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TEST BOOKLET
ANCIENT + ART & CULTURE
TEST - I

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

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Q1. Arrange the following elements of the Q5. Which one of the following texts of Ancient
Buddhist Stupa structure in the correct India has the story of Chanakya's intrigues
sequence of their arrangement from and brilliant strategy to subvert the
bottom to top. intended invasion of Magadha?
(a) Mricchakatika
(a) Anda, Yashti, Chhatri and Harmika (b) Sariputra Prakaran
(b) Harmika, Anda, Yashti and Chhatri (c) Mudrarakshasa
(c) Anda, Yashti, Harmika and Chhatri (d) Priyadarshika
(d) Anda, Harmika, Yashti and Chhatri
Q6. Consider the following pairs:

Sangam text Subject matter

Q2. Which one of the following is considered
the westernmost Harappan site? 1. Silappadikaram Love story of
dignitary called
(a) Manda Kovalan
(b) Gumla
(c) Amri 2. Tirukkural Philosophy and
(d) Sutkagendor Ethics in Public life

3. Tolkkappiyam Tamil Grammar

Q3. In Buddhism, "Anichcha" refers to: How many of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
(a) The cycle of birth and rebirth (a) Only one
(b) The concept of non-violence (b) Only two
(c) The impermanence of all things (c) All three
(d) The pursuit of knowledge through (d) None
meditation
Q7. With reference to the Cholas, consider the
following statements:
1. Its founder was Vijayalaya, who was at
Q4. Which of the following is NOT correct with first a feudatory of the Pandyas.
reference to the Harappan script? 2. Krishna III of Rahtrakuta defeated the
Cholas and annexed the northern part
(a) The Harappan script is logo-syllabic. of the Chola empire.
(b) It was generally written from right to 3. Rajaraja destroyed the Chera navy and
left. invaded Sri Lanka.
(c) It has seen drastic evolution from the How many of the above statements are
early Harappan to late Harappan correct?
period. (a) Only one
(d) The script is not yet deciphered (b) Only two
successfully (c) All three
(d) None

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Q8. Consider the following: Q11. Consider the following:
1. Fatalistic Karma (Niyati)
1. The use of Painted Grey ware started 2. Nudity
to gain prominence. 3. No discrimination on the basis of caste
2. Decrease in the status of women in or class
both polity and society. 4. Asceticism
3. The appearance of the institution of How many of the above are features or
Gotra which signified the descent of a elements of Ajivikas?
common ancestor. (a) Only two
4. The focus of rituals shifted from (b) Only three
material gains to spiritual upliftment. (c) All four
(d) None
How many of the following changes
happened with the transition from Vedic
to later Vedic society? Q12. With reference to the terms used in
Kautilya’s Arthashastra, consider the
(a) Only one following pairs:
(b) Only two
(c) Only three Terms Meaning
(d) All four
1. Atavika Forest-dwellers

2. Aranyachara Wild, savage tribes

Q9. Which of the following is not correct
regarding the Chalcolithic period? 3. Vagurikas Trappers

(a) Black and Red ware was the widely Which of the pairs given above are not
prevalent pottery in this period. correctly matched?
(b) People in this period knew the art of (a) 1 and 2 only
spinning and weaving. (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) It saw very low infant mortality which (c) 2 and 3 only
was unique for a pre-historic period. (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) The chalcolithic people also used
microliths i.e. small sized stone tools.
Q13. The Harappan civilization period is called
the age of the first urbanization in India.
Which of the following is called the period
Q10. Which of the following major rock edicts of 'second urbanization'?
elaborates on the experience of the war of (a) The peak of Gupta empire from late
Kaling and the change of heart of Asoka? 4th century to late 5th century
(b) The rise of Mahajanpadas
(a) The 10th Major Rock Edict (c) F o r m a t i o n o f s t r o n g r e g i o n a l
(b) The 8th Major Rock Edict kingdoms post Mauryan decline
(c) The 13th Major Rock Edict (d) The rise of states in the southern part
(d) The 14th Major Rock Edict of India

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Q14. Consider the following items: Q17. Consider the following statements with
1. lapis-lazuli respect to tool-making in the prehistoric
2. pearls period:
3. carnelian
4. Wool 1. Tools of the Paleolithic period were
5. silver rough and heavy.
How many of the above items were 2. Tools of the Mesolithic period were
impor ted by Mesopotamia from called microliths as they very small in
Harappans? size.
(a) Only two 3. Neolithic period yielded various types
(b) Only three of bone objects such as needles and
(c) Only four scrapers.
(d) All five
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
Q15. Arrange the following Mahajanapadas
from east to west: (a) Only one
1. Mastya (b) Only two
2. Vatsa (c) All three
3. Anga (d) None
4. Magadh
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 3-4-2-1
(b) 4-3-2-1
(c) 1-2-3-4 Q18. With reference to the Chola
(d) 4-2-3-1 administration, consider the following
statements :

Q16. With reference to the cave paintings of 1. The basic unit of administration was
Ajanta, consider the following statements: the nadu which consisted of a number
1. The illustrations of the Jataka stories of villages.
are in greater detail and have no use of 2. The state was divided into four
ornamental designs. mandalams or provinces and nadus
2. The murals of Ajanta bear a secular were grouped into valanadus.
rather than a religious message. 3. During the Chola period, ur was a
3. There are no paintings depicting general assembly of the village.
Buddha's life after he had reached
enlightenment. How many of the above statements are
How many of the above statements are correct?
correct?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) All three
(d) None (d) None

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Q19. Consider the following pairs: Q22. Consider the following statements
regarding Harappan technology and
Ancient scholars Fields crafts:
/personalities associated with 1. Harappans used only iron to make
weapons.
1. Charaka Medicine 2. Harappans practiced boatmaking.
3. Harappans were aware of potter's
2. Aryabhatta Mathematics wheel.
Which of the statements given above
3. Banabhatta Literature is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
4. Varahamihira Surgery (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
How many of the above pairs are correctly (d) 1, 2 and 3
matched?
(a) Only one Q23. With reference to the later Vedic period,
(b) Only two which of the following statements is NOT
(c) Only three correct?
(d) All four (a) King maintained a standing army.
(b) The society came to be divided into
four varnas.
Q20. With reference to the history of ancient (c) The grant of land as sacrificial fee is not
India, Nanda Vaccha, Kisa Samkicca and well established in the later Vedic
Purana Kassapa were associated with period.
which of the following sect? (d) Sacrifices and performing rituals
(a) Jain became dominant mode of
(b) Ajivikas worshipping the gods.
(c) Alvars
(d) Buddhist Q24. Consider the following statements with
regard to the state of agricultural system
in the Mauryan period:
Q21. Consider the following statements: 1. The Mauryan state provided irrigation
1. Mahavira did not allow women to be facilities and regulated water supply.
the propagators of Jainism. 2. The Mauryan state employed slaves in
2. Jainism was not visible in southern agriculture.
India until the 1st century AD. 3. To bring the virgin soil under
3. The use of the Prakrit language helped cultivation, the new peasants were
in the emergence of the Marathi allowed remission in tax and supplied
language. with cattle, seeds and money.
Which of the statements given above Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q25. Consider the following statements Q28. In the context of prehisoric period of
regarding Jainism: India, pit dwellings were mainly
1. It denied the existence of gods. associated with
2. Unlike Buddhism, it condemned the (a) Maski
Varna system. (b) Burzahom
3. It mainly aims at the attainment of (c) Piklihal
freedom from worldly bonds. (d) Mirzapur

Which of the statements given above Q29. Siksha (phonetics), Kalpa (rituals),
is/are correct? Vyakarna (grammar), Nirukta
(a) 1 only (etymology), Chhanda (metrics), and
(b) 1 and 2 only Jyotisha (astronomy) are classified under
(c) 3 only which one of the following?
(d) 2 and 3 only (a) Vedangas
(b) Brahmanas
(c) Aranyakas
Q26. Consider the following statements (d) Upanishads
regarding the Rig Vedic period:
1. Women slaves were prevalent during Q30. Consider the following statements:
the Rig Vedic period. 1. Asthadhyayi was written by Patanjali.
2. Land was a well-established property 2. Sarvavarman, a scholar of great
during the Rig Vedic age. repute, composed the grammar of
3. Child marriage was widely prevalent Katantra.
during the Rig Vedic age. 3. Hala wrote a great poetical work
Gathasaptasati in Sanskrit.
Which of the statements given above Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only

Q31. Consider the following statements

Q27. Consider the following statements regarding the Vajrayana sect of Buddhism:
regarding Harappan civilization: 1. Its followers believed that salvation
1. Harappans worshipped goddesses could be attained by acquiring
such as Durga, Amba, Kali. magical power.
2. Harappans practised phallus worship. 2. Tara is the chief divinity of this sect.
3. It was popular in eastern India.
Which of the statements given above Which of the statements given above are
is/are correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q32. The rock shelters on the banks of the Q35. Mauryans in ancient India controlled
River Suyal at Lakhudiyar, Uttarakhand, numerous economic activities through an
bear prehistoric paintings. In this context, elaborate economic administration. In
which of the following are the this context, in which of the following
characteristics of the areas did the state maintained a
Lakhudiyar cave paintings? monopoly?
1. Hand-linked dancing human figures
2. Absence of animal motifs 1. Mining
3. Humans represented in a stick-like 2. Sale of liquor
form 3. Manufacture of arms
4. Use of only white and black colors
Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
given below. (a) 1 only
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Q33. Which one of the following ancient works Q36. In the context of ancient history,
is not written by Kalidasa? Buddhacharita and Saundarananda were
written by
(a) Kumarasambhavam
(b) Vikramorvasiyam (a) Banabhatta
(c) Sishupalavadham (b) Asvaghosha
(d) Abhigyanashakuntalam (c) Bhavabhuti
(d) Vishakhadatta
Q34. Consider the following statements with
respect to Mahayana Buddhism:
1. I t s u l t i m a t e g o a l i s 's p i r i t u a l Q37. Consider the following statements
upliftment'. regarding The Ajanta and Ellora caves:
2. The school is more liberal and believes
in the heavenliness of Buddha. 1. W h i l e t h e A j a n t a c a v e s h a v e
3. Its scholars predominantly used Pali as doublestoreyed caves, the Ellora caves
a language. have unique three-storeyed caves.
4. Emperor Kanishka patronized the 2. While the images of Padmapani and
Mahayana sect of Buddhism. Vajrapani are present in Ajanta caves,
they are absent in Ellora caves.
Which of the statements given above are
correct? Which of the statements given above
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only is/are correct?
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q38. Consider the following statements Q41. In the context of trade in Post Mauryan
regarding the Udaigiri-Khandagiri caves: period, which of the following famous
1. The caves have inscriptions of the Pala ports are located on the eastern coast of
kings. India?
2. According to the inscriptions, the 1. Broach
caves were meant for Jain monks. 2. Sopara
Which of the statements given above 3. Tamralipti
is/are correct? 4. Arikamedu
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
(c) Both 1 and 2 given below.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Q39. Consider the following passage : (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
This school of philosophy's name literally (d) 3 and 4 only
m e a n s t h e a r t of r e a s o n i n g a n d
interpretation. It provided reasoning for
various Vedic rituals, and the attainment Q42. Alexander invaded India during the reign
of salvation was made dependent on their of which of the following dynasties?
performance. According to this school,
the Vedas contain the eternal truth. The (a) Shunga
principal object of this philosophy was to (b) Haryanka
acquire heaven and salvation. In order to (c) Nanda
attain salvation this school strongly (d) Gupta
recommended the performance of Vedic
sacrifices, which needed the services of
the priests and legitimized the social Q43. Consider the following pairs:
distance between various varnas.
Which of the following schools of Theatre Region
philosophy is being described in the
passage given above? 1. Dashavatar Goa
(a) Sankhya
(b) Mimamsa 2. Koodiyaattam Kerala
(c) Vedanta
(d) Lokayata 3. Yakshagaana Telangana

Q40. With reference to Indian history, the term 4. Therukoothu Tamil Nadu
'agrahara' refers to:
(a) religious sacrifices to the deities How many pairs given above are correctly
during Mauryan period. matched?
(b) land grants to Brahmanas by royal
patronage. (a) Only one pair
(c) officials below district level during (b) Only two pairs
Gupta period. (c) Only three pairs
(d) type of idol casting method used (d) All four pairs
during Post – mauryan period

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Q44. Consider the following statements Q47. With reference to the Chalcolithic period,
regarding Harappan trade: consider the following statements:
1. Harappans used punch-marked coins
in trade. 1. The Chalcolithic people are regarded
2. Harappans had trade relations with as ‘expert Copper Smiths’ in Indian
Afghanistan and Iran. history.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? 2. People primarily resided in the
(a) 1 only Villages during this period.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. This phase was marked by extensive
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 use of Nor thern Black Polished
Pottery.

Which of the statements given above

Q45. With reference to the Indus Valley is/are correct?
civilization, consider the following
statements: (a) 1 and 2 only
1. The Indus Valley people practiced (b) 2 only
plough agriculture. (c) 1 and 3 only
2. T h e I n d u s Va l l e y Pe o p l e h a d (d) 1, 2 and 3
developed a standard weight and
measurement system.
3. The Brahmi script owes its origin to the
script used by the Indus Valley people.
Which of the statements given above Q48. India's first National Maritime Heritage
is/are correct? Complex (NMHC) will be established at
(a) Only 1 which one of the following sites/places?
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 (a) Lothal
(d) Only 2 and 3 (b) Muziris
(c) Arikamedu
(d) Vishakhapatnam

Q46. Consider the following crops

1. Cotton
2. Bajra
3. Green Gram Q49. Which of the following inscriptions
4. Lentil mention the trade contacts between
How many of the above crops were Mesopotamia and Harappan civilisation?
cultivated by the Chalcolithic people?
(a) Only one (a) Cuneiform
(b) Only two (b) Hieroglyphics
(c) Only three (c) Devanagiri
(d) All four (d) Kharoshti

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Q50. Consider the following statements with Q53. Consider the following pairs:
reference to the seals found at Indus
Valley Civilization sites: Indus Valley cities Located on River
1. The standard Harappan seal was a
square plaque indicating the trade 1. Mohenjo-daro Indus
relations of the civilization.
2. Pashupati Seal is depicted with a 2. Harappa Ravi
human figure standing in the centre
and animals around it. 3. Kalibangan Beas
3. The purpose of producing seals was
mainly commercial. Which of the pairs given above is/are
correctly matched?
Which of the statements given above are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q54. The Kalpasutra and the
Q51. With reference to the Neolithic age in KalakacharyaKatha, the two very popular
India, consider the following statements: texts belong to which of the following
1. The Neolithic people in India lived in sects?
houses mostly built by burnt bricks. (a) Buddhism
2. The Neolithic people cultivated Ragi (b) Jainism
and Horsegram. (c) Ajivika
3. The Neolithic people used both (d) Vaishnavism
wheels made and hand made
potteries.
Q55. In the context of the Mauryan age, the
Which of the statements given above term sannidhata refers to:
is/are correct? (a) The highest executive official in charge
(a) 1 and 3 only of assessment.
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) The chief custodian of the state
(c) 2 only treasury and storehouse.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) The highest officer-in-charge for the
administration of justice.
Q52. Therigatha is one of the very few (d) Head of the district.
surviving ancient Indian texts attributed
to women.
The text is associated with Q56. Who was the main expounder of the
Lokayata philosophy?
(a) Buddhism (a) Kapila
(b) Jainism (b) Jaimini
(c) Vaishnavism (c) Charvaka
(d) Shaivism (d) Vyasa

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Q57. With reference to the teachings of Q60. With reference to the chalcolithic age,
Buddhism, which one of the following consider the following statements:
statements is NOT correct? 1. People were aware of the art of writing
during this period and used a
(a) Buddhism does not recognise the pictographic script.
existence of eternal soul. 2. The chalcolithic people cultivated rice
(b) Buddhism does not believe in the and wheat.
theory of rebirth. 3. During this age, copper (metal) was
(c) According to Buddhism, attainment of used by the people.
Nibbana is the ultimate goal. Which of the statements given above
(d) Buddhism rejected authority of Vedas is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
Q58. At which of the following Jain shrines, the (d) 1, 2 and 3
famous statue of Gomateshwara is
located?
Q61. Which of the following were the major
(a) Aihole political centres of the Mauryan empire?
(b) Sravana Belagola 1. Tosali
(c) Chanderi 2. Ujjaiyini
(d) Mount Abu 3. Manyakhet
4. Taxila
5. Survanagiri
Select the correct answer using the code
Q59. Consider the following statements given below:
regarding the chaityas and viharas: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 5 only
1. V i h a r a s w e r e t h e p l a c e s o f (c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
congregation and worship. (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

2. Chaitayas were the places of residents

of monks. Q62. With reference to the Mauryan empire,
consider the following statements:
3. In the cave tradition of western India, 1. The Mauryan empire was founded by
the presence of a stupa at the back of Chandragupta Maurya.
the chaitya was a common feature. 2. The Sudarshana lake at Girnar was
built during the Mauryan rule.
Which of the statements given above 3. The Mauryan dynasty was succeeded
is/are correct? by the Shunga dynasty in north India.
(a) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above
(b) 2 and 3 only is/are correct?
(c) 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q63. This dance form is characterized by Q65. Arrange the following classical Sanskrit
graceful, swaying body movements with literature in chronological order in which
no abrupt jerks or sudden leaps. It they were written, starting from the
belongs to the lasya style which is earliest.
feminine, tender, and graceful. The
footwork is not terse and is rendered 1. Natyashastra
softly. Importance is given to the hand 2. Gitagovinda
gestures and Mukhabhinaya with subtle 3. Mricchakatika
facial expressions. Movements have been 4. Uttara-Ramacharitam
borrowed from Nangiar Koothu and
female folk dances Kaikottikali and the Select the correct answer using the code
Tiruvatirakali given below.

Which of the following dance forms is (a) 1-3-4-2

being described in the passage given (b) 4-3-2-1
above? (c) 3-1-4-2
(d) 2-4-3-1
(a) Kuchipudi
(b) Kathakali
(c) Mohiniyattam Q66. The first discoveiy of rock paintings was
(d) Bharatnatyam made in India in 1867-68 by which of the
following archaeologists?

Q64. Consider the following statements (a) Archibold Carlleyle

regarding Gandhara and Mathura (b) V. S. Wakankar
schools of art: (c) John Cockburn
(d) G. W. Anderson
1. Mathura school of art produced
culptures of themes related to
Buddhism only. Q67. Which of the following features of later
religious traditions of ancient India can be
2. Kushan empire played a major role in traced back to Indus Valley Civilization?
the development of the Gandhara
school of art. 1. Image worship
2. Worshiping at temple
3. Kushana King, Kanishka's headless 3. Tree worship
statue was produced at Mathura. 4. Ritual bathing

Which of the statements given above are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

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Q68. The Northern Black Polished Ware Q70. With reference to the Rig Vedic Period,
(NBPW) phase in ancient Indian history consider the following statements:
saw the emergence of which of the 1. Cattle rearing was the dominant
following? occupational activity.
2. The Yajur Veda Samhita was compiled
1. Punched Marked coins of silver in during this period.
trade and commerce. 3. The most important god during this
2. Urban centres for the first time in period was Indra.
Indian history. Which of the statements given above
3. G u i l d s y s t e m l e a d i n g t o c r a f t is/are correct?
specialization. (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code (c) 3 only
given below. (d) 1, 2 and 3

(a) 1 only Q71. With reference to Panini, consider the

(b) 1 and 3 only following statements:
(c) 1, 2 and 3 1. He composed Ashtadhyayi which is
(d) 2 and 3 only regarded as a great work on Sanskrit
grammar.
2. His literary work was influenced by his
predecessors like Varahamihira and
Aryabhatta.
Which of the statements given above
Q69. Consider the following statements is/are correct?
regarding the Samkhya school of (a) 1 only
philosophy: (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. According to it, a person can attain (d) Neither 1 nor 2
salvation through the acquisition of
real knowledge. Q72. The Persian work "Razmnama" is the
2. The world owes its creation and translated version of which famous Indian
evolution more to nature or prakriti Sanskrit text?
than to God. (a) Ramayana
3. In the beginning, the Samkhya school (b) Mahabharata
of philosophy was materialistic. (c) Arthshastra
(d) Manusmriti
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. Q73. In the context of ancient Indian history, in
which one of the following states, the
(a) 2 only Jorwe culture (a Chalcolithic site) existed
(b) 2 and 3 only in India?
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) Bihar
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Nagaland
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu

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Q74. What is common to the places known as Q77. In the Context of Ancient Indian History,
Champa, Shravasti, and Kaushambi? the term 'Bhojaka' was used to refer to:

(a) These were cities of Indus valley (a) Village Headman

civilization. (b) Philosophers
(b) These were megalithic sites in India. (c) People who offered food during the
(c) These were the areas ruled by the Sacrifices
Satavahana dynasty. (d) A Household that took the path of
(d) These were capitals of Mahajanapadas asceticism
during the age of Buddha.
Q78. With reference to the history of Ancient
Q75. Consider the following statements India, consider the following statements:
regarding the rock art of Bhimbetka: 1. The Iranian ruler Darius invaded India
1. T h e c a v e s of B h i m b e t k a w e r e during the times of Ashoka.
discovered by archaeologist V. S. 2. The Kharosthi script was brought to
Wakankar. India by the Iranian scribes.
2. The mesolithic paintings of Bhimbetka 3. Alexander's invasion of India was the
are smaller than the upper paleolithic first major invasion of Ancient Europe
paintings. into Ancient India.
3. In mesolithic paintings, animals were
painted in a naturalistic style whereas Which of the statements given above are
humans were depicted only in a correct?
stylistic manner. (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above (b) 1 and 3 only
is/are correct? (c) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only Q79. Consider the following statements about
(c) 1, 2 and 3 a personality:
(d) 1 and 3 only 1. He was the greatest conqueror of the
Achaemenian Empire.
Q76. The political system at the time of 2. He was the first conqueror who led an
Mahavira and Buddha was characterised expedition and entered into India.
by the existence of 3. He captured the Gandhara region.
1. Monarchical kingdoms 4. All Indian tribes to the west of the
2. Clan oligarchies Indus river submitted to him and paid
3. Constitutional Democracies tribute.

Select the correct answer using the code Which one of the following personalities
given below: is best described in the above statements?
(a) 1 only (a) Darius I
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) Cyrus
(c) 2 only (c) Alexander
(d) 1 and 3 only (d) Xerxes

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Q80. The ‘Battle of Hydaspes’ was fought Q83. With reference to Pushyamitra Shunga,
between Alexander and Porus. In this consider the following statements:
reference, Hydaspes refers to which one 1. He was a strong proponent of
of the following? Buddhism.
(a) Hindukush mountains 2. M a h a r s h i P a t a n j a l i w a s a
(b) City of Taxila contemporar y of Pushyamitra
(c) Jhelum River Shunga.
(d) Indus River 3. T h e A y o d h y a i n s c r i p t i o n o f
Dhanadeva is the first inscription on
Q81. Question stone or metal that mentions the
Consider the following pairs: name of Pushyamitra.

Famous Ruler Mahajanapada Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?
1. Pradyota Avanti (a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
2. Udayana Kosala (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
3. Prasenjit Vatsa
Q84. Which of the following factors was/were
4. Ajatshatru Magadha responsible for emerging Magadha as a
prosperous Mahajanapada compared to
How many pairs given above are correctly others?
matched? 1. Forest provided necessary wood for
(a) Only one Pair building houses and carts.
(b) Only two Pairs 2. Presence of Iron Mines
(c) Only three Pairs 3. Availability of fertile land and efficient
(d) All four Pairs river transportation

Q82. Which of the following factors prevailed Select the correct answer using the code
in 6th century B.C led to religious reforms given below:
in Indian subcontinent? (a) 1 only
1. The complex rituals and sacrifices (b) 2 only
advocated in the Later Vedic period (c) 2 and 3 only
2. Upanishads seemed to be highly (d) 1, 2 and 3
philosophical in nature and not easily
understood to common man. Q85. Question
3. Trading class wanted to enhance their The important city of Ayodhya was part of
social status against orthodox Varna which one of the following
system. Mahajanapadas?
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? (a) Kosala
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Kasi
(b) 3 only (c) Vatsya
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Anga
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q86. Which of the following are the features of Q89. Consider the following pairs:
Mahajanapadas?

1. Building of huge forts Inscription Associated Ruler

2. Maintenance of big army
3. Imposition of regular taxes 1. Junagarh Rudradaman I

Which of the statements given above 2. Rabatak Kanishka

is/are correct?
3. Rummindei Ashoka
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only Which of the pairs given above is/are
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only correctly matched?

(a) 1 only
Q87. Which one of the following text gives us (b) 1, 2 and 3
the idea about sixteen mahajanapadas (c) 2 only
during the sixth century B.C.? (d) 3 only

(a) Khuddak Nikaya

(b) Anguttar Nikaya
(c) Majhim Nikaya
(d) Digha Nikaya
Q90. Which of the following Mahajanpadas
during the age of Buddha, were ruled by
Q88. Consider the following statements with republican clan Oligarchies?
respect to the teachings of Jainism:
1. Mallas
1. Right faith is the belief in the teachings
and wisdom of Mahavira. 2. Avanti
2. Right knowledge is the acceptance of
the theory that the world has been 3. Magadha
created by God.
3. R i g h t c o n d u c t r e f e r s t o t h e 4. Vajji
observance of the five great vows.
Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above given below.
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

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Q91. With reference to the difference between Q93. Gana, Vidatha, Sabha and Samiti are the
the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Tribal assemblies mentioned in the
alley people, which of the following Rigveda. With reference to this, consider
statements is/are correct? the following statements:
1. During the Rig Vedic period these
1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail assemblies were involved in the
and helmet in warfare whereas the selection of the raja from amongst the
people of Indus Valley Civilization did clansmen.
not leave any evidence of using them. 2. ll these tribal assemblies were
abolished by the Rajas during the later
2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and Vedic age.
copper whereas Indus Valley people 3. The Sabha was the council of selected
knew only copper and iron. clan members and the Samiti
comprised the whole clan.
3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the Which of the statements given above
horse whereas there is no evidence of is/are correct?
Indus Valley people having been (a) 1 only
aware of this animal. (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code (d) 1, 2 and 3
given below:
Q94. Which of the following correctly
(a) 1 only describes the land of Seven Rivers (Sapta
Sindhu) where the initial Ar yan
(b) 2 and 3 only settlements were located?
(a) River Ganga and its tributaries
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) The Punjab and Delhi region
(c) The region from Eastern Afganistan to
(d) 1, 2 and 3 the Upper Valley of Ganges
(d) The land of Indus and its principal
tributaries

Q95. With reference to the Economy during

the Rig Vedic period, consider the
Q92. Yavam and godhuma were the terms following statements:
used by Rig Vedic people to denote: 1. Barter was the model of exchange
during the Rig Vedic period.
(a) Metal Objects 2. ‘Bali’ was a tax imposed by the clan
chiefs on the sale of commodities
(b) Crops among the tribes.
Which of the statements given above
(c) The furrow in the Fields is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(d) Ploughs (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q96. Consider the following statements with Q99. Which of the following literary sources
reference to the Chalcolithic period in provide empirical evidence of the
India: Mauryan Empire in their text?

1. Milk and dairy products were the main 1. Indica by Megasthenes

components of the dietary culture of
the Chalcolithic culture. 2. Arthashastra
2. Ganeshwar was an urban Chalcolithic
site that supplied copper objects to 3. Divyavadana
Harappa.
4. Dipavamsa
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q97. The Mauryan pillar capital is popularly (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

known as the Lion Capital and also our
national emblem symbolizes which life (d) 3 and 4 only
event of Buddha?

(a) Buddha’s Birth

(b) The Great Departure
(c) First Sermon
(d) Enlightenmen

Q98. Which among the following are the Q100. Who was the Greek ambassador who
Neolithic sites in India? set up a pillar in honour of Lord Vasudeva
at Besnagar near Vidisha in Madhya
1. Chirand Pradesh, around the mid-second century
2. Paiyampalli BC?
3. Utnur
4. Kodekal (a) Menander
5. Burzahom
(b) Heliodorus
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. (c) Gondophernes

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) Kadphises

(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
ANCIENT + ART & CULTURE
TEST - II

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

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TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO,
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alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
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THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers
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Q1. The rulers of the Mahajapadas period Q3. Consider the following pairs:
needed resources to build the huge
fortress.
Books Description
For this purpose, who among the
following were taxed by the rulers? 1. Manimekalai the love story
between
1. Agriculturalist merchant Kovlan
and courtesan
2. Traders named Madhavi

3. Crafts persons 2. Meghadutta lyric love poem

composed by
4. Army personnels Kalidasa

5. Hunters and Gatherers 3. Charak Samhita a book on

medicine
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
Which of the pairs given above is/are
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(c) 2, 3, and 5 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q4. Consider the following statements with

reference to Shankaradeva and his
contribution to art and culture:

1. Bhaona theatrical performance was

the creation of Shankaradeva.
Q2. With reference to 6th Century B.C. India, 2. Shankaradeva created the devotional
‘Kammakaras’ were songs Borgeets in Sanskrit.
3. Shankaradeva advocated the concept
(a) Moneylenders of “dasvandh” or donating one-tenth
of one’s earnings among needy
(b) Slave men and women persons.

(c) Army sub commandant Which of the above statements is/are

correct?
(d) Landless agricultural labourer (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q5. Consider the following Pairs with reference 3. According to Buddha, our actions
to raw materials used in economy and affect us both in this life and the next.
source region during Harappan period: Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Raw Materials Source Region (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. Shell for bangles Nageshwar (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Lapis Lazuli Shortughai

3. Carnelian Dholavira Q 8 . C o n s i d e r t h e f o l l o w i n g pa i r s of
Philosophical systems and their founders:
4. Steatite North Gujarat
Philosophical System Founder
Which of the above Pairs is/are correctly
matched? 1. Nyaya Gotama
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only 2. Vedanta Vyasa
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. Samkhya Jaimini

Q6. Consider the following statements about Which of the pairs given above is/are
the scietal structure in the Later Vedic correctly matched?
Period: (a) 1 and 2 only
1. Women were allowed to study the (b) 2 and 3 only
Vedas. (c) 1 and 3 only
2. Only the Brahmins and Kshatriyas (d) 1, 2 and 3
were allowed to perform Vedic
sacrifices.
3. The Varna system became very rigid Q9. Consider the following statements
and there were no chances for social regarding various social institutions of
mobility. ancient India
Which of the statements given above 1. Dharmasutras and Dharmashastras
is/are incorrect? recognized six forms of marriage.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Marriage of daughters outside the kin
(b) 2 and 3 only was considered desirable.
(c) 1 and 3 only 3. K a n y a d a n w a s c o n s i d e r e d a n
(d) 1, 2 and 3 important religious duty of the father.
Which of the statements given above
Q7. Which of the following statements with is/are correct?
reference to the teachings of Budhha (a) 1 and 2 only
is/are correct? (b) 3 only
1. According to Buddha, cravings could (c) 2 and 3 only
be removed by the following (d) 1, 2 and 3
moderation in everything.
2. Buddha preached the idea of Atman.

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Q10. Consider the following statements Q14. With reference to the Chhau dance,
regarding Buddhist Sanghas. which of the following statements is/are
1. Women were not allowed to join the correct?
Sanghas. 1. The Masks in Chhau dance are made
2. Slaves and labourers were allowed to of potters clay.
enter Sanghas. 2. Masks are not worn in Seraikella
3. Decisions within Sangha were taken Chhau.
by consensus and voting. 3. Only the lead artists wear masks in
Which of the statements given above Chhau dance.
is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 and 3 only given below:
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Q11. With reference to the economic history of

medieval India, the term ‘Araghatta’ refers Q15. With reference to the Mahayana
to Buddhism, consider the following
(a) bonded labour statements:
(b) land grants made to military officers 1. They believed in idol or image worship
(c) waterwheel used in the irrigation of of Buddha.
land 2. They believed in the Bodhisattva
(d) waste land converted to cultivated concept of the salvation of all
land conscious individuals.
3. The Mahayana sect remains influential
in Korea and Japan.
Q12. Consider the following ancient texts: Which of the statements given above
1. Panch siddhantika is/are correct?
2. Abhidhamma Pitaka (a) 1 only
3. Uttaradhyayana Sutra (b) 1 and 3 only
4. Therigatha (c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the options given above is/are (d) 1, 2 and 3
Buddhist text?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only Q16. With reference to the term’ Kutagrashala’
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only often seen in ancient texts, is used for:
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only (a) a diary to be maintained for daily
accounts
(b) a hut where debates took place
Q13. The Jain philosophy holds that the world among the travellers.
is created and maintained by (c) the measurement of land
(a) Universal Law (d) a place where various pitakas of
(b) Universal Truth Buddhism were discussed by sangha
(c) Universal Faith community.
(d) Universal Soul

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Q17. In the context of the Mauryan rule, Q20. With reference to stupas of ancient India,
consider the following statements: consider the following statements
1. The Mauryan bureaucracy was not as 1. The practice of constructing Stupas
elaborate as that of the Nandas. was prevalent during the Vedic Period.
2. Slaves were mostly employed in 2. The Stupas were built in relation to
agricultural operations. both Buddhist and Jain religions.
3. Mauryan pillars were made of a single 3. The Shunga dynasty introduced the
piece of sandstone. idea of ‘toranas’ to the stupas.
4. Adhyakshas were appointed to Which of the statements given above
regulate economic activities. is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above are (a) 1 and 2 only
correct? (b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) All of the above. Q21. It is an urban site identified as one of the
centres of Civilisation. It has common
settlements with mud-brick walls and is
Q18. In which of the following relief sculpture located on the right bank of the now dried
inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King up Palaeo-channel of Drishadvati. It is by
Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone far one of the largest Harappan sites in
portrait of Ashoka? modern-day India.
(a) Kanganahalli Which of the following is being described
(b) Sanchi in the above passage?
(c) Shahbazagrhi (a) Mohenjo-Daro
(d) Sohgaura (b) Rakhigarhi
(c) Dholavira
(d) Ganweriwala
Q19. Which of the following pairs are correctly
matched in the context of the Sangam Q22. Consider the following Pairs:
Age?
Vedic Terms Meaning
Term Description
1. Gavyat A daughter who milks
1. Uzhavar Head of a military unit the Cows

2. Adimai A ruling class 2. Gomat Wealthy Man

3. Vellalar Large landowners 3. Gopati Protector of Cows

Select the correct answer using the code Which of the pairs given above is/are
given below: correctly matched?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q23. Ashoka’s Dhamma signifies a general Q26. Which of the following statement is
code of conduct, which of the following correct with reference to the temple
are its prominent features? architecture of India?
1. Humane treatment of servants by
masters and prisoners by government (a) The Nagara style temples were
officials. covered with high boundary walls.
2. Prohibition of animal sacrifices and (b) The images of Dwaarpal, Mithun and
festive gatherings. yakshas are placed outside the
3. Tolerance among all the religious garbhagriha in Nagara style.
sects. (c) The crowning element in the Dravida
4. Conquest through Dhamma instead of style is shaped in the form of an
through war. octagon.
Select the correct answer using the code (d) In Dravidian style, there is vimana on
given below: the top of the main temple as well as
(a) 1 and 4 only the subsidiary shrines.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Q24. With reference to Ancient India, which of Q27. With reference to the Gupta Empire,
the following events occurred during the consider the following pairs:
reign of Chandragupta II, the great Gupta
king?
1. He crossed the river Sindh and Functionaries Duties
conquered Bactria.
2. He undertook a military campaign in 1. Vishayapati In charge of Bhukti
western India against the Sakas. (an administrative
3. The famous Chinese pilgrim, Fa- Hien unit)
visited India during his reign.
Which of the statements given above are 2. Uparika Incharge of districts
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. Mahattama Managing the affairs
(b) 1 and 3 only of the village
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the pair(s) given above is/are
correct?
Q25. Which of the following temples do not
form part of the Khajuraho temple (a) 1 only
complex? (b) 1 and 3 only
(a) Lakshmana temple. (c) 3 only
(b) Kandariya Mahadev temple. (d) 1 and 2 only
(c) Vishwanath temple.
(d) Lad Khan temple.

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Q28. With reference to the trade during the Q31. With reference to different terms related
Sangam age, consider the following to types of land during the Gupta time, the
statements: term 'Aprahata' was used to refer to:
1. The Romans were the first to enter into (a) Habitable land
trade contacts with the Tamil region. (b) Pastoral land
2. There was also a great demand in the (c) Cultivatable land
west for the cotton clothes (d) Forest land
manufactured in the Tamil country.
3. The port-town Korkai was the primary Q32. With reference to Ancient Indian history,
port of the Pandyan kingdom. consider the following statements about
4. The Chola kingdom was the first to get hymns of Rig Veda:
the benefit of the Roman trade. 1. The hymns in Rigveda are called Sukta.
Which of the statement(s) given above 2. Some of the hymns in Rigveda were
is/are correct? composed by women.
(a) 1 and 3 only 3. The Rigvedic hymns are written in
(b) 2 and 3 only Prakrit.
(c) 2 and 4 only How many of the statements given above
(d) 1 and 2 only are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
Q29. The “Dharma” and “Rita” depict a central (c) All three
Idea of ancient Vedic civilization of India. (d) None
In this context, consider the following
statements: Q33. Which one of the following animals was
1. D h a r m a w a s a c o n c e p t i o n o f not represented on the seals and
obligations and of the discharge of terracotta art of the Harappan culture?
one’s duties to oneself and to others. (a) Cow
2. Rita was the fundamental moral law (b) Elephant
governing the functioning of the (c) Rhinoceros
universe and all it contained. (d) Tiger
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? Q34. With reference 6th Century BCE, consider
(a) 1 only the following Mahajanpadas:
(b) 2 only 1. Anga
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Vatsa
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Shurasena
4. Matsya
Which of the following is the correct
Q30. Who among the following was a Director representation of the Mahajanapada sites
General of Archeological Survey of India from east to west?
(ASI) and revealed the discovery of Indus (a) 1-3-2-4
Valley Civilisation (IVC) to the world? (b) 2-3-4-1
(a) Alexander Cunningham (c) 2-4-3-1
(b) John Marshall (d) 1-2-3-4
(c) R.E.M. Wheeler
(d) James Prinsep

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Q35. With reference to the period of Mauryan The correct chronological sequence of
dynasty in ancient India, the towns their visits is:
Tamralipti, Bharuch and Sopara were well (a) 3, 1, 2, 4
known as: (b) 3, 1, 4, 2
(a) Provinces during Mauryan empire (c) 1, 3, 2, 4
(b) Ports handling foreign trade (d) 1, 3, 4, 2
(c) Impor tant Buddhist pilgrimage
centres Q39. Consider the following statements:
(d) Important sites of Ashokan pillar Statement I: The Harappan people used
inscriptions steatite for making beads of various
shapes.
Q36. Consider the following ancient sites of Statement II: Steatite is a soft stone that is
India: easier to carve and shape into intricate
1. Maski designs.
2. Jaugada (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
3. Sannati correct, and Statement-II is the correct
4. Nageshwar explanation for Statement-I.
5. Sopara (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
In how many of the above sites, Asokan correct, but Statement-II is not the
inscriptions were found? correct explanation for Statement-I.
(a) Only two (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
(b) Only three II is incorrect.
(c) Only four (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
(d) All five Statement-II is correct.

Q37. Consider the following ancient Indian Q40. Consider the following pairs of paintings
dynasties: and the state to which they are painted:
1. Kanva
2. Indo-Greek Paintings State
3. Chera
4. Gupta 1. Warli Painting Maharashtra
5. Vakataka
How many of the above were 2. Tanjore Painting Tamil Nadu
contemporaries of Shungas?
(a) Only two 3. Mithila Painting Bihar
(b) Only three
(c) Only four 4. Patachitra Odisha
(d) All five
How many of the above pairs are correctly
Q38. The following persons came to India at matched?
one time or another: (UPSC CSE 1999) (a) Only one
1. Fa-Hien (b) Only two
2. I-Tsing (c) All three
3. Megasthanes (d) None
4. Hieun-Tsang

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Q41. With reference to the Rampurva Bull Q44. Consider the following pairs:
Capital, a fine Maur yan Sculpture,
consider the following statements: Geographical State
Indication(GI) tag
1. It was discovered in present day Uttar
Pradesh. 1. Rupa Tarakasi Gujarat
2. It was made of Sandstone. (Silver Filigree)
3. It exhibits a fusion between Indian and
Persian styles of sculpting. 2. Narasapur crochet Andhra
lace product Pradesh
How many of the statements given above
are correct? 3. Asharikandi Assam
(a) Only one terracotta craft
(b) Only two
(c) All three 4. Ambaji Odisha
(d) None White Marble

Q42. Which of the following best describes the How many of the above pairs are correctly
term "Arhat or Arhant" in Buddhism? matched?
(a) Only one
(a) A reincarnated spiritual teacher who (b) Only two
guides others on the Buddhist path. (c) Only three
(b) A mythical being with supernatural (d) All four
powers who helps people achieve
enlightenment. Q45. Which of the following rulers permitted
(c) People far advanced along the path of the king of Srilanka Meghavarman to
enlightenment, but who may not have build a monastic temple at Bodh Gaya?
reached full Buddhahood. (a) Ashoka
(d) A state of perfect peace and serenity (b) Harsha
achieved through meditation. (c) Samudragupta
(d) Chandragupta II
Q43. With reference to Dasyus mentioned in
Rig Veda, consider the following Q46. Consider the following statements:
statements: 1. Zero was discovered by Aryabhatta.
2. Aryabhhatta stated that the moon
1. They worshipped the same gods as rotates around the earth and the earth
the Aryans. rotates around the sun.
2. Their leader was called Trasadasyu. 3. Varahamihira discovered the cause of
3. They were primarily hunter-gatherers. lunar eclipses and solar eclipses.
How many of the above statements are
How many of the statements given above correct?
are correct? (a) Only one
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(b) Only two (c) All three
(c) All three (d) None
(d) None

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Q47. Which of the following traditional folk Q51. With reference to Harappan civilisation,
theatre is particularly famous in the consider the following statements:
Kutchh and Kathiawar regions of Gujarat?
(a) Maach 1. Heavy use of burnt bricks is common
(b) Bhaona in Harappan cities and contemporary
(c) Tamaasha Egyptian and Mesopotamian
(d) Bhavai civilizations.
2. Harappans used metallic money for
trading with Mesopotamia.
Q48. Which one of the following was the 3. Many Harappan seals have been
author of Nyaya Sutra Bhashya and found in Mesopotamia.
Kamasutra?
(a) Vyasa How many of the statements given above
(b) Vatsyayana are correct?
(c) Bhatrihari (a) Only one
(d) Bharavi (b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q49. Consider the following parts of Sarnath
Lion Capital: Q52. “It is a traditional folk dance-drama
1. A lotus bell base performance that combines music, song,
2. A drum on the bell base with four dance, scholarly dialogue, and colorful
animals proceeding clockwise costumes. It is popular in the coastal
3. The figures of four majestic addorsed districts of Karnataka and the Kasaragod
lions district of Kerala”. It has two main
4. The crowning dharmachakra variations called Moodalapaya and
How many of the above parts are included Paduvalapaya.
in the adopted National Emblem of
Independent India? Which of the following theaters of South
(a) Only one India has been described by the passage
(b) Only two given above?
(c) Only three (a) Krishnattam
(d) All four (b) Mudiyettu
(c) Yakshagana
(d) Therukoothu
Q50. Consider the following:
1. Religious unrest in India Q53. The ancient Indian treatises of Sulvasutra,
2. Growth of trade and commerce Apastamba, and Chandahsastra majorly
3. The superstitious beliefs and mantras deal with the subject of
Which of the above were the causes for
the rise of Jainism and Buddhism in the (a) Astronomy
6th century B.C.? (b) Medicine
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Mathematics
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) Chemistry
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q54. Consider the following statements: Q57. Consider the following statements:
1. Tolkkappiyam deals with grammar.
1. Adi Shankaracharya revived Hinduism 2. Tirukkural deals with philosophy and
through his doctrine of Advaita or wise maxims.
Monism. 3. Silappadikaram deals with the
2. Ramanuja preached Visishtadvaita adventures of the daughter born of
and according to him, God is Saguna the union of Kovalan and Madhavi.
Brahman. Which of the statements given above are
3. Shankaracharya and Ramanuja were correct?
contemporaries living in the 9th (a) 1 and 2 only
century A.D. (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
How many of the statements given above (d) 1 and 3 only
are correct?
(a) Only one Q58. Consider the following pairs:
(b) Only two
(c) All three Literary work Author
(d) None
1. Gita Govinda Jayadeva
Q55. In which of the following types of
puppetry, puppets are costumed like the 2. Mudrarakshasa Vishakhadatta
actors of Jatra and the music have close
similarity with the jatra theatre? 3. Buddhacharita Bhaskara

(a) Yampuri How many of the above pairs are correctly

(b) Putul Nautch matched?
(c) Togalu Gombeyatta (a) Only one
(d) Ravanachhaya (b) Only two
(c) All three
Q56. Consider the following statements about (d) None
the Pala Empire:
Q59. With reference to the Chalcolithic period,
1. The Pala Empire was founded by consider the following statements:
Dharampala. 1. Jorwe culture was situated in the
2. Palas were great patrons of Buddhism. NorthWestern part of India.
3. Pala ruler Gopala revived Nalanda 2. People were aware of the art of writing
University and founded Vikramshila during this period and used a
University. pictographic script.
3. Wheel was used to make pottery.
How many of the statements given above How many of the statements given above
are correct? are correct?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) All three
(d) None (d) None

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Q60. Consider the following pairs: Q62. Recently, the Prime Minister unveiled a
125- foot-high statue of a significant
figure in the history of Assam. He served
Subdivisions of Shape of Shikara as the General of the Royal Army of the
Nagara Style Ahom Kingdom and was born in the
Charaideo district of Assam. Known for his
1. Phamsana Shikhara is square leadership, he united and rallied the tribal
at the base and forces of Assam. His notable victory came
walls curve or in the Battle of Saraighat in 1671 when he
slope inward to a defeated the Mughal Army. Since 1999,
point on top the National Defence Academy (NDA) has
been awarding the best cadet with a Gold
2. Valabhi Shikhara has roofs Medal in his honor.
composed of
several slabs that Which historical figure is described in the
slope upwards on a above passage?
straight incline
(a) Binanda Chandra Barooah
3. Rekha Prasada Shikaras are (b) Radhanath Phukan
rectangular (c) Lachit Borphukan
buildings with a (d) Nilmoni Phukan
roof that rises into a
vaulted chamber

How many of the above pairs are correctly Q63. The dance form was introduced by
matched? Shankaradeva and it was an
amalgamation of dance forms of Ojapali
(a) Only one and Devdasi. Waist cloth is worn while
(b) Only two performing by both men and women.
(c) All three Musical Instruments like Khol (drum),
(d) None Cymbals (Manjira), and flute are used
while performing the dance. The major
focus of dance form is on the devotional
aspect of dance.

Q61. The first Jain Council which was presided Which of the following dance forms is
over by Sthulabahu, was convened in the discussed in the above paragraph?
city of:
(a) Mohiniyattam
(a) Vaishali (b) Manipuri
(b) Pataliputra (c) Sattriya
(c) Shravanabelagola (d) Kathak
(d) Vallabhi

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Q64. Consider the following statements Q67. Consider the following pairs:
regarding Hindustani Music:
1. It includes devotional music like kirtan, Indian Kingdoms Their Capitals
bhajan and ragas.
2. Thumri, Dhamar, and Tarana are 1. Gurjara-Pratihara Manyakhet
semiclassical forms of Hindustani
Music. 2. Rashtrakuta Vengi
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? 3. Chola Tanjore
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only How many of the pairs given above are
(c) Both 1 and 2 correctly matched?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
Q65. Arrange the following sites of Harappan (d) None
civilisation from west to east:
1. Kot Diji
2. Sutkagendor Q68. Consider the following statements about
3. Lothal the Rashtrakuta King “Amoghavarsha”:
4. Manda 1. He was the founder and longest-ruling
5. Amri king of the Rashtrakuta dynasty.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. The famous rock-cut temple of Shiva
given below. at Ellora was built by Amoghavarsha.
(a) 1-2-3-4-5 3. He is credited with the writing of
(b) 1-3-2-4-5 Kavirajamarga.
(c) 2-3-1-5-4 How many of the statements given above
(d) 2-5-1-3-4 are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
Q66. Harshavardhana was a significant ruler in (c) All three
ancient India. He is known for his (d) None
patronage of Buddhism and his efforts to
unify northern India.
Which of the following statements about Q69. The sixth century BCE is often regarded as
Harshavardhana is correct? a major turning point in early Indian
(a) Harsha was the last ruler of the Gupta history due to which of the following?
Empire. 1. Rise of early states, and cities
(b) Harsha’s empire extended across the 2. Growing use of iron
entire Indian subcontinent. 3. Development of coinage
(c) Harsha was defeated by Pulakeshin II Select the correct answer using the code
of the Chalukya dynasty. given below.
(d) Harsha converted to Buddhism late in (a) 1 and 2 only
his reign and declared it the state (b) 2 and 3 only
religion of his empire. (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q70. With reference to the medieval Indian Q74. Consider the following pairs:
history, Dipankara and Santarakshita were
famous:
Orthodox School Philosophy
(a) Jain monks.
(b) Buddhist scholars. 1. Samkhya School It believes in dual
(c) Playwrights. nature of reality
(d) Temple architects i.e Prakriti and
Purusha
Q71. With reference to the economy of the
Indus Valley civilization (IVC), consider the 2. Nyaya School It considers God
following statements: as the one who
creates, sustains,
1. T h e y p r a c t i c e d i n a n i m a l and destroys the
domestication. universe

2. Their lack of knowledge of the plough 3. Vaisheshika It believes

restricted agricultural productivity. salvation is
possible through
Which of the statements given above recognition of
is/are correct? atomic character
(a) 1 only of the universe
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 How many of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
Q72. In reference to Indian history, which of (a) Only one
the following best describes the meaning (b) Only two
of the term "Apabhramsa"? (c) All three
(d) None
(a) A classical form of Sanskrit literature
(b) The sacred language used in Hindu
religious texts Q75. Which of the following temples were built
(c) Vernacular language used in medieval during the Gupta period?
India
(d) A style of temple architecture 1. Brick temples of Bhitargaon
prevalent in ancient India 2. Sun temple of Modhera
3. Kandariya Mahadeva Temple of
Q73. Literary work ‘Kirtana-ghosha’ was Khajuraho
composed by:
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) Shankaradeva given below.
(b) Ramananda (a) 1 only
(c) Vallabhacharya (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q76. Which of the following are features of the Q79. Consider the following pairs:
Nagara school of architecture?
1. There were water tanks present on
temple premises. Painting/Sculpture Place
2. Temples were generally built on raised
platforms. 1. Mara Vijaya Ajanta
3. Temples have assembly halls in front of
the principal shrine. 2. Yakshini figure Didarganj

Select the correct answer using the code 3. Maheshmurti Elephanta

given below.
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only Which of the pairs given above is/are
(c) 2 and 3 only correctly matched?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
Q77. The terms ‘Ekakuta’, ‘Dvikuta’, and (b) 2 and 3 only
‘Trikuta’ are related to: (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) ancient land measurement units used
during Magadha empire. Q80. Consider the following statements
(b) foreign policy strategies explained by regarding the Nagara style of temple
Chanakya in his work ‘Arthashastra’. architecture:
(c) types of temples based on number of
shrines in the Hoysala architecture. 1. I n t h e L a t i n a s t y l e o f t e m p l e
(d) designation given to the priests based architecture the buildings are shorter
on the mastery over shastras and show a gentle rise as compared to
phamsana type.
Q78. Consider the following passage: 2. In many Nagara-style temples both
The Stupa has an upper as well as a lower phamsana and latina types of shikhara
circumambulatory path. It has four can be seen for manadapa and
beautifully decorated toranas depicting garbhagriha of a same temple
various events from the life of the Buddha respectively.
and the Jatakas. The historical narratives 3. In the Vallabhi type of architecture
such as the siege of Kushinara, Buddha’s buildings have a rectangular roof and
visit to Kapilavastu, are carved with are also known as wagon vaulted
considerable details. It was designated a roofs.
UNESCO World Heritage site in 1989.
Which of the above statements are
Which of the following Buddhist Stupas is correct?
being described in the above passage?
(a) Chaukhandi stupa (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Sanchi Stupa (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Bharhut stupa (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Dhameka stupa (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q81. Which of the following is not correct Q84. Arrange the following Sun temples in
regarding the Khajuraho Group of India from north to south.
Monuments?
1. Martand Sun temple
(a) They were built during the Chandela 2. Konark Sun temple
dynasty's reign. 3. S u r y a n a r a y a n a Sw a m y te m p l e ,
(b) T h e y b e l o n g t o t w o d i f f e r e n t Arsavalli
religionsHinduism and Jainism.
(c) They depict the Nagara style of temple Select the correct answer using the code
architecture. given below.
(d) Most of the temple structures are built (a) 3-2-1
in Marble (b) 1-2-3
(c) 2-1-3
Q82. It is a prominent Jain shrine housing the (d) 3-1-2
world’s tallest monolithic free-standing
structure. It was commissioned by
Chamundaraya, the General-in-Chief and Q85. The dance form was primarily practiced
Prime Minister of the Ganga Kings of by the maharis and with the advent of
Mysore. Vaishnavism, it was continued by
Gotipuas. The dance form similar to
Which of the following religious site is Bharatnatyam symbolizes the element of
being described in the above passage? water. This dance form is famous for its
(a) Dilwara intricate geometric shapes such as the
(b) Pavapuri Tribhanga posture.
(c) Sravana Belagola
(d) Khajuraho Identify the dance form from the passage
given above.
Q83. Which of the following statements are (a) Mohiniattam
correct with reference to the Amravati (b) Odissi
school of architecture? (c) Mayilattam
(d) Kuchipudi
1. It flourished during the Satvahana
period.
2. There is prominence of human figures Q86. In the context of cultural history of India,
rather than to figures drawn from the term 'nritya' refers to
nature.
3. They mainly used white-spotted red (a) pure dance sequence where body
sandstone. movements do not express any
feelings.
Select the correct answer using the code (b) expressional movements to convey
given below. the meaning of a theme.
(a) 1 and 3 only (c) dance sequence that highlights the
(b) 2 and 3 only dramatic element.
(c) 1 only (d) none of the above
(d) 1 and 2 only

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Q87. With reference to the Kangra School of Q90. "The 12th-century historian is famous for
Pa i n t i n g , c o n s i d e r t h e f o l l o w i n g a chronicle named Rajatarangini. The
statements: work was a string of biographies of kings
1. The Kangra School of Painting drew its of Kashmir written in Sanskrit. His work is
inspiration from the Vaishnavite cult of considered as one of the best examples of
Hinduism. historical writings of the Kashmir region."
2. Raja Kirpal Singh was the first patron
of these paintings. Which of the following personalities has
3. The famous Bani Thani painting is an been described in the passage given
example of Kangra paintings. above?
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? (a) Bilhana
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Banabhatta
(b) 1 only (c) Kalhana
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Atula
(d) 3 only

Q88. Which of the following statements are

correct in the context of ancient Indian
languages and scripts? Q91. Which of the following Mughal emperors
1. The Kharoshthi script was written from was responsible for establishing an entire
right to left. department of paintings for the first time?
2. The Brahmi script was deciphered by
James Prinsep. (a) Humayun
3. Brahmi was the main script till the end (b) Akbar
of Gupta times. (c) Jahangir
Select the correct answer using the code (d) Shahjahan
given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Q92. Consider the following passage:
"It is a form of semi classical vocal music
Q89. Consider the following statements about inspired by the folk songs of camel riders
the Prakrit language: inthe Punjab area. It is set in ragas
1. It was adopted by Jainism. generally used for the semi classical
2. It was the official language of the forms. It is characterized by jumpy and
Satavahanas. flashy tonal movements with rhythmic
Which of the statements given above are and rapid notes." It is
correct?
(a) 1 only (a) Kajri
(b) 2 only (b) Laman
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Powada
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Tappa

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Q93. Consider the following statements Q95. Consider the following pairs:
re g a rd i n g pa i n t i n g s of n e o l i t h i c -
chalcolithic period in ancient India:
Martial Art Associated state
1. Cattle form the dominant theme in
these paintings. 1. Thang-ta Mizoram

2. Instead of painting the drawings, 2. Mardani Khel Uttar Pradesh

crayoning (rubbing dry color over
stone) was used. 3. Kathi Samu Andhra Pradesh

3. Humans as subjects were also used.

Which of the pairs given above is/are
Which of the statements given above correctly matched?
is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Q94. Consider the following pairs:

Indian Literature Written/compiled Q96. The texts talks about creation and
during recreation of world, the genealogies of
gods and rishis and accounts of royal
1. Manusmriti Vedic period dynasties. The concept of four ages or
yugas – krita, treta, dvapara and kala is
2. Gathasattasai Satavahanas also mentioned. The texts mentioned here
are:
3. Amarakosa Gupta period
(a) Aryankas

Which of the pairs given above are (b) Upanishads

correctly matched?
(c) Puranas
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) Brahamanas
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q97. Consider the following statements: Q99. Abhijnana Shakuntalam, the story of the
love between a king named Dushyanta
Statement I: The era beginning in 58 BCE and a young woman named Shakuntala is
is known as the Vikram Samvat in India. written by?
Statement II: Chandragupta II of Gupta
empire founded Vikaram Samavat to (a) Sudraka
commemorate his triumph over the
Shakas. (b) Vishakhadatta

Which one of the following is correct in (c) Bilhana

respect of the above statements?
(d) Kalidasa
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, but Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
II is incorrect.
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
Statement-II is correct.

Q98. With reference to the inscriptions of the Q100. With reference to Indian history,
ancient Indian history, consider the consider the following statements:
following statements:
1. Sushruta in his book Susrut Samhita
1. Prayag Prashasti at Allahabad was states that the human body has more
composed by Samudragupta’s court than 300 bones.
poet Harisena.
2. Mehrauli iron pillar inscription 2. Charaka, in his book Charaka Samhita
belongs to the reign of Mauryan ruler laborates in detail about the surgical
Chandra Gupta Maurya. procedures.
3. Aihole inscription was written by
Chalukyan king Pulakesin II’s court Which of the statements given above
poet Ravikirti. is/are correct?

Which of the statements given above are (a) 1 only

correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 | Navigator | Economy FLT - I

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
ECONOMY
FLT - I

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO,
GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
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omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will
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4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
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TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers
happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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Q1. Which of the following statements Q3. Which of the following best describes the
correctly differentiate public goods from term ‘Liquidity Coverage Ratio’?
private goods?
(a) It is an indication of the provision
1. P u b l i c g o o d s a r e c o l l e c t i v e l y made against bad loans from the
consumed, unlike private goods. profit generated by the banks.
2. There is no feasible way of excluding
anyone from enjoying the benefits of (b) It is a key financial metric that
public goods. calculates a company’s ability to repay
3. Public goods are produced only by the its debt obligations by selling its
government. assets.
4. Public goods are generally financed
through the government budget. (c) It is the ratio of a bank’s capital in
relation to its risk weighted assets and
Select the correct answer using the codes current liabilities.
given below:
(d) It refers to the proportion of highly
(a) 1, 2, and 4 only liquid assets held by a bank to meet its
(b) 1 and 3 only short-term obligations.
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Q4. Country A has a lower nominal Gross

Q2. With reference to Indian Economy, Domestic Product (GDP) than Country B,
consider the following statements: but its GDP at Purchasing Power Parity
(PPP) is higher. Which of the following is
1. Bond yield is the return an investor the most likely explanation for this?
gets on a bond.
2. An increase in interest rates may lead (a) The overall cost of goods and services
to a rise in bond prices. in Country A is higher than in Country
3. Higher internal borrowing by the B.
government may decrease the bond
prices. (b) Country A’s currency is significantly
undervalued compared to Country B’s
Which of the statements given above are currency.
correct?
(c) Goods and services in Country A are
(a) 1 and 2 only relatively cheaper than in Country B.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Country A has a larger workforce than
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Country B.

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Q5. Which of the following instruments are Q8. With reference to the Pre-packaged
used by the Reserve Bank of India for Insolvency Resolution Process (PIRP),
sterilisation of Forex inflows? consider the following statements:
1. Open Market Operations (OMO)
2. Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) 1. It is an alternate and speedier
3. Forex Swaps resolution mechanism for micro,
4. Balances of the Government of India medium and small enterprises in
with the Reserve Bank financial distress.
5. Cash Reserve Requirements
Select the correct answer using the code 2. The Resolution Process under the
given below: PIRP can be initiated only by creditors.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only Which of the statements given above
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only is/are correct?
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(a) 1 only
Q6. Consider the following: (b) 2 only
1. Rupee Securities (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Deposits (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Notes Issued
4. Loans and Advances
Which of the above are considered as the
assets of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
(a) 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only Q9. With reference to the Indirect Taxes,
(c) 2 and 3 only consider the following statements:
(d) 1 and 4 only
1. They are levied on goods and services
Q7. Consider the following statements
regarding Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) in 2. The burden of indirect taxes can not be
India: shifted.
1. N a r a s i m h a m W o r k i n g G r o u p
recommended the establishment of 3. They are generally regressive in
RRBs. nature.
2. The share capital of an RRB is held by
the Central Government and the 4. They have a limited reach.
concerned State Government in equal
proportion. How many of the statements given above
3. RRBs are exempted from following the are correct?
Priority Sector Lending (PSL) norms.
Which of the statements given above (a) Only one
is/are correct? (b) Only two
(a) 1 only (c) Only three
(b) 1 and 3 only (d) All four
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q10. With reference to Non-Banking Financial Which one of the following is correct in
Companies (NBFCs), consider the respect of the above statements ?
following statements:
1. NBFCs form part of the Payment and (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Settlement system. correct, and Statement-II is the correct
2. They can engage in the acquisition of explanation for Statement-I.
securities issued by the Government. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
3. The NBFCs cannot accept demand correct, but Statement-II is not the
deposits. correct explanation for Statement-I.
4. All NBFCs must be registered with the (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
Reserve Bank of India. II is incorrect.
Which of the statements given above are (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
correct? Statement-II is correct.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q11. Consider the following: Q13. Consider the following statements

1. Investment in shares regarding the Marginal Standing Facility
2. Interest payments on market loans (MSF):
3. Loans by the Central government to
Union Territory Governments 1. It refers to the facility under which
4. Borrowing by the Government from banks can borrow funds overnight
the market from the Reserve Bank of India without
5. Grants given to Local governments any collateral.
How many of the above forms a part of the
Capital Expenditure under the Union 2. Under the MSF, the banks can borrow
Budget of India? up to 10% of their net demand and
(a) Only two time liabilities (NDTL).
(b) Only three
(c) Only four 3. The facility is available for both
(d) All five Scheduled Commercial Banks and
Scheduled Urban Cooperative Banks.

Which of the statements given above

Q12. Consider the following statements: is/are not correct?
Statement I: Debentures are long-term
financial instruments that acknowledge a (a) 1 and 3 only
debt obligation towards the issuer. (b) 1 and 2 only
Statement II: The lenders of non- (c) 1, 2 and 3
convertible debentures are usually given a (d) None
higher rate of return compared to
convertible debentures.

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Q14. How does the Standing Deposit Facility How many of the above are included in
(SDF) differ from the fixed rate reverse the calculation of Gross Domestic Product
repo (FRRR)? of an economy?
(a) Only one
1. SDF is a tool of the Reserve Bank of (b) Only two
India to inject liquidity, whereas FRRR (c) Only three
is used for absorbing excess liquidity. (d) All four
2. The SDF is available on all days of the
week, while the FRRR is only available
on certain days. Q17. In the context of National Income
3. The SDF does not require any Accounting, consider the following
collateral, while the FRRR does. statements:
1. While Gross Value Added (GVA)
How many of the above statements are focuses on the supply side, Gross
correct? Domestic Product (GDP) focuses on
the demand side.
(a) Only one 2. GVA is calculated at basic prices,
(b) Only two whereas GDP is calculated at market
(c) All three prices.
(d) None 3. GVA is generally calculated on a
sector-wise basis, whereas GDP is
Q15. Which of the following liabilities of the generally calculated for the entire
Central government are part of the “Public economy.
debt”? Which of the statements given above are
1. Government securities issued in the correct?
open market (a) 1 and 2 only
2. Treasury bills issued to Commercial (b) 2 and 3 only
Banks (c) 1 and 3 only
3. E x t e r n a l d e b t r a i s e d b y t h e (d) 1, 2, and 3
government
4. Public Account Liabilities.
Select the correct answer using the code Q18. For banks, a higher Statutory Liquidity
given below: Ratio (SLR) is generally preferred over a
(a) 1 only higher Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) because:
(b) 1 and 2 only 1. SLR assets can be more easily
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only liquidated compared to CRR assets.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. SLR assets generate interest, whereas
CRR balances do not.
Q16. With reference to the calculation of Gross Which of the statements given above
Domestic Product, considering the is/are correct?
following items: (a) 1 only
1. Resale of goods (b) 2 only
2. Social security benefits (c) Both 1 and 2
3. Exports from Exclusive Economic (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Zones
4. Black-market activities

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Q19. With reference to the Non-Performing Q22. Consider the following statements
Assets (NPAs) and their categorisation, regarding the Incremental Capital Output
consider the following statements: ratio (ICOR):
1. Substandard Assets are NPAs where Statement I: Lower ICOR is considered
the principal or interest is overdue for beneficial for the economy.
less than 12 months. Statement II: Decrease in ICOR indicates
2. Doubtful Assets are NPAs where the that lower investment is required to
principal or interest is overdue for 12 produce an additional unit of output.
to 36 months. Statement III: ICOR is an effective
3. Loss assets are those assets which are measure of the productivity of labor in the
un-collectible and of such little value economy.
that its continuance as a bankable
asset is not warranted. Which one of the following is correct in
How many of the statements given above respect of the above statements ?
are correct? (a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III
(a) Only one are correct and both of them explain
(b) Only two Statement-I
(c) All three (b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III
(d) None are correct, but only one of them
explains Statement-I
Q20. Consider the following Fertilizers: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is
1. Liquid Nano Urea correct and that explains Statement-I
2. Di-Ammonium Phosphate (DAP) (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement-Ill
3. Phosphorus (P), is correct
4. Potash (K)
5. Sulphar (S)
How many of the Fertilizers are covered Q23. Consider the following statements
under the Nutrient Based Subsidy regarding the Index of Industrial
Scheme? Production (IIP) in India:
(a) Only two 1. It measures short-term changes in the
(b) Only three volume of production of a selected
(c) Only four basket of industrial products during a
(d) All five given period.
2. It covers the Mining, Manufacturing,
Q21. Consider the following: and Electricity sectors of the economy.
1. Appreciation of Rupee 3. It is compiled and published by the
2. Increase in savings rate among Department for Promotion of Industry
consumers and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
3. Increase in investment expenditure
How many of the above are likely impacts Select the correct answer using the code
of the expansionary monetary policy by given below:
the Reserve Bank of India? (a) 1 only
(a) Only one (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) Only two (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) All three (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

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Q24. The Union Budget 2024-25 introduced a Q.26. Which of the following function the
new Long-Term Capital Gains (LTCG) tax Reserve Bank of India (RBI) perform in its
regime, where the tax rate is lower but the role as ‘Banker to Banks’
indexation benefit has been removed.
1. It holds the deposits of commercial
What does the term “indexation benefit” banks and facilitates interbank
imply in this context? transactions.
2. It provides short-term loans to banks
(a) Reduction in the tax liability of for specific purposes.
individuals or businesses payable to 3. It sets the interest rates on savings
the government. accounts offered by commercial
(b) Process of linking tax rates to a general banks.
price index to adjust for inflation over
time. Select the correct answer using the codes
(c) Exemption allowing individuals or given below:
entities to continue activities
permitted prior to new regulations or (a) 1 only
laws.
(d) Adjustment of the purchase price of an (b) 1 and 2 only
asset to account for inflation, reducing
the tax burden on capital gains. (c) 2 and 3 only

Q25. Consider the following statements: (d) 1, 2, and 3

Statement I: When the Reserve Bank of

India (RBI) reduces the Statutory Liquidity
Ratio (SLR), Scheduled Commercial Banks Q27. An increase in the Debt-to-GDP ratio may
may lower their lending rates. lead to which of the following
Statement II: A reduction in the SLR consequences?
allows banks to hold more funds, which
can be used for lending. 1. Increase in budget deficit
2. Increase in interest payment
Which of the following is correct in respect 3. Decrease in disposable income
of the above statements?
Select the correct option using the codes
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are given below:
correct, and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I. (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, but Statement-II is not the (b) 2 and 3 only
correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement- (c) 1 and 3 only
II is incorrect.
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t (d) 1, 2 and 3
Statement-II is correct.

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Q28. Consider the following statements: Q30. Which of the following is a legal tender in
India?
Statement I: Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is a
direct instrument of Monetary Policy 1. C h e q u e s i s s u e d b y S c h e d u l e d
which immediately impacts the system Commercial Banks
liquidity.
Statement II: Direct instruments are tools 2. Demand drafts issued by Scheduled
of monetary policy that operate through Commercial Banks
the market by influencing underlying
demand and supply conditions 3. Fifty paise coins for sum upto Rs. 10.

Which one of the following is correct in Select the correct answer using the code
respect of the above statements? given below:
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, and Statement-II is the correct (a) 1 only
explanation for Statement-I. (b) 3 only
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (c) 1 and 2 only
correct, but Statement-II is not the (d) 2 and 3 only
correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement- Q31. Which of the following would be a likely
II is incorrect. consequence if the Reserve Bank of India
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t (RBI) implements full capital account
Statement-II is correct. convertibility in India?

Q29. Consider the following statements 1. Indian companies will have easier
regarding the Government of India’s access to foreign capital.
Policy on Strategic Disinvestment of
Public Sector Enterprises: 2. It will reduce the need for maintaining
high levels of foreign exchange
1. There will be bare minimum presence reserves by the RBI
of the public sector enterprises in the
strategic sectors. 3. Indian residents can freely convert
2. Central Public Sector Enterprises will rupees into foreign currency for
be privatised, or otherwise shall be overseas investments.
closed in the non-strategic sectors.
3. “Transport and Telecommunications” 4. RBI would have more control over
has been categorized as one of the inflation due to better capital inflows.
strategic sectors.
Select the correct answer using the codes
Which of the statements given above given below:
is/are correct?
(a) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

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Q32. Consider the following statements Q34. With reference to Mutual Funds, consider
regarding the Special Drawing Rights the following statements:
(SDRs) allocated by International
Monetary Fund (IMF): 1. The trustees of the mutual fund hold
its property for the benefit of the
Statement-I: SDR allocation by the IMF unitholders.
supplements the foreign exchange 2. All mutual funds are required to be
reserves of the countries. registered with SEBI before they
Statement-II: SDR is a currency issued by launch any scheme.
the IMF that can be used for settling 3. Unit Trust of India was the first mutual
international transactions. fund set up in India.
Statement III: Countries can exchange
SDRs for freely usable currencies among How many statements given above are
themselves. correct?

Which one of the following is correct in (a) Only one

respect of the above statements ? (b) Only two
(a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III (c) All three
are correct and both of them explain (d) None
Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-II and Statement- III
are correct, but only one of them
explains Statement-I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is Q35. Consider the following statements:
correct and that explains Statement-I
(d) Only one of the Statements II and III is Statement I: In the case of Masala Bonds,
correct, but that does not explain the currency risk is borne by the investor.
Statement-I Statement II: The value of Masala Bonds
is denominated in Indian currency.

Which one of the following is correct

Q33. Consider the following factors: regarding the above statements?

1. Expansionary monetary policy (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

2. Depreciation of Rupee correct, and Statement-II is the correct
3. Fiscal stimulus explanation for Statement-I.
4. Reduction in corporate tax rate (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, but Statement-II is not the
How many of the above will have a direct correct explanation for Statement-I.
impact on increasing cost-push inflation (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
in the Indian economy? II is incorrect.
(a) Only one (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
(b) Only two Statement-II is correct.
(c) Only three
(d) All four

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Q36. The richest 10 individuals in Country A Q38. With reference to the World Trade
earn 50% of the total income, whereas the Organization (WTO) and its classification
richest 10 individuals in Country B earn of agricultural subsidies, consider the
60% of the total income. In this context, following statements:
which of the following is most likely to be
true? 1. Amber Box contains subsidies that are
forbidden and must be eliminated.
(a) The Gini Coefficient for Country A will
be higher than that of Country B 2. Blue Box contains subsidies that are
tied to programs limiting production.
(b) The Gini Coefficient for Country A will
be lower than that of Country B 3. Green Box contains subsidies that are
decoupled from current production
(c) The Gini Coefficient for Country A will levels or prices.
be equal to that of Country B
How many of the statements given above
(d) None of the above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two
(c) All three
Q37. In the context of poverty estimation, (d) None
consider the following statements:

1. Absolute poverty is concerned with Q39. Consider the following statements:

basic needs such as food, shelter, and
clothing. Statement I: Devaluation of a currency
may improve a country’s balance of trade.
2. Relative poverty focuses on inequality
within a society. Statement II: Devaluation makes exports
cheaper and imports more expensive.
3. International Poverty Line, defined by
the World Bank, is an example of Which of the following is correct in respect
relative poverty. of the above statements?

Which of the statements given above (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
is/are correct? correct, and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
(a) 1 only (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, but Statement-II is not the
(b) 1 and 2 only correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
(c) 2 and 3 only II is incorrect.
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
(d) 1, 2, and 3 Statement-II is correct.

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Q40. With reference to agriculture, what does Q43. If there is a cut in interest rates by the US
the term “de minimis” refer to? Federal Reserve, which of the following
(a) It refers to the minimum threshold of could be its most likely impacts on India?
agricultural subsidies, below which a
country is exempt from reporting to 1. It can lead to depreciation of the rupee
the World Trade Organization (WTO). against the dollar.
(b) It refers to the minimum amount of
trade required for a country to achieve 2. I t c a n b e n e fi t e x p o r te r s w h i l e
Most Favoured Nation (MFN) status. adversely affecting importers in India.
(c) It is the minimum level of credit
mandated for the agriculture sector by 3. It can incentivize global investors to
scheduled commercial banks. invest in India.
(d) It refers to the maximum allowable
subsidies or domestic support under Select the correct answer using the codes
the Agreement on Agriculture. given below:

(a) 1 and 2
Q41. With reference to financial markets, (b) 2 only
consider the following activities: (c) 1 and 3
1. Rights issue by a company (d) 3 only
2. Private placement of a company’s
shares
3. Auction of Government Bonds
Which of the above activities form a part
of the Primary Market? Q44. Consider the following items:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only 1. Remittances received by India from
(c) 2 and 3 only abroad
(d) 1, 2, and 3
2. External assistance received by India in
the form of loans
Q42. Which of the following is necessarily
correct for an economy experiencing a 3. Borrowings by the government from
Current Account Deficit (CAD)? the RBI
1. Its merchandise imports exceed its
merchandise exports. 4. Foreign portfolio investment in India
2. Its foreign exchange reserves will
decline as a result of financing the How many of the above are included in
deficit. the capital account of India’s Balance of
Select the correct answer using the codes Payments?
given below:
(a) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 only (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) All four

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Q45. As part of Foreign exchange reserves In how many of the above sectors is
management, the Reserve Bank of India Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
(RBI) can deploy its foreign exchange completely prohibited under any route?
reserves as: (a) Only two
1. Deposits with foreign commercial (b) Only three
banks (c) Only four
2. Deposits with Bank for International (d) All five
Settlements
3. Certain types of derivatives Q48. With reference to Participatory notes in
Indian context, consider the following
Select the correct answer using the codes statements:
given below:
1. They are issued by a registered
(a) 2 only Foreign Institutional Investor to
(b) 1 and 2 only overseas investors.
(c) 2 and 3 only 2. T h e y a re a t y p e of d e r i va t i v e
(d) 1, 2 and 3 instrument.
3. They allow foreign investors to buy
Q46. Consider the following statements stocks listed on Indian exchanges
regarding the “Minimum Support Price without being registered with SEBI
(MSP)”:
How many of the statements given above
1. The MSP for each cropping season is is/ are correct?
declared after the crops are harvested. (a) Only one
2. The MSP is announced by the (b) Only two
Commission for Agricultural Costs and (c) All three
Prices (CACP). (d) None
3. MSP is legally binding across the
country. Q49. Consider the following statements
regarding Foreign Portfolio Investment
Which of the statements given above are (FPI) and Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
correct? in India:

(a) 1 and 2 only 1. FPI is defined as an investment by

(b) 2 and 3 only non-residents that exceeds 10% of a
(c) 1 and 3 only company’s capital.
(d) None 2. Foreign Portfolio Investors are not
allowed to invest in Government
Q47. Consider the following sectors: securities.

1. Atomic Energy Which of the above statements is/are

2. Chit Funds correct?
3. Banking (a) 1 only
4. Mining & Exploration of metals and (b) 2 only
non-metal ores (c) Both 1 and 2
5. Nidhi Company (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q50. Consider the following statements: Q52. With reference to the National
Statement-I: Increase in domestic and Monetisation Pipeline (NMP), consider
international Bond yields can cause Indian the following statements:
stock market to slide down.
Statement II: Increase in bond yields can 1. It aims to unlock value in brownfield
make equity markets less attractive for public sector assets by engaging
riskaverse investors. private sector participation.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements? 2. It proposes transferring the ownership
of loss-making core assets to private
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are players.
correct, and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I. 3. NMP period has been kept co-
terminus with the remaining period of
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are the National Infrastructure Pipeline.
correct, but Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
II is incorrect. (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t (c) 1 and 3 only
Statement-II is correct. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q53. In the context of the Exchange Rate,

Q51. Which of the following best describes the consider the following statements:
term “Secured Overnight Financing Rate
(SOFR)”, often seen in the news? 1. A rising Real Effective Exchange Rate
(REER) indicates that a country is
(a) It is a benchmark interest rate used to losing its trade competitiveness.
determine mortgage rates in the U.S.
housing market. 2. A rising Nominal Effective Exchange
Rate (NEER) indicates that a country’s
(b) It is an interest rate set by the United currency is appreciating against a
States Federal Reserve for interbank basket of currencies in a floating
overnight lending. exchange rate regime.

(c) It is an interest rate used for short- Select the correct answer using the codes
term loans between Central banks of given below:
the countries.
(a) 1 only
(d) It is a benchmark interest rate for (b) 2 only
dollar-denominated derivatives and (c) Both 1 and 2
loans. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q54. Which of the following correctly explains (a) 1 only
the causes of divergence between CPI- (b) 2 only
based inflation and WPI-based inflation? (c) Both 1 and 2
1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) (d) Neither 1 nor 2
excludes services, while the Consumer
Price Index (CPI) includes services such Q57 . I n t h e c o n t e x t of Wo r l d Tr a d e
as healthcare and education. Organization (WTO) principles, consider
2. CPI assigns higher weightage to food the following statements:
items than WPI, leading to divergence
when food prices fluctuate. Statement I: Charging customs duty on
3. Fuel prices have a lower weightage in an import is not a violation of WTO’s
WPI as compared to CPI. principle of National Treatment, even if
locally-produced products are not subject
Select the correct answer using the codes to an equivalent tax.
given below: Statement II: The principle of National
(a) 1 and 2 only Treatment applies only once a product,
(b) 2 and 3 only service, or item of intellectual property
(c) 1 and 3 only has entered the market.
(d) 1, 2, and 3 Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
Q55. Which of the following factors can affect (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
the foreign exchange rate of a country, correct, and Statement-II is the correct
assuming other factors remain constant? explanation for Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
1. Increase in income correct, but Statement-II is not the
2. Interest rate differentials correct explanation for Statement-I.
3. Imposing tax barriers on imports (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
II is incorrect.
Select the correct answer using the codes (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
given below: Statement-II is correct.
(a) 1 and 2 Only
(b) 3 Only Q58. Consider the following statements
(c) 1, 2 and 3 regarding External Commercial
(d) 2 and 3 Only Borrowings (ECBs):

Q56. With reference to the Indian economy, 1. ECBs are commercial loans/debt
consider the following statements: raised by resident’ entities from ‘non-
resident’ entities.
1. Disinflation refers to a general 2. ECBs can be used for repayment of
decrease in prices when the rate of existing rupee loans.
inflation falls below zero percent. Which of the statements given above
2. Deflation refers to a decrease in the is/are correct?
rate of positive inflation. (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above (c) Both 1 and 2
is/are correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q59. Which of the following best describes the Q61. India is a member of which of the
term ‘Vostro Account’? following institutions under the World
Bank Group?
(a) An account that a domestic bank 1. International Bank for Reconstruction
holds for a foreign bank in the and Development (IBRD)
domestic bank’s currency. 2. International Finance Corporation
(IFC)
(b) An account that a domestic bank 3. I n t e r n a t i o n a l D e v e l o p m e n t
holds for a foreign bank in the foreign Association (IDA)
bank’s currency. 4. Multilateral Investment Guarantee
Agency (MIGA)
(c) An account that a domestic bank 5. International Centre for Settlement of
holds with a foreign bank in the Investment Disputes (ICSID)
foreign bank’s currency. Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(d) An account that a domestic bank (a) 1, 2, and 3 only
holds with a foreign bank in the (b) 1, 2, 3, and 4 only
domestic bank’s currency. (c) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Q62. Consider the following statements

regarding Alternative Investment Funds
(AIFs) in India:
1. AIFs are privately pooled investment
Q60. Which of the following measures can vehicles regulated by SEBI.
help in controlling demand-pull inflation 2. AIFs are allowed to invest only in
in an economy? publicly listed companies in India.
3. Mutual Funds are a type of AIF.
1. Raising interest rates to reduce Which of the statements given above
borrowing is/are correct?
2. Increasing government expenditure (a) 1 only
to boost production (b) 3 only
3. Increasing taxes to reduce disposable (c) 1 and 2 only
income (d) 1, 2 and 3

Select the correct answer using the codes Q63. Which of the following correctly
given below: describes the impact of inflation in an
economy?
(a) 3 only (a) It encourages consumers to save more
due to rising prices.
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) It tends to benefit borrowers at the
expense of lenders.
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) It leads to higher unemployment in
the short run
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) It lowers the cost of exports in the
global market.

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Q64. Country X, a member of the World Trade Q66. Consider the following statements with
Organization (WTO), signs a Free Trade reference to Global Depository Receipts
Agreement (FTA) with Country Y, granting (GDR):
it preferential tariffs. Under the Most 1. GDRs enable foreign companies to
Favoured Nation (MFN) principle, which of raise capital by listing on overseas
the following is allowed? stock exchanges.
2. Indian companies are not allowed to
(a) Country X must apply the same issue Global Depository Receipts.
preferential tariffs to all other WTO 3. GDR holders have the same rights as
members. shareholders of the firm.
(b) Country X can maintain preferential How many of the statements given above
tariffs for Country Y under the FTA are correct?
while applying MFN tariffs to other (a) Only one
WTO members. (b) Only two
(c) Country X cannot sign FTAs outside (c) All three
the WTO framework. (d) None
(d) Country X must reduce tariffs on all
products for other WTO members.
Q67. The Model Concession Agreement
(MCA), often seen in the news, is primarily
used in the context of:
Q65. Consider the following statements (a) Double Tax avoidance agreements
regarding the components of Balance of between countries
Payment: (b) Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) in
infrastructure development
1. The financial account records an (c) Regulating foreign direct investment
economy’s transactions in external in India
financial assets and liabilities including (d) Free Trade agreements
gold and SDRs.

2. The current account covers all Q68. In the context of global trade and the
transactions that involve economic financial sector, consider the following
transactions necessarily of quid pro statements regarding the Financial Sector
quo. Assessment Program:
1. I t i s a j o i n t p r o g r a m o f t h e
3. The capital account includes all International Monetary Fund (IMF)
international capital transfers and the World Bank.
including the invisible. 2. It is mandator y for all the IMF
member s as par t of Ar ticle IV
Which of the statements given above consultations.
is/are correct? Which of the statements given above
(a) 1 only is/are correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 3 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q69. Consider the following: Q72. Consider the following statements
1. Increased liquidity in financial markets regarding the working principles of the
2. Easier access to capital World Trade Organization:
3. Decreased burden of foreign debt
How many of the above are the possible 1. If a developed country is giving special
impacts of the Rupee's full capital account access to its market to the developing
convertibility? countries, it does not violate the Most
(a) Only one Favoured Nation Principle.
(b) Only two 2. Charging customs duty on an import
(c) All three is not a violation of national treatment
(d) None even if locally-produced products are
not charged an equivalent tax.
Q70. Consider the following statements with
reference to Millets production in India: Which of the statements given above
1. Jowar is the largest grown millet crop is/are correct?
in India.
2. Rajasthan is the largest millet (a) 1 only
producing state in India (b) 2 only
3. Uttarakhand is the only state to have (c) Both 1 and 2
GI tagged millet. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
How many of the statements given above
are correct? Q73. Which of the following statements is not
(a) Only one correct about the One Person Company?
(b) Only two
(c) All three (a) It is a company that can be formed by
(d) None just one person as a shareholder.
(b) In India, this concept does not exist.
Q71. Consider the following statements: (c) It is like private company for all
Statement-I: As compared to developed practical purposes.
countries, logistics costs in India range (d) Income generated by the company is
from 25-30 % of India's GDP. not treated as the owner’s income and
Statement-II: Poor infrastructure and taxed as an individual’s income.
inefficient transportation systems lead to
delays and increased costs. Q74. Which of the following organizations has
Which one of the following is correct in the 'Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust'
reference to the above statements? (PRGT) as the main vehicle for
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are concessional financing to low-income
correct, and Statement-II is the correct countries?
explanation for Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (a) I n t e r n a t i o n a l D e v e l o p m e n t
correct, but Statement-II is not the Association
correct explanation for Statement-I. (b) U n i t e d N a t i o n s D e v e l o p m e n t
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement- Programme
II is incorrect. (c) International Finance Corporation
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t (d) International Monetary Fund
Statement-II is correct.

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Q75. Which of the following best describes the Q77. Consider the following statements
term "Sunrise Industry" that is often seen regarding the International Finance
in the news? Corporation (IFC) of the World Bank
Group:
(a) An industry that is newly established
and has the potential for rapid growth 1. It is an institution focused on the
and innovation. private sector in emerging markets.
(b) An industry that can be located in
many places without being affected by 2. It has recently invested in the first-ever
factors of production like land, labor, sustainability-linked bond in India.
resources, and capital.
(c) An industry that operates only in Which of the statements given above
tropical regions, focusing on is/are correct?
renewable energy.
(d) An industry that has reached maturity (a) 1 only
and shows slow but stable growth. (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q76. The reforms in International Monetary Q78. With reference to the National List of
Fund (IMF) Quota have been in the news Essential Medicines (NLEM), consider the
recently. following statements:
With reference to this, consider the
following statements: 1. The NLEM was launched for the first
time in 1996 in India, along the lines of
1. An individual member country’s quota the World Health Organisation’s
broadly reflects its relative position in (WHO) Essential List of Medicines
the world economy. (ELM).
2. Quota determines the maximum
amount of loans a member can obtain 2. The National Health Authority fixes
from IMF under normal access. the ceiling price of all scheduled
3. The International Monetar y and formulations appearing in the NLEM.
Financial Committee (IMFC) has the
power to decide each member Which of the statements given above
country's quota. is/are correct?

How many statements given above are (a) 1 only

correct? (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Only one (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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Q79. Consider the following statements with How many of the above given statements
reference to National Commodity & are correct?
Derivatives Exchange Limited (NCDEX): (a) Only one
1. NCDEX is India’s largest agricultural (b) Only two
derivatives exchange. (c) All three
2. It is India’s first exchange to launch (d) None
options contracts in commodities.
3. It is recognised under The Forward
Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1952 and Q82. With reference to startups in India,
regulated by Reserve Bank of India. consider the following statements:

How many of the statements given above 1. Entities are considered startups only if
are correct? they have been in existence for 10
(a) Only one years or less since their incorporation.
(b) Only two 2. Public Sector Companies cannot be
(c) All three incorporated as startups.
(d) None 3. The Startup India initiative provides
tax exemptions to startups for their
Q80. With reference to anti-dumping duties, first 10 years of operation.
consider the following statements:
1. An anti-dumping duty is a type of Which of the statements given above
protectionist tariff that a domestic is/are correct?
government imposes on foreign (a) 1 and 2 only
imports. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. In India, the Directorate General of (c) 1 and 3 only
Trade Remedies (DGTR) is the final (d) 1, 2, and 3
authority in imposing Anti Dumping
duties.
Q83. Consider the following statements about
Which of the statements given above the International Development
is/are correct? Association (IDA) :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 1. India is a founding member of IDA.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Gross National Income (GNI) per
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 capital must be below an established
threshold for a country to be eligible
Q81. Consider the following statements for borrowing under IDA.
regarding India's external trade: 3. India never availed assistance under
1. India contributes to 10% of the global the IDA.
services exports.
2. Consumer goods exports have the How many of the statements given above
highest share in India's merchandise are correct?
exports in the last financial year. (a) Only one
3. India's overall trade balance has (b) Only two
consistently increased in the last five (c) All three
years. (d) None

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Q84. Consider the following statements Q87. Consider the following types of financial
regarding the Reserve Bank of India’s institutions:
recent policy permitting the opening of 1. Scheduled Commercial Banks
rupee accounts outside India by Persons 2. Regional Rural Banks
Resident Outside India (PROIs): 3. Payment Banks
4. Non-Banking Financial Institutions
1. Indian banks can lend in INR to How many of the above have to maintain
persons resident outside India Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) as per the RBI
(PROIs). guidelines?
2. Special Non-Resident Rupee (SNRR) (a) Only one
accounts can be used for foreign (b) Only two
direct investment (FDI). (c) Only three
3. The policy limits the opening of rupee (d) All four
accounts to trade-related activities
only. Q88. Consider the following statements:
1. Dovish monetary policy by the US
Which of the statements given above Federal Reserve
is/are correct? 2. Capital flight from India
(a) 1 only 3. Higher inflation in the global market
(b) 2 and 3 only relative to the Indian market
(c) 1 and 2 only Which of the above factors will normally
(d) 1, 2 and 3 result in the depreciation of India
currency?
Q85. Consider the following components: (a) 1 and 3 only
1. Transfers from Government (b) 2 only
2. Retained Earnings of Companies (c) 1 and 2 only
3. Personal Taxes (d) 2 and 3 only

How many of the above are subtracted Q89. Consider the following statements
from National Income to get the Personal regarding the Cost Inflation Index (CII):
Disposable Income (PDI)? 1. The National Statistical Office is
(a) Only one responsible for notifying the Cost
(b) Only two Inflation Index.
(c) All three 2. The CII helps in determining the tax
(d) None liability on the sale of long-term
capital assets.
Q86. The ‘Extended Fund Facility’ and ‘Stand- 3. The CII is updated on a monthly basis
By Arrangements’ are lending to reflect the latest inflation rates.
instruments associated with which of the How many of the statements given above
following organisation? are correct?
(a) Only one
(a) World Bank (b) Only two
(b) International Monetary Fund (IMF) (c) All three
(c) Asian Development Bank (ADB) (d) None
(d) World Trade Organisation (WTO)

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Q90. Consider the following statements Q92. With reference to the difference between
regarding CPI (Consumer Price Index): Geographical indications (GIs) and
trademarks, consider the following
1. CPI (Rural, Urban, and Combined) is statements:
published at both all-India and state-
wise levels. 1. GIs identify a good as originating from
a particular place whereas a trademark
2. The number of items considered is identifies a good or ser vice as
higher in the urban basket than in the originating from a particular company.
rural basket.
2. While a trademark can be licensed to
3. The base year for CPI has been anyone, anywhere in the world, a GI
changed from 2010 to 2012. cannot be licensed to someone
outside that place.
Which of the statements given above are
correct? Which of the statements given above
is/are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q91. Consider the following statements with

respect to the Bureau of Indian Standards
(BIS):

1. It is identified as the ‘National

Standards Body of India’.

2. It functions under the administrative Q93. Which one of the following statements is
control of the Ministry of Commerce best explains the term “Blue-Chip
and Industry. Companies”, often seen in the news?

3. The BIS operates the Hallmarking (a) They are valuable and financially
Scheme for gold and silver jewellry in sound companies.
India. (b) These are the companies having
business in automobile sector
How many of the above statements are (c) These are the companies having
correct? business in ports and shipping of
cargo across continents.
(a) Only one (d) They are the companies involved in
(b) Only two manufacturing of hardware for
(c) All three computers.
(d) None

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Q94. In the context of economics, what are Q96. Consider the following statements:
Veblen goods?
Statement-I: Stagflation is an economic
(a) These are goods which are supplied by phenomenon which supports the
the government free of cost. prediction of the Phillips Curve.

(b) These are the goods for which Statement-II: During stagflation, the
demand increases as the price unemployment rate and inflation are both
increases. high.

(c) These are the inferior goods whose Which one of the following is correct in
demand remains constant irrespective respect of the above statements?
of change in prices
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(d) These are goods which are sold at correct, and Statement-II is the correct
prices much below the prices of the explanation for Statement-I.
raw materials used. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, but Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
Q95. With reference to agriculture, consider II is incorrect.
the following statements: (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
Statement-II is correct.
1. In India the majority of pulses are
grown in the Kharif season.

2. Cotton is currently the only transgenic

crop approved for commercial Q97. Which one of the following statements
cultivation in India. best explains the meaning of Short Selling
in the security market?
3. Wheat and rice together account for
around three fourth of the total food (a) It refers to placing the selling bid at a
production in India. slightly higher than the market price.
(b) It is an investment that speculates on
How many statements given above are the decline in a stock or other
correct: security’s price.
(c) It is selling the shares at lower than
(a) Only one market price to buy cheap shares of
another entity.
(b) Only two (d) It involves a legal agreement to sell
shares at a predetermined price at a
(c) All three specified time in the future.

(d) None

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Q98. Which of the following measures will Q100. Consider the following statements :
have a direct bearing on the exchange
rate of a currency? 1. Headline inflation is the measure of
total inflation in an economy.
1. Prevailing interest rates in the 2. In India, the Wholesale Price Index is
domestic economy used as a primary tool for measuring
2. Speculation in the foreign currency the headline inflation.
market 3. In India, during the FY 2023, headline
3. Setting up of more branches of inflation was primarily influenced by
existing banks in rural areas higher food inflation.
4. FDI inflow
Which of the statements given above are
Select the correct answer using the code correct ?
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 only

Q99. With respect to the 15th Finance

Commission recommendations, consider
the following statements :

1. It is recommended that the centre and

states bring down the fiscal deficit to
4% of GDP by 2025-26.
2. It recommends adopting a new cost-
sharing pattern for disaster
management funds between the
centre and the states.
3. The total grant allocated for rural local
bodies is more than that of urban local
bodies.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
ECONOMY
FLT - III

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO,
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2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fi ll in the Roll Number carefully without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will
render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in
some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certifi cate.
8. After you have completed fi lling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
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THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers
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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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Q1. Consider the following statements: Q4. According to the annual Periodic Labour
1. The unemployment rate is the Force Sur vey, the all-India annual
percentage of people in the working- unemployment rate has been witnessing
age population who are unemployed. a declining trend accompanied by,
2. The labour force participation rate is
the percentage of people employed in (a) I n c r e a s e i n t h e l a b o u r f o r c e
the labour force. participation rate but a decrease in
Which of the statements given above worker to population ratio
is/are correct ? (b) Increase in the worker population ratio
(a) 1 only but decrease in labour force
(b) 2 only participation rate
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Decrease in both labour force
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 p a r t i c i p a t i o n r a t e a n d w o r ke r
population ratio
(d) I n c re a s e i n b o t h l a b o u r f o rc e
Q 2 . A c c o r d i n g t o U N D P ’s H u m a n p a r t i c i p a t i o n r a t e a n d w o r ke r
Development Report – 2024, in which of population ratio
the HDI components did India see an
improvement in the year 2022 ?
1. Life expectancy at birth.
2. Expected years of schooling.
3. GNI per capita.
4. Mean years of schooling. Q5. Regarding Corporate Social Responsibility
Select the correct answer using the code CSR) in India, consider the following
given below : statements :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only 1. Corporate Social Responsibility in
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only India is governed by Section 135 of the
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Companies Act, 2013.

2. The annual CSR spending in India has

Q3. With respect to the “Quinary Sector”, increased in the last five years.
consider the following statements :
1. It includes policy-making and high- 3. In FY22, Maharashtra tops in CSR
level decision-making roles. spending in India, followed by
2. It primarily involves hands-on, manual Karnataka.
services in gold mines.
3. “Gold collar” professionals are often How many of the statements given above
associated with the quinary sector. is/are correct ?
How many of the above statements is/are
orrect ? (a) Only one
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(b) Only two (c) All three
(c) All three (d) None
(d) None

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Q6. Consider the following statements in Which of the statements given above
Indian context: is/are correct?
Statement-I: Inverted Duty Structure has (a) 1 only
a negative impact on the domestic (b) 2 only
manufacturing industry. (c) Both 1 and 2
Statement-II: Inverted duty structure is a (d) Neither 1 nor 2
situation where taxes on final products are
higher compared to the input items.
Q9. In which of the following Public- Private
Which one of the following is correct in Pa r t n e r s h i p ( P P P ) m o d e l s d o t h e
respect of the above statements? government and the private entity share
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are the initial project cost?
correct, and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I. 1. Build-Operate-Transfer (BOT) Model
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM)
correct, but Statement-II is not the 3. Build-Own-Operate (BOO) Model
correct explanation for Statement-I. 4. Engineering, Procurement, and
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement- Construction (EPC) Model
II is incorrect.
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t Select the correct answer using the code
Statement-II is correct. given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
Q7. Which of the following factors are likely to (b) 2 only
increase the money multiplier in the (c) 1 and 2 only
Indian economy? (d) 2 and 4 only
1. Decrease in the Cash Reserve Ratio
(CRR)
2. Higher banking penetration in rural Q10. If tax buoyancy of a country has
areas significantly increased over a period of
3. Decrease in Non-Performing Assets time, which of the following conclusions
(NPAs) of banks is/are necessarily correct?

Select the correct answer using the code 1. Number of taxpayers in the country
given below: have increased over the same period.
(a) 3 only 2. Tax revenues have grown at a rate
(b) 1 and 2 only faster than the nominal GDP growth
(c) 1 and 3 only rate.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the codes
Q8. Consider the following statements: given below:
1. Currency depreciation may widen the (a) 1 only
trade deficit in a country that is a net (b) 2 only
importer. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Tight monetary policy is likely to result (d) Neither 1 nor 2
in currency depreciation in India.

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Q11. What is the Central Issue Price (CIP) in the Select the correct answer using the code
context of India's Public Distribution given below
System (PDS)?
(a) The price at which the government (a) 1, 2, and 4 only
issues food grains from the buffer
stock in the open market. (b) 2, and 3 only
(b) Price at which the Government of India
supplies food grains to States for (c) 3 and 4 only
distribution under PDS.
(c) Price at which Fair Price Shops sell (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
food grains to consumers.
(d) Price issued by the government to
farmers for the procurement of
surplus food grains.

Q14. Consider the following statements with

Q12. Which one of the following best respect to Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
describes the concept of "Carbon and Gross Value Added (GVA) of Indian
Farming"? economy:
(a) The practice of growing crops that
require minimal water and soil Statement-I: If net indirect taxes increase
nutrients. during a particular financial year, the GDP
(b) A farming technique that focuses on growth rate is likely to be higher than the
maximizing crop yield without GVA growth rate.
considering environmental impact.
(c) An Agricultural practice that increases Statement-II: In India, GVA is calculated
the storage of carbon in soils while at the basic prices while GDP is calculated
reducing greenhouse gas emissions. at the market prices.
(d) A method of farming that primarily
focuses on livestock management and Which one of the following is correct in
reducing methane emissions. respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

Q13. Which of the following functions are correct, and Statement-II is the correct
performed by National Bank for explanation for Statement-I.
Agriculture and Rural Development
(NABARD) in the context of rural (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
development in Indian economy? correct, but Statement-II is not the
1. Providing refinance to rural lending correct explanation for Statement-I.
institutions.
2. Regulating Cooperative Banks and (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
Regional Rural Banks (RRBs). II is incorrect.
3. Offering direct loans to rural farmers.
4. Acting as a coordinator for rural credit (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
institutions. Statement-II is correct.

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Q15. If Headline Consumer Price Index (CPI) Which of the statements given above are
inflation remains stagnant in an economy correct?
despite a fall in the Core CPI inflation, (a) 1 and 3 only
which of the following is the most likely (b) 2 and 3 only
implication? (c) 1 and 2 only
(a) Government subsidies and price (d) 1, 2, and 3
c o n t ro l s a re m a s k i n g t h e t r u e
underlying inflationary pressures.
(b) Rising prices of food and energy are Q18. Consider the following statements with
offsetting the decrease in core regard to the Purchasing Power Parity
inflation. (PPP) exchange rate:
(c) Structural shifts in the economy are Statement-I: PPP exchange rate helps in
leading to a divergence between core comparing the standards of living
and headline inflation. between two countries.
(d) Central bank's monetar y policy Statement-II: PPP takes into account the
actions are not being effective in relative prices of goods and services in
controlling inflation. different countries.
Which one of the following is correct in
Q16. Which of the following is/are not likely respect of the above statements?
benefits of the internationalisation of the (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Indian Rupee? correct, and Statement-II is the correct
1. Reduction in the need for holding explanation for Statement-I.
foreign exchange reserves. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
2. Elimination of vulnerability to external correct, but Statement-II is not the
shocks. correct explanation for Statement-I.
3. Reduction in the volatility of the (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
rupee’s exchange rate. II is incorrect.
Select the correct answer using the code (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
given below: Statement-II is correct.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only Q19. Consider the following statements with
(d) None reference to the Exchange Trade Fund
(ETF):
Q17. With reference to the Advance Pricing 1. The price of an ETF reflects the Net
Agreement (APA) in India, consider the Asset Value (NAV) of its underlying
following statements: stocks.
1. The primary objective of the Indian 2. It does not have a minimum amount
A PA P r o g r a m m e i s r e v e n u e requirement for investment.
mobilization. 3. It is available only for stocks.
2. It is an agreement between the tax How many of the statements given above
a u t h o r i t y a n d t h e t a x pa ye r to are correct?
determine the Arm’s Length Price for (a) Only one
specified transactions. (b) Only two
3. A bilateral APA provides protection (c) All three
against double taxation. (d) None

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Q20. Consider the following statements with (a) Only one
reference to the Nominal Effective (b) Only two
Exchange Rate (NEER) and Real Effective (c) All three
Exchange Rate (REER): (d) None
1. Higher domestic inflation will reflect in
the appreciation of NEER. Q23. Which of the following is not a feature of
2. An increasing REER indicates that a a Perfectly Competitive Market?
country is gaining competitiveness.
Which of the statements given above (a) The market consists of a large number
is/are correct? of buyers and sellers.
(a) 1 only (b) E a c h fi r m p r o d u c e s a n d s e l l s
(b) 2 only heterogeneous products.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Entry into the market as well as exit
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 from the market are free for firms.
(d) Information is perfect.

Q21. Consider the following statements Q24. Which of the following is least likely to
regarding the “Peace Clause” of World hinder the effectiveness of monetary
Trade Organization (WTO): policy transmission in India?
1. It provides immunity to developing
countries for subsidies given under (a) High levels of non-performing assets
public stockholding programmes. in the banking sector.
2. The immunity is not applicable if the (b) Presence of well-developed money
country exceeds the de minimis limits. market.
3. India’s Minimum Support Price (MSP) (c) Large unorganized economic sector
policy is not covered under the Peace relying on informal financial channels.
Clause. (d) Prominent presence of public sector
How many of the statements given above banks in the financial system.
are correct?
(a) Only one Q25. In the context of the sugar industry,
(b) Only two which of the following are regulated by
(c) All three the Government of India?
(d) None
1. Minimum price that sugar mills have
to pay to farmers for sugarcane.
Q22. A country with a narrowing Current
Account Deficit is likely to experience 2. Minimum price at which sugar mills
which of the following? can sell sugar to the market
1. A decline in foreign exchange
reserves. Select the correct answer using the codes
2. Potential appreciation of its domestic given below:
currency.
3. Increased dependence on short-term (a) 1 only
capital inflows. (b) 2 only
How many of the statements given above (c) Both 1 and 2
are correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q26. Consider the following statements about Q28. Which of the following is a key difference
the Financial Services Institutions Bureau between the Periodic Labour Force Survey
(FSIB): (PLFS) and the previous quinquennial (5-
year) surveys on employment conducted
1. It makes recommendations for by the National Sample Survey Office
appointment of Directors of Public (NSSO)?
Sector Banks and Public Sector
Insurers. (a) The PLFS focuses exclusively on urban
unemployment.
2. It also monitors and assesses the (b) The PLFS uses a larger sample size
performance of Private Sector Banks. than the quinquennial surveys.
(c) The PLFS collects data more frequently
Which of the above statements is/are throughout the year.
correct? (d) The PLFS does not measure the
Worker Population Ratio (WPR).
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q27. Consider the following statements Q29. With respect to Indian economy, consider
regarding Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs) the following statements:
in India:
1. Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
1. Inflation reduces the purchasing (PACS) are not regulated by the
power of these bonds. Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

2. T h e g o v e r n m e n t p r o v i d e s t a x 2. The administration of Multi-State

concessions to encourage investment Urban Cooperative Banks is overseen
in these bonds. by the respective State Governments.

3. The interest payments on these bonds 3. Urban Cooperative Banks are currently
are indexed to inflation, while the required to allocate 75% of their total
principal amount remains fixed. loans to Priority Sector Lending (PSL).

How many of the statements given above How many of the statements given above
are correct? are correct?

(a) Only one (a) Only one

(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) All three
(d) None (d) None

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Q30. With reference to Cash Reserve Ratio How many of the above mentioned items
CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio(SLR), do not attract Goods and Services Tax
consider the following statements: (GST) Compensation Cess?
(a) Only one
1. CRR is calculated on the basis of Gross (b) Only two
Demand and Time Liabilities while SLR (c) All three
is calculated on basis of Net Demand (d) None
and Time liabilities.
2. There is no interest earned on CRR Q33. The primary purpose of International
while there is interest earned on SLR. Monetary Fund (IMF) Quotas is to:
3. CRR is maintained with RBI while SLR is 1. Determine member countries’ voting
held by banks themselves. power.
2. Set eligibility criteria for IMF lending.
Which of the statement given above are 3. Promote exchange rate stability.
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only How many of the statements given above
(b) 2 and 3 only are correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) Only one
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only two
(c) All three
Q31. Consider the following statements (d) None
regarding external debt of Government of
India: Q34. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding Cash Management Bills
1. Government of India’s external debt is (CMBs)?
more than its internal debt. 1. CMBs are capital market instruments
2. Short-term external debt has recently issued by the central government to
exceeded long-term external debt. meet its immediate cash flow
3. The Indian Rupee has become the requirements.
predominant currency in the 2. They have a maturity period of less
denomination of India’s external debt than 91 days.
for the first time. 3. Unlike Treasury Bills, CMBs are issued
at face value and pay fixed interest
How many of the statements given above upon maturity.
are correct? 4. Due to their short tenure, CMBs are
(a) Only one not eligible for investment by banks
(b) Only two towards maintaining the Statutory
(c) All three Liquidity Ratio (SLR).
(d) None
Select the correct answer using the code
Q32. Consider the following items: given below:
1. Exported goods. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. Imported goods. (b) 2 only
3. Supplies made by a taxable person (c) 1 and 3 only
under the composition levy. (d) 2 and 4 only

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Q35. Which of the following statements is/are How many of the pairs given above are
correct with reference to Peer-to-Peer correct?
(P2P) lending platforms? (a) Only one
1. P2P lending bypasses traditional (b) Only two
financial institutions to facilitate the (c) Only three
borrowing and lending of loans. (d) All four
2. Since these platforms are primarily
operated by technology companies,
they are not regulated by the Reserve Q37. With reference to Foreign Institutional
Bank of India (RBI). Investment (FII) and Foreign Direct
3. All P2P lending platforms are classified Investment (FDI) in India, consider the
as Non-Banking Financial Companies following
(NBFCs) in India.
Select the correct answer using the code 1. FIIs can invest in the equity market but
given below: not in the debt market.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. A foreign company forming a joint
(b) 2 only venture with an Indian company will
(c) 1 and 3 only be considered FDI.
(d) 2 and 3 only 3. Global Depositor y Receipts are
included in FDI.
Q36. With reference to economic transactions
of Indian economy with rest of the world, How many of the statements given above
consider the following pairs: are correct?
(a) Only one
Transaction Impact on (b) Only two
Balance of (c) All three
Payment (d) None

1. A foreign Credit into

tourist stays Current Account Q38. Which of the following statements is/are
at a hotel in India correct with reference to National Asset
Reconstruction Company Limited?
2. An Indian investor Debit from
purchases shares Capital Account 1. It is a government backed bad bank
in a foreign incorporated under the Companies
company Act, 2013.
2. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has
3. Indian importer Debit from majority ownership in NARCL.
buys machinery Current Account
from Germany Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
4. Indian company Credit into (a) 1 only
borrowing money Capital Account (b) 2 only
from a foreign (c) Both 1 and 2
bank (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q39. Consider the following statements: Q41. Which of the following statements
correctly differentiates between capital
Statement-I: Sterilization action of RBI market and money market?
limits the impact of foreign exchange
inflows and outflows on the domestic 1. The capital market facilitates the
money supply. trading of both debt and equity
Statement-II: Buying or selling of foreign instruments, while the money market
currencies by RBI affects the domestic deals only in debt instruments.
money supply. 2. Instruments traded in the money
market generally carry higher risk and
Which one of the following is correct in higher returns compared to those in
respect of the above statements? the capital market.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 3. In India, capital markets are primarily
correct, and Statement-II is the correct regulated by the Securities and
explanation for Statement-I. Exchange Board of India (SEBI), while
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are the money market is regulated by the
correct, but Statement-II is not the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement- Select the correct answer using the codes
II is incorrect. given below:
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t (a) 2 only
Statement-II is correct. (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q40. Which of the following functions fall Q42. In the context of Finance, the terms
under the Reser ve Bank of India’s MIFOR, MMIFOR, and SOFR, often seen in
statutory obligation as the "Banker to the news, are related to:
Government"?
(a) Cryptocurrencies and digital assets
1. Maintenance of principal accounts for (b) Commodity futures contracts
both the Central and State (c) Foreign currency exchange rates
Governments. (d) Interest rate benchmarks
2. Pe r f o r m i n g m e r c h a n t b a n k i n g
functions for the Central and State Q43. What is the likely impact on the demand
Governments. curve for a good if the price of its
3. Management of Public debt of Central substitute increases?
Government.
(a) The demand curve will shift to the left.
Select the correct answer using the code (b) The demand curve will shift to the
given below: right.
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) The demand cur ve will remain
(b) 2 and 3 only unchanged.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) The demand cur ve will become
(d) 1, 2, and 3 steeper.

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Q44. Which of the following statements is/are Q46. What is the primary objective of the First
correct regarding the Goods and Services Loss Default Guarantee (FLDG) framework
Tax (GST) Council? recently approved by the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI)?
1. Weightage of the votes of all the State
Governments taken together is more (a) To enhance the capital adequacy ratio
than the weightage of the vote of the of banks and Non-Banking Financial
Central Government. Companies (NBFCs).
(b) To facilitate partnerships between
2. The GST Council's decisions require a fintech companies and traditional
three-fourths majority of the weighted lenders for digital lending.
votes of members present and voting. (c) To encourage credit flow to priority
s e c t o r s t h r o u g h r i s k- s h a r i n g
Select the correct answer using the codes mechanisms.
given below: (d) To provide insurance coverage for
depositors in digital banks.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q47. Consider the following statements

regarding the monetary aggregates
published by the Reserve Bank of India
Q45. With reference to the Minimum Support (RBI):
Price (MSP) for Minor Forest Produce
(MFP), consider the following statements: Statement-I: M1 is more liquid than M2.

1. MSP for MFP is declared by the Statement-II: Unlike M1, M2 includes

inistry of Tribal Affairs. time deposits held by commercial banks.

2. National Agricultural Cooperative Which one of the following is correct in

Marketing Federation of India Ltd. respect of the above statements ?
(NAFED) is the nodal agency for the
implementation of the MSP for MFP (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
scheme. correct, and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
Which of the statements given above (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
is/are correct? correct, but Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I.
(a) 1 only (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
(b) 2 only II is incorrect.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Statement-II is correct.

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Q48. Which of the following best describes the Q51. Which of the following best describes the
concept of 'Robot Tax,' recently seen in the practice of "short-selling" in financial
news? markets?
(a) A tax levied on the import of advanced (a) Using borrowed funds to buy a stock
robotics technology into a country to with the aim of selling it quickly for
protect domestic industries. short-term gains.
(b) A tax levied on companies using (b) Selling stocks perceived to be
robots or automation to replace undervalued with the intention to buy
human workers. them back after market correction.
(c) A t a x i m p o s e d o n r o b o t i c s (c) Buying stock of a company in small
manufacturers to encourage ethical quantities over time to gradually
production and use of artificial increase one's ownership stake.
intelligence. (d) Selling a stock which one does not
(d) A tax levied on goods and services own at the time of trade.
produced with the help of robotics
and automation. Q52. Consider the following statements
regarding the Index of Industrial
Q49. Product X and Product Y are sold in the Production (IIP):
same market. When consumers' incomes 1. It is compiled and published every
increase, the demand for Product X rises month by the National Statistical
significantly, while the demand for Office (NSO).
Product Y decreases. Which of the 2. Manufacturing sector constitutes
following can best explain the nature of more than 50% weightage in the IIP.
these products? Which of the statements given above
(a) Product X is a Giffen good, and is/are correct?
Product Y is a Veblen good. (a) 1 only
(b) Product X is an inferior good, and (b) 2 only
Product Y is a necessity. (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Product X is a luxury good, and (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Product Y is an inferior good.
(d) Both Product X and Product Y are Q53. Which of the following forms a part of the
inferior goods. Revenue Expenditure of the Government
of India?
Q50. Which of the statements given below 1. Grants given to state government
is/are correct regarding the Real Estate 2. Subsidies for food and fertilizers
Investment Trusts (REITs) in India? 3. Building roads or railways
1. It is mandatory for the REITs to be 4. Salaries and wages for employees
listed on the stock exchange. 5. Interest payment on debt incurred by
2. Interest income from REIT units is the government
exempted from the Income Tax. Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
given below: (a) 1 and 5 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q54. Which of the following scenarios best Q57. The Government of India announces
illustrates the principle of 'Loss aversion' Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for all
from behavioral economics? mandated crops with a return of at least
(a) A shopper chooses a higher-priced 50% over the cost of production. Which of
product due to its brand reputation. the following components are included
(b) A c o n s u m e r s a v e s m o n e y b y under the cost of production for this
purchasing goods in bulk. purpose?
(c) An individual avoids selling a stock at a
loss, despite financial advice to 1. Cost incurred by the farmer on seeds
diversify. and fertilisers.
(d) A family decides to invest in energy 2. Cost incurred by the farmer on hired
efficient appliances to save on future labour.
utility bills. 3. Imputed value of unpaid family labour.
4. Interest forgone on owned land.
Q55. Often seen in the news, the term 'Price
Discrimination' is best related to: Select the correct answer using the code
(a) Increase in price of a commodity over given below:
time.
(b) A situation where the same product is (a) 1 only
sold to different consumers for (b) 1 and 2 only
different prices. (c) 1, 2, and 3 only
(c) Subsidization of a product by the (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Government to sell it at a lower price.
(d) General decrease in price of a
commodity over time

Q56. With reference to the definition of Q58. How many of the following are examples
“Startup” under Startup India initiative, of complementary goods?
consider the following statements:
1. Period of company’s existence and 1. Tea and sugar
operations should not be more than 5 2. Pen and ink
years from the Date of Incorporation. 3. Pepsi and coca cola
2. Its annual turnover should not exceed 4. Physical books and kindle
Rs. 100 crore for any of the financial
years since its Incorporation. Select the correct answer using the code
3. It should not have been formed by given below.
splitting up or reconstructing an
already existing business. (a) Only one
How many of the above are the criteria to (b) Only two
be recognised as a startup by the (c) Only three
Department for Promotion of Industry (d) All four
and Internal Trade (DPIIT)?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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Q59. If in an economy the repo rate is Q61. With reference to the Digital Rupee (e )
increased by the Central Bank and the and Unified Payments Interface (UPI),
Wholesale Price Index (WPI) inflation has consider the following statements:
showing a declining trend, then which of
the following is the most likely economic 1. eRs is a token representing legal
implication? tender, whereas UPI is not a legal
tender.
(a) Cost of borrowing will increase,
potentially slowing down investment. 2. Both UPI and e are liabilities of the
Reserve Bank of India.
(b) Consumer Price Index (CPI) will also
decrease in the near future 3. Payment using the UPI requires
intermediation of a bank, whereas
© Government's tax revenues will payment using eRs does not.
significantly increase due to higher
prices. How many of the above statement are
correct?
(d) India's exports will become more
competitive in the global market. (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
Q60. Consider the following statements about (d) None
off-budget borrowings in India:

1. Off-budget borrowings are loans that Q62. Consider the following factors:
are not directly reflected in the
government's budget documents. 1. Increase in government spending on
2. These borrowings are used by the infrastructure projects
government to finance its
expenditures without affecting the 2. Reduction in interest rates by the
fiscal deficit directly. Reserve Bank of India
3. Off-budget borrowings do not have
any impact on the country's debt 3. Depreciation of the Rupee
levels.
4. Introduction of a Universal Basic
How many of the above statement are Income scheme
correct?
How many of the above will have a direct
(a) Only one impact on increasing demand-pull
inflation in the Indian economy?
(b) Only two
(a) Only one
(c) All three (b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None (d) All four

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Q63. With reference to an economy, consider Q65. Which of the following items will be
the following pairs: included in the Gross Domestic Product
(GDP) but not in the Gross National
Product (GNP) of India?
Economic Curve Depicts Relation
Between 1. Profits earned by a foreign company
operating in India.
1. Lorenz Curve Percentage of 2. Salaries paid to Indian workers
income and employed by Indian companies within
percentage of India.
people 3. Remittances sent by Indian citizens
working abroad.
2. Kuznets Curve Per Capita Income 4. Interest earned by Indian residents on
and Income investments made in foreign
Inequality countries.

3. Engel’s Curve Inflation and Select the correct answer using the code
Consumption given below:
Expenditure (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
How many of the above pairs are correctly (d) 1, 3, and 4 only
matched?
Q66. With reference to the World Trade
(a) Only one Organization's (WTO) Agreement on
(b) Only two Agriculture, consider the following
(c) All three statements regarding the de minimis
(d) None provision:

1. It is the minimal amount of domestic

support that are allowed even though
they distort trade.
Q64. A country's GDP per capita and Gini 2. De minimis support is expressed as a
coefficient are both increasing. Which of percentage of the total value of
the following can be inferred with agricultural production in a given year.
certainty for the country? 3. Developing countries have a higher de
minimis threshold compared to
(a) An increase in absolute poverty and a developed countries.
decrease in relative poverty.
(b) An increase in both absolute and Which of the statements given above
relative poverty. is/are correct?
(c) A decrease in both absolute and (a) 1 only
relative poverty. (b) 1 and 2 only
(d) None of the above. (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q67. Consider the following statements Q70. Consider the following statements with
regarding the Fiscal deficit: respect to minimum wages in India:
1. It represents the total borrowing 1. Code on Wages, 2019, provides for
requirements of the government. minimum wage in both organized and
2. It can be caused by an increase in unorganized sectors.
revenue expenditure or a decrease in 2. The minimum wage rates in India vary
tax revenues. based on skill levels and geographical
Which of the statements given above region.
is/are correct? Which of the statements given above
(a) 1 only is/are correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q68. Which of the following is a financial Q71. In the context of the Indian financial
instrument used by corporate borrowers system, which of the following statements
to raise short-term funds and is issued at a accurately describes the role and function
discount to its face value? of an Account Aggregator?
(a) Debentures (a) It is a platform developed by the RBI to
(b) Commercial Paper oversee and manage financial
(c) Certificate of Deposit transactions between individuals and
(d) Commercial Bills banks.
(b) It is a financial institution that offers
investment advisor y ser vices by
Q69. Consider the following statements: consolidating market data and
Statement I: Appreciation of a currency providing personalized
may adversely impact a country’s balance recommendations.
of trade. (c) It is a type of Non-Banking Financial
Statement II: Appreciation makes Company that facilitates the secure
exports more expensive and imports sharing of an individual's financial data
cheaper. between financial institutions.
Which of the following is correct in respect (d) It is a licensed entity that provides
of the above statements? credit rating ser vices based on
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are consolidated financial data.
correct, and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I. Q72. In the context of the Reserve Bank of
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are India’s Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF),
correct, but Statement-II is not the which of the following instruments serve
correct explanation for Statement-I. as the upper ceiling and lower floor of the
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement- LAF corridor?
II is incorrect. (a) Bank Rate and Cash Reserve Ratio
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t (b) Marginal Standing Facility Rate and
Statement-II is correct. Standing Deposit Facility Rate
(c) Repo Rate and Reverse Repo Rate
(d) Bank Rate and Reverse Repo Rate

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Q73. Consider the following activities: Q75. Which of the following constitutes an
example of a transfer payment?
1. Increase in stock market investments
by individuals. 1. Government pensions paid to retired
individuals.
2. P u r c h a s e o f l u x u r y g o o d s b y 2. S a l a r i e s p a i d t o g o v e r n m e n t
households. employees.
3. Unemployment benefits provided by
3. Construction of public infrastructure the government.
such as highways and ports. 4. Interest payments made by the
government on public debt.
4. Expenditure on education and
healthcare by households. Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
How many of the above will contribute to (a) 1 and 3 only
Gross Capital Formation in the economy? (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(a) Only one (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

(b) Only two

Q76. Calculation of GVA at basic prices in India
(c) Only three includes production taxes but excludes
product taxes. Which of the following
(d) All four taxes will not be included in GVA at basic
prices?

(a) Land revenues

Q74. Which of the following best describes the (b) Stamps and registration fees
term "Capital Conservation Buffer," (c) Excise duty on manufactured goods
sometimes seen in the news? (d) Tax on profession

(a) A reserve of capital maintained by

banks to absorb losses during Q77. A country introduces a policy where
financial and economic stress. foreign-produced goods are subject to
the same domestic regulations and taxes
(b) A fund created by the government to as locally-produced goods once they
provide financial assistance to enter the market.
struggling banks. Which WTO principle is being upheld in
this scenario?
(c) A buffer of liquid assets held by banks
to meet sudden withdrawal demands. (a) M o s t - F a v o r e d N a t i o n ( M F N )
Treatment
(d) A requirement for banks to hold (b) National Treatment
additional capital to meet short-term (c) Trade Facilitation
market fluctuations. (d) Non-Discrimination

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Q78. A country experiences a decline in its Q80. With reference to the Financial Inclusion
Incremental Capital Output Ratio (ICOR) Index, consider the following statements :
over a period of time. Which of the 1. The Index ranges between 0 and 100,
following is the most likely implication of where 0 signifies complete financial
this change? exclusion, and 100 indicates full
financial inclusion.
(a) The country’s economy is becoming 2. The Index comprises three broad
more efficient in utilizing capital to parameters namely Access, Usage and
generate output. Quality.
(b) The country is investing less in capital- 3. ‘Antardrishti’ is the financial inclusion
intensive industries, leading to slower dashboard launched by the Reserve
economic growth. Bank of India.
(c) T h e c o u n t r y ’ s w o r k f o r c e i s How many of the statements given above
experiencing a decline in productivity, is/are correct ?
reducing capital efficiency. (a) Only one
(d) The country is focusing more on (b) Only two
consumption rather than investment, (c) All three
lowering the potential for output (d) None
growth.
Q81. The Organization of Petroleum Exporting
Countries (OPEC) is an example of which
one of the following types of Markets?
(a) Monopoly
(b) Oligopoly
(c) Perfect Competition
Q79. Consider the following statements : (d) None of the above

1. Under the Code for Social Security Q82. Which of the following statements best
2020, gig workers are eligible for describes the situation of the
Employees Provident Fund Coverage. “unemployment trap” ?
(a) It is a situation when unemployment
2. Unlike the Public Provident Fund, benefits discourage the unemployed
which is only available to government from going to work.
servants, the General Provident Fund (b) A state where the working-age
is available to all resident Indians. population remains involuntarily
excluded from labour markets due to
Which of the statements given above inadequate employment
is/are correct ? opportunities.
(c) A condition where technological
(a) 1 only advancements result in structural
(b) 2 only unemployment across multiple
(c) Both 1 and 2 sectors
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) A case where cyclical unemployment
persists due to slow economic
recovery and low consumer demand.

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Q83. With reference to Micro, Small and Q85. With reference to the Insurance sector in
Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), consider India, consider the following statements :
the following statements:
1. Insurance penetration is defined as
1. The Credit Guarantee Scheme aims to the insurance premium per capita,
alleviate the credit constraints faced while Insurance density is the ratio of
by MSMEs by offering collateral-free the total insurance premium to the
loans. Gross Domestic Product.
2. Registration under the UDYAM portal
is mandatory for the functioning of the 2. India’s insurance penetration is higher
MSMEs. than the global average.

Which of the statements given above 3. To boost India’s insurance sector, the
is/are correct ? IRDAI has committed itself to
achieving “insurance for all” by 2047.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only How many of the above statements is/are
(c) Both 1 and 2 correct ?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
Q84. Which of the following are the criteria for (d) None
granting Maharatna Status to the Central
Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) ?
Q86. Consider the following statements with
1. The CPSE should have Navaratna respect to Infrastructure Investment
status. Trusts (InvITs) :
2. The CPSE should be listed on the
Indian Stock Exchange with minimum 1. InvIT is an investment instrument that
public shareholding under SEBI works similarly to mutual funds.
regulations.
3. The CPSE should have an average 2. InvITs are regulated by the Securities
annual turnover of more than Rs. and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
25,000 crore over the last 3 years.
4. The CPSE should have significant 3. The units of InvITs can be traded on
international operations. stock exchanges.

Select the correct answer using the codes How many of the statements given above
given below : are correct ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) Only one

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) Only two
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) All three
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) None

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Q87. Which one of the following best Q89. With reference to "indicative planning",
describes the term "Takeout Financing" ? which one of the following statements is
correct” ?
(a) A mechanism where a borrower takes (a) It emphasises state control over all
a new loan to pay off the existing sectors without reliance on the market
loans, consolidate debt and reduce mechanism.
interest rates. (b) It allows private sector autonomy
(b) A mechanism where a long-term loan while guiding the economy through
replaces a short-term loan to reduce fiscal and monetary policies.
t h e f u n d i n g r i s k of l o n g - te r m (c) It mandates centralised economic
infrastructure projects. targets for all sectors.
(c) A process whereby the bank approves (d) It is primarily associated with direct
long-term loans for infrastructure investment in public enterprises.
projects and releases the loan amount
on a recurring basis. Q90. With reference to the effect of the
(d) A process where the unpaid loans of government policies on the equilibrium
the infrastructure projects are price of a good in the market, consider the
recovered by selling the infrastructure following statements:
developed to distressed debt buyers. 1. The imposition of a price ceiling for a
good below the equilibrium price
leads to excess demand for the good.
2. The imposition of a price floor for a
Q88. Consider the following statements : good above the equilibrium price
leads to an excess supply of the good.
1. The Reserve Bank of India announces Which of the statements given above
the sectors eligible for Priority Sector is/are correct?
Lending (PSL). (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
2. Small Finance Banks are not allowed to (c) Both 1 and 2
lend under PSL norms. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. All food & agro-processing activities Q91. Consider the following :

are eligible for PSL loans in India. 1. Fixating of minimum import price
2. A requirement limiting the use of
4. Udyam Portal aids Retail Traders in hormones in meat production
registering MSMEs to avail of PSL 3. Requirement that goods must be
benefits. shipped directly from the country of
origin, without stopping at a third
Which of the statements given above are country
correct ? How many of the measures mentioned
above would be classified as Non-tariff
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only measures in international trade ?
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (a) Only one
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) Only two
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) All three
(d) None

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Q92. With reference to Special Economic Which of the statements given above
Zones (SEZ), consider the following is/are correct?
statements : (a) 1 and 2 only
1. SEZs are treated as a territory outside (d) 2 and 3 only
the customs territory of India. (c) 1 and 3 only
2. Only manufacturing activities are (d) 2 only
allowed in SEZs.
3. SEZ units should achieve positive net Q95. When the Income of the consumer rises:
foreign exchange from the
commencement of production for a 1. Demand for protein goods increases
period of five years.
2. Demand for inferior good decreases
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct ? 3. Prices of normal goods decreases
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only How many statements given above are
(c) 3 only correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Only one
(b) Only two
Q93. With reference to the microfinance sector (c) All three
in India, consider the following (d) None
statements :
1. India has the largest microfinance Q96. Consider the following statements with
sector in the world in terms of number respect to the National Infrastructure
of borrowers. Pipeline (NIP):
2. The RBI has capped the Microfinance
institutions to charge a maximum 1. It comprises any infrastructure
interest on loans. projects of above INR 100 Crores
which is under conceptualisation or
Which of the statements given above under implementation.
is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only 2. The transport and energy sectors
(b) 2 only account for more than 50% of NIP's
(c) Both 1 and 2 projected infrastructure investments.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Most of the projects under NIP are
Q94. Consider the following statements about implemented through the Public-
the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961): Private Partnership (PPP) model.
1. It was based on the Harrod-Domar
model. How many of the statements given above
2. The plan aimed to establish a socialist is/are correct?
pattern by increasing state control (a) Only one
over key industries. (b) Only two
3. It marked a shift from agricultural to (c) All three
industrial development as a priority. (d) None

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Q97. Consider the following statements : Q98. With respect to State Food Safety Index
2024, consider the following statements :
Statement-I : Unlike the National Pension
Scheme which gives retired government 1. The index evaluates the food safety
servants ‘Defined Contribution Pension’, performance of Indian states and
the Unified Pension Scheme gives union territories based on Food
‘Defined Benefit Pension’. Testing and compliance.
2. Among the Large States in India, Tamil
Statement-II : The Unified Pension Nadu is the top-ranking state in the
Scheme assures government employees index, followed by Gujarat and
50% of the average basic pay drawn over Maharashtra.
the last 12 months prior to 3. The index is released by the Food
superannuation as a pension. Safety and Standards Authority of
India (FSSAI).
Statement-III : In the National Pension
Scheme, the amount received as a How many of the statements given above
pension depends on investment returns, is/are correct ?
which are market-linked.
(a) Only one
Which one of the following is correct in (b) Only two
respect of the above statements ? (c) All three
(d) None
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are
correct and both Statements explain
Statement I Q99. The National Biodiversity Strategy and
Action Plan Tracker (NBSAP), to monitor
(b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III the progress of countries in adopting the
are correct, but only one of the goals of the Global Biodiversity
Statements explains Statement-I Framework (GBF), has been developed by

(c) Only one out of Statements II and III is (a) International Union for Conservation
correct and explains Statement I of Nature
(b) World Wide Fund for Nature
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III (c) World Economic Forum
is correct (d) Convention on Biological Diversity

Q100. Which of the following is not correct

about NITI Aayog ?

(a) It is not a constitutional body.

(b) It discourages competitive federalism.
(c) It replaced the Planning Commission
(d) It has a bottom-up approach to
planning.

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
ECONOMY
FLT - II

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO,
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omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will
render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in
some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certifi cate.
8. After you have completed fi lling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers
happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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Q1. With reference to the customs and Q4. "The Central & Southern parts of these
practices of the Garo community, 'Sunga Islands are characterized by the Evergreen
Saul' and 'Brenga' are related to which of Forests and Grasslands. The Shompen
the following? tribes of these islands belongs to the
(a) A local festival in the praise of God. mongoloid race. Agriculture is the main
(b) A folk dance of Garo people. economic activity of the tribal society here
(c) A type of food that is cooked using which is entirely rain-fed. Coconut
Bamboo. occupies more than 80% of the
(d) A traditional folk painting. agricultural area."

Q2. Which of the following pairs is/are Which region is described in the above
correctly matched? paragraph?

List I Animal List II Purpose (a) Nicobar Islands

behind Trafficking (b) Amini Islands
(c) Kiltan Islands
1. Pangolin For meat and (d) Minicoy Islands
traditional medicine

2. Indian Star They are

Tortoise exotic pet trade and
are highly prized.
Q5. Consider the following statements with
3. Tibetan For the raw wool respect to the reserved forests and
Antelopes protected forests:

Select the correct answer using the code 1. While local people are allowed to
given below: collect fuel-wood and timber in
(a) 1 and 2 only reserved forests, no public entry is
(b) 3 only allowed in protected forests.
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. While only central government can
constitute any forest land as reserved
Q3. With reference to the vegetation in India, forest, protected forests are created by
consider the following statements. the state government.
1. Nilambur is famous for teak.
2. Marayoor is famous for Sandalwood. Which of the statements given above
3. Kandhamal is famous for the turmeric is/are correct?
cultivation.
Which of the statements given above (a) 1 only
is/are correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q6. Which of the following pairs of the Indian (a) 1 and 2 only
Fauna is/are correctly matched? (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
Fauna Location (d) 3 only

1. Clouded Leopard Assam

Q9. Which of the following reason(s) attribute
2. Jerdon's Courser Andhra Pradesh to the predominance of ozone depletion
over the Antarctica?
3. Caracal Rajasthan
1. L o w t e m p e r a t u r e p r e s e n t f o r
Select the correct answer using the code extended time periods
given below. 2. R e a c t i o n o f g a s e s w i t h Po l a r
(a) 1 only Stratospheric Clouds (PSCs)
(b) 2 and 3 only 3. Presence of Polar Vortex at the South
(c) 1 and 3 only pole
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code
Q7. With reference to Olive Ridley Turtles, given below:
consider the following statements:
1. They are omnivores and feed both on (a) 1 and 3 only
plants and animals. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. They remain actively reproductive for (c) 3 only
about 10 years after getting fully (d) 1, 2 and 3
matured.
3. T h e t e m p e r a t u r e o f t h e n e s t
determines the sex of the sea turtle Q10. With respect to the floral diversity in India
hatchlings. which of the following statement is/are
Which of the statements above are correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. The maximum diversity of fungi in
(b) 2 and 3 only India is in Eastern Ghats.
(c) 1 and 3 only 2. Gymnosperm is a plant family which
(d) 1, 2 and 3 does not bear fruits naturally.
3. Algae are non-differentiated plants
Q8. Consider the following statements with which does not possess chlorophyll.
reference to 'Banyan tree':
1. The Banyan is the National Tree of Select the correct answer using the code
India. given below
2. The Banyan is a fig tree that begins life
as an epiphyte. (a) 1 only
3. The Bodhi tree in the Mahabodhi (b) 1 and 2 only
Temple Complex in Gaya was a banyan (c) 2 only
tree. (d) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?

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Q11. Consider the following pairs: 3. The large amount of plankton bloom
can positively contribute towards
Minor Forest Uses acidification of the ocean water.
Produce 4. N o r t h w e s t I n d i a n F i s h e r i e s
Commission is the member of
1. Tendu Patta Liquor Making International Alliance to Combat
Ocean Acidification.
2. Mahua Manufacturing Which of the statements given above are
of Bidis correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
3. Ber fruit As an ayurvedic (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Medicine (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which of the above-mentioned pairs
is/are correct? Q14. With reference to the Biodiversity
(a) 1 only Coldspots, consider the following
(b) 3 only statements:
(c) 1 and 3 only 1. These are the areas that have high
(d) 2 and 3 only l e vel s of s peci e s ri ch n e s s and
biological diversity.
2. Biodiversity Coldspots are ideal
Q12. Consider the following statements with environment for rapid diversification
reference to Temperate vegetation: of the species.
1. T h e t e m p e r a t e f o r e s t s a r e Which of the statements given above
characterized by a moderate climate is/are correct?
and broad-leafed deciduous trees. (a) 1 only
2. W e t t e m p e r a t e f o r e s t s a r e (b) 2 only
characterized by oak trees and (c) Both 1 and 2
chestnut trees. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Temperate forests cover the southern
slopes of the Himalayas. Q15. Consider the following statements
Which of the statements given above are regarding National Plan for Conservation
correct? of Aquatic Ecosystems (NPCA):
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. It is fully funded by the central
(b) 2 and 3 only government.
(c) 1 and 3 only 2. The Wetlands Authorities within States
(d) 1, 2 and 3 / UTs will be the nodal agency for
implementation.
3. It will only cover the wetlands
Q13. Consider the following statements designated as RAMSAR sites.
regarding 'Ocean Acidification': Which of the statements given above
1. The process of ocean acidification is/are correct?
causes increase in concentration of (a) 1 and 2 only
carbonate ions in the ocean water. (b) 2 only
2. It leads to lowering of seawater pH and (c) 2 and 3 only
carbonate saturation. (d) 1 and 3 only

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Q16. With reference to Forest Advisory Q18. Which of the following are the criteria for
Committee (FAC), which of the following selection of Natural World Heritage Sites?
statements is/are incorrect?
1. The site furnishing outstanding
1. It is a statutory body formed under the examples of Earth's record of life or its
Forest Rights Act 2006. geologic processes.
2. It is competent to handle project 2. The site providing excellent examples
proposals involving less than 40 of ongoing ecological and biological
hectares of forest land. evolutionary processes.
3. The advice of the FAC is binding on the 3. The site must have a high percentage
government. of plant life found nowhere else on the
planet with at least 1,500 vascular
Select the correct answer using the code plants as endemics.
given below: 4. T h e s i te m u s t c o n t a i n n a t u r a l
phenomena that are rare, unique,
(a) 1 and 2 only superlative, or of outstanding beauty.
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the codes
(d) 1, 2 and 3 given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

Q17. Consider the following statements (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
regarding Vultures: (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. High acidic stomach system in vultures
provides them protection against
infection while feeding on infected Q19. With reference to functions of various
carcass. zones of biosphere reserves, consider the
2. In India, out of the nine species of following statements:
vultures found, seven of them got
extinct by the start of twenty-first 1. No human activity is permitted in the
century. core zone of biosphere reserve.
3. The Government of India had issued a 2. Tourism activities are permitted in the
c o m p l e t e b l a n ke t b a n o n t h e buffer zone.
production and usage of diclofenac in 3. Agricultural activities are permitted in
2008 with a view to conserving the transition zone.
vultures.
Which of the statements given above
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (c) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

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Q20. Consider the following statements: Q22. With reference to the difference between
Biosphere reserves and Protected areas,
1. Forest cover includes all areas more which of the following statements is/are
than 1 hectare in extent and having correct?
tree canopy density of 10% and above.
1. U n l i ke o t h e r p r o t e c t e d a r e a s ,
2. Tree cover includes isolated trees Biosphere reserves are divided into
outside the recorded forest. three zones namely core, buffer and
transition zones.
3. The total forest and tree cover in India
is 30% of the geographical area of the 2. National Parks are highly restricted for
country. a c c e s s to p u b l i c c o m pa re d to
biosphere reserves.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? 3. While Biosphere reserves are defined
under National Biodiversity Act, 2002,
(a) 1 only other protected areas are defined
(b) 1 and 2 only under Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the
options given below:

Q21. Which of the following factors is/are (a) 1 and 2 only

responsible for greater biological (b) 2 and 3 only
diversity in tropical regions as compared (c) 2 only
to temperate regions? (d) 1 and 3 only

1. Tropical latitudes have remained

undisturbed for millions of years in Q23. Yokohama Strategy is related to which of
comparison to temperate regions. the following:

2. Availability of more solar energy in (a) Strategy laid down specific guidelines
tropical regions. on the prevention of sexual
harassment of women at the
3. F r e q u e n t a n d m a j o r s e a s o n a l workplace.
variations in tropical regions. (b) It provides guidelines for natural
disaster prevention, preparedness and
Select the correct answer using the code mitigation.
given below: (c) It is a commitment to ensuring safe
and healthy working conditions,
(a) 1 and 2 only decent work for all.
(b) 1 and 3 only (d) It is an initiative of the World Bank in
(c) 2 and 3 only support of the implementation of the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Hyogo Framework for action in low
and middle-income countries.

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Q24. Consider the following statements with Q26. Which of the following is a criterion for
reference to Coalition for Disaster selection of Biosphere Reserve?
Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI):
1. The site must contain a core area
1. C oal i ti on for di s as ter res i l i ent which should be minimally disturbed
infrastructure launched by the Prime by human activities.
Minister of India during his speech at
the Climate Action Summit in the year 2. The core area should be able to sustain
2019. viable populations representing all
trophic levels in the ecosystem.
2. The Coalition for Disaster Resilient
Infrastructure is a partnership among 3. A site having the potential for
the Asian nations only. preservation of traditional modes of
living for harmonious use of
3. The decisions, policies and standards environment.
of the coalition are binding on the
member countries. Select the correct code from the options
given below:
Which of the statements given above (a) 1 and 2 only
is/are correct? (b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q27. With reference to Camels in India,

consider the following statements:
Q25. Which among the following is/are the
applications of seaweeds? 1. Camels have low gestation period and
high meat yield that makes them
1. It acts as a bioindicator. suitable for domestication purposes.

2. Helps in removal of heavy metals from 2. Slaughtering of camels and their

marine ecosystem. temporary migration is prohibited by
the Rajasthan government.
3. Production of bioethanol
3. Population of camels in Rajasthan is
4. Preparing toothpaste and cosmetics. declining due to restricted movement
caused by Indira Gandhi Canal.
Which of the statements given above Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q28. Consider the following statements: Q30. Which one of the following statements
correctly describe the purpose of 'O-
1. Methane is the second most abundant SMART" scheme, recently seen in news?
anthropogenic greenhouse gas after
carbon dioxide with respect to total (a) The scheme aims to mentor and
global emissions. provide guidance to selected
'outstanding students of higher
2. Industrial sector contributes more elementary schools in India.
than half of the total human-caused
methane emission in the world. (b) The scheme aims at stepping up ocean
research and early warning weather
3. The Global Methane Initiative was systems.
launched by G-20 Countries in 2021.
(c) The scheme aims to develop an
Which of the statements given above intelligent traffic management system
is/are correct? in urban metropolitan cities in India.

(a) 1 only (d) The scheme aims to step-up the

(b) 1 and 2 only manufacturing of electronic
(c) 2 and 3 only components for satellite production in
(d) 1, 2 and 3 India.

Q29. Consider the following statements: Q31. Which one of the following statements is
incorrect regarding the process of
1. Black Carbon creates a global 'Eutrophication'?
dimming effect that leads to the
reduction of sun's radiation that reach (a) It is characterized by excessive plant
the surface of Earth. and algal growth due to the increased
availability of growth factors needed
2. Brown Carbon is light-absorbing for photosynthesis.
organic matter released during
combustion of coal. (b) It is primarily caused by the leaching of
phosphate or nitrate containing
3. Both Black Carbon and Brown Carbon fertilisers from agricultural lands into
can stay in the atmosphere for several lakes or rivers.
years.
(c) The high rate of photosynthesis
Which of the statements given above associated with eutrophication
is/are correct? increases the amount dissolved
inorganic carbon in the water. of
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (d) The process of Eutrophication can lead
(c) 1 and 3 only to lowering of coral reef's resistance
(d) 3 only and greater susceptibility of it to
diseases.

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Q32. Consider the following statements: Q34. With reference to the 'Bureau of Energy
Efficiency' (BEE), consider the following
1. Both Carbon credits and Carbon statements:
offsets are units measured in term of
greenhouse gases emissions 1. It is a statutory body under the
equivalent to one ton of Carbon Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Dioxide. Climate Change.
2. Carbon offsets are created when a
business reduces their greenhouse 2. It gives financial assistance to
gas emissions in their ever yday institutions for promoting efficient use
operations. of energy.
3. Carbon credits are created when a
business decides to invest in 3. I t c o n d u c t s N E E R M A N a w a rd s
something that reduces greenhouse annually for energy efficient building
gas emissions outside of their design in India.
everyday operations.
Which of the above statements is/are
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only (c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

Q33. With reference to the emissions of the

greenhouse gases, consider the following
statements:

1. India is the world's third largest Q35. Which of the following statements is
emitter of greenhouse gases after incorrect with reference to 'Blue Carbon
China and the U.S. on per capita basis. Initiative'?
2. India has pledged to reduce the
carbon intensity of its economy by 45 (a) It supports scientific research into the
per cent by 2030, over 2005 levels. role of coastal ecosystems for climate
3. India's coal-based thermal power change mitigation.
sector constitutes for more than 90 (b) One of its Major objectives include
percent of India's Greenhouse gas national-level accounting of carbon
emissions. stocks and emissions.
(c) The Initiative is coordinated by
Which of the above statements is/are Germanwatch.
correct? (d) It works to develop financial incentives
(a) 1 and 2 only to ensure the sustainable use of
(b) 2 only coastal blue carbon ecosystems.
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

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Q36. With reference to 'Global Gateway Plan', 2. Ease of Doing Solar Report is a
consider the following statements: publication of International Solar
Alliance.
1. The plan aims to invest globally in 3. Countries lying beyond the tropics
infrastructure, digital and climate cannot become the member of
projects by 2027. international solar alliance.
2. Global Gateway projects will be
developed and delivered through the Which of the statements given above
Te a m E u ro p e I n i t i a t i ve s u n d e r is/are correct?
European Commission. (a) 1 and 2 only
3. The plan will be implemented to (b) 2 and 3 only
exclusively strengthen the (c) 1 and 3 only
connectivity between North America (d) 1, 2 and 3
with European Union.

Which of the statements given above Q39. Which of the following pairs are correctly
is/are correct? matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only List I List II
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Funds Administered by

Q37. With reference to the Global 1. Climate Multilateral

Environment Facility (GEF), which one of Investment development
the following statements is incorrect? Fund banks

(a) I t i s a n i n d e p e n d e n t fi n a n c i a l 2. Global World Bank

organization established on the eve of Environment
the 1992 Rio Earth Summit. Facility
(b) It serves as a financial mechanism for
Convention on Biological Diversity. 3. Special Change Global
(c) It is linked formally to the Montreal fund Climate Environment
Protocol to support implementation Fund
of the Protocol.
(d) The SECURE Himalaya project in India 4. Adaptation International
is funded by the Global Environment Fund Monetary Fund
Facility (GEF).

Q38. With reference to the International Solar Select the correct answer using the code
Alliance (ISA), consider the following given below:
statements: (a) 1 and 2 only
1. The ISA is guided by its "Towards 1000' (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
strategy which aims to mobilize USD (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
1,000 billion of investments in solar (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
energy.

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Q40. This is a waterbody located on the (c) Increase in the marine productivity in
eastern coast of India. This is directly the North Atlantic.
connected to the Bay of Bengal by a (d) T h e t e m p e r a t u r e i n s o u t h e r n
channel. Some important aspects about hemisphere around Antarctica will
its biodiversity are: a habitat for largest drop further.
congregation of waterfowls in India,
arribada, Irrawaddy dolphins and
Barakudia limbless skink. The waterbody Q43. Consider the following statements with
encompasses Nalbana wildlife sanctuary reference to the Kelp forests:
within itself. The biodiversity in the
waterbody is under the threat from illegal 1. They are usually found in arctic and
farming activities. temperate waters across the world.
In the above paragraph which of the 2. The most dominant invertebrates in
following waterbody has been described? these ecosystems include jellyfish and
(a) Kolleru Lake sea urchins.
(b) Pulicat Lake 3. They thrive in warm and nutrient-
(c) Chilika Lake deficit waters along rocky coastlines.
(d) Vembanad Lake 4. They play a fundamental role in
s u p p o r t i n g w a t e r re c re a t i o n a l
Q41. With reference to Permafrost thawing, activities in ocean waters.
consider the following statements:
1. It destabilizes the ground above it, Which of the statements given above are
damaging critical infrastructure, and correct?
unprecedented flooding. causing
2. It further accelerates the warming of (a) 2 and 4 only
Earth, releasing methane directly into (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
the atmosphere. (c) 3 and 4 only
3. It may lead to the re-emergence of (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
harmful bacteria and diseases.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? Q44. In the context of carbon stock which of
(a) 1 and 2 only the following statements is correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) It refers to the amount of carbon
(d) 1, 2 and 3 stored in forests in the form of
biomass, soil, deadwood and litter.
Q42. Which of the following could be the (b) It is a tradable permit that provides the
consequence, if Atlantic Meridional holder of the credit the right to emit
Over turning Circulation (AMOC) one ton of carbon dioxide.
collapses due to adverse effects of climate (c) It refers to the partitioning of carbon
change? through different parts of a plant.
(a) Huge decline in temperatures in the (d) It is the compartment within the Earth
Nor thern Hemisphere around system that acquires carbon from the
Antarctic. atmosphere and stores it for a
(b) Increased carbon troposphere. specified period of time.
sequestration in the

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Q45. With reference to the Sea grass, consider Q47. Which of the following are Non-
the following statements: Biodegradable pollutants found in the
environment?
1. They are flowering plants that grow in
shallow marine waters. 1. Polylactic Acid
2. Nylon fabrics
2. They are present only along the 3. Radioactive wastes
coastal areas of Palk Strait and Gulf of 4. Glass
Mannar in India. 5. Tannin

3. They can reproduce through both Select the correct answer using the code
sexual and asexual reproduction given below:
methods.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
is/are incorrect? (c) 1, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Q46. In the ecosystem, there are some Q48. With reference to Carbon Monoxide as a
organisms that cannot live without each pollutant, consider the following
other. They totally depend on each other statements:
for survival. For example Termites and
their intestinal flagellates. Termites can 1. It is an odourless and tasteless toxic
eat wood but have no enzymes to digest gas.
it. However, their intestine contains 2. The biggest source of outdoor Carbon
certain flagellate protists (protozoans) monooxide is incomplete combustion
that have the necessary enzymes to of hydrocarbons in automobiles.
digest. Similar is the relation between 3. C h i l d re n a n d f o e t u s a re m o re
Bees and pollinating flowers where susceptible than adults to Carbon
flowering plants are cross pollinated by monoxide ill effects.
the bees which benefit by getting nectar 4. It is responsible for causing respiratory
from the plants and both cannot survive failure in humans.
without the other.
Which of the statements given above is/
Which of the following process describes are correct?
the above-mentioned relation?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) Amensalism (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) Symbiosis (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
© Commensalism (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) Parasitism

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Q49. Consider the following statements Q52. Consider the following statements with
regarding 'Lesser Florican': respect to the plastic wastes:
1. They are endemic to Eastern African
continent and fly to India during 1. Plastics accounts for more than 80% of
winters. total marine waste
2. They are the largest birds in the
bustard family to be found in India. 2. Only 10% of plastic waste generated
3. It is one of the priority species for globally so far has been recycled.
recovery under Integrated
Development of Wildlife Habitat 3. The rate of UV-induced degradation
scheme. of plastics in sea is higher than that of
Which of the statements given above solar radiated degradation on land.
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above
(b) 2 and 3 only is/are correct?
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3. (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
Q50. With reference to Photochemical Smog, (c) 2 and 3 only
consider the following statements: (d) 1 and 3 only
1. It is a mixture of both primary and
secondary pollutants.
2. Its formation requires the presence of
infrared radiation.
3. It can cause respiratory issues which Q53. Which one of the following statements
could lead to decreased immunity in best describes the term 'Earth Overshoot
person. Day', sometimes seen in the news?
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? (a) It marks the date when the countries'
(a) 1 and 2 only individual quota to release CO2
(b) 3 only exceeds than what is provided under
(c) 1 and 3 only the Paris Agreement.
(d) 1,2 and 3 (b) It marks the date when the present
population on the earth would reach
Q51. Which of the following is the correct its limit to growth to meet all its needs
reason for Tubifex being called an from natural resources
indicator species? (c) It marks the date when the increase in
(a) It only grows in soils which are earth's temperature would cross the
polluted with lead. limit from where it could not be
(b) It grows in water bodies which are reversed.
extremely acidic. (d) It marks the date when humanity's
(c) It grows in soils polluted with demand for ecological resources and
biotoxins. services in a given year exceeds what
(d) It grows in water bodies which are Earth can regenerate in that year
anoxic and contain heavy metals.

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Q54. Consider the following statements. (b) I t i s a s y s t e m o f a g r i c u l t u r a l
1. Presence of organic and inorganic management that helps the land to
wastes in water decreases the store more carbon to reduce the
dissolved oxygen content of the water amount of Green House Gases (GHGs).
2 Chemical oxygen demand is the (c) It is a system of underground storage
amount of oxygen required to oxidize of all forms of carbon in order to
the organic material and oxidizable reduce the amount of Green House
inorganic nutrients present in water Gases (GHG) being released in the
3. Biological oxygen demand is the atmosphere.
amount of oxygen consumed by (d) It is a process of capturing carbon
bacteria while they decompose dioxide (CO2) before it enters the
organic matter under aerobic atmosphere transporting it. and
conditions. storing it in cryogenic containers.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? Q57. Which of the following pollutants are
(a) 1 and 2 only considered while calculating the national
(b) 1 only air quality index
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Carbon Monoxide
2. Nitrogen Dioxide
Q55. Consider the following statements with 3. Lead
reference to Petcoke 4. Particulate Matter (size less than 10
1. It is a by-product of oil refining microns)
process. 5. Ozone
2 It is an unstable fuel with low energy
content. Select the correct answer using the codes
3. High-grade Petcoke can be used to given below
make electrodes.
4. The Union government of India (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
imposes environment tax on the use (b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
and production of Petcoke (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
Which of the above statements is/are (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only Q58. Which one of the statements given below
(b) 2 and 4 onlv is incorrect with reference to Zero Budget
(c) 1, 2 and 3 onlv Natural Farming (ZBNF)?
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
(a) It involves the raising of crops without
Q56. Which one of the following statements using any fertilizers.
most appropriately describes the term (b) The word Zero Budget refers to the
'carbon farming? zero cost of production of all crops.
(a) It is a system of scientific capture and (c) It was developed to support the idea
management of industrial exhaust to of the Green Revolution in India.
reduce the amount of Green House (d) T h e t e c h n i q u e p r o m o t e s t h e
Gases (GHG) being released in the application of jivamrita.
atmosphere.

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Q59. With reference to the Perform Achieve Q62. Consider the following statements with
and Trade (PAT) scheme, consider the reference to nitrous oxide (N2O):
following statements:
1. N2O is about 300 times as potent as
1. The scheme is launched by the carbon dioxide at heating the
Ministry of New and Renewable atmosphere.
Energy. 2. T h re e - q u a r te r s of g l o ba l N 2 O
2. It is a market-based mechanism to emissions come from agriculture.
enhance energy efficiency. 3. N2O is also an ozone depleting
substance.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct? Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (a) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q60. According to India's National Policy on
Biofuels, which of the following can be
used as raw materials for the production
of biofuels? Q63. With reference to the Environmental
Impact Assessment statements: ( ),
1. Cassava consider the following
2. Sorghum
3. Pongamia 1. It aims to minimize the environmental
4. Broken Wheat Grains impacts emanating out of any
economic activity that have the
Select the correct answer using the code potential to cause environmental
given below: degradation.
2. It helps in designing of projects with
(a) 1 and 2 only long term viability and therefore
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only improves cost effectiveness.
(c) 3 only 3. It serves as a decision-making tool
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 which helps policy makers to approve
or reject a project.
Q61. Which one of the following organizations
is authorized for prescribing drinking Which of the statements given above are
water specifications in India? correct?

(a) Central Ground Water Board (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) Central Water Commission (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Bureau of Indian Standards (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) National Water Development Agency (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q64. Consider the following statements with Q66. With reference to Unlocking National
reference to red sanders: Energy Efficiency potential (UNNATEE)
framework , which of the following
1. Red Sanders is a non-fragrant variety statements is incorrect?
of sandalwood that mostly grows in
hilly regions. (a) It establishes a linkage between
2. Red Sanders is an endemic species energy supply-demand and energy
confined to Southern parts of Western efficiency opportunities.
Ghats of India. (b) It helps in speeding up India's climate
3. A red sander is used in traditional change mitigation action.c) It is first
medicines for the treatment of initiative aimed at delineating the
diabetes and skin diseases. energy efficiency targets for the
4. Red Sanders from the cultivated land respective sectors up to the state
is allowed to export in India. levels.
(c) It is first initiative aimed at delineating
Which of the statements given above are the energy efficiency targets for the
correct? respective sectors up to the state
levels.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) It facilitates real-time monitoring of
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only the progress of various Energy
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only Conservation programs at State level.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q67. With reference to the National

Q65. With reference to the Star Labelling Adaptation Fund for Climate Change
Scheme consider the following ( N A F CC ) , c o n s i d e r t h e f o l l o w i n g
statements: statements:

1. It is being implemented by the Bureau 1. It is a central sector scheme aimed at

of Energy Efficiency. assisting states in meeting the cost of
2. It is mandatory for all high energy adaptation due to climate change.
appliances like ACs, fridge, microwave 2. National Bank for Agriculture and
ovens, etc. Rural Development (NABARD) is the
3. It does not cover consumption implementing agency for the scheme.
appliances like ceiling fans and LPG 3. It was established to meet the
Stoves. requirement of Kigali Agreement.

Which of the statements given above is/ Which of the statements given above
are correct? is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q68. Consider the following statements with Q70. Which among the following statements
reference to the Rotterdam convention: is/are correct with regards to Home
Energy Audit?
1. I t c o v e r s i n d u s t r i a l h a z a rd o u s
chemicals but exempts pesticides 1. A Home Energy Audit (HEA) enables
used in agriculture. monitoring of energy use of various
2. The Convention creates non-binding appliances in a house.
obligations for the implementation of 2. It would aid in reducing the carbon
the Prior Informed Consent footprint of user.
procedure. 3. Electricity (Rights of Consumers) Rules
3. Under the Convention, Annex III 2020 has been amended to mandate
includes chemicals that have been Home Energy Audit of all the houses in
banned or restricted for health or the Delhi NCR region.
environmental reasons.
Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above given below:
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Q69. Consider the following statements with Q71. Consider the following statements with
reference to the United Nations reference to Globally Impor tant
Convention to Combat Desertification Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS):
(UNCCD):
1. Food and Agricultural Organization
1. It promotes a bottom-up approach (FAO) recognizes the agricultural
encouraging the participation of local heritage regions of the world.
people in combating desertification. 2. The GIAHS recognizes land use
2. Canada is the only UN member who is systems and landscapes which are rich
not a party to the UNCCD treaty. in biological diversity.
3. The parties to the convention have 3. In India, Below Sea Level Farming
agreed to achieve land degradation System of Odisha has been recognized
neutrality by 2050. under the GIAHS.

Which of the statements given above Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q72. Consider the following statements 3. The convention provides funds to
regarding the Convention on least developed countries for the
International Trade in Endangered Species protection of wetlands.
of Wild Fauna and Fl (CITES):
1. It is a legally binding treaty which Which of the above statements is/are
regulates trade of items made from correct?
plants and animals, such as food and (a) 1 only
medicine. (b) 1 and 2 only
2. The CITES Secretariat is administered (c) 1 and 3 only
by the United Nations Environment (d) 2 and 3 only
Programme
3. The species covered by CITES are listed Q75. In the context of climate change
in different appendices depending on initiatives, the 'Greenhouse gas protocol'
the degree of protection they require is:
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? (a) An accounting tool for governments
(a) 1 only and businesses to quantify and
(b) 1 and 2 only manage greenhouse gas emissions.
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) An inter-governmental agreement
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ratified by UN members to reduce
greenhouse gas emissions.
Q73. Consider the following statements: (c) A protocol signed under the Paris
1. Kigali agreement amended the 1987 agreement to reduce the greenhouse
Montreal Protocol to phase out gas emission significantly.
Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCS). (d) A global initiative that focuses on
2. Kigali agreement is legally binding on drawing attention to the benefits of
its parties. greenhouse gas emission.
3. Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are more
harmful to ozone layer than Q76. Under the Stockholm Convention, India
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). has prohibited the manufacture, trade,
Which of the statements given above are use, import and export of which of the
correct? following chemicals?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. Chlordecone
(c) 1 and 3 only 2. Polychlorinated biphenyls
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Dicofol
4. DDT
Q74. With reference to Ramsar Convention,
consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code
1. It is the only global environmental given below.
treaty that deals with one particular (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
ecosystem. (b) 3 and 4 only
2. A t t h e t i m e o f j o i n i n g , e a c h (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
contracting party must designate at (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
least one site for inclusion in Ramsar
List.

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Q77. This Convention is an international treaty Which of the statements given above
that has been designed to reduce the is/are correct?
movements of hazardous waste between
nations, and specifically to prevent (a) 1 and 2 only
transfer of hazardous waste from (b) 2 only
developed to less developed countries (c) 1 and 3 only
(LDCs). Electronic waste, mobile phones, (d) 3 only
Polychlorinated Biphenyls (PCBs) and
compounds used in industry as heat
exchange fluids, in electric transformers Q80. In the context of dromedary camel and
and capacitors are among the wastes Bactrian camel, consider the following
regulated by this Convention. statements:
The Convention referred above is:
(a) Bonn Convention 1. The dromedary camel has two humps
(b) Basel Convention whereas the Bactarian camel has a
(c) Cartagena Convention single hump.
(d) Washington Convention 2. The dromedary camels are only found
in the Central Asia whereas the
Q78. Consider the following statements with Bactarian camels are found only in the
reference to Wildlife Crime Control Indian Subcontinent.
Bureau:
1. It is a statutory body formed by Which of the statements given above
amending the Wildlife (Protection) is/are correct?
Act, 1972.
2. 'Not all animals migrate by choice' was (a) 1 only
launched by Wildlife Crime Control (b) 2 only
Bureau along with UN Environment. (c) Both 1 and 2
3. It provides recognition to all the zoos (d) Neither 1 nor 2
in the country.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? Q81. Which of the following is the best
a) 1 and 2 only description of the process of
b) 2 and 3 only 'Homeostasis' in nature?
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) The self-regulating process by which
biological systems tend to maintain
Q79. Consider the following statements: stability.
1. Chromium is used as a hardener for (b) The increase of earth's temperature
steel housing plastics. through volcanism.
2. Brominated flame retardants are used (c) T h e p r o c e s s b y w h i c h c e r t a i n
to strengthen connectors and tiny organisms transform light energy into
plugs in electrical conductivity. chemical energy.
3. Barium is used in Cathode-Ray Tube (d) The symbiotic partnership of two
(CRT) computers in the front panel to separate organisms.
protect users from radiation.

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Q82. Consider the following statements with Which of the statements given above
reference to Grassland biomes: is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
1. Tropical grasslands occur on either (b) 2 only
side of the equator and extend till the (c) Both 1 and 2
tropics. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Savannas in Africa are known to have
richer soils than temperate grasslands. Q85. Which of the following is/are the
biodiversity hotspots of India?
Which of the statements given above 1. Western Ghats
is/are correct? 2. Sundarbans
(a) 1 only 3. Terrai-Duar Savannah grasslands
(b) 2 only 4. The Eastern Himalayas
(c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the code
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
Q83. Consider the following statements with (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
reference to the Permafrosts: (c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Permafrost is a ground that remains at
or below 0°C for two or more years. Q86. Which of the following animals can act as
2. Permafrosts are the most common in pollinating agents?
regions with high mountains and in 1. Flies
Earth's higher latitudes near the North 2. Moths
and South Poles. 3. Bats
3. Permafrost regions are not always 4. Reptiles
covered in snow. Select the correct answer using the code
4. Permafrost's is consisting of soil, given below:
gravel, and sand bound together by (a) 1 and 2 only
ice. (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above are (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only Q87. Consider the following statements with
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only reference to Biocontrol in agriculture:
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only 1. It is used as biological methods for
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 controlling plant diseases and pests.
2. It helps in reducing water pollution.
Q84. Consider the following statements with 3. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is an
reference to Nitrogen fixation: example of biocontrol agent.
1. Blue green algae are capable of fixing Which of the statements given above are
atmospheric nitrogen. correct?
2. Nitrogen fixation on earth can be (a) 1 and 2 only
accomplished by atmospheric (b) 1 and 3 only
phenomenon of thunder and lighting. (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q88. Consider the following statements 'Tso Q90. Consider the following pairs:
Kar Wetland Complex':

1. Tso Kar is a fresh water lake situated in Forest type Location in India
the northern Changthang region of
Ladakh. 1. Tropical Andaman
Evergreen and Nicobar
2. It is a key staging site in the Central Forests Islands
Asian Flyway.
2. Tropical Rajasthan and
3. Great Crested Grebe Bar-headed Deciduous dry areas
Geese is found only in this wetland in Forests of Gujarat
India.
3. Coniferous Upper elevations
4. The site has been recently included Forests of Himalayas
under the Montreux record.

Which of the statements given above Which of the pairs given above is/are
is/are correct? correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 3 only (a) I and 2 only

(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 an 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q89. With reference to biodiversity found in Q91. Which of the following is/ are the causes
different regions, consider the following of Algal Bloom?
statements:
1. Agricultural Runoff
1. Species diversity decreases as we
move away from the equator towards 2. Discharge of untreated Sewage
the poles.
3. Discharge of untreated Industrial
2. Temperate environments unlike Effluents
t ro p i c a l p ro m o te b e t te r n i c h e
specialisation. 4. Blockage in flow of rivers

Which of the statements given above Select the correct answer using the code
is/are correct? given below:

(a) 1 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Q92. Which of the following statements Q95. Consider the following statements with
regarding Radioactive Wastes is/are reference to 'Great Indian Hornbill':
correct? 1. They are a long-lived and can live for
1. Even low doses exposure to it can nearly 50 years in captivity.
cause genetic disorders and 2. It is a state bird of Nagaland and
mutations. Manipur.
2. It can be caused by phosphate rock 3. They are categorized as critically
processing and nuclear weapon endangered under IUCN Red list.
testing. 4. The population of this bird is declining
3. Bamako Convention is the only due to hunting pressure in India.
International Treaty regarding control Which of the statements given above
of pollution from radioactive wastes. is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 1 and 4 only
given below: (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only Q96. Consider the following statements:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Lichens are formed by symbiotic
association of Algae and bacteria.
Q93. It is a natural phenomenon that causes 2. R hi z obi um bacteri um conver ts
the heating up of a place. The longwave nitrogen gas into ammonium
radiation reflected from earth post compounds.
absorption of sun's radiation cannot 3. Fungi are an example of saprotrophs.
escape the Earth's surface which causes Which of the statements given above
the heating up of the place." is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
Which environmental effect is being (b) 2 and 3 only
described in the lines above? (c) 3 only
(a) Albedo Effect (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Greenhouse Effect
(c) Global Dimming Q97. With reference to various compounds of
(d) Polar See-Saw Effect carbon, consider the following
statements:
Q94. Which one of the following statements is 1. Coke is an almost pure form of carbon
incorrect about "Syngas"? used in the manufacture of artificial
diamonds.
(a) It can be produced from underground 2. Bitumen is used in paints as well as for
coal reserves. road surfacing.
(b) It can be produced from biomass Which of the statements given above
waste and sewage. is/are correct?
(c) It is a clean fuel due to absence of (a) 1 only
carbon dioxide in it. (b) 2 only
(d) It can be used as a feedstock in the (c) Both 1 and 2
production of fertilisers. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q98. Consider the following statements Q 1 0 0 . I n t h e c o n te x t of m u l t i l a te r a l
regarding 'Indian Leopard': environmental agreements, the 'Prior
Informed Consent (PIC) procedure is
1. Leopard is found in all forest types in related to:
I n d i a i n c l u d i n g m a n g r o v e s of
Sundarbans. (a) Convention on the International Trade
2. It is categorized under Appendix I of in Endangered Species of Wild Flora
Convention on Endangered Species. and Fauna (CITES)
International Trade in
3. The first ever national leopard census (b) Conservation of Migratory Species
in the country was conducted in 2020.
4. The highest concentration of the (c) Convention on Biological Diversity
leopard in India is estimated to be in (CBD)
the state of Madhya Pradesh.
(d) Rotterdam Convention
Which of the following statements given
above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Q99. Consider the following statements with

reference to the South Asia Wildlife
Enforcement Network (SAWEN):

1. It is an intergovernmental wildlife law

enforcement support body launched
for curbing illegal wildlife trade.
2. SAWEN was launched by ASEAN
member countries.
3. It operates its activities from the
Secretariat based in Kathmandu,
Nepal.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
ECONOMY
TEST - II

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO,
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alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
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6. All items carry equal marks.
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TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
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been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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Q1. In the context of Indian economy, the term Q4. Which of the following is/are the cause of
'Twin Deficit refers to Demand-Pull Inflation?
1. Increased government spending
(a) Revenue deficit accompanied with 2. Higher prices of inputs
Fiscal Deficit. 3. Lower interest rates
(b) Occurrence of Current Account Deficit
and Fiscal Deficit together. Select the correct answer using the code
(c) Simultaneous Current Account Deficit given below.
and Capital Account Deficit (a) 1 and 3 only
(d) Simultaneous rise in the Non- (b) 2 and 3 only
Performing Assets of banks and debt (c) 2 only
burden of the corporates (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q2. Which of the following caused the 1991 Q5. Which of the following are the fiscal policy
economic crisis in India? measures taken by the government to
control inflation?
1. Balance of Payment crisis 1. Reduction in public expenditure and
2. Rising prices of essential goods public borrowing.
3. High Fiscal Deficit 2. Increasing taxes on private businesses
3. Increasing interest rates in the
Select the correct answer using the code economy.
given below.
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 and 2 only given below.
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q3. Consider the following statements in the
context of proportional taxation: Q6. With reference to the National Disposable
Income, consider the following
1. In this, taxing authority charges the statements:
same rate of tax from each taxpayer, 1. It gives an idea of what is the
irrespective of income. maximum amount of goods and
2. The objective of redistribution of services the domestic economy has at
resources by government is achieved its disposal.
through this system of taxation. 2. It includes transfers from the rest of
the world such as aids and gifts.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? Which of the statements given above
is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q7. Which of the following statements is/are Q10. Consider the following statements with
correct with reference to Stagflation? reference to indirect and direct taxes in
1. Stagflation refers to a state of an India:
economy that is experiencing a 1. In the case of direct taxes, the
simultaneous increase in inflation and incidence and impact of the tax are on
rising unemployment. the same person.
2. The occurrence of stagflation proves 2. Indirect taxes are regressive in nature.
the theory behind the Philips curve. 3. While Income Tax is a type of direct tax,
Select the correct answer using the code corporate tax is a type of indirect tax.
given below. Which of the statements given above
(a) 1 only is/are correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q8. Which of the following needs to be
subtracted from the National Income to Q11. When the government increases
get the Personal Disposable Income of all spending by borrowing today, which will
households? be repaid by taxes in the future, it will have
1. Net interest payments made by the same impact on the economy as an
households increase in government expenditure that
2. Corporate Tax is financed by a tax increase today.
3. Undistributed part of the profits Effectively, taxation and borrowing are
earned by the firms equivalent means of financing the
4. Personal tax and non-tax payments expenditure of the government.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the following is best described in
given below. the passage given above?
(a) 1 and 4 only (a) Paradox of thrift
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) Kuznets' inverted-U hypothesis
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Solow growth model
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) Ricardian equivalence

Q9. If inflation in country A is higher than in Q12. In the context of budgetary deficits,
country B, and the exchange rate between consider the following statements with
the two countries is fixed, which of the reference to Primary Deficit:
following is likely to happen to the trade 1. Primary Deficit is the total government
balance between the two countries borrowings available to utilise after
assuming the initial prices of the basket is interest payments.
same in both the countries? 2. Primary Deficit in India is always
(a) It is favourable for country A to export higher than the Fiscal Deficit.
more goods than country B. Which of the statements given above
(b) Exports of country B to country A will is/are correct?
increase. (a) 1 only
(c) C o u n t r y A w o u l d e x p e r i e n c e (b) 2 only
surplustrade balance. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Both (a) and © (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q13. In the context of macroeconomics, Q16. Which of the following can be considered
'Transfer Payments' refers to: as liabilities for the Reserve Bank of India?
1. Gold reserves
(a) receipts which the residents of a 2. Currency notes held by Public
country receive without having to 3. Loan to Commercial Banks
make any present or future payments 4. Investments in Government Securities
in return. Select the correct answer using the code
(b) commercial borrowings received by given below.
domestic firms from multinational (a) 1 only
companies operating abroad. (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) loans received by government from (c) 2 and 4 only
multilateral institutions. (d) 2 only
(d) payments made by consumers to
retailers through digital wallets.
Q17. Consider the following statements about
Q14. Consider the following: the Sterilization by RBI:
1. Disinvestment 1. It is done to stabilize the stock of
2. Reducing expenditures money in the economy from external
3. Raising tax rates shocks.
4. Rationalizing subsidies 2. The total reserves and deposits of RBI
remain unchanged pre and post
Which of the actions mentioned above if sterilization exercise.
adopted by Government would reduce its Which of the statements given above
deficit? is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q15. Consider the following statements in the

context of Goods and Services Tax (GST): Q18. Consider the following statements about
1. GST is essentially a tax only on value Treasury Bills:
addition at each stage. 1. They are zero-coupon securities
2. It is a destination-based tax. issued at discount.
3. State GST (SGST) would be applicable 2. They are issued by the Central
if both the buyer and seller are located Government and not State
within the same state. Governments.
3. They are usually long term securities
Which of the statements given above with an average maturity of 10 years.
is/are correct? Which of the statements given above
(a) 1, 2 and 3 is/are correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q19. Consider the following passage: Rather Select the correct answer using the code
than being caused by the ebbs and flows given below.
of the business cycle, this type of (a) 1 and 2 only
unemployment is caused by fundamental (b) 3 only
shifts in the makeup of the economy. This (c) 2 and 3 only
type of unemployment arises due to (d) 1, 2 and 3
mismatch between the supply and
demand for certain skills in the labour Q22. In the context of the economy,
market. Mezzanine Financing refers to:
(a) A type of finance in which a business
Which of the following unemployment sells its accounts receivable to a third
types is being referred to in the above party at a discount.
passage? (b) Financing by an individual in a new or
(a) Structural Unemployment small business ventures.
(b) Frictional Unemployment (c) Hybrid of debt and equity financing
(c) Institutional Unemployment that gives the lender the right to
(d) Seasonal Unemployment convert to an equity interest.
(d) Financing from central banks to the
Q20. Consider the following statements about respective governments in need.
the Marginal Cost of Funds Based Lending
Rate (MCLR): Q23. In the context of the economy, tax
expenditure refers to:
1. It is the minimum interest rate of a (a) the expenditure shown on corporate
bank below which it normally cannot balance sheet to avoid taxes.
lend. (b) the expenditure incurred by the
2. It is determined at regular intervals by Government in the collection of taxes.
the Reserve Bank of India. (c) the expenditure incurred by firms for
tax and administrative compliance.
Which of the statements given above (d) the opportunity cost of taxing at
is/are correct? concessional rates
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Q24. Loans to which of the following sectors
(c) Both 1 and 2 are eligible for consideration as loans
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 under Priority Sector Lending?
1. Education
Q21. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) 2. Renewable Energy
determines the policy interest rate 3. Housing
required to achieve the inflation target. In 4. Agriculture
this context, which of the following may Select the correct answer using the code
be recommended by the MPC to control given below.
deflation in the economy? (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
1. Increase in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
2. Increase in Bank rate (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. Decrease in Reverse Repo Rate

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Q25. Consider the following statements with Q28. Consider the following:
reference to Inflationary Gap: The domestic subsidies and support
measures that distort production and
1. It is the measure of the difference trade fall into this category. In agriculture,
between the current level of real GDP these subsidies, however, do not require
a n d t h e G D P of t h e e c o n o m y the farmers to limit their production.
operating at full employment level. Which of the following categories of
2. Inflationary gap is the result of a subsidies is being referred to in the above
deficiency in demand. passage?
(a) Amber Box
Which of the statements given above (b) Red Box
is/are correct? (c) Green Box
(a) 1 only (d) Blue Box
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Q29. Consider the following statements:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Gross Value Added at basic prices
excludes production taxes and include
Q26. Which of the following best defines production subsidies available on the
effective revenue deficit? commodity.
2. Gross Domestic Product at market
(a) Revenue deficit minus the interest prices includes both production and
payments product taxes and excludes both
(b) Revenue deficit minus the grants for production and product subsidies.
creation of capital assets. Which of the statements given above
(c) Revenue deficit minus expenditures is/are correct?
on salaries and pensions (a) 1 only
(d) Revenue deficit minus the external (b) 2 only
grants received. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q27. Consider the following types of receipts:
Q30. Consider the following statements about
1. Tax revenues the Regional Rural Banks:
2. Interest receipts on loans extended by 1. The largest share of its equity is held
Central Government by the state government.
3. Recoveries of loans granted by the 2. One of its objectives is to check the
Central Government outflow of rural deposits to urban
4. Loans received from abroad areas.
3. Its amount in agricultural credit
Which of the receipts given above come disbursement has been steadily
under the revenue receipts of the increasing since the last five years.
Government of India? Which of the statements given above
(a) 1 and 2 only is/are correct?
(b) 3 and 4 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q31. Which of the following does not attract a Q34. Consider the following statements:
Goods and Service Tax?
1. Solar Power 1. Product Taxes and Subsidies are
2. Milk independent of volume of production.
3. Print Media Advertisements
4. School Education 2. Production Taxes and Subsidies are
Select the correct answer using the code paid or received per unit or product.
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only Which of the statements given above
(b) 3 and 4 only is/are correct?
(c) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Q32. Pooja who is a Ph.D. scholar was working (d) Neither 1 nor 2
as an clerk in the government school. But
after working for six months, she realized
that this job is not suitable for her and she Q35. In the context of economics, what are
resigned from the job. Then, she filled Negative interest rates?
form for the post of assistant professor
whose exam is gonging to be conducted (a) It is an unconventional policy used by
next month. In the above passage, Pooja Central Bank to push up inflation rates
faced which types of unemployment? by reducing interest rates past zero.
1. Seasonal unemployment (b) N e g a t i v e i n t e r e s t r a t e s i s a n
2. Frictional unemployment unconventional policy used by Central
3. Underemployment Banks to attract foreign investors.
4. Structural unemployment (c) N e g a t i v e i n t e r e s t r a t e s i s a n
Select the correct answer using the code unconventional policy used by Central
given below. Banks to control high inflation rates.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) N e g a t i v e i n t e r e s t r a t e s i s a n
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only unconventional policy used by Central
(c) 2 and 3 only B a n k s to i n c re a s e t h e c o s t of
(d) 2 and 4 only borrowing.

Q33. Consider the following statements:

1. Wage rates for workers under the Q36. The situation experienced in an economy
MGNREGA are linked with Consumer when there is a sudden and temporary
Price Index- Rural Labourers (CPI-RL). increase in the prices of goods due to the
2. Consumer Price Index Numbers for steps being taken by the government to
Rural Labourers (CPI-RL) is published revive the economy from the recession is
by the Ministry of Rural Development. called
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? (a) Stagflation
(a) 1 only (b) Reflation
(b) 2 only © Skewflation
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Disinflation
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q37. Which of the following correctly Q40. The Statutory Liquidity Ratio which a
describes the phenomenon of Fiscal bank has to maintain is composed of
Drag? 1. Instalments as notified by the RBI
(a) Widening of government deficit due 2. Gold
to dependency on borrowings for 3. Treasury-Bills of the Government of
fueling economic growth. India
(b) Movement of taxpayers into higher tax 4. State Development Loans (SDLs)
brackets owing to inflation. issued by State Governments
(c) Lower purchasing power of domestic
currency due to higher dependency Select the correct answer using the code
on imports. given below.
(d) Loss of government revenue due to (a) 1 and 3 only
the emigration of people. (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q38. Consider the following statements with
reference to monetisation of deficit: Q41. In the recent COVID crisis, various steps
1. It involves financing of such extra have been taken to revive the economy.
expenses by borrowing money from Which of the following steps could lead to
the market. an increase in the burden on the state
2. It is a type of debt financing. exchequer in form of the fiscal deficit?
3. In India, it is currently not allowed. 1. Loan Moratorium
Which of the statements given above 2. Monetary support to poor people
is/are correct? 3. Investment in vaccine research
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code
(c) 3 only given below.
(d) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
Q39. Which of the following step(s) can be (d) 1, 2 and 3
taken by the government to reduce the
inflationary gap9 Q42. Which of the following measures should
1. Increasing the salaries of government be taken when an economy is witnessing
employees. inflationary pressures?
2. Enhancing the minimum support price 1. The interest rate can be decreased.
(MSP) of the notified agricultural 2. The direct taxes can be increased.
commodities. 3. The public spending can be reduced.
3. Issuing of new dated securities by the
government. Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
given below. (a) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
(d) 3 only

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Q43. A part of the labour force is either left Which of the following is best described in
without work or is working in a redundant the passage given above?
manner such that worker productivity is
essentially zero. This situation best (a) Ricardian equivalence
describes which of the following types of (b) Goodhart’s law
unemployment? © Okun's Law
(d) Grandfather clause
(a) Hidden unemployment
(b) Structural unemployment Q47. With reference to Ways and Means
(c) Cyclical unemployment Advances (WMA), consider the following
(d) Voluntary unemployment statements:

Q44. If the economy is booming, which of the 1. It is a facility for both the Centre and
following steps would amount to a states to borrow from the RBI, to
countercyclical approach to fiscal policy? balance temporary mismatches in
1. Reducing government spending cash flows.
2. Raising tax rates 2. Normal Ways and Means Advances
3. Increasing interest rates are provided at lower interest rate
than the repo rate.
Select the correct answer using the code 3. The interest levied for Special Drawing
given below. Facilities/Special WMA is equal to the
repo rate.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above
(c) 1 and 3 only is/are correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
Q45. Usual status unemployment is calculated (c) 2 and 3 only
with reference to a period of (d) 1, 2 and 3

(a) one year Q48. Which of the following taxes are

(b) six months subsumed within the Goods and Service
(c) one week Tax (GST)?
(d) one day
1. Central Excise Duty
Q46. A government cuts taxes and runs a 2. Stamp Duty
budget deficit in order to stimulate 3. Octroi Tax
consumer spending. However, consumer 4. Luxury Tax
responds to it by increasing savings
instead of spending more. The forward Select the correct answer using the code
looking approach of consumers is based given below.
on the fact that increased borrowings by (a) 1 and 2 only
the government will be repaid by taxes in (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
future. This will lead to a similar impact on (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
the economy as borrowing by the (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
government today.

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Q49. With reference to Goods and Services Tax Q52. Consider the following statements with
(GST), consider the following statements: reference to India's first Five Year Plan
1. It is a value added tax imposed at (FYP):
every stage of the production process.
2. It is a destination based tax. 1. The plan made huge allocations for
3. Integrated Goods and Service Tax large-scale irrigation projects.
(IGST) is levied and collected by the
state of consumption. 2. It focused on land reforms as the key
Which of the statements given above to the country’s development.
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above
(b) 1 and 2 only is/are correct?
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Q50. Which of the following provide official (c) Both 1 and 2
sources of data on unemployment in (d) Neither 1 nor 2
India?
1. D a t a o f N a t i o n a l S t a t i s t i c a l
Organisation (NSO)
2. D a t a b y D i r e c t o r G e n e r a l o f Q53. Consider the following statements
Employment and Training regarding the Current Account of Balance
3. Census of Indi of Payment:
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. 1. It represents the trade in goods,
(a) 1 and 2 only services and assets between residents
(b) 2 and 3 only of a country with the rest of the world
(c) 1, 2 and 3 for a specified time.
(d) 1 and 3 only
2. The Net Invisibles component of the
Q51. Consider the following statements current account includes services and
regarding Public Debt Management in transfer of income.
India:
1. Public Debt in India includes both 3. T h e B a l a n c e o f Tr a d e ( B O T )
Internal and External Debt incurred by component includes the difference in
the Central Government. value of exports and imports of goods
2. In India, Public Dent Management only.
Agency (PDMA) is the sole agency
responsible for managing public debt. Which of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above correct?
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1 and 3 only

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Q54. Securities Transaction Tax (STT), a type of Select the correct answer using the code
financial transaction tax in India, is levied given below.
on transactions of which of the following?
1. Commodity trading (a) 1 and 2 only
2. Gold exchange-traded funds (b) 2 and 3 only
3. Equity derivatives (c) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code (d) 1 and 3 only
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only Q58. Consider the following statements with
(d) 1, 2 and 3 reference to tax expenditure:

1. It is the expenditure incurred by the

Q55. With reference to the Second Five Year Government in the collection of taxes.
Plan, consider the following statements: 2. A statement of tax expenditure is
1. It is based on the Mahalanobis model presented to the Parliament at the
of economic development. time of Union Budget as a separate
2. Industry and mining sectors received budget document.
the highest percentage of resource
allocation during the plan period. Which of the statements given above
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q56. Which of the following committees was

constituted to review the implementation Q59. Consider the following statements:
of the FRBM (Fiscal Responsibility and
Budget Management) Act and give its 1. Capital Gains Tax is aimed at those
recommendations on the way forward? companies which show zero or
(a) Vijay Kelkar Committee negligible income to avoid tax.
(b) Rangachary Committee 2. Minimum Alternate Tax applies on the
(c) N. K. Singh Committee sale of all assets if a profit has been
(d) P. J. Nayak Committee made by the owner of the asset.

Which of the statements given above

Q57. Which of the following Central is/are correct?
government liabilities constitute the
Public Debt in India? (a) 1 only
1. Internal Debt (b) 2 only
2. External Debt (c) Both 1 and 2
3. Public Account Liabilities (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q60. With reference to direct and indirect Q63. Consider the following:
taxes in India, consider the following
statements: 1. Unemployment Allowance
1. The burden of direct taxes can be
shifted to another individual or entity. 2. Social Security payments
2. The redistribution function of the
government budget is achieved 3. Old age pension
through progressive income taxation.
3. Corporate Tax is a type of indirect tax. How many of the above are part of
Which of the statements given above transfer payments?
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 only (b) Only two
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) All three
(d) None (d) None

Q61. With reference to structural

unemployment, consider the following
statements:
1. U n e m p l o y m e n t c a u s e d b y Q64. With regards to the money supply in the
technological disruptions is known as e c o n o m y, c o n s i d e r t h e f o l l o w i n g
structural unemployment. statements:
2. Fourth Industrial Revolution can cause
structural unemployment if the Statement I: Money in the Savings
c u r re n t s k i l l s e t s a re re n d e re d account multiplies more than the money
obsolete. in the Bank locker.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? Statement-II: Money in the Savings
(a) 1 only account undergoes multiplication,
(b) 2 only whereas money in the Bank locker does
(c) Both 1 and 2 not.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which one of the following is correct in
Q62. Which of the following are the respect of the above statements?
components of Revenue expenditure of
the Government Budget? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
1. Interest payments correct, and Statement-II is the correct
2. Defence services explanation for Statement-I.
3. Subsidies (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
4. Investment in shares correct, but Statement-II is not the
Select the correct answer using the code correct explanation for Statement-I.
given below. (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
(a) 1 and 2 only II is incorrect.
(b) 3 and 4 only (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only Statement-II is correct.
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

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Q65. Consider the following statements: Q67. Which of the following is not correct
regarding Urban Co-operative Banks
Statement I: In an event of hyperinflation, (UCBs) in India?
the budgetary allocation towards various (a) UCBs have been categorized into
schemes is reduced. three tiers to strengthen the
regulatory framework.
Statement-II: Maintaining appropriate (b) UCBs have to extend 75% of their
levels of inflation is the goal of the advances to Priority Sector Lending.
Monetary Policy. (c) The urban cooperative banks are
under the direct supervision of the RBI.
Which one of the following is correct in (d) Most of the UCBs fail to operate
respect of the above statements? efficiently due to high cost-income
ratio.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, and Statement-II is the correct Q68. Consider the following statements:
explanation for Statement-I. Statement-I: The wealth tax was
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are abolished in India just before the 2007-
correct, but Statement-II is not the 2008 global financial crisis
correct explanation for Statement-I. Statement-II: The administrative costs
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement- incurred for recovering wealth tax were
II is incorrect. higher
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t Which one of the following is correct in
Statement-II is correct. respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, but Statement-II is not the
Q66. Which of the following is the correct correct explanation for Statement-I.
definition of “Bank Rate”? (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
II is incorrect.
(a) It is the minimum rate set by the (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
Reserve Bank of India below which Statement-II is correct.
banks are not allowed to lend to their
customers. Q69. When there is a decrease in the demand
(b) It is the rate of interest at which the of money, which of the following is the
central bank lends money to most likely consequence?
commercial banks. (a) The Reserve Bank of India will increase
(c) It is the rate of interest at which the the Statutory Liquidity Ratio.
central bank borrows money from (b) The Reserve Bank of India will increase
commercial banks. the Cash Reserve Ratio.
(d) It is a window for banks to borrow (c) The Reserve Bank of India will lower
from the Reserve Bank of India in an the Bank Rate.
emergency when inter-bank liquidity (d) The Reserve Bank of India will increase
dries up completely. Repo Rate.

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Q70. Which of the following best describes Q73. Consider the following:
Pigovian Tax? 1. Cash Management Bills
2. Repayment of loan by the Bhutanese
(a) It is a tax to discourage negative government to the Government of
production externalities. India
(b) It is a temporary tax on tax to fulfil a 3. Disinvestment proceeds from the
social cause. Central Public Sector Enterprises
(c) Tax levied on imported goods which (CPSEs)
distort the domestic market. Which of the items given above is part of
(d) It is a tax levied upon digital assets the debt capital receipt of the
legally recognised in India. Government of India?
(a) 1 and 2 only
Q71. Consider the following measures: (b) 1 and 3 only
1. Giving a fiscal stimulus package to (c) 2 and 3 only
boost the economy (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Higher tax revenue collected during
an economic boom due to progressive Q74. Consider the following statements
taxation regarding functions of RBI in India:
3. Launching infrastructure projects to 1. Only RBI can issue currency notes.
create jobs 2. RBI carries out sale and purchase of
4. Increasing taxes to curb inflation treasury bills of state as well as central
government.
How many of the measures given above 3. RBI manages the Foreign Exchange
are examples of discretionary fiscal Management Act, 1999.
policy? Which of the statement(s) given above
(a) Only one is/are correct?
(b) Only two (a) 1 and 3 only
(c) Only three (b) 2 only
(d) All four (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q72. Which of the following statements best
describes the term 'skimpflation'? Q75. Consider the following statements
regarding public debt in India:
(a) It is a type of inflation because of the 1. The internal debt of the Union
rising wages of the labourers. Government has steadily increased in
(b) It is a situation where the quality of the last five years.
goods or services is reduced while the 2. The total external debt has steadily
price remains the same. decreased in the last five years.
(c) It is a unique situation in the economy Which of the statements given above
in which inflation exists alongside is/are correct?
unemployment. (a) 1 only
(d) It is the gradual reduction in the rate of (b) 2 only
inflation even when the prices of (c) Both 1 and 2
consumer goods are higher than (d) Neither 1 nor 2
normal.

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Q76. Which of the following statements is not How many of the above statements are
correct? correct?
(a) NDP= GDP- Depreciation
(b) GDP at Market Price=GDP at Factor (a) Only one
Cost−Indirect Taxes+ Subsidies (b) Only two
(c) NNP at Factor Cost=GNP at Factor (c) Only three
Cost−Depreciation (d) All four
(d) NNP at Market Price=NNP at Factor
Cost+ Indirect Taxes−Subsidies

Q77. Consider the following statements Q80. Consider the following statements with
regarding progressive taxation: reference to Gender Budgeting in India:
1. It is a tax that takes a larger percentage
of income from high-income groups 1. It refers to the practice of allocating
than from low-income groups. the highest funds to the Ministry of
2. It helps in reducing inequalities of Women and Child Development.
income and wealth. 2. Gender Budget Statement was first
Which of the statements given above introduced in Budget 2005-06.
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above
(b) 2 only is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Q78. Consider the following taxes: (c) Both 1 and 2
1. Excise duty on petroleum (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Custom duty
3. Stamp Duty
Which of the taxes given above are
examples of regressive tax? Q81. Consider the following statements about
(a) 2 and 3 only the tax-to-GDP ratio:
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 only 1. The direct tax-to-GDP ratio in India
(d) 1 and 3 only surpassed 10% for the fiscal year 2024.
2. Developed nations have a lower tax-
Q79. Consider the following statements about to-GDP ratio, while that of developing
the Liquidity Adjustment Facility: nations tend to be higher.
1. It is a monetary policy tool used by the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Which of the statements given above
2. It allows banks to borrow money from is/are correct?
the RBI or lend money to the RBI.
3. It focuses on long-term exchanges of (a) 1 only
money. (b) 2 only
4. This facility does not require any (c) Both 1 and 2
collateral. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q82. The Basel III Accord sets standards upon Q85. Consider the following statements :
which of the following? Statement-I : The central government's
1. Leverage rate fiscal deficit has reduced from 6.4% of
2. Capital Adequacy Ratio GDP in 2022-23 to 5.6% in 2023-24.
3. Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) Statement-II : In 2023-24, the central
4. Net Stable Fund Rate government witnessed strong growth in
direct and indirect tax collections and
Select the correct answer using the code restrained revenue expenditure.
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only Which one of the following is correct in
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only respect of the above statements ?
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
Q83. Consider the following statements: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
1. Tax avoidance involves legally using correct, but Statement-II is not the
loopholes or provisions in the tax laws correct explanation for Statement-I.
to reduce one's tax liabilities (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
2. Tax avoidance in India is illegal unlike II is incorrect.
tax evasion which is legal. (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
Statement-II is correct.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only Q86. Consider the following statements with
(b) 2 only reference to the ‘Financial Stability and
(c) Both 1 and 2 Development Council’:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. The council was set up by the
Government as an organ of NITI
Aayog.
Q84. With respect to Monetary Aggregates, 2. The Chairman of the Council is the
consider the following statements : finance minister, and its members
1. Reserve money will decrease if there is include the heads of financial sector
more currency in circulation. regulators.
2. Broad money includes borrowings 3. The council focusses on financial
f ro m N o n - d e p o s i to r y fi n a n c i a l literacy and financial inclusion among
corporations by the banking system. other areas.

Which of the statements given above Which of the statements given above is/
is/are correct ? are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 3 Only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q87. Which of the following options correctly How many of the statements given above
explains the term “Capital Deepening?” is/are correct ?
(a) It defines a trickledown effect of
capital investment in an economy. (a) Only one
(b) It is a situation where capital (b) Only two
investment is reduced. (c) All three
(c) It is the situation where capital stock is (d) None
increasing at the same rate as the
labour force.
(d) It is the situation where capital per
labour is increasing in the economy. Q91. Consider the following statements :

Q88. With reference to the Indian economy, 1. Issuance of special securities to

consider the following statements : public-sector banks
1. Rising interest rates typically cause 2. Securities against small savings
downward pressure on stock prices. 3. State provident funds
2. A stock market crash can result in a
bear market. How many of those mentioned above are
3. A fall in the stock market might cause a Debt-creating capital receipts?
recession.
How many of the statements given above (a) Only one
is/are correct ? (b) Only two
(a) Only one (c) All three
(b) Only two (d) None
(c) All three
(d) None

Q89. Which of the following is the possible Q92. With reference to the Goods and Services
cause of negative growth in an economy ? Tax (GST), consider the following
(a) Increase in labour force and human statements :
capital
(b) Contraction of money supply 1. It reduces the cascading effect of taxes
(c) Lower unemployment 2. It aims to add to end-consumer tax
(d) Increase in the company's sales or burden
earnings 3. It promotes transparency in the tax
system
Q90. Consider the following statements with 4. It follows a 4-tier tax structure.
r e s p e c t t o t h e M o n e t a r y Po l i c y
Committee (MPC): How many of the above statements is/are
1. It is a six-member body constituted by correct ?
the Governor of the Reserve Bank of
India. (a) Only one
2. The MPC establishes the policy repo (b) Only two
rate to meet the inflation target. (c) Only three
3. The MPC is required to meet at least (d) All four
four times a year.

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Q93. Consider the following statements : Q95. Which of the following could be reasons
1. The change in tax revenue relative to for demand-pull inflation ?
gros s dom es tic product is tax 1. Increase in people’s income
elasticity, while the change in tax 2. Increase in cost of inputs
revenue relative to the change in the 3. Decrease in money supply
tax rate is tax buoyancy. 4. Change in people’s preferences
2. A high tax elasticity is favourable for
the economy as it allows growth in How many of the above statements is/are
expenditure that could lead to not correct ?
development. (a) Only one
(b) Only two
Which of the statements given above (c) Only three
is/are correct ? (d) All four
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Q96. Consider the following statements with
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 respect to velocity of money :
1. It measures the amount of money the
Q94. Consider the following information : banks create with a given amount of
reserves.
2. It is higher in expanding economies
Receipt Type of and lower in contracting economies.
Receipt
Which of the statements given above
1. Treasury bills Debt-creating is/are correct ?
issued to banks capital receipt (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
2. Interest receipts Non-debt (c) Both 1 and 2
from loans creating capital (d) Neither 1 nor 2
to state receipt
governments
Q97. Consider the following :
3. Income tax Tax revenue 1. Quantitative easing
receipt 2. Reduction in interest rates of bank
3. Increase in Cash Reserve Ratio
4. Disinvestment Debt-creating 4. Increased lending by banks
receipts capital receipt 5. Increased foreign investments

How many of the actions mentioned

Which of the pairs given above are not above can lead to increased money
correctly matched ? supply in the economy ?
(a) 2 and 4 only (a) Only two
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) Only three
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Only four
(d) 1 and 3 only (d) All five

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Q98. Which of the following statements is not Q100. Consider the following statements :
correct regarding Capital Adequacy Ratio 1. Currency with the public
(CAR) ? 2. Current deposits with the banking
system
(a) Capital Adequacy Ratio is the ratio of a 3. Term deposits with the banking
bank’s capital to its risk-weighted system
assets. 4. Other deposits with the RBI
(b) Risk-weighted assets determine the Which of those mentioned above are
minimum capital held by banks and included in calculating the Narrow Money
other institutions to reduce the risk of (M1) ?
insolvency. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) The lower a bank's Capital Adequacy (b) 1 and 2 only
Ratio, the more likely the bank will be (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
able to withstand a financial (d) 2 and 4 only
downturn.
(d) In India, the Reserve Bank of India
mandates a Capital Adequacy Ratio
for scheduled commercial banks.

Q99. In the context of Indian economy,

consider the following statements :

1. A non-performing asset is a loan or

advance for which the principal or
interest payment has been overdue for
more than 90 days.

2. Bank recapitalization infuses more

capital into banks that helps to resolve
the issue with non-performing assets.

Which of the above statements is/are

correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 | Navigator | Economy Test - I

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
ECONOMY
TEST - I

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO,
GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fi ll in the Roll Number carefully without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will
render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in
some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certifi cate.
8. After you have completed fi lling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers
happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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 | Navigator | Economy Test - I
Q1. With reference to the Marginal Standing Q3. Consider the following statements
Facility (MSF) and Statutory Liquidity regarding Currency Deposit Ratio (CDR):
Ratio (SLR), consider the following
statements: 1. It is the ratio of money held by the
public in currency to that they hold in
1. MSF refers to the rate at which the bank deposits.
scheduled banks can borrow funds 2. It reflects people’s preference for
overnight from RBI against liquidity.
government securities.
2. SLR is a tool for controlling liquidity in Which of the statements given above
the domestic market via manipulating is/are correct?
bank credit.
3. MSF is always fixed above the repo (a) 1 only
rate. (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above (d) Neither 1 nor 2
is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Q4. While calculating the Gross Domestic

Product (GDP) by expenditure method,
which of the following factors are taken
Q2. If the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) increases into account?
the bank rate, what effects it could
possibly have on the Indian economy? 1. F i n a l h o u s e h o l d c o n s u m p t i o n
expenditure
1. Loan taken by the commercial banks 2. Expenditure on intermediate goods
becomes cheaper. 3. Final capital expenditure
2. It decreases the money supply in the 4. G o v e r n m e n t e x p e n d i t u r e o n
economy. unemployment allowance

Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below. given below.

(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

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Q5. With reference to World Bank Group, Q7. With reference to the Cash Reserve Ratio
consider the following pairs: (CRR), consider the following statements:
1. It is a percentage of deposits which a
Institutions Objectives commercial bank must keep with itself
in reserves.
1. International Reduce poverty by 2. Non-Bank Financial Corporations
Finance providing zero (NBFCs) are outside the purview of this
Corporation to low-interest reserve requirement.
loans.
Which of the statements given above
2. International Encourage growth is/are correct?
Development of the private (a) 1 only
Association sector in developing (b) 2 only
countries. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Multilateral Promote foreign
Investment direct investment
Guarantee into developing Q8. With reference to the GDP Deflator,
Agency countries. consider the following statements:
1. It is the ratio of the nominal GDP to the
Which of the pairs given above is/are real GDP.
correctly matched? 2. The weights of goods used in
(a) 1 only calculating GDP deflator differ
(b) 2 and 3 only according to their production level.
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
Q6. Which of the following statements about (a) 1 only
the calculation of Gross Domestic Product (b) 2 only
(GDP), is not correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) The GDP measures the aggregate (d) Neither 1 nor 2
production of final goods and services
taking place within the domestic
territory. Q9. A rise in the price of foreign exchange (a
(b) It does not take into account the fall in the value of rupee) would likely
aggregate production of final goods result in which one of the following?
and services produced by foreign
national within the domestic territory. (a) Decrease the cost (in terms of rupees)
(c) I n G D P c a l c u l a t i o n , n e g a t i v e of purchasing a foreign good.
externalities are not taken into (b) Increase the cost (in terms of rupees)
account. of purchasing a foreign good.
(d) In GDP calculation, the aggregate (c) Decrease in India’s exports with other
production of final goods produced by things remaining constant.
Indian citizen in the foreign territory is (d) Both (b) and ©
not included

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Q10. With reference to Consumer Price Index Q14. Consider the following statements with
(CPI), consider the following statements: reference to Priority Sector Lending (PSL)
1. The CPI takes into account the prices norms:
of goods only. 1. Under the norms, small finance banks
2. It includes the prices of imported must allocate 75 percent of Adjusted
goods. Net Bank Credit (ANBC) to the priority
Which of the statements given above sectors.
is/are correct? 2. MSME credit and export credit are
(a) 1 only included under the category of PSL.
(b) 2 only 3. The provisions of priority sector
(c) Both 1 and 2 lending shall not apply to foreign
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 banks.

Q11. Which one of the following best Which of the statements given above are
describes the term 'money multiplier'? correct?
(a) It is the demand for money for (a) 1 and 2 only
carrying out transactions. (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) It is the ratio of total money supply to (c) 1 and 3 only
the stock of high powered money in an (d) 1, 2 and 3
economy.
(c) It is the fraction of the total deposits
which commercial banks keep as Q15. Consider the following statements:
reserves. 1. India's GDP in terms of Purchasing
(d) It is the demand for money as a store Power Parity (PPP) is more than its
of wealth. nominal GDP.
2. Recently, India became the fifth-
Q12. Often seen in the news, Strait of Malacca largest economy in the world in terms
connects of PPP.
(a) Red Sea and Arabian Sea.
(b) Andaman Sea and South China Sea. Which of the statements given above
(c) South China Sea and East China Sea. is/are correct?
(d) Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea. (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Q13. Consider the following statements (c) Both 1 and 2
regarding the Neobanks: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. They are the fintech firms, with only a
digital presence.
2. They do not have a bank license of Q16. Which of the following funds invest
their own. exclusively in government securities?
3. They offer debit cards.
Which of the statements given above (a) Index Funds
is/are correct? (b) Open-ended Fund
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Equity Oriented Scheme
(b) 2 only (d) Gilt Funds
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q17. Consider the following statements: Q20. Consider the following statements:
1. Money multiplier increases with 1. Written-off loans are still counted as
increase in Cash Reserve Ratio. assets as the borrowers are still liable
2. Since demonetisation in 2016, for repayment.
currency held with public has steadily 2. The tax liability of a bank reduces if it
decreased. writes off a loan.
3. Private sector banks accounts for more
Which of the statements given above than 50% of the total banking sector
is/are correct? write-offs in India.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above are
(b) 2 only NOT correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
Q18. As a banker of banks, how does the (d) 1, 2 and 3
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) assist banks?
1. By opening current accounts of
individual banks in e-Kuber Q21. Which of the following is not correct with
2. By providing short term loans respect to Phillips Curve?
3. By acting as a lender of last resort (a) A higher unemployment rate is
associated with lower inflation.
Select the correct answer using code (b) A higher unemployment rate is
given below. associated with higher inflation.
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) A lower unemployment rate is
(b) 2 and 3 only associated with higher inflation.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) High levels of employment can be
(d) 1, 2 and 3 achieved at high levels of inflation.

Q19. In the context of government financing,

the term helicopter drop is best defined Q22. With reference to banking operations,
as: which of the following best defines the
term “Fractional Reserve Banking”?
(a) the recovery of unpaid taxes from tax (a) A system where the government
havens and using the same for shares the responsibility of inflation
government expenses. targeting with the central bank.
(b) the abrupt increase in government (b) A system in which banks hold a
subsidies to give a boost to ailing portion of customer deposits and use
sectors in an economy. the rest in loans to other customers.
(c) a monetary stimulus strategy to spur (c) A new age supervisory method to
inflation and economic output. tackle blockchain based transactions
(d) a situation in which the revenue outside of the traditional banking
income of a government in a given system
financial year is more than the (d) A system of banking where banks do
estimated amount. not lend demand deposits and
instead, only lend from time deposits.

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Q23. Consider the following statements with Q26. With reference to the Small Industries
reference to legal tender: Development Bank of India (SIDBI),
1. One rupee coin shall be legal tender consider the following statements:
for any sum not exceeding one
thousand rupees. 1. The primary function of the Small
2. Cheques drawn on savings or current Industries Development Bank of India
accounts are not legal tenders. (SIDBI) is to provide finance to small
and medium enterprises.
Which of the statements given above 2. SIDBI provides credit support for skill
is/are correct? development and technology
(a) 1 only modernisation.
(b) 2 only 3. RBI is the largest shareholder of SIDBI.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above are
correct?
Q24. In the context of National Income
Accounting, consider the following (a) 1 and 2 only
statements regarding private income: (b) 2 and 3 only
1. Private income refers to total factor (c) 1 and 3 only
income earned exclusively within the (d) 1, 2 and 3
domestic territory.
2. Like National Income, private income
excludes transfer payments.
Q27. Consider the following statements with
Which of the statements given above reference to the Basel norms:
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only 1. These are international banking
(b) 2 only regulations issued by Basel
(c) Both 1 and 2 Committee on Banking Supervision
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (BCBS).
2. Under the norms, Tier 2 capital is more
Q25. Which of the following are the likely liquid and considered more secure
impacts of inflation on the Indian than Tier 1 capital.
economy? 3. Basel III norms prescribe the capital
1. Increase in fiscal deficit conser vation buffer and the
2. Recession in some sectors countercyclical capital buffer to
3. Increase in current account deficit mitigate systemic risk.
4. Appreciation of Indian currency
Which of the following statements above
Select the correct answer using the code are correct?
given below.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q28. With reference to Regional Rural Banks Q30. Which of the following statements
(RRBs) in India, consider the following correctly explains the term 'stagflation'?
statements:
(a) It occurs when the price of the
1. They are owned by the central commodities remain stagnant over a
government and the concerned state period of one year.
government with a 50:50 proportion
in shareholding. (b) It occurs when wages press prices up
2. They have been created with a view of and prices pull wages up.
serving primarily the rural areas of
India with basic banking and financial (c) It is a situation in an economy when
services. inflation is caused due to full
3. The target of priority sector lending employment.
norms applicable to RRBs is higher
than that of commercial banks. (d) It is a scenario of combination of high
inflation and low growth.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q31. Consider the following statements

regarding call money and notice money:
Q29. Consider the following statements
regarding banking system liquidity: 1. Under the notice money market, funds
are transacted on an overnight basis.
1. If the banking system is a net lender to
the RBI, the system liquidity can be 2. The Reserve Bank of India decides the
said to be in surplus. interest rates in the call money
2. A festival season can create a liquidity markets.
deficit in the banking system.
3. A widening liquidity deficit can lead to Which of the statements given above
higher interest rates for depositors. is/are correct?

Which of the statements given above (a) 1 only

is/are correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q32. With reference to inflation targeting Select the correct answer using the code
responsibility of the RBI, consider the given below.
following statements: (a) 1 and 3 only
1. The RBI in consultation with the (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
government decides the inflation (c) 1 only
target in terms of the Consumer Price (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Index.
2. If average inflation remains higher
than the upper tolerance level for two
consecutive quarters, it constitutes a
failure to achieve the inflation target. Q35. It is an economic situation, in which, there
3. The Inflation target and tolerance is a temporary slowing of the pace of price
band have to be reviewed every five inflation. It is used to describe instances
years. when the inflation rate has reduced
Which of the statements given above marginally over the short term.
is/are correct?
(a) 2 only Which form of economic situation is being
(b) 3 only described in the above passage?
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only (a) Stagflation
(b) Disinflation
Q33. With reference to India's Gross National © Deflation
Product (GNP), which of the following (d) Structural Inflation
statements is correct?
(a) It is the total value of finished goods
and services produced by a country's
citizens minus depreciation.
(b) Income earned by Indian citizens from Q36. Which of the following could lead to an
outside the country is excluded from increase in the savings rate in an
the GNP economy?
(c) GNP includes the income earned by
foreign residents within the country. 1. High inflation
(d) India's GNP is lower than its Gross
Domestic Product. 2. Low-interest rates

Q34. Which of the following components 3. Rise in household income

forms part of Reserve Money (M0) in
India? Select the correct answer using the code
1. Balances in the accounts of foreign given below.
Central banks and Governments
2. Bankers’ deposits with the RBI (a) 1 and 2 only
3. Accounts of international agencies (b) 2 and 3 only
such as the International Monetary (c) 3 only
Fund (d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Net RBI credit to the Government

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Q37. RBI recently increased the repo rate 1. Machinery and equipment
aggressively to counter the increasing 2. Livestock
inflation. Which of the following could be 3. Semi-manufactured goods
its possible impact on Indian economy? 4. Defence equipment
1. Slump in Indian stock market
2. Increase in the short-term bond yield Select the correct answer using the code
3. Decrease in the long-term bond yield given below.
4. Outflow of funds from equities
towards a less risky debt instrument (a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 2 and 4 only
given below. (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Q41. Consider the following statements with
Q38. Which of the following situations can reference to the Incremental Capital
lead to demand-pull inflation in an Output Ratio (ICOR):
economy?
1. Changing consumption patterns 1. It explains the relationship between
2. Increase in administered prices the level of investment made in the
3. Government providing tax rebates economy and the consequent
4. An increase in black money increase in GDP.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. ICOR of the Indian economy has
given below. increased over the last decade.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only Which of the statements given above
(c) 1 and 2 only is/are correct?
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 only
Q39. Consider the following statements: (b) 2 only
1. All indirect taxes are regressive in (c) Both 1 and 2
nature. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. All direct taxes are progressive in
nature.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? Q42. The dearness allowance of Government
(a) 1 only employees and wage contracts between
(b) 2 only labour and employer are based on
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Wholesale Price Index
(b) Consumer Price Index
Q40. In the context of the Indian economy, (c) Producers Price Index
which of the following are included in the (d) Consumer Food Price Index
Gross Capital Formation (GCF)?

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Q43. With reference to the functions of Q45. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at market
departments under the Ministry of price is obtained from Gross value added
Finance, consider the following pairs: (GVA) at basic prices by

Nodal Department Function (a) addition of product taxes and

deduction of product subsidies.
1. Department International (b) deduction of production taxes and
of Expenditure Banking Relation addition of production subsidies.
(c) addition of production taxes and
2. Department of Strategic deduction of production subsides.
Investment and Disinvestment (d) addition of total taxes and deduction
Public Asset of total subsidies.
Management
Q46. Which of the following are considered as
3. Department of Overseeing the investment expenditures in an economy?
Financial Services Public financial
management 1. Production of fixed capital assets
system 2. Production of consumer goods and
services
4. Department of Maintains the 3. Purchase of shares
Economic Affairs cadre of the 4. Production of inventory
Indian Economic
Service Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
How many pairs given above are correctly (a) 1 and 3 only
matched? (b) 2 and 4 only
(a) Only one pair (c) 1 and 4 only
(b) Only two pairs (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs Q47. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Reserve Bank of India:
Q44. With reference to State Development
Loans (SDLs), consider the following 1. Its affairs are governed by a central
statements: board of directors appointed under
1. They can be used as collateral under Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
Statutor y Liquidity Ratio (SLR) 2. The central board of directors consists
securities. of government officials too.
2. Their maturity cannot exceed one year.
3. They are traded in the capital markets Which of the statements given above
like BSE/NSE. is/are NOT correct?
Which of the statements given above are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q48. Consider the following statements with Q51. In the context of national income
respect to Headline Inflation: accounting, which of the following is/are
1. It is the measure of total inflation considered as stock variables?
within an economy. 1. GDP of a country
2. It is less volatile than core inflation. 2. Money supply in an economy
Which of the statements given above 3. External debt of a country
is/are correct? 4. Investments in an economy
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 only given below.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Q49. With reference to the National Bank for
Agriculture and Rural Development Q52. Which of the following are NOT included
(NABARD), consider the following in the estimation of the country's GDP?
statements: 1. Transfer payments
1. It manages Rural Infrastructure and 2. Intermediate goods
Development Fund (RIDF) and Rural 3. Purchase of shares in the secondary
Innovation Fund (RIF). market
2. It provides supervision and guidance 4. Imputed rents of self-occupied houses
to Regional Rural Banks to help them Select the correct answer using the code
achieve their objectives. given below.
3. It is fully owned by the Reserve Bank of (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
India. (b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above are (c) 1 and 4 only
correct? (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only Q53. Consider the following statements
(c) 1 and 3 only re g a rd i n g N o n - B a n k i n g F i n a n c i a l
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Companies (NBFCs):
1. All NBFCs do not need to register with
the RBI.
Q50. Consider the following statements 2. They can accept public deposits for a
regarding potential GDP: maximum period of 10 years.
1. It is the level of output that an 3. The deposit insurance facility of
economy can produce at a constant Deposit Insurance and Credit
inflation rate. Guarantee Corporation is available to
2. If the potential GDP exceeds the real depositors of NBFCs.
GDP then inflation is likely to follow. Which of the statements given above
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
is/are correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q54. Consider the following statements: Q57. Which of the following are functions of
1. All goods and services purchased for the Central Bank (RBI) in the Indian
final consumption are considered as economy?
final products.
2. All products purchased by production 1. It issues the currency of the country.
units in an economy are considered as
intermediate products. 2. It controls the money supply of the
Which of the statements given above country.
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only 3. It is the custodian of the foreign
(b) 2 only exchange reserves of the economy.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. It acts as a bank to the banking system
in the economy.
Q55. Consider the following statements
regarding the Indian Agriculture sector Select the correct answer using the code
since the 1991 reforms: given below.
1. Percentage share of public investment
in the agriculture sector has increased (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
steadily. (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
2. T h e r e h a s b e e n a s h i f t f r o m (c) 2 and 4 only
production for the domestic market (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
towards production for the export
market.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? Q58. Consider the following statements
(a) 1 only regarding the open market operations
(b) 2 only done by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. It refers to buying and selling of the
bonds issued by the Government in
Q56. Which of the following can be regarded the open market.
as the quantitative tools of the Reserve
Bank of India, to control money supply in 2. Purchase of government securities
the economy? from the bond market by the RBI,
1. Changing the cash reserve ratio increases the high powered money in
2. Open Market Operations the economy.
3. Moral suasion
4. Changing the Bank Rate Which of the statements given above
Select the correct answer using the code is/are correct?
given below.
(a) 1 and 4 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q59. With reference to Inflation-Indexed Q62. Consider the following statements
Bonds, Consider the following regarding the Small Finance Banks in
statements: India:
1. The Inflation-Indexed Bonds provide
protection only to principal and not to 1. They are registered as public limited
interest payments. companies under the Companies Act,
2. Inflation-Indexed Bonds are treated as 2013.
G-Secs and are thus eligible to be kept
as part of the Statutory Liquidity Ratio 2. They accept deposits and lend to
requirements of banks. unserved and underserved sections.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? 3. Like commercial banks, these banks
(a) 1 only have to maintain both Cash Reserve
(b) 2 only Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity
(c) Both 1 and 2 Ratio (SLR).
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
Q60. With reference to the National
Disposable Income, consider the (a) 1 and 2 only
following statements: (b) 1 and 3 only
1. It comprises Net National Product at (c) 2 and 3 only
market price and net other current (d) 1, 2 and 3
transfers from the rest of the world.
2. It gives an idea about the maximum
amount of goods and services that the
domestic economy has at its disposal.
Which of the statements given above Q63. In the context of core inflation, consider
is/are correct? the following statements:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 1. It takes into account changes in the
(c) Both 1 and 2 price of food and energy.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. When core inflation rises, the Reserve
Bank of India (RBI) increases its key
Q61. Which of the following is NOT correct policy rates to suck excess liquidity
regarding human capital? from the market;
(a) Human capital is intangible and
cannot be easily sold in the market. Which of the statements given above
(b) Unlike physical capital, human capital is/are correct?
does not depreciate with time.
(c) Human capital benefits not only the (a) 1 only
owner but also the society in general. (b) 2 only
(d) Human capital is not perfectly mobile (c) Both 1 and 2
between countries. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q64. With reference to depreciation, consider Q67. In order to calculate Personal Income (PI),
the following statements: which of the following is required to be
1. Depreciation is an annual allowance subtracted from the National Income
for wear and tear of a capital good. (NI)?
2. Depreciation does not take into 1. Undistributed Profit
account unexpected destruction of 2. Net interest payments made by
capital goods. households
Which of the statements given above 3. Corporate tax
is/are correct? 4. Transfer payment to the household
(a) 1 only from the government and firms
(b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
(c) Both 1 and 2 given below.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q65. Which of the following is/are considered (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
as assets of a commercial bank? (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
1. Reserves of commercial banks with the
Central Bank Q68. With reference to the term ‘spread’ in
2. D e p o s i t s o f p e o p l e w i t h t h e banking system, which one of the
commercial bank following statements is correct?
3. Loans given to the public by the (a) It is the rate charged by the central
commercial bank bank for lending funds to commercial
Select the correct answer using the code banks.
given below. (b) It is the rate at which the central bank
(a) 1 and 2 only of a countr y lends money to
(b) 2 only commercial banks in the event of any
(c) 1 and 3 only shortfall of funds.
(d) 2 and 3 only (c) It is the difference between the
interest rates of borrowers and
Q66. With reference to the Monetary Policy depositors in a bank.
Committee (MPC), consider the following (d) It is a specified minimum fraction of
statements: the total deposits of customers, which
1. The committee was set up with the commercial banks have to hold as
responsibility for price stability and reserves with the central bank.
inflation targeting.
2. Its meetings are chaired by the Q69. With reference to the factor cost,
Finance Minister. consider the following statements:
3. The committee is constituted under 1. Factor cost includes the payments to
the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. the factors of production only.
Which of the statements given above are 2. Factor cost does not include any tax.
correct? Which of the statements given above
(a) 1 and 2 only is/are not correct?
(b) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q70. Increase in absolute and per capita real Q73. Consider the following statements:
GNP do not connote a higher level of
economicdevelopment, if: (2018) 1. Output at current prices reflects the
real growth in the production of goods
(a) industrial output fails to keep pace and services in the economy.
with agricultural output.
(b) agricultural output fails to keep pace 2. The ratio of output at current prices to
with industrial output. output at constant prices for a given
(c) poverty and unemployment increase. period reflects the inflation in the
(d) imports grow faster than exports economy.

Which of the statements given above

Q71. How many of the following goods are is/are correct?
'capital goods'?
(a) 1 only
1. Microwave in the kitchen (b) 2 only
2. Clothes for final use (c) Both 1 and 2
3. A machine in the factory (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Car for personal use

Select the correct answer using the code

given below:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Q74. Consider the following statements
(c) Only three regarding National Asset Reconstruction
(d) All four Company Limited (NARCL):

1. It is an Asset Reconstruction Company

Q72. With reference to Net National Product registered under the Securitisation
(NNP), consider the following statements: and Reconstruction of Financial Assets
and Enforcement of Security Interest
1. NNP is always lower than Net Act, 2002.
Domestic Product (NDP).
2. The relationship between a nation’s 2. The India Debt Resolution Company
Gross National Product (GNP) and Ltd. (IDRCL) serves as the resolution
NNP is similar to the relationship agent of NARCL.
between its Gross Domestic Product
(GDP) and Net Domestic Product Which of the statements given above
(NDP). is/are correct?

Which of the statements given above (a) 1 only

is/are correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q75. Which of the following is likely to reduce Q78. Consider the following statements
the effectiveness of a contractionary regarding the Reserve Bank of India Retail
monetary policy followed by the Central Direct Scheme:
Bank?
1. Presence of vibrant organized credit 1. I t f a c i l i t a t e s i n v e s t m e n t i n
market. Government Securities by Individual
2. The reduced propensity of end-users Investor.
to borrow at higher rates. 2. Under this scheme, investors can open
3. Availability of refinancing from the a Gilt Securities Account with the
Central bank at concessional rates. Reserve Bank of India.

Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above
given below: is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q76. With reference to the differences

between Cr yptocurrency and Fiat Q79. How many of the following events may
c u r re n c y, c o n s i d e r t h e f o l l o w i n g lead to the expansion of Currency in
statements: Circulation (CIC) in the Indian Economy?
1. Fiat currency can be maintained both
in physical and digital form while 1. Festivals
cryptocurrency can be held only in 2. Lockdown due to pandemic
digital form. 3. Deficit monetization by Reserve Bank
2. Fiat currencies tend to have a limited of India
supply while the supply of
cryptocurrencies is always unlimited. Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
Which of the statements given above (a) Only one
is/are not correct? (b) Only two
(a) 1 only (c) All three
(b) 2 only (d) None
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q80. Which one of the following factors can
Q77. Which of the following is not included in contribute to an improved monetary
the liability side of a Reserve Bank of transmission in India?
India?
(a) A high share of long term deposits
(a) Gold Coin and Bullion (b) A weak balance sheet of banks
(b) Currency Notes issued (c) Linking retail loans to an external
(c) Contingency Fund benchmark
(d) Investment Revaluation Account (d) None of the above

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Q81. Which of the following statements is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct with reference to the impact of the given below:
interest rates on the bond market in India?
(a) Only one
1. An increase in interest rates results in (b) Only two
an increase in Bond prices. (c) All three
2. A decrease in interest rates results in a (d) None
decrease in Bond yield.

Select the correct answer using the code Q84. Which among the following is/are
given below: possible outcomes of taking an
(a) 1 only Accommodative Monetary Policy stance?
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. Re d u c e d m o n e y s u p p l y i n t h e
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 economy
2. Low interest rates
Q82. With reference to the banking sector of 3. Decline of the price level of goods and
India consider the following statement: services

1. Scheduled Bank, listed in the 2nd Select the correct answer using the code
schedule of the Reserve Bank of India given below:
Act, 1934 are not required to deposit
Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) with Reserve (a) 1 and 2 only
Bank of India (RBI). (b) 2 only
2. The Private sector banks in India are (c) 1 and 3 only
regulated by both the RBI and the (d) 1, 2 and 3
department of financial services under
the Ministry of Finance.
3. Co-operative banks in India are Q85. Consider the following statements:
r e g u l a t e d b y t h e Re g i s t r a r of
Cooperative Societies and RBI. Non-performing assets (NPAs) decline in
value when
Which of the statements given above
is/are not correct? 1. Demand revives in the economy.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Capacity utilization increases.
(b) 2 and 3 only 3. Capacity utilization decreases.
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
Q83. How many of the following are the
functions of the Reserve Bank of India? (a) 1 and 2 only
1. Custodian and manager of foreign (b) 2 and 3 only
exchange (c) 1 and 3 only
2. Granting licences to the banks (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Rationing of credit

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Q86. The farmers are provided credit from a Which of the statements given above
number of sources for their short and is/are correct?
long-term needs. The main sources of
credit to the farmers include (UPSC 1999. (a) 1 only
Booklet Q15) (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) the Primary Agricultural Cooperative (c) 1 and 3 only
Societies, commercial banks, RRBs and (d) 1, 2 and 3
private moneylenders
(b) the NABARD, RBI, commercial banks Q89. With reference to the National Urban
and private moneylenders Cooperative Finance and Development
(c) the District Central Cooperative Banks Corporation (NUCFDC), consider the
(DCCB), the lead banks, IRDP and JRY following statements:
(d) the Large-Scale Multi-purpose
Adivasis Programme, DCCB, IFFCO 1. It functions as a non-deposit-taking
and commercial banks. Non-Banking Financial Company
(NBFC).
Q87. Consider the following statements: 2. It is established with the objective to
(UPSC 2020) accelerate the digitization of urban
1. In terms of short-term credit delivery cooperative banks in India.
to the agriculture sector, District 3. I t w a s e s t a b l i s h e d b a s e d o n
Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) recommendations of Nachiket Mor
deliver more credit in comparison to Committee.
Scheduled Commercial Banks and
Regional Rural Banks. How many statements given above are
2. One of the most important functions correct?
of DCCBs is to provide funds to the
Primary Agricultural Credit Societies. (a) Only one
Which of the statements given above (b) Only two
is/are correct? (c) All three
(a) 1 only (d) None
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Q90. Who grants direct credit assistance to
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 rural households? (UPSC-Pre-2013)

Q88. Consider the following Statements about 1) RRB

‘Urban Cooperative Banks’ in India 2) NABARD
(Pre-21) 3) Land Development Banks
1. They are supervised and regulated by
local boards set up by the State Select the correct answer using the code
Governments. given below.
2. They can issue equity shares and
preference shares. (a) 1 and 2 only
3. They were brought under the purview (b) 2 only
of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (c) 1 and 3 only
through an Amendment in 1966. (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q91. Consider the following statements: How many of the above ser vice/
1. NHB, apex institution of housing servicesrendered under microFinance?
Finance in India, was setup as a wholly (a) Only one
owned subsidiary of RBI. (b) Only two
2. SIDBI was established as a wholly (c) Only three
owned subsidiary of the Industrial (d) All four
development bank of India.

Which of the statements given above Q94. With reference to the National Asset
is/are correct? Re c o n s t r u c t i o n C o m pa n y L i m i te d
(a) 1 only (NARCL), consider the following
(b) 2 only statements:
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. It is a ‘bad bank’ registered with the
Reserve Bank of India.
2. The State Bank of India (SBI) is the lead
Q92. With reference to National Bank for sponsor of NARCL.
Financing Infrastructure and 3. The India Debt Resolution Company
Development (NaBFID), consider the Ltd. (IDRCL) serves as the resolution
following statements: agent of NARCL.
1. It is an All India Financial Institution
regulated by the RBI. How many statements given above are
2. It was established by an act of the correct?
Parliament. (a) Only one
3. It is focused on addressing the long- (b) Only two
term Financing needs of the (c) All three
infrastructure sector in India. (d) None

How many statements given above are

correct? Q95. Consider the following statements about
(a) Only one credit rating agencies (CRA) in
(b) Only two India? (Prelims-2022)
(c) All three
(d) None 1. They are regulated by the Reserve
Bank of India.
2. The rating agency popularly known as
Q93. MicroFinance is the provision of inancial ICRA is a public limited company.
servicesto people of low-income groups. 3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit
This includes both the consumers and the rating agency.
self-employed. The service/ services
rendered under microFinance is/are Which of the statements given above are
(UPSC 2011) correct?
1. Credit facilities (a) 1 and 2 only
2. Savings facilities (b) 2 and 3 only
3. Insurance facilities (c) 1 and 3 only
4. Fund Transfer facilities (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q96. In Indian economy, non-Financial debt Q99. Consider the following statements
includes regarding Basel Accords:

(1) Housing loans owed by households 1. They are a series of banking regulation
(2) Amounts outstanding on credit cards agreements set by the Basel
(3) Treasury bills Committee on Bank Supervision
(BCBS).
Select the correct answer using the code
given below 2. They aim to iron out competitive
inequalities among banks across
(a) 1 only countries.

(b) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?
(c) 3 only
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q97. The “Operation Twist” often seen in news

is related to which of the following?

(a) Buy Buying foreign assets Q100. With reference to Capital-to-risk

weighted assets ratio, consider the
(b) Foreign trade following statements:

(c) Lines of Credit 1. It is a measure of a bank's available

capital expressed as a percentage of a
(d) Buy and sale of government securities bank's risk-weighted credit exposures.

2. The lower the CRAR the better the

bank is protected against the risks.
Q98. Which one of the following is not part of
the Money supply? Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) Interbank deposits
(a) 1 only
(b) Net time deposits of commercial (b) 2 only
banks (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Coins with the Public

(d) Total deposits with Post Office savings

organisations

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
ENVIRONMENT
TEST - I

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO,
GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fi ll in the Roll Number carefully without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will
render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in
some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certifi cate.
8. After you have completed fi lling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers
happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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 | Navigator | Environment Test - I
Q1. In the context of biodiversity, Allen's rule Q3. With reference to parasitism, consider the
states that following statements:
(a) mammals from colder climates have 1. Parasites that feed on the external
shorter ears and limbs to minimise surface of the host organism are called
heat loss. endoparasites.
(b) mammals from colder climates have 2. Ectoparasites live inside the host body
thick blubber of fat to protect at different sites.
themselves from cold. 3. In brood parasitism, a parasite does
(c) mammals from tropical climate exhibit not feed on the organism.
higher genetic diversity compared to Which of the statements given above
colder climate mammals. is/are correct?
(d) mammals from tropical climate have (a) 3 only
longer lifespan on an average compar (b) 1 and 2 only
ed to mammals from colder climate. (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q4. Which of the following processes are

involved in decomposition?
1. Fragmentation
2. Catabolism
3. Humification
Q2. Which of the following reasons account for 4. Mineralisation
lesser biodiversity in temperate regions as Select the correct answer using the code
compared to tropical regions of the given below.
world? (a) 1 and 4 only
1. Tropical regions have been subjected (b) 2 and 3 only
to frequent glaciations in the past (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
while temperate latitudes have (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
remained undisturbed.
2. Temperate environments are less Q5. Consider the following pairs:
seasonal and stable thus promoting
niche specialisation. Sacred Grove State
3. There is more solar energy available in
the tropics, which contributes to 1. Than Assam
higher productivity.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. Kavus Tamil Nadu
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. Devara Kadu Karnataka
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only Which of the pairs given above are
(d) 1, 2 and 3 correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q6. With reference to the extinction of species, Q8. With reference to the environmental
which one of the following statements is impact of chemicals used in day-to-day
not correct? life, consider the following statements:
(a) Mass extinction is the loss of about 1. Alum (aluminum sulfate) is a non-toxic
three-quar ters of all species in liquid that is commonly used in water
existence across the entire Earth over a treatment plants to clarify drinking
'short' geological period of time. water.
(b) The current episode of mass extinction 2. H y d r o g e n p e r o x i d e i s a m o r e
is described as the ‘fif th mass environmentally friendly chemical for
extinction.’ bleaching of clothes than chlorine gas.
(c) Amphibians appear to be more Which of the statements given above
vulnerable to extinction than other is/are correct?
species. (a) 1 only
(d) The Javan and Caspian subspecies of (b) 2 only
tiger are now extinct (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q7. Conformers are those types of organisms Q9. In the context of interspecific interactions
that depend on external sources of body among various species, in which of the
heat as they cannot regulate their body following cases only one organism is
temperature as per the variations in the benefited?
external temperature. In this context, 1. Competition
which of the following are examples of 2. Predation
conformers? 3. Parasitism
1. Shrews 4. Commensalism
2. Hummingbirds 5. Amensalism
3. Peacock Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
given below. (a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 4 and 5 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q10. These plants were introduced into India Q13. Primary production is defined as the
for their lovely flowers have caused havoc amount of biomass or organic matter
by their excessive growth by causing produced per unit area over a time period
blocks in our waterways. They are also by plants during photosynthesis. In this
called ‘Terror of Bengal’. They grow respect primary productivity depends on
abundantly in eutrophic water bodies, which of the following factors?
and lead to an imbalance in the ecosystem 1. Plant species inhabiting a particular
dynamics of the water body. area.
Which of the following plants is being 2. Availability of nutrients.
described in the passage given above? 3. Photosynthetic capacity of plants.
(a) Water Hyacinth Select the correct answer using the code
(b) Golden Pothos given below.
(c) Water Chestnut (a) 2 only
(d) Water Lilies (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Q11. Which of the following statements is/are
c o r re c t w i t h re f e re n c e t o d e s e r t
ecosystem?
1. The soil in the desert is coarse.
2. Animal diversity in the deserts is very
high.
3. Plants have waxy surfaces to reduce
water loss.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. Q14. With reference to the decomposition of
(a) 1 only organic matter, consider the following
(b) 2 and 3 only statements:
(c) 1 and 3 only 1. Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade
(d) 1, 2 and 3 detritus into simpler inorganic
substances through a process called
catabolism.
Q12. With reference to Eutrophication, which 2. Decomposition rate is faster if detritus
of the following statements is not correct? is rich in lignin and chitin.
(a) It refers to the process by which a body 3. T h e h u m u s f o r m e d d u r i n g
of water becomes progressively decomposition is highly resistant to
enriched with minerals and nutrients. microbial action.
(b) It leads to an increase in the density of Which of the statements given above
animal population while restricting is/are correct?
the growth of plants in the aquatic (a) 1 only
environment. (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) It may cause loss of coral reefs due to (c) 2 and 3 only
increase in turbidity of water. (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) It eventually creates a detritus layer in
lakes and produces a successively
shallower depth of surface water

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Q15. Which of the following statements is not Q18. The term 'Evil Quartet' is frequently used
correct about the fungi? to describe the threats to biodiversity. In
(a) Fungi are heterotrophic organisms. this context, which of the following are
(b) All fungi are multicellular. part of Evil Quartet?
(c) The cell walls of fungi are composed of 1. Climate Change
chitin and polysaccharides. 2. Over exploitation
(d) Antibiotics like Penicillium are 3. Co-Extinction
obtained from fungi. 4. Habitat loss and fragmentation
Select the correct answer using code
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
Q16. Which of the following trees/plants are (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
you likely to find in temperate forests?
1. Oak
2. Maple Q19. Which of the following are the sources of
3. Cottonwood methane emissions?
4. Willow 1. Landfills
Select the correct answer using the code 2. Termites
given below. 3. Natural wetlands
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only 4. Gas drilling
(b) 2 and 4 only Select the correct answer using the code
(c) 1 and 3 only given below.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q17. Which of the following defense Q20. With reference to diversity, consider the
mechanisms are developed by plants to following statements:
ward off predators? 1. Species diversity decreases as we
1. Presence of fine hairs on the surface of move away from the poles towards the
the leaves. equator.
2. Release of caffeine by certain plants. 2. The Western Ghats have a greater
3. Presence of thorns in stems and amphibian species diversity than the
leaves. Eastern Ghats.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above
given below. is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q21. The iconic King Cobra can be found in Q24. With reference to captive breeding,
which of the following regions in India? consider the following statements:
(a) Eastern Ghats 1. It provides a means for conserving
(b) Western Ghats species that may not survive in the
(c) Terai regions wild.
(d) All of the Above 2. In India, only zoos are permitted to
conduct captive breeding
programmes.
Q22. Consider the following pairs: 3. Nandankanan is the first-ever captive
breeding centre for creating
National Park State awareness of wildlife in India.
Which of the statements given above are
1. Tadoba National Uttarakhand correct?
Park (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. Bandhavgarh Madhya Pradesh (c) 1 and 3 only
National Park (d) 1, 2 and 3

3. Dudhwa National Uttar Pradesh Q25. Coral Reefs in India are found in:
Park 1. Palk Bay
2. Sundarbans
Which of the pairs given above is/are 3. Lakshadweep Islands
correctly matched? 4. Gulf of Kutch
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 and 3 only given below.
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q23. Consider the following statements
regarding ecological succession: Q26. With reference to the adaptations
1. The entire sequence of communities obser ved in animals, consider the
that successively change in a given following statements:
area is called sere. 1. Mammals inhabiting colder climates
2. Secondary succession is faster than have shorter ears and limbs to
primary succession. minimize heat loss.
3. Xerarch succession in plants takes 2. Aquatic mammals of the polar seas
place in wet areas. have a thick layer of fat below their
Which of the statements given above are skin to reduce loss of body heat.
correct? Which of the statements given above
(a) 1 and 2 only is/are correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q27. Which one of the following statements Q30. With reference to ecological pyramids,
best defines 'endemic species'? consider the following statements:
(a) Species confined to a limted region for 1. The pyramid of biomass in the sea
their distribution isgenerally inverted.
(b) Group of organisms that are very 2. Pyramid of energy can never be
uncommon, scarce, or infrequently inverted.
encountered 3. Saprophytes are not represented in
(c) S p e c i e s s e l e c t e d t o a c t a s a n ecological pyramids.
ambassador, icon or symbol for a Which of the statements given above
defined habitat, issue, campaign or is/are correct?
environmental cause (a) 1 only
(d) Species that arrive first in a newly (b) 1 and 2 only
created environment and through (c) 2 and 3 only
their interactions with one another, (d) 1, 2 and 3
build a rather simple initial biological
community

Q31. Which of the following are examples of

Q28. Consider the following statements: invasive species?
1. Biopiracy is the theft or usurpation of 1. Rosy wolf snail
genetic materials by the patent 2. Lantana
process. 3. Carrot grass
2. T h e C o n v e n t i o n o n B i o l o g i c a l 4. Water hyacinth
Diversity gives sovereign national Select the correct answer using the code
rights over biological resources. given below.
Which of the statements given above (a) 1 and 4 only
is/are correct? (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q32. To cope with extreme conditions, desert
plants have adopted various mechanisms
Q29. In spring when the snow melts, water to minimize water loss. In this context,
enters lakes and rivers, and the acid gets which of the following adaptations can be
mingled into the water bodies making observed in desert plants?
them highly acidic. This condition is 1. Arrangement of stomata in deep pits
commonly referred to as ‘Spring shock’ or 2. Modification of leaves into spines
‘Acid shock’. 3. Photosynthesis by stems
Which of the following is responsible for Select the correct answer using the code
‘Spring shock’ or ‘Acid shock’? given below.
(a) Carbonic acid (a) 1 only
(b) Sulphuric acid (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Hydrochloric acid (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Acetic acid (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q33. With reference to standing crop, consider Q36. Which of the following functions and
the following statements: ecosystem services are provided by a
1. It refers to the total mass of producers wetland?
or autotrophs in a food chain at a 1. Purif y and filter harmful waste
particular time. including heavy metal from water
2. It is measured as the mass of living 2. Nutrients recycling
organisms or the number in a unit 3. Climate change mitigation
area. 4. Groundwater recharge
Which of the statements given above Select the correct answer using the code
is/are correct? given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q34. In a given food chain of a terrestrial

ecosystem, an animal which is strictly
herbivore will necessarily be classified as
a:
(a) primary producer
(b) tertiary consumer
(c) secondary consumer Q37. In the context of ecology, which of the
(d) primary consumer following statements best describes the
ecophene?
(a) It is a phenotype of an organism when
it lives in a new environment for too
Q35. Consider the following statements with long a time period.
reference to the ecological succession: (b) It refers to the population incapable of
1. The primary succession occurs over a exchanging genes with other
barren area which usually lacks topsoil populations of the same species.
and organic matter. (c) It is a structural change in the
2. T h e re c o l o n i s a t i o n of a n a re a chromosome, which cause changes in
damaged by fire is an example of genetic makeup that result in the
primary succession. phenotypes leading to the formation
3. Each transitional community that is of new ecological races.
formed and replaced during (d) It is the first response or phenotype an
succession is called a seral community. organism shows when it arrives in a
Which of the statements given above new environment D
is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

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Q38. Consider the following statements Q41. With reference to bioprospecting,
regarding the light-mantled albatross: consider the following statements:
1. It is a seabird native to the Antarctic 1. It is the process of discovery and
seasand forages over the cold commercialization of new products
Antarctic. based on biological resources.
2. It was recently spotted in India for the 2. The biological resources associated
first time. with bioprospecting include chemical
3. It is classified as near threatened on compounds, genes, and
the IUCN Red List of Threatened microorganisms.
Species. 3. It can lead to the discovery of new
Which of the statements given above medicinal drugs.
is/are correct? Which of the statements given above are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?
(b) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q39. Which of the following statements is
correct regarding the ecological pyramid Q42. In order for biomagnification to occur,
of numbers? which of the following properties the
(a) It represents the total number of pollutant must have?
individuals of same species at each 1. A long biological half-life
trophic level. 2. Mobile
(b) In grassland and aquatic ecosystems, 3. Biologically inactive
it is of spindle-shaped. 4. Must be soluble in water
(c) In a forest ecosystem, it is upright 5. Must be soluble in fats
because large sized trees are the Select the correct answer using the code
producers. given below.
(d) In an aquatic ecosystems, it is upright (a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
due to decrease in the number of (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
individuals from lower level to higher (c) 1, 2 and 5 only
tropic level. (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Q40. Which of the following statements is not Q43. With reference to United Nations
correct regarding the various crocodile E n v i ro n m e n t P ro g r a m m e ( U N E P ) ,
species in India? consider the following statements:
(a) Gharial is a fish-eating freshwater 1. It was founded as a result of the United
crocodile. Nations Conference on the Human
(b) Mugger crocodile is a freshwater Environment in 1972.
species found exclusively in the 2. It is headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya.
Godavari delta. Which of the statements given above
(c) Saltwater crocodile is the largest living is/are correct?
reptile and crocodilian. (a) 1 only
(d) G h a r i a l i s l i s t e d a s C r i t i c a l l y (b) 2 only
Endangered on the IUCN Red list. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q44. Which of the following statements is not Q47. Consider the following statements about
correct regarding aquatic ecosystem? the nitrogen cycle:
(a) Respiration activity takes place in the 1. Nitrogen in the atmosphere must be
aphotic zone. converted into ammonia or nitrates,
(b) The littoral zone is the warmest zone before it is used as a nutrient by plants
of a lake. or animals.
(c) Nektons are small organisms which 2. Denitrification is the process through
live at the air-water interface. which nitrogen leaves the soil and is
(d) The limnetic zone is dominated by released into the atmosphere as
both phytoplankton and zooplankton nitrogen or nitrous oxide gas.
Which of the statements given above
Q45. Consider the following statements is/are correct?
regarding the Tundra biome: (a) 1 only
1. Mammals have a large body size and (b) 2 only
small tail and ears. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Tundra regions receive more than 75 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
centimeters of precipitation annually.
3. Tundra biome is not found at lower
latitudes.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Q48. Consider the following statements
Q46. With reference to the Ramsar Convention regarding peatlands:
on Wetlands, which of the following is/are 1. They are the largest natural terrestrial
the prescribed criteria for a wetland to be carbon store.
designated as a Ramsar site? 2. In peatlands, year-round waterlogged
1. A wetland should support vulnerable, conditions increases the process of
endangered, or critically endangered plant decomposition.
species or threatened ecological 3. They are most common across the
communities. boreal and subarctic zones of the
2. A wetland should regularly support Northern Hemisphere.
20,000 or more waterbirds. Which of the statements given above
3. A wetland should regularly support at is/are correct?
least 10% of the individuals in a (a) 1, 2 and 3
population of one species or (b) 2 only
subspecies of waterbird. (c) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code (d) 2 and 3 only
given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q49. Consider the following statements Q52. Consider the following statements with
regarding environment and habitat: reference to the ecosystem productivity:
1. All habitats are an environment, but all 1. Net primar y productivity of an
environments are not habitats. ecosystem is always less than its gross
2. There is no natural habitat on earth primary productivity.
that is inhabited only by a single 2. Primary productivity depends on the
species. photosynthetic capacity of plants.
3. Environment governs the properties Which of the statements given above
of a habitat. is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above (a) 1 only
is/are correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q50. In the context of the wildlife in India, in

which of the following National Parks one
can find snow leopards?
1. Mount Manipur National Park
2. Saddle Peak National Park
3. Pin Valley National Park Q53. Consider the following statements with
4. Hemis National Park reference to the conservation reserves:
Select the correct answer using the code 1. These are the areas owned by either
given below. the central government or the state
(a) 1 and 2 only governments.
(b) 2 and 3 only 2. The areas adjacent to national parks
(c) 3 and 4 only and sanctuaries and those areas which
(d) 1 and 4 only link one protected area with another
cannot be declared as conservation
reserves.
Q51. Consider the following statements 3. Conservation Reserve Management
regarding the Central Asian Flyway (CAF): Committee advises the Chief Wild Life
1. CAF is the one of the flyways identified Warden to conserve, manage and
under the Convention on Migratory maintain the conservation reserve.
Species. Which of the statements given above are
2. CAF migration route includes the correct?
steppes and cold deserts of Central (a) 1 and 2 only
Eurasia. (b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above (c) 1 and 3 only
is/are correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q54. Consider the following statements with Q57. Consider the following statements about
reference to Sundarbans: the Sedimentary Nutrient Cycle:
1. It is the only mangrove forest in the 1. Most sedimentary cycles are generally
world inhabited by tigers. considered perfect cycles.
2. It hosts the endangered Irrawaddy 2. It’s reservoir is the earth’s crust,
dolphins. atmosphere and hydrosphere.
3. It is the only Ramsar wetland site in Which of the statements given above
India that is listed in the Montreux is/are correct?
Record. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above (b) 2 only
is/are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Q55. Consider the following statements Q58. In the context of marine plant diversity,
regarding Cheetahs of Asia and Africa: consider the following statements
1. In size, the Asiatic cheetah is bigger regarding seagrasses:
than African Cheetah. 1. Seagrasses are non-flowering plants
2. Currently, African Cheetah has a more with no roots or stems.
diverse habitat than Asiatic Cheetah 2. Seagrasses are found along all the
3. India has introduced Asiatic Cheetah coastal areas of India.
in Kuno National Park Which of the statements given above
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
is/are correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q56. Consider the following statements

regarding the significance of keystone
species in biodiversity: Q59. Aceclofenac, recently seen in the news, is
1. Keystone species have high functional a/an:
redundancy. (a) veterinary painkiller that metabolises
2. Keystone mutualists maintain gene into diclofenac.
flow throughout the ecosystem. (b) negative coliform bacterium that is
Which of the statements given above commonly found in the lower intestine
is/are correct? of warm-blooded organisms.
(a) 1 only (c) common bacterium that spreads in
(b) 2 only healthcare facilities.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) additive in sugar free drinks.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q60. With reference to the species diversity, Q63. Which of the following are not methods
consider the following statements: of in-situ conservation of biodiversity?
1. Beta diversity is the rate at which 1. Botanical garden
species richness increases as one 2. Wildlife sanctuary
moves in a straight line across a region 3. Sacred groves
from one habitat to another habitat. 4. Cryopreservation
2. The Gamma diversity is a measure of Select the correct answer using the code
the overall diversity of the different given below.
ecosystems within a region. (a) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above (b) 2 and 3 only
is/are correct? (c) 1 and 4 only
(a) 1 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q64. Which of the following countries are
Q61. Which of the following statements is/are bordered by lake Victoria?
correct regarding the Taiga biome? 1. Uganda
1. It is not found in the Southern 2. Kenya
Hemisphere. 3. Tanzania
2. Coniferous trees, such as spruce, pine, 4. Zimbabwe
and fir, are commonly found in the 5. Central African Republic
region. 6. Democratic Republic of Congo
3. The largest cat species in the world is Select the correct answer using the code
anative taiga species. given below.
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
given below. (b) 2 and 5 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 6 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 only

Q62. Which of the following statements is Q65. Which of the following are the threats
correct about the corals? posed by global warming to biodiversity?
(a) Reef-building corals cannot tolerate 1. Reduced reproduction
water temperatures below 5° Celsius. 2. Gender imbalance in species
(b) Most reef-building corals also require 3. Habitat destruction
very saline water. 4. Increased disease incidence
(c) The zooxanthellae provides corals 5. Migration to higher latitudes
with the compound necessary for Select the correct answer using the code
photosynthesis. given below.
(d) The zooxanthellae are fast growing (a) 3 and 4 only
plants whereas corals are slow (b) 1, 2 and 5 only
growing colonies of animals (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

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Q66. Consider the following statements about Q69. Consider the following statements about
Biosphere Reserves in India: the Mangroves:
1. The Gulf of Mannar is the largest 1. It is an evergreen forest ecosystem
Biosphere Reserve in terms of area. found mainly in the tropical and
2. The Nokrek is the smallest Biosphere subtropical inter-tidal regions of the
Reserve in terms of area. world.
3. O t h e r t h a n N i l g i r i s a n d 2. Its seeds germinate in the tree itself
AchanakamarAmarkantak, no before falling to the ground.
Biosphere Reserve is spread across 3. It produces blind roots to overcome
two or more states. the respiration problem in the
Which of the statements given above anaerobic soil conditions.
is/are correct? Which of the statements given above are
(a) 2 and 3 only correct?
(b) 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) None (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q67. In the context of ecology, which of the

following statements is not correct?
(a) No two species in a habitat can have
the same ecological niche.
(b) An ecotype is a population that is
adapted to local environmental
conditions. Q70. Which of the following statements best
(c) Ecocline is the zone of abrupt change describes the term 'photoperiodism'?
in altitude within an ecosystem. (a) It is the ability of the plant to re-orient
(d) Po p u l a t i o n i s a c o m m u n i t y of its root growth away from the
interbreeding organisms occupying a direction of light source.
defined area during a specific time. (b) It is the ability of plants to lose water
through its vascular system.
(c) It is the response to changes in
daylength that enables plants to adapt
to seasonal changes in their
Q68. Kaziranga National Park is known for its environment.
'Big Five' animal species. Which among (d) It is the process of accelerating the
the following is not one of the 'Big Five' ability of flowering in plants by
species? exposing them to light and cold
(a) One-Horned Rhinoceros temperatures.
(b) Royal Bengal Tiger
(c) Eastern Swamp Deer
(d) Snow Leopard

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Q71. Consider following statements regarding Q74. Consider the following statements
the various species of Dolphins in India: regarding the Grazing Food Chain and
1. In India, only two sub-species of Detritus Food Chain:
dolphins, the Ganges river dolphin 1. While the primar y consumer is
and the Indus River dolphin are essentially a herbivore in a grazing
naturally found. food chain, scavengers are the
2. The Ganges river dolphin is currently consumers in a detritus food chain.
listed on Convention of Migratory 2. While grazing food chains can be
Species. found in the aquatic ecosystem,
3. River Beas is the only habitat of Indus detritus food chain is absent in the
River dolphin in India. terrestrial ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q75. Consider the following statements:

Q72. Consider the following statements about 1. Catabolism is the breakdown of waste
the ecotone: into smaller particles by detritivores.
1. It is the zone where two communities 2. Humification is an oxidation process
meet and integrate. leading to the accumulation of a
2. It has far greater productivity than the humus in the soil.
natural ecosystem. 3. The release of inorganic nutrients by
Which of the statements given above degradation of humus by microbes is
is/are correct? called mineralisation.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above
(b) 2 only is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q73. Which of the following statements is not
correct about the various rhinoceros Q76. Which of the following adds/add
species across the world? nitrogen to the soil?
(a) The Indian rhino’s single horn is 1. Excretion of urea by animals
present in both males and females. 2. Burning of coal by man
(b) The Sumatran rhino is the smallest 3. Death of vegetation
species of rhinoceros. Select the correct answer using the codes
(c) Only the Greater One-Horned Rhino is given below:
found in India. (a) 1 only
(d) Black rhino found in Africa is the (b) 2 and 3 only
largest of the rhino species (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q77. Which one of the following statements Q80. Which one of the following is the best
correctly describe the reason for the description of the term 'ecosystem'?
aquatic ecosystem having inverted (a) A c o m m u n i t y o f o r g a n i s m s
biomass pyramids? interacting with one another
(a) The biomass in an aquatic ecosystem (b) That part of the Earth which is
includes the mass of all living and inhabited by living organisms
dead organic matter. (c) A community of organisms together
(b) The lifespan of phytoplanktons is with the environment in which they
longer as compared to zooplankton. live
(c) In aquatic ecosystem, consumer (d) The flora and fauna of a geographical
biomass exceeds producer biomass. area
(d) The biomass of zooplankton is lower
than that of phytoplanktons in aquatic
ecosystem

Q78. Consider the following statements Q81. This question consists of two
regarding interbreeding among the statements, namely, Assertion (A) and
organisms: Reason (R).
1. Organisms in the same order can Assertion (A): Hot water can act as a
produce fer tile offspring but pollutant.
organisms in same class cannot. Reason (R): Hot water can decrease the
2. Speciation cannot occur without biological demand of oxygen for aquatic
geographical separation between the organisms.
members of a species. For selecting the correct answer, use the
Which of the statements given above following code:
is/are correct? (a) Both A and R are individually true and
(a) 1 only R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) 2 only (b) Both A and R are individually true but
(c) Both 1 and 2 R is not the correct explanation of A.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
Q79. With regard to migration of birds, which
of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Birds migrate to provide healthy
conditions for their offspring.
2. Amur falcons migrate from Northern Q82. A lake is affected by Eutrophication. The
China and breed in India. most identifiable sign/symptom will be:
3. Species migrate seasonally and it (a) a very high level of dissolved oxygen
involves a return journey. in water
Select the correct answer using the code (b) a very high level of nutrients like
given below: nitrogen and phosphorus in water
(a) 1 only (c) a ver y low level of chlorophyll
(b) 1 and 2 only concentration in water
(c) 3 only (d) a very high level of transparency and
(d) 1 and 3 only clarity in water body

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Q83. Consider the following statements: Q85. Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold
1. Lichens are formed by symbiotic in the market. It consists of amino acids
association of Algae and fungus. and provides calories like other amino
2. Rhizobium cannot make its own food. acids. Yet, it is used as a low-calorie
3. Saprotrophs include fungi and sweetening agent in food items. What is
bacteria. the basis of this use?
Which of the statements given above (a) Aspartame is as sweet as table sugar,
is/are correct? but unlike table sugar, it is not readily
(a) 1 and 2 only oxidized in human body due to lack of
(b) 2 and 3 only requisite enzymes.
(c) 3 only (b) When aspartame is used in food
(d) 1, 2 and 3 processing, the sweet taste remains,
but it becomes resistant to oxidation.
(c) Aspartame is as sweet as sugar, but
after ingestion into the body, it is
converted into metabolites that yield
no calories.
(d) Aspartame is several times sweeter
than table sugar, hence food items
made with small quantities of
aspartame yield fewer calories on
oxidation.

Q84. Consider the following statements

regarding ‘Indian Leopard’:
1. The habitat of Leopard in India is
limited the Rajasthan desert region,
Central India and the mangroves of Q86. With reference to the Indian Pangolin,
Sundarbans. consider the following statements:
2. India never conducted a national 1. It is listed as Endangered by the IUCN
level leopard census. 2. It is widely distributed in the high-
3. The highest concentration of the altitude Himalayan region
leopard in India is in Madhya Pradesh. 3. It is the only species of Pangolin found
Which of the following statements given in India
above is/are correct? 4. Its scales are used for treating
(a) 1 and 2 only infertility in women.
(b) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above are
(c) 3 only correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Q87. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) Q89. With reference to the different Protected
radiation in the water purification Areas in India, consider the following
systems? statements
1. It inactivates /kills the harmful 1. W i l d l i f e S a n c t u a r y p r o v i d e s
microorganisms in water. speciesoriented protection, whereas
2. It removes all the undesirable odors Biosphere Reserves are ecosystem
from the water. oriented in nature.
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid 2. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 provides
particles, removes turbidity and provision for declaration of National
improves the clarity of water. Pa r k s , W i l d l i f e S a n c t u a r y a n d
Which of the statements given above Biosphere Reserves.
is/are correct? 3. Activities like grazing or cultivation are
(a) 1 only strictly prohibited in a Wildlife
(b) 2 and 3 only Sanctuary but allowed in biosphere
(c) 1 and 3 only Reserve.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q88. With reference to the various categories
of International Union for Conservation of
Nature (IUCN) Red List of Threatened
Species, consider the following pairs:
IUCN Category Criteria Q90. With reference to the National Tiger
1. Critically EndangeredSpecies having a Conservation Authority, consider the
population size of fewer than 50 following statements:
individuals. 1. It was established in 2005 under the
2. Vulnerable S p e c i e s a r e c l o s e t o Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
becoming threatened in the near 2. Its objective includes addressing
future. livelihood interests of people in areas
3. Endangered S p e c i e s h a v i n g a surrounding Tiger Reserves.
population size of fewer than 1000 3. I t c o n d u c t s t h e c o u n t r y l e v e l
individuals. assessment of the status of tiger once
4. Near ThreatenedS p e c i e s a r e in four years.
described in science but not assessed 4. It is chaired by the Prime Minister.
by IUCN. Which of the statements given above
Which of the pair/s given above is/are is/are correct?
correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

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Q91. Arrange the following greenhouse gases Q93. Consider the following pairs:
in descending order of their global
warming potential: Forest type Location in India
1. Methane
2. Carbon Dioxide 1. Tropical Andaman and
3. Sulphur Hexachloride Evergreen Nicobar Islands
4. Nitrous Oxide Forests
5. HFCs
Select the correct answer using the code 2. Tropical Rajasthan and dry
given below: Deciduous areas of Gujarat
(a) 2-5-4-3-1 Forests
(b) 4-5-3-2-1
(c) 3-5-4-1-2 3. Coniferous Upper elevations
(d) 5-3-1-4-2 Forests of Himalayas

Which of the pairs given above is/are

correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q92. Three of the following criteria have

contributed to the recognition of Western
Ghats-Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma regions
as hotspots of biodiversity:
1. Species richness
2. Vegetation density Q94. The Himalayan Range is very rich in
3. Endemism species diversity. Which one among the
4. Ethno-botanical importance following is the most appropriate reason
5. Threat perception for this phenomenon?
6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm (a) It has high rainfall that supports
and humid conditions luxuriant vegetative growth
Which three of the above are correct (b) I t i s a c o n fl u e n c e of d i f f e re n t
criteria in this context? biogeographical zones
(a) 1, 2 and 6 (c) Exotic and invasive species have not
(b) 2, 4 and 6 been introduced in this region
(c) 1, 3 and 5 (d) It has less human interference
(d) 3, 4 and 6

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Q95. Which of the following is/ are the causes Q97. Consider the following statements with
of Algal Bloom? reference to the Marine Protected Areas
1. Agricultural Runoff (MPAs) in India:
2. Discharge of untreated Sewage 1. The Water (Prevention and Control of
3. Discharge of untreated Industrial Pollution) Act, 1974 defines the
Effluents Marine Protected Areas in India.
4. Blockage in flow of rivers 2. MPAs do not necessarily exclude
Select the correct answer using the code fishing, research or other human
given below: activities.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only 3. All Indian coastal states have at least
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only one Marine National Park.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only Which of the following statements given
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q98. With reference to the threats to the

biological biodiversity in North-Eastern
Q96. Consider the following statements with India, Consider the following statements:
re f e re n c e to t h e F o re s t A d v i s o r y 1. Jhum Cultivation contributes in
Committee (FAC) in India: safeguarding the biodiversity.
1. It is a statutory body under the Indian 2. Commercial Plantations threatens the
Forests Act, 1927. biodiversity.
2. It considers questions on diversion of 3. Decline in a traditional wisdom called
forest land for non-forest purposes. as the Sacred Groves threatens the
3. Its recommendations are binding on biodiversity.
the government on the issue of 4. Immigration of people into North-
granting forest clearances. Eastern India threatens the
Which of the following statements given biodiversity.
above is/are correct? Which of the statements given above
(a) 2 and 3 only is/are correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

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Q99. Consider the following statements with
reference to Temperate vegetation:
1. T h e t e m p e r a t e f o r e s t s a r e
characterized by a moderate climate
and broad-leafed deciduous trees.
2. W e t t e m p e r a t e f o r e s t s a r e
characterized by oak trees and
chestnut trees.
3. Temperate forests cover the southern
slopes of the Himalayas.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q100. This is a specie which is found in the

grassland biome and avoid grasses taller
than their height. It can easily be
distinguished by its black crown on the
forehead contrasting with the pale neck
and head. Historically, they were
distributed throughout Western India,
Thar desert in the north-west and the
Deccan plateau of the peninsula. But is
now confined mostly to Rajasthan and
Gujarat.
The above paragraph refers to which of
the following?
(a) Jerdon’s Courser
(b) Great Indian Bustard
© Dhole
(d) Slender Loris

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 | Navigator | Environment Test - II

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
ENVIRONMENT
TEST - II

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO,
GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fi ll in the Roll Number carefully without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will
render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in
some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certifi cate.
8. After you have completed fi lling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers
happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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Q1. Which one of the following statements Q3. Consider the following statements:
about the Acacia tree is/are correct? Statement-I: Unlike temperate forests,
1. It has a long shallow root system the tropical rain forests, if cleared, can
which enables it to find moisture. yield productive farmland that can
2. It has thorny leaves to prevent water support intensive agriculture for several
loss. years even without chemical fertilizers.
3. It has wide crown so the foliage can Statement-II: The primary productivity of
absorb the maximum Sunlight. the tropical rain forest is very high when
Select the correct answer using the codes compared to that of temperate forests.
given below (PYQ CAPF) Which one of the following is correct in
(a) Only 1 respect of the above statements?
(b) 2 and 3 (2003 PYQ)
(c) 1 and 2 (a) Both the statements are individually
(d) 1, 2 and 3 true and Statement II is the correct
explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually
true but Statement II is ‘not the correct
explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement Il is
false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is
true
Q2. Consider the following pairs:

National Parks Location

Q4. With reference to the Wildlife Crime
1. Mollem National Eastern Ghats Control Bureau, which one of the
Park following statements is not correct?
(a) It was constituted as a multi-
2. Mouling National North-Eastern disciplinar y statutor y body by
Park India amendment to the Prevention of
Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.
3. Kuno National Western Ghats (b) It is not intended to perform the
Park normal and routine functions falling
within the domain of the States/Union
How many of the above pairs are correctly Territories.
matched? (c) It has its regional offices in Delhi,
(a) Only one pair Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai and
(b) Only two pairs Jabalpur.
(c) All three pairs (d) It advises the Customs authorities in
(d) None of the pairs inspection of the consignments of
flora and Fauna as per the provisions
of EXIM Policy

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Q5. With reference to the Zoological Survey of Which of the statements given above
India (ZSI), consider the following is/are correct?
statements: (a) 1 only
1. It is a statutory body under the Wild (b) 2 only
Life (Protection) Act, 1972. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. It has its headquarters in Chennai. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. It is responsible for publishing the Red
Data Book on Animals in India.
How many of the above statements are
correct? Q8. Consider the following statements:
(a) Only one Statement-1: "Ozone Day" or "World
(b) Only two Ozone Day" is observed on September
(c) All three 16th each year.
(d) None Statement-2: The date marks the
anniversary of the signing of the Montreal
Q6. With reference to Green Climate Fund Protocol, a significant international treaty
(GCF), consider the following statements: aimed at protecting the ozone layer.
1. It was established at the 1992 Rio (a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
Earth summit. correct, and Statement-2 is the correct
2. The National Bank for Agriculture and explanation for Statement-1.
Rural Development (NABARD) is (b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
accredited as the National correct, but Statement-2 is not the
Implementing Entity of GCF. correct explanation for Statement-1.
3. The GCF is mandated to invest at least (c) Statement-1 is correct, but Statement-
half of its adaptation resources in the 2 is incorrect.
Small Island Developing States (SIDS), (d) St a t e m e n t- 1 i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
Least Developed Countries (LDCs) and Statement-2 is correct.
the African States.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one Q9. With reference to Green crackers, consider
(b) Only two the following statements:
(c) All three 1. They use potassium nitrate and
(d) None aluminium powder for reducing the
emission of Particulate Matter.
Q7. With reference to Biochemical Oxygen 2. They release water vapour or air as a
Demand (BOD), consider the following dust suppressant.
statements: Which of the statements given above
1. It is the amount of oxygen consumed is/are correct?
by bacteria and other microorganisms (a) 1 only
while they decompose organic matter (b) 2 only
under anaerobic conditions. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. A low BOD is an indicator of good (d) Neither 1 nor 2
quality water, while a high BOD
indicates polluted water.

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Q10. Consider the following pairs: Q12. In the context of ecology, Antibiosis
refers to
(a) competition between organisms of
Biofuels Primary the same species.
Sources (b) an association between two species,
where one species kills to feed on the
1. First Generation Food Crops other.
(c) a relationship in which one organism is
2. Second Generation Microalgae benefited by direct utilization of
another.
3. Third Generation Lignocellulosic (d) secretions by an organism which are
Crops harmful to others.

4. Fourth Generation Genetically Q13. Which of the following is/are the features
modified algae of Grassland Ecosystems?
1. Grasslands have a rich variety of
animals.
How many pairs given above are correctly 2. Optimum conditions for the growth of
matched? trees
3. Soil in grasslands are characterized by
(a) Only one pair thin podzols.
(b) Only two pairs Select the correct answer using the code
(c) Only three pairs given below.
(d) All four pairs (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 only

Q11. Green Bonus, recently seen in the news, Q14. In these forests, there is no winter, and
refers to: there are only two seasons (rainy and dry).
They have the largest variety of life forms
(a) Premium earned by corporations on and tree species in all of nature. Trees are
issuing green and masala bonds. 25-35 m tall, with shallow roots and large
(b) a p a y m e n t d e m a n d e d b y t h e dark green leaves. Animals in these forests
Himalayan States for their are highly adapted to their diverse
environmental services to the nation. environment having developed strong
(c) Cost saved on infrastructure projects defence mechanisms.
owing to Environmental Impact Which of the following type of forest
Assessment. ecosystem is being described by the
(d) Subsidy provided to entities to set up above passage?
renewable energy infrastructure. (a) Tropical Forests
(b) Temperate Forests
(c) Taiga Forests
(d) None of the above

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Q15. Which of the following are the Q18. Consider the following statements with
components of Photochemical Smog? respect to oxides of carbon:
1. Ozone
2. Formaldehyde 1. Carbon Monoxide is produced as a
3. Peroxyacetyl Nitrate (PAN) result of the incomplete combustion
of carbon.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. Carbon dioxide forms approximately
given below. 3% by volume of the atmosphere.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above
(c) 1 and 3 only is/are correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Q16. Consider the following statements with (d) Neither 1 nor 2
respect to ozone depletion:
1. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are Q19. Which of the following conditions is/are
nontoxic organic molecules that help suitable for high rate of decomposition?
in ozone depletion.
2. Polar stratospheric clouds provide a 1. High Temperature
surface for the reactions causing 2. Low Moisture content
ozone depletion. 3. Detritus rich in nitrogen
3. Free Chlorine radicals form when CFCs
are broken down by UV radiations. Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
Which of the statements given above are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Q20. Consider the following:

1. Styrofoam CD and DVD cases

Q17. Which of the following are the sources of 2. Leather bags
Nitrogen in an ecosystem? 3. Plastic toys
1. Agricultural land 4. Synthetic pesticides
2. Fossil fuel
3. Livestock Which of the above mentioned waste
4. Urban waste p r o d u c t s f a l l i n t h e c a t e g o r y of
non biodegradable wastes?
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
given below. (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Q21. In the carbon cycle, which of the Q24. Discharge of which of the following into
following processes add carbon dioxide water bodies can cause Eutrophication?
to the atmosphere?
1. Decomposition of organic matter 1. Domestic Sewage
2. Respiration by plants 2. Industrial effluents
3. Burning of fossil fuels 3. Agricultural fertilizers
4. Photosynthesis by plants
Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
given below. (a) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q25. Consider the following statements with
Q22. Which of the following is/are the regard to the harmful effects of chemicals
adaptation features found in plants and in drinking water:
animals of the Desert ecosystem?
1. Hard and thick waxy leaves. 1. Excessive sulfate in drinking water
2. Long and spreading root systems causes the blue baby syndrome.
3. Concentrated body fat 2. Deficiency of Fluorine in drinking
4. Overactive sweat glands water causes tooth decay.
3. High concentration of Lead in drinking
Select the correct answer using the code water can damage the kidney and liver.
given below.
(a) 2 and 4 only Which of the statements given above
(b) 1 and 3 only is/are not correct?
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
Q23. Which of the following can be (d) 1 and 2 only
determined by counting the pugmarks in
a defined area? Q26. Which of the following statements is not
1. Presence of different species in the correct with respect to acid rain?
area.
2. Age of different species. (a) Acid rain is resulted from the emission
3. Sex ratio of different species of oxides of sulphur and nitrogen.
4. Identification of Individual animals (b) Acid rain dissolves and washes away
nutrients needed for the growth of
Select the correct answer using the code crops.
given below. (c) Acid rain has a pH value of between 6
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only and 7.
(b) 3 and 4 only (d) Acid rain corrodes water pipes
(c) 1 and 2 only resulting in the leaching of heavy
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 metals into drinking water.

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Q27. Consider the following statements about Q29. Consider the following statements about
the effect of frost on the growth of plants: The Water (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act,1974:
1. It increases the concentration of salts
in the cell. 1. It defines both, water pollution and
2. It leads to the formation of canker water quality standards.
disease. 2. It provides for maintenance and
restoration of quality of all types of
Which of the statements given above surface and groundwater.
is/are correct? 3. It authorizes the Department of Water
Resources, River Development &
(a) 1 only Ganga Rejuvenation to implement the
(b) 2 only work for the objectives of the Act.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
Q28. Consider the following pairs: (c) 3 only
(d) None

Biotic Interactions Example

1. Predation Pitcher plant

consuming insect

2. Competition Plants in Q30. Which of the following are the

evergreen forest reasons / factors for exposure to
Particulate Matter (PM) pollution?
3. Parasitism Cattle egret and
grazing cattle 1. Tobacco smoke
2. Pulverization of Coal
4. Amensalism Sparrow eating 3. Spraying of Pesticides
seeds 4. Dust storms
5. Sandblasting

Which of the pairs given above are Select the correct answer using the code
correctly matched? given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

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Q31. Which of the following are the Q34. Consider a situation in which a parasitic
applications of Phosphorus mineral? bird lays its eggs in the nest of its host and
1. Fertilizers lets the host incubate them. During the
2. Detergents course of evolution, the eggs of the
3. Medicines parasitic bird have evolved to resemble
4. Steel Production the host’s egg in size and color to reduce
5. Safety matches the chances of the host bird detecting the
Select the correct answer using the code foreign eggs and ejecting them from the
given below. nest.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only Which type of parasitism is being
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only described in the above situation?
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(a) Endoparasitism
Q32. This National Park was formed by (b) Brood parasitism
i n c l u d i n g t h e a r e a s of e r s t w h i l e (c) Ectoparasitism
Venugopala Wildlife Park. It was brought (d) Obligate Parasitism
under Project Tiger in 1973. It together
with Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary and
Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary constitute
Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. It is also home
to species like gaur, mouse deer, sloth
bear, and Malabar squirrel, etc. The above-
mentioned passage refers to which of the Q35. Consider the following statements about
following National Park? Crocodile Conservation in India:
(a) Bandipur National Park
(b) Nagarhole National Park 1. Project Crocodile was started in 1975
(c) Bannerghatta National Park in India.
(d) Mathikettan Shola National Park 2. Crocodile Breeding and Management
Training Institute was set up in Delhi in
Q33. Which of the following statements is not 1980 to train managers of crocodile
correct about The Air (Prevention and stations.
Control of Pollution) Act, 1981? 3. Gharial is now listed as Endangered by
1. It provides for the establishment of the the IUCN Red List.
Central Pollution Control Board.
2. It includes noise as an air pollutant. Which of the statements given above
3. Any air pollutant into the atmosphere is/are correct?
by a ship or aircraft does not come
under the purview of this Act. (a) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 2 and 3 only
given below. (c) 1 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q36. Consider the following statements about Q39. Consider the following statements with
the Tundra biome: respect to the energy flow in the
1. For most of the year, there are no trees ecosystem:
in this biome.
2. Reptiles and amphibian species are 1. Plants capture more than 50% of
few in number. energy of the incident sunlight that
3. Most of the animals exhibit the falls on them.
p r e s e n c e of t h i c k c u t i c l e a n d 2. Energy pyramid is always upright.
epidermal hair or fur. 3. The number of trophic levels in an
Which of the statements given above ecosystem is independent of the
is/are correct? amount of energy lost in each trophic
(a) 3 only level.
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 only Which of the statements given above
(d) 1 and 3 only is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

Q37. Which of the following wetlands of North (b) 2 only
Eastern India are included in the Ramsar (c) 3 only
list of wetlands? (d) 1 and 3 only
1. Manas
2. Deepor Beel
3. Kaziranga
4. Rudrasagar
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only Q40. Consider the following statements
(b) 2 and 3 only regarding peatlands:
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only 1. They are one of the largest natural
terrestrial carbon stores.
2. Peatland acts as a natural filter for
Q38. Consider the following statements with removing water pollution.
respect to differences between pioneer 3. A bog is a type of peatland.
community and climax community:
1. Growth rate in pioneer community is Which of the statements given above
lower than climax community. is/are correct?
2. S p e c i e s d i v e r s i t y i n p i o n e e r
community is higher than climax (a) 1 and 3 only
community. (b) 3 only
Which of the statements given above (c) 2 only
is/are correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q41. Consider the following statements about Q44. In which among the following National
the National Tiger Conservation Authority Parks, one is likely to found Snow Leopard
(NTCA) in India?

1. It is a statutory body, established 1. Hemis National Park

under the Wildlife Protection Act,
1972. 2. Dachigam National Park
2. Prime Minister of India is the
chairperson of NTCA. 3. Gangotri National Park
3. It takes care of the livelihood interests
of local people in areas surrounding 4. Govind Pashu Vihar National Park
Tiger Reserves.
Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above given below.
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 only (c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q42. Which of the following statements is/are

correct about National Biodiversity
Authority (NBA)?

1. It is a statutory body, established Q45. Consider the following statements

under the Biological Diversity Act regarding the Sedimentary Nutrient
(2002). Cycle:
2. The headquarters of NBA is in New
Delhi. 1. Most sedimentary cycles are generally
considered perfect cycles.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below. 2. The phosphorus cycle is a sedimentary
(a) 1 only cycle.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. The reservoir of sedimentary nutrients
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is located in the earth’s crust.

Q43. The number and relative abundance of Which of the statements given above
species found in a given biological is/are correct?
organisation refers to:
(a) 2 only
(a) Genetic Diversity (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) Species Diversity (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Ecosystem Diversity (d) 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above

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Q46. A Ramsar site in India has the following Q48. Consider the following pairs:
characteristics:

1. This site is a mix of salt swamps, Bird Species Region

mangroves, backwaters, mudflats,
grasslands and tropical dry evergreen 1. Jerdon's courser Arunachal
forests. Pradesh

2. It harbours the single largest stretch of 2. Black-necked crane Ladakh

the unique dry-evergreen forest in the
country. 3. Great Indian Bustard Rajasthan

3. I t w a s c re a te d a s a s a n c t u a r y
essentially for the conservation of the Select the correct answer using the code
endangered blackbuck antelope. given below.

Which one of the following Ramsar Sites (a) 1 and 2 only

has all of the above characteristics?
(b) 2 only
(a) Kolleru lake
(b) Vembanad Kol Wetland (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Sunderbans Wetland
(d) Point Calimere Wildlife and Bird (d) 1 and 3 only
Sanctuary

Q49. Consider the following statements

regarding Mangroves:
Q47. Which of the following statements best
describes the term 'Allopatric Speciation'? 1. They are a salt tolerant evergreen
forest ecosystem.
(a) It is the formation of new species due 2. They exhibit only oviparity mode of
to genetic modification of a single reproduction.
ancestor. 3. They produce blind roots to secrete
(b) It occurs when small groups of excess salt.
individuals break off from the larger
group and form a new species. Which of the statements given above
(c) It occurs when a group of species is/are correct?
separates into two separate groups
which are isolated from one another (a) 3 only
due to a geographical barrier.
(d) It occurs when there are no physical (b) 2 and 3 only
barriers preventing any members of a
species from mating with another, and (c) 1 only
all members are in close proximity to
one another. (d) 1 and 2 only

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Q50. Consider the following statements with Q53. "Consider the following passage:
respect to Earth's biodiversity:
1. Plants comprise more than 40% of all It is a Critically Endangered bird species,
the species on Earth. restricted to the terai grassland regions of
2. The number of fungi species in the the Indo-Gangetic floodplain and the
world is more than that of amphibians. Brahmaputra floodplains. It is found in
3. Among animals, insects are the most India, Cambodia and Nepal. This bird is a
species rich taxonomic group. grassland habitat specialist which acts as
an indicator of a healthy grassland
Which of the statements given above are ecosystem.
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only Which of the avian species have been
(b) 2 and 3 only described in the passage given above?
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Sarus Crane
(b) Great Indian Bustard
Q51. Consider the following statements (c) Bengal Florican
regarding Tiger Reserves in India: (d) Black-Necked Crane
1. Sunderbans Tiger Reserve has the
largest area under "Critical Tiger
Habitat".
2. Jim Corbett Tiger Reserve (CTR) has
the highest tiger density among all
reserves. Q54. Consider the following statements about
the nitrogen cycle:
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? 1. Nitrogen in the atmosphere cannot be
(a) 1 only directly used as a nutrient by any
(b) 2 only plants or animals.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Ammonia can be a direct source of
nitrogen for some plants.
Q52,Consider the following statements
regarding habitat: 3. The nitrates present in the soil are
1. Several habitats can be a part of an reduced to nitrous oxide gas by the
ecosystem. process of ammonification.
2. There is no natural habitat on earth
that is inhabited only by a single Which of the statements given above
species. is/are correct?

Which of the statements given above (a) 1, 2 and 3

is/are correct? (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) None
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q55. With reference to National Parks in India, Q58. Consider the following statements with
consider the following statements: reference to the relationship between
1. State governments can declare an area corals and zooxanthellae:
of ecological importance as a National
Park under the Wild Life (Protection) 1. The zooxanthellae are fast growing
Act of 1972. plants where as corals are slow
2. Grazing of livestock is permitted in a growing colonies of animals.
National Parks.
3. No alteration of boundaries of a 2. The coral and zooxanthellae share a
National Park shall be made except on symbiotic relationship.
the recommendation of the National
Biodiversity Authority. Which of the statements given above
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q56. With reference to Biosphere Reserves in

India, consider the following statements: Q59. Consider the following animals:
1. Biosphere Reserves emphasise on
conservation of overall biodiversity 1. Sea horse
and landscape, rather than some
specific flagship species. 2. Sea cow
2. The National Biodiversity Authority
identifies new sites, advises on policies 3. Jellyfish
and programmes for Biosphere
Reserves in India. 4. Sea lion
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? Which of the above are marine mammals?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Q57. Which of the following statements is not
correct about seagrass?
(a) They are flowering plants that produce Q60. Which one of the following is the correct
seeds. sequence of a food chain?
(b) They don’t have roots and are always
floating on the surface. (a) Alga - Waterflea - Stickleback - Pike
(c) They are found from the tropics to the (b) Alga - Stickleback - Waterflea - Pike
Arctic circle. (c) Pike - Alga - Waterflea - Stickleback
(d) They can reproduce sexually like (d) Stickleback - Alga - Waterflea – Pike
terrestrial grasses.

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Q61. Why does the tropical region have high Q64. Which of the following is not correct
biodiversity? regarding the Ganges river dolphin?
1. The tropical soils are high in fertility. (a) Ganges river dolphin primarily live in
2. Seasonal variation in tropical climate is freshwater.
less. (b) Ganges river dolphin are essentially
3. Solar energy is abundantly available in blind and hunt by emitting ultrasonic
tropics. sounds.
4. Tropical areas had a long evolutionary (c) Females Ganges dolphins are larger
time for species diversification. than males.
Select the correct answer using code (d) It is the only species of river dolphin
given below. found in India.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only Q65. Which of the following activities is/are
(c) 1 and 3 only categorically prohibited in wildlife
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 sanctuaries declared under the Wild Life
(Protection) Act of 1972?
Q62. Consider the following statements with 1. Use of chemicals and explosives
reference to the Estuaries: endangering wildlife
1. Estuaries mostly do not have any 2. Construction of roads, bridges and
source of fresh water. building
2. Estuaries are influenced by high tides 3. Construction of commercial tourist
and low tides of the sea. lodges and hotels
3. Estuaries are among the most 4. Immunisation of livestock
productive environments on earth. Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above given below.
is/are correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3 only
Q66. Pollutants tend to concentrate as they
Q63. Which of the following are the functions move from one trophic level to the next in
of a wetland? the food chain resulting in
1. Filtration of harmful waste including Biomagnification. In order for
heavy metals from water biomagnification to occur.
2. Groundwater recharge Which of the following characteristics
3. Recycling of nutrients should be exhibited by a pollutant?
4. Flood Control 1. Long-lived
Select the correct answer using the code 2. Mobile
given below. 3. Soluble in water
(a) 1 and 3 only Select the correct answer using code
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only given below.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q67. With reference to Asiatic elephants, Q71. Consider the following statements
consider the following statements: regarding an aquatic ecosystem:
1. India is home to the largest number of 1. Both photosynthesis and respiration
Asiatic Elephants. activities take place in aphotic zone.
2. Both male and female Asian elephants 2. Neuston are organisms which live at
can have tusks. the air-water interface such as floating
3. Elephants have the longest gestation plants.
period for any mammal. 3. The limnetic zone is dominated by
Which of the statements given above both phytoplankton and zooplankton.
is/are correct? Which of the statements given above
(a) 1 only is/are correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Q68. 'It refers to an interconnected network of
feeding relationships. It illustrates all Q72. With reference to crocodile species in
possible transfers of energy and nutrients India, consider the following statements:
among the organisms and species in an 1. Only three types of crocodile species
ecosystem.' are found in India.
Which of the following is being described 2. Uttar Pradesh is the only state to
in the above passage? house all species of crocodiles found
(a) Food Chain in India.
(b) Energy Pyramid Which of the statements given above
(c) Food Web is/are correct?
(d) Homeostasis (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Q69. What is common to the species 'Lantana, (c) Both 1 and 2
Parthenium and African catfish'? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) These species have high medicinal
value. Q73. Consider the following Global
(b) All the three species are found Conventions:
southern India only. 1. Convention on Migratory Species
(c) They are invasive species. (CMS)
(d) They are critically endangered species 2. Convention on International Trade in
in India. Endangered Species (CITES)
3. RAMSAR Convention
Q70. What is common to the following 4. United Nations Convention to Combat
animals: Desertification (UNCCD)
Springtail, Fiddler crab, Slug? Arrange the above conventions in the
(a) They are mammals found in India. correct chronological order of their
(b) They are carnivores present in the top entering into force.
trophic level in the ecosystem. (a) 1-3-2-4
(c) They are part of a detritus food chain. (b) 2-3-4-1
(d) They are part of all grazing food © 2-3-1-4
chains. (d) 1-2-3-4

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Q74. Whenever forest land is diverted for non Q76. With reference to the gaseous and
forest purposes, Compensator y particulate pollutants present in the
Afforestation is mandatory under which troposphere, consider the following
of the following Acts? statements:

(a) Biological Diversity Act, 2002 1. Nitrogen dioxide damage the leaves
of plants and retard the rate of
(b) Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 photosynthesis.

(c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 2. Carbon dioxide binds to haemoglobin

to form carboxyhaemoglobin which
(d) Indian Forest Act, 1927 reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity
of the blood.

3. The presence of particulate matter in

polluted air catalyses the oxidation of
sulphur dioxide to sulphur trioxide.

Q75. Which of the following is/are correct Which of the statements given above are
regarding United Nations Forum on correct?
Forests (UNFF)?
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. It is mandated to promote the (b) 2 and 3 only
management, conser vation and (c) 1 and 3 only
sustainable development of all types (d) 1, 2 and 3
of forests.

2. It was established as a subsidiary body

to the UNEP.

3. It is composed of all Member States of Q77. Which of the following best describes the
the United Nations. technology called Selective Catalytic
Reduction (SCR)?
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. (a) It is a technology that uses ammonia
to convert NOX to nitrogen.
(a) 1 only (b) It is a technology that uses oxygen in
excess to convert the harmful carbon
(b) 2 and 3 only monoxide to carbon dioxide.
(c) It is a method that uses electric charge
(c) 1 and 3 only to remove impurities in air.
(d) It is a technology that reduces sulphur
(d) 1, 2 and 3 dioxide to sulphur.

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Q78. With reference to Black Carbon, consider Q81. With reference to the fluoride ion
the following statements: concentration in drinking water, consider
1. It is a gaseous substance that results the following statements:
from the incomplete combustion of
fossil fuels and biomass. 1. Soluble fluoride ions in drinking water
2. It remains in the atmosphere for a make the enamel on teeth much
shorter period of time and contributes harder.
to climate change. 2. The optimum level of fluoride in
3. It lowers the albedo of Earth’s surface drinking water is up to 1 ppm.
that causes temperature rise. 3. Methemoglobinemia disease is
Which of the statements given above caused by the excess of fluoride ions in
is/are correct? drinking water.
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above are
(c) 2 and 3 only correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
Q79. Consider the following statements (b) 1 and 3 only
regarding Arsenic pollution: (c) 2 and 3 only
1. Arsenic has no smell or taste. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Arsenic is a carcinogenic agent.
3. Arsenic is the most common heavy
metal pollutant found in India's rivers.
Which of the statements given above Q82. In the context of pollution control
is/are correct? technologies, consider the following
(a) 1 only statements with respect to Flue Gas
(b) 1 and 2 only Desulfurization:
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. This technology uses Ammonia as a
reducing agent to convert oxides of
Q80. With reference to the Blue Carbon sulfur to sulfur.
Ecosystem, consider the following 2. It is accomplished through either a wet
statements: or a dry process.
1. The carbon sequestering capacity of a 3. Flue Gas Desulfurization products are
coastal blue carbon ecosystem is more used in cement manufacturing and
than those of tropical forests. agricultural applications.
2. The Blue Carbon Initiative for securing
the Blue Carbon Ecosystem is an Which of the statements given above
initiative of Conservation is/are correct?
International.
Which of the statements given above (a) 2 only
is/are correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q83. With reference to the Global Methane Q85. Consider the following statements
Pledge, Consider the following regarding the Convention on Biological
statements: Diversity:

1. The Global Methane Pledge aims to 1. The convention comes into force on
cut 30% of methane emissions by December 1993.
2050. 2. The Secretariat of the Convention on
2. The pledge was taken at the United Biological Diversity (SCBD) is based in
Nations Climate Change COP-26, Montreal, Canada.
Glasgow. 3. It covers biodiversity at all levels:
3. India along with the United States are ecosystems, species and genetic
the signatories to the Global Methane resources.
Pledge.
Which of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above correct?
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only

Q84. With reference to the United Nations Q86. With reference to International Union for
Convention to Combat Desertification Conservation of Nature (IUCN), consider
( U N CC D ) , c o n s i d e r t h e f o l l o w i n g the following statements:
statements:
1. IUCN World Conservation Congress
1. I t i s t h e s o l e l e g a l l y b i n d i n g takes place every four years.
international agreement linking 2. The IUCN Council is the principal
environment and development to governing body of IUCN.
sustainable land management. 3. Commission on Education and
2. The 'trends in carbon stocks below Communication is one of the six IUCN
and above ground' are a progress Commissions.
indicator used by UNCCD in its latest
strategic framework to combat land Which of the statements given above are
desertification and droughts. correct?

Which of the statements given above (a) 1 and 3 only

is/are correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q87. With reference to the banning of Q89. Consider the following statements
Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) in regarding ozone pollution in India:
India, consider the following statements:
1. Ground-level ozone is formed by the
1. The POPs mentioned in the Stockholm chemical reactions between oxides of
Convention are banned under the nitrogen (NOx) and volatile organic
provisions of the Air (Prevention and compounds (VOC).
Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
2. The Cabinet has delegated its powers 2. Ozone can reduce the yields of cereal
to ratify chemicals under the crops like wheat.
Stockholm Convention to Union
Ministers of External Affairs (MEA) and 3. Ozone pollution is measured through
Environment, Forest and Climate National Air Quality Index.
Change (MEFCC).
3. The ratification process would enable Which of the statements given above
India to access Global Environment is/are correct?
Facility (GEF) financial resources in
updating the National (a) 1 only
Implementation Plan (NIP). (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above are (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Q90. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Great Green Wall (GGW)
Q88. Consider the following statements Programme:
regarding Ocean Acidification:
1. GGW Programme spans between the
1. Ocean acidification increases the Sahel region from Senegal in the West
amount of carbonate in oceans and to Djibouti in the East of Africa.
suffocates corals.
2. Animals like Starfish, Sea butterflies, 2. The GGW programme was launched
and Mussells are benefited from by United Nations Environment
ocean acidification. Programme (UNEP).
3. Currently the pH of the world's oceans
is slightly less than 7. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above
is/are not correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q91. Consider the following statements about Q93. With reference to the Convention on
Methanol: International Trade in Endangered Species
of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), consider
1. It has a much higher energy efficiency the following statements:
than petrol and diesel.
1. It is the only global treaty that ensures
2. It burns efficiently in all internal the trade in plants and animals does
combustion engines. not threaten their survival in the wild.
2. CITES is legally binding on the parties
3. It does not produce any particulate and it takes the place of national laws.
matter on burning. 3. CITES is administered through the
United Nations Environment
Which of the statements given above Programme (UNEP).
is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above is/ar
(a) 1 only correct
(b) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q92. With reference to stubble burning, Q94. Which of the following is not known to be
consider the following statements: released into the atmosphere due to the
burning of plastics?
1. The oxides of sulfur are released
during crop residue burning. (a) Dioxins
(b) Furans
2. The heat from burning paddy straw (c) Radon
kills the bacterial and fungal (d) Polychlorinated Biphenyls
populations critical for fertile soil.

3. Burning crop residue is a crime both Q95. arasingha, or swamp deer, is deer species
under the Indian Penal Code (IPC) and found in many parts of the Indian
under the Air Pollution Control Act of subcontinent. The swamp deer differs
1981. from all other Indian deer species in that
the antlers carry more than three tines.
Which of the statements given above are Barashingha is the state animal of which of
correct? the following states?

(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh

(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Bihar and Uttar Pradesh
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand

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Q96. Arrange the following Ramsar Sites in Q99. Which of the following functions is/are
India from North to South: performed by the Central Zoo Authority
1. Renuka Lake (CZA)?
2. Sambhar Lake
3. Bhoj wetland 1. To recognize zoos and specif y
4. Tsomoriri minimum standards for housing and
Select the correct answer using the code veterinary care of the animals kept in
given below. zoos.
(a) 2-4-3-1 2. To identify endangered species of wild
(b) 4-2-1-3 animals for purposes of captive
(c) 4-1-2-3 breeding.
(d) 1-2-3-4 3. To advise the Government on matters
relating to the medical care and
Q97. Aestivation or summer sleep is attention which may be provided in
commonly practiced by which of the animal hospitals.
following organisms?
1. Snakes Select the correct answer using the code
2. Bear given below.
3. Crocodiles
4. Frogs (a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 1 and 2 only
given below. (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only

Q98. Which of the following is/are the main Q100. Which of the following living organisms
objectives of UNESCO's Man and are extinct?
Biosphere programme?
1. To identify and assess the changes in 1. Tasmanian Tiger
the biosphere resulting from human 2. Dodo
and natural activities 3. Stellar's sea cow
2. To study and compare the dynamic 4. Madarin Duck
interrelationships between natural
ecosystems and socio-economic Select the correct answer using the code
processes. given below.
3. To promote the exchange and transfer
of knowledge on environmental (a) 1 and 2 only
problems and solutions. (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
given below. (d) 3 and 4 onlyed
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
ENVIRONMENT
TEST - III

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO,
GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fi ll in the Roll Number carefully without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will
render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in
some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certifi cate.
8. After you have completed fi lling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers
happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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Q1. Consider the following statements Q4. Which of the following is not known to be
regarding the Coastal Regulation Zones released into the atmosphere due to the
(CRZs): burning of plastics?
1. CRZs are declared by the Ministry of (a) Dioxins
Environment, Forest and Climate (b) Furans
Change. (c) Radon
2. The CRZs rules include only the (d) Polychlorinated Biphenyls
intertidal zone and land part of the
coastal area.
Which of the statements given above Q5. Consider the following statements with
is/are correct? reference to Green India Mission:
(a) 1 only 1. It aims to enhance forest cover and
(b) 2 only forest-based livelihood income of
(c) Both 1 and 2 households.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. It is a mission under the National
Action Plan on Climate Change
(NAPCC).
Q2. Which of the following correctly describes 3. It is implemented on both public as
'Carbon Intensity Indicator'? well as private lands.
(a) Amount of carbon emissions by a Which of the statements given above
power plant per unit of energy is/are correct?
produced. (a) 1 only
(b) A m o u n t o f c a r b o n e m i s s i o n s (b) 2 and 3 only
generated by a healthy human being (c) 3 only
during his/her lifetime. (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) A m o u n t o f c a r b o n e m i s s i o n s
generated by a Ship in doing one unit
of transport work. Q6. Which of the following is/are the main
(d) Potential loss of carbon sequestration objectives of UNESCO's Man and
due to rapid melting of glacial sheets. Biosphere programme?
1. To identify and assess the changes in
the biosphere resulting from human
Q3. Which of the following are the major and natural activities.
effects of ammonia pollution? 2. To study and compare the dynamic
1. Eutrophication and Acidification interrelationships between natural
effects on semi-natural ecosystems ecosystems and socio-economic
2. Dead zones with dangerously low processes.
oxygen levels in the water bodies 3. To promote the exchange and transfer
3. Formation of haze like conditions in of knowledge on environmental
the atmosphere problems and solutions.
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below. given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

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Q7. What are the special conditions under Q10. Consider the following statements with
which the Chief Wildlife Warden can reference to the National Green Tribunal
permit hunting of Schedule I animals? (NGT):
1. If the animal is dangerous to human
life. 1. It is not bound by the procedure under
2. If the animal is disabled or injured one. the Code of Civil Procedure and is
3. If the animal is diseased which is guided by principles of natural justice.
beyond the recovery stage.
2. The Tribunal is mandated to make and
Select the correct answer using the code endeavor for disposal of applications
given below. or appeals finally within 1 month of the
(a) 1 and 2 only filing of the same.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above
(d) 1, 2 and 3 is/are correct?

Q8. REDD+ is a framework (or mechanism) to (a) 1 only

guide activities in the sustainable (b) 2 only
management of forests and reduce (c) Both 1 and 2
emissions. Its objective is to create a (d) Neither 1 nor 2
financial value for the carbon stored in
forests by offering incentives for
developing countries REDD+ has been
developed by
Q11. This sanctuary is India s one of the most
(a) I U C N ( I n te r n a t i o n a l U n i o n f o r famous wildlife sanctuaries and is rightly
Conservation of Nature) known as the “green paradise” of India. It
(b) Parties to the UNFCCC is located in the outer Himalayas and the
(c) WWF and IUCN river Kali forms one of its boundaries. It
(d) OECD nations a l s o c o n t a i n s f a m o u s p e a k s l i ke
Panchchuli, Neodhura and has famous
Q9. Consider the following statements: passes like Lumpiya Lekh and Mankshang
1. All marine mammals found in Indian Lekh. It has been set up primarily with the
waters belong to the order cetacea. objective of conserving the musk deer
2. All species of marine mammals found and its habitat.
along the Indian coast are protected
under the Wildlife Protection Act, Which one of the following wildlife
1972. sanctuary is being referred to in the above
passage?
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? (a) Bhitarkanika wildlife sanctuary
(a) 1 only (b) Askot wildlife sanctuary
(b) 2 only (c) Chinnar wildlife sanctuary
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Pangot and kilbury wildlife sanctuary
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q12. In the context of bees, which of the Q14. With reference to the differences
following statements best describes between Bioaccumulation and
Colony Collapse Disorder? Biomagnification, consider the following
statements:
(a) It is the disappearance of a queen bee
in a colony which hampers further 1. While bioaccumulation refers to the
propagation of the colony. accumulation of a toxic chemical in the
tissue of a particular organism,
(b) It is a sudden drop in the number of biomagnification deals with build-up
drones or male bees in colony. in multiple organisms.
2. While bioaccumulation takes place
(c) It is the disappearance of majority of between two given trophic levels,
worker bees in a colony leaving behind biomagnification takes place or occurs
a queen and plenty of food. within a given trophic level in a food
chain.
(d) It is the collapse of a bee hive due to
excessive accumulation of nectar. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Q13. Consider the following statements (d) Neither 1 nor 2
regarding Fishing Cat:

1. It is nocturnal in nature.
2. In India, fishing cats are only found in
the mangrove forests of the Q15. Which of the following statements is/are
Sundarbans. correct with regards to the temperate
3. It is an adept swimmer and can enter deciduous forest?
the water to prey on fish.
1. They are dominated by low broad
Which of the statements given above leafed evergreen trees.
is/are correct? 2. They have deep podzolic soils.
3. Annual rainfall is distributed uniformly
(a) 1 and 2 only throughout forest.

(b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the code

given below.
(c) 3 only
(a) 1 only
(d) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q16. Consider the following statements Q18. Consider the following statements with
regarding Turtle Survival Alliance (TSA): reference to Montreux Record under
Ramsar Convention:
1. It was formed as a partnership for
sustainable management of 1. It is a register of wetland sites where
freshwater turtles between WWF and changes in ecological character have
IUCN. occurred as a result of human
2. It aims at restoring populations of interference.
turtles as well as tortoises. 2. Keoladeo National Park and Chilka
Lake are the two wetlands of India
Which of the statements given above currently placed in Montreux Record.
is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above
(a) 1 only is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q19. Which of the following are the objectives

Q17. Which of the following factors may laid down in the National Forest Policy,
account for an increase in frothing in the 1988 of India?
Yamuna River?
1. Checking soil erosion and denudation
1. P r e s e n c e o f p h o s p h a t e s a n d in the catchment areas of rivers and
surfactants in river water. lakes.
2. Less amount of water during the 2. Checking the extension of sand-dunes
winter season. in the desert areas of Rajasthan and
3. Turbulence or fall of river water from coastal tracts.
barrages. 3. Encouraging the involvement of
4. D e c o m p o s i n g v e g e t a t i o n a n d women to achieve the objectives and
presence of filamentous bacteria. minimize pressure on existing forests.
4. Meeting the requirements of fuel-
Select the correct answer using the code wood, fodder and minor forest
given below. produce of the rural and tribal
populations.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only given below.
(a) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Q20. Which of the following aquatic species Q23. Consider the following statements:
are you likely to find in the Beas river of
Punjab? 1. Neuston are organisms that remain
1. Indus River Dolphin attached to stems and leaves of rooted
2. Common Carp plants.
3. Humpback Mahseer 2. Plankton are microscopic plants
Select the correct answer using the code likealgae and animals found in aquatic
given below. ecosystems.
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. Benthic organisms are those found
(b) 2 only living at the bottom of the water mass.
(c) 3 only 4. Periphyton are unattached organisms
(d) 1, 2 and 3 that live at the air-water interface.

Q21. Consider the following statements with Which of the statements given above are
reference to the differences between correct?
Seagrasses and Seaweeds:
1. While seagrasses are considered (a) 2 and 3 only
vascular plants which have roots, (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
stems, and leaves, seaweeds have little (c) 2 and 4 only
or no vascular tissues. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. In nature, there are more number of
seagrass species than species of
seaweeds. Q24. Which of the following initiatives are
3. While seagrasses reproduce through planned under the National Mission for
production of spores, seaweeds Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE) to
reproduce sexually through flowers. enhance energy efficiency in energy
Which of the statements given above intensive industries?
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. Perform Achieve and Trade Scheme
(b) 2 and 3 only (PAT)
(c) 1 only 2. Market Transformation for Energy
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Efficiency (MTEE)
3. Energy Efficiency Financing Platform
Q22. Which of the following best describes (EEFP)
'Foundation Species' in an ecosystem? 4. Framework for Energy Efficient
(a) It is the primary species that is Economic Development (FEEED)
invariably chosen for ecosystem
conservation. Select the correct answer using the code
(b) It is a species whose addition to or loss given below.
leads to major changes in abundance
of at least one other species. (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) It is a species whose presence (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
indicates the presence of a set of other (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
species. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) It is a dominant primary producer in an
ecosystem

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Q25. Consider the following statements Q28. Arrange the following greenhouse gases
regarding Red Sanders: in the increasing order of their Global
1. It is listed as vulnerable in the Warming Potential (GWP).
International Union for Conservation 1. Carbon Dioxide
of Nature s (IUCN) Red List. 2. Nitrous Oxide
2. It is endemic to Western Himalayas. 3. Methane
3. It is used for making furniture, Select the correct answer using the code
woodcraft and musical instruments. given below.
4. It is listed under Appendix II of CITES. (a) 1-2-3
Which of the statements given above are (b) 1-3-2
correct? (c) 2-1-3
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 2-3-1
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q29. Categorization of Industries by CPCB is
done based on their pollution load into
Q26. Which of the following come under the red, orange, green, and white categories.
category of Persistent Organic Pollutants In this context consider the following
( P O P s ) a s d e fi n e d b y St o c k h o l m statements:
Convention? 1. It is not necessary to obtain consent to
1. Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons operate for the white category of
(PAHs) industries.
2. Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane 2. Red category of industries is not
(DDT) permitted in the protected area.
3. Polychlorinated biphenyls Which of the statements given above
Select the correct answer using the code is/are correct?
given below. (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q27. Which of the following best describes the Q30. Which of the following is/are the
term 'Carrying capacity of an ecosystem'? Commissions of the International Union
(a) It is a measure of the human demand for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)?
on nature using an ecological 1. Species Survival Commission
accounting system. 2. World Commission on Protected
(b) It refers to the maximum number of Areas
individuals that the environment can 3. World Commission on Environmental
carry and sustain. Law
(c) It refers to the average longevity of Select the correct answer using the code
offsprings of all the species living in an given below.
ecosystem. (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) It refers to the minimum number of (b) 2 only
individuals that the environment can (c) 3 only
carry and sustain. (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q31. Consider the following statements Q34. Which of the following ecological
regarding Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs): functions are performed by freshwater
1. T h e s e a r e o z o n e - d e p l e t i n g turtles?
substances.
2. These are primarily used for cooling 1. T h e y k e e p r i v e r s , p o n d s , a n d
and refrigeration. freshwater sources clean by eating
3. All these are long-lived climate algal blooms and scavenging on dead
pollutants. matter.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? 2. They help in the dispersal of seeds of
(a) 1 only plant species.
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 3. They control invasive fishes by eating
(d) 1, 2 and 3 them.

Q32. Consider the following statements with Select the correct answer using the code
regards to the Zero Tillage: given below.
1. Seeds are sown through drillers
without prior land preparation. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. Seeds sown under this method do not (b) 2 and 3 only
encounter the crust in the soil. (c) 1 and 3 only
3. It helps in reduction of green house (d) 1, 2 and 3
gas effect.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only Q35. Consider the following statements
(b) 2 and 3 only regarding Ecological Pyramids:
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. The Pyramid of Numbers is always
upright.
Q33. This National Park was established in the
year 1936 as Hailey National Park and is 2. The Pyramid of Biomass may be
India's oldest National Park. It was the inverted in certain aquatic
place where Project Tiger was first ecosystems.
launched in 1973. The park encompasses
the Patli Dun valley formed by the 3. The Pyramid of Energy accurately
Ramganga river. reflects the laws of thermodynamics.
Which of the following National Park has
been described in the passage given Which of the statements given above
above? is/are correct?
(a) Gangotri National Park
(b) Jim Corbett National Park (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Dachigam National Park (b) 3 only
(d) Dudhwa National Park (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q36. With reference to species interaction, Select the correct answer using the code
consider the following pairs: given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
Type of Interaction Example (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
1. Commensalism Releasing (d) 1 and 4 only
chemical
substances by the Q38. Which of the following is/are the
black walnut tree advantages of cultivating plants through
that suppresses hydroponics vis-a-vis traditional farming?
the growth of
other plants 1. It requires less space.
near it
2. It uses less water.
2. Amensalism An epiphytic
plant growing 3. The growth rate of plant is faster.
on the
trunk of a tree Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
3. Mutualism The nitrogen-
fixing bacteria (a) 1 only
Rhizobium found (b) 2 and 3 only
in the root (c) 1 and 3 only
nodules of (d) 1, 2 and 3
leguminous
plants

Which of the pairs given above is/are Q39. Consider the following statements:
correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. Koala is an herbivorous marsupial,
(b) 2 only found only in Australia.
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. India has the highest population of
Asiatic wild dogs.
Q37. With reference to ‘Sea Cucumber,’ a
marine animal found in India, which of the 3. Golden Langur is endemic to India and
following statements are correct? Bhutan.
1. It is a carnivorous species.
2. S e a C u c u m b e r i s l i s t e d u n d e r Which of the statement given above is/are
Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection correct?
Act (WPA), 1972.
3. Harvesting of the sea cucumber is (a) 1 and 2 only
banned in India. (b) 2 and 3 only
4. Andaman & Nicobar Island is the (c) 3 only
w o r l d ’s fi r s t s e a c u c u m b e r (d) 1, 2 and 3
conservation area.

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Q40. Which of the following statements is not Q43. Consider the following statements with
correct with respect to National Green reference to the Critical Tiger Habitats:
Tribunals Act, 2010?
(a) It was enacted under article 21 of the 1. They are areas of National Parks and
Constitution. Sanctuaries which are kept as inviolate
(b) It has power to hear all civil and for the purposes of wildlife
criminal cases related to conservation.
environmental issues. 2. They are determined and notified by
(c) While passing the orders NGT will the Central Government.
a p p l y p r i n c i p l e of s u s t a i n a b l e 3. They are defined under the Wildlife
development and polluters to pay. (Protection) Act, 1972.
(d) It has original jurisdiction related with
Forest Act 1980 and Biological Which of the statements given above
Diversity Act 2002. is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
Q41. What is common to the places known as (b) 1 and 2 only
Ghoghla, Kasarkod and Rushikonda? (c) 3 only
(a) ancient temple sites devoted to Shiva (d) 2 only
(b) water reservoirs
(c) major industrial gas leak sites
(d) blue Flag certified Beaches
Q44. Consider the following statements
regarding Globally Important Agricultural
Q42. Consider the following statements Heritage Systems:
regarding United Nations Convention on
Biological Diversity: 1. It is a living, evolving system of human
1. It was opened for signature after the communities in an intricate
Wo r l d S u m m i t o n S u s t a i n a b l e relationship with their agricultural
Development. landscape or biophysical and wider
2. It is an international legal instrument social environment.
for fair and equitable sharing of the 2. This status is accorded by the United
benefits arising out of the utilization of Nations Educational, Scientific, and
genetic resources. Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
3. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 was 3. At present only one agricultural
enacted because of India's ratification system in India has been accorded this
of the Convention on Biological status.
Diversity.
Which of the statements given above Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q45. With reference to the Convention on (a) They require high solar radiation to
International Trade in Endangered Species filter saline water through their roots.
of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), consider (b) Due to the movement of tectonic
the following statements: plates in late Cretaceous to Paleocene
epochs.
1. It probits both commercial and (c) Warm water at tropics and subtropics
noncommercial trade of all species have higher quantity of dissolved
mentioned in Appendix I. oxygen for photosynthesis.
2. International trade in specimens of (d) Soil present near tropical and
Appendix-II species may be subtropical coastal areas have higher
authorized by the granting of an levels of nutrients than other coastal
export permit or reexport certificate. regions in the world.
3. Appendix III is a list of species included
at the request of a Party that already Q48. Which of the following is/are the major
regulates trade in the species. sources of Mercury Pollution?

Which of the statements given above 1. Chlor-alkali production

is/are correct? 2. Waste incineration
3. Cement production
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code
(c) 3 only given below.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
Q46. Which of the following species of deers (b) 2 and 3 only
are most likely to be found in northeast (c) 3 only
India? (d) 1, 2 and 3

1. Sambar Deer Q49. Consider the following passage:

2. Hangul
3. Brow-antlered deer “This is a nocturnal primate species and
4. Swamp Deer mostly lives on the trees, it rarely comes
5. Hog Deer down on the ground. It has been listed as
‘Endangered’ by the International Union
Select the correct answer using the code for the Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Its
given below. geographical distribution is limited to
Southern India only.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only The above passage describes which of the
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only following species?
(d) 2, 4 and 5 only
(a) Slender loris
Q47. Why mangroves are mainly confined to (b) Lion-tailed macaque
tropical and subtropical coastal regions of (c) Nilgiri langur
the world? (d) Eastern hoolock gibbon

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Q50. The term 'niche' in ecology can be Which of the statements given above are
defined as: correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(a) It is a zone of junction between two or (b) 2 and 3 only
more diverse ecosystems. (c) 1 and 2 only
(b) It is a description of all the biological (d) 1, 2 and 3
factors that species needs to survive.
(c) It functional unit of biosphere Q53. With reference to the Forest Rights Act
consisting of community of living (FRA) 2006, which of the following
beings and the physical environment statements are correct?
(d) It is a change of physical and chemical 1. It gives the right to ownership to
characteristics between two landfarmed forest dwellers up to 10
ecosystems. hectares.
2. There are separate eligibility criteria
Q51. Consider the following statements for Scheduled Tribes and Other forest
regarding Stockholm Convention: dwellers to claim rights under FRA
3. Gram Sabha has been designated
1. The Global Environmental Facility competent authority to decide the
(GEF) is the designated interim nature and extent of individual or
financial mechanism for the community rights for forest dwellers.
Stockholm Convention. select the correct answer using the code
2. U n i t e d N a t i o n s I n d u s t r i a l given below.
Development Organization (UNIDO) (a) 1 and 2 only
is responsible for suppor ting (b) 2 and 3 only
developing countries and countries (c) 3 only
with economies in transition to (d) 1, 2 and 3
implement the Stockholm
Convention. Q54. Consider the following pairs:

Which of the statements given above Wildlife Community

is/are correct? known for
their
(a) 1 only conservation
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. Blackbuck Bishnoi
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Asiatic Lion Maldhari
Q52. Consider the following statements:
3. Indian Giant Squirrel Gond
1. All Lakshadweep islands are of coral
origin. Which of the pairs given above are
2. River Beas is the only habitat of the correctly matched?
Indus River Dolphin in India. (a) 1 and 2 only
3. Buxa, Palamau, and Dampa Tiger (b) 2 and 3 only
reserves don't have any Tiger species (c) 1 and 3 only
within their marked boundaries. (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q55. Consider the following statements Q58. Consider the following organisms:
regarding the "Loss and Damage Fund": 1. Rhizobium
2. Nostoc
1. It aims to provide financial assistance 3. Azolla
to nations most vulnerable and 4. Cyanobacteria
impacted by the effects of climate
change. Which of the above-given organisms can
2. It was operationalisedt at COP-21, UN be used as bio-fertilisers?
Climate Change Conference in Paris, (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
France. (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
Which of the statements given above (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only Q59. Which of the following measures can be
(b) 2 only applied to control the Vehicular Air
(c) Both 1 and 2 Pollution?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Use of leaded gasoline
2. Reduce sulphur content in petrol and
Q56. It is a community of living organisms in diesel
conjunction with the nonliving 3. Discourage the use of catalytic
components of their environment, converters in vehicles.
interacting as a system. These are 4. Use of methanol-blended petrol
functionally independent units of nature
which show characteristic energy flow and Select the correct answer using the code
nutrient cycling. given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
Which of the following is best described (b) 2 and 4 only
by the above passage? (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) Ecosystem (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) Ecological niche
© Ecocline Q60. Consider the following statements with
(d) Ecotone reference to Biological Oxygen Demand
(BOD):
Q57. Consider the following entities: 1. It is the amount of oxygen required for
microorganism to decompose organic
1. Bacteria matter in the water.
2. Fungi 2. Clean water has a greater value of BOD
3. Pollens than polluted water.
4. Mites
Which of the statements given above is/
Which of the entities given above can be are correct?
biological contaminants? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Q61. With respect to the 'National Board for Which of the pairs given above is/are
Wildlife (NBWL)', consider the following correctly matched?
statements: (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
1. It was established in 1952 as an (c) 3 only
advisory body (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The Minister of Environment, Forest &
Climate Change is the Chairman of this
body
3. No alternation of boundaries in Q64. Setting up of which of the following
national parks and wildlife sanctuaries projects will require mandator y
can be done without the approval of Environmental Impact Assessment?
the NBWL
1. Thermal Power Station
Which of the statement given above is/are 2. Crude Oil Refineries
correct? 3. Special Waste Incineration
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code
(c) 3 only given below.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
Q62. Methane a greenhouse gas is produced (b) 1 and 3 only
naturally from which of the following (c) 2 and 3 only
sources? (d) 1, 2 and 3

1. Paddy fields
2. Coal mines
3. Garbage dumps Q65. Which of the following is/are the causes
of coral bleaching?
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below. 1. Excessive sedimentation in the reef
(a) 1 only ecosystem
(b) 2 and 3 only 2. Excess nutrients like ammonia and
(c) 1 only nitrates entering the reef system
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Increased exposure to Ultraviolet (UV)
radiation
Q63. Consider the following pairs:
Select the correct answer using the code
Pollutant Related disease given below.

1. Coal dust Pneumoconiosis (a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only
2. Cotton dust Byssinosis (c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Mercury Minamata

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Q66. Which of the following are the powers of Which of the statements given above
the Central Government under the is/are correct?
Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. It can set the standards for the (c) 1 and 3 only
emissions of pollutants from any (d) 1, 2 and 3
source.
2. It can lay down the procedures and
safeguards for the handling of Q69. Consider the following pairs:
hazardous substances.
3. It can compel a state government to Protected Area Famous for
take prior approval for directing any
forest land for non-forest purposes. 1. Manas Pygmy hog
National Park
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. 2. Dachigam Kashmiri Stag
National Park
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 3. Silent Valley Lion tailed
(c) 1 and 3 only National Park macaques
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the pairs given above are
Q67. The gas is a lung irritant that can lead to correctly matched
anacute respiratory disease in children, is (a) 1 and 2 only
toxic to living tissues, harmful to various (b) 2 and 3 only
textile fibres and metal. It produces an (c) 1 and 3 only
irritant red haze in the traffic and (d) 1, 2 and 3
congested places.

Which gas is being described in the above Q70. If you want to see “Rhododendron
paragraph? species and sub-species” in their natural
habitat, which of the following are the
(a) Sulphur dioxide best places to visit?
(b) Nitrogen dioxide 1. Kanchendzonga Biosphere Reserve
(c) Ammonia 2. Sajnakhali Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Carbon monoxide 3. Singalila National Park
4. Neora Valley National Park
Q68. With reference to Chlorofluorocarbon Select the correct answer using the code
(CFC) compounds, consider the following given below.
statements: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
1. These compounds are highly reactive (b) 2 and 4 only
in nature. (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
2. T h e s e a re n o n - tox i c a n d n o n - (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
flammable
3. These are used in refrigerators, air
conditions and in the plastic industry.

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Q71. With reference to Deep-sea corals and Which of the statements given above are
shallow water corals, consider the correct?
following statements: (a) 1 and 2 only
1. Shallow-water coral reefs are limited (b) 3 and 4 only
to warm tropical waters while deep- (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
sea corals are found throughout the (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
world’s oceans.
2. Shallow water corals have lower Q74. Consider the following statements with
diversity than deep-sea corals. respect to insectivorous plants:
3. S h a l l o w - w a t e r c o r a l s r e l y o n 1. They lack photosynthetic mechanisms
photosynthetic algae for food while and derive their energy from trapping
deep-sea corals rely on organic insects.
material falling from the surface. 2. They are usually associated with
4. Shallow-water corals are less colorful nutrient-poor soils.
than deep-sea corals. 3. Butter wor ts and Nepenthes are
Which of the statements given above are examples of insectivorous plants.
correct? Which of the statements given above
(a) 1 and 3 only is/are correct?
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (a) 2 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q72. Which of the following modifications can
be seen in the Mangroves? Q75. Which of the following could result in the
1. Viviparity occurrence of dead zones?
2. Salt-secreting glands 1. Eutrophication
3. Pneumatophores 2. Stratification of the water column
Select the correct answer using the code 3. Upwelling
given below. Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 and 2 only given below.
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q73. With reference to Nokrek Biosphere
Re s e r v e , c o n s i d e r t h e f o l l o w i n g Q76. Consider the following species:
statements: 1. Mosses
1. Nokrek is the highest peak of the Garo 2. Ferns and allies
hills. 3. Lichens
2. It has been recognized under the To which of the following taxa do the
Manand Biosphere Reserve program above species belong?
of UNESCO. (a) Monera
3. Brahmaputra river flows through it. (b) Plants
4. Citrus indica or wild orange is found at © Protista
this place. (d) Fungi

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Q77. Which of the following adaptation Q80. The Himalayan ranges show a succession
mechanism is/are seen in the of vegetation with the change in the
hydrophytes? altitude.
Arrange the following types of vegetation
1. Absorption of water through the in the order of their appearance as we
surface of the plant body. move from lower to higher altitudes:
2. The absence of mechanical tissues. 1. Deciduous forests
3. Waxy and smooth leaf surface. 2. Wet temperate forests
3. Grassland pastures
Select the correct answer using the code 4. Mosses and Lichens
given below. Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 2-1-3-4
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 3-1-4-2
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1-2-3-4
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1-3-2-4

Q81. Consider the following pairs:

Q78. Which of the following are the uses of
seaweeds? Spice Plant Part

1. Anti-inflammatory and anti-microbial 1. Saffron Seeds

agents
2. Renewable energy generation 2. Turmeric Rhizome
3. Effective binding agents in the
cosmetic industry 3. Cinnamon Bark

Select the correct answer using the code Which of the pairs given above are
given below correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q82. As per the Solid Waste Management
Rules, 2016 in India, which of the following
Q79. Which of the following is not correct with statements is correct?
reference to the African Baobab Tree? (a) The Rules are applicable to Municipal
areas and urban agglomerations only.
(a) It is called the tree of life. (b) As per the new rules, the landfill site
(b) It can live for more than a thousand shall be 5 km away from a river.
years. (c) The generator will have to pay “User
(c) It can store huge capacity of water in Fee” to the waste collector which will
their roots. be decided by the local bodies.
(d) It is also called upside down tree. (d) CPCB shall prepare solid waste
management plan with time line and
its implementation

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Q83. Which of the following are the Q86. In the context of global efforts for the
advantages of fly ash utilization? protection of the environment, which of
1. It works as a soil conditioner and the following happened earliest?
improves water holding capacity. (a) Release of Brundtland Report titled
2. It is used to make stronger and more ‘Our Common Future’
durable concrete. (b) United Nations Conference on
3. It is used in the manufacturing of Environment and Development
absorbents suitable for drinking water (c) United Nations Conference on Human
purification. Environment
(d) Adoption of Kyoto Protocol
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. Q87. Which of the following harmful materials
(a) 1 and 2 only is/are found in e-waste?
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. Lead
(c) 1 and 3 only 2. Cadmium
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Chromium
Select the correct answer using the code
Q84. The National Green Tribunal is given below.
competent to hear matters related to (a) 1 only
which of the following laws? (b) 1 and 2 only
1. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (c) 1, 2 and 3
2. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 (d) 2 and 3 only
3. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002
4. Forest Rights Act, 2006 Q88. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Termites are counted
Select the correct answer using the code among natural sources of methane like
given below. wetlands, wild animals, livestock and
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only geological features like volcanoes.
(b) 2 and 3 only Statement-II: Methanogenic
(c) 1 and 3 only microorganisms that live in the gut of
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 termites break down the cellulose
entering the body and release methane.
Q85. Which of the following substances can Which one of the following is correct in
cause biomagnification? respect of the above statements?
1. Mercury (a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
2. DDT correct, and Statement-2 is the correct
3. Sulphur dioxide explanation for Statement-1.
4. Polychlorinated biphenyls (b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
correct, but Statement-2 is not the
Select the correct answer using the code correct explanation for Statement-1.
given below. (c) Statement-1 is correct, but Statement-
(a) 2 and 3 only 2 is incorrect.
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) St a t e m e n t- 1 i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only Statement-2 is correct.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Q89. Consider the following statements: Q92. Consider the following statements
Statement-I: Most Herbicides are toxic to regarding the Polar Stratospheric Clouds
mammals. (PSC):
Statement-II: Herbicides become 1. PSCs are readily formed in the extreme
concentrated in the food web. cold winters of the Antarctic
Which one of the following is correct in atmosphere.
respect of the above statements? 2. Ozone is destroyed in Antarctica at the
(a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are maximum rate during the winters due
correct, and Statement-2 is the correct to the abundance of PSCs.
explanation for Statement-1.
(b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are Which of the statements given above
correct, but Statement-2 is not the is/are correct?
correct explanation for Statement-1. (a) 1 only
(c) Statement-1 is correct, but Statement- (b) 2 only
2 is incorrect. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) St a t e m e n t- 1 i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement-2 is correct.
Q93. Consider the following compounds:
Q90. Consider the following pollutants: 1. Chlorofluorocarbons
1. Oxides of sulfur 2. Hydrochlorofluorocarbons
2. Particulate Matter 3. Methyl Bromide
3. Oxides of nitrogen 4. Hydrofluorocarbons
4. Carbon monoxide
5. Carbon dioxide How many compounds given above are
Which of the above given pollutants are ozone-depleting?
released during the production of steel? (a) Only one
(a) 1, 3 and 5 only (b) Only two
(b) 1, 4 and 5 only (c) Only three
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only (d) All four
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Q94. Which of the following are the methods
Q91. Consider the following statements with of carbon sequestration?
respect to National Adaptation Fund For 1. Iron fertilization of oceans
Climate Change (NAFCC): 2. Subterranean injection of carbon
1. It was launched in 1992 as a result of dioxide
the earth summit negotiations. 3. Growing seaweeds
2. The National Bank for Agriculture and 4. Wetland restoration
Rural Development (NABARD) is the
National Implementing Entity (NIE). Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above given below.
is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (c) 3 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q95. Which of the following mechanisms have How many of the statements given above
been formulated under the Kyoto are correct?
Protocol?
1. Clean Development Mechanism (a) Only one
2. Joint Implementation (b) Only two
3. Intended Nationally Determined (c) All three
Contributions (d) None
4. International Emission Trading
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. Q98. With reference to the carbon credit,
(a) 1 and 2 only consider the following statements:
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only 1. One carbon credit is equal to one
(d) 3 and 4 only metric ton of carbon dioxide, or in
s o m e m a r ke t s , c a r b o n d i ox i d e
Q96. Consider the following statements: equivalent gases.
Statement-I: Ocean acidification is 2. It is based on the cap-and-trade
detrimental to coral reefs. model.
Statement-II: An increase in acidification
slows the rate at which calcium carbonate Which of the statements given above
is generated. is/are correct?
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements? (a) 1 only
(a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are (b) 2 only
correct, and Statement-2 is the correct (c) Both 1 and 2
explanation for Statement-1. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
correct, but Statement-2 is not the
correct explanation for Statement-1. Q99. Consider the following statements
(c) Statement-1 is correct, but Statement- regarding biochar:
2 is incorrect.
(d) St a t e m e n t- 1 i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t 1. It is a carbon-enriched biomaterial
Statement-2 is correct. generated through incineration.
2. It enriches the soil and prevents it from
Q97. Consider the following statements with leaching pesticides.
respect to the Green Hydrogen Mission of 3. It is also an excellent carbon sink and
India: can be used for carbon sequestration.
1. It aims to make India a net exporter of
green hydrogen. Which of the statements given above
2. It targets to build capabilities to is/are correct?
produce at least 5 million metric
tonnes (MMT) of green hydrogen per (a) 1 only
annum by 2030. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. NITI Aayog will be responsible for the (c) 3 only
overall coordination and (d) 1, 2 and 3
implementation of the mission.

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Q100. In the context of the environment,
‘Carbon Leakage’ is best described as:
(a) It is the expenses incurred by the
nation for carbon emission trading.
(b) It is an increase in emissions outside a
region as a direct result of the policy
measures to cap emissions in the
region.
(c) It is the excess of carbon emissions by
a nation that exceeds prescribed limit
even after acquiring carbon credits
from other nations.
(d) It is a tax evasion mechanism used by
emitters to avoid paying carbon tax for
greenhouse gas emissions.

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 | Navigator | Full Length Test - I

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
FULL LENGTH
TEST - I

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO,
GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fi ll in the Roll Number carefully without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will
render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in
some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certifi cate.
8. After you have completed fi lling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers
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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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 | Navigator | Full Length Test - I
Q1. Given the fiscal drag is prevalent in the Q4. Consider the following:
economy, consider the following:
1. I n c r e a s e i n t a x r e v e n u e f o r 1. Payments Banks
government. 2. Primary Cooperative societies
2. Increase in aggregate demand in 3. Deposit taking NBFCs
economy 4. Small Finance Banks
3. Increase in disposable income for the
taxpayers How many of the institutions given above
4. Increase in inflation in the economy are insured by Deposit Insurance and
5. Increase in money supply in the credit guarantee corporation (DICGC)
economy under its deposit insurance facility?
How many of the above are the most likely
outcomes/consequences of Fiscal Drag in (a) Only one
an economy? (b) Only two
(a) Only two (c) Only three
(b) Only three (d) All four
(c) Only four
(d) All five

Q5. Consider the following statements with

Q2. Which among the following steps is most reference to Gross Domestic Product
likely to be taken to counter deflation in (GDP) Deflator:
the economy?
(a) Increase in interest rates. Statement I: An increase in the GDP
(b) Introducing a price ceiling on essential deflator indicates a rise in the overall price
commodities. level of goods and services within an
(c) Tightening of foreign investment economy.
policies. Statement II: The GDP deflator is a
(d) Introducing tax breaks for industries. measure of the level of prices, which is
expressed as ratio of GDP at current prices
to constant prices.
Q3. Consider the following:
1. Mining and Quarrying Which one of the following is correct in
2. Agriculture and Allied activities respect of the above statements?
3. Steel Manufacturing
4. Transfer Payments (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
5. Sale of second-hand goods correct, and Statement-II is the correct
How many of the above are considered for explanation for Statement-I.
the calculation of National Income by (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Product Method? correct, but Statement-II is not the
(a) Only two correct explanation for Statement-I.
(b) Only three (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
(c) Only four II is incorrect.
(d) All five (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
Statement-II is correct.

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Q6. Consider the following statement with Q8. With reference to Pet Coke (Petroleum
reference to milk production in India: Coke), consider the following statements:
1. It is a carbon-rich solid byproduct
1. Indian contributes around a quarter of formed during crude oil refinement.
total milk production in the world. 2. It is widely used in the steel and
aluminum industry.
2. Milk production has been steadily 3. The import of pet coke for fuel
increasing in the last five years in India. purpose is banned in India.
4. It releases more energy per unit
3. Gujarat is the leading producer of milk weight compared to the coal.
in India. 5. It emits more Carbon-dioxide per unit
weight compared to the coal.
How many of the statements given above How many of the above statements are
are correct? correct?
(a) Only two
(a) Only one (b) Only three
(b) Only two (c) Only four
(c) All three (d) All five
(d) None
Q9. Arrange the following Foreign travellers in
the chronological order of their visit to
India:
1. Marco Polo
2. Domingo Paes
3. Francois Bernier
Q7. Cloud seeding is a weather modification 4. Ibn Battuta
te c h n i q u e t h a t i n vo l ve s i n j e c t i n g Select the correct answer using the code
substances into clouds to induce rain. given below.
Consider the following statements with (a) 2-1-3-4
reference to it: (b) 3-4-1-2
(c) 4-1-3-2
1. Dry ice and liquid propane are utilized (d) 1-4-2-3
in cloud seeding to stimulate rainfall.
Q10. Consider the following statements:
2. Cloud seeding techniques are used to 1. Foreign lawyers can register with the
disperse fog at airports. Bar Council of India to practice in India.
2. Foreign lawyers cannot appear before
Which of the statements given above any courts, tribunals, or any other
is/are correct? regulatory authorities.
Which of the statements given above
(a) 1 only is/are correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q11. Consider the following statements Q14. With reference to lead pollution, consider
concerning the jurisdiction of the high the following:
courts: 1. Gold mining
1. High courts are the highest court of 2. Volcanic eruptions
appeal in the state. 3. Thermal Power Plants
2. The Constitution does not contain 4. M u n i c i p a l s o l i d w a s t e ( M S W )
d e t a i l e d p ro v i s i o n s a b o u t t h e incineration
jurisdiction and powers of a high
court. How many of the above are contributors
to lead pollution?
Which of the statements given above (a) Only one
is/are correct? (b) Only two
(a) 1 only (c) Only three
(b) 2 only (d) All four
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q15. Detritivores play a vital role in ecosystem
function by facilitating nutrient cycling
Q12. Consider the following statements: through the decomposition of organic
1. The Hindu-Kush Himalayan region matter. In that context consider the
spans over five countries only. following species:
2. The Rockies (mountain range) is 1. Ants
spread over three countries only. 2. Sea cucumbers
3. The Andes (mountain range) is spread 3. Dung beetles
over four countries only. 4. Sea horses

Which of the statements given above How many of the above species are
is/are correct? detritivores?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) Only two
(c) 1, 2, and 3 (c) Only three
(d) None (d) All four

Q13. Which of the following are the correct Q16. Which of the following statements is
sequence of the food chain? correct about the desert regions?
1. Grasses-Grasshopper-Frog
2. Caterpillar-Lizard-Snake (a) In hot deserts the annual range of
3. Zooplankton-Squid-Crustaceans temperature is much greater than that
of the mid latitude deserts.
Select the correct answer using the code (b) The aridity of the hot deserts is mainly
given below. due to the effects of one-shore trade
(a) 1 and 2 only winds.
(b) 1 and 3 only (c) Desert soils have very low calcium
(c) 2 and 3 only carbonate and phosphate.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Rain normally occurs as violent
thunderstorms.

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 | Navigator | Full Length Test - I
Q17. Consider the following statements with Q21. Consider the following statements with
reference to Public Accounts Committee: regard to the President's rule in the
1. It was set up first in 1921 under the context of India:
provisions of the Government of India 1. The Constitution of India has not
Act of 1919. e x p l i c i t l y m e n t i o n e d t h e te r m
2. As per the Indian Constitution, the 'President's Rule' under Article 356.
Chairman of the committee is selected 2. Article 365 of the Indian Constitution
invariably from the opposition. also contains provisions regarding the
3. A minister cannot be a member of the imposition of the President's Rule.
committee. Which of the statements given above
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
is/are correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(b) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q22. Consider the following statements
Q18. Assuming other things remaining regarding syngas:
unchanged if a country's aggregate 1. Carbon monoxide and hydrogen are
demand grows faster than the rest of the part of the gaseous mixture of syngas.
world or what the domestic production 2. It can be used to produce fertilisers,
can meet then which of the following is fuels, and synthetic materials.
correct? 3. Steel plants can use syngas as an
(a) Domestic currency of the country alternative to coking coal in their
appreciates. manufacturing process.
(b) Exports of the country grow faster Which of the statements given above are
than imports correct?
(c) Demand for foreign currency is higher (a) 1 and 2 only
than the supply (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q19. In the context of colonial history of India,
the Panjdeh incident is related to: Q23. Consider the following statements with
(a) the annexation of Burma respect to the teachings of Jainism:
(b) seizing of Afghan territory by the 1. I t p r o h i b i t e d t h e p r a c t i c e o f
Russian forces agriculture.
(c) opium trade between India and China 2. No ritual is necessary for freedom
(d) revolt by tribes of North-eastern India from worldly bonds.
3. Like Buddhism, it did not condemn the
Q20. In the context of religious history of India, varna system.
the book Paumacariya – Jaina retelling of Which of the statements given above
the Ramayana was written by is/are correct?
(a) Ashvaghosha (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Hemachandra (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Vimalasuri (c) 2 only
(d) Nagarjuna (d) 2 and 3 only

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Q24. With reference to Indian history, consider Q27. Article 261 of the Indian Constitution
the following events: explains full faith and credit regarding
1. Battle of Buxar public acts and judicial proceedings. In
2. Battle of Wandiwash this context, consider the following
3. Third Battle of Panipat statements:
What is the correct chronological
sequence of the above events? 1. Full faith and credit shall be given
(a) 1-2-3 throughout the territory of India only
(b) 2-3-1 to public acts and records of the Union
(c) 3-2-1 and not of the states.
(d) 3-1-2
2. Final judgments or orders delivered or
Q25. This river originates at Kalapani in the passed by civil courts in any part of the
Himalayas in the Pithoragarh district in territory of India shall be capable of
Uttarakhand. The river flows along Nepal’s execution anywhere within that
western border with India and joins the territory according to law.
Ghaghra River (a tributary of the Ganges).
It has been considered a boundary river Which of the statements given above
between India and Nepal but the is/are correct?
uncertainty of the course of the river has
created territorial issues between the two
nations. (a) 1 only
Which of the following rivers is being (b) 2 only
described in the above given passage? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Karnali River (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Sarayu River
(c) Mahakali River Q28. Arrange the launch of the following
(d) Gandhak River payment systems in chronological order:

Q26. In context of emergence of 'millets' as an 1. RuPay Card

alternative to conventional cereals like
'wheat', which of the following statements 2. Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
is/are correct?
1. Millets have better amino acid profile 3. Immediate Payment Service (IMPS)
as compared to wheat.
2. Dough prepared using millet flour is 4. National Electronic Funds Transfer
more elastic as compared to wheat (NEFT)
flour dough.
3. Millets crops have longer duration of Select the correct answer using the code
harvest as compared to wheat crops. given below
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. (a) 1-2-3-4
(a) 1 only (b) 4-3-1-2
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 4-3-2-1
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3-4-1-2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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 | Navigator | Full Length Test - I
Q29. With reference to the Dutch colonial Q32. Consider the following statements
activities in India, consider the following regarding Compressed Bio Gas (CBG):
statements: 1. CBG has 10 times higher calorific value
1. They established their first factory on than CNG (Compressed Natural Gas).
the west coast. 2. Recently, Asia's largest CBG plant was
2. Dutch did not carry out any trade in established in India.
Bengal due to opposition from the 3. CBG can be produced from municipal
English. waste and crop residue.
3. Dutch were defeated by the English in Which of the statements given above
the Battle of Hooghly. is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above (a) 1 and 2 only
is/are correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Q33. Which of the following measures by the
RBI can help in mitigating the
depreciation of the Rupee?
Q30. If you are traveling from Nathu La to 1. Increase in the external commercial
Kanyakumari by land route, what is the borrowing limit
minimum number of states within India 2. Buying of dollars in the forex market
through which you can travel, including 3. Exempting banks from maintaining
the origin and the destination? CRR and SLR for incremental Non-
(a) 5 Resident (External) Rupee (NRE)
(b) 6 deposits
(c) 7 Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 8 given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
Q31. With reference to ‘Light Detection and (c) 1 and 3 only
Ranging (LiDAR) Technology’, which of the (d) 1, 2 and 3
following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a remote sensing technology that Q34. With reference to quantum physics,
uses laser beams to scan the consider the following statements:
environment. 1. Quantum physics describes reality at
2. LiDAR generates its own transmit the subatomic scales.
signal and can accurately determine 2. Quantum entanglement is a primary
distances. feature of quantum physics.
3. LiDAR signals can penetrate fog, 3. It has applications in cryptography,
discern colour and read traffic signs. advanced computing, and precise
Select the correct answer using the code timekeeping.
given below. Which of the statements given above
(a) 1 and 2 only is/are correct?
(b) 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q35. Consider the following statements Select the correct answer using the code
regarding the Ganga basin: given below.
1. It outspreads in India, Tibet, Nepal and (a) 1 and 2 only
Bangladesh. (b) 2 only
2. In India, it covers and drains a total of (c) 1 and 3 only
ten states and the Union Territory of (d) 1 only
Delhi.
3. More than 60% of the total basin area
in India is covered with agricultural Q38. Consider the following statements:
land. 1. Mongol attacks on the Delhi Sultanate
increased during the reign of Alauddin
Which of the statements given above Khilji.
is/are correct? 2. Alauddin constructed a new garrison
(a) 3 only town named siri for his soldiers.
(b) 1 and 2 only 3. Alauddin chose to pay his soldiers in
(c) 1, 2 and 3 iqtas rather than in cash.
(d) None Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
Q36. Which of the following statements are (a) 1 only
correct regarding the Department-related (b) 1 and 2 only
Standing Committees (DRSCs)? (c) 3 only
1. The DRSCs were set up in 1993 to (d) 1, 2 and 3
scrutinize the functioning of the
various ministries and departments.
2. Twe n t y - f o u r D R S C s h a ve b e e n Q39. Consider the following statements:
constituted with members nominated Statement I- The trading economy
by presiding officers of both Lok flourished during first urbanization phase
Sabha and Rajya Sabha. of ancient India.
3. The maximum strength of a DRSC is Statement II- The spread of Buddhism
twenty-five. and Jainism, both emphasizing non-
violence and ethical conduct, created a
Select the correct answer using the code more stable and peaceful environment
given below. conducive to trade.
(a) 1 and 2 only Which one of the following is correct in
(b) 2 and 3 only respect of the above statements?
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(d) 1, 2 and 3 correct, and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
Q37. Which of the following is/are the likely (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
effects of rising US bond yields on the correct, but Statement-II is not the
Indian economy? correct explanation for Statement-I.
1. I n c r e a s e i n f o r e i g n p o r t f o l i o (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
investments (FPIs) in India II is incorrect.
2. Depreciation of Indian currency (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
3. Decline in inflation Statement-II is correct.

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Q40. With reference to the cultural history of Q43. Which of the following rulers issued the
ancient India, consider the following pairs: ‘Golden Farman’ in 1632 granting the East
India Company the freedom to trade
Works Author within specific regions of India thereby
improving the Company's position in
1. Brahmasputa Aryabhata-I India?
Siddhanta
(a) Sultan of Golconda
2. Siddhanta Varaahamihir (b) Ruler of Chandragiri
Shiromani (c) The Mughal emperor Farukh Siyar.
(d) Sultan of Ahmednagar
3. Brihat Samhita Bhaskaracharya

4. Rasaratnakara Nagarjuna Q 4 4 . W i t h re f e re n c e t o t h e a r t a n d
archaeological history of India, which one
How many of the above pairs are correctly among the following was made earliest?
matched?
(a) Only one (a) Lingaraj Temple at Bhubaneswar
(b) Only two (b) Sultanganj Buddha statue.
(c) Only three (c) Didarganj Yakshi statue.
(d) All four (d) Boar incarnation in Udayagiri caves.

Q41. With reference to the history of modern

India, consider the following Peasant Q45. Consider the following statements
movements: regarding the aerosols in the atmosphere:
1. Indigo revolt.
2. Eka movement 1. They are completely anthropogenic
3. Deccan riots. and are not found naturally.
4. Champaran satyagraha. 2. The concentration of aerosols is
What is the correct chronological order of maximum in the mesosphere.
the above events? 3. They lead to the destruction of ozone
(a) 1-3-4-2 in stratosphere.
(b) 1-3-2-4 4. They last in the atmosphere for much
(c) 2-1-4-3 longer time period than carbon
(d) 1-2-3-4 dioxide.
5. They have a net cooling effect in
Q42. With reference to the history of Medieval earth’s atmosphere.
India, the term "Saranjam" refers to:
(a) land grants allocated to military How many of the above statements are
commanders in the Maratha empire. correct?
(b) token currency issued in the Maratha
empire. (a) Only two
(c) special artillery installed on warships (b) Only three
of the Maratha navy. (c) Only four
(d) a high-quality cotton fabric produced (d) All five
in the Maratha empire

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Q46. Consider the following South Indian Q49. Consider the following statements about
rivers: Spirulina:

1. Cauvery 1. It is a type of fungi.

2. Mahe
3. Pennar 2. It is rich in minerals, vitamins and
4. Kuttiyadi antioxidants and high in protein.

How many of the above rivers originate in 3. It can absorb toxic substances and
the Western Ghats and flow into the Bay of heavy metals from their surroundings.
Bengal?
(a) Only one 4. It is found naturally in areas around
(b) Only two alkaline lakes.
(c) Only three
(d) All four How many of the above statements are
correct?
Q47. Which of the following crops is least
resistant to drought conditions? (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(a) Pearl Millet (c) Only three
(b) Maize (Corn) (d) All four
(c) Cotton
(d) Rice

Q48. Consider the following statements: Q50. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: There is a higher Statement I: The Earth has a slightly

concentration of dust par ticles in ellipsoidal shape.
subtropical and temperate regions
compared to equatorial and polar regions. Statement II: The Earth revolves around
Statement II: Dust particles act as the sun in an elliptical orbit
hygroscopic nuclei around which water
vapour condenses to produce clouds. Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct
correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
explanation for Statement-I. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the
correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
correct explanation for Statement-I. (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement- II is incorrect.
II is incorrect. (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t Statement-II is correct.
Statement-II is correct.

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Q51. With reference to Temperate grasslands, Q53. With respect to the present status of
consider the following statements: Vaccine technology, consider the
following diseases:
1. They occur naturally in all the
continents of the world. 1. Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD).
2. Malaria.
2. T h e y h a v e m i n i m a l a n n u a l 3. Dengue fever.
temperature range. 4. Hepatitis C

3. The soil is highly fertile and rich in At present, how many of the above
organic matter. diseases can be prevented through
Vaccination?
4. Burrowing animals such as rabbits are
commonly found here. (a) Only one
(b) Only two
5. Forest fire and grazing by large (c) Only three
mammals helps in balancing the (d) All four
ecosystem.

How many of the statements given above

are correct? Q54. Consider the following statements:

(a) Only two Statement I: The Aditya-L1 mission which

(b) Only three is an Indian solar observatory has been
(c) Only four placed in a halo orbit instead of low earth
(d) All five orbit.

Q52. Which one of the following statements is Statement-II: Halo orbit is outside of the
incorrect regarding the ‘Bio Credits’ magnetosphere of Earth, providing the in-
launched under the aegis of the United situ sampling of the solar wind and
Nations Convention on Biological particles.
Diversity (UNCBD)?
Which one of the following is correct in
(a) It is used to achieve the target set respect of the above statements?
under the Kunming-Montreal Global
Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF). (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(b) It represents an asset created through correct, and Statement-II is the correct
the conservation of biodiversity in a explanation for Statement-I.
particular area. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(c) The World Bank is responsible for correct, but Statement-II is not the
promoting the usage of biodiversity correct explanation for Statement-I.
credit. (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
(d) Industries can purchase bio credits to II is incorrect.
fulfil their Environmental, Social & (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
Governance (ESG) obligations. Statement-II is correct.

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Q55. Consider the following statements: In the context of the emerging
technologies, the term that best applies to
Statement I: Heavy water is used as a the above scenario is?
moderator in nuclear reactor. (a) Augmented Reality (AR)
(b) Mixed Reality (MR)
Statement II: Heavy water is dipolar in (c) Virtual Reality (VR)
nature. (d) Extended Reality (XR)

Which one of the following is correct in Q57. The Supreme Court (SC) has directed to
respect of the above statements? apply the regulations on firecrackers to all
the states. In this context consider the
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are following pollutants:
correct, and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I. 1. Mercury
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. Sulfur Dioxide
correct, but Statement-II is not the 3. Carbon monoxide
correct explanation for Statement-I. 4. Bromine
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement- 5. Cadmium
II is incorrect.
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t How many of the above pollutants are
Statement-II is correct. generally released in the atmosphere on
urning of firecrackers?
Q56. It integrates real and vir tual (a) Only two
environments, creating immersive digital (b) Only three
experiences as a wholesome of all other (c) Only four
immersive digital experiences. Head- (d) All five
mounted wearables are used with sensors
to detect user movements and gestures Q58. Consider the following statements:
while the integrated software processes
this data into real-time responses within 1. There are more than 80 seats reserved
the digital world. Furthermore, artificial for Scheduled Castes in Lok Sabha.
intelligence elevates the experience by 2. The states of Mizoram and Sikkim
adding an extra layer of realism through have only one seat each in the Lok
predictive interactions. For instance, it Sabha.
could allow you to ‘have a conversation’ 3. The Constitution provides for the
with virtual characters or avatars. Cloud statewise break up of a number of ST
computing is an essential backbone also, reserved seats.
providing enhanced connectivity to
manage and support the vast amounts of How many statements given above are
data these experiences generate. It allows NOT correct?
virtual objects to interact with real-life (a) Only one
spaces. Together, these core pieces create (b) Only two
the seamless visuals, natural controls, and (c) All three
realistic physics that make this emerging (d) None
technology experiences truly immersive.

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Q59. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above
St a t e m e n t- I : T h e c o n s u l t a t i v e is/are correct?
committees, which consist of members of (a) 1 only
Parliament, are not parliamentar y (b) 3 only
committees. (c) 1 and 3 only
S t a t e m e n t- I I : T h e c o n s u l t a t i v e (d) 2 and 3 only
committees are not appointed or elected
by the House or nominated by the
Speaker / Chairman. Q62. With reference to the "Agreement on
Agriculture" (AOA), consider the following
Which one of the following is correct in statements:
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 1. It is an intergovernmental treaty of the
correct, and Statement-II is the correct World Trade Organisation, negotiated
explanation for Statement-I. in Uruguay round.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. The agreement on agriculture consists
correct, but Statement-II is not the of three pillars - domestic support,
correct explanation for Statement-I. market access, and export subsidies.
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement- 3. It covers agricultural products with the
II is incorrect. exception of forestry and fishing
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t products, as well as rubber, sisal, jute,
Statement-II is correct. and abaca.

Q60. Consider the following statements about Which of the statements given above
the Hyperloop technology: (a) 1 and 2 only
1. It is a technique in which a passenger (b) 2 and 3 only
pod travels through a vacuum tube. (c) 1 and 3 only
2. Hyperloop pods can achieve a speed (d) 1, 2 and 3
of over 1000 km/h.
3. The technology involves a system of
magnetically levitating capsules. Q63. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site
located in Bharatpur. It is a complex of 10
How many of the statements given above artificial seasonal lagoons. It is a mosaic of
is/are correct? dry grasslands, woodlands, woodland
(a) Only one swamps and wetlands. It is home to
(b) Only two species such as painted storks, nilgai and
(c) All three Siberian crane.
(d) None
Which of the following Ramsar sites is
Q61. Consider the following statements: being described in the passage given
1. There is no overlap in the ranges of above?
African and Asian elephants. (a) Ashtamudi wetland
2. Both male and female Asian elephants (b) Loktak lake
can have tusks. (c) Chilika lake
3. African elephants are bigger than (d) Keoladeo Ghana National Park
Asian elephants

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Q64. Reference to the settlement of Q67. Which of the following statements is not
international disputes by arbitration is correct regarding Surety Bond Insurance?
made in the Indian Constitution under
which of the following parts? (a) It is a risk transfer that will act as a
security arrangement for
(a) Directive Principle of State Policy infrastructure projects.
(b) Fundamental Rights (b) It shields the principal from the losses
(c) Emergency Provisions that may arise in case the contractor
(d) Fundamental Duties fails to perform their contractual
obligation.
(c) Unlike a bank guarantee, the Surety
Bond Insurance does not require large
Q65. With reference to the Pitt's India Act collateral from the contractor.
1784, consider the following statements: (d) Surety bond insurance will lead to
increase in the initial project cost.
1. It gave the British government
supreme control over the company's Q68. With respect to the pardoning power
affairs and its administration in India. provided under Article 72 of the Indian
Constitution, consider the following pairs:
2. It subordinated Madras and Bombay
presidencies to Bengal in the areas of
war, diplomacy and revenue. Concept Meaning

Which of the statements given above 1. Remission Reducing the

is/are correct? period of a
sentence without
(a) 1 only changing its
(b) 2 only character
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Commutation Substitution of
one form of
punishment for
a lighter form
Q66. Living wage includes the provision of
basic essentials like food, clothing, and 3. Reprieve Complete
shelter along with social needs like health absolution from
and education. The term 'living wage' has all convictions
been mentioned under which of the
following ar ticles of the Indian
Constitution? Which of the pairs given above is/are
correctly matched?
(a) Article 23 (a) 3 only
(b) Article 24 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Article 43 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Article 44 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q69. In the context of the Indian economy, How many statements given above are
which of the following best describes correct?
'Participatory Note' (P-Note)? (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(a) It is a debt instrument which binds the (c) All three
borrowers by law to pay the lender the (d) None
specified sum of money at a specified
date.
(b) It is a short-term finance used for Q72. In context of medieval Indian history,
interbank transactions. consider the following statements
(c) It is a long-term instrument issued by regarding a dyansty:
the Reser ve Bank of India to a
corporation. 1. The dynasty was a feudatory of the
(d) It is a financial instruments used by Western Chalukyas.
investors to invest in the Indian 2. It was famous for the construction of
securities without requiring to register large tanks.
with the market regulator. 3. The Kohinoor diamond in India was
found during this dynastic era.
Q70. Consider the following statements with
reference to the World Metrological Which of the following dynasty has been
Organisation (WMO): described in the statements given above?
1. The WMO was established in 1992 to (a) Hoysalas
address global climate issues. (b) Kadambas
2. WMO's primary focus is on providing (c) Kakatiyas
financial assistance to developing (d) Rashtrakutas
countries for climate change
adaptation projects.
Q73. Consider the following statements with
Which of the statements given above respect to Financial Stability Board (FSB):
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only 1. It was established in 2009 as a
(b) 2 only successor to the Financial Stability
(c) Both 1 and 2 Forum (FSF).
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. The membership in the FSB is limited
to the central banks and supervisory
Q71. Consider the following statements and regulatory authorities.
regarding thorium reserves across the 3. Its decisions are legally binding on its
globe: members.
1. Thorium is a less commonly available
reserve in the earth’s crust than Which of the statements given above
Uranium. is/are correct?
2. Australia has the largest thorium (a) 1 and 3 only
reserves in the world. (b) 1 and 2 only
3. Currently, thorium is mainly produced (c) 1 only
as a by-product of rare earth mines. (d) 2 and 3 only

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Q74. Consider the following statements with Which of the statements given above
reference to the Compensator y is/are correct?
Afforestation Fund (CAF) Act: (a) 1 only
1. The states will receive 90% of the funds (b) 2 only
allocated under the CAF scheme, while (c) Both 1 and 2
the Centre will retain the remaining (d) Neither 1 nor 2
10%.
2. The Act also provides for the audit of Q77. Consider the following statements
the accounts of both National and regarding Zero FIR :
State/UTs CAMPA Authorities by the
Comptroller and Auditor-General of 1. A Zero FIR can be filed in any Police
India (C&AG). Station by the victim, irrespective of
Which of the statements given above their residence or the place of
is/are correct? occurrence of the crime.
(a) 1 only 2. A new FIR cannot be made for
(b) 2 only investigation after a Zero FIR has been
(c) Both 1 and 2 filed
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Provision of Zero FIR came up after the
recommendation in the report of the
Q75. Consider the following statements Malimath committee.
regarding the National Commission for
Women: How many of the statements given above
1. The Commission was established as a are correct?
non-constitutional and non-statutory (a) Only one
body. (b) Only two
2. The Chairperson of the commission (c) All three
has to be a woman. (d) None
3. In certain cases, the commission has
the power to take suo motu notice. Q78. With reference to India’s struggle for
How many of the statements given above freedom, which of the following events/
is/are correct? developments happened the earliest?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (a) Publication of Simon Commission
(c) All three report
(d) None (b) Jinnah’s famous ‘Fourteen Points’
(c) First Round Table Conference
Q76. With reference to the Official Languages (d) Deepavali Declaration by Irwin
Act 1963, consider the following
statements: Q79. In the context of India, Glyphosate
1. I t h a s p r o v i s i o n s t o c o n d u c t recently seen in news is a
proceedings of the Supreme Court
other than in English. (a) herbicide
2. It has provisions regarding High Court (b) fertilizer
to conduct proceedings in the official (c) chlorofluorocarbon
language of the state. (d) flame retardant

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Q80. Consider the following statements Q82. With reference to the Cruise Bharat
regarding UNESCO World Heritage Sites: Mission (CBM), consider the following
statements:
1. The UNESCO World Heritage List
includes both cultural and natural 1. The Cruise Bharat Mission aims to
heritage sites. develop infrastructure for cruise
tourism, with a focus on both
2. The Great Barrier Reef in Australia is international and domestic cruise
the world's largest natural UNESCO routes.
World Heritage Site.
2. It promotes the construction of
3. India has more natural UNESCO World dedicated cruise terminals at major
Heritage Sites than cultural sites. Indian ports to accommodate large
cruise vessels.
4. The World Heritage Committee is
responsible for the selection and 3. The mission’s primary goal is to ensure
monitoring of World Heritage Sites. the reduction of environmental
impacts caused by cruise ships
How many of the statements given above through mandatory carbon offset
are correct? programs for cruise operators.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 4. Under CBM, India is expected to
(c) Only three attract investments primarily from
(d) All four international cruise operators, with
minimal focus on domestic cruise
Q81. Which of the following are objectives of companies
the National Agriculture Code (NAC)?

1. Establishing uniform standards for How many of the above statements are
agricultural produce. correct?

2. Promoting digital platforms for (a) Only one

agricultural trade.
(b) Only two
3. Enhancing export competitiveness of
Indian agricultural products. (c) Only three

4. Facilitating direct procurement from (d) All four

farmers by international buyers.

Choose the correct option:

(a) 1, 2, and 3
(b) 2, 3, and 4
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above

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Q83. Consider the following pairs: Q85. Consider the following statements
regarding the removal of a Judge of the
Country Conflict/Event High Court:

1. Sudan Civil war between 1. A motion for removal must be passed

the SAF and the by a special majority in both Houses of
Rapid Support Parliament.
Forces
2. The grounds for removal are proved
2. Myanmar Resurgence of misbehavior or incapacity.
rebel forces
leading to the 3. The process of removal is regulated by
takeover of Aleppo the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

3. Syria Military coup 4. The President of India has the sole

leading to authority to initiate the removal
widespread civil process.
resistance and
armed conflict Which of the statements given above are
correct?
4. Mozambique Protests and unrest
following contested (a) Only one
presidential (b) Only two
elections (c) Only three
(d) All four
How many of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Q84. How many of the following countries Q86. The NAMASTE Scheme aims to
border the Red Sea?
1. Sudan (a) Ensure safety, dignity, and sustainable
2. Saudi Arabia livelihoods for urban sanitation
3. Egypt workers.
4. Yemen (b) Ensure safety and dignity for elderly
5. Jordan citizens across urban areas.
6. Eritrea (c) Address the rehabilitation of child
How many of the above countries are labourers.
correct? (d) Focus on the development and
(a) Only three welfare of the North Eastern Region.
(b) Only four
(c) Only five
(d) All six

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Q87. With reference to the Paika rebellion of Q89. Consider the following pairs:
Odisha, consider the following
statements:
Biofuel Process involved
1. The Paikas were the traditional landed in the production
militia who enjoyed rent-free land
tenures for their military service and 1. Biodiesel Transesterification
policing functions.
2. The Paikas revolted against the king 2. Biobutanol Fermentation of
who was supported by the Britishers. starch
3. It was led by Baxi Jagabandhu
Bidyadhara. 3. Biohydrogen Pyrolysis

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct? Which of the pairs given above are
correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q88. Consider the following statements Q90. In the context of the ancient history of
regarding Wholesale Price Index (WPI) India, consider the following statements
and Consumer Price Index (CPI): regarding grammarian Dandin :

1. While WPI reflects the change in 1. H e w a s c o n t e m p o r a r y o f

average prices at the first stage of Chandragupta Maurya.
transaction, CPI reflects the average
change in prices at retail level. 2. Dashakumaracharita, a prose romance
2. Unlike the WPI basket, CPI basket was written by him.
includes services.
3. WPI has more weight of food and Which of the statements given above
beverages component than the CPI. is/are correct?

Which of the statements given above (a) 1 only

is/are correct? (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q91. Consider the statements regarding Q93. Which of the following is/are the duties of
'Amur Falcons': the Returning Officer (RO)?
1. To designate the counting centers and
1. They are the world’s longest travelling get them approved by the Election
raptors. Commission well in advance
2. Doyang lake, a stopover for the Amur 2. To send notice to the candidates about
falcons during their annual migration, the place, date, and time of counting
is located in Nagaland. of votes
3. These species of birds come under the 3. To appoint and train staff for counting
category of 'Least Concern' in the of votes
international Union for Conservation Select the correct answer using the code
of Nature's (IUCN) Red List of given below.
Threatened Species. (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code (c) 3 only
given below (d) 1, 2 and 3

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only Q94. In the context of space, the terms ' Kuiper,
(c) 1 and 3 only Lightspeed' and Starlink, sometimes
(d) 1, 2 and 3 mentioned in the news, are
(a) related to the removal of space debris.
(b) related to space-based broadband
services.
(c) a constellation of new remote sensing
Q92. Consider the following statements satellites.
regarding bamboo cultivation in India: (d) anti-satellites of three different
countries.
1. Bamboo is naturally found in all
regions of India.
2. More than 50% of the bamboo Q95. Consider the following statements with
resources are found in the eastern and reference to the Eastern Ghats:
Northeastern states. 1. The Eastern Ghats are discontinuous
3. Commercial bamboo cultivation ranges passing through four states.
requires a permit under the Indian 2. Limestone, bauxite and iron ore are
Forest Act. found in the Eastern Ghats hill ranges.
3. The Tirumala Hills are located along
Which of the statements given above the Seshachalam-Velikonda Range.
is/are correct? 4. Javadi and Shevaroy hills lie south of
the Kaveri river.
(a) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Q96. With reference to the religious history of Q98. Consider the following Indian
India, consider the following statements organizations/bodies:
regarding Ajivikas:
1. Council of Scientific and Industrial
1. Makkhali Goshala was the most Research (CSIR)
important leader of this sect.
2. National Tiger Conservation Authority
2. They held that pleasure and pain could (NTCA)
not be altered in the course of
samsara. 3. N I T I ( N a t i o n a l I n s t i t u t i o n f o r
Transforming India) Aayog
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? 4. National Ganga River Basin Authority
(NGBRA)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 5. Central Hindi Committee
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 How many of the above is chaired by the
Prime Minister of India?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five

Q97. With reference to Komagata Maru

incident, consider the following
statements:

1. Komagata Maru was a Japanese Q99. In the context of Environmental Ecology,

steamship that voyaged from Japan to the term ‘Ecological Amplitude’ best
Canada in 1914. reflects the

2. Indian Home Rule Society used the (a) ability of a species to migrate long
incident to organize a massive distances through sustained
uprising against the British Empire. movement.
(b) rate of biodiversity loss in a given
Which of the statements given above habitat by natural and anthropological
is/are NOT correct? factors.
(c) communication methods used by
(a) 1 only organisms within an ecosystem.
(b) 2 only (d) degree of adaptation of a living
(c) Both 1 and 2 organism to changes in its
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 environment.

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Q100. With reference to International Court of
Justice (ICJ), consider the following
statements:

1. It is not empowered to issue arrest

warrants for individuals.

2. The judgements of the ICJ are legally

binding on the parties involved.

3. The official languages of ICJ are

English and French.

How many of the above statements are

correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
FULL LENGTH
TEST - II

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
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GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
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omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will
render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each item.
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6. All items carry equal marks.
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Q1. Which of the following are the most likely Q3. With reference to the Fertilizer sector in
impact of increasing ‘Current Account India, consider the following statements:
Deficit’ on an economy?
1. India is completely self-reliant on
1. Appreciation of domestic currency domestic production for its needs of
2. Steep rise in foreign investments Potassic fertilizers.
3. Higher interest payments for external 2. The government has proposed to sell
loans all fertilisers in India under the
4. Increase in prices of imported goods “Bharat” brand.
3. There is a limit on the amount of
Select the correct answer using the codes subsidised urea that a farmer can
given below: purchase in India.
4. The government has recently phased
(a) 1 and 3 only out the subsidies for Phosphatic and
(b) 3 and 4 only Potassic fertilisers.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only
Q2. With reference to International Financial (c) 2 and 4 only
System, how does the World Bank (WB) (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
differ(s) from the International Monetary
Fund (IMF)?
Q4. With reference to Digital AgriStack,
1. World Bank mainly oversees the consider the following statements:
stability of the world's monetary
system whereas IMF concentrates on 1. It is a digital storehouse of the genome
long-term economic development sequence of indigenous seed varieties
and poverty reduction. found in India.
2. World Bank acts as an investment 2. It aims to ensure that farmers take
bank between investors and informed decisions for maximizing
recipients, while IMF functions as their crop yields.
Credit Union to its member nations. 3. It intends to provide unique identity
3. To become a member of the IMF, a numbers to farmers in the country for
country must first join the World Bank. their proper identification.

Select the correct answer using the codes Which of the statements given above
given below: is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (a) 2 only

(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q5. This crop is both food and a fodder crop. It Q7. This National Park is located to the south of
is sown all over India including some of Garo hills in the state of Meghalaya. It is
the areas of the Northeast. In India, it is also described as the 'land of perpetual
grown in both kharif and rabi seasons. It winds'. It is home to one of the rarest
requires 50-100cm of rainfall and a animals in the world - the Red Panda. The
temperature ranging from 21°C to 27°C. western part of the park adjoins the Siju
Globally, it is known as the queen of bird sanctuary along the banks of the
cereals because it has the highest genetic Simsang River.
yield potential among cereals. The crop is
sensitive to moisture stress and gives poor Which of the following national parks is
yield in excess soil moisture and salinity being described in the above-given
stress. passage?

Which of the following crop has been (a) Murlen National Park
described in the passage given above? (b) Mouling National Park
(c) Balpakram National Park
(a) Maize (d) Nokrek National Park
(b) Rice
(c) pearl millet
(d) Wheat

Q6. Consider the following pairs: Q8. Consider the following statements
regarding Dearness Allowance (DA):

Ports Sea/Ocean 1. The DA is provided to government

employees to make their salaries on
1. Odessa Port Black Sea par with those of the private sector.

2. Haifa Port Mediterranean Sea 2. DA is worked out on the basis of the

latest Consumer Price Index for
3. Hambantota Indian Ocean Industrial Workers (CPI-IW).
Port
3. The allowance is revised periodically
4. Chabahar Port Caspian Sea twice a year.

Which of the statements given above

How many pairs given above are correctly is/are correct?
matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Only one pair (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Only two pairs (c) 3 only
(c) Only three pairs (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) All four pairs

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Q9. Consider the following statements Q12. Which among the following will become
regarding the reverse repo rate: part of invisibles receipts/expenditure of
1. It is the rate at which RBI borrows Balance of Payments?
money from commercial banks within
the country. 1. Indian citizens traveling abroad for
2. Reverse repo is normally higher than leisure
the repo rate. 2. Foreign aid received by Indian
3. Decrease in the reverse repo rate can organizations
help in controlling inflation in the 3. Remittances sent by Indian citizens
economy. working abroad
4. Foreign investors buying Indian stocks
Which of the statements given above 5. Indian companies paying for the use of
is/are correct? foreign-owned ships
(a) 1 and 2 only 6. Revenue generated from medical
(b) 2 and 3 only tourism.
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
Q10. In the context of Special Drawing Rights
(SDR) of the International Monetary Fund (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(IMF), arrange the following currencies in (b) 2, 3, 4 and 6 only
decreasing order of their weights in the (c) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
SDR currency basket. (d) 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
1. U.S. Dollar
2. Chinese Yuan
3. Japanese Yen
4. Euro
5. Pound Sterling
Q13. Which of the following are excluded from
Select the correct answer using the code the Divisible Pool of central taxes?
given below.(a) 1-4-2-3-5
(b) 1-2-3-4-5 1. Cost of collection of taxes
(c) 2-1-4-5-3 2. Cess and Surcharge
(d) 4-5-3-2-1 3. Taxes and duties collected by Centre
4. National Calamity Contingent Duty
Q11. Which one of the following is the most
likely impact of rising inflation in an Select the correct answer using the code
economy? given below.

(a) Appreciation of domestic currency (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) Increase in bond yields (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) Higher burden on fixed-rate debt (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
holders (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) Imports becoming cheaper

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Q14. Consider the following statements with Q17. With reference to the rivers and their
reference to the Inter-State Council: originating places, consider the following
pairs:
1. It was established following the
recommendations of the Vohra River Originating from
Committee in 1993.
2. It can enquire into and advise upon 1. Beas Pir Panjal range
disputes which may arise between
states. 2. Brahmaputra Milam glacier
3. Inter State Council Secretariat is
headed by the Cabinet Secretary. 3. Kaveri Trimbak hills

Which of the statements given above is/ 4. Tapi Satpura range

are correct?
How many of the pairs given above are
(a) 1 only matched correctly?
(b) 2 only (a) Only one pair
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) Only two pairs
(d) 2 and 3 only (c) Only three pairs
(d) All the four pairs

Q15. Which of the following statements is

correct with reference to the concept of Q18. With reference to the Provisions of the
‘Equal Protection of Law’ as per the Indian Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled
Constitution? Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA), consider the
following statements:
(a) It refers to the similar application of 1. Only persons belonging to a tribal
the same laws to all persons who are community can contest for posts of
similarly situated. Chairpersons of Panchayati Raj
(b) It refers to the equal subjection of all Institutions in the areas covered under
persons to the ordinary law of the PESA.
land. 2. The main objective of the PESA Act is
(c) It says that no person is above the law. to extend the provisions of Part IX of
(d) It refers to the absence of any special the Constitution of India to areas of
privileges in favour of any person. the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution.
3. Under PESA Act the recommendation
of Gram Sabha is mandatory for
Q16. Which among the following cities is granting mining lease for minor
closest to the Indian Standard Meridian? minerals in the Scheduled Areas.
Which of the statements given above
(a) Hyderabad is/are correct?
(b) Raipur (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Nagpur (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) New Delhi (c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

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Q19. Consider the following statements with Q21. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Employees' Provident reference to the differences between
Fund Organisation (EPFO): Enforcement Directorate (ED) and the
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).
1. It manages social security funds of
w o r ke r s i n t h e o rg a n i z e d a n d 1. Unlike CBI, ED cannot register a case
semiorganized sectors in India. on its own but can arrest a person
2. It has a Universal Account Number for under Prevention of Money
the portability of Provident Fund Laundering Act, 2002.
accounts of its members.
3. It is under the administrative control of 2. While CBI functions under the Ministry
the Ministry of Finance. of Home Affairs, ED works under the
Ministry of Finance.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q20. In the context of the Indian parliament,

consider the following statements
regarding the office of the whip:

1. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs Q22. Which of the following functionaries in

o rg a n i s e s t h e A l l I n d i a W h i p s the Indian polity is/are elected through
Conference open ballot voting?
2. The Government chief whip acts as a
communication link between the 1. Member of Rajya Sabha
leader of the House and the members
of the ruling party. 2. Member of the Legislative Council
3. The chief whip of a political party
regulates and monitors the behavior 3. President
of members of the party in the
Parliament. 4. Vice President

Which of the statements given above are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

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Q23. Consider the following statements Q26. With reference to Indian polity, which of
regarding the Rights of Persons with the following statements is correct with
Disabilities Act, 2016: respect to the office of profit?
1. It includes acid attack victims and
Parkinson's disease as disabilities. (a) The term “office of profit” has been
2. The Parliament has been vested the defined in the constitution of India.
power to add disabilities under the act. (b) Speaker/Chairman of the house is a
3. It increased the reservation for people final deciding authority in the matter
with benchmark disabilities to 4% in of disqualifying elected members on
government jobs and 5% in higher the grounds of holding office of profit.
education institutes. (c) Only Parliament has the power to
exempt offices from the purview of
Which of the statements given above are office of profit.
correct? (d) The Constitution bans Governors from
(a) 1 and 2 only holding any office of profit.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q24. The terms 'High-Risk Jurisdictions Q27. Consider the following statements about
subject to a Call for Action' and the difference between Parole and
'Jurisdictions Under Increased Furlough:
Monitoring' are often seen in the news in
the context of: 1. Parole results in suspension of a
sentence whereas as Furlough results
(a) International Monetary Fund in remission of sentence.
(b) INTERPOL
(c) Financial Action Task Force 2. Parole is a matter of right for a prisoner
(d) World Bank whereas Furlough is not.

Q25. Which of the following provisions were 3. Parole is usually granted in short-term
not present in the Indian Constitution on detention whereas Furlough is
26th January 1950? granted in long-term imprisonment.
1. Three tier government
2. Financial Emergency 4. Parole is granted for a specific reason
3. 18 years of voting age whereas furlough can be granted
4. Cooperative societies without a specific reason.
5. Fundamental duties
Which of the statements given above are
Select the correct answer using the code correct?
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 4 and 5 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Q28. With reference to Committees in the Q30. Consider the following statements:
Parliament, consider the following 1. When the national emergency is in
statements: operation, the Parliament can modify
the constitutional distribution of
1. G e n e r a l P u r p o s e s C o m m i t t e e revenue between the Centre and the
regulates the programme and time States.
table of the House. 2. When the financial emergency is in
2. Rules Committee considers the operation the President can issue the
matters of procedure and conduct of directions for reduction of salaries of
business in the House. the Judges of High Courts.
3. Business Advisory Committee advises Which of the statements given above
on matters which do not fall within the is/are correct?
jurisdiction of any other Parliamentary (a) 1 only
Committee. (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above (d) Neither 1 nor 2
is/are correct?
Q31. Which of the following are not
(a) 1 and 3 only Fundamental Duties under the
(b) 2 only Constitution of India?
(c) 2 and 3 only 1. To vote in a general election
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Safeguarding public property
3. To renounce practices derogatory to
Q29. Consider the following statements the dignity of women
regarding Gallantry Awards in India: 4. To promote harmony and the spirit of
brotherhood among nations
1. Gallantry awards are announced twice Select the correct answer using the code
in a year. given below.
2. ‘Ashoka Chakra’ ranks highest in the (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
order of precedence of all the gallantry (b) 1 and 4 only
awards. (c) 2 and 3 only
3. ‘Param Vir Chakra’ has not been (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
awarded since the Kargil War in 1999.
4. ‘Veer Gatha Project’ of Government of Q32. Stainless steel pans are usually provided
India aims to raise awareness among with copper bottoms. What could be the
school students about the gallantry most appropriate reason behind this?
award winners. (a) Stainless steel is highly prone to
corrosion.
Which of the statements given above are (b) It helps in quicker transfer of heat as
correct? copper is a better heat conductor than
Stainless steel.
(a) 1 and 4 only (c) It makes the utensils cheaper and
(b) 2 and 3 only colorful at same time .
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) The use of copper in the bottom of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only utensils increases its durability.

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Q33. Which of the following statements is 6. Improved supply chain management.
correct with reference to the Virtual 7. Weather forecasting.
Private Network?
(a) D e s p i t e e s t a b l i s h i n g a s e c u r e Select the correct answer using the code
connection, it cannot hide the user’s given below:
Internet Protocol (IP) address. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) As it reroutes the data traffic, the (b) 2, 3, 4 and 6 only
speed of the browsing increases (c) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 only
substantially. (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
(c) Through VPN, an employee can
securely connect to his company’s
server even if his computer is located Q36. Which of the following may be
outside the company premises. considered digital public goods?
(d) VPN never keeps any information 1. Aadhar
about a person’s browsing activities. 2. Digilocker
3. Central KYC
Q34. Consider the following statements 4. Account aggregator
regarding the differences between DNA
and RNA: Select the correct answer using the code
1. DNA viruses show higher mutation given below.
rates than RNA viruses. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. Human Papilloma Virus is a type of (b) 3 and 4 only
DNA Virus whereas the Human (c) 1 only
Immunodeficiency Virus is a type of (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
RNA Virus.
3. DNA is chemically less reactive and
structurally more stable as compared Q37. With reference to ‘Human Immune
to RNA. S y s t e m ’, c o n s i d e r t h e f o l l o w i n g
Which of the statements given above are statements:
correct? 1. Both B cells and T cells are produced in
(a) 1 and 2 only the bone marrow present in human
(b) 2 and 3 only body.
(c) 1 and 3 only 2. T Cells create antibodies which
(d) 1, 2 and 31 prevents the pathogens from entering
a host cell.
Q35. Which among the following are 3. B Cells act as immunosuppressants by
applications of Quantum Computing? killing the antibodies in the human
1. D e v e l o p i n g C l e a n a n d b e t t e r body.
fertilizers.
2. Discovery of new drugs and medical Which of the statements given above
treatments. is/are correct?
3. Create novel encryption methods and (a) 1 only
prevent cyber-attacks. (b) 1 and 2 only
4. Algorithmic trading in stock markets. (c) 2 and 3 only
5. Developing better finance models and (d) 1 and 3 only
plans.

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Q38. Due to their unique chemical properties, Q40. Consider the following pairs with
semiconductors play a prominent role in reference to various Inscriptions related to
the development of the electronics Indian History:
i n d u s t r y. W h a t h a p p e n s w h e n a
semiconductor is doped with impurities
like boron and aluminum? Inscription Description

(a) Its electrical conductivity increases. 1. Rock inscription word ‘Hindu’

of Junagarh appears for the
(b) It shows a positive temperature first time here.
coefficient of resistance.
2. Mandasor It mentions guild
(c) It becomes dipolar in nature. inscription workers migrated
from Lata in
(d) Its electrical resistivity increases. Gujarat to
Dashapura in
Madhya Pradesh.

3. Aihole inscription This Sanskrit

written
Q39. With reference to the social conditions of inscription
the Rig Vedic period and Gupta period, mentions victory
consider the following statements: of Chalukyas
over Pallavas.
1. Widow remarriage was practised
during both periods. 4. Kalsi inscription It mentions the
philanthropic
2. The caste system was the prominent work of
form of social stratification during Ashoka’s wife
both periods.

3. Temple and idol worship were found How many of the pairs given above is/are
to be prevalent during both periods. correctly matched?

Which of the statements given above is/

are correct? (a) Only one Pair

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Only two pairs

(b) 1 only (c) Only three Pairs

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All four pairs

(d) 1 and 3 only

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Q41. Consider the following pairs: How many pairs given above are correctly
matched?
(a) Only one pair
Folk paintings State (b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
1. Madhubani Rajasthan (d) All four pairs

2. Saura Uttarakhand Q44. In the context of ancient Indian history,

the terms Bhaga and Hiranya refer to
3. Pithora Gujarat (a) religious rituals
(b) different kinds of taxes
(c) religious rituals
How many pairs given above are correctly (d) measurement of land
matched?
Q45. With reference to Kailashnath Temple
(a) Only one pair situated at Ellora, consider the following
(b) Only two pairs statements:
(c) All three pairs 1. It is a rock-cut shrine within a
(d) None of the pairs rectangular court built in nagara style.
2. It features sculptural representations
Q42. With reference to Jainism, which of the of both Shiva and Vishnu.
following statements is correct? 3. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Which of the statements given above
(a) Pali the language of common people is/are correct?
was widely adopted for writing Jain (a) 1 only
religious texts. (b) 1 and 3 only
(b) They do not believe in the concept of (c) 2 and 3 only
cycle of rebirth. (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Pratikraman is a ritual in which Jains
repent for their sins during their daily Q46. Which one of the following rulers
life. honoured Jain scholar Jinaprabha Suri in
(d) While Digambaras believes only in five his court?
eternal substances in existence, (a) Ghiyas ud din Balban
Svetambara added time as the sixth (b) Mohammad bin Tuglaq
eternal substance. (c) Alauddin Khalji
(d) Mubarak Shah
Q43. Consider the following pairs:
Q47. Which of the following puranas is
River Drains into considered a sourcebook of Indian
painting?
1. Dnipro Baltic sea (a) Markandeya Purana
(b) Vishnudharmottara Purana
2. Don Sea of Azov (c) Agni Purana
(d) Padma Purana
3. Moskva Caspian sea

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Q48. With reference to the cultural history of Select the correct answer using the code
India, consider the following statements: given below.
(a) 4-3-2-1
1. Pravrajya ceremony marked a person’s (b) 4-3-1-2
going for th from home into (c) 3-4-2-1
homelessness. (d) 3-4-1-2
2. An upasaka was a Buddhist follower
who had taken monastic vows.
Q51. With reference to the Ramakrishna
Which of the statements given above Mission, consider the following
is/are correct? statements:

(a) 1 only 1. I t w a s f o u n d e d b y S w a m i
(b) 2 only Vivekananda.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. It aimed to improve society by
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 preaching spiritualism and service to
humanity.
Q 4 9 . W i t h re f e re n c e t o t h e p e a s a n t 3. It recognised the fundamental
movements in the early 20th century, oneness of all religions.
which of the following statements is not
correct? Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) N.G. Ranga was the first General
Secretary of the All India Kisan Sabha. (a) 1 only
(b) A Kisan manifesto was adopted by the (b) 1 and 2 only
Congress at its Faizpur session. (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) The Malabar Tenancy Act, 1929 was (d) 1, 2 and 3
enacted after a powerful agitation
organised by the Karshaka Sanghams.
(d) In Bihar, the restoration of bakasht Q52. Consider the measures taken to improve
lands became a major ground of conditions of women in British period.:
contention between the kisan sabha
and the Congress Ministry. 1. Bengal Sati Regulation Act
2. Hindu Widow’s Remarriage Act
Q50. Arrange the following events of British- 3. Age of Consent Act
India in the correct chronological order of 4. Female Infanticide Prevention Act
their occurrence:
Arrange the above legislative measures in
1. Establishment of All India Trade Union the chronological order, starting from the
Congress earliest?
2. Establishment of All India Trade Union
Federation by N.M. Joshi (a) 1–2–3–4
3. Establishment of Bombay Millhands (b) 1–2–4–3
association by N.M. Lokhande (c) 2–1–4–3
4. First strike by the Great Indian (d) 2–4–1–3
Peninsular Railways

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Q53. “He was one of the first graduates of Q55. Which of the following statements is/are
Bombay University. He worked as a judge correct regarding the Kelp Forests?
and later became a member of Bombay 1. They are found only in the ocean
legislative assembly. He was a mentor of waters of the tropical region.
Gopal Krishan Gokhale and was 2. They provide food and shelter to a
associated with Prarthana samaj. He variety of marine species.
worked relentlessly for the rights of widow 3. They thrive in warm and nutrient-
remarriage” deficit waters.
4. They play an impor tant role in
Which of the personality is being s u p p o r t i n g w a t e r re c re a t i o n a l
discussed in the above paragraph? activities in ocean waters.
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) Vishnu shastri Pandit given below:
(b) Dhondo Keshav Karve (a) 4 only
(c) Ramakrishna Gopal Bhandarkar (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) Mahadev Govind Ranade (c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q54. Consider the following pairs with respect

to newspapers published during British Q56. Which of the following statements is
period: incorrect regarding the season of
Retreating Monsoon in India?
(a) This season is characterised by the
Newspaper Founder/Editor intensification of low-pressure
conditions over Northern Plains.
1. Hindu Patriot Dwarkanath (b) It is marked by clear skies and a rise in
Vidyabhushan temperature.
(c) Occurrence of destructive cyclones
2. Indian Mirror Devendranath can beseen during this season.
Tagore (d) During this season, the South-Eastern
coasts of the country receives a good
3. Talvar Virendranath amount of rainfall.
Chattopadhyaya

4. Swadeshamitram M. Q57. “It is a warm Ocean Current which flows

Viraraghavachari along the western coast of Australia. It
differs from other subtropical eastern
boundary currents since it flows poleward
How many of the pairs given above is/are rather than equatorward.”
correctly matched? Which of the following ocean currents is
described in the above paragraph?
(a) Only one Pair (a) Agulhas Current
(b) Only two pairs (b) Leeuwin Current
(c) Only three pairs (c) Kuroshio Current
(d) All four pairs (d) Benguela Current

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Q58. With reference to ‘Atmospheric Rivers’, Q61. With reference to ‘Genetically Modified
consider the following statements: (GM) Crops in India’, consider the
1. T h e y a r e a n a r r o w b a n d o f following statements:
concentrated moisture that travels
through the atmosphere. 1. G e n e t i c E n g i n e e r i n g A p p r a i s a l
2. They transport water vapor from the Committee regulates the use of
polar region towards the mid-latitude genetically engineered organisms and
regions. cells in India.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? 2. Bt. cotton and Bt. Brinjal remain the
(a) 1 only only GM crops approved for
(b) 2 only commercial cultivation in India till
(c) Both 1 and 2 date.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Imports of all genetically modified
Q59. Consider the following statements: foods in India are banned under
1. The average annual ocean water Foreign Trade Act of 1992.
temperature in the southern
hemisphere, is higher compared to the Which of the statements given above
northern hemisphere. is/are correct?
2. The average salinity of the Indian
Ocean is higher than the average (a) 1 only
salinity of Atlantic Ocean. (b) 2 and 3 only
Which of statement(s) given above is/are (c) 1 and 3 only
correct? (d) 1, 2, and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Q62. Which of the following are adaptations
(c) Both 1 and 2 found in animals living in cold regions?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Very long legs and arms
Q60. In India, ‘One Horned Rhinoceros’ is
usually found in which of the following 2. Presence of multiple layers of fat
National Parks/Wildlife Sanctuaries? below the skin
1. Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary
2. Sariska National Park 3. Whitish appearance of animals
3. Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary
4. Dudhwa National Park 4. Presence of greasy coat on body
5. Manas National Park
Select the correct answer using the codes Select the correct answer using the codes
given below: given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only

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Q63. In the context of Ramsar sites in India, Select the correct answer using the code
consider the following pairs: given below.

Ramsar Site Location (a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only
1. Pallikaranai Marsh Tamil Nadu (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
Reserve Forest (d) All the above are methods of carbon
sequestration.
2. Pichavaram Gujarat
Mangrove
Q66. Consider the following Statements
3. Sakhya Sagar Madhya Pradesh regarding 'Living Planet Index (LPI)':

4. Pala Wetlands Mizoram 1. The LPI shows the average rate of

change in animal population sizes but
How many pairs given above are correctly does not show numbers of species lost
matched? or extinct.
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs 2. It is an initiative of World Wildlife Fund
(c) Only three pairs for Nature (WWF).
(d) All four pairs
Which of the statements given above
Q64. Consider the following statements with is/are correct?
reference to the Red Sanders:
1. It is endemic to a distinct tract of (a) 1 only
forests in Western Ghats region of (b) 2 only
Karnataka. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. It is listed as endangered in the IUCN (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Red List.
3. It is used in the manufacturing of
cosmetics as well as medicinal Q67. These are produced when coriolis force is
products. balanced by the pressure gradient. They
Which of the statements given above flow parallel to the isobars in the middle
is/are correct? latitudes aloft in the troposphere. They do
(a) 1 and 2 only not occur near the surface of the earth
(b) 2 and 3 only due to the presence of frictional force.
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the following is best described
by the passage given above?
Q65. Which of the following is/are not the
methods of carbon sequestration? (a) Sub-tropical jet streams
1. Direct Air Capture (b) Trade winds
2. Graphene Production from carbon (c) Geostrophic winds
dioxide (d) Westerlies
3. Geological capture
4. Biological sequestration

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Q68. Consider the following statements Q71. Arrange the following discontinuities
regarding World Nature Organisation inside the Earth in sequential order from
(WNO): the inner core of the Earth to the surface.
1. It is an initiative of the United Nations
Environment Programme (UNEP). 1. Conrad Discontinuity
2. It is focused on promoting activities, 2. Lehmann Discontinuity
technologies, economies, and 3. Mohorovicic Discontinuity
re n e w a b l e e n e rg i e s w h i c h a re 4. Gutenberg Discontinuity
environment friendly.
3. India is not a member of it. Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above are given below.
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1-3-4-2
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 4-3-2-1
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 3-1-4-2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2-4-3-1

Q69. Consider the following statements Q72. With reference to India, Ghoghla,
regarding Indian Forest Act, 1927: Rushikonda, Kovalam, and Kadmat are the
1. The government regulates timber names of:
cutting and cultivation in private forest
lands. (a) turtle nesting sites
2. The State Government can give the (b) intensive fishing areas
rights to any village group, which the (c) beaches with ‘Blue Flag’ tag
Government has over any land which (d) ancient port cities
has been reserved
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? Q73. Consider the following statements
(a) 1 only regarding the rubber plant:
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. It is naturally suited for colder
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 conditions of North Eastern states.
2. The plant requires well-drained and
wellweathered laterite soils.
Q70. Generally, there is a lack of cyclones 3. It requires rainfall of more than 200 cm
during the main monsoon months of July for effective growth in a year.
and August in India. What could be the
possible reason? Which of the statements given above
(a) Low ocean surface temperatures in is/are correct?
Bay of Bengal
(b) Lack of pre-existing near surface (a) 2 and 3 only
disturbance around Indian Ocean (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) High vertical wind shear in the region (c) 2 only
(d) Lack of formation of fronts (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q74. This national park is located along the Which of the statements given above are
southern Western Ghats in the state of correct?
Kerala. It hosts the highest peak in South (a) 1 and 2 only
India, Anamudi in its southern region. The (b) 2 and 3 only
Nilgiri Tahr, Gaur, Sloth Bear, Nilgiri (c) 1 and 3 only
Langur, Tiger, Leopard, Giant Squirrel, and (d) 1, 2, and 3
wild dog are common. Half the world
population of the endangered Nilgiri Tahr
lives here and this park is known for Q77. With reference to Virashaivism, consider
“Neelakurinji,” a flower that blooms only the following statements:
once every twelve years.
Which of the following national parks is 1. They attached great importance to
being described in the above given Vedic tradition and rituals.
passage? 2. They argued strongly against caste
(a) Anshi National Park and the treatment of women.
(b) Mathikettan Shola National Park 3. Akka Mahadevi was a woman saint
(c) Eravikulam National Park belonging to this tradition.
(d) Periyar National Park
Which of the statements given above
Q75. With reference to stages of forest is/are correct?
succession, arrange the following in the (a) 2 only
correct succession order: (b) 1 and 2 only
1. Shrubs (c) 2 and 3 only
2. Short-lived pioneer trees (d) 1 and 3 only
3. Pioneer plants
4 . Perennial plants and grasses
Select the correct answer using the code Q78. With reference to Vijayanagara city
given below. during the Vijayanagara empire, consider
(a) 1-2-3-4 the following statements:
(b) 4-3-1-2
(c) 3-4-2-1 1. The Vijayanagara city was enclosed by
(d) 3-4-1-2 the great fortress walls.
2. Italian merchant Nicolo de Conti
Q76. Consider the following statements visited Vijayanagara city.
regarding Earth's Heat Budget: 3. The city was located in the natural
1. The amount of Heat energy that Earth basin formed by the river
radiates back into space is greater Tungabhadra.
han the amount of heat energy it
absorbs from the Sun. Which of the given statements is/are
2. The sun emits the heat in short-wave correct?
radiation and the earth emits back in (a) 1 only
longwave radiation. (b) 1 and 3 only
3. The amount of energy that is reflected (c) 2 only
known as the Earth's albedo is about (d) 1, 2 and 3
30%.

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Q79. Consider the following pairs: Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
Soils Nutrients (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
1. Alluvial soil Rich in Phosphorus (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Black soil Rich in Magnesium
Q82. Consider the following statements
3. Red soil Rich in Nitrogen regarding the International Convention
for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships
4. Laterite soil Rich in Calcium (MARPOL):

How many pairs given above are correctly 1. It is a non-binding convention of the
matched? International Maritime Organisation
(a) Only one pair (IMO).
(b) Only two pairs 2. India is not a signator y to the
(c) Only three pairs convention.
(d) All four pairs
Which of the statements given above
Q80. Consider the following statements with is/are correct?
reference to Nuclear Non-Proliferation (a) 1 only
Treaty (NPT): (b) 2 only
1. It aims to prevent the spread of (c) Both 1 and 2
nuclear weapons and promote (d) Neither 1 nor 2
disarmament.
2. It has received universal ratification. Q83. Which of the following are the objectives
3. Under the NPT, India is recognized as a of the Prime Minister's Overarching
nuclear weapon state. Scheme for Holistic Nutrition (POSHAN)
4. International Atomic Energy Agency Abhiyaan?
monitors non-nuclear weapon states'
compliance with the NPT. 1. Prevent and reduce stunting in
Which of the statements given above are children of 0-6 years old.
correct? 2. Reduce the prevalence of anemia only
(a) 1 and 2 only among Women and Adolescent Girls
(b) 2 and 3 only in the age group of 15-49 years
(c) 1 and 4 only 3. Reduce Low Birth Weight (LBW)
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 4. Reduce obesity among children of 0-6
years old.
Q81. Consider the following statements:
1. Ro t a t i o n a l s p e e d of t h e e a r t h Select the correct answer using the code
decreases as we go from the Equator given below.
toward the poles. (a) 1, 2, and 3 only
2. Coriolis force increases with an (b) 2 and 4 only
increase in the speed of rotation of (c) 1 and 3 only
Earth. (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

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Q84. Consider the following statements: Q87. These are derived from the ocean. They
1. The Green Hydrogen Policy has been are made of shells and skeleton remains of
introduced to enable India to become marine microorganisms with calcareous
energy independent by 2047. or siliceous parts. They have a very fine,
2. Green Hydrogen is pure hydrogen flourlike texture and either occur as
generated by using renewable energy accumulated deposits or float about in
such as solar power and wind energy. suspension.
3. India’s first pure green hydrogen plant
has been commissioned in Odisha. Which of the following is best described in
Which of the statements given above are the passage given above?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Shale
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) Muds
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Oozes
Q85. Consider the following statements
regarding the NISAR mission: (d) Coral reefs
1. It is jointly developed by NASA and
ISRO.
2. It is expected to be launched from
Kennedy Space Center into a near-
polar orbit.
3. It will provide critical information on Q88. Which of the following are sources of
E a r t h ’s c r u s t , i c e s h e e t s , a n d Indoor pollution?
ecosystems.
Which of the statements given above are 1. Radon
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Volatile organic compounds (VOCs)
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 3. Ozone
(d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Carbon monoxide
Q86. Which of the following is the aim of the
PMPRANAM scheme? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) To create 500 new waste to wealth given below.
plants based on agro-resources.
(b) To facilitate 1 crore farmers to adopt (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
natural farming over the next three
years. (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) To provide 1000 Blocks with essential
civic amenities. (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) To promote alternative fertilizers and
balanced use of chemical fertilizers. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Q89. With reference to the United Nations Which of the following experiments has
Water Convention, consider the following been referred to in the passage given
statements: above?

1. No South Asian country is a party to (a) Evolved LISA

the Convention on the Law of (b) LIGO
NonNavigational Uses of International (c) EAST experiment
Watercourses. (d) CERN experiment
2. It replaced the existing bilateral and
multilateral agreements for specific
basins or aquifers, after coming into
force. Q92. Consider the following statements
3. The Convention is a unique legally regarding Trade-Related Investment
binding instrument promoting the Measures (TRIMS):
sustainable management of shared
water resources. 1. The agreement is concerned with the
regulation of foreign investment.
Which of the statements given above are
correct? 2. The TRIMs Agreement does not apply
to services.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above
(c) 1 and 3 only is/are correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
Q90. Arrange the following countries in (b) 2 only
decreasing order of their areas. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. China
2. Brazil
3. Australia
4. India Q93. Which of the following statements best
describes the term 'Pandavula Gutta',
Select the correct answer using the code recently seen in the news?
given below.
(a) It is an archaeological site in Tamil
(a) 1-2-3-4 Nadu known for its ancient temple
(b) 1-3-2-4 architecture.
(c) 3-4-2-1 (b) It is a geo-heritage site situated in
(d) 4-3-2-1 Telangana.
(c) It is a famous rock-cut cave complex in
Q91. 'It consists of two obser vatories Maharashtra, known for its Buddhist
separated by 3000 kilometers. Each sculptures and paintings.
observatory supports an L-shaped ultra (d) It is a hill in Karnataka known for its
high vacuum system, measuring four rich biodiversity and rare flora
kilometers on each side.'

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Q94. Recently, the 'Dragonfly' mission was in Q96. 'Climate Promise Initiative' was recently
the news. What is it? seen in the news. In this context, which of
the following statements best explains its
(a) It is a SpaceX mission to develop objective?
reusable rockets.
(a) It is a global initiative to support to
(b) It is a Japanese Aerospace Exploration countries in fulfil their commitment to
Agency (JAXA) mission to study the grow and maintain the urban forests.
Sun
(b) It is a UNDP initiative to support
(c) It is a Chinese space mission aimed at countries in enhancing their nationally
investigating the dark side of the determined contributions under the
Moon. Paris Agreement.

(d) It is a NASA mission to explore the (c) It is a World Bank program focused on
habitability of Saturn’s largest moon reducing air pollution in urban areas.
Titan.
(d) It is an UNEP initiative for providing
financial support to countries affected
by climate change.

Q95. With reference to Kulasekarapattinam

Spacepor t, consider the following Q97. With reference to Biodiversity Beyond
statements: National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Treaty,
consider the following statements:
1. It is located in Tamil Nadu.
2. It is ISRO’s second satellite launch 1. It is a legally binding treaty.
facility. 2. The BBNJ treaty covers part of the
3. Its closer proximity to the equator ocean that lies beyond the exclusive
allows for more efficient launches, economic zone of a country.
especially for geostationary satellites. 3. India has signed and ratified the treaty.

Which of the statements given above Which of the statements given above
is/are correct ? is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q98. The terms ‘Arrow-2, Arrow-3, and David's Q100. Consider the following:
Sling' sometimes seen in the news are
related to 1. France

(a) exoplanets 2. Sweden

(b) missile defence system 3. Denmark

(c) Artificial Intelligence software 4. Ukraine

(d) cyber attacks How many of the above countries joined

NATO on the 75th anniversary?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Q99. In the context of Agni Prime, consider the

following statements:

1. Agni Prime is a canisterized type of

ballistic missile developed by India.
2. I t i s c a pa b l e of c a r r y i n g b o t h
conventional and nuclear warheads.
3. The missile has a range of 4,000 to
5,000 kilometres.

How many of the statements given above

are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

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 | Navigator | Geography FLT - II

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
GEOGRAPHY
FLT- II

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO,
GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fi ll in the Roll Number carefully without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will
render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in
some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certifi cate.
8. After you have completed fi lling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers
happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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 | Navigator | Geography FLT - II
Q1. Consider the following peninsular rivers: Q4. With reference to Wheat Cultivation in the
1. Subarnarekha temperate grasslands, consider the
2. Sharavati following statements:
3. Brahmani
1. The temperate grasslands are ideal for
Which of the rivers given above flow from extensive wheat cultivation.
east to west? 2. The temperate grasslands have the
highest productivity of wheat in the
(a) 1 and 2 only world due to extensive mechanized
(b) 2 only farming.
(c) 3 only 3. The temperate grasslands are known
(d) None to produce Wheat during both the
Summer and Winter Seasons.

Q2. With reference to soil conservation, How many statements given above are
consider the following statements: correct?
1. Contour ploughing is the practice of
ploughing or planting along a contour. (a) Only one
2. Shelter belts are rows of trees, usually (b) Only two
along fence lines. (c) All three
3. Crop rotation helps with diverse root (d) None
systems and mitigates pest attacks.
4. Strip Cropping is the cultivation of Q5. Which of the following regions in India
crops in strips to check the fast- represents lowest altitude?
blowing winds.
(a) Kuttanad region in Kerala
How many statements given above is/are (b) Saurashtra Region in Karnataka
correct? (c) Coromandel of Tamil Nadu
(d) Malabar region of Kerala
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Q6. Consider the following statements:
(c) Only three
(d) All four 1. The Chilika Lake is the largest
freshwater lake in India.
2. India’s only active volcano is found on
Q3. The Kra Canal is a mega-project that Barren island in the Lakshadweep
provides a new maritime route that would group of Islands.
connect
Which of the statements given above
(a) The Gulf of Thailand with the is/are correct?
Andaman Sea
(b) Gulf of Tonkin with South China Sea (a) 1 only
(c) Gulf of Aden with Red Sea (b) 2 only
(d) The North Sea and the Baltic Sea. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q7. These are types of local storms, which are Q10. In the context of our solar system,
dreaded evening thunderstorms in arrange the following planets in
Bengal and Assam. These showers are increasing order of their density.
useful for tea, jute, and rice cultivation. In 1. Mercury
Assam, these storms are known as 2. Earth
“Bardoli Chheerha”. 3. Mars
Which of the following local storm is 4. Jupiter
mentioned in the above passage?
(a) Loos Select the correct answer using the code
(b) Blossom shower given below.
(c) Norwesters (a) 1-3-4-2
(d) Mango Shower (b) 4-3-1-2
(c) 4-1-2-3
(d) 3-4-2-1
Q8. Consider the following statements regar
ding the distribution and direction of Q11. Which of the following conditions aids in
monsoon rainfall across India: the growth of Tropical Evergreen forests in
1. Rainfall in the western Himalayas is India?
often caused by the joining of the 1. Topography of the western slope of
Arabin Sea branch and the Bay of the Western Ghats
Bengal Branch. 2. Warm and humid areas with an annual
2. Arakan valley has a significant role in precipitation of over 200 cm
directing the Bay of Bengal branch 3. Mean annual temperature above 35
towards the Indian sub-continent. degrees Celsius.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 only given below.
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q9. With reference to soil erosion, consider the Q12. Consider the following statements
following statements: regarding the wheat cultivation in India:
1. Gully erosions are commonly found on 1. It is cultivated in rabi season in India.
dry and arid-leveled lands. 2. It is primarily a crop of tropical zone.
2. Sheet erosion is common on steep 3. It increases the natural fertility of soils
slopes. through nitrogen fixation.
3. A region with a large number of deep
gullies or ravines is called a badland. Which of the statements given above
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only
(a) 2 only (b) 2 only
(b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q13. Which among the following road Q17. Minerals are generally concentrated in
categories has the highest percentage of three broad belts in India. The South-
total road length in India? Western Plateau Region, one of the belts,
(a) National Highways contains which of these minerals in
(b) State Highways abundance?
(c) District Roads
(d) Rural Roads 1. Manganese
2. Coal
3. Iron Ore
Q14. Which amongst the following defines the
metropolitan city as per the census of Select the correct answer using the code
India? given below.
(a) Cities with more than 75% of the
population engaged in primary sector. (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Cities accommodating population size (b) 2 and 3 only
more than five million. (c) 3 only
(c) Cities with population density of 500 (d) 1, 2 and 3
persons per sq km.
(d) Cities accommodating population size Q18. Clustered Settlements can be found in
between one to five million. which of the following regions?

(a) Fertile alluvial Plains

Q15. If you travel by road from Itanagar to (b) Arid regions
Banglore, what is the minimum number of (c) Remote forested areas
States within India through which you can (d) Hilly terrain
travel, including the origin and the
destination? Q19. Consider the following pairs:
(a) 5
(b) 6
© 7 Tribes Region
(d) 8
1. Bushmen Australia

Q16. Which of the following economic 2. Zulus Brazil

activities are undertaken in Steppe type of
grasslands? 3. Maoris New Zealand
1. Nomadic herding
2. Mechanized wheat cultivation
3. Pastoral farming How many of the pairs given above are
Select the correct answer using the code correctly matched?
given below.
(a) 2 and 3 only (a) Only one
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) Only two
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Only three
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All four

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Q20. Which of the following is the correct Q24. Arrange the following water bodies
arrangement of Indian sectors in the critical to the world's oil trade from west to
decreasing order of their share in surface east:
water utilization? 1. Strait of Hormuz
2. Suez Canal
(a) Agriculture - Domestic use - Industry 3. Bab al Mandeb
(b) Industry - Agriculture - Domestic use
(c) Agriculture - Industry - Domestic use Select the correct answer using the code
(d) Industry - Domestic use - Agriculture given below:
(a) 1-2-3
Q21. Which among the following ports lies in (b) 1-3-2
the southern hemisphere? (c) 2-3-1
(d) 3-1-2
(a) Rotterdam
(b) Maputo Q25. The red soil of India has been formed due
(c) Shanghai to the weathering of
(d) Istanbul
(a) brown forest soil in areas of low
Q22. Consider the following land use rainfall.
categories in India: (b) sandstone and quartzite in areas of
high rainfall.
1. Culturable waste land (c) crystalline igneous rocks in areas of
2. Current Fallow low rainfall.
3. Net area sown (d) shale and limestone in areas of high
rainfall.
Which of the above categories have
increased as a percentage of total land Q26. Consider the following pairs:
after Independence?
Peak Location
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only 1. Mahendragiri Eastern Ghats
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only 2. Doddabetta Peak Cardamom hills

Q23. The term Conurbation refers to 3. Anai Mudi Nilgiri Hills

(a) a large area of urban development 4. Dhupgarh Mahadeo Hills

that resulted from the merging of
originally separate towns or cities. How many of the pairs given above are
(b) a city with a population less than a correctly matched?
million.
(c) re-ruralization of urban areas. (a) Only one
(d) A large area of urban development (b) Only two
that resulted from the split of a large (c) Only three
town. (d) All four

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Q27. Consider the following mountain ranges: Which of the following statements is
correct?
1. Dhauladhar range (a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
2. Naga Tibba range correct, and Statement-2 is the correct
3. Pir Panjal range explanation for Statement-1.
4. Kailash range (b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
correct, but Statement-2 is not the
How many of the above mountain ranges correct explanation for Statement-1.
are part of the Middle Himalayas? (c) Statement-1 is correct, but Statement-
(a) Only one 2 is incorrect.
(b) Only two (d) St a t e m e n t- 1 i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
(c) Only three Statement-2 is correct.
(d) All four
Q30. Consider the following statements
Q28. With reference to South West Monsoon regarding clouds:
in India, consider the following 1. Cirrus clouds are formed at high
statements: altitudes and have a feather y
appearance.
Statement I: During the southwest 2. Cumulus clouds look like cotton wool
monsoon period after having rained for a with a flat base and exist in patches.
few days, if rain fails to occur for one or 3. Stratus clouds are black or dark gray
more weeks. and are formed at middle levels or
Statement II: In northern India, rains are very near to the surface.
likely to fail if the rain-bearing storms are
not very frequent along the monsoon Which of the statements given above
trough or the ITCZ over this region. is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
Which of the following statements is (b) 1 and 2 only
correct? (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct, and Statement-2 is the correct
explanation for Statement-1. Q31. Consider the following statements
(b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are regarding Submarine Canyons:
correct, but Statement-2 is not the 1. They are absent near the mouth of
correct explanation for Statement-1. rivers due to sediment deposition.
(c) Statement-1 is correct, but Statement- 2. Absence of submarine canyons is a
2 is incorrect. unique feature of the Bay of Bengal.
(d) St a t e m e n t- 1 i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
Statement-2 is correct. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
Q29. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 only
Statement I: Sheet erosion is most (b) 2 only
commonly on steep slopes. (c) Both 1 and 2
Statement II: Sheet erosion is harmful (d) Neither 1 nor 2
since it removes the finer and more fertile
top soil.

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Q32. Which among the following places are Q35. Consider the following statements:
connected by the National Waterway 1?
1. Allahabad Statement I: The best location for the iron
2. Kollam and steel plants is near the source of raw
3. Haldia materials.
4. Sadiya
Statement II: Raw materials required for
Select the correct answer using the code iron and steel industries are iron ore,
given below. coking coal, limestone dolomite etc are
(a) 1 and 2 only weight-losing raw materials.
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only Which one of the following is correct in
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 respect of the above statements?

Q33. With reference to Thermohaline (a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
circulation, consider the following correct, and Statement-2 is the correct
statements: explanation for Statement-1.
1. I t r e f e r s t o t h e c o n t i n u o u s (b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
replacement of seawater at depths correct, but Statement-2 is not the
with water from the surface. correct explanation for Statement-1.
2. It drives warmer surface waters (c) Statement-1 is correct, but Statement-
polewards from the tropics. 2 is incorrect.
3. It is faster than the wind-driven (d) St a t e m e n t- 1 i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
circulation of surface ocean currents. Statement-2 is correct.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only Q36. In the context of demographic dividend,
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ‘age dependency ratio ' is best defined as
the ratio of dependents of which age
Q34. With reference to oozes, consider the groups?
following statements:
1. They are terrigenous deposits and are (a) people younger than 18 to the
deposited on the continental shelves. workingage population.
2. They constitute of shelly and skeletal (b) people younger than 15 to the
remains of marine organisms. workingage population.
(c) people younger than 18 or older than
Which of the statements given above 59 to the working-age population.
is/are correct? (d) people younger than 15 or older than
(a) 1 only 59 to the working-age population.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q37. Consider the following statements Q40. Which of the following statements is/are
regarding the zaid cropping season: correct regarding ocean currents?
1. West coasts of the continents in the
1. It is a winter cropping season. middle and higher latitudes are
2. Fruits and vegetables like watermelon, bordered by warm currents.
muskmelon and cucumber are grown 2. The complete reversal of the north
during this season. Indian Ocean currents between
3. The crops during this season require summer and winter is due to Indian
cool dry weather for major growth Ocean Dipole.
periods and shorter day length for 3. The mixing zones of cold and warm
flowering and fruiting. ocean currents are the most
productive fishing grounds on earth.
How many of the statements given above
are correct? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) Only one given below.
(b) Only two (a) 1 and 3 only
(c) All three (b) 2 only
(d) None (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 only

Q38. The World’s longest highway tunnel — Q41. With reference to the Indus river,
Atal Tunnel, which has been built by consider the following statements:
Border Road Organisation connects 1. It originates from a glacier in the
Kailash Mountain range.
(a) Manali to Lahaul-Spiti valley 2. The Satluj is the largest tributary of the
(b) Rohtang Pass to Leh Indus.
(c) Gangtok to Nathu La 3. The Indus flows in India only through
(d) Ladakh and Kashmir valley the Union Territory of Jammu and
Kashmir.

Q39. Consider the following statements : Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
1. Atlantic Ocean has the highest surface (a) 1 and 2 only
water salinity among the oceans. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Indian Ocean is home to the deepest (c) 1 only
point on earth. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Arctic ocean is the smallest and
shallowest of oceans. Q42, Syntaxial bend is associated with which of
the following geographical features in
How many of the statements given above India?
are correct?
(a) Only one (a) Northern plains
(b) Only two (b) Himalayas
(c) All three (c) Deccan Plateau
(d) None (d) Central highlands

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Q43. With reference to Andaman and Nicobar Which of the statements given above
Islands, consider the following is/are correct?
statements: (a) 1 and 2 only
1. Ritchie's Archipelago belongs to the (b) 2 and 3 only
Andaman group of islands. (c) 3 only
2. Narcondam Island is the only oceanic (d) 1, 2 and 3
island of volcanic origin in India.
3. Landfall Island is the northernmost Q46. With reference to the tributaries of
island of the Andaman and Nicobar Ganga, consider the following statements:
Islands. 1. Both Alaknanda and Bhagirathi
Which of the statements given above are originate from Satopanth glacier.
correct? 2. Kali Ganga joins Alaknanda at Karna
(a) 1 and 2 only Prayag.
(b) 2 and 3 only 3. Son is the longest left bank tributary of
(c) 1 and 3 only Ganga
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
Q44. Consider the following statements (a) 1 and 2 only
regarding the Himalayas: (b) 2 and 3 only
1. Himalayas are structurally fold (c) 1, 2 and 3
mountain ranges running in a west- (d) None of the above
east direction.
2. Generally, the width of the Himalayas Q47. ‘Shompen tribes’ recently seen in news
increases as one moves from west to are from which state/UT?
east. (a) Arunachal Pradesh
3. The altitudinal variations are greater in (b) Assam
the eastern half than those in the (c) Lakshadweep
western half. (d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
How many of the statements given above
are correct? Q48. With reference to the Indian Ocean
(a) Only one Dipole (IOD), consider the following
(b) Only two statements:
(c) All three 1. It is characterized by differences in sea
(d) None surface temperatures (SSTs) between
the western and eastern Indian Ocean.
Q45. With reference to Western Disturbances, 2. Negative IOD can lead to increased
consider the following statements: rainfall and atmospheric convection
1. More than seventy-five percent of over the eastern Indian Ocean,
annual precipitation over the North- Indonesia, and northern Australia.
West Indian region is associated with Which of the statements given above
Western Disturbances. is/are not correct?
2. It may lead to dense or very dense fog (a) 1 only
events. (b) 2 only
3. Precipitation from the western (c) Both 1 and 2
disturbances is very vital for the Rabi (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Crop over northwest India.

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Q49. Arrange the following coasts of the Q52. Consider the following pairs:
western coastal plains from north to
south.
1. Kathiawar coast Name of Region
2. Konkan coast Tropical Cyclones
3. Kachchh coast
4. Malabar coast 1. Typhoons Indian Ocean
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. 2. Cyclones South China Sea
(a) 3-1-2-4
(b) 3-2-1-4 3. Hurricane United States of
(c) 1-2-4-3 America
(d) 1-4-2-3
4. Willy-willy Australia

Q50. Consider the following statement with

respect to Indian Plate: How many pairs given above is/are
1. Eurasian plate has been sinking below correctly matched?
the Indian Plate to form the Himalayas.
2. Deccan traps were formed due to (a) Only one
volcanic eruptions after the Himalayan (b) Only two
mountain building was started. (c) Only three
3. Indian plate boundaries include both (d) All four
convergent and divergent boundaries.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? Q53. Consider the following statements
(a) 3 only regarding forces affecting the movement
(b) 1 and 3 only of wind:
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. In the movement of wind the Coriolis
force acts parallel to the direction of
the pressure gradient force.
Q51. Which of the following statements is not
correct regarding the plains? 2. When there is no friction and the
(a) T h e y a r e e x t e n s i v e fl a t a r e a s pressure gradient force is balanced by
characterized by low relief, with the Coriolis force, the resultant wind is
minimal variation in elevation. known as the geostrophic wind.
(b) Structural plain are located in the
i n te ri o r of c o n t i n e n t s an d a re Which of the statements given above
characterized by the absence of is/are correct?
tectonic activities.
(c) C oa s t a l p l a i n s a re a l s o c a l l e d (a) 1 only
pediplains. (b) 2 only
(d) Alluvial plains are created by the (c) Both 1 and 2
deposition of fertile sediments. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q54. With reference to a temperature Q56. Consider the following statements
inver sion, consider the following regarding the geomorphic movements:
statements:
1. Mudflows occur frequently on the
1. It can be observed in ice-covered slopes of erupting or recently erupted
areas as these areas have a high volcanoes.
albedo. 2. Debris avalanche is the characteristic
2. It leads to a stable stratification of air of humid regions with or without
that prevents or retards vertical air vegetation cover.
motion. 3. No geomorphic agents like running
3. The stability of the night-time water, glaciers, wind, waves, and
temperature inversion is usually currents do not participate in the
destroyed after sunrise. process of mass movements.

Which of the statements given above are How many statements given above are
correct? correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Only one

(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Only two
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) All three
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None

Q55. Consider the following statements Q57. Consider the following statements
regarding Earth's Heat Budget: regarding the structure of the
atmosphere:
1. The amount of Heat energy that Earth
radiates back into space is greater 1. The troposphere reaches its maximum
than the amount of heat energy it thickness around the 30-degree
absorbs from the Sun. latitudes, both north and south of the
2. The sun emits the heat in short-wave equator.
radiation and the earth emits back in 2. The zone separating the stratosphere
long-wave radiation. from the troposphere is known as the
3. The amount of energy that is reflected stratopause.
known as the Earth's albedo is about 3. The ionosphere is located above the
30%. mesopause.

Which of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above
correct? is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3 (d) 3 only

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Q58. Consider the following statements : Which of the following climatic regions
best reflects the above-mentioned
1. Clear sky, calm air, high relative features?
humidity, and cold and long nights are (a) Equatorial climate
ideal conditions for formation of Dew. (b) Polar climate
2. For the formation of dew, it is (c) Savanna climate
necessary that the dew point is below (d) Mediterranean climate
the freezing point.
Q61. Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above 1. An air mass is a body of air covering a
is/are correct? relatively wide area exhibiting
(a) 1 only approximately uniform physical
(b) 2 only properties.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. In an air mass there is negligible
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 vertical variation in temperature and
moisture.
Q59. Consider the following statements 3. When two contrasting warm and cold
related to Erosion of rocks air masses meet they form a front.

1. Erosion refers to the process of Which of the statements given above are
disintegration of rocks but not the correct?
transporation. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. Running water, glacier and wind are (b) 2 and 3 only
agents of erosion. (c) 1 and 3 only
3. Erosion is an in-situ process. (d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Erosion is responsible for formation of
different landforms. Q62. Consider the following statements:
1. In the lower courses of the northern
Which of the following statements are plains, velocity of the river decreases
correct? due to gentle slope and riverine
(a) 1 and 3 islands are formed.
(b) 2 and 4 2. Riverine islands are formed in the
(c) 1, 2 and 4 lower courses due to fluvial erosion
(d) 2, 3 and 4 activity in the upper reaches of the
Himalayan Mountains.
Q60. Consider the following statements with 3. Brahmaputra plains are known for
reference to a particular climatic region: their riverine islands and sand bars.

1. The summer is dry and warm, while Which of the statements given above
there is rainfall in winter. is/are correct?
2. Trees have small broad leaves and are (a) 1 and 3 only
widely spaced leading to the absence (b) 2 and 3 only
of shade. (c) 3 only
3. This climate favours viticulture and (d) 1, 2 and 3
wine production is an economic
activity here.

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Q63. With reference to the Inter-Tropical Which of the statements given above
Convergence Zone (ITCZ), consider the is/are correct?
following statements: (a) 1, and 2 only
1. It is a low pressure zone located at the (b) 1, and 3 only
equator where trade winds converge. (c) 2, and 3 only
2. In winter, the ITCZ moves northward, (d) 1, 2 and 3
and so the reversal of winds from
south and southwest to northeast, Q67. Winter Solstice happens in the Northern
takes place. Hemisphere when:
(a) the South Pole is tilted away from the
Which of the statements given above Sun
is/are correct? (b) the North Pole is tilted away from the
(a) 1 only Sun
(b) 2 only (c) the Sun's rays are directly overhead at
(c) Both 1 and 2 the Tropic of Cancer
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) the Northern Hemisphere experiences
the longest day

Q64. Which of the following agents/actions Q68. Consider the following statements:
can result in the formation of Plateaus? 1. A time zone is a region of the globe
1. Wind that observes uniform standard time.
2. Fluvial action 2. Time along a particular latitude always
3. Glacial action remains the same.
4. Plate tectonics 3. India follows 82.5 degrees West
Select the correct answer using the code Meridian as the standard reference.
given below. How many statements given above are
(a) 1 and 4 only correct?
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) Only one
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) Only two
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) All three
(d) None

Q65. Cirque, Arete and Bergschrund are Q69. Consider the following statements:
(a) landforms of Karst topography 1. The linear distance of a degree of
(b) landforms of glacial origin latitude at the pole is slightly longer
(c) fluvial landforms than at the equator.
(d) arid landforms 2. At extreme latitudes, the mid day sun
is usually referred to as polar day.
Which of the statements given above
Q66. With reference to Hot Deserts, consider is/are correct?
the following statements: (a) 1 only
1. They are found in high pressure belts. (b) 2 only
2. Warm Ocean current flows along the (c) Both 1 and 2
coast of hot desert. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Normally, rainfall occurs in these
regions is convectional.

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Q70. Which of the following is/are proof(s) of Q73. Consider the following statements about
the sphericity of the Earth? landforms:
1. Possible circumnavigation of the earth 1. Cinder
without a steep fall. 2. Composite cone
2. Different times of sunrise and sunset 3. Phacolith
at different places on earth. 4. Crater
3. Shape of earth's shadow during a 5. Sills
lunar eclipse. Which of the landforms given above are
Select the correct answer using the code extrusive volcanic landforms?
given below. (a) 1, 4 and 5 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 only (d) 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q74. Which of the conditions is/are prevalent
in the Northern Hemisphere on the
Q71. With reference to plate tectonics theory, Summer Solstice?
consider the following statements 1. The North Pole is tilted towards the
1. I t w a s p r o p o s e d b y A m e r i c a n sun.
geologist Harry Hess in 1961 2. The sun is vertically over the Tropic of
2. P l a t e s a r e c o m p o s e d o f b o t h Cancer.
continental and oceanic crust. 3. The Nights are longer than the days.
3. The movement of the hot softened 4. Along the Arctic Circle, a day is 24
mantle below the crust causes the hours long and there is no sunset.
plate movement. Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above are given below.
correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q75. Consider the following statements
regarding the interior of the earth:
Q72. Which among the following landforms 1. Nickel and iron are the main mineral
i s / a re f o r m e d a t t r a n s f o r m p l a te constituents of the earth's crust.
boundaries? 2. Asthenosphere is a mechanically weak
1. Faults zone of molten rock in the upper
2. Oceanic Trench mantle of Earth.
3. Volcanoes 3. The core is made up of material mostly
Select the correct answer using the code constituted by silica and alumina.
given below. Which of the statements given above
(a) 1 and 2 only is/are not correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q76. Consider the following statements Q79. With reference to the magnetic field,
regarding the endogenic forces: which of the following statements is/are
1. Diastrophic movements are gradual correct?
and might stretch for thousands of
years. 1. The direction of field lines is from the
2. Epeirogenic movements are radial north pole to the south pole inside the
movements. magnet.
3. Orogenic movements act tangentially
to the earth surface. 2. The relative strength of the magnetic
Which of the statements given above are field is shown by the degree of
correct? closeness of the field lines.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 3. No two field lines are found to cross
(c) 1, 2 and 3 each other.
(d) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code
Q77. With reference to the Big Bang Theory, given below.
which of the following statements is not
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) According to this theory, all matter (b) 2 and 3 only
forming the universe existed in one (c) 1, 2 and 3
place. (d) 1 and 2 only
(b) During the process, energy was
converted into matter.
(c) Temperature of the universe increased
with the expansion of universe. Q80. In the context of an earthquake, consider
(d) According to the theory, the universe the following statements regarding body
continues to expand to the present waves and surface waves:
day
1. Body waves are generated at the focus
Q78. Consider the following statements: and move in all directions.
1. Entire India observes overhead sun on
the summer solstice of the northern 2. Surface waves are more destructive
hemisphere. than body waves.
2. As compared to northern India,
southern India experiences high 3. The velocity of waves is higher denser
temperatures throughout the year material.
with small daily and annual ranges.
Which of the above can be attributed to Which of the statements given above are
the passing of the Tropic of Cancer correct?
roughly through the central part of India?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q81. Consider the following statements with Q84. With reference to the measurement of
reference to the motions of the earth: earthquakes, consider the following
1. The circle of illumination coincides statements:
with the axis of earth on the full moon 1. The Richter scale is a magnitude scale
night. calculated by the logarithm of the
2. On 21st March, the geographic north amplitude of waves.
pole is tilted towards the sun. 2. The Mercalli scale is an intensity scale
3. The speed of the earth’s rotation used to quantify the effect of an
decreases towards the poles. earthquake on human life.
Which of the statements given above
is/are not correct? Which of the statements given above
(a) 2 and 3 only is/are correct?
(b) 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q82. Consider the following statements:
1. While a lunar eclipse can occur twice a Q85. Which of the following commonly found
year, a solar eclipse occurs only once a plants in India have medicinal properties?
year. 1. Sarpagandha
2. A solar eclipse always takes place on 2. Babool
the summer solstice of the Northern 3. Arjun
Hemisphere. 4. Kachnar
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 only given below.
(b) 2 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q83. Consider the following statement
regarding the asthenosphere: Q86. Arrange the following elements in
1. This layer is the main source of increasing of their weight percentage in
magma. the earth's crust:
2. The density of the asthenosphere is 1. Oxygen
lower than that of the lithosphere. 2. Silicon
3. The ductility of the asthenosphere is 3. Aluminium
higher than that of the lithosphere. 4. Iron
How many of the statements given above
are correct? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) only one given below.
(b) only two (a) 1-2-4-3
(c) All three (b) 1-2-3-4
(d) None (c) 4-3-2-1
(d) 4-3-1-2

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Q87. Consider the following statements Q90. With reference to the tsunami, consider
regarding Savanna type climate: the following statements:
1. This type of climate is best developed
in Sudan. 1. The wave height of a tsunami
2. It is characterized by extreme diurnal decreases rapidly as it reaches shallow
range of temperature. water from the open ocean.
2. The speed of a tsunami increases as it
Which of the statements given above reaches shallow water from the open
is/are correct? ocean.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above
(c) Both 1 and 2 is/are correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
Q88. Consider the following statements with (b) 2 only
reference to the influence of climate on (c) Both 1 and 2
soil: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Soil in tundra regions has deeper
profiles compared to soils in tropical Q91. The primary objective of the NAKSHA
regions. Project is to:
2. Bacterial action in the soil is relatively
slow in tundra regions as compared to (a) Digitize and modernize urban land
tropical regions. records for accurate ownership
documentation
Which of the statements given above (b) Develop a geospatial database for
is/are correct? agricultural land mapping
(a) 1 only (c) E n h a n c e G I S - b a s e d d i s a s t e r
(b) 2 only management planning in urban areas
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) C re a te a c e n t r a l re p o s i to r y of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 topographical data for military use

Q89. Which of the following explains the Q92. Which of the following statements
excessive cold in northern India during correctly describe the seismic activity in
the months of December-January? Delhi-NCR?
1. Continentality
2. Snowfall in the Himalayas (a) Delhi is located at the intersection of
3. Impact of cold winds coming from the multiple active fault lines, increasing
Tibetan plateau earthquake risk.
(b) Most earthquakes in Delhi originate
Select the correct answer using the code from the Indo-Burma seismic zone.
given below. (c) Delhi has never experienced an
(a) 1 only earthquake of magnitude greater than
(b) 2 and 3 only 6.0 on the Richter Scale.
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) Seismic waves travel slower in regions
(d) 1, 2 and 3 with high population density.

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Q93. The primary function of the Vertical How many of the above statements is/are
Planetary Mixer (VPM) developed by ISRO correct?
is to:
(a) only one
(a) Manufacture liquid rocket fuel used in (b) only two
PSLV and GSLV missions. (c) All three
(b) Mix solid propellant components for (d) None
efficient combustion in rocket motors.
(c) Control the ignition sequence of Q96. Consider the following statements about
cryogenic rocket engines. the Gulf of Mannar:
(d) Develop high-performance satellite
fuel for geostationary orbit insertion. 1. The Gulf of Mannar is located between
the southeastern coast of India and
Q94. Consider the following statements about the northern coast of Sri Lanka.
the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC): 2. It is an important ecological region,
known for its coral reefs and marine
1. The Colombo Security Conclave is a biodiversity.
bilateral initiative between India and 3. The Gulf of Mannar has strategic
Sri Lanka. military importance due to its location
2. The CSC aims to enhance regional near major international shipping
security by addressing transnational lanes.
threats.
3. Disaster relief and cyber security are How many of the above statements is/are
part of the CSC’s focus areas. correct?

How many of the above statements is/are (a) only one

not correct? (b) only two
(a) only one (c) All three
(b) only two (d) None
(c) All three
(d) None Q97. Which of the following is NOT an
objective of the Technology Adoption
Q95. Consider the following statements Fund (TAF)?
regarding the Digital Agriculture Mission:
(a) To support the commercialization of
1. The mission aims to create a Digital early-stage space technologies in
Public Infrastructure (DPI) for farmers India
and stakeholders in the agricultural (b) To reduce India's reliance on imported
sector. space technology
2. The Digital General Crop Estimation (c) To provide grants to foreign private
Survey (DGCES) under the mission is entities for setting up space
designed to improve the accuracy of infrastructure in India
crop yield estimation. (d) To fund research and development in
3. Digital Agriculture tools are limited to satellite technology and launch
weather prediction and soil health vehicles
analysis.

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Q98. Which of the following ocean currents
influence the Andaman Sea’s climate and
marine ecosystem?

(a) Agulhas Current

(b) North Equatorial Current

(c) Benguela Current

(d) Humboldt Current

Q99. The Global Digital Compact (GDC) was

adopted during which significant UN
event?

(a) UN World Digital Summit

(b) UN Sustainable Development Goals

Summit

(c) UN ‘Summit of the Future’

(d) UN General Assembly

Q100. Which of the following seas is located

between Turkey and Russia?

(a) Caspian Sea

(b) Red Sea

(c) Mediterranean Sea

(d) Black Sea

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
GEOGRAPHY
FLT

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO,
GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fi ll in the Roll Number carefully without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will
render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in
some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certifi cate.
8. After you have completed fi lling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers
happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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 | Navigator | Geography FLT
Q1. With reference to the Himalayan region, Q4. Consider the following statements with
consider the following statements: reference to North-East Indian states:
1. The Kanchenjunga peak is located in 1. Mizoram shares boundary with Bay of
Shiwalik range. Bengal and Myanmar.
2. In the North-West, Great Himalayan 2. Tr i p u r a s h a r e s b o u n d a r y w i t h
range ends at Nanga Parbat. Bangladesh, Meghalaya, Assam and
How many statements given above are Mizoram.
correct? 3. Assam does not share boundary with
(a) 1 only Sikkim.
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above
(c) Both 1 and 2 is/are correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
Q2. Consider the following statements: (c) 2 and 3 only
Statement-I: The primary effect of excess (d) 3 only
soil salinity is that it renders less water
available to plants.
Statement-II: The osmotic pressure of
the soil solution increases as the salt
concentration increases.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both the statements are individually
true and Statement II is the correct Q5. The general elevation ranges between
explanation of Statement I 700-1,000 m above the mean sea level
(b) Both the statements are individually and it slopes towards the north and
true but Statement II is ‘not the correct northeastern directions. Most of the
explanation of Statement I tributaries of the river Yamuna have their
(c) Statement I is true but Statement Il is origin in this region. An eastern extension
false is formed by the Rajmahal hills, to the
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is south of which lies a large reserve of
true mineral resources in the Chotanagpur
plateau. In the West, its extension can be
Q3. Consider the following statements seen as far as Jaisalmer.
regarding river system of India: Which of the following is best described in
1. Brahmani is a tributary of Mahanadi. the passage given above?
2. Subarnarekha is a tribuary of Ganga. (a) Deccan Plataeu
3. Bhima is a tributary of Krishna. (b) Central Highlands
How many statements given above are (c) Maikal ranges
correct? (d) Chota Nagpur Plataeu
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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Q6. With reference to Coffee production in Q9. The best regions for cultivation of tea
India, consider the following statements: plantation in the world are
1. India produces both Robusta and (a) Western Himalayan foothills of India
Arabica varieties. (b) Central highlands of Sri Lanka
2. While Robusta has a large market due (c) Steppe grasslands
to mild aromatic flavour, Arabica is (d) Western Coast of Chile
used in making various blends.
3. Tamil Nadu accounts more than 50%
of India’s coffee production.
4. Chattisgarh is emerging to become a
coffee hub in central India with
increase in coffee production.
Which of the statements given above are Q10. The terms ' parkland' or ' bush-veld'
correct? perhaps describe the landscape of
(a) 1 and 2 only Savanna mainly because
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (a) The temperature range is extreme in
(c) 2 and 4 only the Savanna climate
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) Trees are always present with the
luxuriant tall grass in the landscape
(c) Cattle rearing is a well developed
Q7. Consider the following: activity in the Savanna region
1. Transplantation (d) Diversity and abundance of wild life
2. Drilling
3. Broadcasting
Which of the above is/are the methods of
rice cultivation?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three Q11. Which of the following factors affect
(d) None insolation at the surface of the earth?
1. Rotation of the earth on its axis
2. The angle of inclination of the sun’s
Q8. With reference to economic activities the rays
term ‘Home shoring’ essentially refers to 3. The length of the day
(a) A practice of hiring workers who do 4. The transparency of the atmosphere
their work remotely from a home 5. Configuration of land in terms of its
office. aspect
(b) A practice of assigning monetary Select the correct answer using the code
value to unpaid activities like child care given below.
(c) The decision to locate industries near (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
the coastal towns (b) 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) A procedure involving inhouse (c) 1, 3 and 5 only
training and capacity building of new (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
recruits by Fin Techs.

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Q12. Consider the following statements Q14. Consider the following statements:
regarding characteristics of laterite soil 1. The Bhabar is a narrow belt ranging
1. Their reddish color is primarily due to between 8-10 km parallel to the
the presence of iron oxides and Shiwalik foothills at the break-up of
hydroxides. the slope.
2. T h e i r h i g h c l a y c o n t e n t a n d 2. North of the Bhabar is the Tarai belt,
weathering resistance make them where most of the streams and rivers
suitable for construction materials like re-emerge without having any
bricks and tiles. properly demarcated channel.
3. It boasts high organic matter content 3. The north of Tarai is a belt consisting of
due to rapid decomposition in humid old and new alluvial deposits known as
climates the Bhangar and the Khadar
How many of the statements given above respectively.
are correct? How many of the statements given above
(a) Only one is/are correct?
(b) Only two (a) Only one
(c) All three (b) Only two
(d) None (c) All three
(d) None

Q13. Consider the following grasslands: Q15. Consider the following statements
1. Velds regarding the western coastal plains:
2. Pampas 1. These are submerged plains that
3. Steppes provide natural conditions for the
4. Selvas development of ports.
5. Savanna 2. Kandla is an important natural port
How many of the above are considered as located along the Indian west coast.
temperate grasslands? 3. These plains are narrow in the middle
(a) Only two and rivers flowing through this plain
(b) Only three do not form delta.
(c) Only four How many statement(s) given above
(d) All five is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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Q16. Consider the following conditions: Q19. With reference to the Coriolis Force on
1. Prevalence of hot dry air over a region. the Ear th, consider the following
2. Presence of moisture in the upper statements:
atmosphere. 1. At the equator, the effect of coriolis
3. Cloudless sky force is zero.
How many of the above conditions is/are 2. The deflection of winds due to coriolis
favourable for the occurrence of the Heat force decreases as the latitude
waves? increases.
(a) Only one 3. Due to coriolis force, the air deflects
(b) Only two towards right in the Southern
(c) All three Hemisphere.
(d) None How many of the statements given above
are correct?
Q17. Consider the following statements with (a) Only one
reference to temperature distribution of (b) Only two
Ocean water: (c) All three
1. Temperature of the ocean surface (d) None
decreases from the equator towards
the poles. Q20. ""The air on being heated, becomes light
2. Oceans in the southern hemisphere and rises up. As it rises, it expands and
receive more heat than the northern loses heat and consequently
hemisphere due to their contact with condensation takes place and cumulus
larger extent of land. clouds are formed. With thunder and
3. T h e h i g h e s t o c e a n s u r f a c e lightning, heavy rainfall takes place but
temperature is observed at equator. this does not last long. Such rain is
How many of the statements given above common in the summer or in the hotter
are correct? part of the day."" What type of rainfall is
(a) Only one being talked about in the above lines?
(b) Only two (a) Cyclonic Rainfall
(c) All three (b) Convectional Rainfall
(d) None (c) Orographic rainfall
(d) Montane Rainfall “
Q18. Consider the following:
1. Clear skies and a rise in temperature Q21. "Consider the following:
2. Oppressive weather 1. Surface heating
3. Southward movement of a low- 2. Orographic barriers
pressure trough in the Plains of Ganga 3. Fronts
4. Rainfall on the southeastern coast 4. Convergence
Which of the following has the 5. Turbulence
characteristics mentioned above? How many of the above contributes
(a) Breaks in monsoon to/affects cloud formation?
(b) Summer season (a) Only two
(c) An El Nino year (b) Only three
(d) Retreating monsoon (c) Only four
(d) All five

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Q22. "What is the pattern of cyclonic Q25. Consider the following statements:
circulation in northern hemisphere? Statement I: The Himalayan ranges show
(a) Clockwise a succession of vegetation from tropical
(b) Anti clockwise to tundra.
(c) Perpendicular to isobars Statement II: The mountain range of
(d) Parallel to isobars Himalayas obstruct the passage of cold
continental air from the north into India.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both the statements are individually
true and Statement II is the correct
explanation of Statement I
Q23. Which one of the following phenomenon (b) Both the statements are individually
happens when the sun shines vertically true but Statement II is ‘not the correct
over the Tropic of Capricorn in the explanation of Statement I
Southern Hemisphere? (c) Statement I is true but Statement Il is
(a) High pressure develops over North- false
western India due to low (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is
temperatures. true
(b) Low pressure develops over North-
western India due to high Q26. Consider the following statements
temperatures. regarding tropical evergreen forests in
(c) No changes in temperature and India:
pressure occur in north-western India. 1. They can be found in the Western
(d) 'Loo' blows in the North-western India. Ghats and hills of the northeastern
region.
2. These are the most widespread forests
in India.
3. Mahogony and Ebony are examples of
species found in tropical evergreen
forests in India.
Q24. Consider the following statements How many of the above statements
1. The long wave energy radiated by the are correct?
Earth known as Terrestrial Radiation. (a) Only one
2. Terrestrial Radiation heats the (b) Only two
atmosphere from below as it is (c) All three
absorbed by the atmospheric gases (d) None
particularly the greenhouse gases.
Which of the statements given above Q27. Acacia, Kokko, Khair, Khejri and Palas are
is/are correct? common species of which of the following
(a) 1 only types of forest?
(b) 2 only (a) Tropical Evergreen Forests
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Dry Deciduous Forests
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Moist Deciduous Forests
(d) Thorn Forests

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Q28. Consider the following statements about Q32. Consider the following statements about
upwelling of sea water: the ‘Western Cyclonic Disturbances’:
1. It is a process in which currents bring 1. These winds enter the Indian sub-
warm water to the surface of the continent in winter months.
ocean. 2. T h e y o r i g i n a t e o v e r t h e
2. It can lead to increased biological Mediterranean Sea and are brought to
productivity in marine ecosystems. India by westerly jet stream.
3. It is a result of winds and the rotation 3. An increase in the prevailing night
of the Earth. temperature generally indicates an
4. Coastal upwelling destroys the growth advance in the arrival of these cyclones
of seaweed and plankton. disturbances.
How many of the statements given above Which of the statements given above
are correct? is/are correct?
(a) Only one (a) 1 only
(b) Only two (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Only three (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q29. Podzols soil are common characteristic of

which of the following type of forests?
(a) Monsoon forest
(b) Tropical evergreen forest
(c) Deciduous forest
(d) Boreal forest

Q30. Which of the following is not a direct Q33. Consider the following statements with
effect of the Earth's axial tilt? respect to the Rural-Urban Fringe:
(a) Changing seasons 1. The rural urban fringe can be viewed
(b) Variation in Daylight as an area of invasion in which
(c) Length of the year population density is in decreasing
(d) Solar Energy Distribution state.
2. In India, rural-urban migration has
Q31. Consider the following statements about accelerated the growth of rural urban
'pre-monsoon rainfall' in India: fringe which has become a common
1. It occurs as a result of thunderstorm feature of a big city.
development over the Bay of Bengal. 3. Rural fringe is characterized by
2. I t i n c r e a s e s t h e q u a l i t y a n d commercial squatters but there is
productivity of tea farming. absence of farming.
3. It is known as 'Mango Shower' in West Which of the statements given above
Bengal. is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above (a) 1 and 2 only
is/are correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 only Option
(b) 1 only (d) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q34. Which one of the following correctly Q37. Consider the following pairs:
d e s c r i b e s t h e te r m ' Po p u l a t i o n
momentum'? Dams Rivers Located in
(a) It is the increase in the population, due State/UT
to the increase in the birth rates.
(b) It is the increase in the population, due 1. Nizam Krishna Andhra
to the decline in the death rates. Sagar Pradesh
(c) It is the increase in the population, due Reservoir
to access to better health services
(d) It is the increase in the population 2. Hirakud Mahanadi Jharkhand
even after there is a decline in the birth Dam
rates, due to large existing youthful
population. 3. Mettur Cauvery Tamil
Dam River Nadu
Q35. How many of the following tribal
communities in the Himalayan region How many pairs given above are correctly
practice transhumance? matched?
1. Gujars (a) Only one
2. Bakarwals (b) Only two
3. Bhotias (c) All three
4. Gaddis (d) None
5. Changpas
Select the correct answer using the code Q38. Which of the following is the chief
given below: characteristic of ‘mixed farming’?
(a) Only two (a) Cultivation of both cash crops and
(b) Only three food crops
(c) Only four (b) Cultivation of crops along with trees
(d) All five and shrubs
(c) Cultivation of crops combined with
Q36. With reference to Demographic livestock farming Option
Transition Theory, consider the following (d) None of the above
statements:
1. Fertility remains low in the beginning Q39. Consider the following statements:
of the second stage but increases with 1. Extensive commercial grain cultivation
time. is practiced in the interior parts of
2. In last stage, both fertility and semi-arid lands of the mid-latitudes.
mortality decreases considerably. 2. Intensive Subsistence Farming uses
Which of the statements given above high doses of biochemical inputs and
is/are correct? irrigation for obtaining higher
(a) 1 only production.
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above
(c) Both 1 and 2 is/are not correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q40. With reference to the footloose Q42. Which of the following is a key goal of the
industries, consider the following “Year of Reforms” initiative in India?
statements: (a) Achieving hypersonic capability in
1. They largely depend on component defense
parts. (b) Modernizing India's agriculture sector
2. They produce in very large quantities (c) Introducing autonomous judiciary
and also employ a huge labor force. reforms
3. The important factor in their location (d) Streamlining defense procurement
is accessibility by road network. processes
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Q43. A Tropical Cyclone is a rapidly rotating
(c) All three storm system characterized by a low-
(d) None pressure centre. Consider the following
statements in this regard:
1. A hurricane is a tropical cyclone that
occurs in the Atlantic Ocean and the
northeastern Pacific Ocean.
2. Tropical cyclones are almost unknown
in the South Atlantic Ocean due to a
weak Intertropical Convergence Zone.
How many statements given above are
Q41. Consider the following statements with correct?
reference to tropical evergreen forests: (a) 1 only
Statement I: In India, these forests are (b) 2 only
found in western slope of the Western (c) Both 1 and 2
Ghats, hills of the northeastern region and (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Statement II: These forests are well
stratied and have short structured trees
followed by tall variety of trees. Q44. Consider the following statements:
Which one of the following is correct in 1. In Condensation latent heat is
respect of the above statements? absorbed.
(a) Both the statements are individually 2. The temperature at which the water
true and Statement II is the correct starts evaporating is known as the
explanation of Statement I latent heat of vaporization.
(b) Both the statements are individually Which of the statement given above is/are
true but Statement II is ‘not the correct correct?
explanation of Statement I (a) 1 only
(c) Statement I is true but Statement Il is (b) 2 only
false (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is (d) Neither 1 nor 2
true

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Q45. In which of the following layers of the Q48. Consider the following statements:
Ear th’s atmosphere, generally the 1. When the cold air moves towards the
temperature decreases as the height warm air mass, its contact zone is
increases? called the warm front.
1. Troposphere 2. If an air mass is fully lifted above the
2. Mesosphere land surface, it is called the occluded
3. Thermosphere front.
4. Stratosphere Which of the statements given above
Select the correct answer using the code is/are correct?
given below: (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 3 and 4 only
Q49. Consider the following statements:
1. Hor se latitudes is a region of
Q46. Consider the following statements: ascending air currents and cyclones.
1. Air temperature generally decreases 2. Equatorial low-pressure belt is the the
from equator towards the poles. only zone of wind convergence.
2. Air temperature generally increases 3. D i re c t i o n of t r a d e w i n d s g e t s
from surface of earth to higher impacted by the rotation of earth.
altitudes. Which of the statements given above
3. The moderating influence of sea is/are not correct?
decreases as the distance from the sea (a) 1 and 2 only
increases. (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above (c) 1 and 3 only
is/are correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only Q50. In the context of the evolution of the
(c) 2 and 3 only atmosphere of Earth, consider the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 following statements:
1. T h e h o t i n t e r i o r o f t h e e a r t h
contributed to the evolution of the
Q47. Which of the following local winds are atmosphere.
responsible for raising the temperature of 2. The early atmosphere was mainly
the place they travel? composed of Oxygen and Nitrogen.
1. Bora 3. The early atmosphere was supposed
2. Sirocco to have been stripped off as a result of
3. Harmattan solar winds.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above
given below: is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q51. Clear and sunny skies are usually Q54. Which of the following are responsible
associated with: for the existence of deserts on the western
(a) High pressure zones margin of continents?
(b) Low pressure zones 1. Westerlies
(c) A z o n e o f i n t e n s e p r e s s u r e 2. Trade Winds
fluctuations 3. Cold Ocean Currents
(d) A zone which has experienced any Select the correct answer using the code
pressure fluctuation for a very long given below:
time (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Q52. Consider the following statements:
1. These clouds are black or dark gray.
2. They form at middle levels or very near
to the surface of the earth.
3. These are extremely dense and
opaque to the rays of the sun.
The above statements describe which one Q55. Consider the following statements:
of the following clouds? Statement I: Salinity in the landlocked
(a) Cumulus Clouds water bodies in the middle latitudes is
(b) Stratus Clouds very high.
(c) Nimbus Clouds Statement II: The Precipitation in the
(d) Cirrus Clouds landlocked water bodies in the middle
latitudes is very high.
Statement III: The landlocked water
bodies in the middle latitudes experience
Q53. Which of the following statements low rates of evaporation.
regarding Hot and Wet Equatorial Which one of the following is correct in
Regions is/are correct? respect of the above statements?
1. Commercial extraction of timber is an (a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III
important economic activity. are correct and both of them explain
2. The periods of maximum rainfall Statement-I
coincides with the equinoxes. (b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III
3. The temperature remains uniform are correct, but only one of them
throughout the year with very little explains Statement-I
variation. (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is
Select the correct answer using the code correct and that explains Statement-I
given below: (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement-Ill
(a) 1 only is correct
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q56. Which of the following currents are not Q59. Arrange the following seas from South to
associated with the movement of water in North:
the Pacific Ocean? 1. North Sea
1. Labrador Current 2. Black Sea
2. Agulhas Current 3. Baltic Sea
3. West Australian Current 4. Mediterranean Sea
4. Oyashio Current Select the correct answer from the code
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
given below: (a) 1-2-3-4
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2-1-4-3
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 4-2-3-1
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 4-2-1-3
(d) 2 and 3 only

Q57. Which of the following countries share

their borders with the Black Sea?
1. Turkey
2. Georgia
3. Russia
4. Iran
5. Greece Q60. Consider the following statements
Select the correct answer using the code regarding the Tides:
given below: 1. The periodical rise and fall of the sea
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only level, once or twice a day, mainly due
(b) 1, 2 and 5 only to the attraction of the sun and the
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only moon, is called a tide.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only 2. T h e d i f f e r e n c e b e t w e e n t h e
gravitational attraction of the moon
and the sun is called ‘tide generating’
Q58. Consider the following statements about force.
Mid-Oceanic Ridges. 3. When the tide is channeled between
1. It is an interconnected chain of islands or into bays and estuaries they
trenches within the ocean. are called tidal surges.
2. These demarcates the boundary Which of the statements given above
between two tectonic plates. is/are correct?
3. These are geologically active, with new (a) 1 only
magma constantly emerging onto the (b) 1 and 2 only
ocean floor. (c) 1 and 3 only
How many statements given above are (d) 2 and 3 only
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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Q61. With reference to 'Ocean Currents', Q64. Israel shares a border with which of the
consider the following statements: following countries?
1. The constant flow of a mass of ocean 1. Saudi Arabia
water as a stream in a definite 2. Egypt
direction is called an ocean current. 3. Turkey
2. Winds passing over cold currents tend 4. Jordan
to absorb moisture and become dry. 5. Lebanon
3. The meeting of warm and cold Select the correct answer using the code
currents produces thick fog and leads given below:
to the loss of planktons. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
is/are correct? (c) 4 and 5 only
(a) 1 only (d) 2, 4 and 5 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Q65. How many of the following interactions
a re e x a m p l e s of D i v e rg e n t P l a t e
boundaries?
Q62. With reference to tidal bore, consider the 1. Indo-Australia Plate interacting with
following statements: Eurasian Plate
1. Tidal bore is a high tidal wave moving 2. South American Plate interacting
upstream in the mouth of a river. Africa Plate
2. Tidal bore can be formed of high tides 3. Eurasian Plate interacting with Pacific
resulting from seismic activity. Plate
3. The tidal-bore affected estuaries are Select the correct answer using the code
the rich feeding zones and breeding given below.
grounds of several forms of wildlife. (a) Only one
Which of the statements given above (b) Only two
are correct? (c) All three
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) None
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q66. Consider the following landforms:
1. Caldera
2. Laccoliths
Q63. Which of the following Indian state 3. Dykes
shares its boundary with maximum 4. Cinder cone
number of its neighbouring states? How many of the landforms given above
(a) Madhya Pradesh are extrusive landforms?
(b) Chhattisgarh (a) Only one
(c) Jharkhand Option (b) Only two
(d) West Bengal (c) Only three
(d) All four

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Q67. Consider the following statements: Q70. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: With an increase in Statement I: The average size of
temperature, the relative humidity of the operational holdings in India has seen a
air decreases. decline in past five decades.
Statement II: In order to reach the Statement II: The farmers in India have
saturation point, warmer air requires more low per capita income.
moisture. Statement III: India’s population has seen
Which one of the following is correct in a remarkable increase since past five
respect of the above statements? decades.
(a) Both the statements are individually Which one of the following is correct in
true and Statement II is the correct respect of the above statements?
explanation of Statement I (a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III
(b) Both the statements are individually are correct and both of them explain
true but Statement II is ‘not the correct Statement-I
explanation of Statement I (b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III
(c) Statement I is true but Statement Il is are correct, but only one of them
false explains Statement-I
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is
true correct and that explains Statement-I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement-Ill
Q68. Consider the following places of India: is correct
1. Itanagar
2. Imphal
3. Agartala Q71. Consider the following statements:
4. Aizawl Statement-I: The equatorial rainforests of
Which one of the following is the correct the world have luxuriant growth of natural
chronological order of the above places in vegetation.
terms of sunrise time? Statement II: The Equatorial regions
(a) 3-2-1-4 witness profound Seasonal changes
(b) 2-1-4-3 which enhances soil fertility by
(c) 1-4-3-2 influencing nutrient cycles and organic
(d) 4-3-2-1 matter decomposition.
Which one of the following is correct in
Q69. Consider the following statements: respect of the above statements?
1. These rocks have crystalline structure. (a) Both the statements are individually
2. These are characterized by pore true and Statement II is the correct
spaces and are lighter than the explanation of Statement I
igneous rocks. (b) Both the statements are individually
3. Gypsum is a sedimentary rock. true but Statement II is ‘not the correct
How many of the above statements are explanation of Statement I
correct regarding the characteristics of (c) Statement I is true but Statement Il is
the sedimentary rocks? false
(a) Only one (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is
(b) Only two true
(c) All three
(d) None

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Q72. Consider the following: Q75. Consider the following statements with
1. Beaches reference to Himalayan and Peninsular
2. Dunes drainage system:
3. Bars 1. The Peninsular rivers have shorter and
4. Barriers shallower courses as compared to
5. Caves their Himalayan counterparts.
How many of the above are depositional 2. The Peninsular rivers are perennial
landforms of a coastal ecosystem? whereas Himalayan rivers are
(a) Only two seasonal.
(b) Only three 3. L oa d c a r r y i n g c a pa c i t y of t h e
(c) Only four Himalayan rivers are more than that of
(d) All five the peninsular rivers.
4. The Himalayan River system shows
consequent drainage whereas it is
antecedent drainage for peninsular
Q73. Arrange the following westward flowing river system.
rivers of peninsular India from North to How many of the above statements are
South: correct?
1. Periyar (a) 1 and 3 only
2. Luni (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. Sharavati (c) 1 and 2 only
4. Mandovi (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(a) 2-3-4-1
(b) 3-4-2-1
(c) 2-4-3-1
(d) 3-2-4-1
Q76. Which of the following explains the
excessive cold in northern India during
the months of December-January?
Q74. Consider the following : 1. Continentality
1. Kosi 2. Snowfall in the Himalayas
2. Gandak 3. Impact of cold winds coming from the
3. Ghagra Tibetan plateau
4. Chenab Select the correct answer using the code
5. Yamuna given below.
How many of the above rivers do not have (a) 1 only
their origin in India? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) Only two (c) 1 and 2 only
(b) Only three (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Only four
(d) All five

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Q77. With reference to the Earth's magnetic Q80. With reference to the arid landforms,
poles, consider the following statements: which of the following appropriately
1. The magnetic poles are stationary and defined the ‘Barchans’?
do not change over time. (a) Tabular masses which have a layer of
2. The magnetic poles coincide exactly soft rocks lying beneath a surface layer
with the geographic poles. of more resistant rocks
Which of the statements given above (b) Isolated hill that stands above well
is/are correct? developed plains.
(a) 1 only (c) Crescent shaped dunes with the
(b) 2 only points or wings directed away from
(c) Both 1 and 2 wind direction
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Transverse dunes which are aligned
perpendicular to wind direction.
Q78. Consider the following statements
regarding Uranium and Thorium:
1. World's largest thorium reserves are
found in India.
2. Most of the world's uranium reserves
are found in Kazakhstan.
3. Both Uranium and Thorium are fissile
substance and can be used directly in
nuclear reactors.
How many of the above given statements Q81. Consider the following statements
are correct? regarding jet streams:
(a) Only one 1. Jet streams are narrow bands of strong
(b) Only two wind located at altitudes around
(c) All three 30,000 feet.
(d) None 2. Jet streams primarily move from east
to west across the Earth’s surface.
Q79. Consider the following statements with 3. Jet streams are strongest during the
reference to distribution of minerals summer in both hemispheres.
resources in India: How many of the above statements are
1. Most of the metallic minerals in India correct?
occur in the peninsular plateau region (a) Only one
in the old crystalline rocks. (b) Only two
2. Most of the coal reserves of India (c) All three
occur in the valleys of Narmada. (d) None
3. Petroleum reserves are located in the
sedimentary basins of Assam, Gujarat
and Mumbai High.
How many of the above given statements
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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 | Navigator | Geography FLT
Q82. Why P-waves are faster than S-waves in Q84. Consider the following statements
the Earth’s interior? regarding La Niña and El Niño
(a) P-waves propagate through the phenomena:
medium in a way that allows quicker 1. La Niña is characterized by cooler-
transmission of energy compared to than average sea surface
S-waves. temperatures in the central and
(b) P-waves are compressional waves that eastern Pacific Ocean.
apply force parallel to the wave's 2. El Niño typically leads to weaker
direction, while S-waves are shear m o n s o o n s a n d d r o u g h t- l i k e
waves that apply force perpendicular conditions in India.
to the direction of propagation. 3. La Niña can lead to an increase in
(c) The velocity of S-waves is affected by cyclone activity in the Bay of Bengal.
their inability to travel through liquid, 4. Both La Niña and El Niño are caused by
unlike P-waves, which can travel changes in the Earth's axial tilt and
through all states of matter. revolution around the Sun.
(d) The difference in wave velocities is due Which of the statements given above
to the lack of elasticity in the materials is/are correct?
that S-waves pass through, compared (a) Only one
to those that support P-waves. (b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Q83. Consider the following: Q85. Which of the following statements about
Assertion (A) : Bomb cyclones can cause the Hand-in-Hand (HIH) Initiative is
extreme weather events such as heavy correct?
snowfall, high winds, and coastal flooding. (a) The HIH Initiative was launched in
Reason (R) : Bomb cyclones occur when 2018 to exclusively address urban
the central pressure of a mid-latitude poverty in developed countries.
storm drops by at least 24 millibars within (b) It utilizes advanced geospatial
24 hours, a process called explosive modeling and analytics to identify
cyclogenesis. areas for agricultural transformation
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the and poverty alleviation.
correct explanation of (A). (c) The initiative focuses solely on
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not improving agricultural productivity
the correct explanation of (A). without addressing social inequalities
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. or environmental sustainability.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (d) The HIH Initiative is implemented in
over 100 countries, primarily targeting
high-income nations.

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Q86. With reference to the Central Silk Board Q88. With reference to the Cruise Bharat
(CSB), consider the following statements: Mission (CBM), consider the following
1. T h e b o a r d i s r e s p o n s i b l e f o r statements:
maintaining a four-tier silkworm seed 1. The Cruise Bharat Mission aims to
production network and conducting develop infrastructure for cruise
research and development in tourism, with a focus on both
sericulture. international and domestic cruise
2. The CSB operates under the Ministry routes.
of Textiles. 2. It promotes the construction of
Which of the statements given above dedicated cruise terminals at major
is/are correct? Indian ports to accommodate large
(a) 1 only cruise vessels.
(b) 2 only 3. The mission’s primary goal is to ensure
(c) Both 1 and 2 the reduction of environmental
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 impacts caused by cruise ships
through mandatory carbon offset
programs for cruise operators.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
Q87. With reference to the Humsafar Policy, (d) 1, 2 and 3
consider the following statements:
1. It aims to enhance wayside amenities
along national highways to improve
the travel experience for users. Q89. Consider the following statements
2. The Ministry of Home Affairs is the regarding the Ken-Betwa River Linking
nodal agency for this programme. Project:
3. The policy also includes provisions for 1. The Ken-Betwa project aims to
installing electric vehicle (EV) charging transfer surplus water from the Ken
stations. River to the Betwa River.
How many of the above statements are 2. The project is expected to impact the
correct? Panna Tiger Reserve, which is located
(a) Only one along the Betwa River.
(b) Only two 3. The Ken-Betwa project will primarily
(c) All three benefit the states of Madhya Pradesh
(d) None and Rajasthan.
How many statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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Q90. Which of the following statements is Q92. Consider the following pairs:
correct regarding the Laysan Albatross?
(a) It is a freshwater bird found in rivers of Country Conflict/Event
South America.
(b) It is a land bird that primarily feeds on 1. Sudan Civil war between
seeds and grains. the SAF and the
(c) It is known for its remarkable ability to Rapid Support Forces
travel long distances across oceans
using dynamic soaring. 2. Myanmar Resurgence of
(d) It is listed as "Critically Endangered" by rebel forces
the IUCN due to its declining global leading to the
population. takeover of Aleppo

3. Syria Military coup leading

to widespread
civil resistance
and armed conflict

4. Mozambique Protests and

unrest following
contested
Q91. Consider the following statements presidential elections
regarding the Himalayan Birch Tree:
1. The Himalayan Birch is a deciduous How many pairs given above are correctly
tree found at high altitudes in the matched?
Himalayan region. (a) Only one
2. Its bark was traditionally used as a (b) Only two
writing material in ancient India. (c) Only three
3. The Himalayan Birch is classified as (d) All four
Endangered by the International
Union for Conservation of Nature Q93. Consider the following statements:
(IUCN). Assertion (A): PM POSHAN scheme aims
Which of the above statements is/are to address malnutrition and enhance the
correct? nutritional status of school children by
(a) Only one providing free cooked meals in
(b) Only two government and government-aided
(c) All three schools.
(d) None Reason (R) : Under PM POSHAN, only
children from classes 1 to 8 in rural areas
are eligible for the scheme.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the
correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

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 | Navigator | Geography FLT
Q94. The NAMASTE Scheme aims to Q97. Consider the following statements about
(a) Ensure safety, dignity, and sustainable the H-1B visa:
livelihoods for urban sanitation 1. The H-1B visa is applicable only to
workers. workers in the IT sector.
(b) Ensure safety and dignity for elderly 2. Employers must prove a lack of
citizens across urban areas. available qualified U.S. workers to hire
(c) Address the rehabilitation of child H-1B visa holders.
labourers. 3. H-1B visa holders can work for
(d) Focus on the development and multiple employers without
welfare of the North Eastern Region. restrictions.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
Q95. Consider the following statements about (a) 1 and 2 only
Willingdon Island: (b) 2 only
1. It is a natural island formed by (c) 1 and 3 only
sedimentation in the backwaters of (d) 2 and 3 Only
Kochi.
2. It houses India’s largest naval base and Q98. With reference to Vembanad Lake,
container terminal. consider the following statements:
Which of the above statements is/are 1. It is one of the largest backwater
correct? ecosystem in India.
(a) 1 only 2. The Nehru Trophy Boat Race is held
(b) 2 only annually on its waters.
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. It is separated from the Arabian Sea by
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 the Western Ghats.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
Q96. Consider the following statements (a) 1 only
regarding Norovirus infections: (b) 1 and 2 only
1. Norovirus primarily infects individuals (c) 2 and 3 only
through vector-borne transmission (d) 1, 2 and 3
from animals.
2. High-risk locations for Norovirus Q99. Consider the following statements
outbreaks include isolated rural areas regarding the Parker Solar Probe:
with sparse populations. 1. The Parker Solar Probe is part of
3. Norovirus infections occur exclusively NASA’s Living with a Star program.
in cold climates. 2. The probe was designed to explore
How many of the above statements is/are t h e m a g n e t i c fi e l d s of E a r t h ’s
correct? atmosphere.
(a) Only one Which of the statements given above
(b) Only two is/are correct?
(c) All three (a) 1 only
(d) None (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q100. Consider the following statements
regarding Scorpene class submarines:
Statement-I: Scorpene class submarines
are exclusively nuclear-powered vessels.
Statement-II: They are designed to
accommodate Air Independent
Propulsion (AIP) systems as upgrades.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both the statements are individually
true and Statement II is the correct
explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually
true but Statement II is ‘not the correct
explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement Il is
false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is
true

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 Geography SECTIONAL TEST 1
Q4) Consider the following statements:

Q1) Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Earth is shaped more like a tangerine.

Statement I: The same face of the moon is always Statement II: The Earth spins faster at the Poles.
presented to the earth. Which of the following statements is correct?

Statement II: The moon rotates about its own axis (a) Both the statements are individually true and
in exactly in same time as the Earth rotates on its Statement II is the correct explanation of
axis. Statement I
the earth.
(b) Both the statements are individually true but
Which of the following statements is correct? Statement II is ‘not the correct explanation of
Statement I
(a) Both the statements are individually true and
Statement II is the correct explanation of (c) Statement I is true but Statement Il is false
Statement I
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(b) Both the statements are individually true but
Statement II is ‘not the correct explanation of
Statement I Q5) In order of their distances from the Sun, which of
the following planets lie between Mars and Uranus?
(c) Statement I is true but Statement Il is false
(a) Earth and Jupiter
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (b) Jupiter and Saturn
(c) Saturn and Earth
(d) Saturn and Neptune
Q2) The ‘eye’ of the cyclone has (CDS 2016)
(a) Abnormally high temperature and lowest
Q6) The Earth without rotational movement would
pressure
result into how many of the following conditions?
(b) Abnormally low temperature and pressure
1. no sun-rise and sun-set.
(c) Clear sky and lowest temperature
2. no occurrence of day and night cycle.
(d) Dense cloud cover and low pressure 3. only one season.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q3) Consider the following statements: (a) Only one
(b) Only two
1. Earth rotates along its axis from west to (c) All three
east. (d) None
2. The Earth's axis is an imaginary line with
its orbital plane that produces an angle of
66½°.
3. "The Earth's axis is tilted at an angle of 23.5° Q7) If the Earth's axis were perpendicular to the plane
from the perpendicular to the orbital plane." of its orbit, which one among the following would not
have happened?
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) The North Pole will always lie in dark
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Days and nights would be equal throughout
(b) 2 and 3 only the year
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) No change of seasons will take place
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) The sun will be perpendicular to the Equator
Q8) Consider the following statements: Q11) With reference to Solar radiation, consider the
following statements:
Statement I : In the northern hemisphere the ocean
currents flowing from equator towards the north pole 1. Torrid zone receives maximum insolation
and from pole towards the equator are deflected to whereas Frigid zone receives minimum
their right. insolation.
2. Amount of insolation received on Earth’s
Statement II : This happens due to rotation of the
surface increases with increase in the latitude.
Earth on the axis from west to east.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) Both the statements are individually true and (b) 2 only
Statement II is the correct explanation of (c) Both 1 and 2
Statement I (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Both the statements are individually true but

Statement II is ‘not the correct explanation of
Statement I
Q12) Which one of the following statements is correct
(c) Statement I is true but Statement Il is false with reference to normal lapse rate?
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (a) Temperature is highest at ground level and
decreases with increasing altitude.

Q9) Consider the following statements: (b) Temperature is lowest at ground level and
increases with increasing altitude.
Statement I: The weight of a body decreases with the
increase of latitude on earth. (c) Temperature remains stable with increasing
altitude.
Statement II: The earth is not perfect sphere.
(d) Temperature first increases with increasing altitude
Which of the following statements is correct? and gradually starts decreasing.

(a) Both the statements are individually true and

Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement I
Q13) With reference to atmosphere of the Earth,
(b) Both the statements are individually true but consider the following statements:
Statement II is ‘not the correct explanation of
1. In stratosphere, temperature increases with
Statement I
altitude.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement Il is false
2. In mesosphere, temperature decreases with
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true altitude.

3. Tropopause is an isothermal zone.

Q10) Which one of the following is the pattern of Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
circulation around a low-pressure area in the northern (a) 1 only
hemisphere? (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) Counter-clockwise and away from the centre (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Clockwise and away from the centre

(c) Counter-clockwise and towards the centre

(d) Clockwise and towards the centre

Q14) While watching news, you hear about a place, of Q18) Which of the following statements with regard to
which you had never heard earlier. You want to know the continental shelf is not correct?
more about the place and you want to locate it on the
(a) Shelves are absent to plate boundaries
map.
(b) They are highly sedimented
Which of the following is/are required for you to be
able to locate the place on the map? (c) They have abrupt falls towards the continental
slopes
(a) Latitude of the place alone
(d) They are rich fishing areas
(b) Longitude of the place alone

(c) Both latitude and longitude of the place

Q19) Consider the following statements about the
(d) Neither latitude nor longitude of the place
meridians of longitude on Earth.

1. All the meridians of longitude are of same length.

Q15) The amount of insolation received at a place on
2. Prime Meridian is marked by 0° longitude.
the surface of the earth depends upon:
3. All the meridians are full circles.
(a) its climate
4. Distance between longitudes becomes zero at the
(b) the longitude of the place
poles.
(c) its latitude
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(d) the altitude of the place
(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 2, 3 and 4
Q16) Doldrums are
(c) 2 and 4
1. equatorial calms
(d) 1, 2 3 and 4
2. calm and light winds

3. roaring forties
Q20) How many the following atmospheric factors, if
4. variable both in position and in extent present, will reduce the intensity of insolation
received on Earth?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Cloud cover
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only 2. Winds
(c) 3 and 4 only
3. Dust and water vapour
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. Sea waves

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q17) Which one among the following is the idealized
global pattern of surface wind from the Equator to (a) Only one
Pole?
(b) Only two
(a) Doldrum - Westerlies - Trade Wind – Easterlies
(b) Easterlies - Westerlies - Trade Wind – Doldrum (c) Only three
(c) Doldrum - Trade Wind - Westerlies – Easterlies (d) All four
(d) Westerlies - Trade Wind - Doldrum – Easterlies
Q21) Which among the following statements about Q24) Consider the following statements:
solar insolation and heating of Earth is not correct?
Statement I: Most of the atmospheric and weather
(a) Close to 50% of solar insolation received at phenomenon takes place in the troposphere.
the outer atmosphere is absorbed by the
Statement II: Highest concentration of gases, water
surface of Earth.
vapour and dust is found in the troposphere
(b) Short wave terrestrial radiation is absorbed by
atmospheric gases and heats the atmosphere. Which of the following statements is correct?
(c) The solar output received at the top of the
atmosphere is affected by changing distance (a) Both the statements are individually true and
between the earth and the sun. Statement II is the correct explanation of
(d) The earth receives close to 2 calories per sq. Statement I
cm per minute at the top of its atmosphere.
(b) Both the statements are individually true but
Statement II is ‘not the correct explanation of
Statement I

Q22) The phenomenon of temperature inversion is (c) Statement I is true but Statement Il is false
most pronounced on Earth in which of the following
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
regions?

(a) Mountain valleys

(b) Temperate Oceans Q25) With reference to Thermosphere, consider the
(c) Rural farmlands following statements:
(d) Urban Heat Islands
1. Thermosphere gradually merges with outer space.

2. Charged particles transmitting radiowaves are

Q23) Arrange the following gases in increasing order present in the thermosphere.
of their composition in the atmosphere.
3. The temperature in this layer decreases with
1. Oxygen increase in altitude
2. Argon Which of the following statements about temperature
over the Earth is correct?
3. Carbon dioxide
(a) 1 and 2 only
4. Nitrogen
(b) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the given below. (c) 2 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
(a) 2, 3, 1, 4

(b) 3, 2, 1, 4

(c) 1, 2, 4, 3
26) Which of the following correctly defines
(d) 3, 1, 4, 2 atmospheric pressure?

(a) Difference in density of atmospheric molecules

(b) Weight of atmospheric particles over the surface

(c) Difference in atmospheric temperature over a

region.

(d) Distribution of atmospheric molecules over a

region
Q27) Consider the following statements. Q30) Which of the following statements about wind
movement on the Earth is/are correct?
1. Horse Latitudes are characterised by high pressure
belts. 1. Geostrophic winds blow parallel to the
isobars.
2. High pressure in these regions is formed by the
2. The speed of wind movement is influenced by
subsidence and piling up of air.
friction of the surface.
3. Coriolis force, due to rotation of Earth, blocks the 3. Pressure gradient force is more when isobars
air near sub-tropical latitudes which leads to its are far apart.
subsidence.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statement(s) given above are correct? correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q28) Which of the following is a dynamically formed Q31) Consider the following statements.
pressure belt? 1. Trade winds converge at the Inter Tropical
1. Sub-tropical high pressure belt Convergence Zone to form a high pressure area.

2. Sub polar low pressure belt 3. Convergence of trade winds at the equator causes
heavy rainfall.
3. Equatorial low pressure belt
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
4. Polar high pressure belt
(a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2
Q32. The term “Blue Line” is sometimes mentioned in
(d) 2 and 4 the new in the context of the affairs between the
(a) India and Maldives
(b) China and Taiwan
Q29) Which of the following factors affects wind (c) Israel and Lebanon
movement on the Earth? (d) Russia and Ukraine
1. Coriolis force

2. Surface friction

3. Atmospheric pressure Q33. The ‘Paro Statement’ was in the news recently, is
associated with which of the following?
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Heat waves and glaciers
(a) 1 only
(b) Artificial intelligence
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Environmental degradation
(c) 1 and 3
(d) Conservation of tigers and their landscapes
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q34. Consider the following statements about Q37. Consider the following statements with
International Seabed Authority: reference to Water (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Amendment Act, 2024:
1. It is an autonomous international organization
established to enforce United Nations Convention on 1. The amendment act strengthened the existing
the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) Water Act, 1974 by providing for imprisonment
provisions.
2. It is responsible for granting licenses related to the
exploration of mineral resources in the international 2. Central and State Pollution Control Boards have
seabed. been constituted under the Water (Prevention and
Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
3. Its primary mandate is to regulate all mineral-
resource-related activities in the seabed and ocean Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
floor beyond the limits of national jurisdiction.
(a) 1 only
Which of the above given statement/s are correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q38. Consider the following statement with reference

Q35. Which of the following statement(s) is associated to ‘Friends of Special Products in Agriculture’:
with the term Afar Triangle recently seen in news?
1. It is a coalition of developing and leastdeveloped
(a) A fault in the Great Rift Valley in the Horn of Africa countries

(b) The western part of the North Atlantic Ocean 2. Both India and China are members of the grouping
where many ships and planes have vanished
3. USA chaired the latest meeting of the grouping to
(c) The region in south-east Asia that provides ideal negotiate agriculture related exemptions from WTO
conditions for opium cultivation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) The region beyond the Kuiper Belt where two giant
(a) 1 and 2 only
black holes are merging.
(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Q36. With reference to ‘Dark Oxygen’ which of the
following statement is correct:

(a) It is oxygen recently detected by NASA in the outer

space

(b) It is generated by metallic nodules present on the

seafloor

(c) These are oxygen molecules which tends to oxidise

most of the metals in nature.

(d) Recently a study found the presence of Dark

Oxygen in Black Hole.
Q39. Consider the following statements with
reference to classical language:
Q41. Consider the following statements about Araku
1. High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history Coffee:
over a period of 1500-2000 years.
1. Araku Coffee is grown primarily in the Western
2. A literature must be considered a valuable heritage Ghats region
by generations of speakers.
2. Araku Coffee received a Geographical Indication (GI)
3. The literary tradition be original and not borrowed. Tag for its unique qualities.

4. The literature must be distinct from modern. 3. It is grown using organic farming methods by tribal
farmers
Which of the above are criteria for a language to be
considered as classical language? How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) Only one

(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Only two

(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Only three

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) None

Q40. Consider the following information: Q42. Kharchi Puja is an annual festival known as the
"Festival of 14 Gods," dedicated to Chaturdasa Devata,
Pass : Location: Feature
the ancestral deities. The festival involves unique
1. Zoji La: Jammu & Kashmir: Connects Kashmir and rituals, including the ceremonial bathing of 14 gods in
Ladakh. the Saidra River by the royal priests and the
construction of a Chaturdasha Mandapa, representing
2. Umling La: Ladakh: Highest motorable road in the a royal palace. The deities are then returned to the
world temple after the cleansing ritual, accompanied by
3. Diphu: Sikkim: Tripoint junction of India, Bhutan and prayers for prosperity and well-being.
China In which Indian state is Kharchi Puja celebrated?
In how many of the above rows is the given (a) Assam
information correctly matched?
(b) Meghalaya
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (c) Tripura
(c) All three
(d) Manipur
(d) None
Q43. Consider the following countries: Q46. Consider the following statements regarding
Ways and Means Advance (WMA) :
1. India
1. It is available for both central and state
2. Pakistan
governments.
3. Iran
2. It is used to fund government fiscal deficit.
4. Bangladesh
3. Interest rate for WMA is currently charged at the
5. Russia Repo Rate.

Which of the above countries are members of the How many of the above statements is/are
Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)? INCORRECT?

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only (a) Only one

(b) 1, 3, 4, and 5 only (b) Only two
(c) 1, 2, and 5 only (c) All three
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 5 only (d) None

Q44. Bridge Recombinase Mechanism (BRM), recently Q47) If you are traveling westward across the
seen in the news, refers to which of the following? International Date Line, how does your calendar date
change?
(a) A new technique for improving solar panel
efficiency. (a) It moves one day ahead.

(b) A genetic mechanism that uses jumping genes to (b) It moves one day behind
modify DNA.
(c) It remains the same.
(c) A method for creating supercomputers with
(d) It skips two days.
biological components.

(d) A process for capturing CO2 emissions from

industrial sources. Q48) Consider the following statements with
reference to differences between tropical cyclones &
temperate cyclones:
Q45. Consider the following :
1. Unlike temperate cyclones, the tropical cyclone has
1. Unified Public Interface a clear frontal system.

2. DigiLocker 2. Unlike temperate cyclones, the tropical cyclone

can originate over both land and sea.
3. Aadhar
3. In the northern hemisphere the temperate cyclone
4. FASTag generally moves from west to east,
5. Facebook & WhatsApp but tropical cyclones move from east to west.
6. UMANG How many of the statements given above are correct?
7. ONDC (Open Network for Digital commerce) a) Only one
Which of the above is/are a part of India’s Digital b) Only two
Public Infrastructure?
c) All three
(a) 1, 2, 4, and 7
d) None
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 7

(c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

(d) 1, 2, 4, 6 and 7
Q49) In the context of the Heat budget of the Earth, Which of the statements given above is/are not
consider the following statements: correct?

1. The earth in general maintains a constant (a) 1 only

temperature despite the huge transfer of
(b) 1 and 3 only
heat from the Sun.
(c) 2 and 3 only
2. The solar insolation received on Earth’s surface is
(d) 1, 2 and 3
equal on all the parts of the
Solution: C
Earth.

3. The highest amount of albedo of the incoming

solar insolation occurs from the Q52) Consider the following statements:
snow and ice-covered areas. 1. During equinoxes, all parts of the world have equal
days and nights.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
2. Equinoxes occur during the months of June and
a) Only one
December every year.
b) Only two
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
c) All three
(a) 1 only
d) None
(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

Q50) Consider the following statements regarding the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Aphelion position of the Earth:

1. It occurs when the Earth is at its greatest distance

from the Sun.

2. It occurs during the month of July. Q53) Consider the following statements with
reference to the Solar system:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. All the planets of the solar system were formed
(a) 1 only
roughly at the same period.
(b) 2 only
2. All the planets of solar system have solid surfaces.
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. All the planets of the Solar system have their own
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 natural satellites.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

a) Only one

Q51) Consider the following statements: b) Only two

1. The sun is vertically overhead at the equator only c) All three

on two days each year.
d) None
2. The longest day in the northern and southern
hemispheres falls on the 22nd of December and 21st
of June in summer solstices respectively.

3. The Arctic and Antarctic circles mark the limits of

the overhead sun.
Q54) Consider the following statements: (c) Only three

1. The small pieces of rocks which move around the (d) All four
sun are called meteoroids.

2. Asteroid belts are found between orbits of Earth

Q57) Consider the following statements regarding
and Jupiter.
Greenwich Meridian Time (GMT)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Places west of Greenwich see the sun earlier
(a) 1 only and gain time

(b) 2 only 2. Places east of Greenwich see the sun later and
lose time
(c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

Q55) Consider the following statements:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Clear sky, calm air, high relative humidity, and cold
and long nights are

ideal conditions for formation of Dew. Q58) Consider the following statements regarding
Indian Standard Time (1ST)
2. For the formation of dew, it is necessary that the
dew point is below the freezing point. 1. Standard Meridian of India (82°30'E) passing
through Mirzapur (in Uttar Pradesh) is taken
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
as the standard time for the whole country.
(a) 1 only 2. It passes through Madhya Pradesh and Udisha

(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q56) Consider the following statements regarding the Q59) Consider the following statements regarding
trade winds: International Date Line

1. These are westerly winds. 1. It passes through the mid-Pacific Ocean and
roughly follows a 180 degree meridian.
2. They are humid and warmer in the areas of their 2. It follows zig-zag pattern to avoid the
origin. confusion of having different dates in the
3. Strong trade winds are associated with heavy same country.
precipitation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
4. The Southeast Asian monsoon, is a seasonal, (a) 1 only
moisture-laden trade wind.
(b) 2 only
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Only one
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only two
 Q62) Which of the following factors affect the

Q60) Consider the following statements regarding temperature of a place?

Rotation and Revolution
1. Latitude
1. If the Earth did not rotate, one half of the
2. Altitude
barth would always be hot and bright.
2. Life would not have been possible in such 3. Continentality
extreme conditions.
3. The earth is going around the sun in an 4. Ocean currents
elliptical orbit. 5. Slope
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 and 2 only given below.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3, 4 and 5 only

(c) 1, 2 and 5 only

Q61) onsider the following statements regarding (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
forces affecting the movement of wind:

1. In the movement of wind the Coriolis force acts

parallel to the direction of the pressure gradient force.

2. When there is no friction and the pressure gradient Q63) Consider the following paragraph:
force is balanced by the Coriolis force, the resultant
“When an air parcel remains over a homogenous area
wind is
for a sufficiently longer
known as the geostrophic wind.
time, it acquires the characteristics of the area. The
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? homogenous area can be the vast

(a) 1 only ocean surface or vast plains. This air parcel has
distinctive characteristics in
(b) 2 only
terms of temperature and humidity. It is defined as a
(c) Both 1 and 2 large body of air having little horizontal
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 variation in temperature and moisture. The
homogenous surfaces, over which it is formed,

are called the source regions”.

About which phenomenon the above paragraph is

talking about?

a) Trade Winds

b) Jet Streams

c) Sea Breeze

d) Air Masses
Q64) Consider the following states: tropic of cancer passes, which state capital is

1. West Bengal located to the north of the tropic of cancer?

2. Gujarat a) Rajasthan

3. Madhya Pradesh b) Jharkhand

4. Manipur c) West Bengal

5. Nagaland d) Gujarat

6. Tripura

The Tropic of Cancer passes through how Q68) Arrange the following Indian cities from

many of the above-mentioned states? north to south:

a) Only three 1. Chennai

b) Only four 2. Bengaluru

c) Only five 3. Bhopal

d) All six 4. Jaipur

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q65) Dzukou Valley is located between which of the (a) 3-2-4-1

following states?
(b) 3-4-2-1
(a)Assam and Arunachal Pradesh
(c) 4-3-2-1
(b) Nagaland and Manipur
(d) 4-3-1-2
(c) Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand

(d) Mizoram and Nagaland

Q69) The atmosphere is mainly heated by

Q66) Consider the following statements
(a) Reflections from ice-caps
about Ladakh:
(b) Long wave Terrestrial radiation
1. Ladakh extends from the Siachen Glacier in the
(c) Scattered radiation
Karakoram Range to the north and main Great
(d) All of the above
Himalayas to the south.

2. The Leh district contains the Indus, Shyok and

Nubra river valleys.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q67) Amongst the states through which the Q70) Consider the following statements :
1. Isobars are relatively more parallel to latitudes Q72) Consider the following statements regarding
Water Vapour:
in the Northern hemisphere than the southern
1. Its concentration is higher in warm and wet
hemisphere.
tropics in comparison of the dry and cold areas of
2. Atmospheric pressure generally increases with desert and Polar Regions.

increase in altitude. 2. It absorbs parts of the incoming solar radiation

3. Atmospheric pressure is measured through 3. it acts like a blanket allowing the earth neither
to become too cold nor too hot.
Barometer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Only one
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Only two
(c) 1 and 2 only
(c) All three
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

73) Consider the following statements regarding

Q71) Consider the following statements : Albedo
1. The insolation received by the Earth is in long 1. It is the amount of insolation reflected by the
wave radiation. body.

2. Maximum insolation is received over the equator. 2. It is defined as the ratio of the reflected
radiation to the total intercepted radiation.
3. If the Earth was flat the surface facing the sun
would receive the same amount of Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

incoming solar radiation. (a) 1 only

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (b) 2 only

(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2

(b) 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 74) Consider the following statements regarding

Vertical Variation of Pressure

1. The pressure decreases rapidly with height in

the lower atmosphere.

2. The vertical pressure gradient force is much

larger than that of the horizontal pressure gradient.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

75) They can form on both land as well as seas due to explanation for Statement 1.
the action of Coriolis force and movement of air
c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.
masses.
d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.
They are asymmetrical and shaped like an inverted ‘V’.
They occur mostly in winter, late autumn and spring.
They exist for about 3-10 days moving in a west to
east direction. They are very important as they bring
rain to 78) In terms of percentage, arrange the share of the
North West India. following sources of freshwater in

Which of the following cyclones is described in the increasing order.

passage given above? 1. Ice Caps and Glaciers
(a) Tropical Cyclone 2. Lakes
(b) Temperate Cyclone 3. Atmosphere
(c) Polar Cyclone 4. Streams and rivers
(d) None of the above Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 3-4-2-1

(b) 4-3-2-1
76) The Ozonosphere is found at which of following (c) 2-4-3-1
zone in the Atmosphere?
(d) 4-3-1-2
(a) At the top portion of the Thermosphere

(b) At the lower portion of the troposphere

(c) At the top portion of the Stratosphere

79) Consider the following statements regarding the
(d) At the lower portion of the Stratosphere Himalayan Range:

1. The part of the Himalayas lying between river Indus

and Satluj are known as

77) Consider the following statements regarding the Punjab Himalaya.

longitudinal and latitudinal extent of India: 2. The part of the Himalayas lying between the Satluj
Statement 1: The longitudinal and latitudinal extent of and Kali rivers is known as
India is roughly the same. Kumaon Himalayas.
Statement 2: The distance between two latitudes and 3. The part of the Himalayas lying between the Tista
two longitudes is standard and and Dihang rivers is known as Assam Himalayas.
remains the same everywhere. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Which one of the following is correct with respect to (a) 1 and 2 only
the above statements?
(b) 2 and 3 only
a) Both the Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
and Statement 2 is the correct (c) 1 and 3 only

explanation for statement 1. (d) 1, 2 and 3

b) Both statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but

Statement 2 is not the correct
80) With reference to the Northern plains, consider 83) Between which of the given regions is the Duncan
the following statements: Passage situated?

1. The gently-sloping coarse alluvial zone at the a) South Andaman and Little Andaman
foothills of Shivalik where streams disappear
b) Suheli and Minicoy islands
sediments is known as Bhabar.
c) Little Nicobar and Great Nicobar
2. The older alluvium with a higher sandy loam
component is known as Khadar. d) Minicoy and Addu Atoll
3. The newer, younger deposits of the floodplains are
called Bhangar.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

84) With reference to the salinity in water bodies,
(a) 1 only consider the following statements:
(b) 1 and 2 only 1. Equatorial waters are highly saline due
(c) 2 and 3 only to high temperatures at the equator.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Lake Van, one of the most saline water

bodies, is located in Turkey.

81) Which of the following is the correct sequence of Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
mountains from South to North?
(a) 1 only
(a) Shiwalik , Pir Panjal , Ladakh Range, Zaskar Range
(b) 2 only
(b) Pir Panjal , Shiwalik , Zaskar Range, Ladakh Range
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Pir Panjal, Shiwalik , Ladakh Range, Zaskar Range
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Shiwalik, Pir Panjal, Zaskar Range, Ladakh Range
85) With reference to ocean currents, consider the
following statements:
82) With reference to the Great Indian Desert, which 1. Labrador current is a cold ocean current flowing
of the following statements is/are correct? from the Arctic Ocean south along the east coast of
Canada.
1. The underlying rock structure of this desert is
an extension of the Peninsular Plateau. 2. Kuroshio Current north-flowing warm current off
the coast of Japan in the
2. The characteristic feature of the desert includes
a complete absence of mushroom rocks and oases. Pacific Ocean.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
3. The Gulf Stream is a warm current that flows from
(a) 1 only the Gulf of Mexico to the Atlantic coast of Europe.
(b) 2 only 4. Agulhas Current is a warm current found along the
east coast of Africa.
(c) Both 1 and 2
How many of the statements given above is/are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

86) With reference to tides, consider the following 88) In the context of the oceanic distribution of
statements: temperature, consider the statements regarding
Thermocline: following
1. Together gravitational pull and the centrifugal forces
are responsible for creating the two major tidal bulges 1. It is the rapid increase in temperature with an
on increase in depth.

the Earth. 2. It is about 5 kilometers in thickness.

2. Normally, there is a fifteen-day interval between the Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
spring tides and neap tides.
(a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

89) Which of the following is/are cold ocean currents?

87) Consider the following statements:
1. Benguela current
Statement-I: The Norwegian coast at latitudes 60° to
2. Humboldt current
70°N is ice-free throughout
3. Kuroshio current
the year.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Statement-II: The North Atlantic Drift is a warm
current. (a) 1 only
Which one of the following is correct in (b) 1 and 2 only
respect of the above statements? (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and (d) 1, 2 and 3
Statement-II is the correct

explanation for Statement-I

90) The term ‘Ocean Trenches’ is often seen in the
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are news. In this context, consider the
correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation following statements:
for Statement-I
1. They are generally formed along the Divergent plate
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect boundaries.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct 2. Mariana trench is the only example of Oceanic
trench formed due to convergence

of two oceanic plates.

3. They are often associated with volcanic island arcs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

a) Only one

b) Only two

c) All three
d) None Q93) Which among the following sequence is correct
with reference to Ocean floor configuration from land
to sea ?
Q91) Consider the following
(a) Continental shelf, continental slope, continental
1. Heating by Solar Energy. rise, abyssal plain

2. Coriolis effect. (b) Continental shelf, continental rise, continental

slope, abyssal plain
3. Movement of Wind.
(c) Continental slope, Continental shelf, Continental
4. The Force of gravity. rise, abyssal plain
How many of the above options are the factors (d) Continental slope, Continental rise, continental
affecting movements of ocean current? shelf, abyssal plain

a) Only one

b) Only two

c) Only three Q94) The distinct zone in the ocean where salinity
increases sharply is called:
d) All four
(a) Halocline

(b) Thermocline

(c) Isocline
Q92) With reference to the features of Ocean floor,
consider the following statements: (d) Anticline

1. As one moves away from Mid-Oceanic Ridges, the

age of the rocks progressively
Q95) The State of Sikkim is surrounded by
increases.
(a) China, Nepal, Bhutan, and West Bengal
2. Mid-Oceanic Ridges forms at convergent plate (b) Bhutan, Nepal, West Bengal, and Assam
boundaries due to subduction of one (c) China, Nepal, West Bengal, and Assam
oceanic plate under the another. (d) China, Bhutan, West Bengal, and Assam
3. The Oceanic Crustal rocks are usually younger than
the Continental rocks.

How many of the above given statements are correct?

Q96) Which of the following peaks is located
a) Only one in Nicobar Islands?
b) Only two
(a) Saddle Peak
c) All three
(b) Mount Thuiller
d) None
(c) Mount Diavolo

(d) Kangto Peak

Q97) Arrange the following Geographical Q100) Which among following channel/s separates
features from North to south: India from her maritime neighbours?

1. Grand Channel
1. Lushai Hills
2. Coco Channel
2. Patkai Range 3. Nine Degree Channel
3. Mishmi Hills
4. Barail Range Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 and 2 only
given below: (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1-2-3-4

(b) 3-2-4-1

(c) 3-2-1-4

(d) 2-3-1-4

Q98) In the physiography of India, Dun’s are

(a) Longitudinal valleys between Greater

Himalayas and Lesser Himalayas
(b) Latitudinal valleys between Shiwalik’ s and
Tarai region
(c) Longitudinal valleys that form between the
Shivalik hills and the lesser Himalayas
(d) Hanging valleys between Greater
Himalayas and Zanskar range

Q99) With reference to Union Territory of Ladakh,

consider the following statements:

1. It is a unidistrict Union Territory.

2. More than 90% of tribal communities in Ladak
is declared as PVTGs.
3. The Changpa community in Ladakh is known
for rearing the Pashmina goats.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None
 | Navigator | Geography Sectional Test - II

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TEST BOOKLET
GEOGRAPHY
SECTIONAL TEST - II

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

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(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
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5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
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 | Navigator | Geography Sectional Test - II
Q1. With reference to the Indian Monsoon, Q4. Consider the following States:
consider the following statements: 1. Tamil Nadu
1. During summer the monsoon winds 2. Assam
blow as a sea breeze causing heavy 3. Himachal Pradesh
rainfall over a large part of India. In how many of the above-mentioned
2. The Monsoon winds cause relief states do “Shola forests” occur?
rainfall in India owing to the presence (a) Only one
of Western Ghats, Himalayas and (b) Only two
Poorvanchal mountains. (c) Only three
Which of the statements given above (d) None
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q2. Which of the following is a characteristic of Q5. Which one of the following forest types of
retreating monsoon season in India? India cover the largest area?
(a) Sudden withdrawal of monsoon from (a) Monsoon Forests
the sub-continent (b) Semi Evergreen Forests
(b) A signicant decline in temperature (c) Littoral and Swamp Forests
(c) Occurrence of severe tropical cyclones (d) Tropical Thorn forests
(d) Shifting of ITCZ over northern plains

Q3. With reference to the Indian monsoons,

consider the following statements:
Statement I: There is an increase in
rainfall generally from east to west in the
Northern Plains of India during the Q6. Consider the following pairs:
Southwest Monsoon.
Statement II: The Arabian Sea branch of Grasslands Region
the S outhwes t Mons oon i s m uch
powerful than the Bay of Bengal branch. 1. Banni Rann of Kutch
Which of the following statements is
correct? 2. Phumdis Chilka Lake
(a) Both the statements are individually
true and Statement II is the correct 3. Bhugyals Purvanchal Hills
explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually How many pairs given above are correctly
true but Statement II is ‘not the correct matched?
explanation of Statement I (a) Only one
(c) Statement I is true but Statement Il is (b) Only two
false (c) Only three
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is (d) None
true

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 | Navigator | Geography Sectional Test - II
Q7. Which of the following statements is/are Q10. Which one of the following regions in
correct about the Moist Deciduous India have the combination of Mangrove
forests? Forests, Evergreen forests and Deciduous
1. These are found in the north-eastern forests?
states, along the foothills of the (a) Andhra Pradesh
Himalayas. (b) Odisha Option
2. They are more pronounced in regions (c) Arunachal Pradesh
that receive annual rainfall less than (d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
100 cm.
3. Teak, Sal and Shisham are the main
species of these forests.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: Q11. With reference to Irrigation is India,
(a) 1 only consider the following statements:
(b) 1 and 3 only 1. Canal systems are the most prominent
(c) 2 and 3 only source of irrigation in India.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Nearly half of India’s cultivated land
has access to assured irrigation.
Q8. Which one of the following is the correct Which of the statements given above
order of succession of natural vegetation is/are correct?
one can find in the Himalayan region with (a) 1 only
an increase in altitude? (b) 2 only
(a) Oaks and Chestnut - Coniferous trees - (c) Both 1 and 2
Pines and Birches - Mosses and (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Lichens
(b) Shrubs and Scrubs - Pines and Birches
- Coniferous trees - Mosses and
Lichens
(c) Oaks and Chestnut - Mosses and Q12. Consider the following statements:
Lichens - Silver and Junipers - Shrubs 1. The total area sown more than once in
and Scrubs an agricultural year is called as Gross
(d) Shrubs and Scrubs- Mosses and Cropped Area.
Lichens - Coniferous trees - Oaks and 2. The ratio of gross cropped area to the
Chestnut net sown area is typically referred to as
the cropping intensity.
Q9. Which one among the following pairs of 3. There has been a consistent decline in
tree variety and its forest types is not the Net Sown area in India since last
correctly matched? five decades.
(a) Chilauni - Montane Wet Temperate How many statements given above are
Forests not correct?
(b) Khair - Tropical Thorn Forests (a) Only one
(c) Rhododendrons - Moist Deciduous (b) Only two
Forests Option (c) All three
(d) Axlewood - Dry Deciduous Forests (d) None

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Q13. Consider the following statements: Q15. Consider the following statements about
1. India is the largest producer of Millets cotton cultivation in India:
in the World. Statement I: The cotton Cultivation in
2. Pearl Millet leads the production India is confined to Peninsular region in
among the primary millets produced India.
in India. Statement II: Cotton thrives well in Regur
3. The production of Sorghum is mainly soil having good moisture holding
c o n c e n t r a t e d i n t h e s t a t e s of capacity.
Maharashtra, Karnataka, Madhya Which of the following statements is
Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh. correct?
How many statements given above are (a) Both the statements are individually
correct? true and Statement II is the correct
(a) Only one explanation of Statement I
(b) Only two (b) Both the statements are individually
(c) All three true but Statement II is ‘not the correct
(d) None explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement Il is
false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is
true

Q16. Consider the following statements:

1. Red soils are the result of intense
Q14. Consider the following statements: leaching due to tropical rains.
1. India has the maximum area under 2. Laterite soils are rich in organic matter,
wheat cultivation in the world. nitrogen, phosphate, and calcium.
2. India is the largest rice producer in the 3. The sand content of alluvial soils
world, with more than 11% of the increases from the west to east in
global production share. Gangetic plains.
3. Rice occupies one-fourth of the total Which of the statements given above are
cropped area of the country. not correct?
Which of the statements given above (a) 1 and 2 only
is/are correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q17. In India, Reh, Usar and Chopan are the
local names of which of the following
soils?
(a) Peaty and Marshy Soils
(b) Saline and Alkaline Soils
(c) Arid and Desert Soils
(d) Forest and Mountain Soils

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Q18. When you travel in certain parts of India, Q21. With reference to the Western Ghats,
you will notice red soil. What is the main consider the following statements:
reason for this colour? 1. The Western Ghats are formed as
(a) Abundance of magnesium block mountains due to the down
(b) Accumulated humus warping of part of the land into the
(c) Presence of ferric oxides Arabian Sea.
(d) Abundance of phosphates 2. Due to the highest level of seismicity,
the Western Ghats and the Andaman
& Nicobar Islands come under Zone I
of the seismic zoning map of India.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
Q19. Consider the following statements (b) 2 onlly
regarding Amarkantak plateau: (c) Both 1 and 2
1. It has a radial drainage pattern. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. It is the source of river Chambal.
3. It is the meeting point of the Vindhya
and the Satpura ranges.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Q22. If one starts moving from Kanyakumari
to Kolkata along the Eastern Ghats, which
of the following mountains she/he
witness from south to north?
1. Javadi Hills
2. Shevaroy Hills
3. Nallamala Hills
4. Garhjat Hills
Q20. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code
1. India shares its longest border with given below:
Bangladesh. (a) 2-1-3-4
2. Sir Creek is a disputed boundary (b) 1-2-3-4
between India and China. (c) 1-2-4-3
Which of the above statements is/are (d) 2-1-4-3
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 onlly
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q23. Consider the following statements: Q26. Consider the following Plateaus:
1. Anaimudi is the highest peak of the 1. Hazaribagh
Peninsular Plateau. 2. Palamu plateau
2. Barchans are the evergreen pastures 3. Coimbatore
located on the mountain peaks in the 4. Malwa
Western Ghats. How many of the above are examples of
3. Barren Island, the only active volcano Patland Plateaus?
in India is situated in the Minicoy (a) Only one
Islands. (b) Only two
How many of the statements given above (c) Only three
are correct? (d) All four
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None Q27. Tors are unique physiographic features
found in Peninsular India. They are formed
Q24. Consider the following statements: due to
1. Aravallis are fold mountains. (a) Weathering of Rocks
2. The Dal Lake is situated between the (b) Wind Erosion
Great Himalayas and the Pir Panjal (c) Glacial Deposits
range. (d) Faulting of Plates
3. The western coastal plains are an
example of an emergent coast.
How many of the statements given above
is/are not correct? Q28. Consider the following pairs:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Mountain Type Location
(c) All three Ranges
(d) None
1. Vosges Block South
Q25. Consider the following statements: mountain Mountain America
1. The Eastern Ghats are broken and
uneven whereas the Western Ghats 2. Satpura Block Peninsular
form a continuous ridge. Range Mountain India
2. The Eastern coastal plains are
narrower as compared to the Western 3. Atlas Fold Northwest
coastal plains. Mountains Mountain Africa
3. The river Mahanadi drains into the Bay
of Bengal. How many pairs given above are correctly
Which of the statements given above are matched?
correct? (a) Only one
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Only two
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) All three
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) None
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q29. Narrow water area attached with a main Q32. Arrange the following hills/ranges in the
land in the form of channels, known as north to south direction:
“Kayals” are found in which one of the 1. The Ajanta range
following states of India? 2. The Satpura range
(a) West Bengal 3. The Balaghat range
(b) Maharashtra 4. The Abu hills
(c) Kerala Select the correct answer using the code
(d) Tamil Nadu given below:
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 2-3-4-1
(c) 3-1-2-4
(d) 4-2-1-3

Q30. Consider the following statements

regarding the Indian Desert:
1. Marusthali is a desert with shifting Q33. Which of the following statements is/are
sand-dunes. correct?
2. The Bagar is the grassland region lying 1. The Eastern Ghats join the Western
east of Marusthali. Ghats at the Nallamalai Hills.
3. Rohi is the fertile flood plain of small 2. River Damodar flows through the
streams. Chhotanagpur Plateau.
Which of the statements given above are 3. The Shevaroy Hills are located in
correct? Andhra Pradesh.
(a) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 1 and 3 only given below:
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q31. Consider the following passes: Q34. Which of the following statements are
1. Nathu La correct about the formation of universe?
2. Jelep La 1. Before the Big Bang, the universe was
3. Zoji La concentrated in a singular atom.
Which of the above passes are located in 2. The singular atom exploded violently
the state of Sikkim? which led to its rapid expansion.
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. The present rate of expansion of
(b) 2 and 3 only universe is more than its initial
(c) 1 and 3 only expansion.
(d) 1, 2, and 3 Select the correct code
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q35. Consider the following statements about Q38. Consider the following statements:
terrestrial planets Statement I : All the places on Earth will
1. The terrestrial planets were formed in have equal length of days and nights on
the close vicinity of the parent star 23rd September.
where it was too cold for gases to Statement II: The rays of the Sun fall
condense to solid particles. directly on the Equator during Equinox.
2. The terrestrial planets are larger and Which of the following statements is
their lower gravity could not hold the correct?
escaping gases. (a) Both the statements are individually
Which of the statement(s) given above true and Statement II is the correct
is/are incorrect? explanation of Statement I
(a) 1 only (b) Both the statements are individually
(b) 2 only true but Statement II is ‘not the correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 explanation of Statement I
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Statement I is true but Statement Il is
false
Q36. The major components of the present (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is
atmosphere of Earth have been released true
from, which of the following sources?
(a) The Sun in Solar System
(b) A large mass of rock revolving around
the Earth
(c) Interior of the Earth
(d) Volcanic eruptions Q39. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The continental crust of
Q37. Consider the following statements about Earth is less denser and more thicker than
the revolution of Earth and it associated the oceanic crust.
effects. Statement II : The continental crust is
1. When the Northern Hemisphere is made up of basaltic rocks.
tilted towards the Sun, days are longer Which of the following statements is
and nights are shorter in Northern correct?
Hemisphere. (a) Both the statements are individually
2. When the Southern Hemisphere is true and Statement II is the correct
tilted towards the Sun, the North Pole explanation of Statement I
has 24 hours day. (b) Both the statements are individually
3. When the Southern Hemisphere is true but Statement II is ‘not the correct
tilted towards the Sun, the area explanation of Statement I
Antarctic Circle experiences more day (c) Statement I is true but Statement Il is
light for more than 12 hours. false
Which of the statements given above (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is
is/are correct? true
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3

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Q40. Which of the following statements is Q43. Consider the following options.
correct about the lithosphere? 1. Electromagnetic radiation
1. It consists of crust and upper mantle. 2. Geothermal energy
2. It is in melted state. 3. Gravitational force
3. It is floating over the asthenosphere. 4. Plate movements
4. Its thickness is over 100 km 5. Rotation of the Earth
Select the correct answer using the code 6. Revolution of the Earth
given below. Which of the options given above are
(a) 1, 2 and 4 responsible for bringing dynamic changes
(b) 2, 3 and 4 on the surface of the Earth?
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 4, 5 and 6
(c) 1, 3, 5 and 6
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Q41. With reference to Earthquake waves,
consider the following statements:
1. The seismographs located beyond
145° from epicentre, recorded the Q44. Which of the following statements
arrival of only P-waves. correctly describes the state of oceanic
2. A zone between 105° and 145° from floor after Sea Floor Spreading?
epicentre is identified as the shadow (a) Formation of oceanic crust over one
zone for both the types of waves. region leads to shrinking of oceanic
3. The shadow zone of P waves is larger crust in other region.
than that of S waves. (b) O c e a n i c c r u s t i s c o n t i n u o u s l y
Which of the statements given above consumed at the oceanic trenches.
is/are correct? (c) Formation of new oceanic crust leads
(a) 1 only to formation of new oceans.
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) All of the above
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q45. How many of the following are not

Q42. Which of the following statements is related to the formation or modification
correct about the endogenic movements of the present atmosphere?
of Earth 1. Solar winds
(a) These forces are produced only by 2. Degassing
movement of lithospheric plates. 3. Differentiation
(b) Tectonic and volcanic activities are a 4. Photosynthesis
form of endogenic movements. Select the correct answer using the code
(c) Weathering and erosion of Earth’s given below.
surface is caused by Endogenic (a) Only one
movements. (b) Only two
(d) The energy required for endogenic (c) All three
movements is generated on the (d) None
Earth’s surface.

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Q46. Consider the following statements: Q48. With reference to the weathering
1. Mechanical weathering in arid and process, consider the following
semi-arid areas wears back the statements:
mountain slopes and leave gently 1. Exfoliation is a form of chemical
sloping pediments. weathering in which curved plates of
2. Drumlins are extensive plains formed rock are stripped from rock below.
by the very thin soil particles brought 2. Exfoliation domes are best developed
by the wind in the outskirts of the in granitic rock.
desert region. 3. Chemical weathering transforms the
3. Playa lakes are temporar y lakes original material into a substance with
created by the ephemeral streams in a different composition.
the basins and enclosed by the hills in 4. The rate of mechanical weathering is
desert regions. accelerated by the presence of warm
How many of the above statements are temperatures and moisture.
correct? How many statements given above are
(a) Only one correct?
(b) Only two (a) Only one
(c) All three (b) Only two
(d) None (c) Only three
(d) All four

Q47. How many of the following are not Q49. Consider the following statements:
included in erosional landforms? 1. Bharner and Kaimur hills forms the
1. Cirques eastern part of the Satpura range.
2. Glacial valleys 2. Dhupgarh on Mahadev Hills is the
3. Moraines highest peak of the Eastern Ghats.
4. Horns 3. Araku Valley is located in Karanataka
Select the correct answer using the code Plateu.
given below. How many statements given above are
(a) Only one correct?
(b) Only two (a) Only one
(c) Only three (b) Only two
(d) All four (c) All three
(d) None

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Q50. Consider the following statements: Q52. Consider the following tributaries of
Statement I: The Nilgiri hills in the River Ganga:
Western Ghats witness debris avalanches 1. Yamuna
and landslides. 2. Ghaghara
Statement II: The Nilgiri hills are 3. Kosi
subjected to Mechanical weathering. 4. Gomti
Statement III: The Nilgiris are made up of Arrange the above tributaries of River
hard rocks. Ganga from West to East as per the
Which one of the following is correct in location of their confluence with River
respect of the above statements? Ganga?
(a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III (a) 4-1-2-3
are correct and both of them explain (b) 1-4-2-3
Statement-I (c) 1-3-2-4
(b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III (d) 4-1-3-2
are correct, but only one of them
explains Statement-I Q53. This river originates near Gurla Mandhata
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is peak, south of Manasarovar in Tibet. It is
correct and that explains Statement-I also known as the Karnaili in Western
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement-Ill Nepal. It's important tributary is river
is correct Sarda. It is one of the left bank tributaries
of Ganga.’
Which of the rivers is discussed in the
above paragraph?
Q51. Consider the following pairs: (a) Ramganga
(b) Kosi
Minor Plate Located between/in (c) Ghagara
(d) Mahannda
1. Cocos Plate Central America
and Pacific plate Q54. In the context of S waves (Shear waves or
Secondary waves), consider the following
2. Scotia Plate Philippine and statements:
Indian plate 1. They travel parallel to the direction of
wave propagation, pushing and
3. Nazca Plate North American pulling rocks in the same direction.
and Pacific plate 2. S waves travel faster than P waves
(Primary waves).
How many pairs given above are correctly 3. The presence of their shadow zone
matched? reveals the existence of a liquid layer
(a) Only one within the Earth interior.
(b) Only two How many of the above statements are
(c) All three true about characteristics of S wave?
(d) None (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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Q55. In the context of landform development Q58. With reference to plate tectonics
due to water action, which of the consider the following statements :
landforms are formed due to erosional 1. Divergent boundaries are destructive
action of water? in nature.
1. Valleys 2. C o n v e r g e n t b o u n d a r i e s a r e
2. Plungepools constructive in nature.
3. Pointbars 3. Transform boundaries are neither
4. Alluvial fans constructive nor destructive.
Select the correct answer using the code How many of the above statements are
given below. correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Only one
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) Only two
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) All three
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) None

Q56. With reference to the landforms Q59. Weathering and erosion are significant
associated with volcanic activities, geological processes that shape the
consider the following statements: Earth’s surface.
1. Sills are solidified horizontal lava Which of the following statements best
layers inside the earth. describes the difference between
2. Dykes are vertical intrusions that weathering and erosion?
develop into wall-like structure. (a) Weathering is the physical breakdown
3. Batholiths are huge masses of igneous of rocks, while erosion involves the
rocks formed due to the solidification chemical alteration of rock minerals.
of hot magma inside the earth. (b) Weathering is disintegration and
Which of the statements given above decomposition of rock material, while
is/are correct? erosion involves the removal and
(a) 1 and 2 only transport of weathered rock material.
(b) 3 only (c) Weathering is the movement of
(c) 1 and 3 only sediment by wind and water, while
(d) 1, 2 and 3 erosion is the decomposition of rocks
by exposure to extreme temperatures.
Q57. Consider the following statements (d) Weathering refers to the wearing away
regarding the drainage patterns: of Earth’s surface by glaciers, while
1. The tributaries of a dendritic drainage erosion is the transformation of rocks
pattern join the main stream at nearly due to tectonic forces.
right angles.
2. A radial pattern is found in areas with a Q60. The lower Gangetic plain is characterised
central uplift and outward-flowing by humid climate with high temperature
streams. throughout the year. Which one among
Which of the statements given above the following pairs of crops is most
is/are correct? suitable for this region?
(a) 1 only (a) Paddy and cotton
(b) 2 only (b) Wheat and Jute
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Paddy and Jute
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Wheat and cotton

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Q61. Consider the following statements: Q63. Consider the following :
Statement I: Jhelum in the valley of 1. Teak
Kashmir is still in its youth stage and 2. Sal
forms meanders. 3. Shisham
Statement II: The meanders in Jhelum 4. Semul
River are caused due to local base level of 5. Jackfruit
sediments provided by an erstwhile lake How many of the above are species of
present in its course. moist deciduous forest ?
Which one of the following is correct in (a) Only two
respect of the above statements? (b) Only three
(a) Both the statements are individually (c) Only four
true and Statement II is the correct (d) All five
explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually
true but Statement II is ‘not the correct
explanation of Statement I Q64. Consider the following passage:
(c) Statement I is true but Statement Il is This river originates in the `Raksas tal' near
false Mansarovar in Tibet where it is known as
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is Langchen Khambab. It flows almost
true parallel to the Indus for about 400 km
before entering India. It passes through
the Shipki La on the Himalayan ranges
and entersthe Punjab plains.
Which one of the following rivers is best
described in the passage given above?
Q62. Consider the following statements with (a) Ravi
regard to social forestry: (b) Beas
1. Urban forestry pertains to the raising (c) Satluj
and management of trees on public (d) Sangar
lands only.
2. Agro-forestry is the raising of trees
and agriculture crops on the same
land inclusive of the waste patches. Q65. The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard
3. Community forestry involves the frost is injurious to it. It requires at least
raising of trees on public, privately 210 frost - free days and 50 to 100
owned or community lands. centimeters of rainfall for its growth. A
Which of the statements given above light well -drained soil capable of
is/are correct? retaining moisture is ideally suited for the
(a) 1 and 2 only cultivation of the crop." Which one of the
(b) 2 only following is that crop?
(c) 3 only (a) Cotton
(d) 2 and 3 only (b) Jute
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Tea

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Q66. What can be the impact of Q69. Consider the following statements about
excessive/inappropriate use of the sedimentary rocks.
nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture? 1. Sedimentary rocks are formed at the
1. Proliferation of nitrogen fixing Earth’s surface by the hydrological
microorganisms in soil can occur. system.
2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take 2. The formation of sedimentary rocks
place. involves the weathering of pre-
3. Leaching of nitrate to the ground existing rocks.
water can occur. 3. Sedimentary rocks contain fossils.
Select the correct answer using the codes 4. Sedimentary rocks typically occur in
given below. layers.
(a) 1 and 3 only How many statements given above are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) Only one
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only two
(c) Only three
Q67. In India, the problem of soil erosion is (d) All four
associated with which of the following?
1. Terrace cultivation
2. Deforestation Q70. Consider the following statements with
3. Tropical climate reference to production of tea in India.
Select the correct answer using the code 1. Tea is mainly grown in dryland farming
given below. areas of India.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. India is the second largest producer of
(b) 2 only tea in the world.
(c) 1 and 3 only Which of the statement(s) given above
(d) 1, 2 and 3 is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
Q68. The annual range of temperature in the (b) 2 only
interior of the continents is high as (c) Both 1 and 2
compared to the Coastal areas. What (d) Neither 1 nor 2
is/are the reason/reasons?
1. Thermal difference between land and
water Q71. Which of the following statements
2. Va r i a t i o n i n a l t i t u d e b e t w e e n correctly defines a thermocline?
continents and oceans (a) The boundary where oceanic waters
3. Presence of strong winds in the freeze completely.
interior (b) The boundary where there is a rapid
4. H e a v y r a i n s i n t h e i n te r i o r a s decline in ocean temperature.
compared to coasts (c) The boundary where temperature of
Select the correct answer using the codes oceanic water increases.
given below: (d) The boundary where oceanic water
(a) 1 only becomes denser
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Q72. With reference to tides, consider the Q75. Which of the following factor(s) is
following statements: responsible for the formation of Counter
1. The highest tides are known as Spring equatorial currents?
tides. (a) Gravitational pull of the Sun
2. The lowest tides are known as Neap (b) Gravitational pull of both the Moon
tides. and Sun
3. Spring tides occur when Moon is in (c) Accumulation of water in Western
first quarter. parts of oceans
How many statements given above are (d) Movements of strong winds over
correct? oceans
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None Q76. Consider the following currents:
1. Falkland Current
2. Benguela Current
Q73. Which among the following statements 3. Humboldt Current
correctly defines a tidal bore? 4. Counter Equatorial Current
(a) Rise of water in an estuary due to How many of the above are cold currents?
seismic activities. (a) Only one
(b) A vertical wall of water rising upstream (b) Only two
in an estuary. (c) Only three
(c) Inward and outward movement of (d) All four
water in a gulf.
(d) Tide with the maximum altitude in a
water body
Q 7 7 . W i t h re f e re n c e to t h e We s te r n
Disturbances, consider the following
Q74. Consider the following statements about statements:
oceanic currents 1. It is a temperate cyclonic condition
1. More than 90% of oceanic currents that originates in the Mediterranean
occur on the surface of the oceans. Sea.
2. Movement of deep water current is 2. It usually brings rainfall in the region of
mainly influenced by density and Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
gravity. 3. It is associated with frontal rainfall.
3. Surface current move from equator to 4. It is beneficial for some crops like
poles whereas deep current move cotton and Rice.
from poles to equator. Which of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above are correct?
correct? (a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2, and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q78. Consider the following statements about Q81. Which of the following is/are the
different types of farming to control soil characteristic/characteristics of regur or
erosion: black soils?
1. Contour ploughing involves plowing 1. They are formed from volcanic lava.
along the contour lines of a slope. 2. They are poor in iron content.
2. Terrace farming involves creating flat 3. They are self-ploughing in nature.
platforms on a slope. Select the correct answer using the codes
3. Strip cropping involves the planting of given below.
multiple crops on the same field. (a) 1 only
How many of the above statements are (b) 2 only
correct? (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) Only one (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Only two
(c) All three Q82. With reference to the Inter-Tropical
(d) None Convergence Zone (ITCZ), consider the
following statements:
Q79. With reference to El Nino, which of the 1. It is an area where air tends to
following statements are correct? descend.
1. I t l e a d s to a n i n c re a s e i n t h e 2. In July, ITCZ is located around 20°S -
temperature of the water on the 25°S.
Peruvian coast. 3. Shift in ITCZ causes the trade winds of
2. It results in an increase in the number the southern hemisphere to cross the
of plankton in the Eastern Pacific equator.
ocean. Which of the statements given above
3. It can delay the onset of southwest is/are correct?
monsoons in India. (a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 2 and 3 only
given below. (c) 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only Q83. Which of the following statements is
(d) 1, 2 and 3 correct regarding the ‘Buffering Capacity
of the Soil’?
Q80. Which of the following is/are essential (a) It is the capacity of soil to resist any
reasons for the formation of major deserts change in the concentration of
of the world? hydrogen ions.
1. Presence of on-shore trade winds (b) It is the ability of soil to maintain its
2. Interior continental location porous structure and regulate the
3. Rain-shadow position on the leeward passage of air, gases, and water.
side of mountains (c) It is the capacity of a soil to function
Select the correct answer using the code within natural or managed ecosystem
given below. boundaries.
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) It is the capacity of soil to absorb an
(b) 3 only adequate amount of moisture.
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q84. Which of the following is the reason as to Q86. The Lipulekh Pass, recently in the news,
why Orographic rainfall scarcely occurs in holds strategic and historical significance.
the leeward side of the mountains? On Which of the following statements about
the leeward side the Lipulekh Pass is correct?
(a) the air is being heated and then rises (a) It is located at the tri-junction of
up in the form of currents India,Bhutan, and China.
(b) the air ascends and the moisture is (b) It is the pass used by ancient traders
condensed. onthe Silk Route connecting India and
(c) the air descends and their capacity to Central Asia via Afghanistan.
take in moisture increases. (c) I t s e r v e s a s a r o u t e f o r t h e
(d) there is formation of stationary front KailashMansarovar Yatra and lies at
that leads to formation of the rain- the IndiaNepal-China tri-junction.
shadow area. (d) It is located in Arunachal Pradesh
andconnects India to Tibet.

Q87. With reference to the recently introduced

Unified Pension Scheme (UPS), consider
the following statements:
1. The UPS combines elements of both
Q85. Consider the following statements in the Old Pension Scheme (OPS) and the
respect of Tropical and Extra tropical National Pension System (NPS),
cyclones: providing an assured pension while
1. While tropical cyclone mainly derive retaining employee contribution
their energy from oceans, extra requirements.
tropical cyclone derive their energy 2. Under the UPS, the government will
from atmospheric air circulation. contribute 18.5% of the employee’s
2. Extratropical cyclones are generally basic pay and dearness allowance
larger and more spread out than towards the pension corpus, while
tropical cyclones. employees will contribute 10%.
3. The core of both tropical and extra 3. The UPS guarantees a fixed pension,
tropical cyclones are relatively warmer which will be subject to market
than their outer regions. fluctuations, similar to the NPS.
How many of the statements given above 4. The family pension under the UPS is
are correct? fixed at 50% of the employee’s last
(a) Only one drawn salary.
(b) Only two How many of the above statements are
(c) All three correct?
(d) None (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

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Q88. Which of the following statements about Q90. Consider the following languages in
RISE (Remove Debris In-Orbit Servicing) is India:
correct? 1. Marathi
(a) RISE is a joint initiative of ISRO and 2. Pali
NASA to launch satellites capable of 3. Prakrit
removing space debris using laser 4. Assamese
technology. 5. Bengali
(b) RISE is an ESA-led project that aims to 6. Punjabi
develop robotic arms to repair and How many of the above are recognized as
refuel satellites in orbit and safely Classical Languages in India?
deorbit nonfunctional satellites. (a) Only three
(c) RISE is a commercial project led by (b) Only four
private companies aiming to remove (c) Only five
micro-debris from Earth's orbit using (d) All six
electromagnetic tether technology.
(d) RISE focuses on crowd-sourcing Q91. Consider the following animals:
solutions to track orbital debris by 1. Tiger
collaborating with amateur 2. Lion
astronomers worldwide. 3. Leopard
4. Snow Leopard
Q89. Consider the following statements 5. Cheetah
regarding the Jal Hi AMRIT initiative: 6. Jaguar
1. The scheme is implemented by the 7. Puma
Ministry of Jal Shakti to promote How many of the above animals are
efficient water management in urban conserved under the International Big Cat
areas. Alliance (IBCA)?
2. It is launched under the AMRUT (a) Only four
2.0reforms to incentivize states and (b) Only five
Union Territories to manage sewage (c) Only six
treatment plants (STPs) efficiently. (d) All seven
3. The initiative introduces a Clean Water
Credit System, awarding star ratings to Q92. Which of the following statements
STPs based on the quality of treated regarding coking coal is/are correct?
water. 1. Coking coal is found in the Earth’s
4. The scheme mandates that all treated crust as a naturally occurring
water from sewage treatment plants sedimentary rock.
must be reused for industrial purposes 2. It is an essential ingredient in the
to qualify for financial incentives. production of steel.
How many of the above statements are 3. It typically contains more ash and
correct? moisture than thermal coal.
(a) Only two Choose the correct option:
(b) Only three (a) 1 and 2
(c) All four (b) 2 and 3
(d) None (c) 1, 2, and 3
(d) 1 and 3

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Q93. The Greenhouse Gas Bulletin is published Q96. Which of the following statements about
by which of the following organizations? the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP)
(a) U n i t e d N a t i o n s E n v i r o n m e n t Finance Network is correct?
Programme (UNEP) (a) It is an initiative by India to secure rare
(b) International Solar Alliance (ISA) earth minerals from South America.
(c) World Meteorological Organization (b) It focuses on financing the supply
(WMO) chain of critical minerals globally.
(d) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate (c) The MSP prioritizes only lithium and
Change (IPCC) cobalt as strategic minerals.
(d) It is a joint venture by OPEC countries
to promote renewable energy
Q94. Which of the following pollutants are
targeted for reduction by the Climate and
Clean Air Coalition (CCAC)?
1. Methane
2. Carbon dioxide Q97. Consider the following description of a
3. Black carbon bail:
4. Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) 1. It is a type of bail given to an accused
Select the correct answer using the code detained in custody, when police fail
below: to complete the investigation.
(a) 1, 3, and 4 only 2. It is enshrined in Code of Criminal
(b) 1 and 2 only Procedure.
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only 3. It is also known as statutory bail.
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 Above statements are related to which
among the following bails?
(a) Anticipatory Bail
Q95. Consider the following: (b) Regular bail
Asser tion (A): The ‘Atoms4Food’ (c) Default bail
initiative focuses on using nuclear (d) Interim Bail
technology to improve agricultural
productivity and food security.
Reason (R): The initiative seeks to
promote nuclear energy as the primary
energy source for food processing and Q98. World soil health Index is released by
transportation logistics. which of the following organisation:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are (a) Food and Agriculture Organisation
correct, and Reason (R) is the correct (FAO)
explanation of Assertion (A) . (b) United Nations Educational, Scientific
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
correct, but Reason (R) is not the (c) U n i t e d N a t i o n s E n v i r o n m e n t
correct explanation of Assertion (A) . Programme (UNEP)
(c) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) (d) International Union for Conservation
is incorrect. of Nature (IUCN)
(d) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason
(R) is correct.

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Q99. Which of the following statement is true
for Inverse ETFs (Exchange Traded Fund)?
(a) An ETF that use derivatives to gain
exposure to the opposite movement
of an underlying benchmark.
(b) A n E T F t h a t d i re c t l y i n v e s t i n
companies that are expected to
underperform
(c) An ETF that provides returns by
purchasing high yield bonds and
derivatives in an upward trending
market.
(d) An ETF that hedges against market
risks by investing in government
bonds and large cap equity to
generate consistent long term returns.

Q100. Ratapani Wildlife sanctuary, latest tiger

reserve in India, is located in which of the
following state?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Chattisgarh

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
HISTORY SECTIONAL
TEST - I

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO,
GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fi ll in the Roll Number carefully without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will
render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in
some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certifi cate.
8. After you have completed fi lling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers
happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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 | Navigator | History Sectional Test - I
Q1. Slavery in India was abolished through Q4. Consider the following statements
which of the following legislations? regarding Ramkrishna Paramhansa:

(a) Queen's Proclamation of 1858 1. H e s o u g h t s a l v a t i o n t h r o u g h

(b) Act V of 1843 traditional ways of renunciation,
(c) Charter Act of 1833 meditation and bhakti.
(d) Charter Act of 1853 2. He recognized the fundamental
oneness of all religions. 3. He
influenced the understanding of
Q2. Consider the following statements Keshub Chandra Sen who in turn
regarding the Deoband school of Islamic inculcated some of his ideas into
theology: Brahmoism.

1. It began as a revivalist movement with How many of the statements given above
the aim of a moral and religious are correct?
regeneration of the Muslim
community. (a) Only one
2. It opposed the formation of the Indian (b) Only two
National Congress which it considered (c) All three
to be a majoritarian party. (d) None

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct? Q5. Consider the following pairs:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Political Association Member
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. United Patriotic Syed Ahmad
Association Khan
Q3. Consider the following statements with
respect to the Treaty of Allahabad of 1765: 2. Madras Mahajan Panapakkam
Sabha Anandacharlu
1. Shah Alam II was to pay Rs 50 lakh to
the East India Company as war 3. The Bombay Kashinath
indemnity. Presidency Trimbak Telang
2. Shuja-ud-Daula agreed to surrender Association
Allahabad and Kara to the Britishers;
3. Robert Clive annexed Awadh to
expand the empire of British rule. How many of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
How many of the statements given above
are correct? (a) Only one
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(b) Only two (c) All three
(c) All three (d) None
(d) None

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Q6. Consider the following statements with Q9. Consider the following statements:
respect to Haidar Ali of the Mysore:
1. The First Anglo-Mysore War resulted Statement-I: The famous triangular trade
in a thorough defeat of Haidar Ali. that the East India Company carried out
2. The military requirements of Haidar involved Britain, India, and China.
Ali's army were fulfilled by the French. Statement-II: India was involved in the
3. He signed the Treaty of Mangalore triangular trade as the goods produced in
when the second Anglo-Mysore war the West (Britain) did not find a market in
ended without any positive outcome. China.
How many of the statements given above
are correct? Which one of the following is correct in
(a) Only one respect of the above statements?
(b) Only two (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(c) All three correct, and Statement-II is the correct
(d) None explanation for Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, but Statement-II is not the
Q7. Consider the following personalities correct explanation for Statement-I.
regarding the Sikh reform movement: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
1. Baba Ram Singh II is incorrect.
2. Baba Dayal Das (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
3. Baba Darbar Singh Statement-II is correct.
How many of the above given
personalities are related to Namdhari
movement? Q10. Consider the following pairs:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three Published Reformer work
(d) None
1. Tuhfat-ul Hasrat Mohani
Muwahhidin
Q8. Consider the following statements
regarding the Wahabi Movement: 2. Shatpatre Gopal Hari
1. Its leaders were sentenced for life Deshmukh
imprisonment in Malda and Rajmahal
trials of 1870. 3. Tahzib al-akhlaq Sir Syed Ahmed
2. In the wake of 1857 revolt, it turned Khan
into armed resistance against British.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? How many of the pairs given above are
(a) 1 only correctly matched?
(b) 2 only (a) Only one
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only two
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) All three
(d) None

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Q11. Consider the following: How many of the statements given above
1. Atrocities under the Permanent are correct?
settlement system of land revenue. (a) Only one
2. Raising the land revenue by 50 (b) Only two
percent. 3. Passage of Deccan (c) All three
Agriculturists Relief Act (1879) (d) None

How many of the above are the reasons Q14. Which of the following statements is
behind the Deccan riots? correct regarding the Brahmo Samaj?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (a) Rammohan Roy founded the Brahmo
(c) All three Samaj which was later renamed as
(d) None Brahmo Sabha.
(b) There was no place for priesthood in
the Samaj nor sacrifices of any kind
Q12. Consider the following statements were allowed.
regarding French governor Joseph Francis (c) Readings of Upanishads and Vedas
Dupleix: were prohibited in the Brahmo Samaj.
1. He is often credited as the originator (d) In 1866, Keshab Chandra Sen left the
of the practice of a subsidiary alliance Brahmo Samaj and formed Adi
in India. Brahmo Samaj.
2. His first appointment in India was as
Director-General of French colonies. Q15. With reference to the legislations passed
3. During the war of succession for the for improvement in conditions of women
throne of Hyderabad, he supported during the British period, consider the
Muzaffar Jung. following statements:

How many of the statements given above 1. The regulation of 1829 declared the
are correct? practice of sati illegal and punishable
(a) Only one by criminal cour ts as culpable
(b) Only two homicide.
(c) All three 2. The Bengal regulations of 1795 and
(d) None 1804 declared infanticide illegal and
equivalent to murder.
3. The Age of Consent Act 1891 forbade
Q13. Consider the following statements the marriage of girls below the age of
regarding the Theosophical Movement: 12.
1. Colonel M.S. Olcott of the U.S. Army
laid the foundation of the movement How many of the above statements are
in the United States in 1875. correct?
2. The Theosophical Society rejected the
Hindu beliefs in reincarnation and (a) Only one
karma. (b) Only two
3. I t d r e w i n s p i r a t i o n f r o m t h e (c) All three
philosophy of the Samkhya, Yoga and (d) None
Vedanta schools of thought.

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Q16. With reference to the economic critique Q19. Consider the following statements
of the British rule by the early nationalists, regarding the Singh Sabha movement:
consider the following statements: 1. The Singh Sabha movement took
1. They clearly understood that British forward the reform activities of the
colonialism was the main obstacle to Brahmo Samaj in Punjab.
India’s economic development. 2. The Sabha established a network of
2. They saw modern Industries as a major Khalsa schools throughout Punjab.
force to unite the diverse people of Which of the statements given above
India. is/are correct?
3. They saw foreign capital as a welcome (a) 1 only
addition to the efforts of (b) 2 only
Industrialization of India. (c) Both 1 and 2
How many of the statements given above (d) Neither 1 nor 2
are correct?
(a) Only one Q20 Arrange the following kingdoms/states in
(b) Only two the chronological order of their capture
(c) All three by the use of the infamous Doctrine of
(d) None Lapse.
1. Udaipur
Q17. With reference to Indian history, which of 2. Satara
the following happened earliest? 3. Jhansi
(a) Balshastri Jambhekar started the 4. Sambalpur
newspaper named ‘Darpan’. Select the correct answer using the code
(b) Dayal Singh College was opened in given below.
Lahore to promote the ideas of (a) 2-1-3-4
Brahmo Samaj. (b) 2-4-1-3
(c) Karsondas Mulji who started the Satya (c) 3-2-4-1
Prakash in Gujarati to advocate widow (d) 3-1-2-4
remarriage.
(d) Age of Consent Act was passed Q21. Who among the following has published
because of the efforts of Behramji 'Trutiya Ratna' (1855) which is based on
Malabari. the exploitation of shudras?
(a) Jyotibha Phule
Q18. With reference to the Bethune School, (b) Sri Narayana Guru
consider the following statements: (c) B.R. Ambedkar
1. It was first founded in Madras (d) C.N. Annadurai
presidency in 1849.
2. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was Q22. Under which of the following legislations,
associated with the school as its the East India Company’s territories in
Secretary. India were termed ‘British Possessions’ for
Which of the statements given above the first time?
is/are correct? (a) Charter Act of 1813
(a) 1 only (b) Charter Act of 1853
(b) 2 only (c) Pitt’s India Act of 1784
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Regulating Act of 1773
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q23. Consider the following committees Q26. Consider the following statements
constituted during British Rule in India: regarding the Charter Act of 1833:
1. G e n e r a l C o m m i t t e e o f P u b l i c
Instruction 1. The act provided for the appointment
2. Hunter Commission of a Law Commission to study, collect
3. Saddler Committee and codif y various rules and
How many of the above committees had a regulations present in India.
bearing on education? 2. The Act added one member to the
(a) Only one Executive Council of the Governor
(b) Only two General as a Law Member with the
(c) All three right to vote.
(d) None 3. The Act had an anti-discrimination
clause which became a cause political
Q24. Consider the following pairs: agitation in India. for

Centre of Suppressed by How many of the statements given above

1857Revolt British Officer are correct?
(a) Only one
1. Delhi James Outram (b) Only two
(c) All three
2. Benaras Hugh Rose (d) None

3. Kanpur John Nicholson

Q27. Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
(a) Only one Battle Fought
(b) Only two between
(c) All three
(d) None 1. Battle of Bedara British and
Portuguese
Q25. Consider the following statements with
respect to the Treaty of Salbai: 2. Battle of Wandiwash British and
1. The Treaty of Salbai was signed to French
conclude the first Anglo-Maratha war.
2. As per the treaty, Salsette was to go 3. Battle of St. Thome French and
into the possession of the Marathas. Dutch
3. The treaty was signed between Warren
Hastings and Mahadaji Shinde.
How many of the statements given above How many pairs given above are correctly
is/are correct? matched?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) All three
(d) None (d) None

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Q28. Consider the following statements with How many of the above statements are
respect to Sindh: correct?
(a) Only one
1. In 1758, an English factory was built at (b) Only two
Thatta, owing to a parwana given by (c) All three
the Kallora prince, Ghulam Shah. (d) None
2. In 1783, the Talpuras, under the
leadership of Mir Fatah Ali Khan, Q31. Consider the following statements
established a complete hold over regarding the Regulating Act of 1773:
Sindh.
Which of the statements given above 1. The act was brought in because the
is/are correct? King of England wanted to control the
(a) 1 only operations of the company.
(b) 2 only 2. Under the act, the Governor-General
(c) Both 1 and 2 had an overriding power over his
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 council.
3. The Act also provided for the
Q29. Consider the following statements with establishment of a Supreme Court of
respect to the Mughal Empire: Justice at Calcutta to give justice to
Europeans, their employees, and the
1. Khafi Khan gave the title of Shah-i- citizens of Calcutta.
Bekhabar to Bahadur Shah.
2. Farrukhsiyar followed a policy of How many of the statements given above
religious tolerance by abolishing are correct?
Jaziya and the pilgrimage tax. (a) Only one
3. The Battle of Karnal was fought during (b) Only two
the rule of Muhammad Shah. (c) All three
How many of the statements given above (d) None
are correct?
(a) Only one Q32. Tarabai Shinde, a woman educated at
(b) Only two home at Poona, published a book,
(c) All three criticising that in a new colonial society
(d) None men enjoyed all the rights, opportunities
and benefits of change, while women
Q30. Consider the following statements were blamed for all the evils and were still
regarding Paika Rebellion of 1817: bound by the old strictures of pativrata
(duty to husband).
1. It was associated with the present-day
states of Bihar and Bengal. Which of the following is the title of that
2. It began as a protest against heavy book?
land taxes imposed by British colonial (a) The History of Doing
rulers. (b) Ratanbai
3. It was led by tribal leaders who sought (c) Stripurushtulna
to establish an independent tribal (d) Deep Nirban
kingdom.

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Q33. With reference to French colonial Q36. Consider the following statements
activities in India, which of the following is regarding the Swami Dayanand Saraswati:
correct?
(a) Treaty of Ryswick concluded in 1. His motto was ‘Go back to the Vedas’.
September 1697 resulted in the loss of
Pondicherry for France. 2. He accepted the doctrine of karma,
(b) The Spanish succession war gave the but rejected the theory of niyati
French upper hand against the (destiny).
Portuguese.
(c) Balasore and Qasim Bazar were 3. He rejected that man's soul is merely a
important trading centres of the part of God and held that God, soul
French. and matter (prakriti) were distinct and
(d) Nawab Alivardi Khan gave the French eternal entities.
permission to establish a township
near Calcutta for the first time. How many of the statements given above
are correct?
Q34. With respect to Indian history, the Pledge
Movement relates to: (a) Only one
(a) the agitation against the Cunningham (b) Only two
circular which pledged to ban the (c) All three
student political activities. (d) None
(b) the series of pledges taken during the
Swadeshi movement to oppose
western textile.
(c) a movement launched against child Q37. Consider the following statements about
marriage by Indian Social Conference. Lord Wellesley:
(d) anti-liquor movement began during
the constructive period of Gandhian 1. H e w a s r e s p o n s i b l e f o r t h e
movement. establishment of Fort William College
at Calcutta.
Q35. In the context of British India, which of the
following statements is correct about the 2. He participated in the Battle of
policy of masterly inactivity? Seringapatnam as a Colonel.
(a) It referred to the focus of the first few
Governor Generals that was limited to 3. He served as governor of Madras and
the region of Bengal. later also served as Governor General
(b) It was the lack of disinterest of the of Bengal.
British Empire in solving the
developmental challenges of the How many of the above statements are
north-east India. correct?
(c) It referred to the aggressive expansion
policy followed by Lord Cornwallis (a) Only one
towards the state of Mysore. (b) Only two
(d) It was a foreign policy followed by (c) All three
John Lawrence to deal with the Afghan (d) None
issue

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Q38. Consider the following statements with Q41. Consider the following statements:
reference to Portuguese activities in India: 1. In the nineteenth century, Christian
1. Portuguese sent Jesuit priests to Shah missionaries in India gave support for
Jahan’s court and were able to obtain practical education among people.
his favor and support. 2. The christian missionaries set up a
2. They made money through both trade mission at Serampore to control the
and slave capture in India. activities of the East India company.
3. One of the reasons for the decline of
the Portuguese in India was their Which of the statements given above
involvement in piracy. is/are correct?
How many of the statements given above (a) 1 only
are correct? (b) 2 only
(a) Only one (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Only two (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) All three
(d) None Q42. With reference to the Sree Narayana
Dharma Paripalana Yogam (SNDP),
consider the following statements:
Q39. Which of the following is not the 1. It was established in Madras by Sree
achievement of the moderate phase of Narayana Guru Swamy.
the Indian National Congress? 2. This organiization built a number of
(a) They exposed the basic exploitative temples that were opened only to the
character of the British rule. Ezhava caste to counter Brahmanical
(b) They widened their democratic base domination.
through increase in scope of their
demands. Which of the statements given above
(c) They trained people in political work is/are not correct?
through popularization of modern (a) 1 only
ideas. (b) 2 only
(d) They created a feeling of a common (c) Both 1 and 2
nation to rally against a common (d) Neither 1 nor 2
enemy.
Q43. With reference to Indian History, William
Adam’s reports are related to:
Q40. Consider the following Governor
Generals of India: (a) Decentralization under Government
1. Lord Auckland of India Act, 1935
2. Lord Metcalfe (b) S e c re t S e r v i c e re p o r t s o n t h e
3. Lord Bentinck underground activities during Quit
Arrange them chronologically in the order India movement
of their terms. (c) Reports on education in British
(a) 1-2-3 provinces
(b) 3-2-1 (d) Repor ts on economic relations
(c) 1-3-2 between Britain and its colonies in
(d) 2-3-1 India

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Q44. With reference to the policy Q46. With reference to the widow remarriage
development of education in India under in India, consider the following
East India Company, consider the statements:
following statements:
1. Hindu Widows' Remarriage act 1856
1. Utilitarians preferred English as a was passed by British government to
medium of education as more suited suppress demands of legalising widow
to the demands of the administration. remarriages in India.

2. Orientalists thought Indian learning to 2. In Bengal, widow remarriage reform

be substandard and hence favored the achieved huge success.
English language over vernaculars.
Which of the statements given above
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q45. Consider the following pairs:

Q47. Who among the following started the
Satya Prakash weekly to advocate widow
Maratha Confederacy Region remarriage in India?

1. Peshwa Nagpur (a) Dhondo Keshav Karve

(b) Jagganath Shankar Seth
2. Scindia Gwalior (c) Vishnu Shastri Pandit
(d) Karsondas Mulji
3. Gaekwad Indore

4. Holkar Baroda

5. Bhonsle Pune Q48. Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jah founded the

independent state of Hyderabad during
the reign of which of the Mughal
How many of the pairs given above are emperors?
correctly matched?
(a) Muhammad Shah
(a) Only one (b) Farrukh Siyar
(b) Only three (c) Ahmad Shah Bahadur
(c) Only five (d) Jahandar Shah
(d) None

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Q49. Consider the following statements with Q52. In the context of the development
respect to the Anglo-Sikh Wars: ofeducation during British India, arrange
1. The Battle of Gujrat was an important the following education commissions/
battle fought as a part of the first committees in chronological order of their
Anglo- Sikh war. establishment.
2. Under the Treaty of Lahore, Daleep
Singh was recognized as the ruler with 1. Hunter Education Commission
Rani Jindan as regent.
3. The second Anglo-Sikh war took place 2. Sadler University Commission
during the Governor-Generalship of
Lord Canning. 3. Hartog Committee
How many of the statements given above
are correct? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) Only one given below.
(b) Only two
(c) All three (a) 1-2-3
(d) None (b) 2-1-3
(c) 1-3-2
Q50. He was an important leader of the 1857 (d) 2-3-1
revolt. Educated in Hyderabad, he became
a preacher when young. In 1856, he was
seen moving from village to village
preaching religious war against the British
and urging people to rebel. He was Q53. With reference to the Treaty of Amritsar
popularly called Danka Shah. He was (1809), consider the following statements:
elected by the mutinous 22nd Native
Infantry as their leader. He fought in the 1. It was signed between Maharaja Ranjit
famous Battle of Chinhat in which the Singh of Punjab and the British East
British forces under Henry Lawrence were India Company.
defeated.
Who among the following is best 2. The treaty demarcated the river Sutlej
described by the passage given above? as the boundary between the British
(a) Ahmadullah Shah and the state of Punjab.
(b) Vasudev Balwant Phadke
(c) Birjis Qader 3. The state of Punjab was forced to
(d) Bakht Khan accept a permanent British resident at
the royal court of Punjab.
Q51. With reference to Maratha
administration, the terms 'saranjam' and Which of the statements given above
'mokasa' denote is/are correct?
(a) coins of different monetary value
(b) land grants (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) administrative posts (b) 2 only
(d) religious rituals (c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

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Q54. With reference to the nature and spread Q56. With reference to trading
of the revolt of 1857, consider the stations/factories established by various
following statements: European powers, consider the following
pairs:
1. The territory Rohilkhand remained
undisturbed by the revolt.
Location of Associated
2. The Bombay army remained loyal to Factory European
the British East Company during the power
revolt.
1. Shrirampur Danish
3. The ruler of Afghanistan, Dost
Mohammad supported the rebels 2. Chinsura Dutch
against the East India Company.
3. Chandranagore French
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? 4. Chittagong Portuguese

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only Which of the pairs given above is/are
(c) 1 and 3 only correctly matched?
(d) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q55. Consider the following statements with Q57. With reference to the Charter Act of 1793,
respect to the Battle of Adyar: consider the following statements:

1. It was part of the third Carnatic war 1. Under the Act, a sum of one lakh
fought between the British and the rupees was to be set aside for the
French. promotion of learning among Indians.
2. The act provided for the creation of
2. It led to the British occupation of St. Maal Adalats or revenue courts.
George fort of Madras. 3. The act provided for the abolition of
slavery in India.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None

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Q58. Consider the following statements: Q61. Consider the following statements with
1. The English got trading privileges in respect to the recommendations of
this region by a Mughal farman of Wood's Despatch, 1854:
1630.
2. Apprehensive of a Franco-Russian 1. It upheld the 'downward filtration
joint land invasion of India, the British theory' that provided education for
signed a "Treaty of Eternal Friendship" the upper classes.
in 1807 with this region, to create a 2. It advocated the imparting of secular
buffer. education in educational institutions.
3. By the 1840s, this region was brought 3. It recommended English as the
under the English control by use of medium of instruction at all levels.
force. 4. It recommended the establishment of
Which of the following regions is being universities in presidency towns.
referred to in the statements given above?
(a) Rohilkhand Which of the statements given above are
(b) Afghanistan correct?
(c) Balochistan
(d) Sindh (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
Q59. Who among the following were the (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
members of the South Indian Liberal (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Federation?
1. P. Ananda Charlu
2. P. Tyagaraja Chetti Q62. Consider the following pairs:
3. M. Veeraraghavachari
4. C.N. Mudalair
Select the correct answer using the code Newspaper Leader
given below. associated
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. Mirat-ul-Akbar Badruddin Tyabji
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only 2. Amrita Bazar Sisir Kumar
Patrika Ghosh
Q60. Arrange the following legislative
measures to ameliorate the women's 3. Quami Awaz Mohmmad
condition in India in chronological order: Ali Jinnah
1. Female Infanticide Prevention Act
2. Native Marriage Act for controlling
child marriage Which of the pairs given above is/are
3. Legalisation of widow remarriage correctly matched?
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. (a) 1 and 3 only
(a) 2-3-1 (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 3-2-1 (c) 2 only
(c) 3-1-2 (d) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2-1-3

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Q63. In the context of India's socio-religious Q66. Which of the following statements is/are
reforms history, Paramahansa Mandali correct regarding the Pitt's India Act,
aimed at 1784?
(a) breaking caste rules.
(b) promoting the approach of Vedic 1. The Board of Control was established.
culture, Upanishads, and the 2. The orders of the Board of Control
predominance of Aryan society. became binding on the Court of
(c) propagating the ideas of Ramakrishna Directors.
Paramahansa. 3. The number of members in the
(d) preservation of the status quo in Governor General's Council was
socioreligious matters of Hindu reduced.
society.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
Q64. With reference to the Doctrine of Lapse, (a) 1 only
consider the following statements: (b) 2 and 3 only
1. The sanction of the British must be (c) 1 and 2 only
obtained by the adopted son to inherit (d) 1, 2 and 3
the personal property of the chieftan.
2. The adopted son would be entitled to Q67. The Revolt of the Jungle Mahal is the
same pension that his father had been description of which of the following
receiving. events?
3. The Doctrine was introduced for the
first time by Lord Dalhousie. (a) Kondh uprisings, 1837
Which of the statements given above (b) Chuar uprisings, 1771
is/are correct? (c) Kol uprisings, 1844
(a) 2 and 3 only (d) Munda Rebellion, 1899
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 only Q68. In the context of East India Company's
(d) None conquest of India, arrange the following
events in chronological order :

Q65. Consider the following statements: 1. Establishment of factory at Surat.

1. The first railway line in British India was 2. Grant of Golden Farman to company
laid from Bombay to Thane in 1853. by Sultan of Golconda.
2. The railways in India were built using 3. Arrival of Sir Thomas Roe, the
British capital with a promise of a ambassador of King James I at
guaranteed minimum return of 5% on Jahangir’s court.
their paid-up capital.
Which of the statements given above Select the correct answer using the code
is/are correct? given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1-2-3
(b) 2 only (b) 1-3-2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2-3-1
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 3-2-1

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Q69. Consider the following events: Q71. In the context of the proposal of
introducing the ryotwari system in the
1. Abolition of the provincial courts of south and southwestern India, what were
appeal the reasons behind implementing the
ryotwari system over the zamindari
2. Introduction of English as the official system in these areas?
language 1. In these regions there were no
zamindars present with a large estate
3. Annexation of Mysore and Coorg by with whom land settlement could be
the British made.
2. Under the permanent settlement the
Which of the following Governors- company was the ultimate financial
General/ Viceroys of India was associated loser as it had to share revenue with
with the events given above? zamindars.
3. It was a continuation of the state of
(a) Lord Canning affairs related to land revenue that had
(b) Lord Metcalfe existed in the past for these areas.
(c) Lord Lytton Select the correct answer using code
(d) Lord William Bentinck given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
Q70. Consider the following pairs: (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Governors- Reform
General/ Viceroy Q72. Consider the following pairs:

1. The Earl Abolition of Sati Women's Associated

Amherst Organisation Person

2. Lord William Introduction of 1. Indian Women’s Annie Besant

Bentinck Local Self- Association
Government
2. Bharat Stree Sarala Devi
3. Lord Hardinge I Prohibition on Mandal Choudharani
human sacrifice
3. Arya Mahila Ramabai
Samaj Ranade
Which of the pairs given above is/are
correctly matched? How many pairs given above are correctly
matched?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one pair
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Only two pairs
(c) 3 only (c) All three pairs
(d) None (d) None of the pairs

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Q73. Consider the following statements: Q75. Consider the following statements
regarding the Aravipuram Movement:
1. He started a movement in support of
widow remarriage which resulted in 1. The movement was a reaction against
the legalisation of widow remarriage. Brahmanic supremacy and the caste
2. He was also a crusader against child system.
marriage and polygamy. 2. It was started by E.V. Ramaswamy
3. He was associated as Secretary with Naicker.
Hindu female school which later came
to be known as Bethune Female Which of the statements given above
School. is/are correct?

Who among the following is being (a) 1 only

described in the statements given above? (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Keshab Chandra Sen
(c) Kandukuri Veeresalingam
(d) Vishnu Shastri Pandit Q76. Treaty of Sagauli, 1816 was signed by
British India with which one of the
following neighboring regions?

Q74. Consider the following pairs: (a) Afghanistan

(b) Nepal
(c) Bhutan
Organization Founded by (d) Burma

1. Satyashodhak Jyotiba Phule

Samaj Q77. Which of the following events took place
during the tenure of Warren Hastings, the
2. All India Anti- B. R. Ambedkar first Governor General of Bengal?
Untouchability
League 1. Raja Chait Singh revolted against the
British
3. All India Scheduled M. [Link] 2. Vellore mutiny took place
Castes Federation 3. Asiatic Society of Bengal was founded
4. First Rohilla war was started

Which of the pairs given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correctly matched? given below.

(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 only

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Q78. With respect to the Indian states, arrange Q81. Which of the following reforms in civil
the following in chronological order of services was/were carried out by Lord
acceptance of subsidiary alliance system: Cornwallis?
1. Sindhia 1. Forbidding private trade by East India
2. Holkar Company officials
3. Mysore 2. Promotions to be done based on merit
4. Awadh and not on seniority
3. Foundation of Fort William College at
Select the correct answer using the code Calcutta for training of civil servants
given below.
(a) 4-3-1-2 Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 4-3-2-1 given below.
(c) 3-4-2-1 (a) 1 only
(d) 3-4-1-2 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
Q79. In the context of British India's (d) 3 only
expansionist policy, arrange the following
events in chronological order starting Q82. Who among the following established
from the earliest: the Widow Remarriage Association, in the
1. Second Anglo Afghan war 1850s?
2. Annexation of Burma
3. Younghusband expedition to Tibet (a) Vishnushastri Pandit
(b) Debendranath Tagore
Select the correct answer using the code (c) Karsondas Mulji
given below. (d) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(a) 2-3-1
(b) 2-1-3 Q83. With reference to the Indian Social
(c) 1-2-3 Conference, consider the following
(d) 1-3-2 statements:
1. It was founded by M.G. Ranade and
Q80. Which of the following statements is/are Raghunath Rao.
correct regarding Third Anglo Maratha 2. Its first session was held in Bombay in
war? December 1885 along with the first
1. The chief reason for this war was the session of the Indian National
British conflict with the Pindaris. Congress.
2. After the war, Maratha confederacy 3. It launched the famous 'Pledge
was dissolved and the peshwaship was Movement' to inspire people to take
abolished. an oath to prohibit child marriage.

Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above
given below: is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q84. Arrange the following socio-religious Q87. During the 18th century, which of the
reforms chronologically: following emerged as successor states
1. Foundation of Brahmo Sabha after the splintering of the Mughal
2. Foundation of Bethune School empire?
3. Establishment of Vedanta College 1. Bengal
Select the correct answer using the code 2. Hyderabad
given below. 3. Punjab
(a) 3-1-2 4. Maratha
(b) 3-2-1 5. Awadh
(c) 2-1-3 Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 1-2-3 given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q85. Though the Portuguese were the first to (b) 3, 4 and 5 only
arrive in India, they were incapable of (c) 1, 2 and 5 only
maintaining a trade monopoly in the East (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
for a long because
1. Its merchants enjoyed more power
than its landed aristocrats. Q88. With reference to the Charter Act of 1833,
2. Portuguese lagged behind in the consider the following statements:
development of shipping as 1. With this Act, the English East India
compared to other European powers. Company ceased to be a commercial
3. They followed a policy of religious agency in India.
intolerance. 2. The Act provided for the debts of the
Select the correct answer using the code Company to be taken over by the
given below. Government of India.
(a) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above
(b) 2 and 3 only is/are correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Q86. Consider the following statements with (d) Neither 1 nor 2
reference to the Anglo-Dutch rivalry:
1. T h e A n g l o - D u t c h c o m p r o m i s e
involved the Dutch withdrawal from Q89. Arrange the following events in
the spice islands of Indonesia. chronological order of their occurrences.
2. The victory of the British in the Battle 1. Nadir Shah's invasion
of Hooghly led to the final collapse of 2. Battle of Buxar
the Dutch in India. 3. Third Battle of Panipat
Which of the statements given above 4. Death of Tipu Sultan
is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 only given below.
(b) 2 only (a) 3-4-1-2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2-4-3-1
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1-3-2-4
(d) 4-3-2-1

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Q90. Which of the following were the causes Q93. Consider the following statements:
behind the 1857 revolt? 1. He is known to represent a happy
1. C o n fi s c a t i o n o f p r o p e r t i e s o f blend of Indian and western culture
Zamindars. though he was a great Sanskrit scholar.
2. E x c l u s i o n o f I n d i a n s h i g h e r 2. He opposed the monopoly of Sanskrit
administrative positions. to the upper castes only.
3. Prevalence of corruption at lower 3. He was the flag bearer of widow
levels of administration. remarriage in India.
4. He also served as the principal of
Select the correct answer using the code Sanskrit College.
given below. Which of the following personalities is
(a) 1 and 2 only being described by the statements given
(b) 2 and 3 only above?
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) David Hare
(c) Karsondas Mulji
Q91. The Battle of Wandiwash was one of the (d) Radhakant Deb
decisive battles in the struggle among
European powers in India. It was fought Q94. The economic critique of colonialism
between which of the following emphasized 'Home Charges' as one of the
countries? modes of the drain of wealth from India.
Which of the following correctly describes
(a) The Dutch and the Portuguese the 'Home Charges'?
(b) The French and the British (a) Interest on loans taken by the Indian
(c) The Portuguese and the British Government.
(d) The Danes and the Dutch (b) Salaries of British civil and military
officials working in India.
Q92. With reference to the revolt of 1857, (c) Expenses of the Indian Government in
consider the following pairs: Britain.
(d) Profits of British capitalists in India.

Leader Region Q95. Which of the following statements are

correct with reference to the Tipu Sultan?
1. Nana Sahib Gwalior 1. He planted the Tree of Liberty at
Seringapatam.
2. Bahadur Khan Kanpur 2. He sanctioned funds for the repair of
the Sringeri Temple.
3. Kunwar Singh Bihar 3. He was a member of the Jacobin Club.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
Which of the pairs given above is/are (a) 1 and 2 only
correctly matched? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q96. Consider the following statements with Q99. What was the immediate objective of the
reference to the modern postal system Akali movement?
established by the British:
(a) To organise no tax movement in the
1. T h e Po s t a l S t a m p s w e r e fi r s t Punjab region.
introduced by Lord Dalhousie.
2. Postal rates were fixed on the basis of (b) To wrest the control of the gurdwaras
distance travelled in the delivery. from the corrupt mahants.

Which of the statements given above (c) To organise mass civil disobedience
is/are correct? against the British.

(a) 1 only (d) To create revolutionary literature to

(b) 2 only i n s p i re y o u t h to j o i n n a t i o n a l
(c) Both 1 and 2 movement.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q97. In the context of modern Indian history,

the Battle of Porto Novo was related to

(a) The First Carnatic War

(b) The First Anglo-Maratha War Q100. Consider the following statements in
(c) The Second Anglo-Maratha War the context of Raja Ram Mohun Roy:
(d) The Second Anglo-Mysore War
1. The Brahmo Samaj of Roy was based
on the twin pillars of reason and the
Q98. In the context of the development of Vedas and Upanishads.
educational institutions in Bengal during
the British time, arrange them in 2. He wrote a book known as Precepts of
chronological order as to when they were Jesus.
established.
Which of the statements given above
1. University of Calcutta is/are correct?
2. Calcutta Madrasah
3. Fort William College (a) 1 only
4. Asiatic Society of Bengal
(b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. (c) Both 1 and 2

(a) 2-3-4-1 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) 4-3-2-1
(c) 2-4-3-1
(d) 4-2-3-1

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 | Navigator | Modern India FLT Test - II

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
MODERN INDIA FLT
TEST - II

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO,
GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fi ll in the Roll Number carefully without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will
render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in
some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certifi cate.
8. After you have completed fi lling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers
happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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 | Navigator | Modern India FLT Test - II
Q1. Consider the following statements: Q3. Which of the following statements is
correct regarding the Indian Councils Act,
Statement-I: The General Ser vice 1861?
Enlistment Act by Lord Canning's
government caused resentment among (a) It created a legislative demarcation
sepoy recruits to the Bengal Army. between the central legislative council
Statement-II: The General Ser vice and provincial legislative councils.
Enlistment Act removed the privilege of (b) It gave the Viceroy the power to issue
free postal services enjoyed by the Indian ordinances in case of emergency.
sepoys. (c) It simplified the job of the Secretary of
state by creating a 15-member council
Which one of the following is correct in of India to assist him.
respect of the above statements? (d) It rejected the legislative devolution of
financial decentralization
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Q4. Consider the following statements
orrect, but Statement-II is not the regarding Pabna Agrarian Leagues:
correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement- 1. These were set up by the Britishers to
II is incorrect. prevent the peasants from acquiring
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t occupancy rights under Act X of 1859.
Statement-II is correct.
2. The method adopted by the leagues
was to fight cases in the courts against
Q2. Which of the following events occurred the occupancy rights.
during the office of Lord Curzon?
Which of the statements given above
1. Setting up of Raleigh Commission to is/are correct?
inquire into the conditions and
prospects of universities in India. (a) 1 only
2. Younghusband’s mission to Tibet to (b) 2 only
check on increasing Russian influence. (c) Both 1 and 2
3. Setting up of Durand Commission to (d) Neither 1 nor 2
define the Durand Line between India
and Afghanistan

Select the correct answer using the code Q5. Kharwar rebellion in Bihar in 1870s was a
given below. protest against:

(a) 1 and 2 only (a) revenue settlement activities.

(b) 2 and 3 only (b) forced labour.
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Hindu-Muslim conflicts.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) oppression of the moneylenders.

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Q6. Consider the following statements Q9. Singhpo's tribal uprising took place in
regarding the Act for Better Government which of the following states of British
for India, 1858: India?
1. It transferred the power to govern (a) Punjab
India from the East India Company to (b) Bombay
the Viceroy. © Assam
2. Under the act, India was to be (d) Madras
governed through a portfolio system
which was answerable to the Viceroy. Q10. Born in 1845 in Bombay, this particular
Which of the statements given above leader came under Dadabhai Naoroji’s
is/are not correct? influence while studying law in London
(a) 1 only during the 1860s. He was one of the
(b) 2 only founders of the Bombay Presidency
(c) Both 1 and 2 Association as also the Indian National
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Congress. He along with G.K. Gokhale, and
D.A. Khare organized the first-ever walk-
Q7. Who among the following was the first out in Indian legislative history to oppose
Indian journalist to be imprisoned for the a Bombay legislative Council Bill.
contempt of court by the British? Which of the following leaders is
(a) Sisir Kumar Ghosh described in the passage given above?
(b) Bal Gangadar Tilak (a) Dinshaw Wacha
(c) Surendranath Banerjee (b) R.M. Sayani
(d) G. Subramania Aiyar (c) Bhau Daji Lad
(d) Pherozeshah Mehta
Q8. Consider the following statements with
respect to the labour legislation during Q11. The Limitation Law passed by the British
British rule: in 1859 aimed to
1. The first-ever demand for regulation (a) prevent the accumulation of interests
of the condition of workers in factories over loans taken by the ryots.
in India came from the Lancashire (b) fix the quantity of crop produce to be
textile capitalist lobby. s h a re d b y s h a re c ro p p e r s w i t h
2. Indian Factory Act, of 1881 reduced jotedars.
the maximum working hours for (c) limit the size of landholdings for which
children to 7 hours a day. zamindari rights were granted to
3. Labour Laws covered all the factories landlords.
along with British-owned tea and (d) fix the amount of raw cotton to be sold
coffee plantations. by ryots in the open markets.
4. Despite having provisions against
child labour moderates did not Q12. Who among the following started the
support the Factory Acts of 1881. journal 'Asiatick Researches'?
How many of the statements given above (a) William Carey
are correct? (b) Charles Wilkins
(a) Only one (c) Colin Mackenzie
(b) Only two (d) William Jones
(c) Only three
(d) All four

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Q13. Consider the following statements: Q16. Consider the following statements with
Statement-I: The British. by and large, reference to the British response to the
were not in suppor t of the jhum Champaran satyagraha:
cultivation practiced by the tribals. 1. Government appointed an enquiry
Statement-II: Verrier Elwin, a missionary committee with Gandhiji as one of its
who came to India in 1927, argued that member.
Jhum cultivation should be banned. 2. The Champaran Agrarian Act was
Which one of the following is correct with enacted which freed the tenants from
respect to the above statements? the special tax levied by the indigo
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are planters.
correct, and Statement-II is the correct Which of the statements given above
explanation for Statement-I. is/are correct?
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (a) 1 only
correct, but Statement-II is not the (b) 2 only
orrect explanation for Statement-I. (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
II is incorrect.
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t Q17. With reference to the South Indian
Statement-II is correct. Liberal Federation, consider the following
statements:
Q14. Consider the following statements 1. It was the first non-Brahamanical
regarding the Indian Universities Act of organisation founded by T.M. Nair.
1904: 2. It was renamed as Sree Narayana
1. It was introduced by Lord Curzon to D h a r m a Pa r i p a l a n a Yo g a m b y
improve the condition of university Ramaswami Naicker.
education in India. Which of the statements given above
2. I t w a s p a s s e d o n t h e is/are correct?
recommendations of Raleigh (a) 1 only
commission. (b) 2 only
3. The Act introduced governmental (c) Both 1 and 2
control over universities. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
How many of the statements given above
are correct? Q18. In the context of tribal movements in
(a) Only one India, the term 'diku' refers to:
(b) Only two (a) non-tribal foreigners who often held
(c) All three positions of authority and exploited
(d) None tribal communities.
(b) the traditional system stipulating an
Q15. Which tribal leader was associated with equal sharing of the net produce of
the "Hul Rebellion" in Chotanagpur in the land by the jenmi, the Kanamdar,
1856? and the cultivator.
(a) Rani Gaidinliu (c) the traditional tribal leadership
(b) Birsa Munda structure in which the eldest member
(c) Tantia Bhil of the tribe held the highest authority.
(d) Sidhu Murmu (d) a land document given by the
government to provide cultivation
rights.

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Q19. Consider the following statements 3. Indigo Commission set up to enquire
regarding the Moplahs (or Mappilas) into the excesses during the revolt
uprising: favoured the peasants.
1. The Moplahs (or Mappilas) were the
descendants of Arab traders who had How many of the statements given above
settled in the Malabar region. are correct?
2. The Moplahs' main targets were the (a) Only one
Britishers who deprived them of their (b) Only two
customary right to cultivate the land. (c) All three
Which of the statements given above (d) None
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only Q22. The compulsory begar system was
(b) 2 only abolished, and the Tenancy Act of 1903
(c) Both 1 and 2 was introduced as a result of which of the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 following movement?

(a) Birsa Munda Revolt

Q20. It was the first organized strike by any (b) Tana Bhagat Movement
section of the working class. The demands (c) Bastar Revolt
related to wages, hours of work and other (d) The Santhal Reellions
conditions of service were raised. Almost
all nationalist newspapers came out fully Q23. Consider the following pairs:
in support of the strike, with Tilak’s
n e w s pa p e r s M a h r a t t a a n d Ke s a r i
campaigning for it for months. Public Organisation Associated
meetings and fund collections in aid of the member
strikers were organized in Bombay and
Bengal by prominent nationalists like 1. The Bombay Badruddin Tyabji
Pherozeshah Mehta, D.E. Wacha and Presidency
Surendranath Tagore. Association
Which of the following is being described
in the passage given above? 2. Madras Mahajan B. Subramaniya
(a) Ahmedabad mill strike Sabha Aiyer
(b) Great Indian Peninsular Railway strike
(c) Bombay textile mill strike 3. The Bangabhasha Raja Ram Mohan
(d) Calcutta Jute mill strike Prakasika Sabha Roy

Q21. Consider the following statements Which of the pairs given above are
regarding the Indigo revolt (1859-60): correctly matched?
1. The reason for the revolt was the (a) 1 and 2 only
forceful growing of indigo without any (b) 2 and 3 only
increase in wages. (c) 1 and 3 only
2. The Christian missionaries supported (d) 1, 2 and 3
the Britishers and used religion to
force peasants to grow indigo.

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Q24. With reference to the system of Q26. He was born in Wardha, Maharashtra, in
devolution of powers to local the late 19th century and was inspired by
governments initiated during British rule “The Mexican Revolution of 1910”. He was
in India, consider the following also inspired by the Hindu reformer
statements: Swami Dayanand and his Arya Samaj
movement. He decided to go abroad for
1. As per the system of ‘Divided Heads’, training in revolutionary methods and
the income from land revenue was militaristic strategy and was one of the
distributed between the provincial founding members of the Ghadar Party.
and local governments. Which of the following personalities is
2. The Ripon’s resolution of 1882 being referred to in the passage given
provided for the appointment of non- above?
officials as chairpersons of the local (a) Ganda Singh Phangureh
bodies. (b) Harnam Singh Tundilat
(c) Pandurang Sadashiv Khankhoje
Which of the statements given above (d) Lala Hardayal
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only Q27. The Madras Native Association was set
(b) 2 only up during the nineteenth century in
(c) Both 1 and 2 Madras as a branch of which of the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 following associations?
(a) The Bombay Association
Q25. Consider the following statements with (b) British Indian Association of Calcutta
reference to the early efforts to improve (c) Indian League
the conditions of the working class in (d) Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
British India:
Q28. Consider the following pairs:
1. S o r a b j e e S h a p o o r j i B e n g a l e e
introduced a bill in the Bombay Books Author
Legislative Council to limit the working
hours for labour. 1. Some Economic G
2. N. M. Lokhanday brought out a Aspects of British SubramaniaIyer
monthly journal called Bharat Rule in India
Sramjeebi with the primary idea of
educating the workers. 2. The Poverty Prithwis Chandra
3. Sasipada Banerjea published an Problem in India Ray
Anglo-Marathi weekly called Dina
Bandhu (Friend of the Poor). 3. Economic History Gopal Krishna
of India Gokhale
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? Which of the pairs given above is/are
(a) 1 only correctly matched?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q29. With reference to a leader of the Indian Which of the statements given above
National Movement, consider the is/are correct?
following statements:
(a) 1 only
1. He was chosen as the first Secretary of (b) 2 only
the Native Press Association formed in (c) Both 1 and 2
the 1870s. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. He became a member of the Imperial
Legislative Assembly in 1921.
3. He cleared the Imperial Civil Service Q32. Arrange the following
(ICS) but was not allowed to work in organizations/bodies in the chronological
the administration. order of their formation.

Who among the following has been 1. A h m e d a b a d Te x t i l e L a b o u r

described in the statements given above? Association
2. Workers’ and Peasants’ Parties
(a) Ananda Mohan Bose 3. All India Trade Union Congress
(b) Pheroze Shah Mehta 4. Workingmen’s Club
(c) Surendranath Banerjea
(d) Sisir Kumar Ghosh Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
Q30. Which one of the following statements is
not correct regarding the Eka movement (a) 1-4-2-3
or unity peasant movement in the 1920s? (b) 3-2-4-1
(c) 4-2-1-3
(a) It was led by low-caste leaders who (d) 4-1-3-2
were inclined to accept the discipline
of nonviolence.
(b) The main grievance of the movement Q33. With reference to the Ilbert Bill during the
as related to the extraction of high British colonial rule in India, which one of
rent. the following statements is correct?
(c) The Eka meetings were marked by a
religious ritual. (a) The bill was introduced during the
(d) Unlike the earlier Kisan Sabha tenure of Lord Lytton.
movement, the Eka Movement (b) C.P. Ilbert was the Secretary of British
excluded zamindars from its ranks. India at the time of introduction of the
bill
Q31. Consider the following statements (c) It proposed to give Indian session
regarding the Trade Disputes Act (TDA), judges the power to try European
1929: offenders in small towns.
(d) The bill was passed by the Indian
1. The Act provided for a system of Legislative Council in its original form
tribunals and a ban on strikes. without any amendments.
2. Bhagat Singh threw a bomb in the
Central Legislative Assembly against
the passage of this enactment.

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Q34. With reference to Indian history, the Which of the statements given above are
‘balutedari system’ was correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) A system of distribution of Jagirs to (b) 2 and 3 only
high nobles in North India. (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) An arrangement between the village (d) 1, 2 and 3
artisans and the village community for
services under Maratha rule. Q37. With reference to All India Kisan Sabha
(c) A system of military governorship (AIKS), consider the following statements:
introduced by Portuguese rulers in 1. It was established in Lucknow with
India. N.G. Ranga as its president.
(d) A practice of revenue farming 2. It remained part of the Congress and
introduced by later Mughals. m a i n t a i n e d re l a t i o n s w i t h t h e
provincial Congress committees.
Q35. In the context of Anglo Mysore rivalry, 3. It drafted the Kisan Manifesto which
consider the following statements: influenced the agrarian programme
adopted by Congress.
1. Treaty of Mangalore was signed Which of the statements given above
between Haider Ali and the British is/are correct?
after 2nd Anglo Mysore war. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. Haider Ali took the help of the French (b) 3 only
to set up an arms factory at Dindigul. (c) 2 and 3 only
3. Under the treaty of Seringapatam, (d) 1 only
Nizam got the regions surrounding
the Tungabhadra and its tributaries. Q38. With reference to the Capitalist class's
role during the freedom struggle,
Which of the statements given above consider the ollowing statements:
is/are correct? 1. During the Swadeshi movement
(a) 1 and 2 only capitalists were opposed to the
(b) 2 only boycott agitation.
(c) 1 and 3 only 2. Capitalist class largely supported the
(d) None Civil Disobedience Movement of the
1930s.
Q36. With reference to the British Committee 3. C a p i t a l i s t c l a s s p r e f e r r e d a
of the Indian National Congress, consider constitutional mode of struggle.
the following statements: 4. In 1928, the capitalists refused to
support the Government in
1. It was established in Britain by the introducing the Public Safety Bill.
Indian National Congress to raise Which of the statements given above are
awareness of Indian issues to the correct?
public in Britain. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. Badruddin Tyabji served as the first (b) 2 and 3 only
chairman of the Committee. (c) 1 and 3 only
3. The British Committee published the (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
journal ‘India’ as an organ for the
Congress' views.

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Q39. He led the Mahad Satyagraha to Q42. With reference to the Indian National
challenge the regressive customs of the Congress (INC) annual sessions, consider
caste Hindus. He also established the the following pairs:
Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha in 1924 to
highlight the difficulties and grievances of
the Dalits before the government. Its Session Event
motto was: ‘Educate, Agitate and
Organise’. 1. Allahabad Merger of Indian
Who among the following is being session, 1888 Association with
described in the above passage? the INC
(a) Jyotiba Phule
(b) B R Ambedkar 2. Madras Vande Mataram'
(c) Mahadeo Govind Ranade session, 1898 was sung for the
(d) Mahatma Gandhi first time in
the INC session
Q40. Consider the following statements
regarding the Indian National Congress 3. Calcutta Resolution of '
(INC): session, 1906 Swaraj' as the
1. The Surat Session, 1907 was presided goal of INC
over by Rash Behari Ghosh.
2. Alfred Webb was the first non-Indian
President of the Indian National Which of the pairs given above is/are
Congress. correctly matched?
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? (a) 3 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q43. What was the objective behind the
Q41. Which of the following statements is/are introduction of 'Statutory Civil Services’ in
correct regarding the Deccan riots during the 1870s?
the 1870s?
1. The outbreak of Deccan riots mainly (a) To nominate Indians to positions
occurred in areas under the Mahalwari hitherto reserved for the European
system of land revenue. covenanted civil servants
2. Deccan riots were marked by an (b) To conduct simultaneous Indian Civil
anticolonial consciousness. Service examination in India and
3. Social boycott was used as a major London
instrument during the Deccan riots. (c) To lower the maximum age of
Select the correct answer using the code eligibility for Indian Civil Services
given below. (d) To empower provincial governments
(a) 1 and 2 only to recruit officers for the
(b) 2 and 3 only administration of transferred subjects
(c) 3 only like education
(d) 1 and 3 only

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Q44. With reference to the British India, the Which of the statements given above
Punjab Land Alienation Act, 1900 was is/are correct?
passed to
(a) 2 only
(a) reduce the involvement of peasants in (b) 2 and 3 only
nationalist struggle. (c) 3 only
(b) suppress the growing extremism and (d) 1, 2 and 3
radicalism in the Punjab region.
(c) protect the peasants from British Q47. Consider the following statements
indigo planters. regarding the Sanyasi rebellion:
(d) prevent peasant rebellion in the
Punjab region. 1. The immediate cause of the revolt was
the restrictions imposed by the British
Q45. Who among the following opposed the upon pilgrims visiting holy places.
Pa r t i t i o n o f B e n g a l a n d a c t i v e l y 2. Anandamath, a novel by Bankim
participated in Swadeshi movement of Chandra Chattopadhyay, is based on
1905? this rebellion.
3. Lord Warren Hastings was the
1. Nawab Khwaja Salimullah Governor-General of Bengal during
2. Abdur Rasul this rebellion.
3. Liaqat Hussain
Which of the statements given above
Select the correct answer using the code is/are correct?
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only (c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q46. With reference to changes introduced Q48. Which one of the following statements is
into the tribal economy by the British not correct regarding the foreign policy of
Administration in India, which of the British India?
following reasons compelled tribals to rise
against the British rulers? (a) Lord Auckland advocated for a
‘forward policy’ while dealing with
1. The British administration restricted Afghanistan.
the entr y of a large number of (b) John Lawrence started a policy of
moneylenders, traders, and revenue ‘masterly inactivity’ as a reaction to the
farmers as middlemen in the tribal disasters of the First Afghan War.
areas. (c) Lord Ripon followed the foreign policy
2. The Indian Forest Act of 1865 of ‘proud reser ve’ aimed at
extended British colonialism's claim safeguarding the spheres of influence.
over forests in India. (d) Lord Curzon followed a 'realistic and
3. The British administration introduced common sense' policy towards the
a system of forced labour (begar) in tribesmen of the North-West Frontier.
tribal areas.

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Q49. The Fowler Commission was appointed Q53. With reference to the revolt of the
by the British government to Poligars (1799-1805), consider the
(a) Reform currency system in India following statements:
(b) Operationalize the Famine Code 1. The revolt took place in the region of
(c) Develop framework for National Press present day Tamil Nadu
(d) Ensure Planned development of 2. Nawab of Arcot joined Poligars in their
Presidency towns revolt against British.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
Q50. Which one of the following Governors- (a) 1 only
General of India is known as the Liberator (b) 2 only
of the Indian Press? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Lord Lytton (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Lord Ripon
(c) Lord William Bentinck
(d) Lord Charles Metcalfe Q54. Which of the following is correct
regarding the Age of Consent Act, 1891?
(a) The Act forbade the marriage of girls
Q51. With reference to Dadabhai Naoroji, below the age of 12.
consider the following statements: (b) The Act was passed during the time of
1. He pledged loyalty to British crown Lord Ripon.
and desired the continuance of British (c) The Act was passed due to the efforts
rule in India. of Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
2. He was the first Indian to be elected to (d) B.M. Malbari opposed the passage of
the UK House of Commons. the bill.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only Q55. With reference to different perspectives
(b) 2 only about the formation of the Indian
(c) Both 1 and 2 National Congress (INC) in 1885, consider
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 the following statements:
1. According to the Safety Valve theory,
the INC was formed by A.O. Hume for
Q52. In the context of revolutionary activities releasing the growing discontent of
during the freedom struggle, arrange the the Indians.
following events in chronological order. 2. Lala Lajpat Rai opposed Safety Valve
1. Kakori train robbery theory and believed that the INC was
2. Assassination of Saunders formed by Indians to promote
3. Death of Jatindra Nath Das after national interest.
hunger strike in prison Which of the statements given above
Select the correct answer using the code is/are correct?
given below. (a) 1 only
(a) 1-2-3 (b) 2 only
(b) 1-3-2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2-1-3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 3-2-1

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Q56. Which of the following is/are the Famine Q59. In the context of literary contribution
committees appointed by British India? during the freedom struggle, Annie
1. Campbell Commission Besant was associated with which of the
2. MacDonnell Commission following literary works?
3. Strachey Commission 1. India: A Nation; A Plea for Self
Select the correct answer using the code Government
given below. 2. My path to atheism
(a) 1 only 3. Philosophy of Hinduism
(b) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code
(c) 1, 2 and 3 given below.
(d) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
Q57. With reference to the Kitchener-Curzon (c) 2 and 3 only
dispute, consider the following (d) 1 and 3 only
statements:
1. The dispute was related to the removal
of the post of military-member from Q60. With reference to the Salt Satyagraha,
Viceroy's Executive Council. who among the following was/were
2. T h e d i s p u te fi n a l l y l e d to t h e involved in the Dharasana salt raid?
resignation of Lord Kitchener. 1. Sarojini Naidu
Which of the statements given above 2. Imam Sahib
is/are correct? 3. Ambika Kant Sinha
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 only given below.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
Q58. Consider the following pairs: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Tribal Revolt Associated

Leaders Q61. With reference to the Provincial
Government under Montford Reforms
1. Santhal Rebellion Sidhu and consider the following statements:
Kanhu Murmu 1. The Governor was the executive head
of the province.
2. Ramosi Uprisings Thamman-Dora 2. The Governor administered the
re s e r v e d s u b j e c t s t h ro u g h h i s
3. Munda Uprisings Birsa Munda executive council.
3. All members of provincial legislative
4. Koya Revolts Chittur Singh councils were elected.
Which of the statements given above
How many pairs given above are correctly is/are correct?
matched? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Only one pair (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Only two pairs (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Only three pairs (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) All four pairs

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Q62. With respect to the Mukti Sena (Freedom Q65. With reference to the Shimla Conference
Army), consider the following statements: of 1945, consider the following
1. It consisted of the prisoners of war of statements:
Indian origin captured by Germany
and Italy. 1. It was attended by both Mahatma
2. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose refused Gandhi and M A Jinnah.
to head the Freedom Army and rather
joined the Indian National Army in 2. Lord Wavell accepted that Muslim
Singapore. League is the sole representative of
Which of the statements given above Muslims in India.
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above
(b) 2 only is/are correct ?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Q63. Consider the following statements with (c) Both 1 and 2
respect to Mahatma Gandhi's experience (d) Neither 1 nor 2
in South Africa:
1. Mahatma Gandhi started his weekly
paper Indian Opinion as a means to
serve and consolidate the Indian
community. Q66. With reference to the Nagpur session of
2. During the Second Boer War, Gandhiji the Indian National Congress of 1920,
created Indian Ambulance Corps to consider the following statements:
help the British.
3. Gandhi-Smuts agreement was signed 1. [Link] moved the main resolution on
in 1905 to settle disputes regarding non-cooperation.
immigration.
Which of the statements given above are 2. C o n g r e s s s e t t h e g o a l o f t h e
correct? attainment of self-government
(a) 1 and 3 only through constitutional means.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only 3. Congress from now onwards decided
(d) 1, 2 and 3 to form provincial congress
committees on a linguistic basis.
Q64. In the context of revolutionary activities
during the freedom struggle, the United Which of the statements given above are
India House in Seattle was set up by correct?
(a) Tarak Nath Das and G.D. Kumar
(b) S o h a n S i n g h B h a k n a a n d L a l a (a) 1, 2 and 3
Hardayal (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Bhai Parmanand and G.D. Kumar (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) Rashbehari Bose and Tarak Nath Das (d) 1 and 3 only

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Q67. In the context of Non-Brahmin (a) Kamini Kumar Chanda
movements in India, consider the (b) Chittaranjan Das
following pairs: (c) Durga Mohan Das
(d) Barindra Kumar Ghosh
Publication Associated
Personality Q70. In the context of Civil Disobedience
Movement, the famous incident in which
1. Ishara B.R Ambedkar the soldiers of Garhwal regiment refused
to open fire on unarmed crowd occurred
2. Kudi Arasu E.V. Ramasami in
Naicker (a) Peshawar
(b) Delhi
3. Harijan Mahatma Gandhi © Calcutta
(d) Amritsar
4. Who Were the Jyotiba Phule
Shudras? Q71. Consider the following statements about
the Communist Party of India (CPI):
Which of the pairs given above are
correctly matched? 1. It was founded in Kanpur in1925.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Its activities were supported by the
(b) 2 and 3 only Britishers.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
Q68. Consider the following statements: (b) 2 only
1. India ceased to be a dominion of (c) Both 1 and 2
Britain in 1947. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. N e h r u R e p o r t r e c o m m e n d e d
Dominion status for India within Q72. In the context of revolutionary activities
British Commonwealth. during the freedom struggle, who among
3. T h e B r i t i s h g o v e r n m e n t the following was associated with the
acknowledged India’s right to be a Berlin Committee for Indian
dominion first time under the Cabinet Independence?
Mission Plan.
Which of the statements given above 1. Virendranath Chattopadhyay
is/are correct? 2. Bhupendranath Dutta
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. Lala Hardayal
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 1, 2 and 3 given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
Q69. In the context of the freedom struggle in (c) 2 and 3 only
India, the Swadeshi movement in Barak (d) 1, 2 and 3
Valley was led by

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Q73. With reference to the Congress Socialist Q75. For which of the following purposes was
Party (CSP), consider the following the Passive Resistance Association formed
statements: by Gandhiji?
(a) To raise awareness about the passive
1. It was formed under the leadership of resistance methods among Indian
Jaya Prakash Narayan and Acharya masses before par ticipating in
Narendra Dev in 1934. mainstream Indian politics.
(b) To conduct a Satyagraha campaign
2. It was against the policy of supporting against mandator y carr ying of
the British in World War II and instead registration certificates by migrant
advocated a revolutionar y mass Indians in South Africa.
struggle for Independence. (c) To peacefully mobilize Ahmedabad
Mill workers for fulfilling their demand
Which of the statements given above of plague bonus.
is/are correct? (d) To advocate non violent means of
struggle among the militant
(a) 1 only nationalists.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q76. In 1909, who among the following has led
a deputation of the London branch of All
India Muslim League to Lord Morely, the
then Secretary of State for India, to
Q74. Consider the following statements request separate electorates for Muslims?
regarding the 1931, Karachi session of the (a) Syed Ameer Ali
Indian ational Congress: (b) Nawab Khwaja Salimullah
(c) A. K. Fazlul Huq
1. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the (d) Muhammad Ali Jinnah
president of this session

2. The resolution on Fundamental rights Q77. With reference to the C. R. Formula,

passed in the session was drafted by consider the following statements:
Mahatma Gandhi. 1. It was proposed in 1944 to solve the
political deadlock between Muslim
3. Gandhi-Irwin pact was endorsed in League and Indian National Congress.
this session. 2. The formula ruled out the prospect of
partition of British India.
Which of the statements given above 3. The National Liberal Federation
is/are correct? opposed the C. R. Formula.
Which of the statements given above
(a) 1 only is/are correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q78. With reference to the All India States 3. Assassination of Curzon-Wylie in
People’s Conference (AISPC), consider the London by Madan Lal Dhingra.
following statements: 4. Chapekar brothers, Damodar and Bal
1. It was established as a reaction to the Krishna murdered the plague
idea of the All India Federation commissioner of Poona.
proposed by the Government of India
Act 1935. Select the correct answer using the code
2. The first session of AISPC was held in given below.
Bombay. (a) 2-3-4-1
3. It advocated the separation of (b) 4-3-2-1
freedom struggle in princely states © 2-4-3-1
from that of British India. (d) 4-2-3-1
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 2 only Q81. Who among the following was the
(b) 1 and 2 only founder of the Congress Democratic Party
(c) 2 and 3 only or Democratic Swarajya Party, a group
(d) 1 and 3 only within the congress that recognized equal
religious freedom to all citizens and
Q79. In the context of the freedom struggle, proclaimed adherence to the ideal of
consider the following statements Hindu-Muslim unity?
regarding Ghadar Movement:
1. Its objective was the establishment of (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
an independent republic of India. (b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
2. Bande Mataram was adopted as the (c) Bipin Chandra Pal
rallying cry of the Ghadar movement. (d) Motilal Nehru
3. Ghadarites criticized the loyalist role
played by the Punjabis during 1857
Which of the statements given above Q82. With reference to the League against
is/are correct? Imperialism formed in the early decades
(a) 1 only of the 20th century, consider the following
(b) 1 and 2 only statements :
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Jawarlal Nehru was elected to the
executive council of the league.
Q80. In the context of the growth of 2. Indian National Congress was an
revolutionary nationalism during the associated member of the league.
British time, arrange the events in
chronological order. Which of the statements given above
1. Unsuccessful attempt under the is/are correct?
leadership of Rash Behari Bose and (a) 1 only
Sachin Sanyal to kill the Viceroy, Lord (b) 2 only
Hardinge. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Prafulla Chaki and Khudiram Bose (d) Neither 1 nor 2
threw a bomb at a carriage of
Kingsford.

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Q83. With respect to the political integration Q85. With reference to Subhas Chandra Bose,
of India, consider the following consider the following statements:
statements with respect to the integration 1. He presided over Anti-Compromise
of Princely states: Conference held in Ramgarh.
1. Under the Mountbatten plan, Princely 2. He was arrested in 1940 when he
states were given the choice to either p ro t e s t e d a g a i n s t a p ro p o s e d
remain independent or accede to monument commemorating the Black
India or Pakistan. Hole Tragedy.
2. Hyderabad's accession to India was
completed in 1947. Which of the statements given above
3. The concept of Privy-purse offered by is/are correct?
the British administration to princely (a) 1 only
states was abolished immediately (b) 2 only
after independence. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? Q86. In the context of colonial history of India,
(a) 1 and 2 only 16th August, 1946 is well known for which
(b) 1, 2 and 3 of the following?
(c) 1 only
(d) None (a) The Indian National Army trials began
at the Red Fort.
(b) Direct Action Day was observed by
Q84 He was born in the Kaya village in the Muslim League
Kushtia district of undivided Bengal. As a (c) The Royal Indian Navy mutiny was
college student, he participated in the started.
relief work undertaken by Ramakrishna (d) Shimla conference was organised.
Mission, on the streets of cholera-hit
Calcutta. He was tasked with creating a Q87. With reference to the August Offer,
“network of the secret society” to train consider the following statements:
dedicated youth for the revolution against 1. It was announced by Viceroy Lord
the British by Aurobindo Ghosh, later Wavell to seek Indian support for
known as Jugantar. He was arrested in the World War II.
Alipore bomb case and the Howrah 2. It provided for setting up of a
conspiracy case. In 1912, he met the constituent assembly after the war.
German Crown Prince in Kolkata and 3. It explicitly promised a dominion
asked him for arms for an insurrection to status or India.
create a socialist government in India.
Which of the statements given above
Who among the following is being is/are correct?
described in the passage given above? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Jatindranath Mukherjee (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Barindra Kumar Ghosh (c) 3 only
(c) Sachindra Nath Sanyal (d) 1 and 3 only
(d) Rash Behari Bose

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Q88. Who among the following foreigners Q91. In the context of the freedom struggle,
acted as Congress presidents during the the iconic image of Bharat Mata as a four-
extremist phase of the Indian freedom armed Hindu goddess wearing saffron-
struggle? colored robes, holding a book, sheaves of
1. William Wedderburn rice, a mala, and a white cloth that
2. George Yule captured the people's imagination during
3. Annie Besant the swadeshi movement was painted by
Select the correct answer using the code (a) Abanindranath Tagore
given below. (b) Dwarkanath Tagore
(a) 1 only (c) Jamini Roy
(b) 1 and 3 only (d) Nandalal Bose
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Q92. With reference to the Indian National
Congress session of the year 1905,
consider the following statements :
Q89. In the context of the freedom struggle, 1. It was held in Calcutta.
who among the following belonged to the 2. The formal proclamation of the
extremist faction of the Indian National Swadeshi movement took place in this
Congress? session.
1. Rahmat Ullah Sayani 3. At the time of this session, Lord
2. Bipin Chandra Pal Hardinge was the viceroy of British
3. Anand Mohan Bose India.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above
given below. is/are not correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q93. With reference to the infamous 1908

Q90. With reference to the Gandhi-Irwin Pact sedition case against Bal Gangadhar Tilak,
of 1931, which of the following conditions consider the following statements :
were agreed by Viceroy Irwin? 1. Tilak was charged with sedition for
1. Immediate release of all political defending revolutionaries Khudiram
prisoners not convicted for violence. Bose and Prafulla Chaki in his
2. Right to make salt for consumption in newspaper Kesari.
villages along the coast. 2. Mohammed Ali Jinnah was one of the
3. Public enquiry into police excesses lawyers who defended Tilak in court.
involving violence. 3. At the end of the trial Tilak was
Select the correct answer using the code acquitted of all charges.
given below. Which of the statements given above
(a) 1 only is/are correct?
(b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q94. With reference to the Faizpur session of Who among the following is being
the Indian National Congress in 1936, described in the passage given above?
consider the following statements: (a) Bhagat Singh
1. The agrarian programme adopted by (b) Ram Prasad Bismil
the INC at this session called for the (c) Sachindra Nath Sanyal
abolition of the Zamindari system. (d) Khudiram Bose
2. It was during this session that the first
meeting of All India Kisan Sabha was
held under the presidentship of Swami Q 9 7 . I n t h e c o n te x t of Ro u n d Ta b l e
Sahajanand Saraswati. Conferences during freedom struggle,
who among the following attended all
Which of the statements given above three Round Table Conferences?
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only 1. B.R Ambedkar
(b) 2 only 2. Tej Bahadur Sapru
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. Narayan Malhar Joshi
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the code
Q95. With reference to Civil Disobedience given below.
Movement, consider the following (a) 1 only
statements: (b) 1 and 2 only
1. T h e s a l t m a r c h s t a r t e d f r o m (c) 2 and 3 only
Ahmedabad’s Sabarmati Ashram to (d) 1, 2 and 3
Dandi.
2. The salt march did not have any
women volunteer. Q98. With reference to the Indian National
Army (INA), consider the following
Which of the statements given above statements:
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only 1. The decision to form INA was formally
(b) 2 only taken at the Bangkok Conference of
(c) Both 1 and 2 1942.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Subhash Chandra Bose took over the
leadership of INA from Rash Behari
Q96. Consider the following passage : Bose.
He is famous for his involvement in the 3. The Japanese army handed over the
M a i n p u r i c o n s p i r a c y of 1 9 1 8 . H e Andaman and Nicobar Islands to the
published a pamphlet titled ‘Deshwasiyon INA during World War II.
ke Naam’ and distributed it along with his
poem ‘Mainpuri ki Pratigya’. He was also Which of the statements given above are
one of the chief founders of the correct?
revolutionary organization Hindustan (a) 1 and 2 only
Republican Association (HRA). At a very (b) 2 and 3 only
young age of 30, the British government (c) 1 and 3 only
executed him on 19 December 1927 in (d) 1, 2 and 3
Gorakhpur Jail.

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Q99. Consider the following pairs:

Works Authored by

1. Bandi Jiwan Sachindra Nath

Sanyal

2. Philosophy of Batukeshwar Dutt

Bomb

3. Pather Dabi Sarath Chandra

Chattopadhyay

Which of the pairs given above are

correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q100. In the context of the Swadeshi

movement, the Thakurmar Jhuli: Banglar
Rupkatha, a collection of children's oral
folk tales, that aimed at the restoration of
the cultural identity of the Bengalis was
written by

(a) Dakhinaranjan Mitra Majumdar

(b) Rabindranath Tagore

(c) Swami Vivekananda

(d) Mrinalini Devi

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
POLITY
FLT

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO,
GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fi ll in the Roll Number carefully without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will
render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in
some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certifi cate.
8. After you have completed fi lling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers
happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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Q1. Consider the following statements with Q4. Consider the following statements
respect to Freedom of Religion enshrined regarding the National Population
in the Constitution: Register (NPR):
1. It includes the freedom to not follow 1. Only Citizens are included in the NPR.
any religion. 2. It is mandator y for ever y usual
2. It bars all religious conversions. resident of India to register in the NPR.
3. It is not applicable to foreign nationals. 3. The data for NPR was first collected in
Which of the statements given above 2010 along with the house-listing
is/are correct? phase of Census 2011.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above
(b) 2 only is/are correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q2. Under Article 360 of the Constitution, the

power to proclaim financial emergency is
vested under
(a) Ministry of Finance
(b) Parliament
(c) President Q5. Which of the following is/are features of
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General of Indian secularism as adopted in the
India Constitution?
1. Religion is a personal matter and there
is no interference by the state.
2. No citizen can be denied entry into
any educational institute of the state
on the grounds of religion or caste.
Q3. Consider the following functionaries of 3. Every religious denomination has the
NITI Aayog: right to establish and maintain
1. Chairperson charitable institutions without any
2. Vice-chairperson limitation. Select the correct answer
3. Special Invitees using the code given below.
4. Chief Executive Officer (a) 1 only
Which of the above are appointed by the (b) 1 and 2 only
Prime Minister? (c) 2 only
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

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Q6. Which of the following is/are correct with Q8. Consider the following statements with
reference to the right to constitutional respect to the National Commission for
remedies provided under Article 32 of the Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR):
constitution? 1. It is a statutory body constituted
1. It is invoked to determine the under the Child Labour (Prohibition &
constitutionality of any executive Regulation) Act, 1986.
order or legislation if it directly 2. It has been designated as the agency
infringes any of the fundamental to monitor provisions of the Right to
rights. Free and Compulsory Education (RTE)
2. The Supreme Court has original and Act.
exclusive jurisdiction in case of Which of the statements given above
enforcement of fundamental rights. is/are correct?
3. It is a basic feature of the constitution (a) 1 only
and cannot be taken away even by a (b) 2 only
constitutional amendment. (c) Both 1 and 2
Select the correct answer using the code (d) Neither 1 nor 2
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q7. Which of the following are the reasons for Q9. Consider the following statements with
creating Union Territories in India? reference to the idea of liberalism in the
1. Cultural distinctiveness context of the Indian Constitution:
2. Strategic importance 1. Indian liberalism gives primacy to the
3. The interest of tribal people rights of the individuals over the rights
4. Administrative consideration of the community.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. Reservations for SC/ST community in
given below. the constitution are an example of
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only Indian liberalism.
(b) 1 and 4 only Which of the statements given above
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only is/are correct?
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q10. With reference to Election Commission, Q13. Who among the following do not hold
consider the following statements: office during the pleasure of the
1. Conditions of office and tenure of President?
office are provided under Article 324. 1. Attorney General
2. Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) 2. Comptroller and Auditor General
exercises veto power over the matters 3. Members of Union Public Service
discussed in Election Commission. Commission
3. CEC does not hold office during 4. Chief Election Commissioner
pleasure of President. Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above given below.
is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q11. Consider the following:

1. President’s Rule
2. National Emergency
3. Martial Rule
Which of the above special circumstances
has/have an effect on the Fundamental
Rights of the Indian citizens?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Q14. Consider the following statements with
(c) 2 and 3 only regard to the Padma awards:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. A Padma awardee can be given a
higher award only after five years of
Q12. Which of the following Directive the conferment of the earlier award.
Principles was added by the 42nd 2. The Padma Awards Committee is
Constitution amendment? headed by the Cabinet Secretary.
1. To secure opportunities for the 3. There is a provision for seeking the
healthy development of children. written consent of the recipient before
2. To promote equal justice and to the announcement of the award.
provide free legal aid to the poor. Which of the statements given above are
3. To minimize inequalities in income, correct?
status, facilities, and opportunities. (a) 1 and 2 only
4. To promote the development of the (b) 2 and 3 only
Hindi language. (c) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code (d) 1, 2 and 3
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Q15. Consider the following pairs: Q17. India has been using the Constitution as
the basic framework within which the
Commission Falls under government operates. Which of the
/Body following are not the reasons for it?
(a) The judiciary and political practice
1. National Ministry of have shown flexibility in the
Commission Social Justice implementation of the Constitution.
for Minorities & Empowerment (b) T h e b a s i c f r a m e w o r k o f t h e
Constitution suits our country.
2. National Ministry of (c) The Constitution makers were very far
Commission Women and sighted and provided for solutions for
for Women Child Development many situations.
(d) The Constitution of India is a sacred
3. National Ministry of document and cannot be changed.
Commission Tribal Affairs
for Sts

Which of the pairs given above is/are

correctly matched?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q18. Who among the following is/are not

eligible for further office either in center
or state after they ceases to hold their
respective offices?
Q 1 6 . W i t h re f e re n c e t o t h e F i n a n c e 1. Comptroller and Auditor General of
Commission, consider the following India
statements: 2. Attorney General of India
1. It is a quasi-judicial body. 3. Members of Union Public Service
2. The members hold office for five years Commission
or till 65 years of age. Select the correct answer using the code
3. T h e m e m b e r s a r e e l i g i b l e f o r given below.
reappointment. (a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above (b) 1 only
is/are correct? (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

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Q19. Which of the following functions is/are Q21. Which of the following statements is/are
performed by the National Commission c o r re c t w i t h re g a rd t o t h e I n d i a
for Scheduled Tribes? Independence Act, 1947?
1. To suggest measures to be taken over 1. It provided that India can alter any law
conferring ownership rights in respect made by the British in relation to India,
of minor forest produce to STs living in including the India Independence Act,
forest areas. 1947 itself.
2. To inquire into specific complaints 2. I t a b o l i s h e d t h e of fi c e of t h e
with respect to the deprivation of GovernorGeneral in India.
rights and safeguards of the Sts. 3. T h o u g h i t d e c l a r e d I n d i a a s
3. To suggest measures to be taken to independent, it did not proclaim the
ensure full implementation of the lapse of British Paramountcy over
provisions of Panchayats (Extension to Indian Princely states.
the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996. Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
given below. (a) 1 only
(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q22. If any foreign territory becomes a part of
India, then the power to specify that the
people of a foreign territory shall be the
citizens of India is vested in the
(a) National Human Rights Commission
(b) Supreme Court
Q20. Which of the following is/are envisaged (c) Union Government
as the Right against Exploitation in the (d) Parliament
Constitution of India?
1. P r o t e c t i o n a g a i n s t a r r e s t a n d Q23. Which of the following statements is/are
detention correct regarding Article 17 (Abolition of
2. Prohibition of employment of children Untouchability)?
in factories. 1. It abolishes untouchability and its
3. Prohibition of traffic in human beings practice in any form.
and forced labour 2. "Untouchability" has been defined
Select the correct answer using the code under Article 17.
given below. 3. It is available only against the state.
(a) 1 and 3 only 4. It is implemented by the "Protection of
(b) 2 only Civil Rights Act, 1955".
(c) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 1, 2 and 3 given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 4 only

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Q24. Consider the following statements Q27. Consider the following statements:
r e g a r d i n g ' St a t e P u b l i c S e r v i c e 1. An amendment of the Constitution
Commission' : can be initiated only by the prior
1. One-half of the members of the permission of the President.
commission should be persons from 2. All Constitutional Amendment bills
SC/ST and OBCs. must be passed in each House by a
2. Members of the SPSC can be removed simple majority.
by the Governor of the respective Which of the statements given above
state. is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above (a) 1 only
is/are correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q25. Which of the following commissions/

committee accepted "language" as the
criteria for the reorganization of states?
1. Dhar Commission
2. JVP Committee
3. Fazl Ali Commission
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only Q28. With reference to Special Provisions for
(b) 1 and 2 only the administration of the National Capital
(c) 3 only Territory (NCT) of Delhi, consider the
(d) 2 and 3 only following statements:
1. The Chief Minister of NCT of Delhi
Q26. Which of the following is/are common to holds office during the pleasure of the
both ‘interest groups’ and ‘people’s President.
movements? 2. The term “government” in the context
1. Both attempt to influence politics of the NCT of Delhi refers to the
without directly taking part in electoral Lieutenant Governor (LG) of the NCT.
competition. Which of the statements given above
2. Both have a loose organization, where is/are correct?
decision-making is informal and (a) 1 only
flexible. (b) 2 only
3. Both are largely dependent on (c) Both 1 and 2
spontaneous mass participation. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q29. Consider the following statements in the Q31. The Indian Councils Act of 1861
context of Preamble to the Constitution: introduced which of the following
1. T h e P r e a m b l e s t a t e s t h a t t h e provisions for the first time in India?
Constitution derives its authority from 1. Power to issue ordinances in Indian
the constituent assembly of India. administration
2. Indian constitution was the first 2. Nomination of Indians as non-official
constitution in the world, to begin with members to Viceroy’s council
a Preamble. 3. The new office of Secretary of State for
3. Preamble is a part of the Constitution India
and gives clarity in interpretation of Select the correct answer using the code
the constitution. given below.
Which of the statements given above (a) 1 only
is/are correct? (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Q32. Which of the following is/are correct with
reference to the right to property?
1. It is a legal right.
2. It can be curtailed by an ordinary law
of the Parliament.
3. In case of violation, the aggrieved
person can directly move the Supreme
Court for its enforcement.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Q30. If the President of India exercises his (b) 3 only
power as provided under Article 359 of (c) 1 only
the Constitution, then (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) t h e P re s i d e n t c a n p ro m u l g a t e
ordinance for any state. Q33. Consider the following statements:
(b) the powers of High Cour ts are 1. The conversion of the federal structure
subsumed by the Supreme Court. of India into a unitary one during an
(c) the President is empowered to emergency has been borrowed from
suspend the enforcement of some the Weimar Constitution of Germany.
Fundamental Rights. 2. The suspension of Fundamental
(d) he may extend National Emergency Rights during an emergency is a
only to few parts of the country and unique feature of the Indian
not the entire country. Constitution.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q34. Consider the following statements with Q36. A citizen may lose his/her citizenship
r e g a r d t o Pa r l i a m e n t 's p o w e r t o when he/she
reorganize the states: 1. voluntarily acquires the citizenship of
1. Any bill contemplating the changes any other foreign state.
can be introduced in the parliament 2. unlawfully traded or communicated
only with the prior recommendation with the enemy during a war.
of the President. 3. obtained citizenship by fraud.
2. Under article 3, the Parliament’s power Select the correct answer using the code
to diminish the areas of a state given below.
includes the power to cede Indian (a) 1 and 2 only
territory to a foreign state. (b) 1 and 3 only
3. Any bill aiming to reorganize the (c) 2 and 3 only
states shall be passed in the (d) 1, 2 and 3
parliament by a special majority.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only Q37. Consider the following statements
(b) 1 and 2 only regarding Constituent Assembly:
(c) 2 and 3 only 1. It was a fully sovereign body.
(d) None 2. It could abrogate or alter any law
made by the British Parliament in
relation to India.
3. Princely states never joined the
assembly.
Select the correct answer using the code
Q35. Consider the following statements given below.
regarding Article 33 of the Indian (a) 1 and 2 only
Constitution: (b) 1 and 3 only
1. The power to make laws under Article (c) 2 and 3 only
33 is conferred only on Parliament and (d) 1, 2 and 3
not on the state legislatures.
2. The laws made under Article 33 cannot
be challenged in any cour t for
violation of any of the fundamental Q38. Consider the following statements:
rights. 1. The citizens of India owe allegiance to
3. Laws made under Article 33 cover only both the Union and State.
combatant employees and officers of 2. In India, only a citizen by birth is
armed forces. eligible for the office of President.
Which of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above
correct? is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q39. Constitutionalism is a philosophy of Q41. Which of the following is/are correct with
limited government. reference to the Cantonment Board?
Which of the following features of the 1. It is established for municipal
Indian Constitution enforce this administration for civilian population
philosophy? in the cantonment area.
1. Fundamental Rights 2. It works under the administrative
2. Directive Principles of State Policy control of the Union Ministry of Home
3. Fundamental duties Affairs.
Select the correct answer using the code 3. It consists of partly elected and partly
given below. nominated members.
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 and 3 only given below.
(c) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q42. Which of the following statements is

correct regarding a State's bill?
(a) The president has no role to play in the
passage of a state's bill.
(b) State's bill can be reserved for the
Q40. With reference to the Special Officer for President but once reserved the
Linguistic Minorities, consider the Governor has no role to play.
following statements: © State's bill can be reserved for the
1. It was constituted under Article 350-B President but the President has to give
of the Indian Constitution. assent to the bill.
2. It can investigate all matters relating to (d) None of the above
the safeguards provided for both
linguistic and religious minorities
under the Constitution. Q43. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above 1. A d j o u r n m e n t m o t i o n c a n b e
is/are correct? introduced in Lok Sabha only.
(a) 1 only 2. No confidence motion can be moved
(b) 2 only against an individual minister or the
(c) Both 1 and 2 entire council of minister.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Censure motion can be moved against
the entire council of minister only.
Which of the statements given above
is/are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q44. Which of the following statements is Q46. With reference to the District Planning
c o r re c t re g a rd i n g t h e s a l a r y a n d Committee (DPC), consider the following
allowances of supreme court judges in statements:
India? 1. The 74th Amendment Act provides for
(a) They are determined by the President. the establishment of DPC.
(b) It can be altered by the Parliament to 2. A l l m e m b e r s o f t h e D P C a r e
the judge's disadvantage after his nominated by the Governor of the
appointment. state.
(c) It is charged on the Consolidated Fund 3. It has representation of both rural and
of State. urban population of the district.
(d) None of the above statements are Which of the statements given above
correct is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q47. With reference to Vice President of India,

which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. Vice President is elected by the same
electoral college as that of the
Q45. In the context of the Indian polity, in President.
which of the following matters can the 2. A resolution for his removal need to be
Governor act “in his discretion”? passed with special majority in both
1. Submitting a report to the President the houses.
under Art 356 on the failure of Select the correct answer using the code
Constitutional machinery in the state. given below.
2. Reserving bills for the consideration of (a) 1 only
the President (b) 2 only
3. Appointing a Chief Minister if no (c) Both 1 and 2
single party has secured a majority in (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the state election.
Select the correct answer using the code Q48. Consider the following statements
given below. regarding Committee on Public
(a) 1 only undertakings:
(b) 1 and 2 only 1. The chairman of this Committee can
(c) 1, 2 and 3 be only from Lok sabha.
(d) 3 only 2. The members are elected every year
for a term of one year.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q49. Consider the following statements Q52. In the context of the seventh schedule,
regarding Legislative Council: 'Local Government' as a subject comes
1. The creation of the legislative council under which of the following?
of states needs a constitutional (a) Union List
amendment. (b) State List
2. It enjoys equal power s as the (c) Concurrent List
legislative assembly for ordinary bills. (d) Residuary Powers
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Q53. With reference to the Chief Minister,
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 consider the following statements:
1. He holds office during the pleasure of
Q50. With reference to inter-state trade and the Governor.
commerce, consider the following 2. He can be dismissed by the Governor
statements: at any time.
1. The Constitution of India remains 3. He can recommend the dissolution of
totally silent on trade and commerce the Legislative Assembly to the
within the Indian territory and leaves it Governor at any time.
to the Parliament to legislate on. Which of the statements given above are
2. Parliament can impose restrictions on correct?
the freedom of trade and commerce (a) 1 and 2 only
between the states. (b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above (c) 1 and 3 only
is/are correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q54. With reference to political parties as
Q51. The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and recognized by the Election Commission
Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India (EC), consider the following statements:
are related to 1. EC recognizes parties as national
(a) the promotion of the interests of parties or state parties on the basis of
linguistic minorities in every Indian their poll performance.
state. 2. The recognition granted by EC to
(b) the protection the interests of political parties determines their right
Scheduled Tribes. to certain privileges in elections.
(c) oaths and affirmations meant for a few Which of the statements given above
important office-holders is/are correct?
(d) protect the interests of the people (a) 1 only
living in those Indian states that share (b) 2 only
border with other countries. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q55. Consider the following statements Q58. In case of vacancy in the office of speaker
regarding Cabinet Committees: and deputy speaker in Lok Sabha who
1. They are extra constitutional bodies. may elect any member as acting speaker?
2. All cabinet committees are headed by (a) Members of Lok Sabha
the Prime minister. (b) President
Which of the statements given above (c) Vice President
is/are correct? (d) Prime minister
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q59. With reference to the Municipal

Corporations, consider the following
statements:
Q56. Consider the following statements: 1 . They are established in the states by an
1. Council of minister is an executive act of the concerned state legislatures.
branch of the parliament and it 2. The Mayor is the chief executive
collectively governs on behalf of the authority of the corporation.
Parliament. Which of the statements given above
2. It is binding on all ministers to pursue is/are correct?
or agree to a policy for which there is (a) 1 only
collective responsibility. (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above (c) Both 1 and 2
is/are correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q60. With reference to Private Members bills,

consider the following statements:
1. It is a bill introduced by any member of
Q57. With reference to Money Bill, consider Parliament who is not a Minister.
the following statements: 2. It is draf ted by the concerned
1. All money bills are financial bills but department in consultation with the
not all financial bills are money bill. law department.
2. Joint sitting for passing money bill is Which of the statements given above
presided by the Speaker. is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above (a) 1 only
is/are correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q61. With reference to Indian judiciary, Q64. With reference to co-operative societies,
consider the following statements: consider the following statements:
1. The oath and affirmations for the 1. Elections to a co-operative society are
supreme court judge is provided conducted by State Election
under the second schedule to the Commission.
Indian Constitution. 2. Number of directors of a co-operative
2. Any retired judge of the Supreme society shall not exceed twenty-one.
Court of India can be called back to sit 3. Cooperative Board shall have atleast
and act as a Supreme Court judge by two women representatives.
the Chief Justice of India with prior Which of the statements given above
permission of the President of India. is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above (a) 1 and 2 only
is/are correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q65. Consider the following statements
regarding the territorial extent of Central
Q62. The president exercises executive power and State legislation in India:
through: 1. The territorial jurisdiction of the
(a) Prime Minister Parliament is absolute in nature for
(b) Council of Ministers headed by Prime whole or any part of the territory of
Minister India.
(c) Parliament 2. The laws enacted by state legislature
(d) Chief Justice of Supreme Court cannot be applicable outside the state.
Which of the statements given above
Q63. In which of the following cases does is/are correct?
m e m b e r s h i p t o Pa r l i a m e n t i n c u r (a) 1 only
d i s q u a l i fi c a t i o n u n d e r t h e Te n t h (b) 2 only
Schedule? (c) Both 1 and 2
1. If any independent member joins any (d) Neither 1 nor 2
political party before the expiry of six
months. Q66. Supreme Court is a Court of Record. It
2. If any nominated member joins any implies that
political party before the expiry of six 1. The judgements of Supreme Court are
months. recorded for perpetual memory.
3. I f h e v o l u n t a r i l y g i v e s u p t h e 2. The Supreme Court has the power to
membership of the political party to punish for contempt of court.
which he belonged. Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
given below. (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q67. Consider the following statements Q70. Consider the following statements with
regarding the parliamentary privileges reference to The Provisions of the
available to the members: Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled
1. They cannot be arrested during the Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA):
session of Parliament for both civil and 1. The provisions of the Act apply to the
criminal offences. states of the North East India only.
2. The presiding officer of the house has 2. Ministry of Rural Development and
the final authority in deciding matters Ministry of Development of North
of breach of privileges. E a s t e r n Re g i o n a r e t h e n o d a l
Which of the statements given above ministries for the implementation of
is/are correct? the provisions under this Act.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above
(b) 2 only is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q68. The strength of the High Court is decided

by:
(a) Supreme Court
(b) President of India
(c) Parliament
(d) Governor of respective state

Q71. Consider the following statements with

regard to the Estimates Committee:
1. It is called a ‘continuous economy
committee’ since it examines all the
Q69. Which of the following is not correct ministries and departments
when Vice-President is discharging throughout the year.
functions of President? 2. It examines the budget estimates only
(a) He enjoys all immunities which are after they have been voted by the
available to the President for his Parliament.
official acts. Which of the statements given above
(b) He continues to perform the duties of is/are correct?
chairman of Rajya Sabha. (a) 1 only
(c) He can pardon the sentence of a court (b) 2 only
martial. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) He can promulgate ordinances on the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
advice of Council of Ministers

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Q72. Consider the following statements with Q75. The Model Code of Conduct comes
reference to zonal councils in India: immediately into effect:
1. These are statutory bodies created (a) once the Election Commission
under the States Reorganisation Act of announces the schedule of elections.
1956. (b) once the notification calling electorate
2. The Union Home Minister acts as the to elect members of a house is issued.
chairman of all the zonal councils. (c) always at the first date of the month in
Which of the statements given above which elections are to be conducted.
is/are correct? (d) once the candidates start filing their
(a) 1 only nominations in the constituencies.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q76. Which of the following statements is/are

Q73. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to discussions in the
correct with respect to the High Courts of parliament?
Union territories? 1. During the Zero Hour, the members
1. T h e H i g h C o u r t o f D e l h i w a s are free to raise any matter that they
established by the Constitution under think is important.
Article 239AA. 2. During the Question Hour, Ministers
2. Establishing a High Court for a Union are bound to give oral answers to all
Te r r i t o r y w o u l d r e q u i r e a the types of questions.
constitutional amendment. Select the correct answer using code
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
given below. (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q74. Which of the following is/are not an

essential feature of local governance? Q77. Which of the following is/are the
1. Active participation of the citizenry exclusive powers of Lok Sabha?
2. Increased accountability of the 1. Vote of demand for grants
administration 2. I n t r o d u c t i o n o f C o n s t i t u t i o n
3. Centralization of decision making Amendment bill
Select the correct answer using the code 3. Creation of All India Services
given below. Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1, 2 and 3 given below.
(b) 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q78. As per the Constitution of India, the Q80. Consider the following statements
Governor of which of the following States regarding the joint sitting of the two
have special responsibilities with respect houses in Parliament:
to law and order? 1. A quorum to constitute a joint sitting is
1. Nagaland one-tenth of the total number of
2. Assam members of the two Houses.
3. Manipur 2. The bill in dispute shall be passed by a
4. Arunachal Pradesh majority of the total number of
Select the correct answer using the code members of both the Houses present
given below. and voting in the joint sitting.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only 3. Provision regarding the joint sitting of
(b) 2 and 4 only the two Houses was invoked for the
(c) 1 and 4 only first time for Dowry Prohibition Bill,
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only 1960.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q79. Which of the following is/are necessarily Q81. In the context of the Indian Constitution,
the consequences of the proclamation of consider the following statements
the President's rule in a State? regarding the mutual delegation of
1. President can make laws relating to functions between the Centre and states:
that State 1. The Centre can delegate its legislative
2. Assembly of the State is automatically powers to a state only with the
dissolved p re v i o u s c o n s e n t of t h e s t a te
3. President dismisses the state council government.
of ministers 2. President can entrust the executive
Select the correct answer using the code functions of the Centre to a state
given below. without the consent of that state.
(a) 1 only 3. The governor of a state may entrust to
(b) 2 and 3 only the Central Government any of the
(c) 3 only executive functions of the state.
(d) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

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Q82. With reference to the pardoning powers Q84. Which one of the following is not a
of the President, consider the following function of the Cabinet Secretariat?
statements: (a) M o n i to r i n g i m p l e m e n t a t i o n of
1. The President of India is the only decisions taken by the Cabinet and its
authority empowered to remit a death Committees
sentence. (b) Management of major crisis situations
2. The petitioner seeking pardon has no in the country
right to an oral hearing by the (c) Creating new Standing Committees of
President. the Cabinet
3. The power of the President to grant a (d) Providing assistance in decision-
pardon is subjected to judicial review. making in Government by ensuring
Which of the statements given above interministerial coordination
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only Q85. Consider the following statements
(b) 2 only regarding the revenue of urban local
(c) 1 and 3 only bodies (ULBs):
(d) 2 and 3 only 1. The devolution of funds to ULBs from
the state government is made on the
basis of the recommendations of the
state finance commission.
2. ULBs can raise loans from financial
institutions only with the prior
approval of the central government.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
Q83. In which of the following cases of double (b) 2 only
membership, a member of Parliament will (c) Both 1 and 2
lose both seats? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) If a sitting member of the state
legislature gets elected as Member of Q86. Consider the following statements:
Parliament and fails to resign his seat 1. The payments from the Public
in the state legislature within 14 days. Account of India can be made without
(b) If a person is elected to both the parliamentary approval.
Houses of Parliament and fails to 2. The contingency fund of India is held
intimate within 10 days in which by the finance ministry on behalf of
House he desires to serve. the president.
(c) If a person is elected to two seats in a 3. The public account of India is operated
House and fails to exercise his option by executive action.
for one. Which of the statements given above
(d) If a sitting member of one House is is/are correct?
also elected to the other House. (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q87. Under which of the following Q89. Doubts and disputes relating to the
circumstances does the Constitution election of the President or Vice President
empower the Parliament to make laws on are decided by
any matter enumerated in the State List? (a) Election Commission
1. When a no-confidence motion has (b) Supreme Court
been passed and the state executive (c) High Courts
has resigned (d) Lok Sabha
2. When the Rajya Sabha passes a
resolution empowering the Q90. Who among the following enjoys
Parliament to make laws on matters in legislative powers, in relation to the
the State List administration of Union Territories?
3. When the legislature of a state passes 1. President
a resolution requesting the Parliament 2. Parliament
to enact laws on a matter in the State 3. Legislative Assembly in a Union
List Territory
Select the correct answer using the code 4. Prime Minister
given below. Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 2 only given below.
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Q91. Who among the following was the

Portuguese Governor-General, during
liberation of Goa in 1961?
(a) Francisco de Almeida
Q88. An ordinance issued by the President of (b) Afonso de Albuquerque
India: (c) Nuno da Cunha
1. cannot contravene Fundamental (d) Manuel Antonio Vassalo e Silva
Rights any more than an act of
Parliament Q92. With reference to Bru (or Reang) tribe,
2. can repeal an act of the Parliament on consider the following statements:
a subject in the Concurrent list of the 1. They practice Jhum cultivation in hilly
seventh schedule of the constitution regions.
3. can have a maximum life of six months 2. Some of the members of this tribe
in case of non-approval by the maintain their livelihood by involving
Parliament in food gathering activities.
Select the correct answer using the code 3. They are recognized as one of the 75
given below. primitive tribes in India.
(a) 1 and 2 only How many statements given above are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) Only one
(d) 2 and 3 only (b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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Q93. Which of the statements given below is Q96. Consider the following pairs:
correct regarding the Organization for the
Prohibition of Chemical Weapons Places in Location
(OPCW)? news
(a) I n d i a i s n o t a m e m b e r of t h e
organization but a signatory to its 1. Al Biqa Syria
Chemical Weapons Convention. Valley
(b) It was awarded a Noble Peace Prize in
2013 for its efforts to eliminate 2. Mount Indonesia
Chemical Weapons. Ruang
(c) Its headquarters is located in Geneva,
Switzerland. 3. Shaksgam Ladakh
(d) The implementation of the Geneva Valley
Protocol of 1925 is also overseen by
OPCW. How many of the pairs given above are
correctly matched?
Q94. Consider the following statements (a) Only one pair
regarding tobacco cultivation in India: (b) Only two pairs
1. India is the largest producer and (c) All three pairs
importer of tobacco. (d) None of the pair
2. Tobacco cultivation requires very high
rainfall, usually more than 1000 mm.
3. Flue-cured Virginia and Cheroot are
the varieties of tobacco cultivated in Q97. The 'Deda Method', sometimes
India. mentioned in the news is a
How many of the above given statements (a) t r a d i t i o n a l m e t h o d o f w a t e r
are not correct? purification used in rural India.
(a) Only one (b) technique for the eco-friendly
(b) Only two preservation of seeds using natural
(c) All three materials.
(d) None (c) new biotechnological approach to soil
fertility enhancement.
Q95. In the context of the KAZA Summit 2024, (d) form of sustainable architecture using
consider the following: locally sourced materials
1. Promotion of eco-tourism
2. M a n a g e m e n t o f h e r i t a g e a n d
culturalresources
3. S o c i o - e c o n o m i c w e l l - b e i n g of Q98. Recently, Genetically Modified (GM)
the communities mosquitoes were released by which of the
How many of the above are the objectives following countries to fight against
of the KAZA Summit? malaria?
(a) Only one (a) Djibouti
(b) Only two (b) Eritrea
(c) All three (c) Sudan
(d) None (d) Egypt

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Q99. In the context of Neglected Tropical
Diseases (NTDs), consider the following
statements:
1. T h e y a r e a d i v e r s e g r o u p o f
communicable diseases and
noncommunicable diseases.
2. They are included in the Sustainable
Development Goals to end the
epidemic by 2030.
3. They can be caused by a variety of
pathogens, including viruses, bacteria,
parasites, fungi, and toxins.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Q100. Recently, government plans to relocate

tigers to the Sahyadri Tiger Reserve from
the Tadoba - Andhari Tiger Reserve. In
which of the following states is the
Sahyadri Tiger Reserve situated?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Karnataka
(d) Chhattisgarh

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
POLITY
TEST - I

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO,
GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fi ll in the Roll Number carefully without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will
render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in
some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certifi cate.
8. After you have completed fi lling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers
happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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Q1. Consider the following statements : Q3. With reference to Judge of High Court,
Statement-I : India has adopted the consider the following statements :
parliamentary form of government. Statement I : A Judge of the High Court
Statement-II : The President is the titular holds his/her office during the pleasure of
head of the state while the council of the President.
ministers headed by the Prime Minister is Statement II : A judge of a high court can
the real executive authority. be removed from his office only by an
Which one of the following is correct in order of the President.
respect of the above statements? Which one of the following is correct in
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are respect of the above statements?
correct and Statement-II is the correct (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
explanation for Statement-I correct and Statement-II is the correct
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are explanation for Statement-I
correct and Statement-II is not the (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct explanation for Statement 1 correct and Statement-II is not the
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement II correct explanation for Statement 1
is incorrect (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement II
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t b u t is incorrect
Statement-II is correct (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t b u t
Statement-II is correct

Q2. Consider the following statements: Q4. The 'recess' of a House of the Parliament is
1. A candidate contesting an election to defined as
the Rajya Sabha from a particular state (a) T h e p e r i o d s pa n n i n g b e t w e e n
should be an elector in that particular question hour and zero hours.
state. (b) The period spanning between the
2. A member of scheduled castes or prorogation of a House and its
scheduled tribes can not contest a seat reassembly in a new session.
in the Lok Sabha not reserved for (c) The period spanning between the first
them. sitting of a house and its prorogation.
3. In the Rajya Sabha seats are reserved (d) The period between a morning
for scheduled caste and scheduled sittingand post-lunch sitting of a
tribes as per the fourth schedule of the House
Indian Constitution.
Which of the statements given above are
NOT correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only

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Q5. Who among the following takes part in the Q8. Which of the following statements is
appointment of High Court Judges? correct about the Speaker of the Lok
1. President Sabha?
2. Chief Justice of India (a) He can be removed by a resolution
3. Governor of the concerned state passed by the effective majority of all
4. Chief Justice of the concerned high the members of the Parliament.
court (b) He resigns by writing to the President
5. Chief Secretary of the concerned state of India.
6. Leader of opposition in the state (c) When a resolution for his removal is
assembly under consideration of the house, he
Select the correct answer using the code can not take part in the proceedings of
given below. the house.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (d) Whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved,
(b) 1, 4 and 5 only the Speaker does not vacate his office
(c) 3, 5 and 6 only and continues till the newly-elected
(d) 2, 3, 5 and 6 only Lok Sabha meets.

Q6. Which of the following statements best

describes delegated legislation?
(a) The Rajya Sabha authorising the
Parliament to make a law on a subject
enumerated in the state list. Q9. Consider the following statements
(b) The Rajya Sabha authorising the Lok regarding parliamentary legislation in the
Sabha to create a new All India Service state list when the Rajya Sabha passes the
common to both the Centre and resolution to that effect:
states. 1. It can make law on any subject
(c) The group of states requesting enumerated in the State list when the
Parliament to make a model law on a Rajya Sabha passes the resolution with
subject enumerated in the state list. a special majority.
(d) The Parliament makes laws in a 2. The law remains in force till it is
skeleton form and authorises the repealed by an Act of the Parliament.
Executive to make detailed rules and 3. It restricts the power of the state
regulations within the framework of legislature to make laws on the same
the parent law matter.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
Q7. Which of the following suggested that the (a) 1 only
states having legislative councils should (b) 1 and 2 only
have representation from local (c) 2 and 3 only
governments? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(b) Punchhi Commission (2007)
(c) Anandpur Sahib Resolution (1973)
(d) National Commission to Review the
Working of the Constitution (2000)

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Q10. Privileges of a state legislature are Q12. "Which of the following are the
extended to which of the following? re s t r i c t i o n s o n o n t h e t e r r i t o r i a l
1. Governor jurisdiction of the Parliament?
2. Chairman of the Legislative Council 1. President can amend an act of
3. Members of the Legislative Assembly Parliament for good governance in
4. Member of Legislative Council Ladakh.
5. Advocate General of the state 2. President can direct that an act of the
Select the correct answer using the code Parliament is not applicable to a
given below. Scheduled Area.
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only 3. Governor of Assam can direct that an
(b) 3 and 4 only act of Parliament is not applicable to a
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only tribal area.
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q11. In which of the following matters can the Q13. Which among the following is not a
Governor exercise his/her constitutional feature of the election system in India?
discretion? (a) Universal adult franchise
1. Dissolution of State Legislative (b) Representation of weaker sections
Assembly if Council of Ministers has (c) Limited political competition
lost its majority (d) One vote one value
2. Recommendation for the imposition
of President's rule
3. Appointment of Chief Minister when
no party has a clear-cut majority Q14. Which of the following statements is
4. Seeking information from the Chief correct about the money bill in
Minister with regards to Parliament?
administrative matters of the state (a) The President of India certifies a bill as
Select the correct answer using the code a money bill.
given below. (b) A minister who is a member of the
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only Rajya Sabha, can not introduce a
(b) 1 and 3 only money bill in the Parliament.
(c) 2 and 4 only (c) The President can withhold his assent
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 to a money bill but can not return it for
reconsideration of the Houses.
(d) All financial bills are money bills but all
money bills are not financial bills.

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Q15. With reference to Paid News, consider Q17. With reference to high courts in India,
the following statements: consider the following:
Statement I: Publishing and abetting of 1. Delhi is the only union territory that
publishing of paid news is an electoral has a high court of its own.
offence under Section 8 of the 2. Parliament has the power to extend
Representation of Peoples Act 1951. the jurisdiction of a high court to any
Statement II: Paid news violates the right union territory.
to information of voters in a constituency. 3. C o n s t i t u t i o n h a s s p e c i fi e d t h e
Which of the following statements is strength of a high court.
correct? Which of the statements given above are
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct?
correct and Statement-II is the correct (a) 1 and 2 only
explanation for Statement-I (b) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (c) 1 and 3 only
correct and Statement-II is not the (d) 2 and 3 only
correct explanation for Statement 1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement II
is incorrect
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t b u t
Statement-II is correct

Q18. Which of the following disputes can be

considered under the original jurisdiction
of the Supreme Court?
1. Inter-state water disputes
Q16. Through which of the following ways the 2. Matters referred to the Finance
Parl i am ent can expres s a l ack of Commission
confidence in the government? 3. Ordinar y dispute of commercial
1. Passing a censure motion nature between the Centre and the
2. Passing of the Motion of Thanks states
3. Raising a point of order 4. Recovery of damages by a state
Select the correct answer using the code against the Centre
given below. Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 only given below.
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 only
(d) None of the above

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Q19. Consider the following statements about Q21. Consider the following statements with
the State Legislative Council: respect to powers and jurisdictions of a
1. It is a permanent body and not subject High Court:
to dissolution. 1. High Courts have the power to decide
2. One-third of the members are the Constitutional validity of Laws
nominated by the Governor. enacted by Parliament.
3. It does not have any role in the 2. High Courts have original jurisdiction
election of members of the Rajya over disputes relating to the election
Sabha. of members of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q20. Consider the following statements with Q22. Consider the following statements with
respect to National Legal Ser vices reference to Contempt of Court:
Authority (NALSA): 1. The expression ‘Contempt of court’
1. It was constituted under the Legal has not been defined by the
Services Authorities Act, 1987 to Constitution.
provide free legal services to the 2. A court subordinate to the High court
weaker sections of society. has no powers to initiate proceedings
2. The Chief Justice of India is the against a person for contempt of
Patronin-Chief of the NALSA. court.
3. NALSA disburses funds to NGOs for 3. Publication of matter that lowers the
implementing legal aid programs. authority of a court comes under the
Which of the statements given above are Criminal Contempt of court.
correct? Which of the statements given above are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q23. Consider the following statements with Q25. Which of the following statements about
respect to Public Interest Litigation (PIL): the Prime Minister of India is NOT correct?
1. Only the aggrieved person can file PIL (a) He advises the President with regard
in court. to summoning and proroguing of the
2. Both the Supreme Court and High sessions of the Parliament.
Court have the power to entertain a (b) He can recommend dissolution of the
Public Interest Litigation. Lok Sabha to President at any time.
3. The term 'Public Interest Litigation' is (c) He is the principal channel of
mentioned in the Constitution of communication between the
India. President and the Speaker of the Lok
Which of the statements given above Sabha.
is/are not correct? (d) He can ask a minister to resign or
(a) 3 only advise the President to dismiss him in
(b) 2 only case of difference of opinion
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q24. Which of the following statements is Q26. Which of the following statements is/are
correct in the context of the Tenth correct with reference to the Vice-
Schedule of the Indian Constitution? President of India?
(a) The provisions of Tenth Schedule are 1. A formal impeachment is not required
not applicable to the members of for his removal.
Rajya Sabha. 2. He can be removed by a resolution of
(b) A member disqualified under Tenth the Rajya Sabha passed by a majority
Schedule will not be eligible to contest of all the then members of the House
the by-elections. and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
(c) The decision of the deciding authority 3. No Ground has been mentioned in the
about disqualification under the Tenth Constitution for his removal.
Schedule is final and cannot be subject Select the correct answer using the code
to judicial review. given below.
(d) The question of disqualification under (a) 2 only
the Tenth Schedule is decided by the (b) 1 and 3 only
Presiding officer of the House. (c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 only

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Q27. Consider the following statements with Q29. Which of the following features make
reference to the Central Council of elections in India free and fair?
Ministers: 1. Universal Adult Franchise
1. A n o m i n a t e d m e m b e r c a n b e 2. I n d e p e n d e n c e o f E l e c t i o n
appointed as minister, but within six Commission
months he must become an elected 3. Use of VVPAT in the voting process.
member of either House of Select the correct answer using the code
Parliament. given below.
2. A minister who is a member of one (a) 1 and 2 only
House of Parliament has the right to (b) 1 and 3 only
speak and to take par t in the (c) 2 and 3 only
proceedings of the other House. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. The salaries and allowances of
ministers are given in the Second
Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
Which of the statements given above Q30. Which of the following circumstances
is/are correct? may lead to the resignation of the Council
(a) 1, 2 and 3 of Ministers?
(b) 1 and 3 only 1. Passage of No-Confidence Motion in
(c) 2 only Lok Sabha
(d) 1 and 2 only 2. Motion of Thanks is not passed by the
House in Lok Sabha
3. Money bill gets defeated in Lok sabha
Select the correct answer using the code
Q28. Consider the following statements with given below.
reference to double membership of the (a) 1 and 2 only
Parliament: (b) 1 and 3 only
1. A person elected to both the Houses (c) 2 and 3 only
of Parliament, must intimate within 10 (d) 1, 2 and 3
days in which House she desires to
serve or her seat in Rajya Sabha
becomes vacant.
2. A sitting member of one House if Q31. Which of the following types of bills need
elected to another House, his/her seat the prior recommendation of the
in the first House becomes vacant. president before introduction in the
3. A person elected to two seats in a Parliament?
House must exercise her option for 1. Money bill
one, otherwise, both seats become 2. Constitution Amendment bill
vacant. 3. Alteration of boundaries of State
Which of the statements given above Select the correct answer using the code
is/are correct? given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only (d) 2 only

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Q32. With respect to the appellate jurisdiction Q35. Consider the following statements with
of the Supreme Court to grant Special regard to the Estimates committee:
Leave, which of the following statement is 1. The committee was first constituted in
correct? 1950 on the recommendations of Pt.
1. It is applicable only to civil and criminal Jawahar Lal Nehru.
matters. 2. Its members are only from the Lok
2. It is a discretionary power of the Sabha.
Supreme Court. Which of the statements given above
Select the correct answer using the code is/are correct?
given below. (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q36. With regard to curative petition, consider
Q33. What happens when an elected member the following statements:
of the House does not subscribe to an 1. It is filed after the review plea against
oath? the final conviction is dismissed.
1. He can participate in the proceedings 2. It is mentioned under the Indian
of the House but not vote. constitution.
2. He is eligible to Parliamentar y 3. It is accepted only when the bench of
privileges and immunities. five senior-most judges approves it.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above
given below. is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q34. Which of the following does not lapse on Q37. Consider the following differences
the dissolution of the legislative assembly between the British and Indian
of the state? Parliamentary System:
1. A Bill pending in the council but not 1. Whereas British parliament exercises
passed by the assembly. sovereign powers with no limits, the
2. A Bill pending in the assembly whether powers of the Indian Parliament are
originating in the assembly or limited by the Constitution.
transmitted to it by the council. 2. I n d i a h a s t h e s y s t e m of l e g a l
3. A Bill passed by the legislature but responsibility of the minister while the
pending assent of the Governor or the British has no such system.
President. Which of the statements given above
Select the correct answer using the code is/are correct?
given below. (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q38. Consider the following statements: Q41. Consider the following statements with
1. The constitution of India specifies the reference to the Union Council of
detailed procedure for the removal of Ministers:
the judge of the High court and 1. A vote of confidence even against a
Supreme Court. single minister leads to the resignation
2. T h e c h a i r m a n / s p e a k e r h a s of the entire Council of Ministers.
discretionary powers with regard to 2. The Council of Ministers is collectively
admitting the removal motion of the responsible to the President
judge of high court and supreme 3. A minister who is a member of the Lok
court. sabha has the right to speak and take
Which of the statements given above part in the proceeding of the Rajya
is/are correct? Sabha but without being entitled to
(a) 1 only vote.
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above are
(c) Both 1 and 2 correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
Q39. Who among the following can be (c) 2 and 3 only
considered as the permanent executive in (d) 1, 2 and 3
India?
1. The Attorney General
2. The Finance Secretary
3. The Prime Minister
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 Q42. Consider the following statements
(b) 2 only regarding the office of the Prime Minister:
(c) 2 and 3 only 1. A person should prove his majority in
(d) 1 and 3 only the lok sabha before his appointment
as the Prime Minister
Q40. Consider the following with regard to 2. Prime Minister holds office during the
constitution of collegium system: pleasure of the President
1. It was introduced in the Second judges Which of the statements given above
case in 1993. is/are correct?
2. The third judges case expanded it to a (a) 1 only
5 member body including the Chief (b) 2 only
Justice of India. (c) Both 1 and 2
3. It has an official secretariat which (d) Neither 1 nor 2
prescribes the selection criteria.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 only

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Q43. Which of the following is/are Q45. Consider the following statements:
qualifications required for a person to be 1. It functions directly under the Prime
elected as a member of State Legislative Minister.
council? 2. It is responsible for the administration
1. He must be a citizen of India. of the Allocation of Business Rules,
2. He must not be less than twenty-five 1961.
years of age. 3. I t e n s u r e s i n t e r - m i n i s t e r i a l
3. He must be an elector for an assembly coordination.
constituency in the concerned state. The above statements describe which of
Select the correct answer using the code the following offices?
given below. (a) Cabinet Secretariat
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Office of the Chief Secretary
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) Prime Minister's Office
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Niti Aayog
(d) 3 only
Q46. With reference to the Joint sitting of
parliament consider the following
statements:
1. Joint sittings are not applicable to
money bills or Constitutional
amendment bills.
2. If the Lok Sabha speaker is absent then
the chairman of the Rajya Sabha can
Q44. Consider the following statements preside over a joint sitting.
1. The President or the Governor is not Which of the statements given above
answerable to any Court for the is/are correct?
exercise and performance of the (a) 1 only
powers and duties of his office under (b) 2 only
the Constitution. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. No criminal proceedings can be (d) Neither 1 nor 2
instituted against the Governor during
his term of office. Q47. Consider the following statements with
3. Civil proceedings can be initiated regard to ‘Whip’ in India:
against the President for the acts done 1. Only a national-level party whether
in his personal capacity after giving ruling or Opposition has its own whip
two months notice. in Parliament.
Which of the statements given above 2. Office of the Whip of the national-level
is/are correct? party is appointed by the speaker of
(a) 1 only Loksabha.
(b) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above
(c) 1 and 2 only is/are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q48. With reference to the Leader of the Q50. Statement-I : The term "Whip" in the
Opposition (LOP) in the Rajya Sabha, context of the Indian Parliament refers to a
which of the following statements is/are person responsible for maintaining
not correct? discipline within a political party.
1. He should be the senior-most member Statement-II : The concept of Whip is
of his party in Rajya Sabha. mentioned in the Constitution of India.
2. He should be the leader of the largest Which one of the following is correct
opposition party in Rajya Sabha. inrespect of the above statements?
3. He should be recognized by the (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. correct and Statement-II is the correct
Select the correct answer using the code explanation for Statement-I
given below. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(a) 1 only correct and Statement-II is not the
(b) 2 and 3 only correct explanation for Statement 1
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement II
(d) 1 and 3 only is incorrect
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t b u t
Statement-II is correct

Q49. Consider the following statements Q51. With reference to the Rajya Sabha
regarding the Chief Minister (CM): elections, consider the following
1. He can recommend the dissolution of statements:
the legislative assembly to the 1. None of the Above (NOTA) option is
governor at any time. available in the Rajya Sabha elections.
2. He acts as chairman of the concerned 2. Anti-defection law is applicable on
zonal council by rotation members while casting votes in the
3. He can ask a minister to resign or Rajya Sabha elections.
advise the governor to dismiss him in 3. The voting in the election of Rajya
case of a difference of opinion. Sabha is done by open ballot.
4. He is a member of the Governing Which of the statements given above are
Council of NITI Aayog not correct?
Which of the statements given above are (a) 1 and 2 only
correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Q52. Consider the following statements with Q55. Consider the following statements :
regard to the Committee on Public Statement I : The Supreme Court
Undertakings: enjoyoriginal but not exclusive
1. It consists of 30 members. jurisdiction over River Water disputes
2. The chairman must be from Lok between two or more states.
Sabha. Statement II : The constitution empowers
3. T h e y e x a m i n e t h e r e p o r t s o f the Parliament to legislate for the
Comptroller and Auditor General in adjudication of river water disputes.
the context of the autonomy and Which one of the following is correct in
efficiency of the public undertakings. respect of the above statements?
Which of the statements given above (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
is/are correct? correct and Statement-II is the correct
(a) 2 and 3 only explanation for Statement-I
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(c) 1, 2 and 3 correct and Statement-II is not the
(d) 1 and 2 only correct explanation for Statement 1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement II
is incorrect
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t b u t
Q53. Which of the following is/are limitations Statement-II is correct
on the powers of the Parliament in India?
1. Written Constitution
2. Federal System
3. Fundamental Rights
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only Q56. Who can be appointed as a Judge of the
(c) 2 and 3 only Supreme Court?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) An advocate who has practised for at
least ten years in any court
(b) A Judge of a High Court for at least
three years
Q54. Which of the following is/are the (c) A distinguished jurist in the opinion of
essential features of a Constitutionalism? the President of India
1. Limited Governance (d) A person who has held a judicial office
2. Universal Adult Franchise for at least fifteen years
3. Monarch as the formal head of the
State
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only
( b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) None

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Q57. Which of the following statements is/are Q59. Consider the following statements:
correct with reference to Ordinance 1. The word Cabinet is no where
making power of the President? mentioned in the Constitution.
1. The President can promulgate an 2. Union Cabinet is the supreme
ordinance even when one House is in e xe c u t i ve a u t h o r i t y of C e n t r a l
session. government.
2. The decision of the President to issue 3. The decisions of the Union Cabinet are
an ordinance cannot be questioned in binding on the Council of Ministers.
any Court. Which of the statements given above are
3. Ordinance power of the President correct?
cannot be used to amend the (a) 1 and 2 only
Constitution. (b) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code (c) 1 and 3 only
given below. (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Q58. Which of the following statements Q60. The Constitution empowers the
regarding Judicial activism in India is/are Parliament to make laws on any matter
correct? enumerated in the State List under which
1. It is defined in the constitution of of the following circumstances?
India. 1. While a proclamation of national
2. It has strengthened the doctrine of emergency is in operation.
separation of powers. 2. When a President’s rule is imposed in a
3. I t h a s e n f o r c e d e x e c u t i v e state.
responsibility. 3. For implementing the international
Select the correct answer using the code treaties, agreements or conventions
given below. 4. When a State Legislature passes
(a) 1 only resolutions requesting the Parliament
(b) 3 only to enact laws on a matter in the State
(c) 1 and 2 only List.
(d) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Q61. Which of the following is/are correct with Q63. Which of the following statements is/are
reference to the Secretary-General of correct about the “Office of Profit ?
Rajya Sabha? 1. The power to disqualify an MLA or an
1. He/she is appointed by the Chairman MP based on the office of profit lies
of Rajya Sabha. with the Election Commission of India.
2. He/she is the custodian of the records 2. It is defined in the Parliament
of the House. (Prevention of Disqualification) Act,
Select the correct answer using the code 1959.
given below. 3. It seeks to enforce the principle of
(a) 1 only separation of power between the
(b) 2 only legislature and the executive.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the code
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Q62. Which of the following powers enjoyed Q64. The Oath or Affirmations of which of the
by the Chief Justice of India are mentioned following office bearers are mentioned in
in the Indian Constitution? the Third Schedule of Indian
1. Appoint other place or places as the Constitution?
seat of the Supreme Court. 1. President of India
2. Appointment of ad hoc judge in 2. Vice-President of India
Supreme Court. 3. Speaker of Lok Sabha
3. Assignment of cases to judges of 4. Union Minister of State
Supreme Court. 5. Member of Parliament
Select the correct answer using the code 6. Comptroller and Auditor General of
given below. India
(a) 1 and 2 only 7. Judges of the Supreme Court and
(b) 2 and 3 only High Court
(c) 1 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 1, 2 and 3 given below.
(a) 1, 2, 5, 6 and 7 only
(b) 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 4, 5, 6 and 7 only

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Q65. In the context of the functioning of the Q68. Consider the following statements with
Parliament of India, which of the following regard to the creation or abolition of
has/have not provided in the legislative councils in a state:
Constitution? 1. An amendment has to be moved in the
1. Question hour Parliament under Article 368 of the
2. Selection of Lok Sabha Speaker Constitution of India.
3. Joint Sitting 2. Legislative assembly of the concerned
Select the correct answer using the code state passes a resolution by a simple
given below. majority to that effect.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above
(b) 1 and 3 only is/are not correct?
(c) 2 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q66. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding the Speaker of Lok
Sabha?
1. He is the head of the Lower House of
Parliament. Q69. The President may exercise discretionary
2. He lays down the guidelines to powers:
recognize the Leader of Opposition in 1. To appoint the successor when the
Lok Sabha. Prime Minister in office dies suddenly.
3. He is the chairman of the budget 2. If he/she is not convinced with the
committee that approves the budget advice of the Council of Ministers.
proposals of the secretariat. Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
given below. (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1 only

Q67. Which of the following are the features of

a Republic? Q70. Which of the following refers to the
1. Elected head of the State termination of a session of a House of
2. People are sovereign Parliament?
3. Abolition of all privileged class (a) Adjournment
Select the correct answer using the code (b) Adjournment sine die
given below. (c) Prorogation
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Dissolution
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q71. With reference to the Impeachment Q73. Who among the following takes part in
procedure of the President of India and the election of the Rajya Sabha
the USA, consider the following members?
statements: 1. E l e c te d M e m b e r s of t h e St a te
1. W h i l e t h e g r o u n d f o r t h e Legislative Assembly
impeachment of the Indian President 2. Nominated Members of the State
is the Violation of the Constitution, for Legislative Assembly
the President of the USA there are no 3. Elected Members of the Legislative
specific grounds. Council of the States
2. O n l y t h e L o w e r H o u s e of t h e 4. Elected Members of the Union
Legislature can initiate the process for Territories of Delhi and Puducherry
the impeachment of the President of Select the correct answer using the code
India as well as the USA. given below.
Which of the statements given above (a) 1 and 2 only
is/are correct? (b) 1 and 4 only
(a) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 3 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q72. With reference to the jurisdiction and Q74. In India, which of the following
powers of the Supreme Court, consider provisions is not in line with idea of
the following statements: 'separation of powers'?
1. P a r l i a m e n t c a n i n c r e a s e t h e (a) Judicial conduct of a Judge cannot be
jurisdiction and powers of the discussed in parliament.
Supreme Court with respect to any of (b) Validity of proceedings in Parliament
the matters in the Union List. and the legislatures cannot be called
2. P a r l i a m e n t c a n d i m i n i s h t h e into question in any court.
jurisdiction and powers of the (c) Power of Supreme Court to pass such
Supreme Court when a national decree or make such order as is
emergency is in operation. necessary for doing complete justice
Which of the above statements is/are in any cause or matter pending before
correct? it.
(a) 1 only (d) President or the Governor shall not be
(b) 2 only answerable to any court for the
(c) Both 1 and 2 exercise and performance of the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 powers and duties of his office.

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Q75. In the context of the President's address Q77. Supreme Court of India has defined the
in the Parliament, consider the following term 'constitutional morality in its various
statements: judgments. In this context, which of the
1. The Constitution of provides that at following are elements of 'constitutional
the commencement of the first morality?
session after each general election to 1. Rule of law
the House of the People, the President 2. Individual freedom
s h a l l a d d r e s s b o t h H o u s e s of 3. Social Justice
Parliament assembled together. Select the correct answer using the code
2. Discussion on the content of such given below.
address made by the President is not (a) 1 and 2 only
allowed. (b) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above (c) 2 and 3 only
is/are correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q76. With reference to nominated members of Q78. The Representation of the People Act,
the Rajya Sabha, consider the following 1950, provides for which of the following?
statements: 1. Delimitation of constituencies for
1. If a nominated member joins a election.
political party within six months from 2. Appointment of the Observers during
the date on which he takes his seat in the conduct of general elections.
the House, he is disqualified from the 3. Preparation of the electoral roles for
membership of the House on the the Assembly and the Council
grounds of antidefection. constituencies.
2. So far, no nominated member has Select the correct answer using the code
joined any political party in the House. given below:
Which of the above statements is/are (a) 1 and 3 only
correct? (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q79. With respect to the “Money Bill”, consider Q81. Consider the following statements
the following statements: about the Delimitation Commission:
1. The decision of the Speaker of the Lok 1. It is a three-member constitutional
Sabha, in this regard, cannot be body.
questioned in any court of law. 2. The Chief Election Commissioner of
2. It can be introduced either by a India is the Chairperson of the
Minister or by a private member, but commission.
can only be introduced in the Lok 3. It has all the powers of a civil court
Sabha. under the Code of Civil Procedure,
3. The Lok Sabha can either accept or 1908.
reject all or any of the Which of the statements given above
recommendations of the Rajya Sabha. is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above (a) 1 and 2 only
is/are correct? (b) 3 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q80. Which of the following statements is NOT Q82. With reference to the question hour in
correct? the Parliament, consider the following
(a) The scope of judicial review power of statements:
the Supreme Court in India is narrower 1. During the question hour, the
than that of what exists in the US. Government policies in national as
(b) The parliamentary system is based on well as international spheres come
the principle of cooperation and into sharp focus by the members.
coordination between the legislative 2. It has been suspended only once since
and executive organs. Indian independence.
(c) The Indian Constitution establishes a 3. Public galleries and the press galleries
judicial system that is integrated as are closed during question hour.
well as independent. Which of the statements given above
(d) The Constitution of India contains only is/are correct?
t h e f u n d a m e n t a l p r i n c i p l e s of (a) 1 only
governance. (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q83. Which of the following are the functions Q85. Which of the following are the essential
of the Department-Related Standing features of the Parliamentary System of
Committees (DRSCs)? Government?
1. They consider the national basic long 1. Political homogeneity
term policy documents presented to 2. Elected Head of the State
the Houses. 3. The ministers are members of both the
2. They consider and report on the legislature and the executive (double
demands for grants of the related membership)
Ministries/ Departments. Select the correct answer using the code
3. T h e y e x a m i n e b i l l s r e l a t e d t o given below.
respective ministries and (a) 1 and 2 only
departments. (b) 2 and 3 only
4. They consider matters of day-to-day (c) 1 and 3 only
administration of the related (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ministries/ Departments.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only Q86. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha derives
(b) 2 and 4 only his/her powers and duties from:
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1. The Constitution of India
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only 2. The Rules of Procedure and Conduct
of Business of Lok Sabha
3. Parliamentary Conventions
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Q84. Which of the following group of states (c) 2 and 3 only
comes under the Sixth Schedule of the (d) 1, 2 and 3
Constitution of India?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya,
Tripura and Mizoram Q87. Consider the following statements with
(b) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and respect to Vote of Credit:
Manipur 1. I t i s g r a n t e d f o r m e e t i n g a n
(c) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and u n e x p e c te d d e m a n d u p o n t h e
Mizoram resources of India.
(d) Assam, Manipur, Tripura and Mizoram 2. It is an extraordinary grant and the
details of the demand are not
ordinarily given in a budget.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q88. With respect to Lok Adalats, consider the Q90. The Global Cooperation Barometer
following statements: report is released by which of the
1. It has been given statutory status following organization?
under the Legal Services Authorities (a) World Economic Forum (WEF)
Act, 1987. (b) U n i t e d N a t i o n s D e v e l o p m e n t
2. The award by the Lok Adalat is not Programme (UNDP)
binding and it is appealable. (c) World Trade Organization (WTO)
3. There is no strict application of (d) United Nations World Tourism
p ro c e d u r a l l a w s l i ke t h e C i v i l Organization (UNWTO)
Procedure Code and the Evidence Act
while assessing the claim by Lok
Adalat.
Which of the statements given above are
correct? Q91. The term ‘Sora’ often seen in the news is
(a) 1 and 3 only related to which of the following?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) Humanoid robot
(c) 1 and 2 only (b) Artificial Intelligence
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Brain Organoids
(d) Cyber security

Q92. Consider the following:

1. She was the first female teacher in
India.
Q89. Which of the following statements 2. S h e f o u n d e d t h e S o c i e t y f o r
regarding the Union Cabinet Committees Promoting the Education of Mahars,
is/are correct? Mangs, and others from downtrodden
1. The decisions made by them are castes.
binding on the Cabinet. 3. She organized a barbers' strike against
2. Their members are drawn only from the practice of shaving widows' heads.
the cabinet ministers. 4. H e r r e n o w n e d p o e m ' G o G e t
Select the correct answer using the code Education' encouraged backward and
given below. oppressed classes to pursue
(a) 1 only education.
(b) 2 only The above description is about which of
(c) Both 1 and 2 the following Indian social reformer?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Savitribai Phule
(b) Pandita Ramabai
(c) Tarabai Shinde
(d) Swarnakumari Devi

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Q93. Consider the following cities Q96. Consider the following pairs:
1. Gwalior
2. Jaipur Ramsar State River
3. Ahmedabad Sites /Location
4. Kolkata
5. Kozhikode 1. Nakti Bihar Kosi
How many of the above-mentioned cities Bird
from India are part of UNESCO’s Creative Sanctuary
Cities Network?
(a) Only two 2. Chandra Tripura Feni
(b) Only three Taal
(c) Only four
(d) All five 3. Bhindawas Haryana Sahibi
Wildlife
Sanctuary
Q94. Recently, India has formed an alliance for
the Development of Green Fuels with How many of the pairs given above is/are
which of the following country? correctly matched?
(a) Australia (a) Only one
(b) France (b) Only two
(c) Denmark (c) All three
(d) United States (d) None

Q 9 5 . W i t h re f e re n c e to Wo r l d Tr a d e Q97. Which of the following is the objective of

Organization, consider the following ‘Mission Utkarsh’, launched by the central
statements: government recently?
1. The ministerial conference is the (a) To ensure the availability of coal to all
topmost decision-making body which the thermal power plants in India in a
usually meets annually upon transparent manner.
consensus of members. (b) To create awareness relating to
2. At meetings of the Ministerial malnutrition among pregnant women
Conference, each member of the and lactating mothers.
World Trade organization shall have (c) To promote the consumption of
one vote. millets, coarse cereals and unpolished
3. Re c e n t l y, t h e 1 3 t h M i n i s t e r i a l rice.
Conference was held in Abu Dhabi, (d) To improve the nutrition levels and
United Arab Emirates. combat anaemia in the adolescent
Which of the statements given above girls by using Ayurveda
is/are INCORRECT?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None

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Q98. Consider the following pairs: Q100. With reference to PM Suryodaya Yojana,
consider the following statements:
Rebel groups Region 1. Its aims to equip one crore businesses
in news with rooftop solar panels to provide
electricity from solar energy.
1. Houthis Yemen 2. The scheme will lead to reduction in
the consumption of grid-connected
2. Al- Somalia electricity and save bills for
Shabaab consumers.
Which of the statements given above
3. Kurds Turkey is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
How many of the above pair(s) is/are (b) 2 only
correctly matched? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Only one pair (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the above pairs

Q99. “It is a mirror optical and infrared

telescope that aims to enable
observations into deep space. It is
proposed as a joint collaboration
involving institutions in the U.S., Japan,
China, Canada, and India. Once
completed, it will be the world’s most
advanced and capable ground-based
optical, near-infrared, and mid-infrared
observatory”. The above statements
describe the characteristics of which of the
following?
(a) Thirty metre telescope
(b) James webb space telescope
(c) Hubble space telescope
(d) Square Kilometer Array Observatory

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 | Navigator | Polity Test - II

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
POLITY
TEST - II

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO,
GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fi ll in the Roll Number carefully without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will
render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in
some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certifi cate.
8. After you have completed fi lling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers
happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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 | Navigator | Polity Test - II
Q1. Consider the following statements: Q4. With reference to the District planning
1. Only an aggrieved person can seek a committee (DPCs), which of the following
Quo-Warranto writ. statement is not correct?
2. Mandamus cannot be issued against a (a) Each state shall constitute a district
private individual. planning committee at district level.
3. Certiorari can be issued even against (b) Four- fifths of the members of a district
administrative authorities. planning committee should be
Which of the statements given above elected.
is/are correct? (c) T h e re p re s e n t a t i o n of e l e c t e d
(a) 2 only members in the committee should be
(b) 1 and 3 only in proportion to the ratio between the
(c) 2 and 3 only rural and urban populations in the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 district.
(d) Constitution provides the manner of
the election of the chairpersons of
Q2. Consider the following statements such Committees
regarding Zonal Councils:
1. Zonal Councils are statutory bodies
established by an act of the
Parliament.
2. There is a separate Zonal Council for
all the Union territories combined
together. Q5. 73rd constitutional amendment act has
Which of the statements given above identified separately the compulsory and
is/are correct? voluntary provisions under part IX of the
(a) 1 only constitution. Which of the following is/are
(b) 2 only of compulsory provisions?
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. Organisation of Gram Sabha in a
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 village or group of villages.
2. Indirect elections to the post of
chairperson of panchayats at the
Q3. Consider the following statements about intermediate and district levels.
the office of the Deputy Chairman of the 3. Constitution of a State Finance
Rajya Sabha: Commission after every five years.
1. He is selected and appointed by the Select the correct answer using the code
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. given below.
2. He is subordinate to the Chairman of (a) 1 only
Rajya Sabha. (b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above (c) 1, 2 and 3
is/are correct? (d) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q6. Which of the statements with regard to Q8. With reference to a bill seeking
Adhoc judges of the Supreme Court is/are amendments to the federal provisions of
correct? the Constitution, consider the following
1. They are appointed by the Chief statements:
Justice of India with the previous 1. The bill can be introduced without
consent of the President. prior permission of the president.
2. They are appointed when there is lack 2. It must also be ratified by the
of quorum of the permanent judges to legislatures of half of the states by a
hold or continue any session of the simple majority
Supreme Court. 3. The president must give his assent to
3. It is their duty to attend the sittings of the bill.
the Supreme Court, in priority to other Which of the statements given above
duties of his office. is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 and 2 only
given below. (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q7. Consider the following statements with Q9. Consider the following statements
respect to National Legal Ser vices regarding the nature of the Indian
Authority (NALSA): Federation:
1. It was constituted under the Legal 1. The Indian federal system is based on
Services Authorities Act, 1987 to the American model of the federation.
provide free legal services to the 2. Unlike the American federation, the
weaker sections of society. Indian federation is the result of an
2. The Chief Justice of India is the agreement among the states.
Patronin-Chief of the NALSA. 3. The states have no right to secede
3. NALSA disburses funds to NGOs for from the Indian federation.
implementing legal aid programs. Which of the statements given above
Which of the statements given above are is/are correct?
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

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Q10. Which of the following constitutional Q12. Consider the following statements with
provisions reveal the asymmetric federal reference to the powers of the Parliament:
character of the Indian State? 1. It can punish persons, including its
1. Imposition of President’s Rule under members, for breach of privilege or
Article 356 contempt of the House.
2. Division of Power under Schedule VII 2. It can recommend for the removal of
3. Creation of Autonomous Districts the Comptroller and Auditor General
Councils under Schedule VI to the President.
4. Representation of the states under 3. It can entirely exclude judicial review
Schedule IV of legislations by placing them under
Select the correct answer using the code the ninth schedule.
given below. Which of the statements given above are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?
(b) 3 and 4 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q11. Consider the following statements Q13. Consider the following statements
regarding the Panchayats (Extension to regarding Quorum in the parliament:
the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996: 1. It is fixed at 20% by the rules of
1. It extended the provisions related to procedure of the respective houses.
panchayats to the tribal and scheduled 2. It can be amended by the Parliament
areas covered by the 5th and 6th by a simple majority.
schedules. 3. It includes the presiding officer of the
2. It aims to safeguard and preserve the House.
customs and traditions of the tribal Which of the statements given above
communities. is/are correct?
3. Its objective is to provide self-rule for (a) 1 and 2 only
the bulk of the tribal population. (b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above (c) 3 only
is/are not correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q14. Article 253 of the Indian constitution Q16. Which of the following statements is/are
provides for the establishment of Inter correct with regards to the Panchayats?
state council. Which of the following is not 1. Elections to constitute panchayat shall
a member of the Inter-State Council? be completed before the expiry of its
1. Prime Minister duration of 5 years.
2. Chief Ministers 2. In case of premature dissolution new
3. Lt. Governors of Union Territories panchayat remains in the office only
having a Legislative Assembly for the remaining period.
Select the correct answer using the code 3. It shall not be necessary to hold
given below. elections if the remaining period for
(a) 1 and 2 only dissolved panchayat is less than 6
(b) 2 and 3 only months.
(c) 3 only Select the correct answer using the code
(d) None given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q15. Consider the following statements about Q17. Consider the following statements
the Central Council of Ministers: regarding laws made under the 73rd
1. The Constitution does not classify Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992:
categories of the council of Ministers. 1. Parliament may by law extend the
2. The total number of ministers, provisions of this act to the Tribal
including the Prime Minister, in the areas.
Council of Ministers, shall not exceed 2. Such laws shall not be deemed to be a
15% of the total strength of the constitutional amendment under
Parliament. article 368.
Which of the statements given above Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q18. Consider the following statements with Q20. Consider the following statements
respect to the ordinance making power of regarding Inter-State River Water
the President: Disputes:
1. The President cannot issue an Statement I : The Supreme Court does
ordinance if either of the two Houses not enjoy original jurisdiction over River
of Parliament is not in session. Water disputes between two or more
2. The ordinance making power of the states.
President is a parallel power of Statement II : The constitution empowers
legislation that of the Parliament. the Parliament to legislate for the
3. The ordinance making power of the adjudication of river water disputes.
President is beyond judicial review. Which one of the following is correct in
4. The ordinance making power of the respect of the above statements?
President is a discretionary power. (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
5. The ordinance promulgated by the correct and Statement II is the correct
President cannot be retrospective in explanation for Statement I
nature. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
How many of the statement(s) given correct but Statement- II is not the
above is/are INCORRECT? correct explanation for Statement I
(a) Only two (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II
(b) Only three is incorrect
(c) Only four (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement
(d) All five II is correct

Q19. Consider the following statements Q21. With regard to curative petition, consider
regarding the term Floor Test. the following statements:
1. It is a term used for the test of the 1. It is filed after the review plea
majority in the House of Parliament or against the final conviction is
State Legislature. dismissed.
2. It is compulsory to Members of the 2. It is mentioned under the Indian
house to take part and vote in floor constitution.
test. 3. It is accepted only when the five judge
Select the correct answer code: bench of senior-most judges approve
(a) 1 only it.
(b) 2 only How many of the statement(s) given
(c) Both 1 and 2 above is/are correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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Q22. It is set up for the administration of a Q25. With reference to the effects of a National
small town. It is a semi-municipal Emergency, consider the following
authority and is entrusted with a limited statements:
number of civic functions. It is created by a 1. State governments are suspended and
separate act of a state legislature. Its the center becomes empowered to
composition, functions and other matters execute on any matter.
are governed by the act. It may be wholly 2. The life of Lok Sabha may be extended
elected or wholly nominated by the state beyond its normal term.
government or partly elected and partly Which of the statements given above
nominated. The above description refers is/are correct?
to which of the following types of urban (a) 1 only
local bodies? (b) 2 only
(a) Notified Area Committee (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Town Area Committee (d) Neither 1 nor 2
© Township
(d) None

Q23. With reference to the North-Eastern

Council (NEC), which of the following
statements is/ are correct?
1. It comprises both Governors and Chief
Ministers of all North Eastern States as
its members. Q26. Consider the following statements in
2. The Union Minister of Home Affairs is relation to the Rajya Sabha:
the Vice Chairman of NEC. 1. It is a permanent body where one-
Select the correct answer given below: third of its members retire every
(a) 1 only second year.
(b) 2 only 2. The Constitution has fixed the term of
(c) Both 1 and 2 office of the members of the Rajya
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Sabha to six years.
3. The retiring members are eligible for
Q24. Considers the following statement with reelection and renomination any
reference to Cantonment board: number of times.
1. It is set up as a statutory body. Which of the statements given above are
2. It consists of partly elected and partly correct?
nominated members (a) 1 and 3 only
3. T h e e x e c u t i v e o f fi c e r o f t h e (b) 2 and 3 only
cantonment board is appointed by the (c) 1, 2 and 3
Governor of the concerned state. (d) 1 and 2 only
How many of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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Q27. Consider the following statements Q29. In the context of the National Human
regarding 'Money Bill' in the State Rights Commission (NHRC), consider the
Legislature: following statements:
1. A money bill can be introduced in the 1. The recommendations of NHRC are
legislature only af ter the prior binding on the concerned
recommendation of governor. government or authority.
2. When a money bill is reserved for the 2. T h e C h a i rm a n of t h e N a t i o n a l
consideration of the President, he Commission for Women is an ex-
cannot return the bill for officio member of the NHRC.
reconsideration, he may either give his 3. It cannot inquire into a matter of
assent or withhold his assent to the violation of human rights after the
bill. expiry of one year from its occurrence.
Which of the statements given above Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 2 only

Q28. Consider the following statements about Q30. Consider the following statements with
the Prime Minister of India: respect to the Special Officer for Linguistic
1. He holds office during the pleasure of Minorities:
the President. 1. The original constitution did not make
2. His salary and allowances are charged any provision with respect to the
on the Consolidated Fund of India. Special Officer for Linguistic
3. H i s r e s i g n a t i o n a u t o m a t i c a l l y Minorities.
dissolves the council of ministers. 2. At the central level, the Commissioner
Which of the statements given above are falls under the Ministry of Home
correct? Affairs.
(a) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above
(b) 2 and 3 only is/are correct?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 only
(d) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q31. Which of the following statements is Q33. With reference to the Central Vigilance
correct about the official language of the Commission, consider the following
States? statements:
(a) The Constitution specifies official 1. It is not mandated to investigate on its
languages of different states. own and gets it done by the Central
(b) Only languages mentioned in the Bureau of Investigation.
Eighth Schedule of the Constitution 2. After retirement the Chairperson of
can be adopted as official language of the CVC is not eligible for further
a state. employment under a State
(c) A State having more than one official government.
language, must recognise English as 3. It works under the aegis of the
well. Ministry of Home Affairs.
(d) The President can direct State Which of the statements given above
Government for officially recognising is/are correct?
a language, if that language speaking (a) 1 and 2 only
population of the state demand for its (b) 2 and 3 only
Recognition. (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 only

Q32. Election Commission has been Q34. With reference to the National
functioning as a multi-member body Commission for Women, consider the
consisting of three election following statements:
commissioners. In this context, consider 1. The National Commission for Women
the following statements: is a statutory body.
1. The Chief Election Commissioner has a 2. The Minister of Women and Child
casting vote in case of any deadlock d e v e l o p m e n t i s t h e e x - of fi c i o
a m o n g s t t h e m e m b e r s of t h e chairperson of the commission.
Commission. 3. The commission has the power to
2. Regional Commissioners are removed penalize an individual as a Civil Court
from office on the recommendation of under the Code of Civil Procedure.
the Chief Election Commissioner. Which of the statements given above
3. All Election commissioners of the is/are correct?
Commission are appointed by the (a) 2 only
President. (b) 1 only
Which of the statements given above (c) 2 and 3 only
is/are correct? (d) 1 and 3 only
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

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Q35. Which of the following actions fall within Q37. Which of the following subjects are
the jurisdiction of the Comptroller and mentioned in the concurrent list of the
Auditor General of India (CAG)? seventh schedule of the Indian
1. Ascertains and certifies the net Constitution?
proceeds of any tax or duty 1. Markets and Fairs
2. Issue money from the consolidated 2. Agriculture
fund to various departments 3. Inter-Stage Trade and Commerce
3. Approve the withdrawal of money by 4. Bankruptcy and Insolvency
t h e e xe c u t i ve f ro m t h e p u b l i c 5. Protection of wild animals and birds
exchequer Select the correct answer from the code
Select the correct answer using the code givern below :
given below. (a) 1, 3 and 5 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (c) 4 and 5 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
(d) 2 and 3 only

Q36. Which of the following statements is Q38. Consider the following statements with
correct with respect to the Advocate reference to the Central Administrative
General of the State? Tribunal (CAT):
(a) Advocate General must be a person 1. It exercises original jurisdiction in
who is qualified to be appointed a relation to recruitment and all service
judge of the Supreme Court. matters of public servants.
(b) The procedure and grounds for his 2. The members of the defence forces,
re m oval are m e nti o ned i n the officers and servants of the Supreme
constitution. Court and the secretarial staff of the
(c) The term of office of the Advocate Parliament are not covered by it.
General is not fixed by the 3. It is not bound by the procedure laid
Constitution. down in the Civil Procedure Code.
(d) Advocate General may quit office by Which of the statements given above
submitting the resignation to the is/are correct?
President. (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

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Q39. Consider the following statements: Q42. Consider the following statements :
1. The President can transfer a judge 1. Currently there are 25 High Courts in
from one high court to another after India.
consulting the Chief Ministers of the 2. President determines the strength of a
respective states. high court from time to time.
2. The transfer of judges from one high 3. A High Court judge holds office until
court to another is not subject to he attains the age of 65 years.
judicial review. Which of the statements given above
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
is/are correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q40. Insertion of Part IX paves the way for Q43. Consider the following statements:
democratic decentralisation by providing 1. Part XI of the Constitution deals with
Panchayati Raj Institutions. In this context, the relations between Union and
which of the following is/are considered States.
to be novel features of Panchayati Raj 2. The word federation is not mentioned
Institutions? anywhere in the constitution.
1. Political accountability of state 3. Under the Seventh Schedule, the state
executive list has more items than the
2. Devolution of taxation powers at the concurrent list.
local level by the Parliament Which of the statements given above
3. Reservation to women is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 only
given below. (b) 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only

Q41. Consider the following statements: Q44. Which of the following are principles of
1. A law on a concurrent subject, though Natural Justice?
enacted by the Parliament, is to be 1. No one should be made a judge in his
executed by the states. own cause.
2. A single state cannot request the 2. No one should be condemned
Parliament to make a law on a state unheard.
subject. Which of the statements given above
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
is/are correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q45. Which of the following statements is/are Q47. The National Legal Services Authority
correct regarding Finance Commission? (NALSA) provides for free Legal Services
1. The qualifications of its members are to the weaker sections of the society.
mentioned in the Constitution. Which of the following can be intended
2. It has all the powers of a civil court beneficiaries for free legal services?
under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1. A woman from Scheduled Caste
1908. 2. A child
3. Its members hold office for five years 3. A woman having annual income of
and are not eligible for more than 5 lakhs
reappointment. 4. A victim of industrial disaster
Select the correct answer using the code 5. A victim of ethnic violence
given below. 6. A disabled person
(a) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 only given below.
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
(d) 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 4 and 5 only
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Q46. With reference to the Parliament of Q48. With reference to the sessions of the
India,'Rule of Lapse' refers to Parliament in India, consider the following
(a) adjournment of the house by the statements:
presiding officer due to lack of 1. The Parliament must convene at least
quorum. two sessions in a year.
(b) a condition when a bill pending in Lok 2. A Parliamentar y session can be
Sabha lapses due to dissolution of the stretched or delayed to accommodate
Lok Sabha. political and legislative exigencies.
(c) dissolution of Lok Sabha due to Which of the statements given above
passage of No-Confidence Motion. is/are correct?
(d) returning of unspent granted money (a) 1 only
to the Consolidated Fund of India at (b) 2 only
the end of financial year. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q49. With respect to the "Estimates Q52. Why India is described as a ‘Union of
Committee", consider the following States’ rather than a ‘Federation of
statements: States’?
1. A Minister cannot be elected as a 1. The Indian federation is the result of
member of the Committee. an agreement among the states.
2. Its recommendations are advisory and 2. States have no right to secede from
not binding on the Ministries. the federation.
Which of the statements given above Select the correct answer using the code
is/are correct? given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q53. Consider the following statements about

Q50. Which of the following statements is/are the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI):
correct about the Gram Nyayalayas? 1. It deals only with cases of corruption
1. The Gram Nyayalayas shall try only and economic offenses.
civil cases. 2. The CBI's functioning is superintended
2. There shall be no appeal on a decision by the Central Vigilance Commission
by the Gram Nyayalaya. when the offenses being investigated
Select the correct answer using the code come under the Prevention of
given below: Corruption Act, 1988.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above
(b) 2 only is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q51. The Vote on Account in the Indian

Parliamentary Proceedings refers to which Q54. The maximum seats in the Lok Sabha are
of the following? 552. However, there are a total of 545
(a) Vo t i n g o n t h e C o n s t i t u t i o n a l members. If only 300 members are
Amendment Acts that require the present at the time of voting, then a
consent of the states. constitutional amendment bill under
(b) Voting during the Joint Sittings. Article 368 must be supported by a
(c) Voting on the Appropriation Bill minimum of:
during the Budget. (a) 273 members
(d) Grant made by the Lok Sabha in (b) 200 members
advance in respect to the estimated (c) 276 members
expenditure for a part of the financial (d) 368 members
Year.

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Q55. Which of the following can be identified Q58. Which of the following statements in the
as the major objectives of NITI Aayog? context of the National Commission for
1. Fostering cooperative federalism Backward Classes (NCBC) is not correct?
2. Acting as a platform for the resolution (a) The NCBC has been conferred a
of inter-departmental issues. constitutional status.
3. I n t e g r a t i n g v i l l a g e s i n t o (b) I t i n v e s t i g a t e s t h e m a t t e r s of
developmental processes. constitutional and legal safeguards for
4. To leverage India's demographic both the OBCs (Other Backward
dividend. Classes) and Anglo-Indians.
Select the correct answer using the code (c) The conditions of service and tenure
given below. of office of the members of NCBC are
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only determined by the President.
(b) 2 and 4 only (d) It presents the annual report to the
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only President of India.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q59. Consider the following statement above
Q56. Consider the following passage with is/are
reference to a writ issued by Supreme 1. The office of the Attomey General is
Court under Article 32. It is a command created by the Constitution of India.
issued by a court to an authority directing 2. The Attorney General is barred from
it to perform a public duty imposed upon private legal practice.
it by law. It can be issued when an 3. The Attorney General holds the office
authority vested with a power improperly during the pleasure of the President.
refuses to exercise it. It can be issued to Which of the statements given above
any kind of authority in respect of any type is/arecorrect?
of function – administrative, legislative, (a) 3 only
quasi-judicial, judicial. It is used to enforce (b) 2 and 3 only
the performance of public duties by (c) 1 and 3 only
public authorities. (d) 1 and 2 only
The above passage refers to which of the
following writ? Q60. Consider the following statements in the
(a) Prohibition context of the Central Information
(b) Certiorari Commission (CIC):
© Mandamus 1. The CIC was first constituted as an
(d) Quo-Warranto executive body and later given the
statutory status.
Q57. The Indian Constitution ensures 2. While inquiring, the commission has
1. Individual Freedom the powers of a civil court.
2. Social Justice 3. It can take disciplinary actions against
3. Community Based Rights the errant official.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above
given below. is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

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Q61. Consider the following statements Q63. Consider the following statements
withreference to Public Accounts regarding the division of power of
Committee: taxation between the Centre and the
1. The committee was set up under the States:
provisions of Government of India Act 1. The power of taxation on subjects
1919. enumerated in the concurrent list lies
2. Speaker is the ex- officio chairman of exclusively with the Parliament.
the committee 2. The power to impose taxes on subjects
3. A minister cannot be a member of the not enumerated in any list is vested
committee. with the state legislatures.
Which of the statements given above Which of the statements given above
is/are not correct? is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q64. The power to appoint delimitation

commission for the delimitation of
constituencies is conferred on:
Q62. With respect to Lok Adalats, consider (a) Election Commission of India
thefollowing statements: (b) State Election Commission
1. It has been given statutory status (c) The President
under the Legal Services Authorities (d) The Parliament
Act, 1987.
2. The award by the Lok Adalat is not
binding and it is appealable.
3. There is no strict application of Q65. Consider the following statements with
p ro c e d u r a l l a w s l i ke t h e C i v i l regard to the election of President:
Procedure Code and the Evidence Act 1. The voting in the election of the
while assessing the claim by Lok President is done by open ballot.
Adalat. 2. The Election of the President is held
Which of the statements given above are according to the principle of First Past
correct? the post system.
(a) 1 and 3 only 3. Provisions of NOTA are not applicable
(b) 2 and 3 only in the presidential election.
(c) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above is/
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q66. Consider the following: Q69. Consider the following statements:
1. Power to give advise to the President 1. T h e m a x i m u m s t re n g t h of t h e
2. Power to entertain Public Interest legislative council depends on the
Litigation (PILs) from the individuals total strength of the legislative
3. Power to entertain Writs assembly.
Which of the above powers is/are 2. Currently, 7 states have created the
conferred on the Supreme Court but is not Legislative Councils.
available to the High Court? 3. One-third of the members of the
(a) 2 and 3 only Legislative Council are elected directly
(b) 1 only by the people of the State.
(c) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above
(d) 1, 2 and 3 is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
Q67. Consider the following statements (c) 3 only
regarding the Union Territory of Delhi: (d) 2 and 3 only
1. The Chief Minister of Delhi is
appointed by the Lieutenant Governor Q70. Which of the following qualifications
of Delhi. is/are laid down by the Constitution for
2. The ministers hold office during the the appointment of a person as a
pleasure of Lieutenant Governor. Governor?
Which of the statements given above 1. He should be a citizen of India
is/are correct? 2. He should not belong to the state
(a) 1 only where he is appointed.
(b) 2 only 3. He should have completed the age of
(c) Both 1 and 2 35 years.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
Q68. Which of the following is/are correct with (b) 1 and 3 only
reference to the system of Panchayati Raj (c) 2 and 3 only
in India? (d) 1 only
1. Panchayati Raj Institutions have been
given constitutional status through Q71. The provision for setting up which of the
the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992. following institutions/bodies is
2. The Constitution provides for an mentioned in the Constitution of India?
option of a two-tier system of 1. Finance Commission
Panchayati Raj in the states having a 2. Law Commission
population not exceeding 20 lakh. 3. Tribunals
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below. given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q72. Which of the following can be considered Q75. Consider the following statements with
as the objectives of a federation? reference to the power of Gram Sabha
1. To safeguard and promote the unity of under the PESA (Provisions of the
the country. Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled
2. To accommodate regional diversity. Areas) Act, 1996 Act:
Select the correct answer using the code 1. Every Gram Sabha shall be competent
given below. to safeguard and preser ve the
(a) 1 only traditions and customs of the people,
(b) 2 only their cultural identity, community
(c) Both 1 and 2 resources and the customary mode of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 dispute resolution.
2. Every Gram Sabha shall be responsible
Q73. Considers the following statement for the identification of beneficiaries
regarding sources of income of the urban under the poverty alleviation and
local bodies. other programmes.
1. To meet their capital expenditure, 3. The recommendations of the Gram
urban local bodies can raise loans Sabha or the Panchayats at the
from both their respective state appropriate level shall be mandatory
governments and financial for grant of prospecting licence or
institutions. mining lease for major minerals in the
2. Transfer of funds to the urban local Scheduled Areas.
bodies from the state government is Which of the statements given above
made on the basis of the is/are correct?
recommendations of the governor of (a) 1 and 2 only
the state. (b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above (c) 1 only
is/are correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q74. Consider the following statements Q76. With respect to centre-state legislative
regarding Cabinet Committees: relations consider the following
1. Ministers who are not part of the statements about ‘residuary powers’:
cabinet can be added to a Cabinet 1. Residuary subjects are matters which
Committee. are not enumerated in VII schedule.
2. The Prime Minister of India is a 2. The power to make laws with respect
member of all the cabinet committees to residuary subjects is vested with the
3. C a b i n e t C o m m i t t e e s a r e President.
extraconstitutional in nature. Which of the statements given above
Which of the statements given above are is/are correct?
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q77. Considers the following provisions Q79. With reference to the National
regarding the 73rd Constitutional Commission for Scheduled Castes
Amendments Act 1992: (NCSC), consider the following
1. Reservation of one-third seats (both statements:
members and chairpersons) for 1. It is a statutory body constituted by an
women in panchayats at all the three Act of Parliament.
levels. 2. It inquires into specific complaints
2. Granting financial powers to the with respect to the deprivation of
panchayats, that is, authorizing them rights and safeguards of the Scs.
to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, 3. It investigates and monitors all
duties, tolls and fees. matters relating to the constitutional
3. 21 years to be the minimum age for and other legal safeguards for the Scs.
contesting elections to panchayats. Which of the statements given above
Which of the following provisions is/are is/are correct?
the compulsor y (obligator y or (a) 1 only
mandatory) of Part IX of the Constitution? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q78. On which of the following matters, the Q80. According to Part IX-A of the Indian
Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) constitution, who among the following
is consulted by the government? persons can be provided with
1. Matters related to the suitability of representation in a municipality?
candidates for promotions or transfers 1. M e m b e r s o f t h e L o k S a b h a
from one service to another representing constituencies that
2. W h i l e m a k i n g r e s e r va t i o n s of comprise wholly or par tly the
appointments or posts in favour of any municipal area.
backward class of citizens 2. Persons having special knowledge or
3. Disciplinary matters affecting a person experience in municipal
serving under the Government of administration.
India in a civil capacity. 3. M e m b e r s o f t h e R a j y a S a b h a
Select the correct answer using the code registered as electors within the
given below. municipal area.
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 1 and 3 only given below.
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q81. Consider the following statements: Q84. Apart from the federal features, the
1. The Indian federal system is based on Indian Constitution also possesses unitary
the Canadian model of federation. features.
2. Indian states have no right to secede Which of the following are the unitary
from the federation. features of the Constitution?
3. Federal character of the Constitution 1. Single Constitution
has been included in the basic 2. Integrated Judiciary
structure of the constitution. 3. All India Services
Which of the statements given above are 4. Bicameralism
correct? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 and 2 only given below.
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q82. Under Article 352 of the Constitution of

India, the President can declare a national
emergency on which of the following
grounds?
1. War
2. External aggression
3. Internal disturbance
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. Q85. Which of the following is/are correct with
(a) 1 and 2 only reference to the Secretary-General of
(b) 2 only Rajya Sabha?
(c) 1 and 3 only 1. He/she is appointed by the Chairman
(d) 1, 2 and 3 of Rajya Sabha.
2. He/she is the custodian of the records
of the House.
Q83. Which of the following parliamentary Select the correct answer using the code
mechanisms are means to raise issues of given below.
public importance? (a) 1 only
1. Calling Attention Motion (b) 2 only
2. Zero hour (c) Both 1 and 2
3. Short Duration Discussion (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Special Mention in Rajya Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Q86. Which of the following statements is Q88. Consider the following with reference to
correct regarding the practice of the Indian Renewable Energy Development
President addressing Parliament in India? Agency (IREDA):
(a) T h e p r a c t i c e of t h e P re s i d e n t 1. It is a ‘Navratna’ enterprise registered
addressing Parliament can be traced as a Non-Banking Financial Company
back to the Government of India Act of (NBFC) .
1858. 2. Its objective is to give financial
(b) The constitution mandates the support to specific projects for
President to address each session of generating energy through new and
the Parliament. renewable sources.
(c) It broadly deals with governance Which of the statements given above
agenda for upcoming year and the is/are correct?
President can make new policy and (a) 1 only
legislative announcements. (b) 2 only
(d) President's address in India is mirrored (c) Both 1 and 2
on the American system in which the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
speech is delivered in written to the
Parliament. Q89. In context of economy, which of the
following statements best expresses the
meaning of ‘Hush Money’?
(a) It is an arrangement in which one
person offers another a sum of money
in exchange for remaining silent about
Q87. With reference to Rhodamine-B, consider some illegal action.
the following statements: (b) It is an overdue money to be paid by
1. It is a chemical compound commonly the government to the bond holders
employed in synthetic dyes for of the country.
colouring silk. (c) It is a money that takes its value from a
2. While it appears blue in powder form, trust or promise of payment and a
it turns vivid fluorescent orange when good that has an agreed value.
it comes in contact with water. (d) It is the currency that is not backed by
3. As per the Food Safety Standards Act, a physical commodity and its value is
preparation and serving food items because of government regulation of
with Rhodamine-B in public events is a law.
punishable offence.
Which of the statements given above are Q90. The term ‘Symbol Loading Unit’ often
correct? mentioned in news is related to which of
(a) 1 and 2 only the following?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) End-to-end encryption (EEE)
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) Voter verifiable paper audit trail
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (VVPAT)
(c) Supercomputers
(d) Artificial Intelligence Chabot

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Q91. Consider the following statements: Q93. Consider the following pairs:
Statement- I: The Indian warships are
powered by the electric propulsion 1. Lake Bhimtal Senegal
engines.
Statement- II: In electric propulsion 2. Lake Baikal Russia
systems, the power used to drive the
propellers becomes an electrical load 3. Lake Erie North America
meaning that the generators can take care
of all shipboard loads. Which of the pairs given above is/ are
Which one of the following is correct in correct?
respect of the above statements? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are (b) 1 and 3 only
correct and Statement II is the correct (c) 2 and 3 only
explanation for statement I (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Both statement I and Statement II are
correct but Statement II is not the
correct explanation for Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II Q94. Consider the following pairs:
is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Places in News Region
Statement II is correct
1. Badwater basin Lebanon

2. Agalega islands Mauritius

3. Darien Gap Vietnam

Q92. The “Afar Triangle”, recently seen in news, Which of the above pairs are NOT
is associated with which one of the correctly matched?
following? (a) 2 only
(a) It is loosely defined region in Atlantic (b) 1 and 3 only
Ocean where a number of ships have (c) 3 only
gone missing. (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) It is a region beyond the Kuiper Belt
where two giant black hole merges.
(c) It is a region in Southeast Asia known
for its high production of opium. Q95. Which one of the following species,
(d) It is a fault in the Great Rift Valley in the endemic to the Western Ghats, exhibit a
Horn of Africa where tectonic plates unique “gravity-defying skills” in climbing
converge steep cliffs?
(a) Nilgiri Tahr
(b) Lion-tailed macaque
(c) Dhole
(d) Orangutan

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Q96. Consider the following statements with Q98. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Matsya
reference to India Employment Report Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana, consider the
(2024): following statements:
Assertion: The female labour force 1. It aims to support micro, small and
participation rate (LFPR) has steadily medium enterprises operating in the
increased in India since 2000. fisheries sector.
Reasoning: The increase in labour force 2. The Farmers Producer Organizations
participation in India has come mostly in (FPO’s) are also eligible under the
rural areas and in self-employment. scheme.
Which one of the following is correct in 3. The scheme provides one-time
respect of the above statements? incentive to beneficiaries for
(a) Both assertion and reasoning are true purchasing aquaculture insurance.
and reasoning is the correct 4. I M F a n d I n te rn a t i o n a l F i n a n c e
explanation of assertion. Corporation, will be responsible for
(b) Both assertion and reasoning are true 50% of the total budget allocation.
but reasoning is not the correct Which of the statement given above is/are
explanation of assertion. correct?
(c) Assertion is true but reasoning is false. (a) 1, 3 and 4
(d) Assertion is false but reasoning is true. (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Q97. Consider the following pairs: Q 9 9 . T h e P M - S U R A J p o r t a l , re c e n t l y

highlighted in the news, is associated with
Instability in west Asia Region which of the following?
(a) Enhancing the integration of solar
1. A civil war between two Sudan energy in rural areas across India
rival factions of the (b) Introducing a solar rooftop initiative
military government specifically for the North Eastern
states
2. The insurgency by local Egypt (c) Serving as a national platform to
Bedouin tribesmen increase female enrolment in research
institutions
3. Attacks by Houthis Oman (d) Promoting economic empowerment
for socially disadvantaged groups,
Which of the above pairs are correctly including scheduled castes and tribes
matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

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Q100. Which one of the following lakes
doesn’t form a natural border between
Canada and USA?
(a) Lake Superior
(b) Lake Michigan
(c) Lake Ontario
(d) Lake Erie

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
POLITY
TEST - III (FLT)

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO,
GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fi ll in the Roll Number carefully without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will
render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in
some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certifi cate.
8. After you have completed fi lling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers
happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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Q1. Consider the following objectives: Q3. Consider the following statements
1. Political Justice regarding the amendment of the
2. Economic Liberty Constitution under Article 368:
3. Equality of Status 1. The bill for the amendment of the
4. Unity and Integrity of the Nation Constitution cannot be introduced by
Which of the above-given objectives are a private member.
stated in the Preamble to the Constitution 2. The bill must be passed in each House
of India? by a simple majority.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only 3. There is no provision for holding a
(b) 2 and 3 only joint sitting for the purpose of the
(c) 3 and 4 only amendment bill.
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only

Q2. With reference to the Directive Principles Q4. Which of the following statements is
provided under part IV of the Indian correct in in the context of constitutional
Constitution, consider the following reforms introduced by the British through
statements: various acts?
1. Promoting cottage industries on an 1. Government of India Act of 1935
individual or cooperation basis in rural introduced dyarchy at the centre.
areas. 2. I n d i a n C o u n c i l s A c t o f 1 9 0 9
2. Public assistance in case of old age, introduced communal representation
sickness, and disablement, and right for Sikhs and Anglo-Indians.
to work. 3. The Indian Council Act of 1892 gave
3. Promoting the educational and the legislature the power of discussing
economic interests of SCs, STs, and the budget.
other weaker sections of the society. Select the correct answer using the code
4. Promoting the voluntary formation of given below.
cooperative societies. (a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the directive principles given (b) 1 and 3 only
above are based on Gandhian ideology? (c) 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Q5. Which of the following fundamental rights Q8. Consider the following statements:
are are available to only Indian citizens? (UPSC CAPF 2024)
1. Prohibition of discrimination on 1. The 15th Finance Commission used
grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or fiscal effort as a criterion for horizontal
place of birth devolution, unlike the 14th Finance
2. Freedom of profession Commission.
3. Right of minorities to establish and 2. Both the 14th and the 15th Finance
administer educational institutions. Commissions used pre-2011
4. Prohibition of traffic in human beings demographic variables as a criterion
and forced labor. for horizontal devolution.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above
given below. is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q6. There is a border dispute between India

and a a neighboring country 'X'. If that
dispute has to be resolved without India
having to cede any of its territories, it can
be effected by:
(a) the passage of a law by the parliament Q9. Constitutionalism is best described as:
with simple majority. (a) It is the principle that emphasizes on
(b) an executive action without the need the control of the masses or public
of any constitutional amendment. over a property or a natural resource.
(c) a constitutional amendment by a (b) It emphasizes that the state should
special majority and also the consent remove the obstacles for individuals to
of half of the state legislatures. enjoy freedom of thought, expression,
(d) a constitutional amendment by a belief, faith, and worship.
special majority. (c) It is the idea that people are equals in a
society that is a system of fair
cooperation.
Q7. Under which one among the following (d) It denotes the principle that the
Articles of the Constitution of India, a government derives its authority from
member of a Civil Service, whether of the a body of fundamental law and is
Union or of a State, seeks protection from limited by it.
unlawful dismissal from service?
(UPSC CAPF 2024)
(a) Article 309
(b) Article 311
(c) Article 315
(d) Article 320

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Q10. Consider the following statements: Q12. Which of the following are a part of the
(UPSC - 2007) Fundamental Duties mentioned in part
1. Jawaharlal Nehru was in his fourth IV-A of the Constitution of India?
term as the Prime Minister of India at 1. Democratic control and professional
the time of his death. management of cooperative societies.
2. Jawaharlal Nehru represented Rae 2. To have compassion for living
Bareilly constituency as a Member of creatures.
Parliament 3. To p r o v i d e o p p o r t u n i t i e s f o r
3. The first non-Congress Prime Minister education of one's child or ward till the
of India assumed office in the year age of 18 years.
1997. 4. To value and preserve the rich heritage
Which of the statements given above of the country's composite culture.
is/are correct? Select the correct answer from the code
(a) 1 and 2 only given below.
(b) 3 only (a) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Q11. Which of the following functions were Q13. Mr. X, an Indian citizen, was arrested
performed by Constituent Assembly? under a preventive detention law made
1. It ratified India’s membership of the under Ar ticle 22 of the Indian
United Nations. Constitution. In this context, which one of
2. It elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the the following has been provided under
first President of India. the Constitution of India?
3. It abolished the privy purses. 1. He must have been arrested as per a
Select the correct answer using the code law enacted by the Parliament.
given below. 2. All the facts related to his detention
(a) 1 and 2 only may or may not be communicated to
(b) 2 only him.
(c) 1 and 3 only 3. The detention cannot exceed three
(d) 1, 2 and 3 months unless an advisory board
recommends so.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2 only

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Q14. Which of the following are the main Q16. The Indian Census is the largest single
features of a Republic country? s o u rc e of a va r i e t y of s t a t i s t i c a l
1. The head of the state is always elected information on different characteristics of
directly by the people for a fixed the people of India. In this context, the
period. responsibility of conducting the decennial
2. Political sovereignty vested in the Census in India rests with
people of the country. (a) Ministry of Statistics and Programme
3. Absence of any privileged class. Implementation
Select the correct answer using the code (b) Ministry of Home Affairs
given below. (c) NITI Aayog
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Prime Minister's Office
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only Q17. With reference to the Competition
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Commission of India (CCI), consider the
following statements:
1. It is a statutory body under the
Monopolies and Restrictive Trade
Practices Act, 1969.
2. The chairperson of the CCI must be
qualified to be a judge of the Supreme
Q15. Consider the following statements about Court of India.
the None-of-the-Above (NOTA) provision: Which of the statements given above
1. The NOTA provision has been given in is/are correct?
the Representation of People Act, (a) 1 only
1951. (b) 2 only
2. If in a constituency the number of (c) Both 1 and 2
NOTA votes exceeds 50% of total votes (d) Neither 1 nor 2
polled, then election will stand void
and canceled. Q18. Consider the following statements
3. The NOTA provision is meant only for regarding the Central Vigilance
general constituencies, not for Commission (CVC):
reserved ones. 1. It was created by an Executive order in
4. It is not used in the elections to the 2003.
Rajya Sabha and the State Legislative 2. I t w a s e s t a b l i s h e d o n t h e
Councils. recommendations of the Santhanam
How many of the above statements are Committee on Prevention of
correct? Corruption.
(a) Only one 3. It presents an annual report on its
(b) Only two performance to the President.
(c) Only three How many of the above statements are
(d) All four correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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Q19. Which of the following Articles in the Q22. Which of the following statements is
Constitution of India are exceptions to the correct in the context of the Tenth
Fundamental Rights enumerated in Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
Article 14 and Article 19? (a) The provisions of Tenth Schedule are
(UPSC CDS 2020) not applicable to the members of
(a) Article 31A and Article 31C Rajya Sabha.
(b) Article 31B and Article 31D (b) A member disqualified under Tenth
(c) Article 12 and Article 13 Schedule will not be eligible to contest
(d) Article 16 and Article 17 the by-elections.
(c) The decision of the deciding authority
about disqualification under the Tenth
Schedule is final and can not be
Q20. Which one of the following Articles of the subject to judicial review.
Constitution of India lays down that no (d) The question of disqualification under
citizen can be denied the use of wells, the Tenth Schedule is decided by the
tanks and bathing Ghats maintained out Presiding officer of the House.
of State funds?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 16
(d) Article 17

Q23. Consider the following statements with

reference to the powers of the Parliament:
Q21. With reference to the Preamble of the 1. It can punish persons, including its
Constitution of India, consider the members, for breach of privilege or
following statements: contempt of the House.
1. The Preamble is not enforceable in a 2. It can recommend for the removal of
court of law. the Comptroller and Auditor General
2. The Preamble forms the part of the to the President.
basic Structure of the Constitution, 3. It can entirely exclude judicial review
hence not subject to amendment by of legislations by placing them under
the Parliament. the ninth schedule.
3. The Preamble mentions the date of Which of the statements given above are
enactment of the Constitution of India. correct?
4. The Preamble is a source of power for (a) 1 and 3 only
legislature to establish a just social and (b) 2 and 3 only
economic order. (c) 1 and 2 only
How many statements given above are (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All Four

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Q24. Consider the following statements: Q26. A citizen of the USA, whose wife is an
1. A minister who is not a member of Indian citizen, wants to become a citizen
either House, cannot participate in a of India. In this context, consider the
joint sitting of both the Houses. following statements:
2. A minister belonging to the Lok Sabha 1. He can become an Indian Citizen by
can participate in the proceedings of the way of registration if he is
Rajya Sabha without being entitled to ordinarily resident in India for five
vote. years before making an application for
3. The attorney general of India can registration.
speak and take part in the proceedings 2. He can become an Indian Citizen by
of either house but not in a joint sitting the way of naturalization if he has
of both the Houses. been in the service of a Government in
Which of the statements given above India throughout the period of six
is/are correct? months immediately preceding the
(a) 1 and 3 only date of the application.
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above
(c) 1 only is/are correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q25. Which of the following are the members Q27. With reference to the Constitution
of the recommendator y committee (Seventythird Amendment) Act, 1992,
responsible for the appointment of the which one of the following statements is
Director of the Central Bureau of correct?
Investigation? (a) The chairperson of the Panchayat at
1. Leader of Opposition of Rajya Sabha the intermediate and district levels
2. Chief Justice of India shall be elected directly by the people
3. Prime Minister of the Gram Sabha.
4. Union Minister of Home affairs (b) It provides for the reservation of seats
5. Leader of Opposition of the Lok for scheduled castes and scheduled
Sabha. tribes in every Panchayat.
Select the correct answer from the code (c) It provides for a Gram Sabha that is the
given below. body of all the people residing in a
(a) 2, 3 and 5 only village.
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) It provides for only the members of
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only Panchayat at the village level to be
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only elected directly by the people.

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Q28. Which of the following statements is not Q30. Consider the following statements
correct with respect to Constitutional regarding the Right to Recall in India:
provisions related to proceedings in 1. It is an example of the instrument of
Parliament? direct democracy.
(a) A Money bill can be introduced by a 2. It is available to the citizens only to
minister only. recall the members of the State
(b) The Finance Bill must be enacted i.e., Legislative Assembly and not the Lok
pa s s e d b y t h e Pa r l i a m e n t a n d Sabha.
assented to by the president within 14 Which of the statements given above
days. is/are correct?
(c) The Rajya Sabha has no power either (a) 1 only
to reject or to amend a Money Bill. (b) 2 only
(d) If the Rajya Sabha does not return the (c) Both 1 and 2
Money bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
days, the bill is deemed to have been
passed by both the Houses Q31. With regard to the proceedings of Lok
Sabha, which among the following
actions can be taken by the Speaker?
1. Summoning
2. Prorogation
3. Adjournment
4. Dissolution
Select the correct answer using the code
Q29. With reference to the Anti-Defection Law given below.
in India consider the following (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
statements: (b) 3 only
1. Anti-Defection Law was enacted on (c) 2 only
the recommendation of the Y.B (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Chavan committee.
2. A legislator’s speech and conduct Q32. Article 19(1) (a) of the Constitution of
inside the legislature cannot be used India states that, “all citizens shall have the
to disqualify him under the Anti- r i g h t t o f r e e d o m of s p e e c h a n d
Defection Law. expression”.
3. Under this law, the presiding officer of Which of the following rights is/are
legislature has to decide on a implicit under the said Article?
disqualification case brought before 1. Freedom of Commercial speech
him within six months. 2. Right to Broadcast
Which of the statements given above 3. Right to criticize
is/are not correct? 4. Right to expression beyond national
(a) 1 only boundaries
(b) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the codes
(c) 2 and 3 only given below.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

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Q33. With reference to Autonomous District Q35. Article 1 of the Indian Constitution does
Councils in India, consider the following not describe India as a “Federation of
statements: States” because of which of the following
1. The Fifth Schedule provides for the reasons?
constitution of the Autonomous 1. The Indian Federation is not the result
District Councils (ADC). of an agreement among the states.
2. The Council protects the language and 2. The states in India do not have the
culture of the tribal population by right to secede from the Union.
exercising legislative and executive Select the correct answer using the code
powers over them. given below:
3. The laws passed by the parliament can (a) 1 only
not be applied to these autonomous (b) 2 only
districts. (c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the above statements is/are (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q34. Consider the following statements about Q36. The Constitution (91st Amendment) Act,
the Fundamental Duties: 2003, provides for which of the following?
1. The inclusion of the Fundamental 1. Restricts size of the Council of Minister
Duties brought the Indian at 15% of the total number of
Constitution in line with the Montreux members of the Lok Sabha and the
Convention and the United Nations State Legislative Assembly.
Charter. 2. A member disqualified under the
2. S w a r a n S i n g h C o m m i t t e e ’ s Te n t h S c h e d u l e s h a l l a l s o b e
recommendations led to the addition disqualified to be appointed as a
of the Fundamental Duties through Minister.
the Constitution 42nd Amendment. 3. It omitted a provision from the Tenth
3. Swaran Singh Committee suggested Schedule, which exempted
that the citizens should not overlook disqualification on the grounds of split
their duties towards the country, while in the political party.
exercising their Fundamental Rights. Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above given below:
is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2 only

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Q37. Which of the following are the main Q40. Which of the following statements is/are
objectives of setting up of the zonal correct about the Gram Sabha?
councils? 1. It is an assembly of all the adult
1. Bring out national integration. members in the area of the Gram
2. Arresting the growth of acute State Panchayat.
consciousness, regionalism, linguism 2. The Constitution of India empowers
and particularistic tendencies. the Gram Sabha to implement all the
3. Enabling the Centre and the States to socioeconomic plans in the Gram
co-operate and exchange ideas and Panchayats.
experiences. Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
given below: (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q41. Consider the following statements:
Q38. Which of the following statements is/are 1. Different tiers of government govern
correct about the Gram Nyayalayas? the same citizens, but each tier has its
1. The Gram Nyayalayas shall try only own jurisdiction.
civil cases. 2. The existence and authority of each
2. There shall be no appeal on a decision tier of government generally is
by the Gram Nyayalaya. constitutionally guaranteed.
Select the correct answer using the code 3. Each tier of government must draw all
given below: its financial resources independent of
(a) 1 only the other tier.
(b) 2 only How many of the above are the features of
(c) Both 1 and 2 Indian Federalism?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only one
(b) Only two
Q39. Which of the following Fundamental (c) All three
Rights is part of “Cultural and Educational (d) None
Rights”?
1. Protection of interests of minorities. Q42. Consider the following statements.
2. Freedom as to attendance at religious 1. The term ‘Minority’ is clearly defined in
instruction or religious worship in the Indian Constitution.
certain educational institutions. 2. The Constitution of India recognizes
3. Right of minorities to establish and religious, linguistic and ethnic
administer educational institutions. minorities.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the above statements is/are
given below: correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q43. Consider the following statements: Q46. Indian version of socialism can be best
1. During a national emergency, the described as
executive power of the Centre extends (a) Democratic political system where
to directing any state regarding the both public and private enterprises
manner in which its executive power is function together towards egalitarian
to be exercised. goals
2. The laws made by Parliament on the (b) An economic system based on public
state subjects during a National ownership of property and control of
Emergency would exist until repealed the methods of production and in
by State Legislature or Parliament. which no person profits from the work
3. When a proclamation of national of others
emergency is made, under Article 358 (c) The economic system in which
the six Fundamental Rights under businesses are owned and run for
Ar ticle 19 are automatically profit by individuals and not by the
suspended. state
How many of the statements given above (d) Political philosophy that exalts nation
are correct? above the individual and that stands
(a) Only one for a centralized autocratic
(b) Only two government headed by a dictatorial
(c) All three leader
(d) None

Q44. Consider the following:

1. Forest
2. Education
3. Administration of justice
4. Wild animals and birds Q47. Consider the following statements:
5. Public order (UPSC PYQ 2009)
How many of the above are listed under 1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)
the Concurrent List of the 7th Schedule of was set up during the Prime
the Indian Constitution? Ministership of Lal Bahadur.
(a) Only two 2. The Members of CAT are drawn from
(b) Only three both judicial and administrative.
(c) Only four Which of the statements given above
(d) All five is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Q45. Who among the following takes the oath (c) Both 1 and 2
to preserve, protect and defend the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Constitution and the law in India?
(a) President
(b) Vice- President
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Prime Minister

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Q48. With reference to urban local bodies in Q50. With reference to Martial Law and
India, which one of the following National Emergency, consider the
statements is correct? following statements:
(a) T h e t o w n s h i p f o r m o f u r b a n 1. Unlike the Martial Law the National
government has both elected and emergency suspends the government
nominated members. and ordinary law courts.
(b) A Port Trust is a statutory body chaired 2. Both Mar tial Law and National
by officials appointed by the Central Emergency affects the Fundamental
Government. Rights of the Citizen.
(c) The military officer commanding the Which of the statements given above
station acts as ex-officio Chief is/are correct?
executive officer of the cantonment (a) 1 only
board. (b) 2 only
(d) The Directive Principles of State Policy (c) Both 1 and 2
provides for organisation of (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Municipalities in for areas in transition
from a rural area to urban area. Q51. Consider the following events with
respect to the Union of India:
1. Formation of the State of Nagaland
2. E n a c t m e n t o f t h e S t a t e s
Reorganisation Act
3. Formation of the State of Haryana
4. Formation of the State of Maharashtra
Q49. Consider the following statements Which one of the following is the correct
regarding Public Interest Litigation. chronological order of the events given
1. Any citizen can file PIL only in Supreme above?
Court and High court. (a) 4-2-3-1
2. A PIL may be filed against state (b) 2-4-3-1
government, central government, (c) 4-2-1-3
municipal authority but not against (d) 2-4-1-3
private party.
3. PIL is not defined in any statute or in Q52. With reference to the Representation of
any act. the People Act, 1951, a person convicted
How many of the statements given above of any offence and sentenced to
are correct? imprisonment for not less than ____ shall
(a) Only one be disqualified from the date of such
(b) Only two conviction and shall continue to be
(c) All three disqualified for a further period of ____
(d) None since his/her release.
Which of the following best fill-up the
blanks given above?
(a) 2 years, 6 years
(b) 3 years, 5 years
(c) 2 years, 5 years
(d) 3 years, 6 years

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Q53. Consider the following statements Q55. Which of the following are the functions
regarding the Unique Identification of the Department-Related Standing
Authority of India: Committees (DRSCs)?
1. It is a non-statutory body established 1. They consider the national basic long
by a resolution of the Central term policy documents presented to
government. the Houses.
2. It works under the aegis of the 2. They consider and report on the
Ministr y of Electronics and demands for grants of the related
Information technology. Ministries/ Departments.
3. It is responsible for enrolment, 3. T h e y e x a m i n e b i l l s r e l a t e d t o
authentication and development of respective ministries and
policy related to Aadhaar. departments.
How many of the above statements are 4. They consider matters of day-to-day
correct? administration of the related
(a) Only one Ministries/ Departments.
(b) Only two Select the correct answer using the code
(c) All three given below.
(d) None (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Q54. "A way of life which recognizes liberty, Q56. If India decides to cede territory to any of
equality, and fraternity which are not to be its neighbours, which of the following
treated as separate entities in a trinity”, would be used by the Parliament?
best defines which form of democracy? 1. Article 2
(a) Political democracy 2. Article 3
(b) Direct democracy 3. Article 368
(c) Social democracy Select the correct answer using the code
(d) Economic democracy given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q57. Constitution prescribes imposition of Q59. The Supreme Court is bound to declare a
Presidents Rule in a state if: law as invalid if it violates:
1. The state fails to comply with any 1. Fundamental Rights
direction from the Centre. 2. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. The President is satisfied that the 3. Fundamental Duties
government of a state cannot be Select the correct answer using code
carried on in accordance with the given below.
provisions of this Constitution. (a) 1 only
3. There is an occurrence of a violent (b) 1 and 2 only
incident disrupting law and order. (c) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code (d) 1, 2 and 3
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only Q60. Indian Constitution employs the
(b) 2 and 3 only expression 'Proclamation of Emergency'
(c) 1 and 3 only to denote:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) National Emergency only
(b) President's Rule only
(c) Financial Emergency only
(d) National Emergency and President's

Q61. Which of the following term in the

Preamble best describes the notion that
Q58. With reference to Overseas Citizen of 'The people of India should behave as if
India (OCI) Cardholder, consider the they are members of the same family'?
following statements: (a) Equity
1. A citizen of another country who was a (b) Integrity
citizen of India at any time after the (c) Equality
commencement of the Constitution is (d) Fraternity
eligible to become OCI cardholder.
2. OCI cardholders are entitled to Q62. Which of the following cases may be
multiple entry lifelong visa for visiting considered as a violation of Fundamental
India for any purpose. Rights guaranteed under Article 19?
3. OCI cardholders enjoy the right 1. Prohibiting women from opening up a
to equality of opportunity in matters new IT office.
of public employment 2. Forcing people from certain castes to
Which of the statements given above perform traditional occupations.
is/are Correct? 3. D e n i a l of g e n e r a l i n f o r m a t i o n
(a) 1 and 2 only regarding the administration of
(b) 3 only government.
(c) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 1, 2 and 3 given below.
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q63. Consider the following statements in the Q65. Which of the following is/are the features
context of the National Commission for of Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the
Women (NCW): Indian Constitution?
1. It is a non-statutory body under the 1. They are absolute and sacrosanct.
M i n i s t r y of Wo m e n a n d C h i l d 2. They are available against the arbitrary
Development. action of state only
2. Only a woman can be the chairperson 3. They are enforceable only in the High
of the National Commission for Courts and the Supreme Court.
Women. Select the correct answer using the code
3. It can fund the litigation involving given below.
issues affecting a large body of (a) 3 only
women. (b) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above (c) 1 and 2 only
is/are correct? (d) None of the above
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Q64. Which of the following can be included in Q66. With reference to the type of majorities in
the definition of “State” used in different Parliament, consider the following pairs:
provisions concerning the fundamental
rights? Majority Required for
1. Public Sector Banks
2. State Electricity Boards 1. Simple Resolution for removal of
3. District Planning Boards Majority Vice-President in Rajya
Select the correct answer using the code Sabha
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Absolute Widening the jurisdiction
(b) 2 and 3 only Majority on the Supreme Court
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Special Abolition or creation of
Majority legislative councils in
states

Which of the pairs given above is/are not

correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q67. Consider the following statements with Q69. Which of the following is/are correct with
reference to the Supreme Court of India: reference to the reservation of seats in the
1. The advice of the Supreme Court on panchayats, as provided under the
any dispute arising out of any constitution?
preconstitutional treaty is not binding 1. Seats for the SCs and the STs are to be
on the President. reserved in every panchayat in the
2. The court must tender its opinion to proportion of their population to the
the President if he/she refers matters total population in the panchayat area.
related to any question of law or fact of 2. Of the seats reserved for the SCs and
public importance. the STs, not less than one-third of the
Which of the statements given above are seats are to be reserved for women
correct? belonging to the respective
(a) 1 only categories.
(b) 2 only 3. The legislature of a state can make any
(c) Both 1 and 2 provision for reservation of seats in
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 any panchayat in favor of backward
classes.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q68. Which of the following are the features of Q70. With reference to the District Planning
Parliamentary Form of Government in C o m m i t t e e u n d e r Pa r t I X of t h e
India? Constitution, consider the following
1. Sovereignty of Parliament statements:
2. Collective responsibility of the 1. It prepares a draft development plan
executive to the legislature by consolidating the plans prepared
3. Periodic dissolution of Parliament by panchayats and municipalities in
Select the correct answer using the code the district and forwards it to the state
given below. government.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Two-thirds of the members of a district
(b) 2 only planning committee are to be elected
(c) 1 and 3 only by the elected members of the district
(d) 1, 2 and 3 panchayat and municipalities in the
district from amongst themselves.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q71. Which of the following statements is not Q73. Consider the following pairs:
correct with respect to Lok Adalats?
(a) There is no court fee payable when a Sources Features Borrowed
matter is filed in Lok Adalat.
(b) In Lok Adalat, social workers can act as 1. British Rule of Law
mediators/reconciliators. Constitution
(c) Members of the Lok Adalats have the
role of statutory conciliators only and 2. US Judicial review
do not have any judicial role. Constitution
(d) The jurisdiction of the Permanent Lok
Adalats is upto Rs. One Lakh. 3. Irish Election of members to
Constitution Rajya Sabha

4. South Nomination of
African members to Rajya
Constitution Sabha

Which of the pairs given above is/are

correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Q72. Consider the following statements with Q74. Which of the following statements is/are
reference to jurisdictional power of a correct with reference to Constituent
district judge: Assembly?
1. He possesses original and appellate 1. The members of the Constituent
jurisdiction in both civil as well as Assembly were indirectly elected by
criminal cases. members of provincial legislative
2. He has the power to impose any assemblies.
sentence including life imprisonment 2. It acted as a legislative body for
and capital punishment. enacting ordinary laws for the country.
Which of the statements given above 3. It adopted the national flag and
is/are correct? national anthem of India.
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 only given below.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q75. Consider the following: Q78. With reference to the elections of the
1. Pa r l i a m e n t a r y l a w p re s c r i b i n g Vice-President, consider the following
residence within a state as a statements:
requirement for employment. 1. The voting is done through open
2. States prescribing knowledge of the ballot implying that parties can issue
language as a criterion. whips to their MPs and anti-defection
3. A law requiring that the incumbent of laws apply.
an office in connection with religious 2. Unlike Presidential elections, MLAs do
institution shall be a person professing not vote in these elections.
or belonging to the same religion. Which of the statements given above
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
v i o l a te s A r t i c l e 1 6 of t h e I n d i a n (a) 1 only
constitution? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None

Q76. What do we mean when we say

Fundamental Rights are not "absolute"?
(a) They can be repealed.
(b) They act as limitations on executive. Q79. Consider the following statements with
(c) They are subject to reasonable regard to the Committee on Public
restrictions. Undertakings:
(d) Both a and c are correct. 1. It consists of 30 members.
2. The chairman must be from Lok
Sabha.
3. T h e y e x a m i n e t h e r e p o r t s o f
Q77. Which of the following is/are Comptroller and Auditor General in
qualifications required for a person to be the context of the autonomy and
elected as a member of State Legislative efficiency of the public undertakings.
council? Which of the statements given above
1. He must be a citizen of India. is/are correct?
2. He must not be less than twenty-five (a) 2 and 3 only
years of age. (b) 1 and 3 only
3. He must be an elector for an assembly (c) 1, 2 and 3
constituency in the concerned state. (d) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

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Q80. Consider the following statements in the Q82. India polity is based on the principle of
context of NITI Aayog's Governing responsible government. In this context,
council: the Indian Constitution provides for which
1. It comprises the Chief Ministers of all of the following responsibilities for
the states and Union Territories with Ministers?
legislatures. 1. Collective Responsibility
2. It should meet at least twice a year. 2. Individual Responsibility
3. Lieutenant Governors of Union 3. Legal Responsibility
Territories without legislatures are not Select the correct answer using the code
the members of the Governing given below.
council. (a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above (b) 2 and 3 only
is/are not correct? (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only Q83. Which of the following can be considered
(d) 1, 2 and 3 as discretionary powers of the Governor?
1. R e s e r v a t i o n o f a b i l l f o r t h e
consideration of the President.
2. Pardoning powers of the Governor.
3. Recommendation for the imposition
of the President’s Rule in the state.
4. Dissolution of the state legislative
assembly if the council of ministers
Q81. Which of the following statement is loses majority.
correct in the context of the Central Select the correct answer using the code
Bureau of Investigation (CBI)? given below.
1. It can investigate a case in the (a) 1 and 3 only
boundaries of state only with prior (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
consent of that state under all (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
circumstances. (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
2. CBI is the designated contact point for
the Interpol in India. Q84. Consider the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the code 1. The word Cabinet is no where
given below. mentioned in the Constitution.
(a) 1 only 2. Union Cabinet is the supreme
(b) 2 only e xe c u t i ve a u t h o r i t y of C e n t r a l
(c) Both 1 and 2 government.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. The decisions of the Union Cabinet are
binding on the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q85. With reference to Co-operative Societies, Q87. Consider the following about Central
consider the following statements: Drugs standard control organisation
1. The right to form co-operative (CDSCO):
societies is a fundamental right. 1. CDSCO functions under Drugs and
2. The Parliament is empowered to make cosmetics Act of 1940
laws regulating the multi-state 2. It operates under the ministry of
cooperative societies. Health and Family welfare
Which of the statements given above 3. CDSCO is responsible for approval of
is/are correct? new drugs in India
(a) 1 only Which of above given statement is/are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q86. Consider the following pairs: Q88. With reference to the International
Criminal Court (ICC), consider following
Laws in news Provisions statements:
1. It is the world’s first permanent
1. Bharatiya Nyaya Community international criminal court governed
service by Rome Statute.
Sanhita 2023 as a form 2. Its decisions are legally binding on the
of punishment. parties.
3. India is one of the founding members
2. Bharatiya Nagarik Magistrate of 1st of ICC.
Suraksha Sanhita order can compel Which statements given above is/are
2023 individuals to correct?
submit biometric (a) 1 only
samples without (b) 1 and 3 only
arrest (c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
3. Bharatiya Sakshya Granting equal
Adhiniyam 2023 legal status to Q89. Consider the following paragraph :
electronic and It is a part of Aravalli range, best known for
digital records its Blackbuck breeding programs &
as paper significant bird diversity, including species
documents like Indian Eagle, Owl & Lesser Florican.
It`s ecosystem includes unique grassland
How many above pairs are correctly habitats.
matched? Above text explains which of following?
(a) Only one (a) Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary
(b) Only two (b) Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) All three (c) Ranibennur Blackbuck Sanctuary
(d) None (d) Abohar Wildlife Sanctuary

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Q90. Consider following in context of Q92. World Press Freedom Index’ is released
interventions being undertaken under by which of the following?
PMKisan: (a) World Economic Forum
1. All farmers are eligible for annual (b) Amnesty International
financial assistance of Rs.6,000 via DBT. (c) Reporters Without Border
2. It aims for financial inclusion and is (d) Transparency International
implemented by Ministry of Rural
Development.
3. There is a mandatory provision of Q93. Consider the following statements:
physical verification of 5% beneficiary 1. Some microalgaes can help in carbon
every year. sequestration.
How many statements given above are 2. Some microalgaes can be made into
correct? biofuel
(a) Only one 3. Some microalgaes can act as a source
(b) Only two of high-quality proteins.
(c) Only three 4. Some microalgaes have medicinal
(d) None properties.
5. Some microalgaes can be used as a
bioink for 3-D laser printing.
How many of above statements are
correct?
Q91. Consider the following pairs: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Tiger Reserves State (c) 1, 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
1. Pench Tiger Karnataka
Reserve
Q94. Oslo Peace Accords aimed to:
2. Bandipur Tiger Maharashtra (a) Settle dispute in South China sea
Reserve (b) Facilitate Palestinian self-governance
in parts of the West Bank and Gaza
3. Indravati Tiger Chhatisgarh Strip
Reserve (c) Conciliation between rebels in Sudan
(d) Step down by Bashar al-Assad
4. Valmiki Tiger Bihar government in Syria
Reserve

How many of the pairs given above is/are Q95. Which one of the following sea/lakes of
correctly matched? Central Asia has become dry and turned
(a) Only one pair into a desert?
(b) Only two pairs (a) Caspian Sea
(c) Only three pairs (b) Lake Faguibine
(d) All four pairs (c) Aral Sea
(d) Lake Balkhash

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Q96. Which one of the following best reflects Q99. Consider the following statements:
the context in which “Amber box, Blue Box A s s e r t i o n : T h e r i c h e s t s o u rc e of
and Green Box” are often talked about in polymetallic nodules in the world is the
media: Clarion-Clipperton Zone (CCZ) in the
(a) WTO Pacific Ocean.
(b) ADB Reason: Pacific Ocean is ancient and
(c) UNFCCC stable floor
(d) Paris Agreement (a) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
Q97. With reference to renewable energy (c) A is true but R is false.
usage in India, consider the following (d) A is false but R is true
sources:
1. Solar power
2. Wind Power
3. Large Hydropower
4. Small Hydropower
Arrange above statements in ascending
order of their installed generation Q100. Consider the following statements:
capacity in India: 1. US is the source of highest remittance
(a) 2-1-3-4 for India.
(b) 4-2-1-3 2. US is India’s largest trade partner in
(c) 4-2-3-1 2023-2024.
(d) 1-3-2-4 3. Major imports from US is oil and gas,
semiconductor, defense export.
4. India– US bilateral trade is in favor of
US.
Q98. Consider the following statements How many of the statements given above
regarding Exit Polls: is / are correct?
1. Exit polls cannot be conducted during (a) One
the voting period or on polling day. (b) two
2. The ban on the publication of exit polls (c) Three
remains in place until 24 hours after (d) All four
the last phase of voting is completed.
3. Media outlets conducting exit polls
must register with the Election
Commission of India (ECI).
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
GS FULL LENGTH
TEST - III

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO,
GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fi ll in the Roll Number carefully without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will
render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in
some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certifi cate.
8. After you have completed fi lling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers
happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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Q1. Consider the following leaders: Q4. The call for renunciation of (all) voluntary
1. Pherozeshah Mehta associations with the (British)
2. Badruddin Tyabji Government’ was given during
3. Dadabhai Naoroji
4. Manmohan Ghose (a) Non-Cooperation Movement.
(b) Civil Disobedience Movement.
How many of the above leaders were (c) Quit India Movement.
associated with the establishment of East (d) Protest against partition of Bengal
India Association?
(a) Only one Q5. Which of the following individual
(b) Only two privileges is provided to the members of
(c) Only three the state legislatures?
(d) All four
(a) R i g h t t o r e c e i v e i m m e d i a t e
information on the arrest and
Q2. Consider the following quote : detention of a member.
“On the 26th January, 1950, we are going (b) Prohibition of being arrested or
to enter a life of contradictions. In politics subjected to legal proceedings within
we will have equality and in social and the precincts of the House.
economic life we will have inequality.” (c) Exemption from the jury service when
the state legislature is in session.
To whom among the following leaders is (d) Institution of an inquiry or order the
this quote attributed? attendance of witnesses in the House.
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Sarojini Naidu Q6. Consider the following rulers of Medieval
(c) B. R. Ambedkar India:
(d) Somnath Lahiri 1. Parantaka I
2. Mihir Bhoja
3. Gopala Pala
Q3. Consider the following statements with 4. Laksmana Sena
respect to Interim Government formed in
1946: How many of the above rulers ruled
1. Muslim League never joined the during 8th and 9th centuries?
Interim Government. (a) Only one
2. I t w a s c o n s t i t u t e d d u r i n g t h e (b) Only two
viceroyalty of Lord Mountbatten. (c) Only three
3. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the Vice- (d) All four
President of the Executive Council.
Q7. Iqta system was the administrative
Which of the statements given above are institution mostly associated with
not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Golconda Kingdom
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Delhi Sultanate
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Mughal Empire
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Ahom Kingdom

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Q8. Consider the following pairs: Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
Books/works Authors (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, and Statement-II is the correct
1. Rajatarangini Bilhana explanation for Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
2. Lilavati Bhaskara II correct, but Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I.
3. Manasollasa Dipankara (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
II is incorrect.
4. Nalayira Divya Akka Mahadevi (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
Prabandham Statement-II is correct.

How many of the pairs given above are Q11. Consider the following:
correctly matched? 1. Increase in Consumer Spending
(a) Only one 2. Depreciation of currency
(b) Only two 3. Increased Sovereign Bond Yields
(c) Only three 4. Reduced crypto prices
(d) All four How many of the above are likely
consequences/impacts of the easing of
monetary policy?
Q9. With reference to Buddhism, consider the (a) Only one
following statements: (b) Only two
1. The Buddhism believes in the theory (c) Only three
of rebirth. (d) All four
2. The Buddhist tradition considered
varna a man-made ordering. Q12. Consider the following statements:
3. The ultimate aim of Buddhism is to Statement I: In India, the majority of the
remove suffering from life and give a micro, small and medium enterprises
taste of Nibbana to human beings. (MSME) are owned by male
How many statements given above are entrepreneurs.
correct? Statement II: In India, the majority of the
(a) Only one MSMEs are located in rural areas.
(b) Only two Which one of the following is correct in
(c) All three respect of the above statements?
(d) None (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
Q10. Consider the following statements : (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Statement I : The higher inflation rates in correct, but Statement-II is not the
vegetables negatively impacts the correct explanation for Statement-I.
headline inflation. (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
Statement II : Uneven monsoon-induced II is incorrect.
supply disruptions causes cost push (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
inflation. Statement-II is correct.

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Q 1 3 . T h e I n te r n a t i o n a l l y Tr a n s f e r re d Q16. The Darien Gap, often seen in the news, is
Mitigation Outcomes (ITMOs) are situated between which of the following
provided under which of the following countries ?
international frameworks ? (a) Columbia and Panama
(a) Kyoto Protocol (b) Mexico and USA
(b) Paris Agreement (c) USA and Canada
(c) Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk (d) Guatemala and Mexico
Reduction
(d) K u n m i n g - M o n t r e a l G l o b a l Q17. Consider the following pairs :
Biodiversity Framework
[Link]. Tech firm AI model
Q14. With reference to the “i-DRONE” Project
consider the following statements: 1. Meta Claude 3
1. It is an initiative of Indian Council of
Medical Research (ICMR) of using 2. OpenAI GPT-4o mini
drones to deliver vaccines and medical
supplies. 3. Anthropic AI Llama 3
2. This project is the first of its kind in Asia
to deliver medicines and jabs and test How many of the above pairs is/are
the feasibility of medium-range correctly matched ?
delivery options. (a) Only one
Which of the statements given above (b) Only two
is/are correct? (c) All three
(a) 1 only (d) None
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Q18. With reference to advanced spyware and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 malwares often in news, consider the
following statements:
Q15. Consider the following statements with 1. ‘Snowblind’ is banking malware which
reference to Blue Moon: exploits a built-in security feature to
Statement I: It occurs when the moon is bypass anti-tamper protection in apps
at Perigee position and appears bigger in handling sensitive information.
size than usual. 2. Pegasus is such a spyware, once
Statement II: It appears blue due to the installed, the attacker has complete
scattering of light by dust particles. access to the target user’s phone.
Which one of the following is correct in 3. Unlike Pegasus and Snow blind does
respect of the above statements? not require the device user to install an
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are application manually for infection to
correct, and Statement-II is the correct occur.
explanation for Statement-I. Which of statements given above are
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct?
correct, but Statement-II is not the (a) 1 and 2 only
correct explanation for Statement-I. (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement- (c) 1 and 3 only
II is incorrect. (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
Statement-II is correct.

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Q19. With reference to the High Seas Treaty, Q22. With reference to Corporate bond
consider the following statements : Market in India, consider the following
statements :
1. I t i s a n a g r e e m e n t u n d e r t h e Statement I : Most of the corporate bond
Convention on Biodiversity. issuers in India are NBFCs or public sector
2. Parties to the treaty cannot claim or undertakings (PSUs).
exercise sovereign rights over marine Statement II : Issuers who do not have
resources derived from the high seas. AAA, AA+, or AA ratings find it difficult to
3. India is not a signatory to the treaty. access the bond market.

Which of the statements given above Which one of the following is correct in
is/are correct ? respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(a) 1 and 3 only correct, and Statement-II is the correct
(b) 2 only explanation for Statement-I.
(c) 1 and 2 only (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(d) 1, 2 and 3 correct, but Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I.
Q20. The Industrial Outlook Survey in India is (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
conducted by which of the following ? II is incorrect.
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
(a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Statement-II is correct.
(b) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(c) NITI Aayog Q23. Consider the following statements with
(d) National Statistical Office (NSO) respect to Securities Transaction Tax (STT)
: 1. It is a direct tax.
Q21. Consider the following institutions : 2. The STT for any kind of securities is
paid by the seller.
1. Infrastructure Development Finance 3. The minimum percentage of tax laid
Company (IDFC) upon the securities is 10 percent.
2. India Infrastructure Finance Company
Limited (IIFCL) Which of the statements given above
3. National Bank for Financing and is/are correct ?
Infrastructure Development (NaBFID) (a) 1 and 2 only
4. Exim Bank (b) 1 only
5. NABARD (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
How many of the institutions given above
are accorded All India Financial Institution Q24. Recently the Musi River Heritage Sites
(AIFI) status by RBI ? was seen in the news in the context of

(a) Only two (a) World Monuments Watch

(b) Only three (b) World Cultural Heritage Site
(c) Only four (c) Creative Cities Network
(d) All five (d) Wetland City Accreditation

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Q25. Which of the following are features of the Which of the above statements is/are
Pradhan Mantri Dhan Dhanya Krishi correct?
Yojana, announced by the Union Budget (a) 1 and 2 only
2025-26? (b) 2 only
1. Comprehensive coverage of all the (c) 1 and 3 only
districts in the country to enhance (d) 1, 2 and 3
agricultural productivity
2. Augment post-harvest storage at Q28. With reference to the evolution of the
panchayat and block level Constitution in India, which of the
3. Facilitate availability of long- and following amendments/changes
short-term loans to farmers happened earliest?
4. Improvement in irrigation facilities (a) Innovation of Basic Structure Doctrine
Select the correct answer using the code by the Supreme Court
given below. (b) Mandatory Presidential assent to a
(a) 1 and 2 only constitution amendment bill
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) Mandatory Cabinet recommendation
(c) 2 and 3 only for National Emergency
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) Addition of Fundamental duties to the
constitution

Q26. Consider the following factors: Q29. Consider the following statements
1. High salinity levels in water regarding the National Savings Certificate
2. High humidity levels (NSC)?
3. High wind speeds 1. National Savings Certificate is a fixed
4. High air pressure over the water income post office savings scheme.
surface. 2. Non-resident Indians (NRI) cannot
How many of the above factors decrease purchase NSC certificates.
the rate of evaporation? 3. NSC offers tax benefits without any
(a) Only one limits.
(b) Only two 4. Banks and NBFCs accept NSC as
(c) Only three collateral or security for secured loans.
(d) All four Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
Q27. Consider the following statements: (b) 3 and 4 only
1. The children of foreign diplomats (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
posted in India and enemy aliens (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
cannot acquire Indian citizenship by
birth. Q30. The right to free legal aid, to any person
2. In India, both a citizen by birth as well in India, is a fundamental right under:
as a naturalized citizen are eligible for (a) Right against exploitation
the post of President. (b) Right to protection against arrest and
3. If any foreign territory becomes a part detention
of India, the President specifies who (c) Right to freedom of speech
among the people of territory shall be (d) Right to life
the citizen of India.

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Q31. Consider the following statements: Q34. Consider the following species:
1. Full faith and credit is to be given 1. Marsh-meadow
throughout the territory of India to 2. Diatoms
public acts, records and judicial 3. Mosses
proceedings of the Centre and every How many of the above given species are
state. pioneer species?
2. Final judgments and orders of civil and (a) Only one
criminal courts in any part of India are (b) Only two
capable of execution anywhere within (c) All three
India. (d) None
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? Q35. With reference to the Indian constitution,
(a) 1 only consider the following statements:
(b) 2 only 1. The Parliament has the exclusive
(c) Both 1 and 2 power to admit or establish new states
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 into the Indian Union.
2. The Indian Constitution exempts laws
on state admission or boundary
Q32. In the parlance of macroeconomics, what changes from being considered
do you understand by 'Arbitrage'? constitutional amendments under
(a) It is the buying and selling of assets in Article 368.
different markets in order to take 3. The First Schedule of the Indian
advantage of differing prices for the Constitution enlists the names of the
same asset. States and the Union Territories which
(b) It is the cost borne by the central bank are included in the expression 'Union
in printing currency notes. of States'.
(c) It is the fee paid by investors and Which of the statements given above
traders as a percentage of their net is/are correct?
gains to the trading platforms. (a) 1 only
(d) It is the cost borne by the government (b) 2 and 3 only
in tax collections in an economy (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q33. Consider the following countries: Q36. Consider the following statements about
1. Democratic Republic of Congo landforms:
2. Ghana 1. Cinder
3. Mali 2. Composite cone
4. Nigeria 3. Phacolith
How many of the above African countries 4. Crater
do not have a coastline along the South 5. Sills
Atlantic Ocean? Which of the landforms given above are
(a) Only one extrusive volcanic landforms?
(b) Only two (a) 1, 4 and 5 only
(c) Only three (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) All four (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 5 only

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Q37. Consider the following statements Q40. Which one of the following terms is
re g a rd i n g F o re i g n E x c h a n g e a n d associated with the practice of Sufism?
Regulations Act (FERA) and Foreign (a) Jizya
Exchange Management Act (FEMA): (b) Ijma
1. Unlike FERA, violations of FEMA are (c) Muqaddam
regarded as criminal offences. (d) Murid
2. There is a provision for Tribunal under
FEMA unlike FERA.
3. FERA did not allow for External Q41. In the context of Panch Rathas of
Commercial Borrowings but it is Mahabalipuram , consider the following
allowed under FEMA. statements:
Which of the statements given above 1. They were a precursor to the modern
is/are correct? Dravidian temple architecture.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. The Rathas temples are aligned along
(b) 2 and 3 only an east-west axis, symbolizing the
(c) 3 only journey of the sun.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above
is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
Q38. In the context of biotechnology, (b) 2 only
karyotyping is related to (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) chromosome (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) endoplasmic reticulum
(c) golgi bodies
(d) vacuoles Q42. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Terms of Trade (ToT) of a
nation is defined as the ratio of the price of
Q39. Consider the following pairs: its import commodity to the price of its
export commodity.
Hill station Hill range Statement II: A country can purchase
more imported goods for every unit of
1. Kodaikanal Shevroy hills export that it sells when its ToT improves.
Which one of the following is correct in
2. Yercaud Nilgiri Hills respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
3. Ooty Sahyadri Hills correct, and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
How many of the above pairs are correctly (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
matched? correct, but Statement-II is not the
(a) Only one correct explanation for Statement-I.
(b) Only two (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
(c) All three II is incorrect.
(d) None (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
Statement-II is correct.

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Q43. Consider the following strategies: Q46. Which of the following best describes a
1. Broadening the tax base and reducing Credit Default Swap (CDS) sometimes
tax exemptions seen in the news?
2. Providing subsidized food items to
consumers to check inflationar y (a) It is a form of insurance contract
trends in the economy protecting against currency exchange
3. Increased off- budgetary borrowings rate fluctuations.
4. Adherence to the targets under the (b) It is a financial derivative designed to
FRBM act transfer credit risk from one party to
Which of the above strategies can be another.
adopted by the by the government while (c) I t i s a g o v e r n m e n t- s p o n s o re d
pursuing the policy of fiscal program to bail out failing banks
consolidation? during economic crises.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) It is a deal where two parties exchange
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only payments in different currencies over
(c) 1 and 4 only an agreed period.
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Q44. With reference to Consumer Price Index

for Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL), Q47. With reference to Deputy Speaker,
consider the following statements: consider the following statements:
1. It is compiled by the National
Statistical Organisation (NSO). 1. The office of the Deputy Speaker
2. It is used to fix minimum wages of existed before independence under
agricultural labourers. the title of Deputy President.
3. It is used to adjust MGNREGA wages
for inflation. 2. In the absence of the Speaker, the
How many of the statements given above Deputy Speaker holds all powers,
are correct? including the disqualification of
(a) Only one members under the tenth Schedule of
(b) Only two the Constitution.
(c) All three
(d) None 3. The C o n s t i t u t i o n m a n d a te s t h e
appointment of a Deputy Speaker
Q45. Summer Solstice happens in the within six weeks from the first sitting of
Northern Hemisphere when: the newly elected Lok Sabha.
(a) the South Pole is tilted away from the
Sun How many of the statements given above
(b) the North Pole is tilted away from the are correct?
Sun
(c) the Sun's rays are directly overhead at (a) Only one
the Tropic of Equator (b) Only two
(d) the Northern Hemisphere experiences (c) All three
the shortest day (d) None

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Q48. Consider the following statements with Q50. Which of the following features is/are
reference to river regime: associated with the divergent plate
Statement I : It is common to find boundaries?
meandering courses over floodplains and
delta plains of rivers. 1. Ocean trenches
Statement II: The stream gradients are 2. Rift Valley
very gentle over floodplains and delta 3. Submarine Mountain ridges
regions.
Statement III: Rejuvenation of river in the Select the correct answer using the code
plains leading to loss of energy by the given below:
river stream. (a) 1 only
Which one of the following is correct in (b) 1 and 2 only
respect of the above statements ? (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III (d) 1, 2 and 3
are correct and both of them explain
Statement-I Q51. Consider the following statements :
(b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III
are correct, but only one of them 1. An ecological footprint measures the
explains Statement-I amount of biologically productive
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is area of the earth needed to produce
correct and that explains Statement-I the required resources as well as to
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement-Ill absorb the wastes produced from
is correct such resources use.
2. Ecological deficit is when a country’s
biocapacity is greater than its
Q49. Which of the following statements is/are population’s Ecologicl Footprint.
incorrect with reference to relative 3 . If the entire planet is running an
humidity: ecological deficit, it is termed as
1. Sub-tropical regions are characterized “overshoot.”
by highest relative humidity.
2. The zones of high and low relative Which of the statements given above
humidity shif t nor thward and is/are correct ?
southward with nor thward and (a) 1 only
southward migration of the sun (b) 2 only
respectively. (c) 1 and 3 only
3. There is maximum relative humidity in (d) 1, 2 and 3
the morning whereas lowest value is
recorded in the evening. Q52. According to the competitive exclusion
Select the correct answer using the code principle, two species cannot continue to
given below: occupy the same
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only (a) Biome
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) Habitat
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Territory
(d) Niche

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Q53. Which of the following statements best Q56. Consider the following statements :
explains the term “Sea Snout” sometimes
seen in the news? 1. A short vegetation period of generally
(a) Spread of petroleum and oil on the sea less than 50 days
surface
(b) One of the types of sea sport famous 2. A very low precipitation of less than
in the oceanic region 400 mm per year
(c) Algal boom occurred on the sea
surface 3. Typical vegetation is cotton grass,
(d) Occurrence of mass scale death of sea sedges, dwarf heath, willows birches
animals and lichens.

Q54. Consider the following statements: The above statements best describes
1. The State Government has the sole which of the following ecosystems?
authority to include any part of the
territorial waters as a National park (a) Grasslands
within its boundaries. (b) Boreal forests
2. Transaction of lawful business with any (c) Deserts
person residing in the wildlife (d) Tundra
sanctuary is granted as per wildlife
protection act of 1972.
3. Human activity is permitted in all the
three biosphere reserve zones but not Q57. With reference to Conservation Assured |
in the National park. Tiger Standards (CA|TS), consider the
Which of the statements given above following statements:
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only 1. It is a set of criteria which allows tiger
(b) 1 only sites to check if their management will
(c) 2 and 3 only lead to successful tiger conservation
(d) 2 only as per the international standards.

Q55. Consider the following statements, with 2. The secretariat for CA|TS is hosted by
reference to Nutrient cycles: WWF.
1. The rate of movement of nutrients
between two reservoirs along their 3. More than total of 20 tiger reserves of
pathways is called flux rate. India have received CA|TS
2. In Phosphorous cycle the pyrite rocks accreditation.
are the impor tant reser voirs of
phosphorus. How many statements given above are
Which of the statements given above correct?
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 only (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 3 (c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None

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Q58. Consider the following statements Q60. The Kaza Summit of 2024 was organised
regarding the Indian National Space by leaders of the Kavango-Zambezi Trans-
Promotion and Authorization Centre (IN- Frontier Conservation Area (KAZA-TFCA)
SPACe): with primary objective to

1. It operates under the administrative (a) Seek political solution to instability in

control of the Indian Space Research Sahel region
Organisation. (b) oppose the ivory trade ban at the CoP
20 of CITES.
2. It provides a single-window clearance (c) Promotion of eco-tourism
for all space-related activities by (d) Monopolise the production Rare Earth
nongovernmental entities. Metals

3. It acts as an interface between ISRO

and non-governmental entities. Q61. Which among the following constitute
“edaphic factors” in the ecology?
How many of the statements given above
are correct? (a) Light, Temperature and Wind velocity
(b) Atmospheric gases, rainfall and
(a) Only one atmospheric humidity
(b) Only two (c) Soil mineral matter, soil water and soil
(c) All three air
(d) None (d) Altitude, steepness and direction of
slope
Q59. Consider the following statements
regarding 'Biodiversity Heritage Sites'
(BHS): Q62. Consider the following pairs:

1. These sites are covered under

Protected Areas under the Wild Life Places in news Location
(Protection) Act, 1972.
1. Al Biqa Valley Syria
2. Richness of domestic species is the
only criterion for declaring BHS. 2. Mount Ruang Indonesia

3. Areas that contain sustainable 3. Shaksgam Valley Kazakhstan

agricultural practices could be
declared as BHS.
How many of the pairs given above are
Which of the statements given above correctly matched?
is/are correct?
(a) Only one pair
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Only two pairs
(b) 3 only (c) All three pairs
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) None of the pair
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q63. Which of the following species of Q67. Arrange the following organisms in the
Vultures are Critically Endangered? correct sequential order of a food chain,
1. Red-Headed Vulture starting from the primary producer to the
2. Himalayan Vulture top predator.
3. Slender-Billed Vulture 1. Desert Hare
4. White-Rumped Vulture 2. Desert willow
Select the correct answer using the code 3. Coyote
given below. 4. Falcon
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only 5. Snake
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only given below.
(a) 1-2-3-4-5
Q64. The 'Deda Method', sometimes (b) 2-1-5-4-3
mentioned in the news is a (c) 3-2-1-5-4
(a) t r a d i t i o n a l m e t h o d o f w a t e r (d) 1-2-5-4-3
purification used in rural India.
(b) technique for the eco-friendly Q68. With reference to waste management
preservation of seeds using natural rule in India, the concept of Extended
materials. Producer Responsibility is incorporated in
(c) new biotechnological approach to soil how many of the following rules?
fertility enhancement. 1. Plastic Waste Management (Second
(d) form of sustainable architecture using Amendment) Rules
locally sourced materials. 2. Battery Waste Management Rules
3. E-Waste (Management) Rules
Q65. Consider the following areas:
1. Kaziranga National Park Select the correct answer using the
2. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary code given below.
3. Keoladeo National Park (a) Only one
4. Great Himalayan National Park (b) Only two
How many of the above areas are included (c) All three
in UNESCO's Natural World Heritage Site (d) None
in India?
(a) Only one Q69. Land Degradation Neutrality Fund, an
(b) Only two investment vehicle leveraging public
(c) Only three money to raise private capital for
(d) All four sustainable land projects is promoted by
which of the following organizations?
Q66. Mangrove expansion is threatening
Kadalundi's migratory shorebirds. In this (a) World Bank
context, Kadalundi mudflat ecosystem is (b) U n i t e d N a t i o n s E n v i r o n m e n t
in Programme
(a) Tamil nadu (c) United Nations Convention to Combat
(b) Kerala Desertification
(c) Karnataka (d) Food and Agricultural Organisation
(d) Andhra Pradesh

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Q70. With reference to Power of Governor, (a) 1 only
consider the following statements: (b) 2 only
1. Article 161 deals with the Pardoning (c) Both 1 and 3
Power of the Governor. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The Governor does not have the
pardoning power in cases where the Q74. With reference to Joint sitting of both the
punishment or sentence is by a Court Houses of Parliament, consider the
Martial or the sentence is of death. following statements:
3. A l l e x e c u t i v e a c t i o n o f t h e
Government of a State is expressed to 1. A joint-sitting of both the Houses of
be taken in the name of the Governor. Parliament can be called for resolving
How many statements given above are deadlocks between the House of
correct? Parliament during passage of any of
(a) Only one the Bills.
(b) Only two 2. In absence of the Speaker of Lok
(c) All three Sabha, the Chairman of the Rajya
(d) None Sabha can preside over the joint-
s i t t i n g of b o t h t h e H o u s e s of
Q71. Which of the following is not a ruminant? Parliament.
(a) Sheep
(b) Horse Which of the statement/s given above
(c) Deer is/are correct?
(d) Goat (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Q72. Money from which of the following funds (c) Both 1 and 3
can only be withdrawn on the approval of (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the Parliament?
1. Consolidated Fund of India Q75. With reference to India economy,
2. Public Accounts of India consider the following statements:
3. Contingency Fund of India
Select the correct answer using the codes 1. Stagflation is a condition of stagnant
given below: growth and persistently high inflation.
(a) 1 and 3 only 2. Higher inflation would decrease the
(b) 1 only purchasing power, thus bringing down
(c) 2 and 3 only the overall demand.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Private consumer demand has little
impact on the growth in India.
Q73. Consider the following statements:
1. The State Election Commissioner is Which of the statement/s given above
appointed and removed by the is/are correct?
President of India. (a) 1 and 3 only
2. Members of a State Public Service (b) 2 only
Commission can be removed only by (c) 2 and 3 only
the President of India. (d) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statement/s given above
is/are correct?

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Q76. Which among the following is the Q79. Consider the following statements
fundamental objective of Directive regarding the Urea gold:
Principle of State Policy?
(a) Equality of status and opportunity 1. It is a sulphur-coated Urea.
(b) Political Justice
(c) Social and Economic Democracy 2. Sulphur coating ensures faster release
(d) Liberty of Faith of nitrogen.

Q77. In context to the Akash-NG (New Which of the statements given above
Generation) missile, consider the is/are correct?
following statements:
1. Akash-NG is a surface-to-air missile. (a) 1 only
2. The missile system is equipped with a (b) 2 only
ramjet engine. (c) Both 1 and 3
3. It is indigenously designed and (d) Neither 1 nor 2
developed solely by the Defence
Research and Development
Organisation. Q80. Who among the following determines
4. The missile system can be launched the qualification and the manner of
from both stationary and mobile selection of members of the Finance
platforms. Commission?
How many of the statements given above
are correct? (a) Union Cabinet
(a) Only one (b) Parliament
(b) Only two (c) Supreme Court of India
(c) Only three (d) President
(d) All four

Q78. It separated, for the first time, the Q81. Consider the following statements
legislative and executive functions of the regarding short selling:
Governor General’s council. In other
words, it established a separate Governor- 1. It involves selling a stock not owned at
General’s legislative council which came the time of trade.
to be known as the Indian (Central)
Legislative Council. This legislative wing of 2. SEBI permits short selling for both
the council functioned as a mini- retail and institutional investors.
parliament, adopting the same
procedures as the British Parliament. Which of the statements given above
Which of the following Acts has been is/are correct?
described by the passage given above?
(a) Government of India Act, 1858 (a) 1 only
(b) Charter Act, 1853 (b) 2 only
(c) Indian Councils Act, 1861 (c) Both 1 and 3
(d) Government of India Act, 1919 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q82. Consider the following statements: Q85. Which among the following materials
Statement-I: India can acquire a foreign was used in making the Harappan seals?
territory or it can cede a part of its territory (a) Sandstone
in favor of a foreign state. (b) Lapis lazuli
Statement-II: Sovereign in the Preamble (c) Jasper
to the Indian Constitution means ‘there is (d) Steatite
no authority above India and is free to
conduct its affair’.
Q86. With reference to Lokpal in India,
Which one of the following is correct in consider the following statements:
respect of the above statements? 1. It functions as an independent
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are constitutional body.
correct, and Statement-II is the correct 2. I t p o s s e s s e s t h e a u t h o r i t y t o
explanation for Statement-I. investigate allegations of corruption
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are against the sitting Prime Minister.
correct, but Statement-II is not the 3. It is obligated to present an annual
correct explanation for Statement-I. report to the Parliament.
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement- How many of the statements given above
II is incorrect. are correct?
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t (a) Only one
Statement-II is correct. (b) Only two
(c) All three
Q83. ‘Green Fuel Alliance India’ recently in (d) None
news, is a joint partnership between India
and which of the following countries?
Q87. Consider the following features:
(a) France 1. Consent of the governed
(b) Denmark 2. Political equality
(c) Germany 3. Accountability of the ruled to the ruler
(d) Japan How many of the above feature/features
outline democratic rule?
Q 8 4 . Re c e n t l y, I n d i a M e t e o ro l o g i c a l (a) Only one
Department (IMD) celebrated 150th Year (b) Only two
of its establishment. In this context, which (c) All three
one of the following statements is not (d) None
correct about IMD?

(a) It comes under the Ministry of Earth Q88. An offshore terminal at Vadinar has been
Sciences. developed to reduce pressure from which
(b) I t i s t h e n o d a l a g e n c y of t h e of the following major ports in India?
Government of India for monitoring (a) Kandla Port
earthquake activity in the country. (b) Cochin Port
(c) It is headquartered at New Delhi. (c) Mormugao Port
(d) I t w a s e s t a b l i s h e d b e f o re t h e (d) New Mangalore Port
independence of India.

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Q89. Consider the following rivers: How many of the statements given above
1. Padma are correct?
2. Jamuna (a) Only one
3. Damodar (b) Only two
4. Meghna (c) All three
(d) None
How many of the rivers are tributaries of
river Hooghly? Q93. Arrange the following countries in
(a) Only one descending order based on their
(b) Only two importance as an export destination for
(c) Only three India in the FY 2023-24:
(d) All four 1. China
2. USA
Q90. The Statutory Liquidity Ratio consists of 3. Netherlands
which of the following assets? 4. UAE
1. Gold Select the correct answer using the code
2. Cash given below.
3. Treasury bills (a) 2-4-3-1
4. Masala bonds (b) 1-2-4-3
(c) 3-1-2-4
Select the correct answer using the code (d) 4-2-3-1
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only Q94. Which among the following best
(b) 1 and 2 only describes the term “concept cells”?
(c) 3 and 4 only (a) Neurons in the brain that constitute
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 declarative memory
(b) Pain receptors in the skin
Q91. Which of the following is excluded from (c) Cardiac cell controlling heart rhythm
the Revenue Deficit while calculating the (d) Neural pathway regulating circadian
value of Effective Revenue Deficit (ERD)? rhythm

(a) Interest payment Q95. Consider the following statements

(b) Tax expenditure regarding the Europa Clipper Mission:
(c) Expenditure on defence 1. NASA will launch Europa Clipper to
(d) Grants for creation of capital assets conduct a detailed reconnaissance of
Saturn's moon.
Q92. With reference to Oil Seed production in 2. Europa will investigate whether the icy
India, consider the following statements: moon could harbor conditions
1. Groundnut can be cultivated as both suitable for life.
Rabi and Kharif Crop in India. Which of the statements given above
2. Groundnut constitutes the largest oil is/are correct?
seed production in India. (a) 1 only
3. The contribution of Kharif oilseed (b) 2 only
crops to total agriculture production is (c) Both 1 and 3
more than rabi oilseed crops in India. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q96. Which of the following is/are called the Q99. Consider the following statements
Bretton Woods Institutions (BWIs)? regarding developments in the Post
1. The World Trade Organisation (WTO) Mauryan period:
2. The World Bank (WB)
3. World Economic Forum (WEF) 1. The Sakas and Kushans introduced
4. The International Monetary Fund cap helmets, boards, and boots which
(IMF) gave them a military advantage.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. 2. The Greeks introduced the practice of
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only military governorship.
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 4 only Which of the above statements is/are
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 correct?

Q97. In the context of the Indian Ocean Rim (a) 1 only

Association (IORA), consider the following
statements: (b) 2 only
1. The IORA is a regional forum that
brings together representatives of (c) Both 1 and 3
Government, Business, and Academia.
2. Pakistan is a member state of IORA. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. IORA focuses exclusively on maritime
security.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Q98. It is created for the administration of a Q100. In the context of ancient India, which of
town which does not yet fulfill all the the following rulers appeared earlier than
conditions necessary for the constitution the other three?
of a municipality. It is neither an elected
body, nor a statutory body. But unlike the (a) Bimbisara
municipality, it is an entirely nominated
body, that is, all its members including the (b) Bindusara
chairman are nominated by the state
government. The above description refers (c) Kanishka
to which of the following types of urban
local bodies? (d) Ajatashatru
(a) Town Area Committee
(b) Notified Area Committee
(c) Cantonment Board
(d) Port Trust

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 GS FLT 4 Solutions (24th April)

Q1) Consider the following statements regarding Family Courts in India:

1. They are established by District Courts with approval from the respective High Courts.

2. There must be a Family Court in every city or town with a population exceeding one million.

3. It is the statutory obligation of the Family courts to make efforts for reconciliation and settlement between the
parties in the first instance.

Which of the statements above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is not correct: Setting up of Family Courts and its functioning lies within the domain of State
Government in consultation with their respective High Courts.
o The Family Courts Act, 1984 provides for the establishment of Family Courts by the State
Governments in consultation with the High Courts to promote conciliation and secure speedy
settlement of disputes relating to marriage and family affairs.
• Statement 2 is correct: As per the Act, it is mandatory for the State Government to set up a Family Court
for every city or a town whose population exceeds one million.
o In other areas of the States, the Family Courts may be set up if the State Governments deems it
necessary.
• Statement 3 is correct: In every suit or proceeding, endeavour shall be made by the Family Court in the first
instance, where it is possible to do so consistent with the nature and circumstances of the case, to assist and
persuade the parties in arriving at a settlement in respect of the subject-matter of the suit or proceeding
and for this purpose a Family Court may, subject to any rules made by the High Court, follow such procedure
as it may deem fit.

Q2) With reference to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), consider the following statements:

1. It was formed on the recommendation of the Hilton Young Commission.

2. The Governor and Deputy Governors are appointed by the Central Government.

3. It maintains price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. How many of the above statements are
correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

SOLUTION: C
 • Statement 1 is correct: The Reserve Bank of India was set up on the basis of the recommendations of the
Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance also known as the Hilton-Young Commission.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Governor and a Deputy Governor shall hold office for such term not exceeding
five years as the Central Government may fix when appointing them, and shall be eligible for re-
appointment.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Preamble of the Reserve Bank of India describes the basic functions of the
Reserve Bank as: “to regulate the issue of Bank notes and keeping of reserves with a view to securing
monetary stability in India and generally to operate the currency and credit system of the country to its
advantage; to have a modern monetary policy framework to meet the challenge of an increasingly complex
economy, to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.”

Q3) Which of the following are likely to be impacted by the base year revision for GDP computation in the Indian
economy?

1. GDP growth rate

2. Sectoral contribution to GDP

3. Exchange rate of the Rupee

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

The government is considering changing the base year for the computation of the GDP to 2022-23. About Base Year:
In the calculation of an index the base year is the year with which the values from other years are compared. Real
GDP is calculated using the prices of goods and services in the base year.

Statement 1 is correct:

• A Base Year used for computation of GDP is updated every 5-10 years.
• It ensures that indices accurately reflect changes in the economy’s structure, such as shifts in consumption
patterns, sector weight and the incorporation of new sectors.
• The growth rate of GDP in a particular year is calculated by comparing the value of GDP in that particular
year with that in some other year. When the base year is revised, the GDP estimates for the current and past
years are recalibrated. This will impact the value of the GDP growth rate.

Statement 2 is correct: Revising the Base Year will change the value of output coming from various sectors of the
economy. Thus, a base year revision will change the relative weightage of different sectors.

Statement 3 is not correct: The exchange rate is determined by market forces like demand and supply of foreign
currency and is independent of GDP computation or base year revisions. Thus, it is not likely to be impacted by a
base year revision.
Q4) Which of the following best describes the provision under which governments claim ownership of an individual's
property when they pass away without a will or any designated legal heirs?

(a) Escheats

(b) Inheritance

(c) Confiscation

(d) Forfeitures

Solution: A

• Escheats are the form of non-tax revenue where the government makes claims over the property or asset,
the owner of which has died without leaving any will or has not provided any name as their legal heir.
• Forfeitures are types of basic surety or bonds that are imposed in the form of penalties for non-compliance
on the orders or contravening or violating the provisions/ clauses present in any contract, thus, not following
the doctrine of promissory estoppel.
• Fines and Penalties are imposed on the conditions of infringement of laws and these are embedded in those
laws of what will be the amount of fine or penalty that are levied on any individual or organisation.
• Hedging is a form of economic activity, especially related to financial services where there are steps taken to
minimise the loss or risk (say, insurance)

Q5) Consider the following:

1. Government spending.

2. Export earnings.

3. Taxation.

4. Foreign direct investment (FDI).

How many of the above factors can be categorized as an injection in the circular flow of income?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Solution: c

• About circular flow of income: The circular flow model demonstrates how money moves through the
economy. Households provide factors of production (like labor) to firms and receive income (like wages).
Firms, in turn, produce goods and services, which households purchase, creating a cycle of income and
expenditure. In the circular flow of income, injections are additions to the economy’s income and
expenditure, coming from outside the normal flow of households and firms.
• Statements 1 is correct but statement & is not correct: In a three sector model, government sector cash
flows are included. The government injects money into the circle through government spending (G) on
programs such as Social Security. It also extracts money from households and businesses by way of taxes.
Therefore, Government spending is considered as injection, whereas taxation is considered a leakage.
• Statement 2 is correct: In a four-sector model, money also flows into the circle through exports (X). Exports
bring income into the economy from foreign markets, contributing to injections in the circular flow of
income.
• Statement 4 is correct: In a five-sector model, cash flow from the financial sector is added. FDI brings
external capital into the domestic economy, boosting production, employment, and infrastructure,
categorizing it as an injection.
Q6) Which of the following statements correctly differentiates "Due Process of Law" from "Procedure Established by
Law"?

(a) “Due Process of Law” allows Judiciary to examine lawfulness as well as reasonability of a law, while “Procedure
Established by Law” allows examining only lawfulness.

(b) “Due Process of Law” allows the Judiciary to examine only the procedural aspects of a law, while “Procedure
Established by Law” allows the Judiciary to examine both procedural and substantive aspects.

(c) "Procedure Established by Law" and "Due Process of Law" are the same in Indian legal interpretation.

(d) "Procedure Established by Law" allows courts to question the substantive value choices made by the legislature,
while "Due Process of Law" does not.

Solution: A

Option (a) is the correct answer:

• “Procedure Established by Law” allows for the deprivation of life and liberty as long as there is a validly
enacted law, without the requirement for the law to be fair or just.
• Whereas, “Due Process of Law” ensures that the law must not only be valid but also fair, just, and
reasonable.
• It goes beyond just the procedure and also examines the substantive fairness of the law itself.
• Additional information:
o Article 21 of the Constitution of India explicitly provides that “No person shall be deprived of his life
or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.”
o But in the landmark case Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), the Supreme Court expanded the
scope of Article 21 by introducing the concept of “due process of law”

Q7) In the context of Indian polity, consider the following:

1. Public order

2. Morality

3. Friendly relations with Foreign States

4. Health

How many of the above can be a basis for restrictions on the Fundamental Right to freedom of conscience and free
profession of religion under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Solution: C

• Article 25 of the Indian Constitution deals with Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and
propagation of religion.
• It states that subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of Part III, all persons
are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion.
• Thus, restrictions on the grounds of “Friendly relations with Foreign States” is not mentioned under Article
25 of the Indian Constitution.
Q8) With reference to the Union Territories in India, consider the following statements:

1. Parliament has the power to make law on any subject matter of a Union territory, even if it has a legislative
assembly.

2. Provisions of Part IX and Part IXA of the Constitution of India are not applicable in the Union Territories.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: A

• Statement 1 is correct:
o Parliament can make laws on any subject matter (including state list) for the union territories.
However, note that the legislative assembly of Puducherry can also make laws on matters of the
State List and the Concurrent List.
o Similarly, the legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws on any matter of the State List (except
public order, police and land) and the Concurrent List.
• Statement 2 is not correct:
o According to 243L and Article 243ZB, Part IX (which deals with Panchayats) and Part IXA (which
deals with Municipalities) are applicable to Union Territories as well.
o However, President may, by public notification, direct that the provisions of this Part shall apply to
any Union territory or part thereof subject to such exceptions and modifications as he may specify in
the notification.

Q9) With reference to cognizable offences, consider the following statements :

Statement I : All cognizable offences are compoundable in India.

Statement II : A compoundable offence is one in which the victim can voluntarily agree to withdraw or settle the
case, leading to the withdrawal of charges.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
Solution: D

Statement I is not correct but statement II is correct:

• A cognizable offence is one in which the police can arrest the accused without any warrant or permission
from the court and initiate the investigation proceedings. These offences are more serious and heinous.
• A compoundable offence is one in which the aggrieved person (the complainant) decides to dismiss the
accusations against the accused.
• The result of compounding an offence is essentially the dismissal of accusations made against the accused.
 • All cognizable offences are not compoundable. Some serious offences such as murder, rape, acts of
terrorism etc. can not be compounded.

Q10) Consider the following provisions:

1. Securing a living wage for all workers.

2. Promotion of cottage industries on an individual or co-operative basis in rural and urban areas.

3. Providing early childhood care to the children below the age of six years.

Which of the above mentioned provisions are included as Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) under the Indian
Constitution?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: c

• About Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):

o The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36
to 51.
o They denote the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting
laws. These are the constitutional instructions or recommendations to the State in legislative,
executive and administrative matters.
• Statement 1 is correct: Article 43 directs the state to secure a living wage, a decent standard of life and social
and cultural opportunities for all workers.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Article 43 directs the state to promote cottage industries on an individual or
cooperative basis in rural areas, but not in urban areas.
• Statement 3 is correct: Article 45 directs the state to provide early childhood care and education for all
children until they complete the age of six years.

Q11) “Resilience and Sustainability Trust” and the “Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust”, sometimes seen in news,
are initiatives of which of the following organizations?

(a) World Bank

(b) International Monetary Fund

(c) Asian Development Bank

(d) United Nations Development Programme

SOLUTION: B

Option (b) is the correct answer:

• ‘Resilience and Sustainability Trust’ and ‘Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust’ are the initiatives of the
International Monetary Fund (IMF).
• Resilience and Sustainability Trust: The IMF’s Resilience and Sustainability Trust (RST) helps low-income and
vulnerable middle-income countries build resilience to external shocks and ensure sustainable growth,
contributing to their longer-term balance of payments stability.
• Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust: The PRGT is the IMF’s main vehicle for providing concessional
financing (currently at zero interest rates) to low-income countries (LICs).
The PRGT’s interest-free loans support well-designed economic programs that help catalyze additional financing from
donors, development institutions, and the private sector.

Q12) Consider the following statements regarding Rupee Depreciation:

1. A fall in demand for a country’s goods can cause currency depreciation.

2. It leads to a decline in the value of foreign remittances from overseas workers.

3. Interest rate hike by Reserve Bank of India can help in controlling rupee depreciation.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Solution: B

• About Currency Depreciation: Currency depreciation is a fall in the value of a currency in terms of its
exchange rate versus other currencies.
• Statement 1 is correct:
o A crucial factor that determines the demand for any currency is the demand among foreigners for
the goods and assets of the country.
o Since foreigners will first have to purchase the local currency before they can purchase a country’s
goods and assets, high demand for a country’s goods and assets translates to high demand for its
currency and which in turn leads to a rise in the value of the currency.
o A fall in demand for a country’s goods or assets, on the other hand, will cause the value of its
currency to fall.
• Statement 2 is not correct: A fall in the value of domestic currency vis-a-vis foreign currency means that the
value of foreign remittances sent by overseas workers to the domestic country will increase.
• Statement 3 is correct: Elevated interest rates tend to lure foreign investors in search of more lucrative
returns on their investments. Consequently, a nation raising its interest rates often witnesses heightened
demand for its currency. This will help arrest currency depreciation.

Q13) Who among the following inscribed the calligraphy of the original handwritten Constitution of India?

(a) Nandalal Bose

(b) Abanindranath Tagore

(c) Prem Behari Narain Raizada

(d) Pingali Venkayya

Solution: c

• Option (c) is the correct answer: A unique feature about the Constitution of India is the fact that it was
originally a handwritten document. It was calligraphed in English by Prem Behari Raizada and in Hindi by
Vasant K. Vaidya.
• Additional information: Raizada used a flowing italic style and used hundreds of pen nibs during his writing.
His signature appears on every page of the original Constitution. This was his only request to undertake this
project of national importance.
Q14) The State Legislative Council has equal powers with the State Legislative Assembly in which of the following
matters?

1. Election of the members of Rajya Sabha from the State

2. Approval of ordinances promulgated by the Governor

3. Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: c

• About State Legislative Council: It is the upper house of a state legislature in those states which have a
bicameral legislature. Like Rajya Sabha, it is a permanent body.
• Statement 1 is not correct: The council does not participate in the election of the President of India and
representatives of the state in the Rajya Sabha.
• The powers and status of the State Legislative Council are broadly equal to that of the State Legislative
Assembly in the following matters:
o Introduction of ordinary bills.
o Approval of ordinances issued by the governor. (Thus, statement 2 is correct)
o Selection of ministers including the chief minister.
o Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like State Finance Commission, state
public service commission and Comptroller and Auditor General of India. (Thus, statement 3 is
correct)
o Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the state public service commission.
o Additional Information: Presently, 6 states, namely, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra,
Telangana, and Uttar Pradesh have Legislative Councils.

Q15) Consider the following statements regarding the Parliament of India:

1. The Parliament of India is required to meet at least once every year, with a maximum gap of six months between
two sessions.

2. The Budget Session of the Parliament is generally held from January to April, while the Monsoon Session is
conducted from July to September.

3. A session of the Parliament can only be prorogued with the President's approval, and cannot be adjourned without
the President’s consent.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: B
 • Statement 1 is correct: Article 85 of the Indian Constitution mandates that there must not be a gap of more
than six months between two sessions of Parliament. This effectively means that the Parliament must meet
at least twice a year.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Budget Session generally takes place from January to April, and the Monsoon
Session is from July to September. This is the typical scheduling, though the dates can be adjusted depending
on various factors.
• Statement 3 is not correct: While the President can prorogue a session, the session can be adjourned
without the President’s consent. The adjournment of a session is an internal parliamentary procedure carried
out by the Speaker (Lok Sabha) or the Chairman (Rajya Sabha), and it doesn’t require the President’s
approval.

Q16) Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution has prescribed a term of five years for Lok Sabha.

2. The term of Lok Sabha cannot be extended beyond 5 years under any circumstance.

3. Whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate his office and continues till the newly-elected
Lok Sabha meets.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct:
o The Constitution has prescribed a term of five years for Lok Sabha.
o Article 83 of the Indian Constitution states that the Lok Sabha shall have a term of five years from the
first meeting after a general election, unless dissolved earlier.
• Statement 2 is NOT correct:
o The term of the Lok Sabha can be extended beyond 5 years during a national emergency, as per
Article 83(2) of the Constitution.
o The extension can only happen by a law passed by Parliament, and it cannot extend beyond one year
at a time, though the extension can continue for the duration of the emergency.
• Statement 3 is correct:
o Whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate his office and continues till the
newly elected Lok Sabha meets.
o According to Article 93 of the Indian Constitution, the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
continue in office even after the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, until the newly-elected members of
the Lok Sabha meet.
Q17) Consider the following statements regarding ‘No-Confidence Motion in the Indian Parliamentary System’:

1. It is not necessary for the No-Confidence motion to state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha.

2. The motion needs support of at least 100 members before it can be introduced in the Lok Sabha.

3. It is moved against the entire Council of Ministers and not against an individual ministers or private members.

4. No Union government in India has lost any No-Confidence Motion so far.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 2, 3, and 4 only

solution: B

Exp) Option b is the correct answer. Under Article 75 (3), the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok
Sabha and it remains in office till it enjoys confidence of majority of the members in Lok Sabha. Thus, a motion of no-
confidence is moved to remove the council of ministers and thus oust the government from office.

• Statement 1 is correct: A motion of no-confidence need not state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok
Sabha. Censure Motion should state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha and is moved for censuring
the council of ministers for specific policies and actions.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 118 of the Constitution permits each house of Parliament to make its own
rules for conduct of business. Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha specifies the procedure for a motion of
noconfidence. Any member may give a written notice before 10 am; the Speaker will read the motion of
noconfidence in the House and ask all those favouring the motion to rise. If there are 50 MPs in favour, the
Speaker could allot a date for discussing the motion – but this has to be within 10 days. The motion needs
the support of 50 members to be admitted.
• Statement 3 is correct: No Confidence Motion is moved against the entire Council of Ministers including the
Prime Minister and not individual ministers or private members. Censure Motion can be moved against an
individual minister or a group of ministers or the entire council of ministers.
• Statement 4 incorrect: In the History of Indian Parliament, the Vajpayee government lost the noconfidence
motion in 1999 by 1 vote which led to fall of his government. The first non-Congress government which faced
no-confidence motions twice was Morarji Desai's, who headed the Janata Party regime. One of these was
brought by Congress leader Y B Chavan in July 1979. Desai resigned before the motion could be put to vote.
This became the first no-confidence motion that led to fall of the government

18) In context of Constitutionalism, the concept of distributive justice can be most appropriately related to

a) Performance of duties along with the claim of rights

b) Socially just allocation of resources

c) Harmony between an individual and Society

d) Equal political status through constitutional remedies

Solution: B

Ans) b Exp) Option b is the correct answer. To achieve social justice in society, governments might have to do more
than just ensuring that laws and policies treat individuals in a fair manner. Social justice also concerns the just
distribution of resources, whether it is between nations or between different groups and individuals within a society.
Distributive justice concerns the socially just allocation of resources. Often contrasted with just process, which is
concerned with the administration of law, distributive justice concentrates on outcomes. John Rawls theory of Justice
is one of the examples of Distributive Justice. In his book A Theory of Justice, John Rawls outlines his famous theory
about justice as fairness. The theory consists of three core components: 1) The equality of people in rights and
liberties; 2) The equality of opportunities for all; and 3) An arrangement of economic inequalities focused on benefit
maximization for those who are least advantaged.

19) Which one of the following statements is correct regarding repealing of a law in the Indian context?

a) Parliament draws its power to repeal a law from Article 245 of Indian Constitution.

b) All Appropriation Acts usually contain a repealing provision which specifically repeals older acts in India.

c) In India, laws cannot be repealed through ordinance issued by the President.

d) The legislation for repealing of a law need not have to be passed by both Houses of Parliament.

SOLUTION: A

• Option a is correct:
o Article 245 of the Constitution gives Parliament the power to make laws for the whole or any part of
India, and state legislatures the power to make laws for the state.
o Parliament draws its power to repeal a law from the same provision.
• Option b is incorrect:
o In the United Kingdom, all Appropriation Acts usually contain a repealing provision which specifically
repeals older Appropriation Acts.
o In Australia the route followed is that of automatic repeal for Appropriation Acts.
o In India, however, no such mechanism is in place and Appropriation Acts continue to sit on
statutebooks.
o The Law Commission recommended that a practice like the one of the United Kingdom to include a
repeal clause in the Appropriation Act every year would serve a useful purpose, without
necessitating major amendments or introduction of new laws.
• Option c is incorrect:
o Laws in India can be repealed in two ways — either through an ordinance, or through legislation.
o In case an ordinance is used, it would need to be replaced by a law passed by Parliament within six
months. If the ordinance lapses because it is not approved by Parliament, the repealed law can be
revived.
• Option d is incorrect:
o The legislation for repealing of the law have to be passed by both Houses of Parliament.
o The government recently brought legislation to repeal the farm laws.
o It will have to be passed by both Houses of Parliament, and receive the President’s assent before it
comes into effect. Usually, Bills titled Repealing and Amendment are introduced for this purpose.

20) With reference to Raja Ram Mohan Roy, consider the following statements:

1. He was against the monotheistic ideals of the Vedanta

2. The first organisation founded by him was Brahmo Sabha

3. Abolishing Sati practice was his sole focus regarding reforms related to women

4. He did not believe in the infallibility of the scriptures

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Solution: A

Only statement 4 is correct.

• Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a 19th century Bengali social reformer and early nationalist. He was most famous
for his lifelong battle against the social evil of Sati and key role in getting the legislation to ban it passed in
1829. He was also the founder of the famous social reform organisation Brahmo Samaj.
• Statement a is incorrect: He believed in prayers, meditation and reading of Upanishads as the only form of
worship. He opposed idolatry and all forms of sacrifices and rituals. He believed in monotheism, as preached
in the Upanishads (Brahman-the eternal reality). In 1814, he set up the Atmiya Sabha (or Society of Friends)
in Calcutta to propagate the monotheistic ideals of the Vedanta and to campaign against idolatry.
• Statement b is incorrect: The first organisation founded by him was Atmiya Sabha (not Brahmo Sabha) in
1814. It was also known as the “Society of Friends”. Its aims were to propagate monotheistic ideals of
Vedanta and reform Hinduism by campaigning against idolatry, caste rigidities, rituals, etc. Brahmo Sabha
was founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy much later in 1828.
• Statement c is incorrect: The main (but not the sole) focus of Raja Ram Mohan Roy’s social reform
campaigns was abolishment of the evil practice of Sati. As far as reforms in the conditions of women are
related, he also worked for the improvement in the conditions of widows - ensuring their property rights, and
also providing women education and banning polygamy. He advocated for equal rights for women in all
spheres of life.
• Statement d is correct: Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a rationalist social reformer. This means that while he
respected the original scriptures like the Upanishads, he didn’t believe them to be infallible. He believed that
a human being must not blindly follow any ideas and must apply their mind and rationale to decide whether
an action was morally correct and humane or not. This is in contrast to some revivalist social reformers of the
19th century like Swami Dayanand Saraswati and his Arya Samaj who believed that scriptures like the Vedas
were infallible and must be followed without question.

21) Which of the following statements regarding ‘Sreni’ of ancient India is not correct?

a) It was like a guild of craftsmen and traders

b) They had their own laws and customs

c) They were solely concerned with harmonising production of goods and making trade efficient

d) They had their own seals, insignia and currency

solution: c

Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

• Trade was an important economic activity in Ancient India, and a great contributor and marker of
urbanisation. Ancient Guilds, called Srenis played an important part in consolidating growth of professions,
crafts and trade on an economic level and creation of concept of Jati on a social level.
• Statement a is correct: A Sreni in ancient India was an association, loosely termed as a guild of craftsmen and
traders. Each craft and each category of trader/ merchant had their own guild. For example a Sreni of
cobblers, Sreni of weavers, Sreni of builders, Sreni of local merchants, A Sreni of long distance traders, etc.
• Statement b is correct: The members of a Sreni generally lived and worked according to the rules of their
respective guilds (Sreni Dharma). The king generally provided protection to the Sreni and respected their
customs and laws. Most aspects of daily life and resolution of petty disputes was conducted in accordance
with these laws and customs. This is different from a modern State, where there are secular civil and criminal
laws which are uniform for all citizens.
• Statement c is incorrect: The Srenis had many functions, primary of which was the harmonising of
production and making trading efficient by ensuring availability of raw materials, transportation and markets.
Some other functions included: 1) Hearing petty matters and making judgements according to their guild
 laws 2) Providing banking services 3) Making religious donations to Sanghas, temples, etc. 4) Creating
working arrangements, deciding on aspects of daily life like religious observances, etc.
• Statement d is correct: The guilds were pretty powerful and an important socio-economic agent. They had
their own seals (like those found from Gupta times), struck their own coins (like those with the legends like
nigama) and insignia which established their identity in important transactions and on acts of religious
donations, etc

22) Which of the following statements is a correct reason for the growth of militant nationalism during 1905-1909?

a) Dissatisfaction aroused due to Montford Reforms

b) Increase in number of educated people in the country

c) External international events like Russian Revolution

d) Growth in socialistic ideologies

solution: B

• Option b is the correct answer.

• The late 1890s and the early 1900s saw a flurry of militant activities. The Chapekar brothers, Prafulla Chaki &
Khudiram Bose’s attempts at the life of British functionaries, secret groups like Anushilan Samiti, Ghadr, etc
were a testament to the decreasing patience of the young Indian nationalists with British policies.
• Statement a is incorrect:
o The Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms or Mont–Ford Reforms, were introduced by the colonial
government to introduce self-governing institutions gradually in British India.
o Reforms led to the enactment of the Government of India Act of 1919. This instilled a sense of
nationalism and awakening among Indians and they moved towards achieving the goal of Swaraj.
Thus these reforms did not influence militant nationalism during 1905-1909.
• Statement b is correct:
o As people with modern education increased in India, their awareness regarding progressive political
ideas such as rule of law, right to self-determination, etc increased.
o They also became aware of how Britain was draining India of its resources in a unilateral way and
causing deindustrialisation leading to poverty.
o Most of this youth which was well educated wanted good employment and business opportunities,
but were denied these because of Britain’s exploitative administrative and economic policies like
excluding Indians from higher civil services, not letting Indian industries grow, etc. Thus, it was one of
the factors for the rise of militant nationalism during 1905-1909.
• Statement c is incorrect:
o Events like the Russian Revolution did inspire a new wave of militant nationalism, but that was in the
1920s and 1930s as the Russian revolution took place in 1917.
o As far as growth of militant nationalism in early 1900s is concerned, it was influenced by
international events which proved that the belief of European superiority and invincibility was a
myth 1) Victory of the Abyssinians against Italy (1896) 2) Boer Wars where the British were crippled
(1899-1902) 3) Japan’s victory over Russia (1905)
• Statement d is incorrect:
o Growth in socialistic ideologies was responsible for the wave of militant nationalism in 1920s and
1930s. Socialistic ideologies grew because of worker exploitation. But that came after Indian
industries saw a boom after World War One.
o So for the early 1900s, socialistic ideologies were not an issue.
o The exploitation and general disrespect for Indians was one of the main driving forces behind this
wave of militant nationalism. Knowledge Base: Other reasons: 1) Dissatisfaction with achievements
of moderates 2) Reactionary policies of Curzon like Official Secrets Act, etc 3) Reaction to Increasing
Westernisation 4) Growth of confidence and self-respect among Indians
23) With reference to the impact of micro plastics in human body, consider the following statements:

1. They may permanently reside in the body.

2. They can limit transport of oxygen in body tissues.

3. They might affect the normal functioning of hormones in a body.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: D

Exp) Option D is the correct answer. Micro plastics are tiny plastic particles less than five millimeters long that result
from both commercial product development and the breakdown of larger plastics.

• Statement 1 is correct:
o There is no evidence to suggest that micro plastics can permanently reside in a human body.
Although, researches have shown that they can cause cell death and allergic reactions in humans.
o However, the precise health impact to the human body is uncertain because it is not known how
long micro plastics remain in the body before being excreted.
o So, it may permanently reside in the human body.
• Statement 2 is correct: A recent study found that micro plastics can latch on to the outer membranes of red
blood cells and may limit their ability to transport oxygen. The particles have also been found in the
placentas of pregnant women, and in pregnant rats they pass rapidly through the lungs into the hearts,
brains and other organs of the foetuses.
• Statement 3 is correct: Micro plastics might act as irritants, in much the same way asbestos fibers are now
known to inflame the lungs and cause cancer. Research has shown the potentiality for metabolic disturbance,
neurotoxicity as well as carcinogenic effects. It can act as endocrine disruptors, thus interfering with normal
hormone function and potentially causing weight gain. Micro plastics are also thought to act as vectors for
microorganisms and toxic chemicals.

24) Which of the following may indicate that an economy is facing deflation?

1. Rise in general price of goods

2. Fall in the money supply

3. Fall in the aggregate demand

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: B

Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

Deflation causes the nominal costs of capital, labor, goods, and services to fall, though their relative prices may be
unchanged.
 • Statement 1 is incorrect: Deflation is a decrease in the general price level of goods and services. In other
words, deflation is negative inflation. When it occurs, the value of currency increases over time. Thus, more
goods and services can be purchased for the same amount of money.
• Statement 2 is correct: Deflation happens when the demand for goods falls in relation to the supply. The
reduction in demand occurs due to a reduction in the supply of money in an economy. In simple words, a
shortage of money in circulation leads to a reduction in demand for goods, thus leading to deflation. A fall
in money supply can mean that people, instead of spending their money immediately, prefer to save more of
it. This discourages spending in the economy. Thus, leading to a decline in demand.
• Statement 3 is correct: Negative events in the economy, such as recession, may cause a fall in aggregate
demand. A decline in aggregate demand typically results in subsequent lower price and finally deflation if
continued over longer period.

25) With reference to the Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) deposits, consider the following statements:

1. Non-Resident External Account is denominated in foreign currency.

2. NRI investments on repatriable basis are considered as domestic investments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

SOLUTION: D

Option d is the correct answer. The Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) mandates that a Non-Resident Indian
(NRI) must maintain an NRI account if they wish to carry out financial transactions in India. There are three types of
Non-Resident Indian (NRI) deposit accounts - Foreign Currency Non-Resident Account (FCNR), NonResident External
Account (NRE) and Non-Resident Ordinary Account (NRO).

• Statement 1 is incorrect:
o Foreign Currency Non-Resident Account (FCNR) is a foreign currency denominated account.
o FCNR is a fixed deposit account opened by an NRI to transfer their foreign income in the same
currency. On the other hand, NRE accounts are Indian Rupee denominated accounts which means all
the funds you deposit are maintained in Indian rupee.
o When you deposit foreign currency into this account, the current exchange rate is applied by the
receiving bank and Indian rupees matching the exchange rate are deposited in your account.
• Statement 2 is incorrect:
o NRI investments that are repatriable are considered Foreign Direct Investment while non-
repatriable investments are considered domestic investment.
o The government last year, had clarified that downstream investment by a company owned and
controlled by non-resident Indians (NRIs) on a non-repatriation basis will not be considered foreign
direct investment (FDI).
• Knowledge Base:
o FCNR is a fixed deposit account opened by an NRI to transfer their foreign income in the same
currency. Fundamentally, it differs from NRE and NRO in terms of the underlying currency
denomination. NRIs can deposit funds in 7 currencies - US Dollars, UK Pound, Singapore Dollar, Hong
Kong Dollar, Canadian Dollar, Australian Dollar and Swiss Franc.
o There are no restrictions on repatriation from an FCNR account. An NRO account is also an Indian
rupee-denominated account and is available as a savings account and a fixed deposit. However, while
an NRE account is used to keep money earned overseas, an NRO account is for managing the income
you earn in India.
 o This income can be through sources like rent (from a property you own in India), dividends, salaries,
etc. Investment on repatriation basis means the sale or maturity proceeds of an investment, net of
taxes, are eligible to be transferred out of India. In case of non-repatriation investments, this cannot
be transferred out of the country.

Q26) Consider the following statements with reference to the Cropping patterns in India:

1. The tea plantations require warm and moist, frost-free climate throughout the year.

2. The black soil region of the Deccan is an important wheat-growing region in India.

3. Barley and mustard are Rabi Crops which are aided in growth by western temperate cyclones.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

• A variety of food and nonfood crops are grown in different parts of the country depending upon the
variations in soil, climate and cultivation practices.
• Statement 1 is correct: Tea is a plantation crop used as beverage. It is grown over undulating topography of
hilly areas. The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-
drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter. Tea bushes require warm and moist frost-free climate all
through the year. Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year ensure continuous growth of tender
leaves. Tea is a labor-intensive industry. It requires abundant labour as well.
• Statement 2 is correct: There are two important wheat-growing zones in the country – the GangaSatluj plains
in the northwest and black soil region of the Deccan. The major wheat-producing states are Punjab, Haryana,
Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan and parts of Madhya Pradesh.
• Statement 3 is correct: Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer
from April to June. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard. Availability
of precipitation during winter months due to the western temperate cyclones helps in the success of these
crops.

27) With reference to the Art and Culture of India, which one of the following statements is correct regarding
Sittanavasal Paintings in Tamil Nadu?

a) All of these paintings depict themes related to Shaivism and Vaishnavism.

b) The central element of these cave paintings is Lord Shiva as ‘Ardhnarishwar’.

c) These paintings were contemporary to Bhimbetka cave paintings.

d) These cave paintings have a close resemblance to Bagh and Ajanta paintings

Solution: D

Option d is the correct answer.

• Sittanavasal Cave (Arivar Koil) Paintings are dated from 1st century BC to 10th century AD, and located in
Tamil Nadu. Option a is incorrect These famous rock-cut cave temples are known for the paintings based on
Jainism, not Shaivism and Vaishnavism. Sittanavasal is a distorted form of Siddhanivasan, which means abode
 of Siddhas or Jain Gods. The paintings are not only on the walls but also on the ceiling and pillars. The
paintings are with the theme of Jain Samavasarana (Preaching Hall). The medium used for painting was
vegetable and mineral dyes, and was done by putting colours on surface of thin wet lime plaster. The
common colours included yellow, green, orange, blue, black and white.
• Option b is incorrect: The central element of the paintings in Sittanavasal is a pond with lotuses. Flowers in
this pond are collected by monks and there are ducks, swans, fishes and animals. This scene shows
Samavasarana - an important scene of Jain religion.
• Option c is incorrect: Sittanavasal Caves represent one of the best cave paintings of early medieval India.
Most paintings date to the Pandyan period i.e. 9th century AD. Bhimbetka Cave paintings date back to
approximately 30,000 years.
• Option d is correct:
• Sittanavasal Cave Paintings have a striking resemblance to paintings from Bagh and Ajanta.
• These caves together represent a Jain temple complex, situated in a small village near Trichy in Pudukottai
district of Tamil Nadu.
• The most famous monument is a rock-cut monastery of the Jains which contains remnants of beautiful
frescoes from the 7th century.
• Many of them are typical of the 9th century Pandyan period and include detailed pictures of animals, fish,
ducks, masculine figures gathering lotuses from a pond and dancing girls.

28) Consider the following statements with respect to the Uniform Civil Code (UCC):

1. Goa is the only state in India which follows Uniform Civil code.

2. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar argued in the Constituent Assembly that imposition of Uniform Civil Code would hinder social
reform efforts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

A Uniform Civil Code aims to replace personal laws based on the scriptures and customs of various religious
communities, with a common set of rules governing every citizen of the country.

Statement 1 is correct: Goa has been following the Portuguese Civil Code 1867, which is also called Uniform Civil
Code. After its liberation from Portuguese rule, the UCC survives through Section 5(1) of the Goa, Daman and Diu
Administration Act, 1962. The Uniform Civil Code in Goa applies to everyone irrespective of religion, sex, order of the
birth etc. Goa is the only state in India which follows Uniform Civil code.

Statement 2 is incorrect: B. R Ambedkar was in favour of the Uniform Civil Code in the Constituent assembly
debates. Ambedkar was of the view that the laws were grossly discriminatory in nature where women were given
little to no rights. During Constituent Assembly debates, Ambedkar said that, “There was nothing new about the
Uniform Civil Code. There already existed a common civil code in the country except for the areas of marriage,
inheritance — which are the main targets for the Uniform Civil Code in the Draft Constitution.” However, Ambedkar
also felt that the UCC should be optional. Crucially Ambedkar argued that the absence of a UCC would hinder the
government’s attempts at social reforms.
29) With reference to the Indian parliamentary procedures, which of the following statements is correct?

a) Zero Hour is neither mentioned in the Rules of Procedure of the House nor in the Constitution.

b) A member can ask about matters that are under adjudication before courts.

c) Unstarred questions are answered orally on the floor of the House.

d) Question Hour is held on all days of the session in the House without any exception.

SOLUTION: A

Exp) Option a is the correct answer. Statement a is correct.

• Zero Hour is an Indian parliamentary innovation. The phrase does not find mention in the Rules of Procedure
of the House as well as in the Constitution of India. The concept of Zero Hour started organically in the first
decade of Indian Parliament when members felt the need for raising important constituency and national
issues..
• Statement b is incorrect. Parliamentary rules provide guidelines on the kind of matters that can be asked by
Members of Parliament. It should be limited to 150 words. It should also be related to an area of
responsibility of the Government of India. They should not seek information about matters that are secret or
are under adjudication before courts. It is the presiding officers of the two Houses who finally decide
whether a matter raised by an MP will be admitted for answering by the government.
• Statement c is incorrect. A starred question is distinguished by an asterisk and requires an oral answer on
the floor of the House. Hence, supplementary questions can follow in this instance unlike unstarred
questions which are answered in written form.
• Statement d is incorrect. Question Hour in both Houses is held on all days of the session. But there are two
days when an exception is made. There is no Question Hour on the day, the President addresses members
from both Houses in the Central Hall. Also, Question Hour is not scheduled on the day the Finance Minister
presents the Budget.

30) Which among the following is/are the impact(s) of imposition of Pigouvian tax on the economy?

1. It promotes market efficiency in the economy.

2. It promotes government companies over private companies.

3. It discourages the consumption of goods that creates negative externalities.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: B

Option b is the correct answer.

• A Pigouvian tax is a tax on a market transaction that creates a negative externality borne by individuals not
directly involved in the transaction. The tax is normally set by the government to correct an undesirable or
inefficient market outcome (a market failure).
o Examples include carbon taxes—imposed on companies that burn coal, oil or gas which emits
greenhouse gases. These emissions cause climate change which is a negative externality. Some of the
advantages include: 1) Fosters market efficiency Pigouvian taxes promote market efficiency by
 incorporating the additional costs imposed by negative externalities. In such a case, the final cost
(original cost plus tax) will reflect the full social cost of the economic activity. (Hence, Statement 1 is
correct)
• 2) Generates additional government revenue: It is a tax assessed against private individuals or businesses for
engaging in activities that create adverse side effects for society. However, it does not promote government
companies over private companies. Pigouvian taxes generate additional revenues for the government. The
additional funds may be used to subsidize initiatives and programs that will further challenge negative
externalities. (Hence, Statement 2 is not correct)
• 3) Discourages harmful activities: In certain cases, Pigouvian taxes may effectively discourage the activities
that lead to negative externalities. Examples of pigouvian taxes include tobacco taxes, sugar taxes, and
carbon taxes. (Hence, Statement 3 is correct)

31) Consider the following properties of the Virus:

1. It is metabolically inactive outside the host cell.

2. They are known to infect all kinds of cells except bacteria.

3. All Coronaviruses are RNA viruses.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct:

• Viruses are typically described as obligate intracellular parasites.

• It is an acellular infectious agent that requires the presence of a host cell to multiply.
• Outside the host cell, they are inert or metabolically inactive.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Viruses have been found to infect all types of cells- humans, animals, plants, bacteria, yeast,
archaea, protozoans etc. Eg. Bacteriophages or simply phages are viruses that infect bacteria.

Statement 3 is correct.

• All viruses contain nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA (but not both), and a protein coat, which encases the
nucleic acid.
• Coronavirus is an RNA virus with ribonucleic acid (RNA) as its genetic material instead of deoxyribonucleic
acid (DNA). They are a group of related RNA viruses that causes illness in mammals and birds.

32) Issue of credit card by banks and like entities to its customers can be classified as:
(a) Secured term loans
(b) Secured revolving loans
(c) Unsecured term loans
(d) Unsecured revolving loans

Solution: D

Option D is correct:

• Credit cards are unsecured loans as the issuing bank does not have any collateral against the limit of loan
extended. Revolving credit is an agreement that permits an account holder to borrow money repeatedly up
to a set limit while repaying a portion of the current balance due in regular payments.
 • Each payment, minus the interest and fees charged, replenishes the amount available to the account holder.
Credit cards and lines of credit both work on the principle of revolving credit. Secured Loans are those loans
against which the borrower offers a security. For Instance - Car Loans, Home loans where the car/house is
mortgaged.
• Term Loans are those where the borrower agrees to pay back the loan amount at stipulated intervals in form
of quated monthly installments and avails the credit at once.
• For instance - If a Personal loan is availed by the borrower for `1,00,000 is an example of term loan where he
agrees to pay back `10,000 every month for the next 10 months + the interest component.

33) Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be
declared null and void?

(a) Third Schedule

(b) Fifth Schedule

(c) Ninth Schedule

(d) Twelfth Schedule

SOLUTION: B

Option B is the correct answer:

• The Indian Constitution provides autonomy to tribal areas in matters of governance under the Fifth and Sixth
Schedules.
• The framework for protection of the rights of tribal and indigenous people is further strengthened by the
Recognition of Forest Rights Act, 2006 which protects the individual and community rights of tribal people in
forest areas and their right to free and prior informed consent in event of their displacement and
resettlement.
• The Fifth Schedule states that the Governor may make regulations for the peace and good government of any
area in a State which is for the time being a Scheduled Area.
• Also, such regulations may prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of the Scheduled
Tribes in such areas. In the case of Samatha vs State of Andhra Pradesh, the Supreme Court held that the
transfer of land in Tribal areas to private parties on lease for mining is null and void.

34) With reference to the Poona Pact, consider the following statements:

1. The pact resulted from the Communal Award of 1932.

2. Mahatma Gandhi was not in the favour of the separate electorate under Communal Award.

3. The pact accepted separate electorates but decreased representation to the Dalits within the Hindu electorate for
a 10-year period.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

SOLUTION: c
Statement 1 is correct: The pact, signed at Poona (now Pune, Maharashtra), resulted from the Communal Award of
August 4, 1932, a proposal by the British government which would allot seats in the various legislatures of India to
the different communities in an effort to resolve the various tensions between communal interests.

Statement 2 is correct: Dalit leaders, especially Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar, supported the proposal, believing it would
allow Dalits to advance their interests. Mahatma Gandhi, on the other hand, objected to the provision of an
electorate for the Dalits separate from the Hindu electorate, which in his view would weaken India in its bid for
independence.

Statement 3 is not correct: Ambedkar refused to abandon his support for separate electorates until Gandhi was near
death. He and the Hindu leaders then agreed to the pact, which declined separate electorates but gave increased
representation to the Dalits within the Hindu electorate for a 10-year period. Ambedkar complained of blackmail, but
the pact marked the start of the movement against “untouchability” within the Indian nationalist movement

35) With reference to the history of India, consider the following statements:

1. At the height of their power, the Satavahanas held distant areas of western and central India.

2. The Shishunaga Dynasty was successors the Mauryas.

3. Kushan dynasty ruled over most of the northern Indian subcontinent, Afghanistan, and parts of Central Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct: Satavahana dynasty, Indian family that, according to some interpretations based on the
Puranas (ancient religious and legendary writings), belonged to the Andhra jati (“tribe”) and was the First Deccanese
dynasty to build an empire in daksinapatha—i.e., the southern region. At the height of their power, the Satavahanas
held distant areas of western and central India. On the strength of Puranic evidence, the beginnings of Satavahana
ascendancy can be dated to late in the 1st century BCE, although some authorities trace the family to the 3rd century
BCE. Initially, Satavahana rule was limited to certain areas of the western Deccan. Inscriptions found in caves, such as
those at Nanaghat, Nashik, Karli, and Kanheri, commemorate the early rulers Simuka, Krishna, and Shatakarni I.

Statement 2 is not correct:

• The Shishunaga Dynasty (also Sishunaga/Shaishunaga Dynasty) ruled the Magadha Kingdom in ancient India
from c. 413 BCE to c. 345 BCE (in some sources from 421 BCE). It is said to be the third imperial dynasty of
Magadha after the Brihadratha and the Haryanka, though the Brihadratha Dynasty is considered as mythical
now.
• The first ruler of the dynasty was Shishunaga himself after whom it has been named, who came to power
when the people revolted against the earlier Haryanka Dynasty in the 5th century BCE.
• The Shishunaga Dynasty had a very short reign before it was succeeded by the Nandas and then the
Mauryas, but it too contributed to the solid foundation of the Magadhan Empire which was to dominate the
Indian subcontinent for the upcoming centuries.

36)

37)

38)
39)

40)

41)

42)

43)

44)

45)

46)

47)

48)

49)

50)
 | Navigator | GS Full Length Test - IV

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
GS FULL LENGTH
TEST - IV

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Q1. The term "Biocover", sometimes seen in Which of the statements given above
thenews, is related to: is/are correct?
(a) A technology for reducing methane (a) 1 only
emissions from landfills (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) A protective layer used in genetically (c) 1, 2 and 3
modified crops (d) 2 only
(c) A new type of biodegradable plastic
developed for packaging Q4. Which of the following are located in
(d) A space-based shield developed to Australia?
monitor solar radiation 1. Kimberley plateau
2. Vistula river
Q2. Newspapers and Journals played a 3. Murray river
significant role in spreading communist 4. Hudson Bay
socialist ideas during the freedom Select the correct answer using the code
struggle. In this context, consider the given below.
following pairs: (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Newspaper / Published by (c) 2 and 3 only
Journal (d) 2 and 4 only

1. The Socialist M. Singaravelu Q5. Which of the following rivers of North

America drain into the Gulf of Mexico?
2. Labour-Kisan S.A. Dange 1. Mackenzie
Gazette 2. Mississippi
3. St. Lawrence
3. Navayug Muzaffar 4. Rio Grande
Ahmed Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
Which of the pairs given above is/are (a) 1 and 2 only
correctly matched? (b) 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 only (c) 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Q6. Which of the following rivers meet the
Brahmaputra River in India?
Q3. Consider the following statements with 1. Dihang
regard to the Rahnumai Mazdayasnan 2. Teesta
Sabha or Religious Reform Association: 3. Manas
1. It was founded in 1885 under the aegis 4. Lohit
of the Indian National Congress. Select the correct answer using the code
2. Narouji Furdonji, Dadabhai Naoroji, given below.
and S.S. Bengalee were the founders (a) 1 and 2 only
of the Association. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. It supported the campaign against the (c) 1, 3, and 4 only
or thodox practices in the Parsi (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
religion.

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Q7. Consider the following statement with Q10. With reference to the State Legislature,
reference to the Mauryan administration: consider the following statements:
1. Dhammamahatras were appointed for
the administration of justice. 1. According to the constitution, the
2. Rajukas were appointed to maintain maximum and minimum strength for
economic ties with neighboring the state legislative assembly is fixed
countries. at 500 and 60, respectively.
3. Shulkadhyakshas were officers in 2. Strength of the legislative council is a
charge of royal income. minimum of 40 to a maximum of one
third that of the legislative assembly.
Which of the statements given above are 3. At most the legislative council can
NOT correct? delay the bill for a period of three
(a) 1 and 2 only months.
(b) 2 and 3 only 4. A person to be elected to the
(c) 1 and 3 only legislative council must be an elector
(d) 1, 2, and 3 for an assembly constituency in the
concerned state.
Q8. According to the Seventh schedule of the
Indian Constitution, the Legislative Which of the statements given above are
competence to levy a tax on betting and correct?
gambling is with which among the
following: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) Parliament (c) 3 and 4 only
(b) State legislatures (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Both the Parliament and the Stat
Legislatures
(d) None of the above

Q9. Consider the following statements: Q11. Consider the following statements
1. T h e i n t r o d u c t i o n of a P r i va t e regarding the WTO's Agreement on
Member's bill in the parliament Government Procurement:
requires seven days’ notice.
2. The Parliamentary Committee on 1. It allows WTO members to mutually
Subordinate Legislation goes through open up their markets for selling
the private member's bills and goods and services to governments.
classifies them based on their urgency 2. India has not signed this agreement.
and importance.
Which of the statements given above
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q12. Consider the following statements Q15. Consider the following statements with
regarding the Pithoro painting: reference to the society under the Guptas:
1. These were painted by Rathva Bhils of 1. Shaivism was the main religion during
the Panchmahal region in Gujarat and the Gupta Age as the Gupta kings were
Madhya Pradesh. devoted practitioners of Shaivism.
2. These are miniature paintings, 2. During the Gupta period, the slavery
depicting deities as horse riders. system was completely absent.
Which of the statements given above Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? is/are NOT correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q13. Which of the following leaders were Q16. With reference to ad-hoc judges in the
associated with the foundation of the Indian Judiciary, consider the following
Hindustan Republican Association? statements:
1. Ramprasad Bismil 1. The Chief Justice of India can appoint a
2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee judge of a High Court as an ad-hoc
3. Sachin Sanyal judge of the Supreme Court for a
4. Khudiram Bose temporary period.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. The Chief Justice of the high courts can
given below. appoint duly qualified persons as
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only additional high court judges for a
(b) 2 and 3 only temporary period not exceeding two
(c) 1 and 4 only years.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
Q14. With reference to the Deputy Chief (a) 1 only
Ministers in India, consider the following (b) 2 only
statements: (c) Both 1 and 2
1. Unlike the posts of the chief minister (d) Neither 1 nor 2
and cabinet ministers, that of a deputy
chief minister is not a constitutional Q17. Arrange the following cities of ancient
post. India from North to South:
2. The post of Deputy Chief Minister is 1. Ujjain
equivalent to the rank of a cabinet 2. Indraprastha
minister in the state. 3. Kaushambi
3. There can be only one Deputy Chief 4. Vaishali
Minister in a state. Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above are given below.
correct? (a) 2-4-3-1
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2-4-1-3
(b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1-2-3-4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3-1-4-2
(d) 2 and 3 only

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Q18. Which of the following are the adaptation Q21. Consider the following statements
techniques of desert plants to conserve regarding the composition of the
water? Constituent Assembly:
1. Leaves are reduced in size.
2. Stems are succulent and water storing. 1. Seats allocated to each British
3. Root system is spread over a large province were to be divided among
area. t h e t h r e e p r i n c i p a l
Select the correct answer using the code communities–Muslims, Anglo Indians
given below. and General.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. T h e c h a i r m a n o f t h e U n i o n
(b) 2 and 3 only Constitution Committee was Sardar
(c) 1 and 3 only Vallabhbhai Patel.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Jawahar Lal Nehru was elected as Vice
President of the Assembly.
Q19. Awadh Kisan Sabha was founded in the 4. Sir B.N. Rau, was the Constitutional
year 1920 under the leadership of which Advisor to the Constituent Assembly.
of the following personalities?
(a) Baba Ramchandra Which of the statements given above
(b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru is/are correct?
(c) M.M Lokhande
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 4 only
Q20. With reference to the Subordinate courts (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
in India, consider the following (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
statements:
1. The appointment, posting, and
promotion of district judges in a state
are made by the governor of the state Q22. Consider the following statements
in consultation with the high court. regarding Chhau Dance:
2. A person to be appointed as district
judge should have been an advocate 1. It is a dance form from Southern India
or a pleader for five years. that enacts epics including
3. Appointment of persons to the state Mahabharata and Ramayana.
judicial service are made by the Chief 2. It is a semi-classical Indian dance with
Justice of the concerned High Court. martial and folk traditions.
4. The Governor may direct that the 3. Masks are an integral part of the
provisions relating to persons in the dances of Seraikela and Purulia Chhau.
state judicial service would apply to
any class of magistrates in the state. Which of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above are correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q23. Consider the following statements: Q26. Arrange the following socio-religious
reform movements in the chronological
1. A service voter may appoint any order of their occurrence.
person irrespective of his residency to 1. Tattvabodhini Sabha
give a vote on his behalf and in his 2. Satyashodhak Samaj
name at the polling station. 3. Sadharan Brahmo Samaj
2. The facility of a service voter is 4. Young Bengal Movement
available only to the wife of a male Select the correct answer using the code
service voter and is not available to the given below.
husband of a female service voter. (a) 4-1-3-2
(b) 1-4-3-2
Which of the statements given above (c) 4-1-2-3
is/are correct? (d) 2-4-1-3

(a) 1 only Q27. Consider the following statements:

(b) 2 only 1. The Constitution as adopted on
(c) Both 1 and 2 November 26, 1949, contained a
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Preamble, 395 Ar ticles and 12
Schedules.
Q24. In the context of religious literature of 2. T h e p r o v i s i o n s p e r t a i n i n g t o
India, the text Astasahasrika citizenship, elections, and provisional
Prajnaparamita is associated with parliament came into force on
November 26, 1949.
(a) Hinduism 3. The major part of the Constitution
(b) Buddhism came into force on January 26, 1950,
(c) Jainism which is referred to in the Constitution
(d) Sikhism as the date of its enactment.
Which of the statements given above
Q25. With reference to International North- is/are correct?
South Transit Corridor (INSTC), consider (a) 1 and 2 only
the following statements: (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. I t i s a m u l t i - m o d a l t r a n s p o r t (d) 2 and 3 only
corridor that combines road, rail and
maritime routes connecting Russia Q28. Consider the following statements:
and India via Central Asia and Iran. 1. The linear distance of a degree of
2. It is an outcome of the Ashgabat latitude at the pole is slightly longer
Agreement. than at the equator.
2. At extreme latitudes, the mid day sun
Which of the statements given above is usually referred to as polar day.
is/are correct? Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q29. Which of the following features of the Q31. With reference to the mesolithic period,
“Rule of Law” are applicable to the Indian consider the following statements:
System?
1. Microliths were smaller and finished
1. Absence of arbitrary authority, i.e. no tools of the mesolithic periods.
one is penalised until he violates the
law. 2. Mesolithic people were not aware of
2. Equal submission of all citizens to the paintings.
ordinar y law of the state as
administered by ordinary law courts. 3. Adamgarh is a major mesolithic site in
3. The primacy of the rights of the India.
individual, i.e. the constitution is the
result of the rights of the individual as Which of the statements given above are
defined and enforced by the courts of correct?
law.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 2 and 3 only
given below. (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q32. In the context of princely states that
Q30. For distinction under Article 14, the existed in British India, consider the
Supreme Court has laid down the test for following statements with regard to the
reasonable classification. Which of the Chamber of Princes (Narendra Mandal):
following are included in this test?
1 . The chamber was established in 1858
1. Classification must be founded on an by a decree passed by Viceroy
intelligible differentia that Canning.
distinguishes those that are grouped
together from others. 2. The chamber had no say in the internal
2. The differential treatment must have a affairs of individual states.
rational relation to the object sought
to be achieved by the Act. 3. For the purpose of the chamber, the
3. It should be based on class legislation Indian states were divided into three
which is permitted by the Constitution categories.
of India.
Which of the statements given above are
Select the correct answer using the code correct?
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q33. If the Reserve Bank of India has tightened Q36. With reference to the Public Interest
its monetary policy, which of the following Litigation (PIL) in India, consider the
is/are not the possible impact/s on following statements:
consumers? 1. It is defined neither in the Constitution
1. C re d i t c a rd pa y m e n t s b e c o m e nor in any statute.
expensive 2. As per the Supreme Court guidelines
2. Fixed deposits become less attractive service matters and those pertaining
3. Real estate sector demand reduces to pension and gratuity will not be
Select the correct answer using the code entertained under PIL.
given below. 3. Private interest cases can also be
(a) 1 only treated as public interest cases.
(b) 2 only 4. It can be filed against the Central and
(c) 2 and 3 only St a t e G o v e r n m e n t s , M u n i c i pa l
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Authorities, and any private party.
Which of the statements given above are
Q34. With reference to the Constitutional correct?
benches of the Supreme Court, consider (a) 1 and 3 only
the following statements: (b) 3 and 4 only
1. The Chief Justice of India, who is also (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
the master of the roster, decides which (d) 2 and 4 only
cases will be heard by a Constitution
Bench.
2. The Secretary-General of the Supreme Q37. With reference to the 'Yogachara'
Court decides the number of judges tradition of Buddhist philosophy, consider
on the bench and its composition. the following statements:
Which of the statements given above 1. The world is built by consciousness
is/are correct? and has no more reality than a dream.
(a) 1 only 2. Yo g a c h a r a p h i l o s o p h y w a s a n
(b) 2 only essential part of Hinayana Buddhism.
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. Sutralankara is the earliest text of this
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 school of philosophy.
Which of the statements given above
Q35. Which of the following are primary is/are correct?
sources of nitrogen pollution? (a) 1 and 2 only
1. Manure (b) 2 only
2. Stormwater (c) 1 and 3 only
3. Burning of fossil fuels (d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Sewage water
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. Q38. The meetings of the Island Development
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only Agency are chaired by the
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) Union Home Minister
(c) 3 and 4 only (b) Union Home Secretary
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) President
(d) Prime Minister

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Q39. Which of the following is not correct Q42. Collapsed, Critically Endangered and
regarding the Khajuraho Group of Endangered are categories, used by IUCN,
Monuments? to denote the risk to:
(a) They were built during the Chandela
dynasty's reign. (a) Species
(b) T h e y b e l o n g t o t w o d i f f e r e n t (b) Ecosystems
religionsHinduism and Jainism. (c) Food Chains
(c) They depict the Nagara style of temple (d) Natural abiotic factors
architecture.
(d) Most of the temple structures are built Q43. Consider the following statements:
in marble.
1. He ruled parts of present-day Delhi
Q40. According to Article 28, religious and Haryana between the 8th and
instruction is permitted in which type of 12th centuries.
institution? 2. He was the founder of Dhillika Puri,
1. Institutions wholly maintained by the which eventually became Delhi.
State. 3. He was the founder of the Citadel of lal
2. Institutions administered by the State kot in the Mehraulia area.
but established under any
endowment or trust. Which of the following rulers has been
3. Institutions recognized by the State. described in the statements given above?
4. Institutions receiving aid from the
State. (a) Prithviraj Chauhan
Select the correct answer using the code (b) Surajpal
given below. (c) Kumarapala
(a) 1 and 4 only (d) Anangpala II
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only Q44. In the context of modern Indian history,
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Carlyle Circular was related to the

Q41. In the context of the Wholesale Price (a) Withdrawal of government grants and
Index, which of the following items are affiliations from educational
grouped under food articles? institutions during the Swadeshi
1. Paddy movement.
2. Fruits (b) I m p o s i t i o n of re s t r i c t i o n s a n d
3. Milk censorship on the newspapers and
4. Oilseeds magazines published in vernacular
5. Meat language.
Select the correct answer using the code (c) Lowering of the maximum age criteria
given below. to 19 years as an eligibility condition
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only for ICS examination.
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (d) Favouring vernacular language in
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only primary and Anglo -vernacular for
(d) 3, 4 and 5 only high school as medium of instruction.

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Q45. Hiuen Tsang, the Buddhist pilgrim from Q48. With reference to Financial Emergency,
China visited the Chalukyas kingdom consider the following statements:
during the reign of which of the following
rulers? 1. W h e n fi n a n c i a l e m e r g e n c y i s
(a) Pulakesin I proclaimed, the money Bills passed by
(b) Pulakesin II the state legislatures shall be reserved
(c) Vikramditya I for the consideration of the Finance
(d) Kirtivarman II Minister of India.
2. The satisfaction of the President in
Q46. Consider the following statements declaring a Financial Emergency is
regarding Bandipur Tiger Reserve: final and conclusive and not
1. It has the highest density of tiger questionable in any court of law on
population in India. any ground
2. The rivers Baitarani and Subarnarekha
flows through the reserve providing Which of the statements given above
required moisture content. is/are correct?
3. Bandipur was among the first nine
reserves to be brought under the (a) 1 only
flagship programme Project Tiger (b) 2 only
launched in the year 1973. (c) Both 1 and 2
Select the correct answer using the code (d) Neither 1 nor 2
given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only Q49. Consider the following statements
(d) 1 and 2 only regarding the waterfalls in India:

Q47. Which of the following statements are 1. Jog falls is the Highest waterfall in
correct regarding "due process of law"? India.
1. The phrase “due process of law” is not 2. The Dudhasagar falls is located
mentioned anywhere in the Indian between Bhagwan Mahaveer
Constitution. Sanctuary and Mollem National Park.
2. It protects individuals against arbitrary 3. Gagana Chukki and the Bhara Chukki
executive actions but not against falls together comprise of the
arbitrary legislative actions. Shivasamudram falls.
3. The Supreme Court of India followed 4. Chuliya Waterfall is the only waterfall
both "procedures established by law in the Indian state of Gujarat.
and the due process of law".
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above are
given below. correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 and 4 only

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Q50. With reference to Silent Valley National Q52. Consider the following statements about
Park, consider the following statements: the Scheduled Tribes:

1. Humid wet evergreen rainforests are 1. Respective state governments can add
found inside the park. or remove tribes from the Scheduled
Tribes.
2. Lion-tailed macaques which are the 2. T h e a p p r o v a l o f t h e N a t i o n a l
flagship species of the Park. Commission for Scheduled Tribes is
essential for any such addition or
3. Periyar River flows through the park. deletion.

Which of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above
correct? is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q53. Consider the following statements with

Q51. With reference to foreign travelers during reference to a leader of the Indian
medieval India, consider the following National Movement:
statements:
1. H e h a d p a r t i c i p a t e d i n t h e
1. It was during the reign of Jahangir that NonCooperation Movement and had
Captain William Hawkins visited the become a teacher in the national
Mughal court to negotiate school in Chittagong.
concessions for the English East India 2. He was imprisoned from 1926 to 1928
Company. f o r re v o l u t i o n a r y a c t i v i t y a n d
after ward continued working in
2. It was during the reign of Sri Krishna Congress.
Deva Raya of the Vijayanagara Empire 3. H e w a s t h e s e c r e t a r y o f t h e
that Alfonso de Albuquerque Chittagong District Congress
captured Bhatkal. Committee.
4. He was a lover of poetry and an
3. Nadir Shah took away the peacock admirer of Tagore and Qazi Nazrul
throne during the reign of Shah Jahan. Islam.

Which of the statements given above Which of the following personalities has
is/are correct? been described in the statements given
above?
(a) 1 only (a) Gopinath Saha
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Anant Singh
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Ganesh Ghosh
(d) 1 and 2 only (d) Surya Sen

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Q54. Saprophytes are living organisms that Which of the statements given above are
live and feed on dead and decaying correct?
organisms. (a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the following are examples of (b) 2 and 3 only
saprophytes? (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Fern
2. Yeast Q57. Consider the following statements with
3. Lichen respect to the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya
4. Penicillium Grameen Kaushalya Yojana:
Select the correct answer using the code 1. Any person belonging to a poor rural
given below. family can train himself in the skills
(a) 1 and 3 only offered by the scheme.
(b) 2 and 3 only 2. It ensures placement for at least 70%
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only of trained candidates.
(d) 2 and 4 only 3. It provides funding support for
placement-linked skilling projects.
Q55. Consider the following pairs: 4. It is implemented by the Ministry of
SpeciesNatural Habitat Skill Development and
Entrepreneurship.
1. Nilgiri TahrTamil Nadu Which of the statements given above are
2. Sela MacaqueArunachal Pradesh correct?
3. Painted Leopard GeckoA n d h r a (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Pradesh (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Which of the pairs given above is/are (c) 2 and 3 only
correctly matched? (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only Q58. Consider the following statements
(c) 1 only regarding Infrastructure Finance
(d) 2 and 3 only Companies (IFCs) in India:
1. Infrastructure Finance Company is a
Q56. Consider the following statements deposit-accepting loan company
regarding the practice of euthanasia in fulfilling certain criteria prescribed by
India: RBI.
2. Recently, Infrastructure Finance
1. It comes under the right to die with Company (IFC) status has been given
dignity under the right to life to Indian Renewable Energy
(Article 21) Development Agency (IREDA).
2. India permits both active and passive Which of the statements given above
euthanasia with a 'living will' of the is/are correct?
person. (a) 1 only
3. 'Living will' will be a part of the (b) 2 only
National Digital Health Record which (c) Both 1 and 2
can be accessed by hospitals and (d) Neither 1 nor 2
doctors from any part of the country.

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Q59. Which of the following statements best Q62. Which of the following statements is NOT
describes the dabba trading, sometimes correct with reference to bhakti saint
mentioned in the news recently? Ramanuja?
(a) He propounded the doctrine of
(a) It is a type of intraday trading where an Vishishtadvaita or qualified oneness.
investor buys and sells stocks within (b) He was deeply influenced by the
the same specific day. Nayanars.
(b) In dabba trading, the stocks are held (c) He proposed intense devotion as a
by the trader for a short duration - means to achieve salvation
a maximum of a few weeks. (d) He suggested Choda Ganga Deva to
(c) It refers to informal trading that takes build a temple for the deity of
place outside the purview of the stock PuriJagannath
exchanges.
(d) It is done through efficient technical Q63. Which of the following are the sources of
market analysis and requires the data on unemployment in India?
traders to hold stocks for a long period 1. Reports of Census of India
of time. 2. Employment-Unemployment Survey
of Labour Bureau
Q60. Which of the following temples is a 3. Annual Reports of Periodic Labour
UNESCO world heritage site and where all Force Survey
the royal orders signed in the name of the 4. Employment Exchanges' data
main deity? Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) Hoyasaleswara temple (a) 2 and 3 only
(b) Vittalswamy temple (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) Sri Ranganathswamy temple (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) Virupaksha temple (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q61. With reference to the Vakatakas, consider Q64. Consider the following statements:
the following statements: Statement-I: India’s total forest and tree
cover has increased in the last decade,
1. Vakatakas were contemporary to the making the current forest cover 29%.
Mauryas in the north. Statement-II: A significant portion of this
2. They ruled over the region of northern increase in total forest and tree cover is
Maharashtra and Vidarbha. attributed to plantations.
3. T h e Va k a t a k a k i n g , H a r i s e n a , Which one of the following is correct in
contributed to the rich heritage of the respect of the above statements?
world heritage site, Ajanta Caves. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, and Statement-II is the correct
Which of the statements given above are explanation for Statement-I.
correct? (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(a) 1 and 3 only correct, but Statement-II is not the
(b) 1 and 2 only correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
(d) 1, 2 and 3 II is incorrect.
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
Statement-II is correct.

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Q65. With reference to 'sweating' in human Q68. Lagrangian points are often seen in the
beings, consider the following context of space exploration. What are
statements: they?

1. It helps in regulating the temperature (a) These are points where a small body
of the body. under the gravitational influences of
2. It can be used as a tool for the two larger ones remains relatively
diagnosis of certain diseases. stable.
3. The pH value of sweat ranges from (b) These are the locations on the
moderately acidic to neutral levels. periphery of the milkyway galaxy.
(c) These are the points within the solar
Which of the statements given above system where the orbits of two planets
is/are correct? intersect.
(a) 1 only (d) These are the locations on the Jovian
(b) 2 and 3 only surface where frozen water has been
(c) 1, 2 and 3 detected.
(d) 1 and 3 only
Q69. We feel burning pain when stung by Ant.
Which of the following acid is responsible
Q66. Huxley's Line, Lydekker ’s Line and for the burning pain?
Wallace Line are
(a) Methanoic Acid
(a) biological barriers between organisms (b) Acetic Acid
deterring the natural exchange of (c) Oxalic Acid
genetic material (d) Tartaric Acid
(b) transform tectonic boundaries under
the Antarctic ice sheet. Q70. Which of the following is/are the
(c) the faunal boundar y separating components of fly ash?
various biogeographical realms.
(d) the demarcation between the waters 1. Iron Oxide
of the Indian Ocean and the Pacific
Ocean. 2. Potassium Oxide

3. Aluminium Oxide
Q67. Which one of the following is the reason
why food cooks faster in a pressure 4. Titanium Dioxide
cooker?
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) Heat cannot escape from the cooker. given below.
(b) The increased pressure increases the
boiling point of water. (a) 1 and 3 only
(c) The boiling point of water decreases in (b) 2 only
the closed system. (c) 4 only
(d) Convection currents are set inside the (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
cooker.

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Q71. Consider the following statements with Q74. With reference to the Big Bang Theory,
reference to dark energy: which of the following statements is not
1. Dark energy was discovered and correct?
proven by Albert Einstein.
2. It is believed that more than 60% of (a) According to this theory, all matter
the universe is dark energy. forming the universe existed in one
Which of the statements given above place.
is/are correct? (b) During the process, energy was
(a) 1 only converted into matter.
(b) 2 only (c) Temperature of the universe increased
(c) Both 1 and 2 with the expansion of universe.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) According to the theory, the universe
continues to expand to the present
day.
Q72. Consider the following statements with
reference to nuclear fission: Q75. Which of the following are the
1. Nuclear fission produces more waste institutional channels through which
than nuclear fusion. microcredit is delivered in India?
2. Atom bomb works on the principle of 1. Small finance banks (SFBs)
nuclear fission. 2. Regional rural banks (RRBs)
3. The energy released in nuclear fission 3. Cooperative banks
reactions is millions of times greater 4. Non-banking financial companies
than the energy released in chemical (NBFCs)
reactions.
Which of the statements given above Select the correct answer using the code
is/are correct? given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Q76. A person stands on loose sand and then

Q73. Consider the following statements with lies down on it. He goes deeper into the
reference to neutrino: sand while standing than while lying
1. Neutrinos are chargeless particles. down.
2. Neutrinos assist in the detection of
mineral and oil deposits deep inside Which one of the following is the reason?
the earth. (a) The weight of the body is lesser while
3. They cannot be generated artificially. standing up.
Which of the statements given above (b) The density of the human body is
is/are correct? lesser than sand
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) The pressure on the sand is higher
(b) 2 and 3 only while standing up
(c) 3 only (d) There is more friction between the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 body and the sand while lying down

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Q77. Which of the following correctly Q80. In the context of international affairs,
describes the ‘prebiotics’? 'Dualuse Technology', often seen in the
(a) Food ingredients that encourage the news, is related to:
growth of beneficial gut bacteria.
(b) A type of antimicrobial drug used in (a) Renewable energy devices which can
the treatment and prevention of use both solar and wind energy to
bacterial infections. generate electricity.
(c) Preservatives added to food products (b) Use of binary codes to prevent cyber
to prevent decomposition by frauds.
microbial growth. (c) Technology used for both commercial
(d) Va c c i n e u s e d to s t i m u l a te t h e and military purposes.
production of antibodies and provide (d) Decoding of the double helix structure
immunity against one or several of DNA.
diseases

Q78. Which of the following is/are the Q81. Which of the following has been
applications of Mycorrhizal exempted from GST as per recent
biotechnology – a result of symbiotic decisions of the GST?
associations between plant roots and soil
fungi? 1. Fortified Rice Kernels
1. Rehabilitation of degraded land. 2. Gene Therapy
2. To enable plants to resist droughts. 3. Penal Charges collected by Banks
3. To enable disease/pest resistance in
plants. Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only

Q79. Which of the following statements is/are

correct with reference to the Real Q82. Which of the following best describes
Exchange rate? 'externalities' in the context of
1. If a country's real exchange rate is Economics?
rising, it means that foreign goods are
relatively cheap and domestic goods (a) It is the total cost of production
are relatively expensive. incurred by a firm.
2. An increase in the real exchange rate (b) It refers to the impact of government
will tend to increase net imports. policies on market prices.
Select the correct answer using the code (c) It is the revenue generated by firms
given below. from international trade.
(a) 1 only (d) It is the unintended side effects of an
(b) 2 only economic activity on third parties.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q83. Consider the following statements: (b) Genetic modifications in crops
Statement I: The Global Methane Pledge, (c) Cybersecurity protocols in cloud
launched at COP26, aims to reduce computing
methane emissions by 30% by 2030 from (d) Strategies used in information warfare
2020 levels.
Statement II: Methane is a long-lived
climate pollutant with a high global Q86. With reference to advanced computing
warming potential (GWP). technologies, consider the following
Which one of the following is correct in statements:
respect of the above statements? 1. Cloud computing enables high-speed
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are real-time data processing, whereas
correct, and Statement-II is the correct Edge computing is used for non-time-
explanation for Statement-I. sensitive data processing.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. Cloud computing operates remotely
correct, but Statement-II is not the a n d re q u i re s m i n i m a l i n te r n e t
correct explanation for Statement-I. c o n n e c t i v i t y, w h e re a s E d g e
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement- computing relies on a stable internet
II is incorrect. connection.
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t 3. Cloud computing is ideal for handling
Statement-II is correct. highly sensitive data with strict
regulatory compliance, whereas Edge
Q84. Due to some reasons, if there is a computing is suited for dynamic
significant decline in the population of workloads and large datasets.
honeybees, what could be its likely How many statements given above are
consequences? correct?
1. Pollination of several crops could be (a) Only one
severely affected, reducing (b) Only two
agricultural yields (c) All three
2. There could be a sharp increase in (d) None
populations of other pollinators like
butterflies and beetles.
3. It may lead to a decline in species that Q87. Which of the following industries
depend on honeybees for food, such flourished during the Vijayanagara
as some birds and mammals. Empire?
Select the correct answer using the code 1. Jaggery & Sugar
given below: 2. Textile
(a) 1 only 3. Leather
(b) 2 and 3 only 4. Oil Pressing
(c) 1 and 3 only 5. Salt Manufacturing
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer from the code
given below.
Q85. The terms "Hard Fork" and "Soft Fork" are (a) 2, 3 and 4 only
primarily related to which of the following (b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
technologies? (c) 1 and 5 only
(a) Cr yptocurrency and blockchain (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
technology

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Q88. Consider the following statements Which of the statements given above
regarding the World Trade Organization is/are correct?
(WTO): (a) 1 only
1. The First Ministerial Conference of the (b) 2 only
WTO was held in Singapore in 1996. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. No WTO Ministerial Conference has (d) Neither 1 nor 2
been held in India till now.
3. The Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA)
was a key outcome of the Bali Q91. Consider the following statements
Ministerial Conference in 2013. regarding Card Tokenisation in India:
1. Tokenisation and de-tokenisation of
How many of the statements given above cards can be performed only with the
is/are correct? approval of National Payments
(a) Only one Corporation of India (NPCI).
(b) Only two 2. Contactless card transactions are not
(c) All three allowed under tokenisation.
(d) None 3. Customers need not pay any charges
for availing tokenisation services.
Q89. Which one of the following statements is How many of the statements given above
not correct regarding the Sukanya are correct?
Samriddhi Yojana? (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(a) The guardian can open the account (c) All three
immediately after the birth of the girl (d) None
child till she attains the age of 18 years.
(b) Parents can open a maximum of two
accounts for each of their children Q92. Consider the following pairs :
except in case of twins or triplets.
(c) Patents can open a Sukanya Samriddhi Commodity Top Producer
account for girls at any post office or
designated commercial bank branch. 1. Milk Gujarat
(d) The account matures upon the
completion of twenty-one years of the 2. Eggs Andhra Pradesh
account holder from its opening date.
3. Wool Jammu and Kashmir
Q90. The Maritime Development Fund was
announced in the budget 2025-26. With 4. Meat Uttar Pradesh
reference to this consider the following
statements: How many of the pairs given above are
1. It will be a Rs.25000 crore fund for correctly matched?
long-term financing for the maritime (a) Only one
industry. (b) Only two
2. 75 percent of the fund cntribution will (c) Only three
come from the private sector and (d) All four
ports.

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Q93. The ‘Global Stocktake Report’, recently in (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
the news, is related to: II is incorrect.
(a) Assessing the progress of countries in (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
meeting their Paris Agreement goals Statement-II is correct.
(b) Tracking global Biodiversity loss and
Conservation Efforts
(c) Monitoring the impact of climate Q96. With reference to subduction zones,
change on ocean currents consider the following statements:
(d) Evaluating the financial commitment 1. Subduction zones occur only when an
of developed nations toward climate oceanic plate moves underneath a
mitigation continental plate.
2. Subduction zones are major sites for
Q94. Consider the following aspects regarding the formation of metamorphic rocks.
Ecomark certification: 3. The Andes Mountain range is an
1. I t h e l p s c o n s u m e r s i d e n t i f y example of a geological feature
environmentally friendly products. formed by the process of subduction.
2. It is granted to products that are 100% Which of the statements given above
biodegradable only. is/are correct?
3. The application process is managed (a) 3 only
by the Central Pollution Control Board (b) 1 only
(CPCB). (c) 2 and 3 only
4. It is valid for 5 years from the date of (d) 1, 2, and 3
issuance.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? Q97. In the context of precipitation, the term
(a) 1 and 3 only "virga" refers to
(b) 2 and 4 only (a) Heavy snowfall
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only (b) Rain that evaporates before reaching
(d) 1, 3, and 4 only the ground
(c) Freezing rain
Q95. Consider the following statements : (d) Hail
Statement-I: Dugongs are the only
herbivorous marine mammals found in
Indian waters. Q98. Consider the following:
Statement-II: Dugongs reproduce 1. Altocumulus clouds
rapidly, with females giving birth to 2. Cirrus clouds
multiple offspring every year, leading to a 3. Nimbostratus clouds
stable population. 4. Stratocumulus clouds
Which one of the following is correct in Arrange the above clouds in the correct
respect of the above statements? order in ascending order (lowest to
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are highest) of height from the surface.
correct, and Statement-II is the correct (a) 1-2-4-3
explanation for Statement-I. (b) 2-4-3-1
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (c) 4-3-1-2
correct, but Statement-II is not the (d) 2-4-1-3
correct explanation for Statement-I.

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Q99. In the context of India, arrange the
following crops in decreasing order of
their yield (kg/hectare) in 2022-23:

1. Rice

2. Pulses

3. Wheat

4. Groundnut

Select the correct answer using the code

given below.

(a) 1-3-2-4
(b) 3-2-1-4
(c) 3-1-4-2
(d) 3-2-4-1

Q100. Consider the following statements

regarding Critical Wildlife Habitats (CWH)
in India:

1. C r i t i c a l W i l d l i f e H a b i t a t s a r e
d e s i g n a te d u n d e r t h e W i l d l i f e
Protection Act, 1972.

2. The identification and notification of

CWHs require consultation with local
communities and scientific
assessment.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
GS FULL LENGTH
TEST - V

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO,
GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fi ll in the Roll Number carefully without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will
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3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
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some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certifi cate.
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should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers
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Q1. Consider the following statements Q3. Which of the following are likely to be
regarding Family Courts in India: impacted by the base year revision for
GDP computation in the Indian economy?
1. They are established by District Courts
with approval from the respective 1. GDP growth rate
High Courts.
2. Sectoral contribution to GDP
2. There must be a Family Court in every
city or town with a population 3. Exchange rate of the Rupee
exceeding one million.
Select the correct answer using the code
3. It is the statutory obligation of the given below:
Family courts to make efforts for (a) 1 and 2 only
reconciliation and settlement (b) 1 and 3 only
between the parties in the first (c) 2 and 3 only
instance. (d) 1, 2 and 3

Which of the statements above are Q4. Which of the following best describes the
correct? provision under which governments claim
(a) 1 and 2 only ownership of an individual's property
(b) 2 and 3 only when they pass away without a will or any
(c) 1 and 3 only designated legal heirs?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Escheats
(b) Inheritance
Q2. With reference to the Reserve Bank of India (c) Confiscation
(RBI), consider the following statements: (d) Forfeitures

1. It was formed on the recommendation Q5. Consider the following:

of the Hilton Young Commission.
1. Government spending.
2. The Governor and Deputy Governors
are appointed by the Central 2. Export earnings.
Government.
3. Taxation.
3. It maintains price stability while
keeping in mind the objective of 4. Foreign direct investment (FDI).
growth.
How many of the above factors can be
How many of the above statements are categorized as an injection in the circular
correct? flow of income?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) Only three
(d) None (d) All four

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Q6. Which of the following statements Q8. With reference to the Union Territories in
correctly differentiates "Due Process of India, consider the following statements:
Law" from "Procedure Established by
Law"? 1. Parliament has the power to make law
on any subject matter of a Union
(a) “Due Process of Law” allows Judiciary territory, even if it has a legislative
to examine lawfulness as well as assembly.
r e a s o n a b i l i t y o f a l a w, w h i l e
“Procedure Established by Law” allows 2. Provisions of Part IX and Part IXA of the
examining only lawfulness. Constitution of India are not
(b) “Due Process of Law” allows the applicable in the Union Territories.
J u d i c i a r y to e x a m i n e o n l y t h e
procedural aspects of a law, while Which of the statements given above
“Procedure Established by Law” allows is/are correct?
the Judiciar y to examine both
procedural and substantive aspects. (a) 1 only
(c) "Procedure Established by Law" and (b) 2 only
"Due Process of Law" are the same in (c) Both 1 and 2
Indian legal interpretation. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) "Procedure Established by Law" allows
courts to question the substantive
value choices made by the legislature, Q9. With reference to cognizable offences,
while "Due Process of Law" does not. consider the following statements :

Q7. In the context of Indian polity, consider the Statement I : All cognizable offences are
following: compoundable in India.

1. Public order Statement II : A compoundable offence is

one in which the victim can voluntarily
2. Morality agree to withdraw or settle the case,
leading to the withdrawal of charges.
3. Friendly relations with Foreign States
Which one of the following is correct in
4. Health respect of the above statements?

How many of the above can be a basis for (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
restrictions on the Fundamental Right to correct, and Statement-II is the correct
freedom of conscience and free explanation for Statement-I.
profession of religion under Article 25 of (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
the Indian Constitution? correct, but Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I.
(a) Only one (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement II
(b) Only two is incorrect.
(c) Only three (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement
(d) All four II is correct.

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Q10. Consider the following provisions: Q13. Who among the following inscribed the
1. Securing a living wage for all workers. calligraphy of the original handwritten
2. Promotion of cottage industries on an Constitution of India?
individual or co-operative basis in (a) Nandalal Bose
rural and urban areas. (b) Abanindranath Tagore
3. Providing early childhood care to the (c) Prem Behari Narain Raizada
children below the age of six years. (d) Pingali Venkayya

Which of the above mentioned provisions Q14. The State Legislative Council has equal
are included as Directive Principles of powers with the State Legislative
State Policy (DPSP) under the Indian Assembly in which of the following
Constitution? matters?
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. Election of the members of Rajya
(b) 2 and 3 only Sabha from the State
(c) 1 and 3 only 2. Approval of ordinances promulgated
(d) 1, 2 and 3 by the Governor
3. Consideration of the reports of the
Q11. “Resilience and Sustainability Trust” and constitutional bodies
the “Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust”, Select the correct answer using the code
sometimes seen in news, are initiatives of given below:
which of the following organizations? (a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(a) World Bank (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) International Monetary Fund (d) 1 and 3 only
(c) Asian Development Bank
(d) United Nations Development Q15. Consider the following statements
Programme regarding the Parliament of India:
1. The Parliament of India is required to
Q12. Consider the following statements meet at least once every year, with a
regarding Rupee Depreciation: maximum gap of six months between
1. A fall in demand for a country’s goods two sessions.
can cause currency depreciation. 2. The Budget Session of the Parliament
2. It leads to a decline in the value of is generally held from January to April,
foreign remittances from overseas while the Monsoon Session is
workers. conducted from July to September.
3. Interest rate hike by Reserve Bank of 3. A session of the Parliament can only be
India can help in controlling rupee prorogued with the President's
depreciation. approval, and cannot be adjourned
without the President’s consent.
How many of the statements given above Which of the above statements is/are
are correct? correct?
(a) Only one (a) 1 only
(b) Only two (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) All three (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q16. Consider the following statements: Q18. In context of Constitutionalism, the
concept of distributive justice can be most
1. The Constitution has prescribed a appropriately related to
term of five years for Lok Sabha. (a) Performance of duties along with the
2. The term of Lok Sabha cannot be claim of rights
extended beyond 5 years under any (b) Socially just allocation of resources
circumstance. (c) Harmony between an individual and
3. Whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, Society
the Speaker does not vacate his office (d) E q u a l p o l i t i c a l s t a t u s t h ro u g h
and continues till the newly-elected constitutional remedies
Lok Sabha meets.
Q19. Which one of the following statements is
Which of the statements given above correct regarding repealing of a law in the
is/are correct? Indian context?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Parliament draws its power to repeal a
(b) 2 and 3 only law from Ar ticle 245 of Indian
(c) 1 and 3 only Constitution.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) All Appropriation Acts usually contain
a repealing provision which
specifically repeals older acts in India.
(c) In India, laws cannot be repealed
Q17. Consider the following statements through ordinance issued by the
regarding ‘No-Confidence Motion in the President.
Indian Parliamentary System’: (d) The legislation for repealing of a law
need not have to be passed by both
1. It is not necessar y for the No- Houses of Parliament.
Confidence motion to state the
reasons for its adoption in the Lok Q20. With reference to Raja Ram Mohan Roy,
Sabha. consider the following statements:
2. The motion needs support of at least 1. He was against the monotheistic
100 members before it can be ideals of the Vedanta
introduced in the Lok Sabha. 2. The first organisation founded by him
3. It is moved against the entire Council was Brahmo Sabha
of Ministers and not against an 3. Abolishing Sati practice was his sole
individual minister s or private focus regarding reforms related to
members. women
4. No Union government in India has lost 4. He did not believe in the infallibility of
any No-Confidence Motion so far. the scriptures
How many statements given above are
Which of the statements given above are correct?
correct? (a) Only one
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) Only two
(b) 1 and 3 only (c) Only three
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All four
(d) 2, 3, and 4 only

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Q21. Which of the following statements Q24. Which of the following may indicate that
regarding ‘Sreni’ of ancient India is not an economy is facing deflation?
correct? 1. Rise in general price of goods
2. Fall in the money supply
(a) It was like a guild of craftsmen and 3. Fall in the aggregate demand
traders Select the correct answer using the code
(b) They had their own laws and customs given below:
(c) They were solely concerned with (a) 2 only
harmonising production of goods and (b) 2 and 3 only
making trade efficient (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) They had their own seals, insignia and (d) 1, 2 and 3
currency
Q25. With reference to the Non-Resident
Q22. Which of the following statements is a Indians (NRIs) deposits, consider the
correct reason for the growth of militant following statements:
nationalism during 1905-1909? 1. Non-Resident External Account is
denominated in foreign currency.
(a) Dissatisfaction aroused due to 2. NRI investments on repatriable basis
Montford Reforms are considered as domestic
(b) Increase in number of educated investments.
people in the country Which of the statements given above
(c) External international events like is/are correct?
Russian Revolution (a) 1 only
(d) Growth in socialistic ideologies (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Q23. With reference to the impact of micro (d) Neither 1 nor 2
plastics in human body, consider the
following statements: Q26. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Cropping patterns in
1. They may permanently reside in the India:
body. 1. The tea plantations require warm and
moist, frost-free climate throughout
2. They can limit transport of oxygen in the year.
body tissues. 2. The black soil region of the Deccan is
an important wheat-growing region in
3. T h e y m i g h t a f f e c t t h e n o r m a l India.
functioning of hormones in a body. 3. Barley and mustard are Rabi Crops
which are aided in growth by western
Which of the statements given above temperate cyclones.
is/are correct? Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q27. With reference to the Art and Culture of Q30. Which among the following is/are the
India, which one of the following impact(s) of imposition of Pigouvian tax
statements is correct regarding on the economy?
Sittanavasal Paintings in Tamil Nadu? 1. It promotes market efficiency in the
(a) All of these paintings depict themes economy.
related to Shaivism and Vaishnavism. 2. It promotes government companies
(b) The central element of these cave over private companies.
paintings is Lord Shiva as 3. It discourages the consumption of
‘Ardhnarishwar’. goods that creates negative
(c) These paintings were contemporary to externalities.
Bhimbetka cave paintings. Select the correct answer using the code
(d) These cave paintings have a close given below:
resemblance to Bagh and Ajanta (a) 1 only
paintings (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q28. Consider the following statements with
respect to the Uniform Civil Code (UCC): Q31. Consider the following properties of the
1. Goa is the only state in India which Virus:
follows Uniform Civil code. 1. It is metabolically inactive outside the
2. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar argued in the host cell.
Constituent Assembly that imposition 2. They are known to infect all kinds of
of Uniform Civil Code would hinder cells except bacteria.
social reform efforts. 3. All Coronaviruses are RNA viruses.
Which of the statements given above Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q32. Issue of credit card by banks and like

Q29. With reference to the Indian entities to its customers can be classified
parliamentary procedures, which of the as:
following statements is correct? (a) Secured term loans
(a) Zero Hour is neither mentioned in the (b) Secured revolving loans
Rules of Procedure of the House nor in (c) Unsecured term loans
the Constitution. (d) Unsecured revolving loans
(b) A member can ask about matters that
are under adjudication before courts. Q33. Under which Schedule of the
(c) Unstarred questions are answered Constitution of India can the transfer of
orally on the floor of the House. tribal land to private parties for mining be
(d) Question Hour is held on all days of declared null and void?
the session in the House without any (a) Third Schedule
exception. (b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule
(d) Twelfth Schedule

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Q34. With reference to the Poona Pact, Q37. Radio jammer blocks and disrupts
consider the following statements: wireless communications. What is the
1. The pact resulted from the Communal reason for it?
Award of 1932.
2. Mahatma Gandhi was not in the favour (a) The frequency of jamming devices
of the separate electorate under matches with the phone frequency.
Communal Award. (b) The electromagnetic device in jammer
3. T h e p a c t a c c e p t e d s e p a r a t e attracts all the signal in the area.
electorates but decreased (c) The lower frequency of the phone is
representation to the Dalits within the reflected by the higher frequency
Hindu electorate for a 10-year period. provided by jammer.
(d) The jammer increases the wavelength
Which of the statement/s given above of t h e p h o n e t h e re b y m a k i n g
is/are correct? communication difficult.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Q38. Consider the following kinds of
(c) 1 and 2 only organisms:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Virus
2. Nematodes
Q35. With reference to the history of India, 3. Flowering plants
consider the following statements:
1. At the height of their power, the Species of which of the above kinds of
Satavahanas held distant areas of organisms can be used as biopesticides?
western and central India. (a) 1 only
2. T h e S h i s h u n a g a D y n a s t y w a s (b) 2 and 3 only
successors the Mauryas. (c) 1 and 3 only
3. Kushan dynasty ruled over most of the (d) 1, 2 and 3
northern Indian subcontinent,
Afghanistan, and parts of Central Asia. Q39. Which of the following conditions leads
to favorable monsoon rain over India?
Which of the statements given above 1. Blowing of easterly cold jet stream
is/are correct? over Peninsular India.
(a) 1 and 3 only 2. Thick and widespread snow over Tibet
(b) 1 and 2 only during summer.
(c) 2 and 3 only 3. Development of warm current off the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 coast of Peru.
4. Northward displacement of Inter-
Q36. Which of the following elements of Tropical Convergence Zone.
architecture was not introduced during
the period of the Delhi Sultanate? Select the correct answer using the code
below:
(a) Tudor arch (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) Sloping walls (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) Use of Minars (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) Double dome architecture (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Q40. The spacesuit is mainly designed to Q43. Which of the following countries lie in the
protect astronauts from which of the course of the river Mekong?
following?
1. Cold temperatures (a) Cambodia, Myanmar, Singapore,
2. Radiations Vietnam
3. High atmospheric pressure (b) China, Brunie, Laos, Thailand
4. Sunlight (c) Cambodia, Myanmar, Laos, Malaysia
5. Toxic gases (d) China, Cambodia, Myanmar, Vietnam
Select the correct answer from the code
given below: Q44. This economic theory states that as a
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only household's income increases, the
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only percentage of income spent on food
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only decreases while the proportion spent on
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only other goods (such as luxury goods)
increases.
Q41. Consider the following statements: A
State can be said to be secular only if Which of the following Economic law is
1. the religious freedom of individuals is mentioned in the above paragraph?
ensured through non enforcement of
any particular religion by State. (a) Law of supply
2. State following the principle of (b) Engel's Law
noninterference in all the activities (c) Law of Demand
remotely related to religion. (d) Law of self interest
3. Government does not levy any taxes
on religious institutions. Q45. Which of the following are considered as
Which of the statements given above non-Tariff barriers in International Trade?
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only 1. Import quota
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 2. Arbitrarily applied Sanitar y and
(d) 1 and 3 only phytosanitary conditions

Q42. Consider the following cities: 3. Ad-valorem Duty

1. Delhi
2. Kyiv 4. Local Content Requirement
3. Moscow
4. Ashgabat 5. Countervailing Duty
5. Islamabad
Arrange the following cities of Eurasian Select the correct answer from the code
region in the North to South direction: given below:
(a) 2-3-1-5-4
(b) 3-2-4-5-1 (a) 1 and 4 only
(c) 3-2-5-4-1 (b) 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 2-3-5-4-1 (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

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Q46. With reference to the Angel Funds in Q49. Arrange the following Himalayan Peaks
India, consider the following statements: in order of their location from West to
1. Angel investors are individuals who East?
invest in start-up businesses, usually in
their early stages. 1. Kamet
2. These funds are regulated by the
Security and Exchange Board of India. 2. Annapurna
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? 3. Dhaulagiri
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 4. Nanda Devi
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the answer using the code given
below:
Q47. Which among the following is the most (a) 1-4-3-2
appropriate reason why Article 1 of the (b) 1-3-4-2
Indian Constitution describes India as a (c) 4-1-3-2
‘Union of states’ rather than a ‘Federation (d) 4-3-2-1
of States’?
(a) as Indian Federation is not the result of
an agreement among the states like Q50. Consider the following statements:
the American Federation.
(b) as it recognizes the principle of Statement I: In India, the current Gross
equality of representation of states in Enrolment Ratio (GER) is near-universal at
the upper house. the primary and the secondary levels and
(c) as states have the right to secede from the efforts are underway to bridge the
the federation. gaps at the higher secondary levels of
(d) as two or more states can override the schooling.
Union government in law making
Statement II: The National Education
Q48. Which of the following are the major Policy, 2020 aims to achieve a 100% GER
impacts of ocean warming? across all levels of schooling by 2030.
1. Increased incidents of Coral Bleaching.
2. L o s s of b re e d i n g g ro u n d s f o r Which one of the following is correct in
mammals. respect of the above statements?
3. Sea level rise. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
4. Deoxygenation of oceans. correct, and Statement-II is the correct
5. Threat to food security. explanation for Statement-I.
Select the correct answer using the code (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
given below: correct, but Statement-II is not the
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only correct explanation for Statement-I.
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement II
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only is incorrect.
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement
II is correct.

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Q51. Consider the following statements Q53. "As per the Union Budget 2025–26, which
regarding the Insolvency and Bankruptcy of the following taxes contributes the
Code (IBC) : most to the total tax revenue of the
government?"
1. Information Utilities (IUs) under IBC
help store financial data and can be (a) Corporate Tax
used to verify defaults in insolvency (b) Goods and Services Tax (GST)
cases. (c) Personal Income Tax
2. The National Company Law Tribunal (d) Customs Duty
serves as the Adjudicating Authority
(AA) under the IBC, as well as for cases Q54. Consider the following statements:
under the Companies Act 2013 and
Competition Law. Statement I: India has the second largest
3. The maximum time period for road network in the world.
corporate insolvency resolution Statement II: India is the seventh largest
process (CIRP) under IBC is 180 days. country in the World by area.

Which of the statements given above Which one of the following is correct in
is/are correct? respect of the above statements?
(a) 1 only (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(b) 1 and 2 only correct, and Statement-II is the correct
(c) 2 and 3 only explanation for Statement-I.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, but Statement-II is not the
Q52. With reference to the Weather correct explanation for Statement-I.
information and Network Data System (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
(WINDS), consider the following II is incorrect.
statements: (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
Statement-II is correct.
1. The Ministry of Earth Sciences has
initiated the weather information Q55. What is the primary objective of the Gyan
network and data system (WINDS) to Bharatam Mission, as announced in the
generate long-term, hyper-local Union Budget 2025-26?
weather data.
2. WINDS has been incorporated in PM (a) To promote digital literacy and expand
Fa s a l B i m a Yo j n a t o e n h a n c e broadband access in rural India
transparency and accuracy in (b) To e s t a b l i s h n e w e d u c a t i o n a l
insurance claim settlement. institutions focused on artificial
intelligence and emerging
Which of the statements given above technologies
is/are correct? (c) To provide financial assistance for
(a) 1 only students pursuing higher education
(b) 2 only (d) To document, preserve, and create a
(c) Both 1 and 2 digital repository of India’s manuscript
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 heritage

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Q56. Consider the following statements: (a) Only one
Statement I: India’s e-commerce market (b) Only two
makes up about 20 percent of the global (c) Only three
market. (d) All four
Statement II: Under the GST regime, e-
commerce exports are treated as zero- Q59. The Framework for Responsible and
rated supplies, making them eligible for Ethical Enablement of Ar tificial
GST refunds. Intelligence (FREEAI) was recently
Which one of the following is correct in announced by which institution to
respect of the above statements? regulate the use of AI and Machine
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Learning in financial services?
correct, and Statement-II is the correct (a) NITI Aayog
explanation for Statement-I. (b) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (c) Securities and Exchange Board of India
correct, but Statement-II is not the (SEBI)
correct explanation for Statement-I. (d) I n d i a n C o m p u t e r E m e r g e n c y
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement- Response Team
II is incorrect.
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t Q60. Consider the following statements
Statement-II is correct. regarding the Fiscal Responsibility and
Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003:
Q57. Consider the following statements 1. The FRBM Act applies to both the
regarding Reverse Charge Mechanism central and state governments,
(RCM) under GST: requiring them to maintain fiscal
1. In RCM, the liability of tax payment is discipline.
transferred to the recipient/receiver 2. The Act mandates that the central
instead of the supplier. government must maintain a zero
2. It is applicable in the case of purchase revenue deficit at all times.
from an unregistered dealer. Which of the statements given above
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
is/are correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q61. As per the findings of India State of Forest
Q58. How many of the following are the Report (ISFR) 2023, which of the following
member countries of the Organization of States of India has the largest forest
the Petroleum Exporting Countries plus cover?
(OPEC+)? (a) Jharkhand
1. USA (b) Maharashtra
2. Russia (c) Madhya Pradesh
3. South Sudan (d) Arunachal Pradesh
4. Brunei
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.

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Q62. Consider the following statements: Q65. Consider the following pairs:
1. The Dachigam National Park is located
on the Zabarwan Range in the Kashmir
Valley. Coastal Beach State
2. The Kangra Valley is situated between
the Dhauladhar Range in the north 1. Rushikonda Tamil Nadu
and the Shivalik Hills in the south.
3. The Kullu Valley is located in the upper 2. Vagator Gujarat
course of the Ravi river.
4. The Siachen glacier is the source for 3. Gahirmatha Odisha
the Nubra river, which flows through
the Nubra Valley.
How many statements given above are How many of the above pairs are correctly
correct? matched?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) Only three (c) All three
(d) All four (d) None

Q63. Which among the following is the most Q66. Consider the following statements:
reasonable idea behind issuing the “sweat
equity” by the companies now a days? Statement I: Optical fibre technology is
(a) To provide more profits to the retail preferred over copper cables for long
investors distance data transmission.
(b) To provide more profits to the Statement II: Optical fibres provide
corporate investors higher bandwidth, are cost-effective, and
(c) To retain the best employees are compatible with all types of networks
(d) To save tax compared to copper cables.
Statement III: Fiber optic cables can
transmit data over long distances without
Q64. Consider the following statements signal loss.
regarding the Contingent Reser ve
Arrangement (CRA): Which one of the following is correct in
1. It proposes to provide support to deal respect of the above statements ?
with any shor t-term balance of (a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III
payments pressures. are correct and both of them explain
2. It is a financial mechanism under Statement-I
BRICS. (b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III
Which of the statements given above are correct, but only one of them
is/are correct? explains Statement-I
(a) 1 only (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is
(b) 2 only correct and that explains Statement-I
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement-Ill
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

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Q67. The "Keeling Curve," often seen in the Q70. Consider the following statements
news, is related to the: regarding the floor test in the Parliament:
1. T h e p h r a s e ‘ fl o o r t e s t ’ i s n o t
(a) measurement of ozone depletion over mentioned in the Indian Constitution.
Antarctica. 2. A special session can be called by the
(b) tracking of changes in ocean acidity Speaker to conduct a floor test in the
levels. Parliament.
(c) long-term record of atmosperic 3. The nominated members of the Rajya
carbon dioxide (Co2) concentrations. Sabha are allowed to vote during floor
(d) mapping of glacier retreat in the Arctic test.
and Antarctic regions
How many of the statements given above
Q68. Consider the following statements are correct?
regarding the National Security Council: (a) Only one
(b) Only two
1. It is an apex advisory body headed by (c) All three
the National Security Advisor (NSA). (d) None
2. NSA acts as the Secretary of the NSC
and holds the rank of Cabinet Minister. Q71. Which of the following statements
3. It consists of the Ministers of Finance, regarding 'Commercial Paper' is not
Defense, Home and External Affairs. correct?

How many of the above statements are (a) It is an unsecured and short-term debt
correct? instrument.
(a) Only one (b) It has to be backed by collateral.
(b) Only two (c) It is sold at a discount from face value.
(c) All three (d) I t i s i s s u e d b y s p e c i fi e d l a rg e
(d) None corporation or banks.

Q69. With reference to Chinar tree, consider Q72. Which of the following are the
the following statements: components of 'High Powered Money'?
1. Currency in circulation with the public.
1. An initiative named “Tree Aadhaar” 2. Vault cash lying with commercial
mission to conserve the region's iconic banks.
chinar trees. 3. Deposits held by the Government of
2. In India, it is predominantly found in India with the RBI.
the Kashmir Valley. 4. Deposits held by commercial banks
3. It is a deciduous tree native to India. with the RBI.

Which of the statements given above are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below:
(a) 1 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Q73. With reference to the Law Commission of (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
India which one of the following correct, and Statement-II is the correct
statements is correct? explanation for Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(a) It is a statutory body correct, but Statement-II is not the
(b) Its vice chairperson is appointed by correct explanation for Statement-I.
the President of India every five years. (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
(c) Its recommendations are not binding II is incorrect.
on the Central government (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
(d) The Union Minister of Law and Justice Statement-II is correct.
serves as the ex-officio chairperson of
the commission. Q77. Which of the following areas is notified
under the provisions of the Indian Forest
Q74. Global Climate Risk Index is released by Act, 1927, where all activities are
which one of the following organizations? prohibited unless specifically permitted?

(a) World Economic Forum (a) Community Reserve

(b) International Union for Conservation (b) Reserved Forest
of Nature (c) Protected Forest
(c) Germanwatch (d) National Park
(d) U n i t e d N a t i o n s E n v i r o n m e n t
Programme Q78. ”Crystal Maze 2”, sometimes seen in the
news refers to a:
Q75. Which of the following technologies is
most closely related to Affective (a) Ballistic missile
Computing? (b) Group of stars in faraway galaxy
(c) Crypto currency
(a) Emotion AI system using Large (d) Narcotic drug
Language Models (LLMs)
(b) Blockchain for decentralized data Q79. Consider the following:
storage
(c) LIDAR sensors for 3D environmental 1. Composting
mapping 2. Bio-Augmentation
(d) G r a p h t h e o r y f o r n e t w o r k 3. Biopiles
optimization 4. Phytoremediation
5. Landfarming
Q76. Consider the following statements:
Which of the methods given above are
Statement I: Coastal wetlands are highly considered a type of Ex-situ
effective at long-term carbon storage. Bioremediation?
Statement II: The majority of soil in
coastal wetlands is anaerobic due to (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
consistent water saturation. (b) 1, 3 and 5 only
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
Which one of the following is correct in (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
respect of the above statements?

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Q80. Which of the following human activities is Q83. They are the smallest sea turtles of India.
considered to contribute significantly to An event, known as the Arribada, is
positive climate forcing? exhibited by these species on the Indian
Coast. Trade of these turtles and their
(a) Large-scale afforestation products are banned under CITES
(b) Carbon sequestration initiatives Appendix I.
(c) Combustion of fossil fuels releasing
Carbon dioxide Which of the following species is being
(d) Expansion of organic farming described above?

(a) Green turtles

(b) Hawksbill turtles
Q81. Which of the following countries has (c) Leatherback turtles
been recently recognized by the World (d) Olive Ridley turtles
Health Organization (WHO) as the first
country in the world to eliminate leprosy?
Q84. Global Dimming, the gradual reduction
(a) Congo of sunlight reaching Earth, is primarily
(b) Jordan caused by which of the following?
(c) Pakistan
(d) Tonga (a) Increased volcanic activity
(b) Air pollution
(c) Changes in natural solar cycle
(d) Deforestation and land-use changes
Q82. Which among the following statements
best describes the term “Just Transition” in
relation to climate change? Q85. Which of the following are the possible
reasons for the recent shrinking of the
(a) It refers to the process of moving from Caspian Sea?
fossil fuels to renewable energy
sources. 1. Loss of water in the tributaries of the
(b) It means greening the economy in a sea.
way that is fair and inclusive to
ever yone, creating decent work 2. Lower rainfall in the region.
opportunities and leaving no one
behind. 3. Rise in temperature in the region.
(c) It means countries historically
responsible for climate change should Select the correct answer using the codes
bear the main burden of supporting given below:
developing countries.
(d) It signifies that each country should (a) 2 only
take climate action based on its (b) 1 and 2 only
economic capacity, ensuring a fair (c) 1 and 3 only
distribution of responsibilities. (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q86. Consider the following statements: Q88. With reference to the Indian history of art
and culture, consider the following pairs:
Statement I: Climate proofing refers to
actions that remove more carbon dioxide Famous work Site
from the atmosphere than they emit. of Sculpture

Statement II: Climate proofing ensures 1. Sculpture of Trimurti, Ellora

that development projects are resilient to depicting Shiva caves
the impacts of climate variability and with three faces
change.
2. Sculpture of Udayagiri
Which one of the following is correct in Varaha or caves
respect of the above statements? Boar incarnation
of Vishnu
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, and Statement-II is the correct 3. Images of both Kanheri
explanation for Statement-I. Standing Buddha caves
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are and sitting
correct, but Statement-II is not the Buddha flanked
correct explanation for Statement-I. by Bodhisattvas
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
II is incorrect. How many of the above pairs are correctly
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t matched?
Statement-II is correct. (a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None
Q87. Recently, the Government of India has
taken various measures for the
conservation of Dolphins. In this context, Q89. Consider the following reasons for the
consider the following statements: decline of the Gupta Empire:
1. Invasion by the Hunas from Central
1. Some Whales are Dolphins. Asia.
2. Challenge from the Malwa prince,
2. No Dolphin is a Mammal Yashodharman.
3. F e u d a t o r i e s i n N o r t h B e n g a l
3. Some species of Dolphins are blind becoming independent.
4. Loss of revenue due to loss of western
Which of the statements given above India.
is/are correct? How many of the reasons given above are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Only one
(b) 3 only (b) Only two
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Only three
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All four

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Q90. Which of the following is a traditional Q94. With respect to Indian history, consider
ritual theater of the Uttarakhand region the following statements:
that has been included in the list of
Intangible Cultural Heritage by UNESCO? Statement-I : Indian National Congress
(a) Bhavai supported Lord Ripon by adopting a
(b) Ramman resolution in support of the Ilbert Bill.
(c) Swaang
(d) Bhaona Statement-II : Ilbert Bill empowered
Indian Magistrates or Sessions Judges to
Q91. “Reality is very complex and has multiple try charges against European British
aspects. It can not be grasped in its subjects.
entirety and complexity. All that is
possible are a number of partially true Which one of the following is correct in
statements about reality. Therefore, every respect of the above statements?
statement about reality should be (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
prefixed with the word syat (maybe)” The correct, and Statement-II is the correct
above statement reflects one of the core explanation for Statement-I.
beliefs of which of the following schools of (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
philosophy? correct, but Statement-II is not the
(a) Theravada Buddhism correct explanation for Statement-I.
(b) Dvaita Vedanta (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
(c) Vajrayana Buddhism II is incorrect.
(d) Jainism (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
Statement-II is correct.
Q92. With reference to the Indus Water Treaty,
consider the following statements:
1. It was signed between India and Q95. Consider the following statements
Pakistan after the India-Pakistan war regarding Government of India Act of
of 1965. 1919:
2. The negotiations were carried out with
the support of the World Bank. 1. It set up a Bicameral Legislature in the
Which of the statements given above provinces and a dyarchy at the Center.
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only 2. It introduced the system of separate
(b) 2 only electorates for the first time.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. The Secretary of State was now to be
paid by the British Exchequer.
Q93. Which of the following rulers have been
described as “Lord of Dakshinapath” in How many of the above statements are
Naneghat inscription? correct?
(a) Karikala (a) Only one
(b) Rajaraja I (b) Only two
(c) Satakarni I (c) All three
(d) Narasimhavarman I (d) None

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Q96. With reference to the International Q98. Consider the following statements:
Labour Organization (ILO), consider the Statement-I: Antibiotics are ineffective in
following statements: treating infections caused by viruses.
Statement-II: Viruses have cell walls
1. It is a specialised agency of the United composed of cellulose microfibrils,
Nations. providing them resistance to antibiotics.
Which one of the following is correct in
2. Its tripartite structure consists of respect of the above statements?
representatives from governments, (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
employers, and workers. correct, and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
3. It is mandatory for the member states (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
to adopt the core labour standards correct, but Statement-II is not the
identified by ILO. correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
How many of the statements given above II is incorrect.
are correct? (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
Statement-II is correct.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three Q99. Which of the following are organic
(d) None substances that do not provide direct
energy to the human body like
carbohydrates, but are essential in small
Q97. With reference to Shanghai Cooperation amounts for health and growth?
Organization (SCO), consider the (a) Proteins
following statements: (b) Fats
(c) Vitamins
1. Both India and China are the founding (d) Minerals
members of SCO.

2. India is the current chair of SCO for Q100. With reference to the interior of Earth,
2024. consider the following statements:
1. Oceanic crust is thicker than the
3. Its Executive Committee of the continental crust.
Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure 2. Asthenosphere is a layer within the
(RATS) is located in Tashkent. core and primary source of Magma.
3. The outer core is in liquid state while
How many of the above statements are the inner core is in solid state.
correct? How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) All three
(d) None (d) None

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET
GS FULL LENGTH
TEST - VI

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO,
GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fi ll in the Roll Number carefully without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will
render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in
some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certifi cate.
8. After you have completed fi lling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers
happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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Q1. Consider the following statements: Q4. Which of the following does not fall within
1. The Transfer of Surplus from the RBI to the meaning of “State” under article 12 of
the government is based on the Indian Constitution?
convention and not backed by any
legal clause. (a) A private entity working as an
2. The Reserve Bank of India is solely instrument of the State/Government.
owned by the Government of India (b) Village Panchayats
which also functions as its largest (c) A contracting company that has
shareholder. received an official government
tender.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are (d) Any Indian Embassy or Diplomatic
correct? mission located overseas
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q5. Which of the following statements is NOT
Q2. Consider the following: one of the reasons for the introduction of
1. Liberalised remittance Scheme Railways in India by the British in the 19th
2. Increased end-use restrictions for century?
External Commercial Borrowings
3. Reduced FDI restrictions. (a) To help increase the levels of export of
4. Relaxed Inflation norms materials from India to Europe.
5. Low Current Account Deficit (b) To enable greater penetration of
British Administrative Policies in India.
Which of the above are conditions (c) Revival of local indigenous industries
ensuring “Capital Account due to their high demand in European
Convertibility”? markets.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (d) It enabled finished European and
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only British goods to reach to the remotest
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only markets in India.
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Q3. With respect to Jainism, the terms

“Avsarpini” and “Utsarpini” most suitably
refer to: Q6. Who amongst the following is associated
with “The Problem of the Rupee: Its Origin
(a) The Cycles of Progress and Decline in and Its Solution”?
the Universe.
(b) The event of birth and death of a (a) Dr B.R Ambedkar
Tirthankara respectively. (b) R.C Dutt
(c) Two auspicious time portals when one (c) Dadabhai Naoroji
can attain true Kaivalya (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) The beginning and end of Kal Yug
according to the Tirthankaras

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Q7. “The crop is grown in slopes of height Q10. Which of the following is/are correct with
between 600 to 1800 meters. It requires a reference to the National Mineral Policy
temperature between 20oC - 27oC and 2019?
100 to 200 centimetres of Orographic 1. It pertains to all major and minor
rainfall for its growth. Direct sunlight is minerals, including coal-based and
harmful to the crop. A well drained loamy other fuel-based minerals.
soil is ideally suited for the cultivation of 2. It introduces the concept of Exclusive
the crop.” Mining Zones which come with
inprinciple statutory clearances for
Which one of the following is the crop? grant of mining lease.
(a) Sugarcane 3. It provides for the right of first refusal
(b) Coffee to the Prospecting Licence holders at
(c) Grapes the time of auction.
(d) Gucchi Mushroom Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
Q8. Consider the following statements (a) 1 only
regarding ‘Asiatic Lion’? (b) 1 and 2 only
1. Asiatic lions are significantly larger (c) 2 and 3 only
than African lions. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. They have been recently notified
Critically Endangered by IUCN Q11. Consider the following paragraph;
3. India is the only country in the world "He ruled during the fourth century AD in
that has both tiger and lion north India. He was called the Napolean of
population. India by historian [Link]. Prayag
Prashasti has been written in his praise by
Which of the statement(s) given above his cour t poet Harisena who also
is/are correct? describes him as the hero of a hundred
(a) 1 and 2 only battles."
(b) 2 and 3 only Who has been described in the above
(c) 3 only paragraph?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Chandragupta-I
(b) Samudragupta
Q9. Which of the following countries have the (c) Ashoka
Equator passing through them? (d) Chandragupta Maurya
1. Peru
2. Angola Q12. Which of the following is/are money
3. Kenya market instruments in India?
4. Singapore 1. Treasury Bill
2. Certificate of Deposits
Select the correct answer using the code 3. Commercial Bill
given below. 4. Exchange-Traded Funds
(a) 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 3 only given below:
(c) 1 and 4 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Q13. With reference to the Niryat Bandhu Q16. Consider the following statements with
Scheme, consider the following respect to the Intergovernmental Science
statements: Policy Platform on Biodiversity and
1. It is a mentorship scheme launched by Ecosystem Services (IPBES):
the Ministr y of Commerce and
Industry to promote exports from 1. I t i s a n i n d e p e n d e n t n o n -
India. governmental body to strengthen the
2. The scheme focuses on providing science-policy interface for
training and handholding support to biodiversity and ecosystem services.
new and aspiring exporters,
particularly from MSMEs. 2. It comes under the aegis of the United
Which of the statements given above are Nations.
correct?
(a) 1 only 3. Its current staff of the secretariat are
(b) 2 only employed by UNEP.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 How many of the above statements are
correct?

Q14. The term “Stargate,” recently in the news, (a) Only one
is a (b) Only two
(a) new satellite launching system by (c) All three
SpaceX (d) None
(b) new space weapon programe by
Russia
(c) Cryptocurrency generation system
(d) United States initiative to create AI
Infrastructure
Q17. This cold current is considered as an
extension of the South Pacific Current
Q15. Consider the following statements which turns northwards along the western
regarding Short Term Capital Gains Tax in coast of South America. The current leads
India: to the rainless Chilean coast. The area due
1. It refers to a tax on the gain that arises to the impact of this current witnesses
from the sale of an asset after holding thick deposits of guano, a valuable
it less than sixty months. fertilizer that whitens the coastal cliffs and
2. Securities Transaction Tax (STT) is an islands of the area.
indirect tax levied on sale and
purchase of equities Identify the oceanic current from the
Which of the statements given above passage given above.
is/are NOT correct?
(a) 1 only (a) South Equatorial Current
(b) 2 only (b) Humboldt Current
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Brazilian Current
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Agulhas Current

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Q18. Consider the following statements Q20. Locally known as Akhuipuina, the famous
regarding the Rajya Sabha or the Council migratory bird arrives mainly in Manipur
of State: and Nagaland on its southbound
migration from breeding grounds in
1. Unlike the Lok Sabha, all States and North China, Eastern Mongolia, and far-
U n i o n Te r r i to r i e s d o n o t h a ve east Russia en route to its wintering
representation in the Rajya Sabha. grounds in South Africa. The one-way
journey via India is about 20,000 km long
2. Unlike the Lok Sabha, the Scheduled and the birds do this twice a year. Doyang
Caste and Scheduled Tribes do not reservoir in Nagaland probably hosts the
have reservations in the Rajya Sabha. single largest congregation of this bird
recorded anywhere in the world.
3. Like the Lok Sabha, the presiding Which of the bird species is best described
officer of the Rajya Sabha is elected in the passage given above?
from among its members. (a) Red- throated flycatcher
(b) Siberian Crane
Which of the following statements given (c) Black-tailed godwit
above are correct? (d) Amur Falcon

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only Q21. The term ‘JT-60SA’, often seen in the
(c) 1 and 3 only news, is associated with which among the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 following?
(a) W o r l d ’s l a r g e s t e x p e r i m e n t a l
nuclearfusion reactor
(b) United States latest stealth aircraft
Q19. Consider the following statements (c) Russia's upcoming outer space
regarding the Geographical Indication observatory
(GI) Tag in India: (d) Microsoft AI-enabled speech-to-
image Generator
1. The GI tag in India is awarded under
the Geographical Indications (GI) of
Goods Act, 1999. Q22. Which of the following is NOT correct
about fixed-term employment?
2. The registration of a geographical (a) It is a form of contract in which a
indication is valid for a period of 5 company hires an employee for a
years. specific period of time.
(b) The contract can be terminated even
Which of the statements given above before the due date on certain
is/are correct? grounds.
(c) Their payment is altered based on the
(a) 1 only performance with respect to basic pay.
(b) 2 only (d) Workers are entitled to all statutory
(c) Both 1 and 2 benefits available to a permanent
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 worker.

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Q23. Which among the following can widen Q26. Consider the following statements
the Current Account Deficit of India? regarding the Hoysala Architecture:
1. A rise in crude prices.
2. Reduction in the export subsidy. 1. Hoysala temples are generally built on
3. Imposing import quota. star-shaped platforms.
4. Indian companies raising money from
External Commercial Borrowings 2. Hoysala temples are distinctive for
(ECBs). bearing sculptors' and masons'
names.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. 3. Soapstone is extensively used in
(a) 1 and 2 only Hoysala architecture.
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only How many of the statements given above
(d) 3 and 4 only are correct?

Q24. Consider a foreign investor, who invested (a) Only one

in an Indian listed company (on the stock (b) Only two
exchange) to the tune of 20%. At a later (c) All three
stage, the foreign investor decides to (d) None
reduce it's shareholding to 5%. Under
such a scenario, how would such an
investment be classified? Q27. Recently, the government has shifted
Barytes, Felspar, Mica, and Quartz from
(a) FDI in the first stage and FPI in the the list of minor minerals to the category
second stage of major minerals. With reference to this,
(b) FPI in both the stages consider the following statements:
(c) FDI in both the stages
(d) FPI in the first stage and FDI in the 1. Quartz and Mica are a source of critical
second stage elements essential for advanced
aviation and clean energy sectors.
Q25. It is situated in the northern part of
Madhya Pradesh in the north fringe of the 2. The government has approved the
Central Highlands of India, forming a part National Critical Mineral Mission to
of the Upper Vindhyan Hills. It also promote the exploration of critical
contains Sakhya Sagar, Madhav Sagar, minerals within the country and
and Madikhera Dam. It has recently been offshore.
notified as the 58th tiger reserve of India.
Which of the statements given above
Which of the following national parks is is/are correct?
described in the passage above?
(a) Veerangana Durgavati national park (a) 1 only
(b) Ratapani national park (b) 2 only
(c) Mukundara national park (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Madhav national park (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q28. With reference to the Insolvency and Q30. Consider the following statements
Bankruptcy Code (IBC), consider the regarding the working of the human
following statements: heart:

1. Majority of the insolvency cases are 1. Arteries carry carbon dioxide-rich

resolved through resolution than blood from the heart to all parts of the
liquidation under the Insolvency and body.
Bankruptcy Code (IBC). 2. Veins carry oxygen-rich blood from all
2. It covers insolvency cases involving parts of the body back to the heart.
both domestic and foreign creditors 3. Capillaries allow the exchange of
and debtors. materials between blood and tissues.
3. H o m e b u y e r s w h o h a v e m a d e
payments against the allotment of a Which of the statements given above
unit in a real estate project are is/are not correct ?
recognized as financial creditors. (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above are (c) 3 only
correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Q31. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Pradhan Mantri Jan

Q29. Consider the following statements Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) has played a
regarding the Green Climate Fund (GCF): significant role in promoting financial
inclusion in India.
1. The concept of the GCF was first
introduced during the 2009 Statement-II: PMJDY provides access to
“Copenhagen Accord.” financial services such as bank accounts,
2. It operates with a board representing credit, insurance, and pension to
developed and developing countries unbanked populations, especially in rural
equally. and remote areas.
3. It serves as the financial mechanism
for several international Which one of the following is correct in
environmental conventions like the respect of the above statements?
Convention on Biological Diversity (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(CBD). correct, and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
How many of the statements given above (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
are correct? correct, but Statement-II is not the
(a) Only one correct explanation for Statement-I.
(b) Only two (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-
(c) All three II is incorrect.
(d) None (d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
Statement-II is correct.

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Q32. Arrange the following Magadha Q35. Consider the following statements
dynasties in chronological order of their regarding the Cabinet Secretary in India:
ruling period:
1. The Cabinet Secretary is appointed by
1. Shishunaga Dynasty t h e P re s i d e n t of I n d i a o n t h e
2. Nanda Dynasty re c o m m e n d a t i o n of t h e P r i m e
3. Haryanka Dynasty Minister.
4. Shunga Empire 2. The term of the Cabinet Secretary is
fixed for two years and cannot be
Select the correct answer using the code extended further.
given below. 3. He/She acts as the chief coordinator
(a) 3-4-2-1 between various ministries and
(b) 1-2-3-4 departments of the government.
(c) 2-3-1-4 4. He/She heads the Prime Minister’s
(d) 3-1-2-4 Office (PMO) and super vises its
activities.

Q33. Which of the following best explains the How many of the statements given above
terms 'Golden Triangle' and 'Golden are correct?
Crescent'? (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(a) Areas with abundant gold reserves (c) Only three
(b) Booming software industries in South (d) All four
Asia
(c) Buddhist sites in Japan
(d) Areas plagued by drug trafficking
Q36. Which of the following amendments is
not deemed to be amendments to the
Q34. Consider the following statements Constitution under Article 368?
regarding the Ilbert Bill controversy:
1. The creation of local legislatures for
1. Sir Courtenay Ilbert, who prepared the certain Union Territories
Bill, was the Secretary of State. 2. The creation of the All-India Judicial
2. The Bill was moved in 1883 during the Service
tenure of Lord Ripon. 3. The administration of the Scheduled
3. The primary aim of the Bill was to Areas
eliminate racial discrimination in the 4. The addition of paying taxes as a new
Indian judicial process. Fundamental duty

Which of the statements given above are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

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Q37. Consider the following statements Q40. Which of the following characteristics are
regarding the Foreign Tribunals: associated with the mature stage of
1. These are formed under Article 323B rivers?
of the Indian Constitution.
2. At present, only Assam has such 1. Deep V-shaped valleys
Foreign Tribunals.
3. These tribunals have the power of civil 2. Formation of waterfalls and rapids
court.
Which of the statements given above are 3. Presence of natural levees and oxbow
correct? lakes
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code
(c) 1 and 3 only given below.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
Q38. Consider the following statements: (b) 2 and 3 only
1. India accounts for the seventh-largest (c) 1 and 2 only
share in global services exports. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. India accounts for more than 5% in the
share of global goods exports.
Which of the statements given above
is/are not correct? Q41. Gandhiji’s concept of 'Sarvodaya' was
(a) 1 only inspired by which of the following works?
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 'The Kingdom of God is Within You' by
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Leo Tolstoy
(b) 'Unto This Last' by John Ruskin
Q39. Consider the following statements with (c) H e n r y D a v i d T h o r e a u ' s C i v i l
respect to the Council of Ministers (CoMs): Disobedience
1. There was no limitation on the (d) Social Contract by Rousseau
strength of the Council of Ministers
(CoMs) at the time of the
commencement of the Indian
Constitution. Q42. In the context of marine organisms,
2. The strength of the Union Council of “periphyton” refers to:
Ministers must always be equal to the
strength of the Council of Ministers in (a) organisms found living at the bottom
all states combined. of the water mass.
3. The maximum strength of the Council (b) organisms living at the air-water
of Ministers in the Union Territories is interface.
the same as that of the states in India. (c) organisms which remain attached to
Which of the following statements given stems and leaves of rooted plants.
above is/are correct? (d) o rg a n i s m s w h i c h a re p o we r f u l
(a) 1 and 2 only swimmers that can overcome the
(b) 2 and 3 only water currents
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only

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Q43. Consider the following statements Q46. Consider the following statements
regarding Energy flow and Nutrient Cycle: regarding National Commission for
1. Energy flow is primarily driven by the Minorities:
sun, while the nutrient cycle can rely
on resources from the lithosphere and 1. It is a multi-member body consisting
atmosphere. of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson
2. They both involve the unidirectional and five members.
movement of resources and flow in 2. The Commission presents an annual
opposite directions. report to the Parliament.
3. Both Energy flow and nutrient cycling 3. At present there are five minority
results in no loss of resources. communities recognized by the
How many of the above statements are government of India.
correct?
(a) Only one How many of the above statements are
(b) Only two correct?
(c) All three
(d) None (a) Only one
(b) Only two
Q44. This soil is found in the areas of heavy (c) All three
rainfall, high humidity, and good growth (d) None
of vegetation. Soil is rich in humus and
organic content. This soil is normally
heavy and black in colour. Q47. Consider the following pairs:
The above passage best describes which
of the following soils?
(a) Laterite Soil Range Himalayan
(b) Saline Soil region
(c) Red Soil
(d) Peaty Soil 1. Zaksar range Greater
Himalayas
Q45. Consider the following statements
regarding the Shanghai Cooperation 2. Shiwalik range Lesser
Organization (SCO): Himalayas
1. It was founded at the Shanghai
Summit in 2001. 3. Mahabharat Outer
2. India is a founding member of the lekh Himalayas
SCO.
3. Belarus is the latest country to join the
SCO. How many pairs given above are correctly
Which of the statements given above are matched?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Only two
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) All three
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None

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Q48. Consider the following statements with Q50. Which of the following is patentable
reference to Oxygen Minimum Zones under the Indian Patent system?
(OMZs) in the oceans:
(a) Any common universally practised
Statement I: Oxygen minimum zones method of agriculture or horticulture.
(OMZs) in the oceans can act like rich (b) Inventions relating to atomic energy.
fishing grounds. (c) Cinematographic works and television
productions.
Statement II: The presence of Oxygen (d) None of the above
minimum zones leads to stratification of
ocean water.

Which one of the following is correct in Q51. Consider the following:

respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 1. Closure of four trading ports in Odisha
correct, and Statement-II is the correct by the East India Company
explanation for Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. Introduction of a new currency system
correct, but Statement-II is not the replacing cowries with silver
correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement- 3. Rise in salt prices due to taxes imposed
II is incorrect. by the Company
(d) S t a t e m e n t- I i s i n c o r r e c t , b u t
Statement-II is correct. 4. Confiscation of hereditary rent-free
lands.

Q49. Consider the following statements How many of the above factors are causes
regarding the "Restoration Barometer of the Paika Rebellion in the early
Report": nineteenth century?

1. It is released by United Nations (a) Only one

Environment Programme (UNEP). (b) Only two
(c) Only three
2. It is the only tool currently used by (d) All four
national and sub-national
governments to track progress on the
implementation of restoration targets
across all terrestrial ecosystems. Q52. The Battle of Chandernagore was fought
between which of the following two East
Which of the statements given above India Companies?
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) The British and the Dutch
(b) 2 only (b) The Dutch and the Danish
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) The French and the Portuguese
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) The British and the French

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Q53. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Q56. The zero liquid discharge (ZLD)
Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the technology is a
following statements:
(a) waste to fuel conversion process
1. AIIB is headquartered in Shanghai. which produces biofuels from the
2. China is the largest shareholder in the organic fraction of municipal solid
AIIB. waste.
3. AIIB does not have members from (b) process for removal of the excess salt
outside of Asia. or other minerals from seawater, to
o b t a i n f re s h w a te r f o r h u m a n
Which of the statements given above consumption.
is/are not correct? (c) mechanism that uses a bed of
(a) 1 and 3 only activated carbon to remove impurities
(b) 3 only from the contaminated fluid using
(c) 2 and 3 only adsorption.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) strategy for water treatment where
water is recovered from contaminated
Q54. It is a type of ultra-dense matter which discharge and the contaminants are
might be present in the cores of massive reduced to solid waste.
neutron stars. It is a sharply distinct phase
of matter with certain special topological
features. The theor y of Quantum Q57. Consider the following statements
chromodynamics explains the interaction regarding the Presidential elections in
of these particles. India:

The above passage refers to which of the 1. The Presidential and Vice-Presidential
following phenomena? Elections Act, 1952 governs the
(a) Quark matter election process of the President of
(b) Dark matter India.
(c) Bose-Einstein condensate
(d) Plasma matter 2. Voting in the Presidential election in
India is conducted through a secret
Q55. Consider the following: ballot.

1. Poverty alleviation 3. The security deposit required for

2. Attainment of self reliance contesting the Presidential election is
3. Food, work and productivity Rs. 50,000.

Which of the given above was/were the How many of the statements given above
primary focus of the Fifth Five Year Plan are correct?
(FYP)?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Only one
(b) 3 only (b) Only two
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) All three
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None

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Q58. Consider the following statements Q61. Consider the following pairs:
regarding pangolins:
1. They are nocturnal reptiles that feed
on ants and termites. Water Passage Connecting Seas
2. While the Indian Pangolin is classified
as Endangered, the Chinese Pangolin 1. Bosporus Mediterranean
is classified as Critically Endangered in Sea Red Sea
the IUCN list of threatened species.
3. They may be harmful due to their role 2. Strait Atlantic Ocean-
in inhibiting aeration and soil of Magellan Pacific Ocean
moisture.
Which of the statements given above 3. Strait Atlantic Ocean
is/are correct? of Gibraltar Mediterranean Sea
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only How many pairs given above are correctly
(d) 1, 2 and 3 matched?

Q59. Consider the following sources: (a) Only one

1. Volcanoes (b) Only two
2. Swamps (c) All three
3. Planktons (d) None
4. Power Plants
Which of the above given are the sources
for formation of Acid Rain? Q62. Consider the following statements with
(a) 1 and 2 only respect to the Cotton Industry in India:
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only 1. Cotton in India accounts for around 25
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 per cent of the total global fibre
production.
Q60. In the context of environmental 2. The government of India announces
conservation, which of the following Minimum Support Price (MSP) for
correctly describes the 'detergent of the both medium and long-staple cotton.
atmosphere'? 3. Cotton Corporation of India (CCI),
(a) Iodine based chemical suppressant for under the Textile Ministry, is the
combating aerosol concentration. principal agency for undertaking MSP
(b) N a t u r a l l y o c c u r r i n g c h e m i c a l operations.
substances capable of decomposing
greenhouse gases. Which of the statements given above are
(c) Carbon based pollution sanitizers to correct?
n e u t r a l i z e t h e a i r- b o r n e
microorganisms. (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Freely suspended nanoscale air (b) 2 and 3 only
Purifiers (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q63. Consider the following statements with Q66. Consider the following statements with
respect to the Protection of Civil Rights respect to Denotified tribes in India.
Act, 1955: 1. There are more than 100 denotified
1. It prescribes punishment for the tribes in India.
preaching and practice of 2. Denotified Tribes are spread across SC,
untouchability. ST and OBC categories.
2. It confers the responsibility for 3. Development and Welfare Board for
providing legal aid to the persons the Denotified, Nomadic and Semi-
subjected to disability upon the State Nomadic Communities functions
governments. under the administrative control of
Which of the statements given above Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
is/are correct? Which of the statements given above
(a) 1 only is/are correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Q64. Which of the following is not correct with
respect to Home Guards in India? Q67. If you travel through Sikkim, you are likely
(a) It is a voluntary force raised to assist to see which of the following animals
the police. naturally found there?
(b) All citizens of India, who are in the age 1. Red Panda
group of 18-50, are eligible to become 2. Black-necked crane
members of Home Guards. 3. Wild Yak
(c) They are recruited from various 4. Pygmy hog
crosssections of the people such as Select the correct answer using the code
doctors, engineers, college students, given below.
agricultural and industrial workers, (a) 1 and 3 only
etc. (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) Expenditure on Home Guards is (c) 2 and 4 only
entirely borne by the centre. (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Q65. Which of the following countries are the Q68. Stamp Duty is a tax levied, in the form of
members of the Commonwealth of stamps, on instruments recording
Nations? transactions. In India, stamp duty is levied
1. India upon:
2. China 1. Cheque
3. Australia 2. Transfer of Shares
4. Pakistan 3. Insurance policies
5. Brazil Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
given below. (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 3 only
(c) 2 and 5 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

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Q69. Which of the following ports is/are Q72. Consider the following statements:
considered as natural harbours in India?
1. While the Harappan people inhabited
1. Paradip port the north-western part of the Indian
2. Marmagao port subcontinent, the chalcolithic people
3. Kandla port settled predominantly in the deep
4. Chennai port south.
2. B o t h t h e H a r a p p a n s a n d t h e
Select the correct answer using the code chalcolithic people used burnt bricks
given below. on a large scale.
3. The chalcolithic people knew the art of
(a) 1 and 3 only terracotta like the Harappans.
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only Which of the statements given above
(d) 2 and 4 only is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

Q70. The National Building Code of India that (b) 2 and 3 only
covers the guidelines for construction, (c) 3 only
maintenance and fire safety of the (d) None
structures is published by:

(a) NITI Aayog Q73. Indian Constitution embodies the

(b) Bureau of Indian Standards concept of "Equality".
(c) Builders Association of India What are the features of this Equality?
(d) Bureau of Energy Efficiency
1. No person can be discriminated by the
State on the grounds of religion, race,
Q71. Which of the following statements is not caste, sex or place of birth.
correct in the context of constitutional 2. Benefits extended to some persons,
reforms introduced by the British through even if illegal, can be claimed by the
various acts? others on the ground that they have
been denied the same.
(a) Government of India Act of 1919 3. E q u a l s u b j e c t i o n a n d s i m i l a r
extended the right to vote to women application of the same laws to all
for the first time. persons who are similarly placed,
(b) Government of India Act of 1935 administrated by ordinary courts
introduced the provision of Joint
sitting in legislature. Select the correct answer using the codes
(c) I n d i a n C o u n c i l s A c t o f 1 9 0 9 given below.
introduced communal representation
for Sikhs and Anglo-Indians. (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) The Indian Council Act of 1892 gave (b) 1 and 3 only
legislative councils the power of (c) 2 and 3 only
discussing the budget (d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q74. Which of the following conditions are Q77. Which of the following statements about
associated with October heat? the Himalayas is not correct?
1. The weakening of Monsoon trough
2. Clear skies (a) The rivers of Kosi and Sutlej originated
3. Increase in humidity before the upliftment of Himalayan
region.
Select the correct answer using the code (b) Snow line in Western Himalayas is
given below. higher than Eastern Himalayas.
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Kail and Silk cotton trees are naturally
(b) 2 and 3 only found in Himalayan region.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Duns are located between Lesser
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Himalayas and Shiwaliks.

Q75. This dynasty ruled over the eastern parts

of India during the early medieval period.
The rulers of this dynasty were supporters
of Buddhism and established close trade Q78. Which of the following geographical
and cultural relations with South-East Asia regions was/were the bone of contention
kingdoms. One of the rulers of this between the Bahmani sultans and the
dynasty established the Vikramshila Vijayanagara empire?
University.
1. Tungabhadra doab
Which of the following dynasties does the 2. Krishna Godavari delta
passage given above refer to? 3. Konkan Coast
(a) Senas
(b) Palas Select the correct answer using the code
(c) Eastern Gangas given below.
(d) Gajapatis
(a) 1 only
Q76. Consider the following statements with (b) 1 and 2 only
respect to the Indian islands: (c) 2 and 3 only
1. The Lakshadweep Islands are entirely (d) 1, 2 and 3
made up of coral deposits.
2. Barren Island is the only confirmed
active volcano located in the Andaman
sea.
3. There are no coral reef islands in the Q79. With reference to the ancient history of
Gulf of Khambat. India, Avadanas form a part of:

Which of the statements given above (a) Jain literature

is/are correct? (b) Vedic literature
(a) 1 only (c) Buddhist literature
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) Sangam literature
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only

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Q80. Consider the following statements about 2. The austerities of Jainism and
the Great Indian Bustard (GIB) species in Buddhism were supported by the
India: Alvars and Nayanars.
1. It is one of the heaviest flying birds
inthe world. Which of the statements given above
2. I t i s c a t e g o r i s e d a s c r i t i c a l l y is/are correct?
endangered by the IUCN Red List. (a) 1 only
3. The largest concentration of GIBs (b) 2 only
could be found in the state of Gujarat. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. There exist a national programme for (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the conservation of the GIBs.
Which of the statements given above are Q83. "Born into the royal family, she was
correct? educated in Oxford and returned to India
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only in 1918. She was drawn towards the work
(b) 2 and 4 only and teachings of Mahatma Gandhi. Later
(c) 1 and 3 only on, she became his secretary. She took an
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only active part in Salt Satyagraha and Quit
India Movement. She went on to become
Q81. Which of the following pairs is/are independent India’s first health minister.
correctly matched? In 1950, she was elected the president of
the World Health Assembly, becoming the
Acid Source first woman and the first Asian to hold that
post."
1. Oxalic acid Tomato
Which of the following famous Indian
2. Lactic acid Lemon women of the 20th century is described in
the above passage?
3. Citric acid Curd (a) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
(b) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
4. Acetic acid Vinegar (c) Sarojini Naidu
(d) Madam Bhikaji Cama
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. Q84. Which of the following regions have
(a) 1 and 2 only proven uranium reserves in India?
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only 1. Jaduguda mines
(c) 1 and 4 only 2. Aravalli Range
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. Cuddapah basin
4. Mahadek basin
Q82. Consider the following statements in the
context of the developments in the first Select the correct answer using the code
half of the first millennium AD: given below.
1. Alvars and Nayanars emerged as a (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
response to the rigid caste system that (b) 1 and 3 only
was prevalent in the Brahmanical (c) 2 and 4 only
religion. (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

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Q85. Cartaz system refers to a naval trade Q88. With reference to ‘credit rationing’, which
policy that was operated in the Indian of the following statements is correct?
seas. Which of the following European
powers devised the Cartaz system? (a) It is a situation in which banks lend
credit to borrowers at a subsidised
(a) Dutch interest rate.
(b) British (b) It is a situation in which banks deny
(c) Portuguese credit to borrowers even if they are
(d) French willing to pay higher interest rate.
(c) It is a situation in which banks lend
credit only to the priority sector areas.
Q86. Consider the following statements: (d) It is a situation in which banks lend
credit to only the non-priority sector
1. Mitochondria and nucleus are the two areas, for faster economic
organelles in the human cell which development.
contain DNA.
2. I n M i to c h o n d r i a l Re p l a c e m e n t
Therapy (MRT), fertilization of the cell
takes place only after the transfer of a Q89. Climate Change Performance Index
nucleus from mother cell to donor cell (CCPI) is released by:

Which of the statements given above (a) World Wide Fund for Nature
is/are correct? (b) Germanwatch
(c) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
(a) 1 only Change
(b) 2 only (d) World Meteorological Organization
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q90. In which of the following cases can a

Q87. Which of the following measures can be court issue the writ of Mandamus?
taken to treat diarrhea?
1. To prevent a tribunal from exceeding
1. Rehydration with oral rehydration its jurisdiction
salts (ORS) solution 2. To enforce a contractual obligation
2. Zinc supplements 3. To command a public official to
3. Rehydration with intravenous fluids perform his official duties

Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below. given below.

(a) 1 only (a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 only

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 | Navigator | GS Full Length Test - VI
Q91. Which of the following countries border Q94. The term “Caucasus” often heard in the
the North Sea? news, corresponds to which region?
1. Norway (a) The Area under Ukraine bordering
2. France Russia which is the location of the
3. Ireland current war.
4. Netherland (b) It is a region roughly enclosing the
5. Belgium area between the Black Sea and the
Caspian Sea.
Select the correct answer using the code (c) It is a region often the cause of dispute
given below. between Israel and Syria.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) N o r t h A f r i c a n r e g i o n r o u g h l y
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only enclosing the area of Egypt, Libya and
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only Algeria
(d) 3, 4 and 5 only

Q92. Consider the following statements with Q95. With reference to Indian history, Alluri
reference to salt production in India: Sitaram Raju is associated with which of
1. Rajasthan state is the largest producer the following rebellion?
of salt in India. (a) Rampa rebellion
2. I n I n d i a , s a l t p r o d u c t i o n a n d (b) Mappilah Rebillion
distribution are monitored by the (c) Paika Rebellion
Food Safety and Standards Authority (d) Ahom Revolt
of India.

Which of the statements given above Q96. Which of the following processes is
is/are correct? responsible for the movement of local
(a) 1 only winds in Northern India, known as 'Loo'?
(b) 2 only (a) Conduction
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Advection
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Radiation
(d) Convection
Q93. Consider the following statements:
1. It is known as the “Black Pagoda”.
2. T h e t e m p l e i s a t t r i b u t e d t o Q97. 'This port is one of the most important
Narsimhadeva 1 of the Eastern Ganga ports of Sangam age. It is famous for
Dynasty. pearls and was located on the banks of the
3. The temple is based on the Kalinga styl Tamraparani river, formed a natural
of architecture. harbour. It was a principal center of trade
and an important port of the early
Which of the following temples is being Pandyan Kingdom.
described in the statements above? The above passage describes which of the
(a) Shore Temple following ports?
(b) Konark Sun temple (a) Puhar
(c) Lingaraj Temple (b) Muziris
(d) Rudreshwar Temple (c) Korkai
(d) Madurai

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 | Navigator | GS Full Length Test - VI
Q98. Consider the following pairs: Q100. Speciation is the evolutionary process
by which populations evolve to become
distinct species. In this context, which of
Pottery Period t h e f o l l o wi n g c o rre c t l y d e s c ri b e s
'Allopatric Speciation'?
1. Painted Mahajanapada
Grey Ware (a) It occurs when a species separates into
two separate groups which are
2. Northern Black Rig Vedic isolated from one another.
Polished Ware
(b) It occurs when an existing species
3. Red-Black Chalcolithic modifies itself owing to environmental
Ware Neolithic Phase pollution.

(c) It occurs when small groups of

Which of the pairs given above is/are individuals break off to interbreed with
correctly matched? individuals of other species.

(a) 1 and 2 only (d) I t o c c u r s w h e n t h e r e i s f r e e

(b) 2 and 3 only interbreeding of different varieties
(c) 3 only within a given species.
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q99. With reference to 'Niche' and 'Habitat' in

e c o l o g y, c o n s i d e r t h e f o l l o w i n g
statements:

1. While habitat is an area where a

species lives, niche is the sum of all
activities and relationships of a
species.

2. Two or more species can not only shar

the same habitat but also have the
same niche in an ecosystem.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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