1. Which of the following best defines leadership?

A) The process of maintaining the status quo

B) The ability to influence followers positively
C) The act of following orders
D) The process of managing finances
Answer: B

2. Leadership can be described as:

A) A one-way communication process

B) A social relationship between two or more persons with mutual goals
C) The art of delegating tasks only
D) The process of enforcing rules
Answer: B

3. What is a key element of leadership?

A) Issuing commands
B) Influencing a group to achieve a common goal
C) Working alone
D) Avoiding responsibility
Answer: B

4. Leadership involves:

A) Punishing mistakes
B) Organizing and supervising others to achieve goals
C) Ignoring group input
D) Following, not leading
Answer: B

5. Which statement best describes inspiring leadership?

A) Forcing others to work

B) Inspiring others to pursue a vision as a shared effort
C) Ignoring team input
D) Maintaining strict control
Answer: B

6. A core component of leadership is:

A) Micromanaging every detail

B) Establishing and sharing a clear vision
C) Avoiding decision-making
D) Refusing to accept feedback
Answer: B

7. Leadership is primarily a process of:

A) Social influence
B) Financial planning
C) Legal compliance
D) Asset management
Answer: A

8. In healthcare, leadership is about:

A) Maintaining the status quo

B) Identifying challenges and finding solutions
C) Ignoring system issues
D) Limiting innovation
Answer: B

9. Healthcare leadership should ideally:

A) Focus only on current affairs

B) Guide healthcare towards a future vision
C) Avoid change
D) Only manage finances
Answer: B

10. Leadership in healthcare influences:

A) Only the financial outcomes
B) The well-being of residents and employees
C) Only government decisions
D) Only patient records
Answer: B

11. Leadership is key to:

A) Regulatory compliance and quality care environments

B) Only administrative work
C) Ignoring patient care
D) Avoiding regulations
Answer: A

12. A leader is:

A) Someone who follows orders

B) Someone who influences and inspires others to achieve goals
C) Only an administrator
D) Someone who avoids responsibility
Answer: B

13. According to Northouse (2007), leadership is:

A) The ability to manage resources

B) Influencing a group to achieve a common goal
C) Following others
D) Avoiding teamwork
Answer: B

14. Leadership enables others to:

A) Ignore organizational effectiveness

B) Contribute toward organizational success
C) Avoid contributing
D) Only follow instructions
Answer: B
15. Leadership is a function of:

A) Only the leader

B) The leader, the followers, and the situation
C) Only the situation
D) Only the followers
Answer: B

16. Leadership can be described as:

A) Only a position
B) Action, not position
C) Ignoring action
D) Only about titles
Answer: B

17. Governance in the health sector primarily refers to:

A) Financial management
B) Steering and rule-making functions by governments and decision-makers
C) Only patient care
D) Only data collection
Answer: B

18. Health governance involves:

A) Only the national government

B) The government at various levels and other actors impacting health
C) Only health facilities
D) Just the private sector
Answer: B

19. Good governance is important for:

A) Minimizing outputs
B) Maximizing outputs and delivering services
C) Avoiding rules
D) Ignoring regulations
Answer: B

20. Governance can be defined as:

A) The process of being managed

B) The act or process of overseeing control and direction
C) Only making laws
D) Only running meetings
Answer: B

21. Governance is best described as:

A) A single rule
B) A complex system of processes, functions, structures, and norms
C) Only policy making
D) Only budget allocation
Answer: B

22. Management is a process that includes:

A) Only supervising
B) Planning, organizing, actuating, and controlling to achieve objectives
C) Only controlling
D) Only planning
Answer: B

23. The main aim of management in organizations is to:

A) Avoid objectives
B) Ensure organizational goals are met within desired standards
C) Ignore standards
D) Only manage people
Answer: B
24. Management is considered:

A) Unimportant
B) The basis of every organization
C) Only for large organizations
D) Only for finance departments
Answer: B

25. Leadership is about:

A) Inspiring others
B) Only giving orders
C) Avoiding teamwork
D) Ignoring vision
Answer: A

26. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of effective leadership?

A) Building trust
B) Communicating vision
C) Avoiding action
D) Taking effective action
Answer: C

27. Good governance includes:

A) Only making laws

B) Structures, rules, laws, and norms
C) Only healthcare delivery
D) Only financial planning
Answer: B

28. Leadership in healthcare does NOT include:

A) Ignoring system challenges

B) Identifying and solving problems
C) Guiding towards future goals
D) Inspiring shared vision
Answer: A

29. Leadership as a process includes:

A) Only the leader’s actions

B) Social influence and maximizing group efforts
C) Only individual achievement
D) Avoiding group input
Answer: B

30. The “function” of leadership refers to:

A) Only the leader

B) The leader, followers, and situation working towards a common purpose
C) Only organizational policies
D) Only financial outcomes
Answer: B

1. Who defined management as "the art of knowing what you want to do and
then seeing that you do it in the best and the cheapest way"?

A) Henri Fayol
B) Frederick Winslow Taylor
C) Mary Parker Follett
D) Harold Koontz
Answer: B

2. According to George R. Terry, management is:

A) Getting things done through people

B) A process of planning, organizing, actuating, and controlling
C) Only commanding others
D) Organizing only
Answer: B
3. Who stated, "Management is the art of getting things done through others and
with formally organized groups"?

A) Koontz & O'Donnell

B) Mary Parker Follett
C) Harold Koontz
D) Henri Fayol
Answer: C

4. Mary Parker Follett’s definition of management is:

A) The art of forecasting

B) The art of getting things done through people
C) The process of controlling resources
D) The science of planning
Answer: B

5. Henri Fayol defined management as:

A) Only organizing
B) Forecasting, planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, and controlling
C) Motivating people
D) Leading teams
Answer: B

6. Which function is NOT included in Harold Koontz & Heinz Weihrich’s

definition of management?

A) Organizing
B) Commanding
C) Designing and maintaining an environment for efficient group work
D) Planning
Answer: B

7. Which of the following is NOT a term related to management?

A) Quality management
B) Time management
C) Command management
D) Risk management
Answer: C

8. Which field is NOT typically categorized under management?

A) Change management
B) Cost management
C) Biology management
D) Project management
Answer: C

9. Which is NOT an importance of leadership and management in healthcare?

A) Improves quality of care

B) Creates adaptable leaders
C) Encourages forward-thinking
D) Hinders innovation
Answer: D

10. Which ability is most critical for quality patient care?

A) Strong discipline
B) Facilitating communication
C) Limiting productivity
D) Avoiding teamwork
Answer: B

11. During unpredictable situations like the COVID-19 pandemic, effective

leadership is:

A) Unnecessary
B) Crucial
C) Optional
D) Harmful
Answer: B
12. Leadership is different from management because leadership:

A) Only focuses on rules

B) Involves forward-thinking and vision
C) Ignores people
D) Is only about daily operations
Answer: B

13. Innovative leaders are known for:

A) Ignoring problems
B) Identifying and solving problems
C) Avoiding technology
D) Focusing only on the present
Answer: B

14. Leaders typically:

A) Set the vision

B) Only enforce rules
C) Follow instructions
D) Avoid change
Answer: A

15. Managers typically:

A) Set the culture

B) Implement the vision
C) Inspire only
D) Ignore planning
Answer: B

16. Which is NOT a basic management function?

A) Planning
B) Commanding
C) Organizing
D) Controlling
Answer: B

17. The process of setting goals and determining how to achieve them is called:

A) Staffing
B) Planning
C) Directing
D) Organizing
Answer: B

18. Tactics in management answer:

A) Why do we exist?
B) How do we achieve our strategic plan?
C) Who is the customer?
D) What is our mission?
Answer: B

19. The function that involves grouping tasks and establishing lines of authority
is:

A) Staffing
B) Organizing
C) Directing
D) Controlling
Answer: B

20. The three Cs important in organizing are:

A) Command, Control, Communicate

B) Coordination, Collaboration, Communication
C) Collaborate, Calculate, Communicate
D) Coordination, Command, Control
Answer: B
21. Which function ensures having qualified people for all positions?

A) Staffing
B) Planning
C) Organizing
D) Directing
Answer: A

22. Activities like recruiting, orienting, and training are part of:

A) Planning
B) Staffing
C) Directing
D) Controlling
Answer: B

23. Directing as a management function primarily involves:

A) Monitoring outcomes
B) Influencing people’s behavior through motivation and leadership
C) Setting budgets
D) Writing reports
Answer: B

24. Which is NOT typically a part of directing?

A) Motivating employees
B) Assigning responsibilities
C) Preparing financial statements
D) Resolving conflicts
Answer: C

25. Monitoring performance and correcting deviations is part of:

A) Planning
B) Controlling
C) Organizing
D) Staffing
Answer: B

26. Which function includes implementing information systems and measuring

outcomes against goals?

A) Directing
B) Staffing
C) Controlling
D) Organizing
Answer: C

27. Levels of management are determined by:

A) Size of the organization

B) Number of employees only
C) Number of customers
D) Industry sector
Answer: A

28. First line management is responsible for:

A) Making policy decisions

B) Day-to-day activities of employees
C) Setting organizational vision
D) Only financial planning
Answer: B

29. First line managers are also called:

A) Executives
B) Supervisors
C) Presidents
D) Directors
Answer: B
30. First line managers primarily use:

A) Conceptual skills
B) Technical and people skills
C) Only communication skills
D) Financial skills
Answer: B

31. Middle managers are responsible for:

A) Directing operative employees

B) Functioning of their departments
C) Setting national policies
D) Only supervising technicians
Answer: B

32. Middle managers spend most of their time:

A) Planning for the future

B) Managing day-to-day operations
C) Only training staff
D) Meeting customers
Answer: B

33. Middle managers interact primarily with:

A) Government officials
B) Top management and lower managers
C) Only customers
D) Only suppliers
Answer: B

34. Top management is responsible for:

A) Making decisions about organizational direction

B) Supervising technical staff
C) Only writing reports
D) Only training new employees
Answer: A

35. In top management, the most frequently used skills are:

A) Technical skills
B) Conceptual and people skills
C) Only communication
D) Physical skills
Answer: B

36. Which of the following is NOT a typical title for top management?

A) President
B) Supervisor
C) CEO
D) Managing Director
Answer: B

37. The process of planning includes:

A) Defining goals
B) Reviewing applications
C) Motivating employees
D) Monitoring performance
Answer: A

38. Preparing a budget is an activity under:

A) Staffing
B) Planning
C) Directing
D) Controlling
Answer: B

39. Establishing clear lines of communication is part of:

A) Planning
B) Organizing
C) Controlling
D) Directing
Answer: B

40. The 3Cs in organizing DO NOT include:

A) Coordination
B) Calculation
C) Collaboration
D) Communication
Answer: B

41. Assigning responsibilities and facilitating meetings are part of:

A) Controlling
B) Directing
C) Planning
D) Staffing
Answer: B

42. Monitoring and evaluating performance is part of which function?

A) Staffing
B) Controlling
C) Planning
D) Organizing
Answer: B

43. The process of recruiting and orienting new employees is called:

A) Staffing
B) Planning
C) Directing
D) Organizing
Answer: A
44. The management level that acts as a link between workers and higher
management is:

A) Top management
B) Middle management
C) First line management
D) Operations management
Answer: C

45. Which is NOT a responsibility of first line management?

A) Assigning work
B) Preparing periodical reports
C) Setting organizational strategy
D) Training workers
Answer: C

46. Middle managers participate in:

A) Policy-making only
B) Employment and training of lower management
C) Only controlling functions
D) Setting national laws
Answer: B

47. Top management consists of:

A) A large group of people

B) Only supervisors
C) A small group responsible for overall management
D) Only technical specialists
Answer: C

48. Which is NOT a key managerial skill?

A) Technical skills
B) Interpersonal skills
C) Conceptual skills
D) Physical skills
Answer: D

49. The ability to lead, motivate, and manage conflicts is part of:

A) Technical skills
B) Interpersonal skills
C) Conceptual skills
D) Analytical skills
Answer: B

50. The ability to view the organization as a whole is a:

A) Technical skill
B) Communication skill
C) Conceptual skill
D) Physical skill
Answer: C

51. Sending and receiving information is part of:

A) Communication skills
B) Technical skills
C) Analytical skills
D) Conceptual skills
Answer: A

52. Which skill is most important at the top management level?

A) Technical
B) Conceptual
C) Manual
D) Clerical
Answer: B
53. Which skill is most crucial for first line managers?

A) Conceptual
B) Technical
C) Political
D) Visionary
Answer: B

54. Effective management requires:

A) Only technical ability

B) A mix of technical, interpersonal, conceptual, and communication skills
C) Only communication skills
D) Only conceptual skills
Answer: B

55. The main function of management is to:

A) Only control
B) Achieve organizational goals through people
C) Avoid risks
D) Focus on individual achievement only
Answer: B

56. The process of management includes all EXCEPT:

A) Planning
B) Organizing
C) Imitating
D) Staffing
Answer: C

57. The process of preparing reports and making financial decisions falls under:

A) Directing
B) Controlling
C) Staffing
D) Organizing
Answer: B

58. Which is NOT an example of resource management?

A) Managing staff schedules

B) Controlling inventory
C) Ignoring costs
D) Allocating materials
Answer: C

59. Management is BEST described as:

A) A group of unrelated tasks

B) The process of accomplishing objectives using people and resources
C) Only supervising staff
D) Only planning
Answer: B

60. Leadership is important to management because it:

A) Only enforces rules

B) Inspires and motivates towards common goals
C) Ignores vision
D) Avoids innovation
Answer: B

1. The first health laboratory in Ethiopia was established by:

A) The French
B) The Italians
C) The British
D) The Ethiopians
Answer: B

2. After independence, the health laboratory in Addis Ababa was managed by:
A) The Italians
B) The French
C) A British scientist
D) The Ethiopians
Answer: C

3. The French team developed the first well-organized laboratory in Ethiopia

under the name:

A) Central Laboratory and Research Institute

B) Institute Pasteur D’Ethiopie
C) Ethiopian Public Health Institute
D) Imperial Medical Research Institute
Answer: B

4. The main research focus of the French team in Ethiopia was:

A) Malaria
B) Rabies
C) Tuberculosis
D) HIV
Answer: B

5. The Central Laboratory and Research Institute (CLRI) was managed by:

A) British scientists
B) French scientists
C) Ethiopian scientific and medical officers
D) Italian officers
Answer: C

6. Laboratory technician training programs in Ethiopia were launched at all

EXCEPT:

A) Gondar Public Health College

B) Menelik II Hospital
C) Jimma Hospital
D) Tikur Anbessa Hospital
Answer: D

7. The Ethiopian health care system includes all EXCEPT:

A) Health posts
B) Health centers
C) Private pharmacies
D) Hospitals
Answer: C

8. The current number of available health posts in Ethiopia is approximately:

A) 5000
B) 10,000
C) 17,550
D) 20,000
Answer: C

9. Diagnostic laboratories are a main component of health facilities starting from

which level?

A) Health posts
B) Health centers
C) Private clinics
D) Regional hospitals
Answer: B

10. The laboratory service delivery system in Ethiopia corresponds to the health
care system at all levels EXCEPT:

A) National
B) Regional
C) Health posts
D) District hospitals
Answer: C
11. Which of the following is NOT a type of laboratory included in Ethiopia’s
current service structure?

A) National laboratory at EPHI

B) Health post laboratories
C) Regional laboratories
D) Zonal hospital laboratories
Answer: B

12. Which facility is NOT part of the Ethiopian health care delivery system?

A) Health posts
B) Federal hospitals
C) Zonal hospitals
D) International clinics
Answer: D

13. In addition to public health system labs, Ethiopia has labs under all
EXCEPT:

A) Armed forces health department

B) Police forces health departments
C) International Red Cross
D) NGO hospitals and clinics
Answer: C

14. The laboratory service in a developing country should:

A) Function independently
B) Be integrated in the health system
C) Focus only on research
D) Serve only urban areas
Answer: B

15. A laboratory service network consists of all EXCEPT:

A) Community-based PHC laboratories
B) Private pharmacies
C) District hospital laboratories
D) Central and public health laboratories
Answer: B

16. Which is essential for an effective laboratory network?

A) Expensive equipment
B) Good communication channels
C) Large staff
D) High patient volume
Answer: B

17. Community-based PHC laboratories in Ethiopia are also called:

A) Central laboratories
B) District and health center laboratories
C) Zonal laboratories
D) Referral laboratories
Answer: B

18. The main function of community-based PHC laboratories is to:

A) Treat only rare diseases

B) Support PHC in investigating, controlling, and preventing major diseases
C) Provide only blood tests
D) Refer all cases to regional laboratories
Answer: B

19. Which is NOT a main function of community-based PHC laboratories?

A) Investigate local diseases

B) Assist health workers
C) Perform complex viral tests
D) Promote health care and education
Answer: C
20. PHC labs typically test for all EXCEPT:

A) Bacterial diseases
B) Parasitic diseases
C) Skin mycoses
D) Rare genetic disorders
Answer: D

21. Community-based PHC laboratories assist with all EXCEPT:

A) Collecting and referring specimens

B) Deciding patient severity
C) Performing surgeries
D) Sending reports to district labs
Answer: C

22. Which specimens might a PHC lab refer for higher-level testing?

A) Water samples
B) Fecal specimens
C) Serum for antibody tests
D) All of the above
Answer: D

23. PHC laboratories help prevent misdiagnosis by:

A) Promoting traditional medicine

B) Providing laboratory support
C) Avoiding contact with patients
D) Refusing referrals
Answer: B

24. One important administrative function of PHC labs is:

A) Keeping careful records for health planning

B) Only treating patients
C) Running a blood bank
D) Making vaccines
Answer: A

25. PHC labs assist epidemiologists and sanitarians by:

A) Checking water supplies

B) Performing disease surveys
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B
Answer: C

26. PHC labs send a simple informative report to the district laboratory:

A) Annually
B) Weekly
C) Monthly
D) Daily
Answer: C

27. District hospital laboratories supervise:

A) Regional labs
B) Central labs
C) Community-based labs
D) International labs
Answer: C

28. Which is NOT a main function of a district hospital laboratory?

A) Supervising peripheral labs

B) Testing referred specimens
C) Manufacturing vaccines
D) Providing reagents and lab supplies
Answer: C

29. District labs provide training by:

A) Offering refresher courses
B) Training community lab workers
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B
Answer: C

30. District labs refer specimens to:

A) Health posts
B) Regional labs
C) Private clinics
D) Blood banks
Answer: B

31. Every three months, district labs must send a report to:

A) PHC labs
B) Regional labs
C) Central labs
D) Private labs
Answer: B

32. Regional hospital laboratories primarily:

A) Assist district labs

B) Operate a regional blood transfusion center
C) Train lab technicians
D) All of the above
Answer: D

33. Regional labs send specialist specimens to:

A) Central and public health laboratories

B) PHC labs
C) Private clinics
D) Blood banks
Answer: A
34. Regional labs participate in EQA programs organized by:

A) PHC labs
B) Central labs
C) Private labs
D) Blood banks
Answer: B

35. Regional laboratories must prepare a report every:

A) Month
B) Three months
C) Six months
D) Year
Answer: C

36. The central and public health laboratory is responsible for:

A) Only local services

B) National planning, expenditure, and coordination
C) Only blood transfusions
D) Only private labs
Answer: B

37. Which is NOT a role of the central and public health laboratory?

A) Ensure reliability of service

B) Extend services to meet health needs
C) Perform only basic tests
D) Ensure appropriate technology
Answer: C

38. The central lab is responsible for prompt investigation of:

A) Local outbreaks only

B) Epidemics and serious illness outbreaks
C) Only hospital-acquired infections
D) Only chronic diseases
Answer: B

39. Which is a function of the central lab?

A) Formulate a professional code of conduct

B) Perform specialist tests
C) Organize national lab service
D) All of the above
Answer: D

40. The central lab evaluates:

A) New technologies
B) Standard techniques
C) Appropriateness of new equipment
D) All of the above
Answer: D

41. The central lab also communicates and collaborates with:

A) Local police
B) International organizations
C) Only regional labs
D) Only private clinics
Answer: B

42. The central lab is responsible for preparing and distributing:

A) Annual reports
B) Training manuals
C) Control sera and reagents
D) All of the above
Answer: D

43. The central lab supports regional labs by:

A) Providing essential supplies
B) Visiting each regional lab every six months
C) Coordinating EQA programs
D) All of the above
Answer: D

44. Which sample might be referred by a health center lab to a higher-level lab?

A) Water samples
B) Serum for antibody tests
C) Biochemical specimens
D) All of the above
Answer: D

45. PHC labs promote health care by:

A) Isolating themselves from the community

B) Assisting community health education
C) Only treating inpatients
D) Avoiding data collection
Answer: B

46. A key requirement for laboratory network functioning is:

A) Advanced IT systems only

B) Effective backup referral systems
C) Large budgets
D) International staff
Answer: B

47. Which level of lab prepares reagents, controls, standards, and specimen
containers for the region?

A) PHC laboratories
B) District hospital laboratories
C) Regional hospital laboratories
D) Central laboratory
Answer: C
48. Which laboratory investigates epidemics and tests of public health
importance in the region?

A) PHC laboratory
B) District hospital lab
C) Regional hospital lab
D) Central lab
Answer: C

49. Which lab is responsible for organizing national lab services and training
specialist technicians?

A) PHC lab
B) District lab
C) Regional lab
D) Central lab
Answer: D

50. The activities of labs at different levels must be:

A) Defined and coordinated

B) Left to each lab
C) Decided by international bodies only
D) Not communicated
Answer: A

51. Community-based PHC labs assist health workers by:

A) Deciding severity of a patient’s condition

B) Refusing to perform tests
C) Referring all patients
D) Only treating infections
Answer: A

52. The national laboratory at EPHI is at what level?

A) Community
B) District
C) Central
D) Zonal
Answer: C

53. PHC labs promote rational drug use by:

A) Accurate diagnosis
B) Avoiding lab tests
C) Prescribing all drugs
D) Ignoring protocols
Answer: A

54. Labs under armed forces and police health departments are considered:

A) Central labs
B) Special sector labs
C) Private labs
D) Community labs
Answer: B

55. Stand-alone diagnostic laboratories are typically:

A) Part of central labs

B) Part of public sector
C) Independent/private
D) Part of regional labs
Answer: C

56. To ensure national coverage, the central lab must:

A) Focus only on urban areas

B) Extend services to all health needs
C) Ignore rural areas
D) Only serve hospitals
Answer: B
57. Which laboratory level is responsible for visiting district labs every three
months?

A) PHC labs
B) District hospital labs
C) Regional labs
D) Central labs
Answer: C

58. Good laboratory service in developing countries must be:

A) Isolated
B) Accessible to the community
C) Reserved for specialists
D) Private only
Answer: B

59. A key activity of PHC labs for health planning is:

A) Avoiding reports
B) Keeping careful records
C) Ignoring statistics
D) Refusing supervision
Answer: B

60. The main role of public health laboratories in epidemics is:

A) Coordinating media
B) Prompt investigation and diagnosis
C) Issuing travel bans
D) Stocking only basic supplies
Answer: B

1. Power is best defined as:

A) The ability to perform a task

B) The ability to influence the behavior of others
C) The right to give orders
D) The process of communication
Answer: B

2. Organizational power is:

A) The ability to influence any person in society

B) The ability to influence another stakeholder in your organization
C) The authority to break rules
D) The power to spend money
Answer: B

3. Which of the following is NOT a source of power?

A) Authority
B) Expertise
C) Trust
D) Wealth
Answer: D

4. Formal power includes all EXCEPT:

A) Legitimate
B) Reward
C) Coercive
D) Expert
Answer: D

5. Personal power includes:

A) Legitimate
B) Reward
C) Coercive
D) Expert
Answer: D

6. Which is NOT a type of formal power?

A) Legitimate
B) Reward
C) Referent
D) Coercive
Answer: C

7. Legitimate power is based on:

A) Personality
B) An individual’s position in the organization
C) Personal relationships
D) Wealth
Answer: B

8. Reward power is:

A) The power to punish

B) The power to give benefits and incentives
C) The power to command
D) The power to advise
Answer: B

9. Expert power arises from:

A) Authority only
B) Knowledge and expertise
C) Threats
D) Financial resources
Answer: B

10. Which type of power is given based on others’ admiration and respect?

A) Legitimate
B) Reward
C) Referent
D) Coercive
Answer: C
11. Referent power is mostly based on:

A) Fear
B) Knowledge
C) Trust and respect
D) Position
Answer: C

12. Coercive power is based on:

A) Rewards
B) Threats and penalties
C) Knowledge
D) Skills
Answer: B

13. Which is considered the least effective form of power?

A) Legitimate
B) Reward
C) Coercive
D) Expert
Answer: C

14. Authority is best defined as:

A) The ability to persuade

B) Legitimate power to make decisions and enforce compliance
C) The right to ignore rules
D) The act of delegating tasks only
Answer: B

15. Authority includes the power to do all EXCEPT:

A) Make commitments on behalf of the firm

B) Decide resource usage
C) Ignore organizational goals
D) Enforce compliance
Answer: C

16. The main difference between power and authority is:

A) Power is always formal

B) Authority is always informal
C) Authority is legitimate power granted by the organization
D) Power cannot be delegated
Answer: C

17. Which type of authority is fundamental in an organization and involves

direct supervision?

A) Staff
B) Line
C) Functional
D) Referent
Answer: B

18. Line managers:

A) Only give advice

B) Supervise employees directly
C) Have no real authority
D) Only provide technical support
Answer: B

19. Staff authority gives the right to:

A) Enforce rules
B) Advise and assist line managers
C) Make all final decisions
D) Hire and fire employees
Answer: B
20. Staff authority is typically found in:

A) Line departments
B) Supportive staff departments
C) Top management only
D) Sales departments
Answer: B

21. An example of a staff function in a laboratory is:

A) Laboratory director
B) Safety officer
C) Section supervisor
D) Receptionist
Answer: B

22. The ability of staff authority to implement change depends on:

A) Action of section supervisors

B) Direct commands
C) Government policies
D) The IT department
Answer: A

23. Functional authority is:

A) Direct authority over all employees

B) The right to make decisions in a specific area of expertise
C) Authority over financial matters only
D) Authority to hire staff
Answer: B

24. Functional authority is also called:

A) Line authority
B) Staff authority
C) Limited line authority
D) Referent authority
Answer: C

25. Within a laboratory, supervisors typically have:

A) Line authority
B) Staff authority
C) Functional authority
D) All of the above
Answer: D

26. Health authority is:

A) A single person with power

B) An organization overseeing and regulating health organizations
C) A type of personal power
D) A department in finance
Answer: B

27. Delegation is the process of:

A) Assigning authority and responsibility to subordinates

B) Making all decisions yourself
C) Ignoring employee input
D) Removing authority from staff
Answer: A

28. Delegation implies:

A) Loss of control always

B) Trust in subordinates
C) Lack of confidence
D) Only giving simple tasks
Answer: B

29. Which is NOT an advantage of delegation?

A) Increased efficiency
B) Employee development
C) Reduced creativity
D) Better continuity
Answer: C

30. Delegation helps managers by:

A) Increasing their workload

B) Freeing up time for complex problems
C) Reducing creativity
D) Limiting employee growth
Answer: B

31. Which of the following is a barrier to delegation?

A) Fear of losing control

B) Employee development
C) Improved time management
D) Increased creativity
Answer: A

32. A manager who says "I can do it better myself" is showing a:

A) Delegation advantage
B) Barrier to delegation
C) Good leadership trait
D) Decentralization benefit
Answer: B

33. Decentralization is:

A) Centralizing all decisions

B) Transferring authority and resources to peripheral levels
C) Giving all power to top management
D) Only used in small organizations
Answer: B
34. Decentralization involves:

A) Concentrating decision making

B) Distributing decision making to smaller units
C) Removing lower-level managers
D) Centralizing planning
Answer: B

35. Which is NOT a motivation for decentralization?

A) Empowerment
B) Political concerns
C) Reducing choices
D) Providing more voices
Answer: C

36. A benefit of decentralization is:

A) Slower decision making

B) Increased motivation and autonomy
C) Greater control by top management
D) Reduced efficiency
Answer: B

37. Decentralization can lead to:

A) More job satisfaction

B) Decreased efficiency
C) Less motivation
D) More burden on top management
Answer: A

38. Limitation of decentralization includes:

A) Better coordination
B) Loss of control
C) Increased central power
D) Cheaper operations
Answer: B

39. Which is a limitation of decentralization?

A) Greater efficiency
B) Lack of coordination
C) More empowerment
D) Higher job satisfaction
Answer: B

40. Having more expensive operations is a:

A) Benefit of decentralization
B) Limitation of decentralization
C) Type of authority
D) Delegation advantage
Answer: B

41. Technical complexity is a limitation of:

A) Delegation
B) Coercive power
C) Decentralization
D) Staff authority
Answer: C

42. In formal power, the ability to punish or sanction is:

A) Reward power
B) Coercive power
C) Legitimate power
D) Referent power
Answer: B

43. A manager’s authority to give direct orders is:

A) Staff authority
B) Line authority
C) Functional authority
D) Personal power
Answer: B

44. A manager who influences through expertise is using:

A) Legitimate power
B) Reward power
C) Expert power
D) Staff authority
Answer: C

45. A laboratory director’s authority is primarily:

A) Legitimate
B) Referent
C) Coercive
D) Expert
Answer: A

46. An employee who inspires colleagues through integrity and honesty has:

A) Coercive power
B) Legitimate power
C) Referent power
D) Reward power
Answer: C

47. Employees are most likely to trust and respect a manager with:

A) Referent power
B) Coercive power
C) Reward power
D) Line authority
Answer: A

48. A senior microbiologist influencing others through knowledge is an example

of:

A) Reward power
B) Expert power
C) Coercive power
D) Line authority
Answer: B
49. Which type of authority allows making decisions within a specialty area,
despite not supervising employees?

A) Line authority
B) Staff authority
C) Functional authority
D) Coercive authority
Answer: C

50. The process of giving authority to subordinates is called:

A) Centralization
B) Rewarding
C) Delegation
D) Coercion
Answer: C

51. Delegation is most beneficial when:

A) Managers do all the work

B) Employees are trusted and empowered
C) Authority is never given
D) Only simple tasks are delegated
Answer: B

52. Which is NOT a benefit of delegation?

A) Better time management

B) Increased creativity
C) Decreased efficiency
D) Better decision making
Answer: C

53. Which is a common fear that prevents delegation?

A) Gaining control
B) Losing control
C) New opportunities
D) Employee development
Answer: B

54. Decentralization helps organizations by:

A) Increasing top-down control

B) Providing more autonomy at lower levels
C) Reducing job satisfaction
D) Making decision-making more difficult
Answer: B

55. Empowerment is a benefit of:

A) Centralization
B) Decentralization
C) Coercive power
D) Staff authority
Answer: B

56. In a highly decentralized organization:

A) Top management retains all authority

B) Decision making is distributed
C) Only staff authority exists
D) Employees have very little input
Answer: B

57. Which is NOT a limitation of decentralization?

A) Costly operations
B) Regulatory challenges
C) Greater efficiency
D) Lack of coordination
Answer: C

58. Staff authority’s influence is often:

A) Direct and obvious

B) Subtle and ambiguous
C) Irrelevant
D) Limited to top management
Answer: B

59. The phrase "never do yourself what another can do for you" relates to:

A) Staff authority
B) Delegation
C) Coercive power
D) Decentralization
Answer: B

60. A manager who fears criticism if delegation fails is facing:

A) A barrier to delegation
B) A benefit of decentralization
C) A form of staff authority
D) A type of power
Answer: A

1. The word “communication” comes from the Latin word “communis,” which
means:

A) To write
B) To talk
C) Common
D) To teach
Answer: C

2. According to Newman and Summer, communication is the exchange of:

A) Only facts
B) Only ideas
C) Facts, ideas, opinions, or emotions
D) Only emotions
Answer: C

3. Which of the following is NOT a main purpose of communication?

A) Initiating actions
B) Exchanging information
C) Controlling only emotions
D) Establishing relationships
Answer: C

4. If a receiver does not understand information as the sender intended, the

result is:

A) Greater efficiency
B) Defeated purpose of communication
C) Clearer communication
D) Increased motivation
Answer: B

5. When communication fails, it may result in:

A) Organizational efficiency
B) Confusion and chaos
C) Improved morale
D) Better decision making
Answer: B

6. Which is NOT one of the four things accomplished when managers

communicate?

A) Information is transmitted
B) Emotions are controlled
C) Something is controlled
D) Someone is motivated
Answer: B

7. The process of communication begins with:

A) Sending a message
B) Ideation by the sender
C) Receiving a message
D) Decoding
Answer: B

8. The process of putting an idea into a message is called:

A) Transmitting
B) Decoding
C) Encoding
D) Feedback
Answer: C

9. The response of the receiver to the sender is called:

A) Encoding
B) Channel
C) Feedback
D) Distortion
Answer: C

10. One-way communication is best described as:

A) Interactive
B) Linear with no feedback
C) Always effective
D) Two-way with feedback
Answer: B

11. A main disadvantage of one-way communication is:

A) Too much feedback
B) No opportunity to clear misunderstandings
C) Too slow
D) Too interactive
Answer: B

12. Two-way communication is preferred for:

A) Simple messages
B) Complex messages
C) Announcements
D) Advertising
Answer: B

13. An advantage of two-way communication is:

A) Quicker for simple messages

B) Sender can monitor understanding
C) No feedback
D) No adaptation to receiver
Answer: B

14. Intra-personal communication is:

A) Between two people

B) Within oneself
C) Among a group
D) Through mass media
Answer: B

15. Interpersonal communication is:

A) Within oneself
B) Face-to-face between two people
C) Among a group
D) Through television
Answer: B

16. Group communication usually involves:

A) Only two people

B) 3-15 people
C) More than 100 people
D) Only the sender
Answer: B
17. Mass communication is used to reach:

A) A single person
B) One group only
C) A large audience
D) Only managers
Answer: C

18. The first step in preparing for health communication is:

A) Conducting research
B) Stating the problem or issue
C) Profiling the audience
D) Formulating a strategy
Answer: B

19. Reviewing available data includes:

A) Gaps in information
B) Incidence of problem
C) Characteristics of affected
D) All of the above
Answer: D

20. When conducting additional research, it is important to understand:

A) Audience’s culture and needs

B) Only medical facts
C) Only costs
D) Only logistics
Answer: A

21. Communication objectives should be:

A) Broad and general

B) SMART and measurable
C) Vague
D) Ignored
Answer: B

22. Assessing the health communication approach involves:

A) Ignoring policy
B) Considering policy, technology, and infrastructure
C) Focusing only on message
D) Avoiding evaluation
Answer: B

23. Profiling the intended audience means:

A) Identifying who is most affected

B) Ignoring demographics
C) Assuming everyone is the same
D) Writing as much as possible
Answer: A

24. A good communication strategy should:

A) Minimize resistance
B) Ignore resources
C) Target everyone equally
D) Avoid clear direction
Answer: A

25. Barriers to communication include:

A) Selective attention
B) Selective distortion
C) Selective recall
D) All of the above
Answer: D

26. A breakdown in communication can result in:

A) Misunderstanding
B) Lack of motivation
C) Distortion of message
D) All of the above
Answer: D

27. Transmission barriers are also called:

A) Noise
B) Feedback
C) Channels
D) Encoding
Answer: A

28. Which is an example of a channel barrier?

A) Detailed instructions by phone
B) Group discussion
C) Written instructions
D) Mass communication
Answer: A

29. Jargon and slang can cause:

A) Conflicting messages
B) Improved clarity
C) Efficient communication
D) No effect
Answer: A

30. Information overload occurs when:

A) Not enough information is shared

B) Too much information is given
C) The channel is inadequate
D) The receiver is absent
Answer: B

31. Social and cultural barriers include:

A) Cognitive constraints
B) Behavior constraints
C) Language differences
D) All of the above
Answer: D

32. Low health literacy can result in:

A) Better understanding
B) Inability to act on health information
C) Improved outcomes
D) High motivation
Answer: B

33. Which is NOT a category of communication barrier?

A) Physiological/physical
B) Psychological
C) Financial
D) Social/cultural
Answer: C
34. A physical barrier could be:

A) Sensory impairment
B) Fear and mistrust
C) Negative attitude
D) Noise
Answer: A

35. Psychological barriers include:

A) Sensory impairment
B) Negative attitude
C) Room temperature
D) Language differences
Answer: B

36. Environmental barriers include:

A) Noise and distractions

B) Literacy levels
C) Age difference
D) Negative personality
Answer: A

37. Social/cultural barriers can be caused by:

A) Cultural differences
B) Socioeconomic status
C) Language
D) All of the above
Answer: D

38. To remove communication barriers, the sender must:

A) Ignore the audience’s background

B) Know the audience’s needs
C) Focus only on message
D) Use technical jargon
Answer: B

39. An effective communicator must have:

A) Desire to communicate
B) Fear of response
C) Lack of trust
D) Aggressiveness
Answer: A

40. The credibility of the sender affects:

A) How the message is received

B) The feedback process
C) The channel used
D) The time frame
Answer: A

41. The route or method by which communication occurs is called:

A) Encoding
B) Channel
C) Feedback
D) Distortion
Answer: B

42. Electronic channels of communication include all EXCEPT:

A) Videoconferencing
B) Computer networking
C) Email
D) Face-to-face meetings
Answer: D

43. The preferred channel for visually oriented messages for young people is:

A) Written reports
B) Video
C) Telephone
D) Email
Answer: B

44. Technical audiences often prefer:

A) Oral presentations only

B) Written documents with oral explanations
C) Posters only
D) Telephone calls
Answer: B

45. A rule for effective public communication is to:

A) Involve the public as a legitimate partner
B) Ignore public concerns
C) Avoid collaboration
D) Hide mistakes
Answer: A

46. To plan communication carefully, one should:

A) Begin without objectives

B) Set explicit communication objectives
C) Avoid evaluation
D) Ignore audience segmentation
Answer: B

47. Listening to public concerns means:

A) Assuming what people want

B) Collecting information through interviews, surveys, focus groups
C) Ignoring feedback
D) Only using mass media
Answer: B

48. When communicating with the public, you should:

A) Be honest and open

B) Exaggerate your credentials
C) Never admit mistakes
D) Refuse to answer questions
Answer: A

49. Collaborating with credible sources means:

A) Working alone
B) Avoiding inter-organizational communication
C) Building bridges with other organizations
D) Ignoring other departments
Answer: C

50. To meet the needs of the media, you should:

A) Avoid reporters
B) Respect deadlines and be open
C) Only send emails
D) Ignore follow-up
Answer: B
51. Speaking clearly and with compassion means:

A) Using technical jargon

B) Using simple, non-technical language
C) Avoiding local norms
D) Giving abstract data only
Answer: B

52. Emotive communication can help managers:

A) Increase acceptance of the organization

B) Reduce motivation
C) Decrease understanding
D) Confuse external stakeholders
Answer: A

53. One barrier classified as psychological is:

A) Fatigue
B) Negative attitude
C) Noise
D) Literacy level
Answer: B

54. The non-listener type is a barrier because:

A) They listen carefully

B) They refuse to listen
C) They always agree
D) They motivate others
Answer: B

55. The negative personality barrier is best described as:

A) Always saying "No"

B) Always agreeing
C) Eager to listen
D) Patient
Answer: A

56. The time frame of a message affects:

A) The channel and communication manner

B) The sender’s credibility
C) Audience’s education
D) The content only
Answer: A

57. Message rehearsal by the sender can lead to:

A) Selective recall
B) Related issues being brought up by the receiver
C) Better listening
D) Enhanced accuracy
Answer: B

58. Which is NOT an environmental barrier?

A) Room temperature
B) Day of the week
C) Sensory impairment
D) Place of the education center
Answer: C

59. A breakdown in communication can lead to:

A) Improved decision making

B) Insecurity and inability to make decisions
C) Increased motivation
D) Clear understanding
Answer: B

60. The most significant factor for message consideration is:

A) The sender’s trust and credibility

B) The channel used
C) The message’s length
D) The color of the paper
Answer: A

MCQs on Leadership, Management, and Governance in

Healthcare
Leadership and Management

1. Which of the following best defines leadership?

o A) The process of planning and organizing
o B) The ability to influence followers positively (Correct)
 o C) The act of enforcing rules only
o D) The implementation of policies
2. Leadership is primarily a process of:
o A) Maintaining the status quo
o B) Social influence to achieve common goals (Correct)
o C) Following orders
o D) Budget management
3. Which is NOT a characteristic of a good leader in healthcare?
o A) Inspiring a shared vision
o B) Focusing solely on compliance
o C) Influencing and motivating others (Correct)
o D) Setting standards for compassion
4. Leadership differs from management in that leaders:
o A) Set vision and inspire change (Correct)
o B) Focus on daily operations only
o C) Enforce established culture
o D) Are reactive to problems
5. Which of the following is a key role of management?
o A) Influencing followers
o B) Enacting the organization’s culture (Correct)
o C) Setting long-term vision
o D) Motivating only top employees
6. Which function is NOT a part of the management process?
o A) Staffing
o B) Controlling
o C) Innovating (Correct)
o D) Planning
7. Who is responsible for setting the direction and policies for the entire organization?
o A) First-line managers
o B) Middle managers
o C) Top management (Correct)
o D) Staff authority
8. The process of assigning authority and responsibility to subordinates is known as:
o A) Centralization
o B) Delegation (Correct)
o C) Coordination
o D) Collaboration

Types and Sources of Power

9. Which type of power is based on an individual’s position within an organization?

o A) Expert power
o B) Reward power
o C) Legitimate power (Correct)
o D) Referent power
 10. Which type of power arises from knowledge and expertise?
o A) Legitimate power
o B) Expert power (Correct)
o C) Coercive power
o D) Reward power
11. Coercive power is primarily based on:
o A) Offering rewards
o B) Knowledge and skills
o C) Threats and penalties (Correct)
o D) Personal charisma
12. Referent power is best described as:
o A) Influence due to expertise
o B) Power from respect and trust (Correct)
o C) Formal authority
o D) Capacity to give rewards

Authority in Organizations

13. Which of the following is NOT a type of formal authority?

o A) Line authority
o B) Staff authority
o C) Functional authority
o D) Referent authority (Correct)
14. Line authority gives managers the right to:
o A) Advise only
o B) Make decisions and issue orders down the chain of command (Correct)
o C) Recommend policies exclusively
o D) Control resources outside their department
15. Staff authority is best described as:
o A) Right to direct subordinates
o B) Power to give advice and support (Correct)
o C) Implementing line decisions
o D) Commanding multiple departments
16. Functional authority allows:
o A) Control beyond one’s specialty
o B) Specialists to make decisions within their area of expertise (Correct)
o C) Supervisors to evaluate all staff
o D) First-line managers to set policies

Management Functions

17. Which management function involves defining goals and establishing strategies?
o A) Planning (Correct)
o B) Controlling
o C) Staffing
 o D) Directing
18. Organizing as a management function includes:
o A) Defining vision
o B) Determining tasks and grouping activities (Correct)
o C) Setting budgets
o D) Motivating employees
19. Which function involves recruiting and training employees?
o A) Planning
o B) Staffing (Correct)
o C) Directing
o D) Controlling
20. Monitoring and evaluating performance is part of:
o A) Staffing
o B) Controlling (Correct)
o C) Organizing
o D) Planning
21. The process of motivating and leading employees is called:
o A) Directing (Correct)
o B) Organizing
o C) Staffing
o D) Planning

Levels of Management

22. First-line management is primarily responsible for:

o A) Long-term strategy
o B) Day-to-day supervision of operative employees (Correct)
o C) Policy making
o D) Research and development
23. Middle management typically:
o A) Focuses on direct supervision of workers
o B) Balances demands of superiors and capabilities of subordinates (Correct)
o C) Sets strategic vision
o D) Handles only technical tasks
24. Top management is characterized by:
o A) Technical skills only
o B) Operational control
o C) Conceptual skills and policy making (Correct)
o D) Employee orientation

Skills of Management

25. Which skill is most important for first-line managers?

o A) Conceptual skill
o B) Technical skill (Correct)
 o C) Political skill
o D) Financial skill
26. Which is NOT a basic managerial skill?
o A) Interpersonal skill
o B) Conceptual skill
o C) Communication skill
o D) Diagnostic skill (Correct)
27. The ability to see the organization as a whole is called:
o A) Technical skill
o B) Conceptual skill (Correct)
o C) Interpersonal skill
o D) Functional skill

Governance

28. Governance in healthcare primarily refers to:

o A) Clinical procedures
o B) Steering and rule-making functions by authorities (Correct)
o C) Staff recruitment
o D) Patient care
29. Good governance is central to:
o A) Minimizing outputs
o B) Maximizing service delivery to the population (Correct)
o C) Focusing only on administration
o D) Limiting stakeholder involvement

Laboratory Organization in Ethiopia

30. The first health laboratory in Ethiopia was established by:

o A) The French
o B) The Italians during WWII (Correct)
o C) The Ethiopians
o D) The Germans
31. Community-based PHC laboratories in Ethiopia are referred to as:
o A) Central laboratories
o B) District and health center laboratories (Correct)
o C) Regional laboratories
o D) Private laboratories
32. Which is NOT an activity of community-based PHC laboratories?
o A) Investigating local diseases
o B) Producing vaccines (Correct)
o C) Collecting and referring specimens
o D) Promoting health education
33. The primary role of regional hospital laboratories is to:
o A) Support district labs and perform specialist tests (Correct)
 o B) Only train lab personnel
o C) Manufacture pharmaceuticals
o D) Control private labs
34. Which laboratory is responsible for national planning and coordination of lab
services?
o A) District hospital lab
o B) Regional lab
o C) Central and public health lab (Correct)
o D) PHC lab

Delegation and Decentralization

35. Which is NOT an advantage of delegation?

o A) Employee development
o B) Reduced workload for managers
o C) Loss of control (Correct)
o D) Increased creativity
36. Decentralization is the process of:
o A) Transferring authority to central management
o B) Concentrating power at the top
o C) Distributing authority to lower levels (Correct)
o D) Centralizing resources
37. A limitation of decentralization is:
o A) Increased efficiency
o B) Loss of organizational control (Correct)
o C) Improved job satisfaction
o D) Empowerment

Communication in Healthcare

38. Communication is best described as:

o A) The process of transferring data only
o B) Sharing ideas, information, knowledge, and experience (Correct)
o C) Giving orders
o D) Creating confusion
39. The process of structuring a message into logical form is:
o A) Decoding
o B) Encoding (Correct)
o C) Transmitting
o D) Channeling
40. Which is NOT a method of communication?
o A) Intra-personal
o B) Inter-personal
o C) Social media
o D) Inter-departmental (Correct)
 41. One-way communication is characterized by:
o A) Feedback is present
o B) No opportunity for clarification (Correct)
o C) Complex messages
o D) Two-way interaction
42. Which is an advantage of two-way communication?
o A) No feedback
o B) Allows clarification and adaptation (Correct)
o C) Faster for all situations
o D) Suitable only for written messages
43. Group communication involves:
o A) Only two people
o B) 3-15 people with a common goal (Correct)
o C) Mass media only
o D) One-on-one interviews
44. Mass communication is primarily used to:
o A) Transmit messages to a small group
o B) Transmit messages to a large segment of the population (Correct)
o C) Hold meetings
o D) Prepare budgets

Barriers to Communication

45. Which is NOT a barrier to communication?

o A) Transmission barriers
o B) Information overload
o C) Effective listening (Correct)
o D) Social and cultural barriers
46. A bad cellular connection is an example of:
o A) Channel barrier
o B) Social barrier
o C) Transmission (noise) barrier (Correct)
o D) Psychological barrier
47. Information overload can lead to:
o A) Better understanding
o B) Selective attention (Correct)
o C) Improved communication
o D) Enhanced memory
48. A psychological barrier includes:
o A) Fatigue
o B) Noise
o C) Negative attitude and mistrust (Correct)
o D) Technical jargon
49. Which is an environmental barrier to communication?
o A) Negative personality
 o B) Room temperature and noise (Correct)
o C) Age difference
o D) Social status
50. Which is a way to remove communication barriers?
o A) Using excessive jargon
o B) Ignoring audience interests
o C) Practicing good listening and understanding (Correct)
o D) One-way communication

Health Laboratory System in Ethiopia

51. Which health facility in Ethiopia is least likely to have a laboratory?

o A) Health post (Correct)
o B) Health center
o C) District hospital
o D) Regional hospital
52. Which of the following is a main function of a district hospital lab?
o A) National planning
o B) Supervising peripheral labs and testing referred specimens (Correct)
o C) Manufacturing drugs
o D) Setting national standards
53. Which lab is responsible for investigating epidemics at the national level?
o A) PHC lab
o B) District lab
o C) Central and public health lab (Correct)
o D) Private lab
54. The central and public health laboratory is responsible for all the following
EXCEPT:
o A) Research/surveillance of national health problems
o B) Training specialist technicians
o C) Overseeing all regional labs
o D) Supervising only private clinics (Correct)
55. Which activity is NOT performed by regional hospital laboratories?
o A) Prepare reagents and standards
o B) Operate regional blood transfusion centers
o C) Refer specimens requiring specialist investigation to the central lab
o D) Develop national health policies (Correct)

Effective Communication

56. Which is NOT an element of effective communication?

o A) Understanding how others learn
o B) Communicating only when necessary (Correct)
o C) Having a desire to communicate
o D) Sender credibility
 57. Which channel is preferred for visually oriented messages to young people?
o A) Written documents
o B) Video (Correct)
o C) Face-to-face
o D) Telephone
58. Credibility of the sender in communication mainly affects:
o A) The channel used
o B) How the message is received (Correct)
o C) The feedback speed
o D) The encoding process
59. Which is a rule for effective public communication in healthcare?
o A) Involve the public as a legitimate partner (Correct)
o B) Avoid transparency
o C) Limit feedback
o D) Use technical jargon
60. Emotive communication helps managers to:
o A) Confuse the team
o B) Increase acceptance of the organization (Correct)
o C) Disrupt operations
o D) Reduce morale

Authority, Delegation, and Decentralization

61. Which of the following is NOT a type of power?

o A) Legitimate
o B) Coercive
o C) Financial (Correct)
o D) Expert
62. Formal authority that allows giving direct orders is called:
o A) Staff authority
o B) Line authority (Correct)
o C) Functional authority
o D) Decentralized authority
63. Which is a benefit of delegation?
o A) Reduces creativity
o B) Increases efficiency (Correct)
o C) Increases manager’s workload
o D) Centralizes decision-making
64. Which is a disadvantage of decentralization?
o A) Increased job satisfaction
o B) Greater efficiency
o C) Loss of control (Correct)
o D) Employee empowerment

Quality and Risk Management

 65. Which of the following is NOT a term related to management?
o A) Resource management
o B) Conflict management
o C) Self-management (Correct)
o D) Time management
66. Risk management in healthcare primarily focuses on:
o A) Increasing costs
o B) Identifying and minimizing potential losses (Correct)
o C) Improving marketing
o D) Hiring new staff
67. Quality management ensures:
o A) Only profits are maximized
o B) High standards in patient care (Correct)
o C) Quick hiring of employees
o D) Compliance is ignored

Importance of Leadership and Management

68. Effective leadership and management in healthcare:

o A) Decreases quality of care
o B) Is only needed at the top level
o C) Enhances patient care and organizational outcomes (Correct)
o D) Focuses only on administrative tasks
69. Leaders in healthcare must be:
o A) Focused only on today
o B) Adaptable and forward-thinking (Correct)
o C) Unwilling to change
o D) Limited to routine tasks
70. Healthcare leaders are needed to address:
o A) Only financial issues
o B) Staff burnout and innovative solutions (Correct)
o C) Routine scheduling
o D) Supply ordering

Laboratory Activities

71. Community-based PHC laboratories do NOT:

o A) Collect water samples
o B) Prepare vaccines (Correct)
o C) Refer specimens
o D) Promote health education
72. District hospital laboratories are responsible for:
o A) Supervising peripheral labs (Correct)
o B) Setting national policies
o C) Only training staff
 o D) Importing equipment
73. Regional laboratories report to:
o A) Central and public health laboratory (Correct)
o B) District hospital laboratory
o C) Health posts
o D) Private clinics
74. Central and public health laboratory is NOT responsible for:
o A) Formulating codes of conduct
o B) Carrying out research
o C) Local disease surveillance (Correct)
o D) Procuring national supplies

Communication Barriers

75. Which is a psychological barrier to communication?

o A) Sensory impairment
o B) Noise and distractions
o C) Negative attitude (Correct)
o D) Room setup
76. Selective recall occurs when:
o A) Sender fails to encode message
o B) Receiver absorbs only part of message (Correct)
o C) Channel is unclear
o D) Feedback is immediate
77. What should a sender know to ensure effective communication?
o A) Audience’s background (Correct)
o B) Only the message
o C) Receiver’s job title
o D) Technical jargon
78. Which is a method to overcome communication barriers?
o A) Good listening skills (Correct)
o B) Increased noise
o C) Complex vocabulary
o D) More written memos

Communication Channels

79. Which is NOT a communication channel?

o A) Written
o B) Verbal
o C) Financial (Correct)
o D) Electronic
80. Choice of communication channel depends on:
o A) Sender’s preference only
o B) Message content and audience (Correct)
 o C) Cost only
o D) Top management decision only

Organization and Structure

81. The structure of the laboratory service in Ethiopia corresponds to:

o A) Only regional hospitals
o B) All levels of the health care system except health posts (Correct)
o C) Private clinics only
o D) National hospitals only
82. Which is NOT a component in the Ethiopian laboratory network?
o A) Armed forces health department
o B) Police health department
o C) Veterinary laboratories (Correct)
o D) Blood bank centers
83. A key feature of a good lab service network is:
o A) Isolation from other health services
o B) Accessibility and clear communication channels (Correct)
o C) No referral system
o D) Limited activities

Communication Models

84. Feedback is a key component of:

o A) One-way communication
o B) Two-way communication (Correct)
o C) Written memos
o D) Group communication only
85. Ideation in communication refers to:
o A) Decoding the message
o B) The sender’s initial idea or intention (Correct)
o C) Channel selection
o D) Encoding process

Effective Public Health Communication

86. To be effective, health communication objectives should be:

o A) Broad and vague
o B) SMART (Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound) (Correct)
o C) Only qualitative
o D) Unrelated to evaluation
87. Profiling the intended audience helps in:
o A) Ignoring their needs
o B) Identifying who is most affected and tailoring messages (Correct)
o C) Writing generic messages
 o D) Reducing communication efficiency
88. Which is NOT a step in preparing health communication?
o A) Stating the problem
o B) Reviewing available data
o C) Avoiding audience profiling (Correct)
o D) Formulating strategy

Communication Barriers Classification

89. Which is NOT a classification of communication barriers?

o A) Physiological
o B) Psychological
o C) Financial (Correct)
o D) Social/cultural
90. Low health literacy is a barrier because:
o A) It improves understanding
o B) Medical information is too complex (Correct)
o C) All patients are experts
o D) Doctors always explain in lay terms

Management Definitions

91. Who defined management as “the art of getting things done through people”?
o A) Frederick Taylor
o B) Mary Parker Follett (Correct)
o C) Henri Fayol
o D) George R. Terry
92. Henri Fayol described management functions as:
o A) Planning, organizing, actuating, and controlling
o B) Forecast, plan, organize, command, coordinate, and control (Correct)
o C) Inspire, motivate, lead, and control
o D) Direct, supervise, and evaluate
93. Which is a key aspect of management according to Koontz and O’Donnell?
o A) Getting things done through and with people in formal groups (Correct)
o B) Doing tasks alone
o C) Only financial management
o D) Ignoring group goals

Communication in Health Organizations

94. Communication in organizations helps to:

o A) Increase confusion
o B) Control performance (Correct)
o C) Limit information sharing
o D) Reduce motivation
 95. Managers can affect motivation by:
o A) Withholding information
o B) Informing others about rewards and helping fulfillment of needs (Correct)
o C) Ignoring employee feedback
o D) Focusing only on policies

Health Laboratory Activities

96. A function of community-based PHC laboratories is:

o A) Investigating local diseases and health problems (Correct)
o B) Creating hospital policies
o C) Managing regional budgets
o D) Supervising national labs
97. Which laboratory level is responsible for EQA (External Quality Assessment)
programs?
o A) Health post
o B) Health center
o C) Regional and central laboratories (Correct)
o D) Private clinics

Laboratory Service Principles

98. A laboratory service network should:

o A) Be isolated from the health system
o B) Function as a coordinated network (Correct)
o C) Avoid referrals
o D) Operate independently at each level
99. Which of the following is essential for a good laboratory service network?
o A) Clear communication and effective referral system (Correct)
o B) No staff training
o C) Ignoring supply needs
o D) Overlapping functions

Final MCQ

100. An effective communicator should:

- A) Use only technical jargon
- B) Understand and adapt to the audience (Correct)
- C) Ignore feedback
- D) Focus only on written communication