cathode and the stopping electrode
(4) all of the above

Q 24. The slope of graph drawn between stopping potential and frequency of incident light for a
given surface will be
(1) h (2) h/e (3) eh (4) e

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Q 25.
Physicsaholics
A photo-cell is illuminated by a source of light, which is placed at a distance d from the cell. If
d
the distance become , then number of electrons emitted per second will be
2
(1) remain same (2) four times (3) two times (4) one-fourth

Q 26. Silver has a work function of 4.7 eV. When ultraviolet light of wavelength 100 nm is incident
upon it, a potential of 7.7 volt is required to stop the photoelectrons from reaching the
collector plate. The potential required to stop photo electrons when light of wavelength 200
nm is incident upon silver is -
(1) 1.5 V (2) 1.85 V
(3) 1.95 V (4) 2.37 V

Q 27. Graph is plotted between maximum kinetic energy of electron with frequency of incident
photon in Photo electric effect. The slope of curve will be

(1) Charge of electron (2) Work function of metal

(3) Planck’s constant (4) Ratio of Planck constant and charge of electron

Q 28. The maximum K.E. of the photoelectrons is E when the incident wavelength is /2. The
maximum K.E. becomes 2E when the incident wavelength is /3. The work function of the
metal is -
(1) hc (2) 2hc
 

(3) 3hc (4) hc

 3

Q 29. The work function of a photoelectric material is 3.3 eV. Its threshold frequency will be
(1) 4 × 1023 Hz (2) 8 × 1012 Hz (3) 4 × 1011 Hz (4) 8 × 1014 Hz

Q 30. When ultraviolet rays incident on metal plate then photoelectric effect does not occur, it
occurs by incident of
(1) Infrared rays (2) X-rays (3) Radio wave (4) Light wave

Q 31. A photoelectric cell is illuminated by a point source of light 1 m away. When the source is
shifted to 2 m then
(1) each emitted electron carries one quarter of the initial energy
(2) number of electrons emitted is half the initial number

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(3) each emitted electron carries half the initial energy
(4) number of electrons emitted is a quarter of the initial number

Q 32. The retarding potential for having zero photoelectron current -

(1) Is proportional to the wavelength of incident light
(2) Increases uniformly with the increase in the wavelength of incident light
(3) Increases uniformly with the increase in the frequency of incident light wave
(4) Is proportional to the frequency of incident light

Q 33. The graphs show the variation of current I (y-axis) in two photocell A and B as a function of
the applied voltage V (x-axis) when light of same frequency is incident on the cell. Which of
the following is the correct conclusion drawn from the data?

(1) Cathodes of the two cells are made from the same substance, the intensity of light used
are different
(2) Cathodes are made from different substance and the intensity of light is the same
(3) Cathode substances as well as intensity of light are different
(4) no conclusion can be drawn

Q 34. According to Einsteins’ photoelectric equation, the graph between the kinetic energy of
photoelectrons ejected and the frequency of incident radiation is

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Q 35. A photon of energy 4 eV is incident on a metal surface whose work function is 2eV. The
minimum reverse potential to be applied for stopping the emission of electrons
(1) 2 V (2) 4 V (3) 6 V (4) 8 V

Q 36. When monochromatic light of wavelength  illuminates a metal surface then stopping
potential for photo electric current is 3V0. If wavelength changes to 2 then stopping
potential becomes V0 . Threshold wavelength for photo electric emission is-
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 4/3 (4) 6

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MATTER WAVES

Q 37. When the momentum of a proton is changed by an amount P0, the corresponding change in
the de-Broglie wavelength is found to be 0.25%. Then the original momentum of the proton
was -
(1) P0 (2) 100 P0
(3) 400 P0 (4) 4 P0

Q 38. If the kinetic energy of a moving particle is E, then the De-Broglie wavelength is
2mE h hE
(1) h 2mE (2) (3) (4)
h 2mE 2mE

Q 39. Electron has energy of 100 eV what will be its wavelength

(1*) 1.2 Å (2) 10 Å (3) 100 Å (4) 1 Å

c
Q 40. Velocity of a proton is . Associated de-broglie wavelength is -
20
(1) 2.64 × 10–24 mm (2) 2.64 × 10–24 cm
(3) 2.64 × 10–14 Å (4) 2.64 × 10–14 m

Q 41. The ratio of wavelength of deuteron and proton accelerated through the same potential
difference will be
1 2 1 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 1 2 1

Q 42. One electron & one proton have equal energies then ratio of associated de-broglie
wavelength will be -
(1) 1 : (1836)2 (2) 1836 : 1
(3) 1836 : 1 (4) (1836)2 : 1

Q 43. An electron is accelerated from rest, between two points A and B at which the potentials are
20 V and 40 V respectively. The De-Broglie wavelength associated with the electron at B will
be
(1) 0.75 Å (2) 7.5 Å (3) 2.75 Å (4) 3.75 Å

Q 44. An electron is moving with velocity 6.6 × 103 m/s. The De-Broglie wavelength associated with
electron is (mass of electron = 9 × 10–31 Kg; Plank’s Constant = 6.62 × 10–34 J-S)
(1) 1 × 10–19 m (2) 1 × 10–5 m (3) 1 × 10–7 m (4) 1 × 10–10 m

Q 45. The energy that should be added to an electron to reduce its De-Broglie wavelength from
10–10 m to 0.5 × 10–10 m will be
(1) four times the initial energy (2) equal to initial energy
(3) twice that initial energy (4) thrice the initial energy

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Q 46. An -particle and a singly ionized 4Be8 atom are accelerated through the same potential
difference. Ratio of de-broglie wavelength-
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 1

Q 47. The magnitude of De-Broglie wavelength () of electron (e), proton (p), neutron (n) and -
particle () all having the same kinetic energy of 1 MeV, in the increasing order will follow
the sequence
(1) e, p, n,  (2) e, , ,  (3) , n, p,  e (4) p, e, ,  n

Q 48. If the mass of neutron = 1.7 × 10–27 kg, then the De-Broglie wavelength of neutron of energy
3 eV is
(1) 1.6 × 10–10 m (2) 1.6 × 10–11 m (3) 1.4 × 10–10 m (4) 1.4 × 10–11 m

Q 49. The energies of an photon and an electron of mass m are same. The ratio of wavelengths
associated with them will be -
(1) c E / 2m (2) 2mc/ E
(3) c 2m / E (4) E / 2mc

Q 50. The De-Broglie wavelength of an gas atom at absolute temperature T K will be

h h 3mKT
(1) (2) (3) (4) 3mKT
mKT 3mKT h

Q 51. The de Broglie wavelength associated with a nitrogen molecule at atmospheric pressure and
temperature 27ºC will be nearly -
(1) 0.1 Å (2) 0.2 Å
(3) 0.3 Å (4) 0.4 Å

Q 52. The wavelength of very fast moving electron (v  c) is

v2
h 1−
h h h2 c2
(1)  = (2)  = (3)  2 = (4)  =
m0 v 2mE 2mE m0 v

Q 53. Which experiment explains the wave nature of electron?

(1) Michelson’s experiment (2) Davisson Germer experiment
(3) Roentgen experiment (4) Rutherford experiment

Q 54. The angle between the incident and the diffracted electron in the Davisson-Germer
experiment is called as -
(1) angle of incidence (2) angle of diffraction
(3) angle of scattering (4) none of the above

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Q 55. The correct curve between intensity of scattering (I) and the angle of diffraction  in
Davision-Germer experiment is

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Q 56. The diffracted waves in the Davisson-Germer experiment are

(1) Electrons (2) X-Rays (3) Photons (4) Protons

Q 57. If the spacing between lattice planes of a crystal be d and wavelength of electron be , then
for observing the diffraction of electron from the crystal, it is essential that :
(1) 2d   (2)   2d
(3) 4d   (4)   d

Q 58. The electron and a proton have the same De-Broglie wavelength. Then the kinetic energy of
the electron is
(1) zero (2) Infinity
(3) Equal to kinetic energy of proton (4) Greater than the kinetic energy of proton

Q 59. If there is an increase in linear dimensions of the objects, the associated de-broglie
wavelength-
(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains unchanged
(4) Depends on the density.

Q 60. A photon of wavelength 4400 Å is passing through vaccum. The effective mass and
momentum of the photon are respectively
(1) 5 × 10–36 kg, 1.5 × 10–27 kg-m/s (2) 5 × 10–35 kg, 1.5 × 10–26 kg-m/s
(3) Zero, 1.5 × 10–26 kg-m/s (4) 5 × 10–36 kg, 1.67 × 10–43 kg-m/s

Q 61. When a potential drop of V volt is applied on a stationary neutron. then de-Broglie
wavelength -(1) 0 (2) 
12.27 0.101
(3) Å (4) Å
V V

Q 62. If given particles are moving with same velocity, then maximum de-Broglie wavelength for
(1) Proton (2) -particle (3) Neutron (4) -particle

Q 63. If an electron and a photon propagate with same wavelength, it implies that can they have
the same
(1) Energy (2) Momentum (3) Velocity (4) Angular momentum

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Q 64.
Physicsaholics
If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, its de-Broglie wavelength changes by the
factor -
(1) 1/ 2 (2) 2 (3) 1/2 (4) 2

Q 65. If the mass of a microscopic particle as well as its speed are halved, the de-Broglie
wavelength associated with the particle will
(1) increased by a factor more than 2 (2) increase by a factor of 1
(3) decrease by a factor of 2 (4) decrease by a factor more than 2

Q 66. A proton when accelerated through a potential difference of V volt has a wavelength 
associated with it. An -particle, in order to have the same , must be accelerated through a
potential difference of -
(1) V volt (2) 4V volt
𝑉
(3) 2V volt (4) volt
8

Q 67. Lattice constant of a crystal is 3 × 10–8 cm and glance angle of X-ray is 30°for first order
diffraction then the value of  will be
(1) 6 × 10–8 cm (2) 3 × 10–8 cm (3) 1.5 × 10–8 cm (4) 10–8 cm

Atomic Structure

Q 68. In an electron transition inside a hydrogen atom, orbital angular momentum may change by
(h = Plank constant) -
h
(1) h (2)

h h
(3) (4)
6 4

Q 69. The radius of first orbit of hydrogen atom is 0.53Å. The radius of its fourth orbit will be -
(1) 0.193 Å (2) 4.24 Å
(3) 2.12 Å (4) 8.48 Å

Q 70. The ratio of the radius of a hydrogen like atom in the ground state & that of one in the
second excited state is -
(1) 1 : 9 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 2

Q 71. If the difference of energies of an electron in the second and the fourth orbits of an atom is
E, then the ionisation energy of that atom will be -
36 16
(1) E (2) E
15 3
15 3
(3) E (4) E
36 16

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Q 72. What is the ratio of the shortest wavelength of the Balmer series to the shortest wavelength
of the Lyman series?
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 4 : 3 (3) 4 : 8 (4) 5 : 9

Q 73. Kinetic energy for Hydrogen atom in first Bohr’s orbit is

(1) –13.6 eV (2) 13.6 eV (3) –27.2 eV (4) –6.5 eV

Q 74. The maximum Coulomb force that can act on the electron due to the nucleus in a hydrogen
atom will be -
(1) 0.82 × 10–8 N (2) 0.082 × 10–8 N
(3) 8.2 × 10 N
–8 (4) 820 × 10–8 N

Q 75. The velocity of an electron in ground state of H -atom is nearly

(1) 2 × 10 5 m/s (2) 2 × 10 6 m/s
(3) 2 × 10 7 m/s (4) 2 × 10 8 m/s

Q 76. What is the wavelength of the least energetic photon emitted in the Lyman series of the
hydrogen atom spectrum
(1) 150 nm (2) 122 nm (3) 102 nm (4) 82 nm

Q 77. The ratio of the radii of Bohr orbits in hydrogen atom in increasing order is -
(1) 2 : 4 : 8 : 16 (2) 2 : 3 : 4 : 5
(3) 1 : 3 : 6 : 9 (4) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16

Q 78. The ratio of frequency of revolution of electrons in first and second Bohr’s orbit of He-atom
is -
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 8 : 1 (4) 1 : 8

Q 79. The ionisation potential of H atoms is 13.6 V. The energy difference between n = 2 and
n = 3 levels is nearest to -
(1) 1.9 eV (2) 2.3 eV
(3) 3.4 eV (4) 4.5 eV

Q 80. The first excitation potential of given atom is 10.2 volt. Then ionization potential must be -
(1) 20.4 volt (2) 13.6 volt
(3) 30.6 volt (4) 40.8 volt

Q 81. According to Bohr Model for Hydrogen, energy is proportional to :

(1) –Z2 / n (2) –n / Z2 (3) –Z2 / n2 (4) –n2 / Z

Q 82. In above question radius is related as

(1) n2 / Z (2) n / Z (3) n / Z2 (4) n2 / Z2

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Q 83. If ionization potential of Hydrogen atom is 13.6 V then what is ionization potential of He
atom ?
(1) 27.6 V (2) 13.6 V (3) 54.4 V (4) None of these

Q 84. The De-Broglie wavelength of an electron in the first bohr orbit is

(1) equal to the circumference of the first orbit
(2) equal to twice the circumference of the first orbit
(3) equal to half the circumference of the first orbit
(4) equal to one fourth the circumference of first orbit

Q 85. The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom in its first to second excited state is -
(1) 1/4 (2) 4/9
(3) 9/4 (4) 4

Q 86. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Lyman series is continuous (2) Balmer series lies in ultraviolet region
(3) Paschen series lies in infrared region (4) Brackett series lies in visible region

13.6
Q 87. For hydrogen atom the energy of electron is En = – eV, where n = principal quantum
n2
number. The least energy which it can absorb in its primitive stage is -
(1) 1.00 eV (2) 3.40 eV
(3) 6.80 eV (4) 10.2 eV

Q 88. The energy of an hydrogen like atom (or ion) in its ground state is – 54.4 eV. It may be -
(1) hydrogen (2) deuterium
(3) He+
(4) Li++

Q 89. According to the Bohr theory of Hydrogen atom, the speed of the electron, its energy and
the radius of its orbit varies with the principal quantum number n, respectively, as
1 1 2 1 2 1 1 2 1 1
(1) , ,n (2) ,n , 2 (3) n 2 , ,n (4) n, ,
n n2 n n n2 n2 n2

Q 90 How much energy is required to remove the electron from a He+ ion in its ground state ?
(1) 1.5 eV (2) 13.6 eV
(3) 54.4 eV (4) 122.4 eV

Q 91. If the ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 V, its energy in n = 3 is approximately
(1) –1.14 eV (2) –1.51 eV (3) –3.4 eV (4) –4.53 eV

Q 92. The binding energy of H-atom in its ground state is 13.6 eV. The energies required to remove
an electron from the three lowest orbits of the H-atom are respectively(in eV) -
(1) 13.6 , 10.2 , 3.4 (2) 13.6 , 3.4 , 1.5

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(3) 10.2, 1.9, 0.7 (4) 13.6, 6.8 , 1.5

Q 93. A hydrogen atom in ground state absorbs 10.2 eV of energy. The orbital angular momentum of
the electron is increased by -
(1) 1.05 × 10–34 J-s (2) 2.11 × 10–34 J-s
(3) 3.16 × 10–34 J-s (4) 4.22 × 10-34 J-s

Q 94. A spectral line is emitted when an electron -

(1) rotates in the circular orbit
(2) rotates in the elliptical orbit
(3) jumps from lower orbit to higher orbit
(4) jumps from higher orbit to lower orbit

Q 95. According to De-Broglie, wavelength of electron in second orbit is 10–9 metre. Then the
circumference of orbit is
(1) 10–9 m (2) 2 × 10–9 m (3) 3 × 10–9 m (4) 4 × 10–9 m

Q 96. The minimum wavelength in Lyman series is -

1 1
(1) (2) R (3) (4) Rc
R RC

Q 97. If an electron jumps from third orbit to second orbit in hydrogen atom, then the wavelength
of emitted photons, will be -
36 5R
(1) (2)
5R 36
4R 34
(3) (4)
34 4R

Q 98. The second line of Balmer series has wavelength 4861 Å. The wavelength of the first line of
Balmer series is -
(1) 1216 Å (2) 6563 Å
(3) 4340 Å (4) 4101 Å

Q 99. The ratio of wavelength of first line of lyman series of doubly ionised lithium atom to that of
the first line of Lyman series of deuterium (1H2) will be -
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 9 : 1 (4) 1 : 9

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X-rays

Q 100. When the minimum wavelength of X-rays is 2Å then the applied potential difference
between cathode and anticathode will be-
(1) 6.2 KV (2) 2.48 KV
(3) 24.8 KV (4) 62 KV

Q 101. In Coolidge tube the potential difference between cathode and anticathode is 120 kV. The
maximum energy of emitted X-rays will be
(1) 1.2 × 105 eV (2) 1010 eV (3) 1015 eV (4) 1020 eV

Q 102. If potential difference of 10,000 volt is applied in an X-ray tube, then minimum wavelength
of X-rays produced will be -
(1) 1.24Å (2) 12.4Å
(3) 0.124Å (4) 1.24 × 10–6A

Q 103. An X-rays tube is being operated at 20 KV, the maximum speed of electrons striking the
anticathode will be-
(1) 8.4 m/s (2) 8.4 × 107 m/s
7
(3) 4.4 × 10 m/s (4) zero

Q 104. In a Coolidge tube X-rays are produced by

(1) positive rays (2) cathode rays
(3) electromagnetic rays (4) a proton beam

Q 105. 50% of X-rays obtained from a Coolidge tube pass through 0.3 mm thick aluminium foil. If
the potential different between the target and the cathode in increased, then the fraction of
X-rays passing through the same foil will be
(1) 50% (2) > 50% (3) < 50% (4) 0%

Q 106. When 50 keV electrons are made incident on a target material, the wavelength of K X-ray
line was found to be 0.5 Å. When the accelerating potential is increased to 100 kV, then the
wavelength of K-line from the same target will be
(1) 0.25 Å (2) 0.5 Å (3) 0.75 Å (4) 1.0 Å

Q 107. On increasing the filament current in X-ray tube :-

(1) wavelength of X-rays increases (2) penetration power of X-ray increases
(3) intensity of X-rays decreases (4) intensity of X-rays increases

Q 108. Which of the following is not affected by electro-magnetic fields

(1) -rays (2) −rays (3) X-rays (4) cathode-rays

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Q 109. The wavelength of the most energetic X-ray emitted when a metal target is bombarded by
40 keV electron is approximately -
(1) 300 Å (2) 10 Å
(3) 4 Å (4) 0.31 Å

Q 110. X-rays obtained by coolidge tube are :-

(1) mono-chromatic
(2) of all wave lengths below a maximum wavelength
(3) of all wave length above a minimum wave length
(4) of all wave length between a maximum and a minimum wave length

Q 111. Penetration power of X-rays depend on

(1) current flowing in filament (2) applied potential difference
(3) nature of target (4) all of the above

Q 112. Which of the following have velocity equal to light

(1) cathode rays (2) anode rays (3) X-rays (4) position rays

Q 113. The energy of characteristic X-rays photon obtained from coolidge tube comes from
(1) kinetic energy of. incident electron. (2) kinetic energy of free electrons of target material
(3) kinetic energy of ions of target material (4) electron transition in target material

Q 114. In X-ray spectrum wave length  of line K depends on atomic number Z as

1 1
(1)   Z2 (2)   (Z – 1)2 (3)   (4)  
(Z− 1) (Z− 1)2

Q 115. What is the energy of k X-ray photon of copper (Z = 29) ?

(1) 7.99 KeV (2) 8.29 KeV
(3) 8.25 KeV (4) 7.19 KeV

Q 116. In E.M. waves spectrum X-rays region lies between

(1) short radio waves and visible region (2) visible and ultraviolet region
(3) gamma rays and ultra-violet region (4) short radio waves and long radio waves

Q 117. In an X-ray tube, electrons accelerated through a potential difference of 15000 V strike a
copper target. The speed of the emitted X-rays from the tube is :-
[e = charge on electron, m = mass of electron, Z = atomic number of target]
2  2e 1500 2  e 1500 2Ze 1500
(1) (2) (3) (4) 3 × 108 m/s
m m m

Q 118. The wavelength of K-line characteristic x-rays emitted by an element is 0.32 Å. The
wavelength of k-line emitted by the same element will be-
(1) 0.27 Å (2) 0.32 Å
(3) 0.39 Å (4) 0.49 Å

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Q 119. The energy of a photon of light with wavelength 5000 Å is approximately x eV. This way the
energy of an X-ray photon with wavelength 1 Å would be
x x
(1) eV (2) eV (3) x × 5000 eV (4) x × (5000)2 eV
5000 (5000)2

Q 120. Which of the following statements is correct for hard X-rays ?

(1) Penetrating power is more and wavelength is less than that of soft X-rays
(2) Penetrating power is more and wavelength is more that of soft X-rays
(3) Penetraing power is equal to that of soft X-rays and wavelength is less than that of soft
X-rays
(4) Penetrating power is equal to that of soft X-rays and wavelength is more than that of soft
X-rays

Q 121. K characteristic X-ray refers to the transition

(1) n = 2 to n = 1 (2) n = 3 to n = 2 (3) n = 3 to n = 1 (4) n = 4 to n = 2

Q 122. According to Mosley's law, the frequency of a characteristic spectral line in X-ray spectrum
varies as (atomic no of target element is high):-
(1) atomic number of the target element
(2) square of the atomic number of the target element
(3) square root of the atomic number of the target element
(4) fourth power of the atomic number of the target element

Q 123. Which of the following are used for the study of structure of crystals ?
(1) infrared rays (2) visible light rays
(3) ultraviolet rays (4) X-rays

Q 124. For the structural analysis of crystals, X-rays are used because
(1) X-rays have wavelength of the order of interatomic spacing
(2) X-rays are highly penetrating radiations
(3) wavelength of X-rays is of the order of nuclear size
(4) X-rays are coherent radiations

Q 125. In the Mosley’s law for characteristic X-rays  = a (Z – b) -

(1) both the constant a and b depend on the nature
(2) a depends on the nature of material whereas b does not
(3) b depends on the nature of material whereas a does not
(4) both the constants a and b do not depend on the nature of the material

Q 126. The distance between interatomic lattice planes is 10Å. The maximum wavelength of X-rays
which are diffracted by this crystal will be
(1) 10 Å (2) 20 Å (3) 30 Å (4) 40 Å

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Q 127. The most penetrating radiation out of the following is
(1) X-rays (2) -rays (3) -particles (4) -rays

Q 128. X-rays are not used in radar because -

(1) they damage the target
(2) they are electromagnetic waves
(3) they are not reflected by the target
(4) they are completely absorbed by air

Q 129. For production of characteristics 𝐾𝛽 X-ray, the electron transition will be

(1) n = 2 to n = 1 (2) n = 3 to n = 2
(3) n = 3 to n = 1 (4) n = 4 to n = 2

Q 130. If accelerating voltage of X-ray tube is doubled then intensity of X-rays will:
(1) halved (2) remains constant (3) doubled (4) quadrupled

Q 131. In X-ray tube, wavelength of characteristic X-ray is the characteristic of

(1) tube voltage (2) target material (3) filament current (4) none of these

Q 132. Pressure inside the X-ray tube is :

(1) equal to 740 mm of Hg (2) equal to 76 mm of Hg
(3) equal to 10–5 mm of Hg (4) equal to 10–7 mm of Hg

Q 133. min of X-rays depends on

(1) Atomic number of target (2) Energy of electron
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these

Q 134. X-rays and -rays both are electromagnetic waves. Which of the following statements is
correct ?
(1) the wavelength of X-rays is greater than that of -rays
(2) the wavelength of X-rays is less than that of -rays
(3) the frequency of -rays is less than that of X-rays
(4) the frequency and wavelength of X-rays are more than those of -rays

Q 135. When electron is incident on molybdenum then by changing energy of electron

(1) min changes (2) min remains constant
(3) K , K changes (4) min, K and  K all changes

Q 136. In an X-ray tube accelerating potential is 60 kV. What is the maximum frequency of emitted
X-ray?
(1) 1.45 × 1019 Hz (2) 1.45 × 1015 Hz (3) 1.25 × 1015 Hz (4) 1.25 × 1013 Hz

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Q 137. When X-rays of wavelength 0.5 Å would transmitted by an aluminium tube of thickness 7
mm, its intensity remains one-fourth. The attenuation coefficient of aluminium for these X-
rays -
(1) 0.188 mm–1 (2) 0.189 mm–1
(3) 0.198 mm–1 (4) None

Answer Key

Q.1) 4 Q.2) 2 Q.3) 2 Q.4) 1 Q.5) 3

Q.6) 2 Q.7) 3 Q.8) 4 Q.9) 1 Q.10) 3
Q.11) 2 Q.12) 1 Q.13) 2 Q.14) 2 Q.15) 1
Q.16) 1 Q.17) 2 Q.18) 4 Q.19) 2 Q.20) 2
Q.21) 1 Q.22) 2 Q.23) 4 Q.24) 2 Q.25) 2
Q.26) 1 Q.27) 3 Q.28) 1 Q.29) 4 Q.30) 2
Q.31) 4 Q.32) 3 Q.33) 1 Q.34) 3 Q.35) 1
Q.36) 1 Q.37) 3 Q.38) 3 Q.39) 1 Q.40) 4
Q.41) 1 Q.42) 2 Q.43) 3 Q.44) 3 Q.45) 4
Q.46) 4 Q.47) 3 Q.48) 2 Q.49) 3 Q.50) 2
Q.51) 3 Q.52) 4 Q.53) 2 Q.54) 2 Q.55) 1
Q.56) 1 Q.57) 1 Q.58) 4 Q.59) 3 Q.60) 1

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Q.61) 2 Q.62) 4 Q.63) 2 Q.64) 1 Q.65) 1
Q.66) 4 Q.67) 2 Q.68) 2 Q.69) 4 Q.70) 1
Q.71) 2 Q.72) 1 Q.73) 2 Q.74) 3 Q.75) 2
Q.76) 2 Q.77) 4 Q.78) 3 Q.79) 1 Q.80) 2
Q.81) 3 Q.82) 1 Q.83) 3 Q.84) 1 Q.85) 3
Q.86) 3 Q.87) 4 Q.88) 3 Q.89) 1 Q.90) 3
Q.91) 2 Q.92) 2 Q.93) 1 Q.94) 4 Q.95) 2
Q.96) 1 Q.97) 1 Q.98) 2 Q.99) 4 Q.100) 1
Q.101) 1 Q.102) 1 Q.103) 2 Q.104) 2 Q.105) 2
Q.106) 2 Q.107) 4 Q.108) 3 Q.109) 4 Q.110) 3
Q.111) 2 Q.112) 3 Q.113) 4 Q.114) 4 Q.115) 1
Q.116) 3 Q.117) 4 Q.118) 1 Q.119) 3 Q.120) 1
Q.121) 1 Q.122) 2 Q.123) 4 Q.124) 1 Q.125) 4
Q.126) 2 Q.127) 4 Q.128) 3 Q.129) 3 Q.130) 2
Q.131) 2 Q.132) 3 Q.133) 2 Q.134) 1 Q.135) 1
Q.136) 1 Q.137) 3

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