First/Second Semester B.E/[Link].

Degree Examination, June/July 2023

Indian Constitution
[Max. Marks: S0
Time: 1 hr.]
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Answer all the fifty questions, cach question carries one mark.
2. Use only Black ball point pen for writing /darkening the circles.
appropriate circle
3. For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the
corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.
4. Darkening two circles for the same qucstion makes the answer invalid.
$. Damagingloverwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly
prohibited.
workers.
1. The dircctive principles of statc policy directs the state to sccure to all the
a) Minimal wages b) Fair wages
c) Living wages d)Standard wages
2. The aim of the directivc principles of state policy is
a) To protect the civil rights of the citizens
b) To restrain the state from misusing its powcr and public money
c) To promote the gencralwelfare ofthe society
d) To make special rules to protect women.
3. This is not a fundamental duty
a) To defend the country b) To develop scientific temper
c) To make scientific improvement d) To upho ld and protect sovereignty of India.
4. Fundamental duties were incorporatcd in the constitution on the recommendation of
a) Karan Singh Committee b) Swaran Singh Committce
c) Charan Singh Committee d) Manmohan Singh Committee
S. Who is the Custodian of Fundamental Rights?
) President of India b) Prime Minister of India
c) Parliament of India d) Supreme Court and High Court of India
6 What is the term ofthe President of india?
a) Four years b) Thrcc ycars c) Five years d) Six years

7. Who will appoint the Attorney Generalof India?

b) Chief Justice of India
a) Prime Minister of India
d) Law Minister of Union
c) President of india
8. The number of Ministers in the Central Government is fixed by
a) The President b) The Prime Minister
c) The Parliament d) None of the above

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37. Which of the folowing is o longer a fundamental right?
a) Right to librty b) Right to equality
c) Right to frccdom of religion d) Right to property.
38. Right to cquality under article 14 means
a) Treating all pcople cquality
b) Equality among equals and not equality among unequals
c) Upliftment of SC's and ST's and backward class people
d) None of the above.
39. Right life includes
a) Right to dic b) Right purchase moveable property
c) Right to carry on any busincss d) Right to get education
40. Restriction cannot be imposcd on the right of freedom of speech and expression on the
ground of
a) Defamation b) Law and order problem
c) Incitement of an offence d) Contempt of court
41. Who acted as the chairman of the drafting committee of the constituent assembly?
a) B. R. Ambedkar b) C. Rajagopalachari
c) Rajendra Prasad d) Jawaharlal Nehru
42. The Constituent Assembly set up under the Cabinet Mission plan had a strength of
a) 389 mcmbers b) 501 members c) 268 members d) 492 members.

43. On December 11, 1946 the Constituent Assembly elected as its permanent
chairman.
a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
c) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar d) K.M. Munshi
44. The Drafting Committee ofthe Constitution, including the chairman, comprised of
a) 7 members b) 5 members (c) 9 members d) 3 members
45. Thc Constitution of India came into force on
a) 26 January 1952. b) 16 August 1948
c) 26 January 1950 d) 26 November 1949
46. Which one of the following exercised the most profound influence on the Indian
Constiution?
a) The Government of India Act, 1935 b) The US Constitution
c) Brjtish Constitution d) The UN charter
47., How rmany schedules the Constitution ofldia contains now?
a) 9 ) 10 c) 11 d) 12
48. How many parts has Indian Constitution been divided into, at the time of its
commencement?
a) 1 b) 22 c) 21 d) 12
49. The Constitution of India is
a) Rigid b) Flexible c) Very rigid d) Partly rigid and partly flexible.
so. The Consttuent Assembly of India took all decisions by
a) Simple Majority b) Two-Thirds majority
c) Conscnsus d) All of these

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23. A judge of allSupreme Court may be removed on the ground of
a) Misbchaviour
b) Delivering repcatedly wrong judgment
c) Delivering judgments which impede the progress of the Nation
d) Hokding linient views about anti-social elements
24. This is not the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
a) Original jurisdiction b) Emergcncy jurisdiction
c) Appellate jurisdiction d) Advisory jurisdiction
25. Criminal contempt of Court means
a) An act which lowers the authority of a court
b) Giving false evidence before a criminal court
c) Filing a complaint in a court
d) None of the above
26. The Appellate jurisdiction oftbe Supreme Court can be divided into
a) Six main catcgorics b) Five main catcgorics
c) Four main categories d) Threc main categorics.
27. The Suprerne Court can issuc
a) Three types of writs b) Seven typcs of writs
c) Five types of writs d) Six types of writs
28. Which of the following is the guardian of the fundamental rights of the citizens?
a) Suprenme Court b) The President c) Parliament d) Lok Sabha
29. Which of the following has the pówer of judicial revicw?
a) High Courts b) District Courts c) Suprcme Court d) All of these
30. Who was the first womenjudge of Supreme Court?
a) Meera Kumari
b) Fathima Beevi
c) Scesta Sotedwad
d) No women has become judge of Suprene Court so far.

31. The prcamble of Indian Constitution was amended. d) Not amended

a) Twice b) Thrice c) Once
32. Which amendment added thé words "Secularism socialist and integrity to the preamble of
the constitution"?
a) 24 Amendment b) 42d Amendment
) 44" Amendment -d) 73" Amendment
33. The Constitution of Indiadeclares India as
b) Federation c) Aquasi-federal state d) A union of states
a) A unitary state,
34. Astate where Head of the State', is elccted is called.
a) Monarchy b) Dyarchy c) Republic d) Anarchy
35. In which ycar, did cripps mission come to India?
a) 1935 b) 1945 c) 1949 d) 1942
36. Sexual harassment ofworking - women is violation of
a) Fundamental duty b) DPSP
c) Fundamental right d) Rule of law

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9 Political partics are recognized by d) Election Commission
a) President b) Parliament c) Supreme Court

10. The Ministcrs of the union cabinct arc answcrable to

a) The Prime Minister b) The Lok Sabha
d) The Vice President
c) The president
11. This is not thc function of clect ion commission Determines code of conduct to candidates
a) Preparation of clcctoral b)
c) Selection of the candidate d) Allotment of symbols
12. 74h Amendment of thc Constitution refers to
a) Rural local bodics b) Right to property
c) Urban local bodics d) None of these

13. Which one of the following types ofemergency has not declared, till now?
a) State emergency b) National emergency
c) Financial cmergency d) Nonc of thesc

14. President can proclain an emergency on the ground of

a) War b) Armed rebellion
c) Extemal aggression d) All ofthese

15. The cabinct mission came to Indian in

c) 1946 d) 1943
a) 1944 b) 1945
16. The state Legislativc assembly is prorógucd by
a) The Chief Minister b) The Governor
c) The spcakcr of asscmbly d) Nonc ofthcsc
17. Creamy laycr mcans
a) Highly cducalcd persons b) Persons holding high posts
c) Highly culturcd persons d) Persons having higher incomes

18. Enact means

a) Singlc chapter b) Single action
c) Pass a law d) Rectify the mistakes is the law
19. Which Constitutional Amendment has brought down the voting age to 18 years?
a) 61 Amendment b) 73 Amendment
c) 44" Amendment d) 42 Amendment
20. The Election Commission does ot conduct election
a) To the Parliament b) To the office of the President
c) To the post of Prime Minister d) To the office of the Vico-president

21. Rajya Sabha member has a term of

a) 5 years b) Permancnt body c) 4 years d) 6 years

22. The Vice President of India is elected by the

a) Members of Lok-Sabha
b) Membcrs of Raj-Sabha
c) Elected Members of Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha
d) Members of Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha and Members of all Legislative Assemblies
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 First/Second Semester B.E/[Link]. Degree Examination, June/July 2023
Scientific Foundation of Health

[Max. Marks: 50
Time: 1hr.]
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

[Link] all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.
2. Use only Black ball point pen for writing /darkening the circles.
3. For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle
corresponding to the sane question number on the OMR sheet.
4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.
5. Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly
prohibited.
1. Objective of communication skills are
a) Active listening skills b) Aware of own communication
c) Both a and b d) None ofthe above

2. What are the steps to improve the vocal clarity?

a) keep your language síple b) slow down
c) Both a and b d) Feedback

3. How one can improve the communication skills?

a) listen with willingness b) Respond appropriately
c) Provide feedback d) All of the above

4. Body language plays an important role in c) Botha and b d) None of the above
a) Comunication b) Judgment
5. What is the goal of social engincering?
a) Sabotage a person's social media b)To gainvital personal information
c) To catfish somcone d) To build truest

6. Attitude play an important role in d) None of the above

a) Communication b) Judgmcit c) Both a and b
communication barrier?
7. Using abbreviation in communication lcads to which type of d) Organizational
b) Physical c) Cultural
a) Language
8. Why communicatjon is key to healthy relationship?
a) Get to know cach other b) Avoid misunderstanding
c) Set clear expectations d) All of the above
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23. Characteristics of health compromising behaviour
a) Thrill sceking behaviour b) Produce plcasurable efect
c) Act as stress rcducing agent d) Alof the above
24. How to recognize addiction behaviour? b) Ignonc other arca of life
a) Inability to stay away from substance
c) Both a and b d) None of the above

25. Quality of atrue friend are

a) Respectful b) Believes in you c) Make time for you d)AIl of the above

26. Fricndship in education is

a) Respectful b) Bclieves in you c) Make time for you r d) Better cooperation
27. Nature of friendship is
a) Friends must cnjoy cach othcr company b) Not supporting
c) Make time for oncself d) Lite cooperation
28. What is the recommendable daily intake of water d) None of the above
a) 0.5 litre b) 1 litre c) 2 litre

29. What is the general sleep requirements for adalts? d) None of the above
a) 8 to I2 hours b) 12 to 14 hour c) 7 to 9 hour

30. Which vitamins is good for eyes? d) None of the above

a) Vitamin D b) Vitamin E c) Vitamin A
31. BMI stands for
a) Body mass index b) Body material index
c) Body mass indication d) None of the above

32. Overweight in BMI is (Kg/m')

a) > 30 b) > 25 c) <25 d) <30

33. Cause of obesity and ovcrwcight

a) Energy imbalance
b) Energy imbalance
c) Encrgy balance bctwccn calories consumcd and calorics expcndcd
d) None of the above

34. Hypcr obesity value in tems of BMI (in Kg/m)

c) > 40 d) <40
a)> 25 b) <25
35. Hyper is definition of overwcight?
a) BMI > 25 Kg/m b) BMI = 25 Kg/m
c) BMI 25-29.9 Kg/m d) BMI 25-30 Kg/m

36. Which of the following discase docs obesity incrcase the risk of developing?
a) Type 2 diabetes b) High blood pressure
c) Cardiovascular dieses d) All of the above

37. Communication is part of - skill

b) Hard c) Rough d) Sbort
a) Soft

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38. Communication barriers involves
a) Jumping into conclusion b) Arguing and debating
c) Fcar of offending d) Allof the above

39. Way to improve communication skill are

a) Active listening skills b) Passive listening skills
c) Both a and b d) None of the above

40. Goals of communication are

a) To inform, to persuade b) To inform
c) To persuades, Fcar of offending d) None of the above

41. What is health?

a) Physical wellbeing b) Mental wellbeing
c) Social wellbeing d) All of the above

42. Important roles of health are d) All of the above

a) Fighting discasc b) Fecling happy c) Enjoy life
43. As per WHO health is defined as a state of complete
a) Physical Wellbeing b) Mental wellbeing
d) Physical, mental, social wellbeing
c) Social wellbeing
44. Wcllncss is
a) Positive approach b) Negative approach
c) Positive õr Negative approach d) Positive and Negative approach
45. Wellness dimensions are
a) 4 b) 2 q9
c)6 d) 8

46. Intcllectual wellness includes

a) Eating balanced dict b) Drinking sufficicnt water
c) Having good nutrition d) Mental exercise
47. Physical health enhanccs
c) Both á and b d) None of these
a) Heart function b) Breathing
48. Influcncing factors of hcalth arc
a) Social, economic, political factor b) Social factor only
c) Economical factor only d) Political factor ony
Factor which influence health are
a) Individual factor b) Individual behavior
c) Public servicc and infrastructure d) All of the above

50. Psychologic disorders are

a) Anxiety, depresion, stress b) Stress, Anxicty
c) Depression, anxiety d) None of the above
K- E
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9. Bad examples of communication are
a) Belittling others b) Openly giving cokd shoulders
c)Both a and b d) None of the above

19. What are the basic instinct of life?

a) Self perseverance b) Social instinct c) Both a and b d) None of the above

11. How many minutes should an average person walk a day?

a) 30 minutes b) 40 minutes c) 20 minutes d) None of the above

12. What is the cssential first step to a healthier ifestyle?

a) Taking more vitamins
b) Making the decision to abstinent form street drug
c) Exercising regularly to the point of exhaustion
d) None of the above
13. Behavioral addiction can include
a) Gambling b) Alcobol c) inhalants d) Medication

14. Effects and bealth hazards from additions causes complication of

a) physical b) psychological c) personal d) AJ of the above

15. Three things which are necessary for an infection to occurs

a) source
b) susceptible person with a way for gerns to enter the body
c) Transmission
d) Allof the above
16. Management of chronic illness for quality of life All of the above
a) Sleep b) Happiness c) Mental bealth
of self help
17. Community based services to offer support in substance abuse consists
services such as?
b) Crack Crack
a) Alcoholic anonymous
c) Cannabis collective d) Hashish bome

18. This causes the maximum accumulation of fat in the liver

a) Meat+ egg b) Alcobol c) Saturated fat ) Starch

19. Symptoms of chronic disca_es

a) Tiredness, aches, pains are not often visible b) Stress
c) Anxicty d) None of the above

20. What is pain management?

b) Relaxation
a) Taking pain relieving medicine d) None of the above
c) Both a and b

21. How addiction can be indentified?

a) Lack of control b) Decreased socialization c) Both a and b d) None of the above
22. SUD stand for
b) Substance use disease
a) Substance use disorders
c) Substance usage development d) None of the above