Chapter wise Question Bank SCIENCE(CLASS –X)

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 Foreword
Preparation of study material for all the major subjects of class X and XII
and presenting the same on the hands of the students well on time is not
anything new for the Kendriya Vidyalayas. However, this time the backdrop of
the Covid-19 pandemic looming large in front of all and the 9 months of
suspended physical classes have given an extra novel meaning and significance
to this endeavor. On all previous occasions, teachers sat together on a
designated place face to face to discuss, to reject, to select & modify and
thereby gather together the best material for the students. This time, they could
not do so that way because of the limitations of gatherings in light of the
pandemic. And therefore, this time, there has been the endeavor to craft out a
chapter-wise exhaustive question bank for all the major subjects. The major
chunk of the session has already played out in the most extraordinary way
during this most extraordinary time as we have all seen, with the syllabi having
been covered only through online classes with the teachers and the students
never coming face to face inside the classrooms.
Anyway, with our examination system the way it is, the role of
intelligent and rigorous study of question bank has been always enormous for
success in all examinations. Having a sound grasp of probable questions and the
most pertinent ones, leads to better negotiation of the course material on hand
especially when the examination comes near.
It is hoped that the teachers of each school will bring the materials home
to the needy students with further necessary guidance from them during this
extraordinary academic session and extraordinary time as a whole.
It has been wonderful for KVS RO Guwahati to be involved in
preparation of study material in the form of chapter wise question banks. The
enormous contribution of the Subject teachers and Principals for making the
project successful is highly praiseworthy.
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Sl No Name of the Chapter Page No
1 CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATION 7
2 ACID BASES AND SALTS 10
3 15
METAL AND NON-METAL
4 CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS 21
5 CLASSIFICATION OF PERIODIC TABLE 27
6 LIFE PROCESSES 30
7 HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE 33
8 HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION 58
9 LIGHT REFLECTION AND REFRACTION 60
10 HUMAN EYE AND THE COLOURFUL WORLD 63
11 ELECTRICITY 65
12 MAGNETIC EFFECT OF ELECTRIC CURRENT 72
13 OUR ENVIRONMENT 76

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 CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATION

1. We need to balance a chemical equation. Give reason to justify the statement.

Answer:- We need to balance chemical equation because of law of conservation of mass. It states that
‘matter can neither be created nor be destroyed’. Therefore chemical equation must be balanced
in each and every chemical reaction.
2. Giving an example list two information which make a chemical equation more useful
(informative).
Answer:- (i) Physical state of reactants must be mentioned, e.g.
2H 2  g   O2  g   2H 2 0  l 
(ii) Condition in which reaction takes place are written on the arrow head, e.g.
2H 2  g   O2  g  burning
 2H 2 0  l 
3. Why should a magnesium ribbon be cleaned before burning in air ?
Answer: Magnesium gets covered with a layer of magnesium oxide when kept in air for a long
time. This layer hinders the burning of magnesium. Hence, it is to be cleaned before burning.
4. Name the reducing agent in the following reaction:
3MnO2  4Al  3Mn  2Al 2O3
Answer:- ‘Al’ is reducing agent.
5. What does one mean by exothermic and endothermic reactions ? Give examples.
Answer: Exothermic reactions : Those reactions in which heat is evolved are known as exothermic
reactions. An exothermic reaction is indicated by writing “+ Heat” on the products side of an
equation.
Example :(i) C (s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + Heat
(ii) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) → 2NH3 (g) + Heat
Endothermic reactions : Those reactions in which heat is absorbed are known as endothermic reactions.
An endothermic reaction is usually indicated by writing “- Heat” on the product side of a chemical
equation.
Examples :(i) C (s) + 2S (s) → CS2 (l) – Heat
(ii) N2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO(g) – Heat
6. Name the type of chemical reaction represented by the following equation:
i. CaO  H 2O  Ca(OH )2
ii. 3BaCl2  Al2 (SO4 )3  3BaSO4  2 AlCl
iii. 2FeSO4  
heat
 Fe2O3  SO4  SO3

Answer:- (i) Combination reaction

(ii) Double displacement reaction (Precipitation reaction)
(iii) Thermal Decomposition reaction.
7. In electrolysis of water, why is the volume of gas collected over one electrode double that of gas
collected over the other electrode?
Answer:- It is because water contains hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio of 2 : 1.

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8. Ferrous sulphate crystals are heated in a dry boiling tube.
(i) List any two observations.
(ii) Name the type of chemical reaction taking place.
(iii) ‘Write the chemical equation for the reaction.
Answer:- (i)Two observations are
(a) Green color of ferrous sulphate disappears and pale colored solid is formed.
(b)Smell of burning sulphur.
(ii) Decomposition reaction
(iii) 2FeSO4 (s)  
heat
 Fe2O3 (s)  SO4 ( g )  SO3 ( g )

9. What is observed when a solution of potassium iodide solution is added to a solution of lead
nitrate? Name the type of reaction. Write a balanced chemical equation to represent the above
chemical reaction.
Answer:- Yellow precipitate of lead iodide is formed. It is Double displacement reaction, also known
as precipitation reaction.
Pb  NO3 2  aq   2KI  aq   Pbl2  s   2 KNO3  aq  .
10. Which products will be obtained when lead nitrate is heated simply. Write balanced chemical
equation for the reaction.
Answer. Lead oxide, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen gas will be liberated.
2Pb  NO3 2  s   
heat
 2PbO  s   4 NO2  g   O2  g 
11. Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution change when an iron nail is dipped in it?
Answer. It is because displacement reaction takes place. Iron being more reactive than copper displaces
copper from copper sulphate solution and forms pale green coloured solution of FeS04 and reddish
brown copper metal gets deposited.
Fe  s   CuS 04  aq   FeS 04  aq   Cu  s 
12. Why are decomposition reactions called the opposite of combination reactions? Write equations
for these reactions.
Answer. In decomposition reaction, a compound is broken down into simpler
compounds or elements, e.g.
CuCO3 (s)  
heat
 CuO(s)  CO2 ( g )
Combination reaction is a reaction in which two or more elements or compounds combine to form
a new compound, e.g.
N2 (g)  3H 2  2 NH3 ( g )
Thus, decomposition and combination reactions are opposite to each other.
13. The following diagram displays a chemical reaction. Observe carefully and answer the following
questions

.
(a) Identify the type of chemical reaction that will take place and define it.
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(b) How will the colour of the salt change? Write the chemical equation of the reaction that takes
place.
(c) Mention one commercial use of this salt.
Answer. (a) Photochemical decomposition reaction: Those reactions in which a compound breaks down
into simple substances in presence of light are called photochemical decomposition reaction. The
colour of salt will change from white to grey.
b. 2 AgCl (s) 
Sunlight
2 Ag (s)  Cl2 (g)
(c) Silver chloride is used in photography

14. What is rancidity? Mention any two ways by which rancidity can be prevented.
Answer. The process of oxidation of fats and oils present in food in which taste and smell of food
gets spoiled is called rancidity
Prevention from rancidity:-
(i) Antioxidants are added to food articles to prevent oxidation.
(ii)Food should be kept in airtight container in refrigerator. Ex Nitrogen gas is flushed through chips
packets
15. A solution of substance ‘X’ is used for white washing. What is the substance ‘X’? State the
chemical reaction of ‘X’ with water.
Answer.
‘X’ is calcium oxide (CaO). It reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide.
CaO  s   H 2O  l   Ca  OH 2  aq   heat
16. Define combination reaction. Give one example of a combination reaction which is also
exothermic.
Answer. A reaction in which two elements or compounds combine to form a single compound is
called combination reaction.
CaO  s   H 2O  l   Ca  OH 2  aq   heat
It is also an exothermic reaction along with a combination reaction because heat is evolved.
17. (a) Why is respiration considered as an exothermic reaction?
(b) Identify the substance that is oxidized and reduced in the following reaction.

Answer. (a) It is because heat and energy is evolved during respiration in form of ATP which provides us
energy to do work.
(b) Zn is getting oxidized, CuO is getting reduced.

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 ACID BASES AND SALTS
[Link]’S
1. What happens when a solution of an acid is mixed with a solution of a base in a test tube?
(i) The temperature of the solution increases
(ii) The temperature of the solution decreases
(iii) The temperature of the solution remains the same
(iv) Salt formation takes place
(a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
2. An aqueous solution turns red litmus solution blue. Excess addition of which of the following
solution would reverse the change?
(a) Baking powder (b) Lime
(c) Ammonium hydroxide solution (d) Hydrochloric acid

3. During the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas on a humid day, the gas is usually passed
through the guard tube containing calcium chloride. The role of calcium chloride taken in the
guard tube is to
(a) absorb the evolved gas (b) moisten the gas
(c) absorb moisture from the gas (d) absorb Cl– ions from the evolved gas
4. Which of the following salts does not contain water of crystallisation?
(a) Blue vitriol (b) Baking soda
(c) Washing soda (d) Gypsum
5. Sodium carbonate is a basic salt because it is a salt of
(a) strong acid and strong base
(b) weak acid and weak base
(c) strong acid and weak base
(d) weak acid and strong base
ANSWERS: 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d)
II. Questions to be answered in one word or one sentence
1. What is acid rain?
Answer: When the pH of the rain water is less than 5.6, it is called acid rain
2. What is brine?
Answer: Concentrated solution of sodium chloride is called brine
3. What are alkali?
Answer: Water soluble bases are called alkali
4. Write any one use of Chlorine
Answer: In water treatment and making pesticides(any other suitable use)
5. Write the formula of a salt in which water of crystallisation is present
Answer: CuSO4. 5H2O , Na2CO3.10H2O or any other correct salt
6. Write the chemical name and chemical formula of the salt used to remove permanent hardness
of water
Answer: Sodium carbonate decahydrate Na2CO3. 10 H2O

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7. Name the substance which is used to make food articles crispy, write its chemical formula
Answer: Baking powder or Baking soda, NaHCO3
8. Write the chemical name and chemical formula of washing soda?
Answer : Sodium carbonate decahydrate Na2CO3. 10 H2O
9. Write the chemical name and chemical formula of a salt which is used for disinfecting drinking
water to make it germ free
Answer: : Calcium oxychloride, CaOCl2 (Bleaching powder)
10. Name a salt which is used as soda –fire extinguisher, write its chemical formula
Answer: Baking soda can be used. Chemical name- Sodium hydrogencarbonate
Chemical formula- NaHCO3

ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

For the following question numbers (1-5) two statements are given- one labelled Assertion (A) and the
other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c)
and (d) as given below:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true

[Link]: After white washing the walls, a shiny white finish on walls is obtained after two to three
days.
Reason: Calcium Oxide reacts with Carbon dioxide to form Calcium Hydrogen Carbonate which gives
shiny white finish.

[Link]: Plaster of Paris is a is a white powder used to join fractured bones

Reason: On mixing with water Plaster of Paris changes to Gypsum giving a solid hard mass

[Link]: Sodium Hydroxide is formed during Chlor-alkali process

Reason: Electricity is passed through Sodium hydroxide during chlor- alkali process.

Q4. Assertion: Baking soda is used for making food substances crispy during cooking.
Reason: The chemical name of baking soda is Sodium Hydrogencarbonate

Q5. Assertion: Our stomach produces Sulphuric acid, which helps in digestion of food.
Reason: during indigestion excess acid secreted is neutralised by using bases called antacids.

Answers: 1.a 2.a 3.c 4.b 5.d

III. Short answer questions(2 marks)

1. What is a neutralization reaction? Give examples.
Answer : A reaction in which an acid and base react with each other to give a salt and water is
termed as neutralization reaction. In this reaction, energy is evolved in the form of heat.
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(i) NaOH + HCl ------- NaCl + H2O
( Base) (Acid) (Salt) (Water)
(ii) During indigestion (caused due to the production of excess of hydrochloric acid in the stomach), we
use an antacid (generally milk of magnesia, which is basic in nature). The antacid neutralizes the
excess of acids and thus gives relief from indigestion.
Example- Mg(OH)2 + 2HCl ------------ MgCl2 + 2H2O

2. Give two important uses of washing soda and baking soda.

Answer : Two important used of washing soda and baking soda are as follows:
(1) Washing soda:
(a) It is used in glass, soap, and paper industries.
(b) It is used to remove permanent hardness of water.

(2) Baking soda:

(a) It is used as baking powder. Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda and a mild
acid known as tartaric acid. When it is heated or mixed in water, it releases CO 2 that makes bread or
cake fluffy.
(b) It is used in soda-acid fire extinguishers.
3. What will be the action of the following substances on litmus paper?
Dry HCl gas, Moistened NH3 gas, Lemon juice, Carbonated soft drink, Curd, Soap solution.
Answer:
Substance Action on Litmus paper
Dry HCl gas No change
Moistened NH3 gas Turns red to blue
Lemon juice Turns blue to red
Carbonated soft drink Turns blue to red
Curd Turns blue to red
Soap solution Turns red to blue

4. Name the acid present in ant sting and give its chemical formula. Also give the common method
to get relief from the discomfort caused by the ant sting.
Answer:. The acid present in ant sting is Methanoic acid (also known as formic acid). The chemical
formula of the acid is HCOOH. To get relief one should apply any available basic salt e.g., baking
soda (NaHCO3) on it.
5. What happens when nitric acid is added to egg shell? Write suitable chemical reaction.
Answer:. Egg shells contain calcium carbonate. When nitric acid is added to it, carbon dioxide gas is
evolved. The reaction can be given as
CaCO3  2HNO3  Ca  NO3 2  H 2O  CO2
[Link] answer questions(3 marks)
1. A student prepared solutions of (i) an acid and (ii) a base in two separate beakers. She forgot to
label the solutions and litmus paper is not available in the laboratory. Since both the solutions
are colourless, how will she distinguish between the two?
Answer: Using chemical indicator like phenolphthalein or natural indicators like turmeric, china rose
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2. How would you distinguish between baking powder and washing soda by heating?
Answer.:The chemical formula of baking powder is sodium hydrogencarbonate (NaHCO3).
Whereas, that of washing soda is sodium carbonate (Na2CO3.10H2O)
Sodium hydrogencarbonate on heating gives CO2 gas which will turn lime water milky whereas no such
gas is obtained from sodium carbonate.
2 NaHCO3  
heat
 Na2CO3  H 2O  CO2
heat
Na2CO3 .10H 2O  
heat
 Na2CO3  10H 2O
3. What is water of crystallization? give two examples
Answer: Water of crystallization is the fixed number of water molecules present in one formula unit of a
salt. Examples- CuSO4.5H2O, CaSO4.2H2O

4. Write the formula and give one use of each of the following compound-
a. Plaster of Paris
b. Bleaching powder
c. Baking soda
Answer:
a. CaSO4.1/2 H2O , used to join fractured bones
b. CaOCl2 , used to disinfect water
c. NaHCO3 , making food items crispy and fluffy
LONG ANSWER QUESTION( 5MARKS)
1. Salt A commonly used in bakery products on heating gets converted into another salt B which
itself is used for removal of hardness of water and a gas C is evolved. The gas C when passed
through lime water, turns it milky due to formation of D. Identify A, B , C and d. write equation
to show formation of D from C
Answer: Baking powder (NaHCO3), salt A is commonly used in bakery products. On heating it forms
sodium carbonate (Na2CO3), B and CO2 gas, C is evolved.
When CO2 gas is passed through lime water it forms calcium carbonate (CaCO3), which is slightly soluble
in water making it milky.
A — NaHCO3 B — Na2CO3 C — CO2 gas D- CaCO3
CO2  Ca  OH 2  CaCO3  H 2O
2. In one of the industrial processes used for manufacture of sodium hydroxide, a gas X is formed as
by product. The gas X reacts with lime water to give a compound Y which is used as a bleaching
agent in chemical industry. Identify X and Y giving the chemical equation of the reactions
involved.
Answer: In the manufacture of sodium hydroxide, hydrogen gas and chlorine gas (X) are formed as by–
products. When chlorine gas (X) reacts with lime water, it forms calcium oxychloride (bleaching
powder) Y. The reactions are -
2 NaCl  aq   2H 2O  l   2 NaOH  aq   Cl2  g   H 2  g 
X→ Cl2 (Chlorine gas)
Ca  OH 2  s   Cl2  g  CaOCl2  s   H 2O

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Y — Calcium oxychloride (bleaching powder)
3. Match the following pH values 1, 7, 10, 13 to the solutions given below:
• Milk of magnesia
• Gastric juices
• Brine
• Aqueous Sodium hydroxide.
Amit and Rita decided to bake a cake and added baking soda to the cake batter. Explain with a
balanced reaction, the role of the baking soda. Mention any other use of baking soda.
Answer:
• Milk of magnesia 10
• Gastric juices 1
• Brine 7
• Aqueous Sodium hydroxide 13
Baking soda undergoes thermal decomposition to form Na2CO3 ,CO2 and H2O ; CO2 makes the cake fluffy
& soft
NaHCO3   Na2CO3  CO2  H 2O
heat

Uses: Used in fire extinguishers/ antacid to neutralize excess acid in stomach / to neutralize the effect of
acid in insect sting.
4. (i) Four samples A, B, C and D change the colour of pH paper or solution to Green, Reddish-pink,
Blue and Orange. Their pH was recorded as 7, 2, 10.5 & 6 respectively. Which of the samples has
the highest amount of Hydrogen ion concentration? Arrange the four samples in the decreasing
order of their pH.
(ii) Rahul found that the Plaster of Paris, which he stored in a container, has become very hard and lost
its binding nature. What is the reason for this? Also, write a chemical equation to represent the
reaction taking place.
(iii) Give any one use of Plaster of Paris other than for plastering or smoothening of walls.
(i) a) B
b) C,A,D,B
(ii) Due to moisture in the atmosphere it converted into Gypsum
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CaSO4  1 H 2O  CaSO4 .2 H 2O
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(iii) Making toys/dolls or statues /fixing broken limbs/making decorative materials.
5. A dry pellet of a common base B, when kept in open absorbs moisture and turns sticky. The
compound is also a by–product of chlor alkali process. Identify B
What type of reaction occurs when B is treated with an acidic oxide? Write a balanced chemical
equation for one such solution.
Answer: B is Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is a commonly used base and is hygroscopic, that is, it absorbs
moisture from the atmosphere and becomes sticky.
The acidic oxides react with base to give salt and water.
The reaction between NaOH and CO2 can be given as
2 NaOH  CO2  Na2CO3  H 2O

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 METALS AND NON-METALS
1. What are amphoteric oxides? Give two examples of amphoteric oxides.
Solution:
Amphoteric oxides are the oxides, which react with both acids and bases to form salt and water.
E.g. ZnO and Al2O3.
2. Name two metals, which will displace hydrogen from dilute acids, and two metals which will not.
Solution:
Very reactive metals like Zn and Mg displace hydrogen from dilute acids. On the other hand less
reactive metals like Cu, Ag, etc. do not displace hydrogen from dilute acids.
3. In the electrolytic refining of a metal M, what would you take as the anode, the cathode and the
electrolyte?( Deleted from syllabus this year)
Solution:
Anode is impure, thick block of metal M.
Cathode is a thin strip/wire of pure metal M.
Electrolyte is a suitable salt solution of metal M.
4. State two ways to prevent the rusting of iron.
Solution:
By coating the surface of iron by rust proof paints.
By applying oil or grease to the surface of iron objects so that supply of air consisting of moisture is
cut off from the surface.
5. What types of oxides are formed when non-metals combine with oxygen?
Solution:
When non-metals combine with oxygen it forms either neutral or acidic oxides. CO is a neutral
oxide; CO2 , SO2 are acidic oxides.
6. Give reason
i. Metals replace hydrogen from dilute acids, whereas non-metals do not.
ii. Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process of
extraction. (Deleted from syllabus this year)
Solution:
i. Metals are electropositive in nature. They readily lose electrons. These electrons reduce the
protons liberated from the acid to liberate hydrogen gas, whereas non-metals possess a tendency
to gain electrons and hence they do not furnish electrons to protons liberated from acids. Hence
H2 gas is not liberated.
ii. As it is easier to reduce metal oxides to metal, prior to reduction, metal sulphides and
carbonates must be converted to oxides.

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7. Differentiate between metals and non-metals on the basis of their chemical properties.
Solution:

8. Explain why the surface of some metals acquires a dull appearance when exposed to air for a
long time.
Solution:
This is due to the surface oxidation of metals when exposed to moist air. For e.g. copper turns
green on its surface due to the formation of basic copper carbonate CuCO 3. Similarly silver
becomes black due to the formation of black Ag2S and Aluminium forms a white coating of Al2O3 on
its surface.
9. State which of the following metals would give hydrogen when added to dilute hydrochloric acid.
i. Iron, ii. Copper iii. Magnesium
Copper does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid at all. This shows that copper is even less
reactive than iron.

10. Name a non-metallic element, which conducts electricity.

Solution:
Carbon in the form of graphite conducts electricity, as there is a free electron in each carbon atom,
which moves freely in between the hexagonal layers.
11. Which metals do not corrode easily?
Solution:
Gold and platinum and other noble metals do not corrode in air.
12. What are alloys?
Solution:
Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of two or more metals, or a metal and a non-metal.E.g. steel,
brass, bronze, etc.
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13. Define the following terms. (Deleted from syllabus this year)
(i) Minerals
(ii) Ores
(iii) Gangue
Solution:
(i) Minerals
All compounds or elements, which occur naturally in the earth’s crust, are called minerals.
Example: Alums, K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3 . 24 H2O, Bauxite Al2O3.2H2O
(ii) Ores
Those minerals from which a metal can be profitably extracted are called ores. Bauxite
(Al2O3.2H2O) is the ore of Al, copper pyrite CuFeS2. All minerals are not ores but all ores are
minerals.
(iii) Gangue
When an ore is mined from the earth, it is always found to be contaminated with sand rocky
materials. The impurity of sand and rock materials present in the ore is known as gangue.
14. Name two metals that are found in nature in the free state.
Solution:
Gold and platinum are found in the free state in nature.
15. What is chemical process used for obtaining a metal from its oxide?(Deleted from syllabus this
year)

16. Name two metals, which can form hydrides with metals.
Solution:
Sodium and Magnesium form stable hydrides on reacting with hydrogen.
17. Does every mineral have a definite and a fixed composition? Explain. (Deleted from syllabus this
year)
Solution:
Yes, every mineral has a definite and a fixed composition. Minerals are widely distributed in the
earth’s crust in the form of oxides, carbonates, sulphides, sulphates, nitrates, etc. These minerals
are formed as a result of chemical changes taking place during the formation of earth.
18. Explain the meaning of malleable and ductile.
Solution:
Malleable is being able to be beaten/hammered into thin sheets.
Ductile is being able to be drawn into thin wires.
19. i. Write the electron dot structures for sodium, oxygen and magnesium.
ii. Show the formation of MgO and Na2O by the transfer of electrons.
iii. What are the ions present in these compounds?
Solution:

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ii. Formation of Magnesium oxide
When magnesium reacts with oxygen, the magnesium atom transfers its two outermost electrons
to an oxygen atom. By losing 2 elections, the magnesium atoms form a magnesium ion (Mg2+) and
by gaining 2 electrons, the oxygen atom forms an oxide ion (O2-).

Formation of Sodium oxide

Two sodium atoms transfer their 2 outermost electrons to an oxygen atom. By losing two
electrons, the two sodium atoms form two sodium ions (2Na+). And by gaining two electrons, the
oxygen atom forms an oxide ion (O2-)

iii. The ions present in sodium oxide compound (Na2O) is sodium ions (2Na+ and oxide ions (O2-).
The ions present in Magnesium oxide compound (MgO) are magnesium ions Mg2+ and oxide ions
(O2-).
20. You must have seen tarnished copper vessels being cleaned with lemon or tamarind juice.
Explain why these sour substances are effective in cleaning the vessels.
Solution:
The sour substances such as lemon (or tamarind juice) contain acids. These acids dissolve the
coating of copper oxide or basic copper carbonate present on the surface of tarnished copper
vessels and make them shining red-brown again.
21. Give an example of a metal which
i. is a liquid at room temperature.
ii. can be easily cut with a knife.
iii. is the best conductor of heat.
iv. is a poor conductor of heat.
Solution:
i. Mercury is in liquid state at room temperature.
ii. Sodium and potassium are soft metals which can be easily cut with a knife.
iii. Silver is the best conductor of electricity.
iv. Mercury is a poor conductor of heat.
22. Why is sodium kept immersed in kerosene?
Solution:
Sodium metal is kept immersed in kerosene to prevent their reaction with oxygen, moisture and
carbon dioxide of air. Sodium when kept open in air vigorously reacts with it and catches fire.
23. Why do ionic compounds have high melting points?
Solution:
These compounds are made up of positive and negative ions. There is a strong force of attraction
between the oppositely charged ions, so a lot of heat energy is required to break this force of
attraction and melt the ionic compounds. This is why ionic compounds have high melting points.
24. A man went door to door posing as a goldsmith. He promised to bring back the glitter of old and
dull gold ornaments. An unsuspecting lady gave a set of gold bangles to him which he dipped in a
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 particular solution. The bangles sparkled like new but their weight was reduced drastically. The
lady was upset but after a futile argument the man beat a hasty retreat. Can you play the
detective to find out the nature of the solution he had used?
Solution:
Aqua regia (By volume, this contains 3 parts of concentrated hydrochloric acid and 1 part of
concentrated nitric acid) is the solution, which is used to sparkle the bangles like new, but their
weight will be reduced drastically.
25. Write equations for the reactions of
(i) iron with water
(ii) calcium and potassium with water
Solution:

26. What would you observe when zinc is added to a solution of iron(II) sulphate? Write the
chemical reaction that takes place?
Solution:
Zinc is more reactive (more electro positive) than iron. Therefore it displaces iron from its salt
solution. The colour of ferrous sulphate is pale green which becomes colourless.

27. Pratyush took sulphur powder on a spatula and heated it. He collected the gas evolved by
inverting a test-tube over the burning sulphur.
What will be the action of this gas on:
Dry litmus paper?
Moist litmus paper?
Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place.
Solution:
a) When sulphur is brunt in air then sulphur dioxide gas is formed.
(i) Sulphur dioxide gas has no action on dry litmus paper.
(ii) Sulphur dioxide gas turns moist blue litmus paper to red.
(b) S  s   O2  g   SO2  g 
28. Compare the properties of a typical metal and non-metal on the basis of the following:
(i) nature of oxide formed by them
19
 (ii) conductivity.
Answer :
(i) Metals from basic oxide, e.g., sodium gives a basic oxide, Na2O. Non-metals from acidic
oxide, e.g., sulphur gives an acidic oxide, SO2.
(ii) Metals have good conductivity, e.g., copper is a good conductor. Non-metals do not conduct
heat or electricity, e.g., sulphur.
29. How is an ore different from a mineral? (Deleted from syllabus this year)
OR
“All ores are minerals but all minerals are not ores”. Justify the statement with examples.
Answer. The metals found in nature in combined state are called minerals. If some minerals
contain a very high percentage of a particular metal and the metals can be profitably and
economically extracted, then it is called an ore.
30. Atmospheric air always contains moisture. Then, how can you protect iron articles from the
affect of atmosphere?
Answer. Iron articles can be protected from the effect of atmosphere by painting, oiling and
greasing. This gives temporary protection to iron articles. For long time protection, galvanising or
chrome plating are quite useful.

20
 CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following is not the property of homologous series?
(a) They differ by-CH2 units
(b) They differ by-14 units by mass
(c) They all contain double bond
(d) They can be represented by a general formula

Ans: (c) They all contain double bond

It is not necessary for a homologous series that it must contain the double bond.
2. Carbon exists in the atmosphere in the form of
(a) carbon monoxide only
(b) carbon monoxide in traces and carbon dioxide
(c) Carbon dioxide only
(d) Coal
Ans: (b) carbon monoxide in traces and carbon dioxide
3. Organic compounds will always contain-
(a) carbon (b) hydrogen (c) nitrogen (d) sulphur
Ans: (a) carbon
4. Which of the following is the purest form of carbon?
(a) charcoal (b) coal (c) diamond (d) petroleum
Ans: (c) diamond
5. A versatile element that forms the basis for all living organisms and many of the things we use is-
(a) Hydrogen (b) Carbon (c) Oxygen (d) Nitrogen
Ans: (b) Carbon.
6. The unsaturated hydrocarbons which contain one or more double bonds are called
(a) Alkane
(b) Alkyne
(c) Alkene
(d) Alkyl
Ans: (c) Alkene
7. The property of self-linkage among identical atoms to form long chain compounds is known as:
a) Catenation
b) Isomerisation
c) Superposition
d) Halogenation
Ans: (a) Catenation
Explanation: Catenation is the property of self-linking of an element by which an atom combines with
the other atoms of the same element to form long chains.
8. Which of the followings is the major constituent of the liquefied petroleum gas?
a) Methane
b) Ethane
c) Propane
21
d) Butane
Ans: (d) Butane
9. Which is a general formula of alkenes?
(a) CnH2n+2 (b) CnH2n (c) CnH2n-2 (d) None of the above
Ans: (b) CnH2n
10. A versatile element that forms the basis for all living organisms and many of the things we use is-
(a) Hydrogen (b) Carbon (c) Oxygen (d) Nitrogen
Ans: (b) Carbon

ASSERTION AND REASON

DIRECTION: In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion
(A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

1. Assertion: Diamond and graphite are allotropes of carbon

Reason: Some elements can have several different structural forms while in the same physical state.
These differing forms are called allotropes.
Ans: (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion
(A).
2. Assertion: Carbon has ability to form long carbon chains.
Reason: Carbon has a unique property of ability to form long straight and branched chains called
catenation.
Ans: (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion
(A).
3. Assertion: Third member of alkane is propane (C3H8)
Reason: It is obtained from general formula CnH2n+2.
Ans: (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion
(A)
C3H8 can be obtained from general formula, CnH2n+2.
4. Assertion: Ethyne is an unsaturated hydrocarbon
Reason: Ethyne contains carbon-carbon triple bond.
Ans: (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion
(A).
5. Assertion: The element carbon forms the basic structural framework of more compounds than
any other element
Reason: The carbon-carbon bond is ionic
Ans: (c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
Carbon-Carbon bond is covalent in nature.

22
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUSTIONS (1 MARK)
1. What is the valency of carbon in its compounds?
Ans: Carbon is tetravalent in its compounds.
2. State two characteristic features of carbon which when put together give rise to large number
of carbon compounds.
Answer. (i) Catenation (ii) Tetravalency of carbon
3. Write the electron dot structure of ethane molecule (C2H6).
Answer.

4. Why are covalent compounds generally poor conductors of electricity?

Ans: It is because they do not form ions.
5. What is meant by a saturated hydrocarbon?
Answer. Those hydrocarbons in which valency of carbon are satisfied by single bonds only are called
saturated hydrocarbons.
6. Write the molecular formula of the 2nd and 3rd member of the homologous series whose first
member is methane.
Answer: Ethane (C2H6) and Propane (C3H8).
7. Name the first of member of both alkene and alkyne family.
Answer: First member of alkene family is Ethene (C2H4) and alkyne family Ethyne (C2H2)
8. The formula of a hydrocarbon is CnH2n. Name the family to which it belongs and also predicts its
nature.
Ans: The hydrocarbon belongs to alkene family. It is unsaturated in nature.
9. How many covalent bonds are there in a molecule of ethane (C2H6)?
Answer. There are 7 covalent bonds in a molecule of ethane.
10. What is meant by catenation?
Answer: The unique property of self-linking of carbon atom through covalent bonds to form long straight
or branched chains and rings of different sizes is called catenation.
11. What is allotropy?
Answer: The phenomenon of existence of an element in two or more forms which have different
physical properties but identical chemical properties is called allotropy and the different forms are
called allotropes.
12. Write three allotropes of carbon.
Answer: Diamond, Graphite and Buckminster fullerene.
13. What is meant by unsaturated hydrocarbons?
Answer: Those hydrocarbons which contain one or more double or triple bonds between carbon atoms
are called unsaturated hydrocarbons.
14. What is the difference in the molecular formula of any two consecutive members of a
homologous series of organic compounds?

23
Answer. —CH2— is the difference in the molecular formula of any two consecutive members of a
homologous series of organic compounds.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

1. What are ionic compounds? Why do ionic compounds not conduct electricity in the solid state?
Ans: Ionic compounds consist of ions which are formed by complete transfer of electrons from one atom
to the other. Example- NaCl
Ionic compounds do not conduct electricity in the solid state since the constituent ions are attracted by
strong electrostatic force of attraction.
2. State two characteristic features of carbon which when put together give rise to a large number
of carbon compounds.
Ans: (a) The size of carbon atom is very small.
(b) The strength C—C bond is quite high.
Therefore, any number of carbon atoms can be linked by covalent bonds, this self-linking property is
called catenation.
3. In electron dot structure, the valence electrons are represented by crosses or dots.
(a) The atomic number of Chlorine is 17. Write its electronic configuration.
(b) Draw the electron dot structure of Chlorine molecule.
Ans: (a) Cl (17) – 2,8,7
(b)

4. (a) How can diamonds be made artificially? How do synthetic diamonds differ from natural
ones?
(b) Give any two differences between the properties of diamond and graphite. What causes these
differences?
Ans: (a) Diamonds can be made artificially by subjecting pure carbon to very high pressure and
temperature. The synthetic diamonds are small whereas natural diamonds are big.
(b)(i) Diamond is hard whereas graphite is soft.
(ii) Diamond is a non-conductor of electricity whereas graphite is a good conductor of electricity. The
difference in the physical properties of diamond and graphite arises because of the different
arrangements of carbon atoms in them.
5. Write any three differences between ionic and covalent compounds.
Ans. Three differences between ionic and covalent compounds are:
IONIC COMPOUNDS COVALENT COMPOUNDS
(i) Ionic compounds are formed by transfer of (i) Covalent compounds are formed by mutual
electrons from one atom to other. Ex. NaCl sharing of electron between two atoms.
Ex. H2
(ii) Ionic compounds are generally solid. (ii) Covalent compounds may be solid, liquid or

24
 gases.
(iii) Ionic compounds have high boiling and (iii) Covalent compounds have low boiling and
melting points due to the presence of melting points due to weak intermolecular
strong electrostatic force of attraction forces of attraction.
between the positive and negative ions.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

1. Give reasons for the following:
(i) Element carbon forms compounds mainly by covalent bonding.
(ii) Diamond has a high melting point.
(iii) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity.
Ans: (i) It is because carbon has four valence electrons; it cannot gain or lose four electrons because high
energy is needed. It can only share four electrons.
(ii) It is due to strong covalent bonds and compact structure of diamond.
(iii) It is due to presence of free electrons in graphite because each carbon is linked to three more carbon
atoms.
2. What is homologous series of carbon compounds? Give an example and list its three
characteristics.
Ans: Homologous series is a series of organic compounds which have same functional group and similar
chemical properties. Each member of this series differs by –CH2- in its molecular formula and 14 u
in its molecular mass.
Characteristics of Homologous series are-
(a) All the members of a homologous series can be represented by a general formula.
(b) All the members of a given homologous series have the same functional group
(c) All the members of a given homologous series show similar chemical properties and gradual increase
or decrease in physical properties.
3. (a) What are hydrocarbons? Explain with examples.
(b) Explain the meaning of saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons with two examples each.
(c) Give the names and structural formulae of one saturated cyclic hydrocarbon and one
unsaturated cyclic hydrocarbon.
Ans: (a) A compound made up of hydrogen and carbon only is called a hydrocarbon (Hydrogen +
Carbon= Hydrocarbon). For example: methane (CH4), ethane (C2H6), ethene (C2H4), and ethyne
(C2H2), all are hydrocarbons as they are made up of only two elements: carbon and hydrogen.
(b) Saturated Hydrocarbons: These are the ones in which the carbon atoms are connected by only
single bonds. They are also known as alkanes.
Example: Methane (CH4) and ethane (C2H6)
Unsaturated Hydrocarbons: These are the ones in which two carbon atoms are connected by a
double bond or a triple bond.
Example: Ethene (C2H4) and ethyne (C2H2)
(c) Saturated cyclic hydrocarbon: Cyclohexane, C6H12
Unsaturated cyclic hydrocarbon: Benzene, C6H6

PARAGRAPH BASED MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

25
Question numbers 1 to 4 are based on the following paragraph
Carbon is a versatile element. It has three important allotropic forms: diamond, graphite and
Buckminster fullerene, which have quite different physical properties. Diamond is hard, graphite is
soft while fullerene is neither very hard nor very soft.
Now answer the following questions choosing the correct option in each case:
1. Which of the following characteristics of diamond is not correct?
(a) It is an allotrope of carbon.
(b) It has rigid network structure.
(c) It is good conductor of electricity.
(d) It is the hardest known substance
Ans: (c)
2. From which of the following substance pencil lead is formed?
a) Charcoal
b) Wood
c) Lead
d) Graphite
Answer: (d) Graphite
3. Buckminster fullerene is an allotrope of:
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon
(d) Silicon
Ans: (c) Carbon
4. Choose the correct statement-
Diamond, graphite and fullerenes:
(a) have same physical properties.
(b) have same chemical properties
(c) made up of different elements
(d) have same structural arrangements.
Ans: (b)

26
 PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS

1. What was Döbereiner's basis of classifying elements?

Ans. According to Döbereiner, elements having similar properties can be arranged in triads in which
atomic mass of the middle element is the mean of the atomic masses of the other two elements
2. State Mendeléev's Periodic Law.
Ans. Mendeléev's Periodic Law states that, "The properties of the elements are periodic function of their
atomic masses
3. State Newlands' Law of Octaves.
Ans. Newlands' Law of Octaves states that "when elements are arranged in order of increasing atomic
masses, then every eighth element has properties similar to that of the first element."
4. What was the drawback of the Law of Octaves?
Ans. Law of Octaves failed to assign the position to the elements with large atomic weights. It was valid
only for lighter elements upto Calcium.
5. Who classified the elements on the basis of fundamental properties of elements like atomic
mass?
Ans. Mendeléev
6. Define groups.
Ans. The vertical columns in the long form of the Periodic Table are called groups.
7. What do you understand by periods in the Periodic Table?
Ans. The horizontal rows in the long form of the Periodic Table are called periods.
8. In how many groups and periods, the Modern Periodic Table of elements is divided?
Ans. 18 groups and 7 periods.
9. Name the elements present in the first period.
Ans. Hydrogen and helium
10. Which period is the longest period in the Modern Periodic Table?
Ans. The sixth period is called the longest period because it has maximum 32 elements.
11. How many vertical columns are there in the Modern Periodic Table?
Ans. In the Modern Periodic Table, there are 18 vertical columns of elements called group.
12. Out of Li, C and N, which forms the most basic oxide and which forms the most acidic oxide?
Ans. Lithium forms the most basic oxide as it is a metal and nitrogen forms the most acidic oxide as it is a
non-metal.
13. A metal M belongs to 13th group in the Modern Periodic Table. Write the valency of the metal.
Ans. Atomic number = 13 (Al) Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 3 Valency = 3
14. Find the period and group of the element whose atomic number is 12.
Ans. 3rd period, 2nd group.
15. Indicate the elements which belong to the same group from their atomic numbers as 9, 17, 24,
30, 35, 45.
Answer:
Elements with atomic numbers 9, 17 and 35 belong to the same group i.e. halogen family.
16. Arrange the following in decreasing atomic size :
(i) Na, Mg, K
(ii) N, F, O
27
 (iii) N, S, P
Answer:
(i) K, Na, Mg
(ii) N, O, F
(iii) P, S, N.

17. Give the name and electronic configuration of second alkali metal.
Answer:The second alkali metal is sodium (Na). Its electronic configuration is 2, 8, 1
18. What is the similarity in the electronic configuration of Mg, Ca and Sr ?
Answer:All the elements belong to group 2 and have two electrons in their valence shell.
19. Name the members of alkaline earth family. Which out of them is radioactive in nature ?
Answer:The members of alkaline earth family (group 2) are : Be, Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba, Ra. The last element
radium (Ra) is radioactive in nature.
20. The two isotopes of chlorine have atomic mass 35 u and 37 u. Should they be placed in separate
slots in the periodic table ?
Answer:No, they should be placed in the same slot (or position) because the periodic table is based on
the atomic numbers of the elements. Both the isotopes of the element chlorine have the same
atomic number (Z = 17).
21. An element “X” has mass number 35 and number of neutrons is 18.
Identify group number and period of the element “X”.
Answer:
Atomic number of X = Mass No. – No. of neutrons = 35 – 17 = 18.
Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 7;
Group No. = 17, Period No. = 3.
22. How does metallic character of the elements vary
(i) in a group
(ii) in a period ?
Answer: (i) The metallic character of the elements increases downwards in a group.
(ii) The metallic character of the elements decreases from left to the right along a period.
23. Name three elements which behave as metalloids.
Answer: The elements are : arsenic (As), antimony (Sb) and germanium (Ge).
24. Which property do all the elements possess which are present in the same period as the
element boron ?
Answer: In all the elements, the last electron is present in the same shell i.e., L-shell or second shell.
25. Which common property do all the elements present in the same group have as the element
fluorine ?
Answer: All the elements have the same number of electrons (seven) in their valence shells.
26. Write the electronic configuration of the element present in the third period and seventeenth
group of the periodic table.
Answer: The group 17 consists of halogens. The halogen present in third period is chlorine (Cl) with
atomic number (Z) = 17.
27. What is the basic difference in the electronic configuration of the elements belonging to group 1
and group 2 ?
28
Answer: All elements belonging to group 1 have one electron in the valence shell while all elements
belonging to group 2 have two electrons in their valence shell.

28. Three elements X, Y and Z belong to 17th group but to 2nd, 3rd and 4th period respectively.
Number of valence electrons in Y is 7. Find the number of valence electrons in X and Z.
Answer: All the elements present in a group have same number of valence electrons whatever may the
periods to which they belong. Since element Y has 7 valence electrons, the elements X and Z have
also 7 valence electrons
29. Element ‘Y’ with atomic number 3 combines with element A’ with atomic number 17. What
would be the formula of the compound ?
Answer: The electronic distribution in elements A’ and ‘Y’ are 2, 1 and 2, 8, 7 respectively. Both have
valency equal to 1. The formula of the compound is AY.
30. Name two other elements which belong to the same family as.
(i) fluorine
(ii) calcium
(iii) carbon.
Answer:
(i) chlorine, bromine
(ii) magnesium, Beryllium
(iii) silicon, germanium.
31. On the basis of the periodic classification, identify each set belonging to either a group or a
period :
(a) Na, Mg, Al
(b) Na, K, Rb
(c) B, C, N
(d) He, Ne, Ar.
Answer:
(a) period
(b) group
(c) period
(d) group
32. The formula of magnesium oxide is MgO. Write the formula of magnesium chloride.
Answer: Oxygen is divalent in nature. The valency of magnesium in magnesium oxide is +2. The
formula of magnesium chloride is MgCl2 since chlorine has valency equal to one.
33. The electronic configuration of an element is 2, 8, 7. What is its expected valency ?
Answer: The expected valency of the element is 1. It may be calculated as 8 – 7 = 1
34. Two elements A and B belong to the same period. What is common in them?
Answer: They have the same number of shells.
35. The electronic configuration of an element is 2, 8, 6. Identify the element and name of the
family to which it belongs.
Answer: The element with configuration 2, 8, 6 (Z= 16) is sulphur. It belongs to oxygen family (group 16).

29
 Life Processes

1. Write the events of photosynthesis occur in autotrophs.

Ans: The event occur during this process
(i) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.
(ii) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy and splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and
oxygen.
(iii) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates
2. Differentiate between autotrophic and heterotrophic nutrition
Ans (a) Autotrophic Nutrition: The nutrition in which organism make their own food from simple
inorganic substances are called as Autotrophs and this type of nutrition is called as Autotrophic
Nutrition.
a) For example: Green plants
b) The raw material required for preparation are CO2 and H2O
c) Chlorophyll is required

a) Heterotrophic Nutrition: The organism which cannot make their own food and depend directly or
indirectly on autotrophs for their survival is called as Heterotrophs. And this type of nutrition is
called as Heterotrophic Nutrition
b) For example: lion, deer etc
c) Chlorophyll is not required
d) The raw material is the food obtained from other organism
3. (a) Give the role of hydrochloric acid in stomach.
Ans The hydrochloric acid in the gastric juice breaks down the food and the digestive enzymes split up
the proteins. The acidic gastric juice also kills bacteria. The mucus covers the stomach wall with a
protective coating
(b) What is the function of enzymes in the human digestive system?
Ans Enzymes help in the breaking down of complex organic food materials into simpler forms.
4. How is respiration different from breathing?
Ans Respiration is a complex process, which includes breathing, the mechanism of exchange of gases,
oxygen and carbon dioxide and oxidation of digested food occurring in the cells in order to release
energy. The main outcome of respiration is the release of energy through oxidation of simple food
molecules such as glucose
5. Name the respiratory organs of
(i) fish
(ii) mosquito
(iii) earthworm
(iv) dog

Ans: The respiratory organs of

(i) fish – gills
(ii) mosquito – tracheoles

30
 (iii) earthworm – skin
(iv) dog – lungs.
6. a) Draw well labelled diagram of Human heart?
b) Explain one function of lymph
Ans

Function of lymph: is to carry absorbed digested fat from intestine and it also drains excess fluid from
extra cellular space back into the blood.
7. How water and mineral are transported in plants?

Ans The roots of a plant have hair-like structures called root hair. The root hair provides large area for
the absorption of water and other dissolved minerals from the soil into the roots through diffusion.

The absorbed water and minerals travel from cell to cell by osmosis reach the root xylem. From the root
xylem this are transported into the stem xylem. The branched xylem network from the stem
reaches every part of the leaves through the stalk of the leaf and through this network of xylem
tissue water and minerals transported in plants.
8. a) Name the various organs of human excretory system.
b) Draw a neat labelled diagram of Nephron?
Ans: The various organs of human excretory system are:
Kidney, ureter, urinary bladder and urethra.

31
 9. (a) Which part of the body secretes bile? Where is bile stored? What is the function of bile?
(b) What is trypsin? What is its functions?
Ans (a) Liver secretes bile which gets stored in the gall bladder. Bile performs two functions :
(i) Makes the acidic food coming from the stomach alkaline so that the pancreatic enzymes can act
on it.
(ii) Bile salts breaks the fats present in the food into small globules making it easy for the enzymes
to act and digest them.
(b) Trypsin: It is a pancreatic enzyme present in the pancreatic juice. Its function is to digest the
proteins.
10. Name the following:
(a) The process in plants which converts light energy into chemical energy.
(b) Organisms that cannot prepare their own food.
(c) Organisms that can prepare their own food.
(d) The cell organelle where photosynthesis occurs.
(e) The cells which surround a stomata pore.
(f) An enzyme secreted by gastric glands in stomach which acts on proteins.
Ans (a) Photosynthesis.
(b) Heterotrophs.
(c) Autotrophs.
(d) Chloroplast.
(e) Guard cells.
(f) Pepsin.
11. (a) What is chlorophyll? What part does chlorophyll play in photosynthesis?
(b) (i) Which simple food is prepared first in the process of photosynthesis?
(ii) Name the food which gets stored in plant leaves.
Ans (a) Chlorophyll is a green coloured pigment present in the leaves of plants. It helps in absorbing
energy from sunlight during the process of photosynthesis.
(b) (i) Glucose
(ii) Starch.

32
 HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE
1. Write the full expansion of HIV.
Answer: Human immuno-deficiency virus.
2. Write the full form of IUCD.
Answer: Intra-uterine contraceptive device.
3. Name the type of fission carried out by Amoeba.
Answer: Binary fission.
4. What is vegetative propagation?
Answer: It is the formation of new plants from vegetative parts (e.g., stem, leaf, root, bud) of a
parent plant.
5. List two functions performed by ovaries in a human female.
Answer:
1. Formation of ova
2. Secretion of hormones, estrogen and progesterone.
6. What is the effect of DNA copying which is not perfectly accurate in the reproductive process?.
Answer: It produces mutations which give rise to useful, harmful and neutral variations in the
progeny.
7. Name the hormone, secretion of which is, responsible for dramatic changes in appearance in girls
when they approach 10-12 years of age.
Answer: Estrogen (= oestrogen) produced by growing follicles inside the ovary.
8. Why is DNA copying an essential part of the process of reproduction?
Answer: Cell multiplication is essential for reproduction either as a means of multiplication in
unicellular organisms or as a means of development of multicellular body from a single celled
zygote. Cell multiplication cannot occur without DNA replication or DNA copying because each
new cell must carry the full DNA complement.
9. Mention the common mode of reproduction found in
1. Amoeba
2. Planaria.
Answer: Amoeba Binary fission in any plane.
Planaria: Transverse binary fission.
10. Name any two types of asexual reproduction.
Answer: Fission, Spore formation.
11. State the method used for growing rose plants.
Answer: Artificial method of vegetative propagation by stem cuttings and bud grafting.
12. State what type of method is used for growing jasmine plant.
Answer: Layering, a type of artificial method of vegetative propagation.
13. No two individuals are absolutely alike in a population. Why?
Answer: Due to presence of variations.
14. “Cell division is a type of reproduction in unicellular organisms”. Justify.
Answer: In unicellular organisms cell division is a mode of reproduction as it produces two
individuals or daughters by division of the parent cell.
15. Name the type of reproduction which
(a) involves gametes
33
 (b) Does not involve gametes.
Answer:
(a) Sexual reproduction
(b) Asexual reproduction.
16. Define puberty.
Answer: It is the beginning of development for sexual maturity which occurs at the age of 10-14
years in girls and 13—15 years in boys. Fully formed primary sex organs start secreting hormones
for slow development of secondary sex organs and secondary sex characters.
17. Name the life process of an organism that helps in the growth of its population.
Answer: Reproduction.
18. Name two simple organisms having the ability of regeneration.
Answer: Hydra, Planaria.
19. Where is DNA found in the cell?
Answer: Nucleus, plastids and mitochondria.
20. Name the type of reproduction mostly seen in unicellular organisms.
Answer: Asexual reproduction through cell division as binary fission, multiple fission, sporulation,
budding.
21. Define sexual reproduction.
Answer: It is a mode of reproduction in which offspring are formed by the process of formation
and fusion of gametes.
22. In human female reproductive system where does fertilization occur?
Answer: In fallopian tube at ampulla—isthmus junction.
23. Name the parts where germ cells of a flower are located.
Answer :
Male — in anther of stamen.
Female — in ovule of carpel.
24. Name the part of Bryophyllum where buds are produced for propagation.
Answer: Leaf notches.
25. What is DNA?
Answer: DNA or deoxyribonucleic acid is a self replicating biochemical that is carrier of genetic
information for expression of hereditary traits and transfer to the next generation.
26. .What happens when a Planaria gets cut into two pieces?
Answer: Each piece grows (regenerates the missing parts) to form a complete animal.
27. Name the method by which Hydra reproduces commonly. Is this method sexual or asexual?
Answer: Hydra reproduces commonly by budding (also regeneration). It is a method of asexual
reproduction.
28. List two unisexual flowers.
Answer: Water Melon, Papaya.
29. Why is fertilization not possible without pollination?
Answer: Fertilization requires bringing of male gametes to the female gamete which is possible
only when pollen grain is brought from the anther to the stigma in the process of pollination.

34
 30. What happens when a mature Spirogyra filament attains considerable length?
Answer: The elongated mature filament of Spirogyra breaks to form smaller pieces or fragments.
The fragments grow to form mature filaments. .
31. What are those organisms called which bear both the sex organs in the same individual? Give one
example of such organism.
Answer: Bisexual or hermaphrodite, eg, Mustard, Hydra.
32. List two functions of ovary of human female reproductive system.
Answer:
1. Formation of ova
2. Secretion of hormones estrogen and progesterone.
33. Name the method by which Spirogyra reproduces under favourable conditions. Is this method
sexual or asexual ?
Answer:
1. Fragmentation
2. Asexual method.
34. How does Planaria reproduce? Is this method sexual or asexual?
Answer:
1. Transverse binary fission and regeneration
2. Asexual method.
35. How does Plasmodium reproduce? Is this method sexual or asexual?
Answer:
1. Multiple fission,
2. Asexual method.
36. When a cell reproduces, what happens to its DNA?
Answer: DNA replicates and forms its copy at the time of cell reproduction.
37. Newly formed DNA copies may not be identical at times. Give one reason.
Answer: Error in DNA copying due to incorporation of wrong nucleotide.
38. Why is variation important for a species?
Answer: Variation provides adaptability to changing environment and increased fitness in the
struggle for existence.
39. Name the organs producing
(i) male germ cells / sperms and
(ii) female germ cells / ova respectively in humans.
Answer:
(i) Testis
(ii) Ovary.
40. What is fertilisation? Where does it occur in a human female?
Answer: Fertilisation is the fusion of male and female gametes to form diploid zygote. In human
female, it occurs in ampulla part of fallopian tube.

2 MARKS QUESTIONS
1. Name the type of asexual reproduction in
(a) Planaria
35
 (b) Rhizopus
(c) Spirogyra
(d) Hydra.
Answer:
(a) Planaria —regeneration,
(b) Rhizopus — spore formation
(c) Spirogyra — fragmentation
(d) Hydra — budding.
2. Differentiate between
(a) Asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction
(b) Self pollination and cross pollination.
Answer:
(a) Asexual reproduction is monoparental, with no gametes, no meiosis and very little variations.
Sexual reproduction is generally biparental involving fusion of gametes, meiosis and lot of
variations.
(b) Self pollination is transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower
(e.g., Commeliria, Wheat) while cross pollination is transfer of pollen grains from the anther of
one flower to the stigma of another flower of the same species (e.g., Salvia).
3. State two points of importance of DNA copying in reproduction.
Answer:
1. Copying of DNA during reproduction provides the same and full complement of DNA to each and
every cell which is important because DNA controls not only cellular functions but also structural
and functional traits of the individual.
2. Copying of DNA is not one hundred percent fool proof. Some variations develop due to small errors
in copying.
4. How does the process of budding differ from the process of spore formation?

Budding Spore Formation

1. Number: One or a few buds develop over the body of A very large number of spores develop from an
an individual. individual.
2. Dispersal: It is limited. Spores are dispersed far and wide.
3. New Individual: The bud directly grows into a new A spore germinates and then forms a new
individual. Ex. Hydra. individual. Ex. Rhizopus.
Answer:
5.
(a) Out of the following plants, which two plants reproduce by vegetative propagation: Jasmine,
Wheat, Mustard, and Banana?
(b) List any one advantage of practicing this kind of propagation.
Answer:
(a) Jasmine (layering), Banana (cutting of rhizome).
(b) Advantages:
1. It is the only known method of multiplication of seedless plants like Banana and Sugarcane.

36
2. It is a quicker method as vegetatively reproduced plants bear flowers and fruits earlier than plants
raised through seeds.
3. All the individual plants are clones of one another and their parent so that the crop is genetically
uniform.
4. Good quality of a variety can be maintained indefinitely.
6. Illustrate the process of regeneration in Planaria with help of a suitable diagram.
Answer: On being cut or broken into two or more pieces, each piece grows to form the complete
animal of Planaria. It is done with the help of
1. dedifferentiation of differentiated cells and
2. Reserve cells which proliferate, reach the exposed parts and differentiate to form the missing
regions.

7. Leaves of Bryophyllum fallen on the ground produce new plants. Why?

Answer: Leaves of Bryophyllum bear adventitious buds in the marginal notches. As the leaves fall
down on the ground and come in contact with soil, the buds sprout and form new plants.
8. State the significance of human testes being located in the scrotum.
Answer:
1. Scrotum not only protects the testes but also acts as a thermoregulator by changing position of the
testes.
2. It keeps the temperature of testes 1 -3° C below that of the body. A lower temperature is essential
for development of sperms.
9.
(a) What will happen to ovary and ovule after fertilization in angiospermic plants?
(b) Name two animals that reproduce asexually.
(c) What are the male and female gonads in human beings known as?
Answer:
(a) Ovary — fruit.
Ovule — seed.
(b) Hydra, Sponges
(c) Male Gonads —Testes.
Female Gonads-Ovaries.

37
 10. Protozoans reproduce by binary fission as well as multiple fission. In your opinion which process is
better and why?
Answer: Multiple fission is better as
1. it often occurs inside perennating cysts
2. It produces many daughters.
11. In Tobacco plant, the male gametes have 24 chromosomes. State the number of chromosomes in
1. Egg nucleus
2. Zygote
3. Endosperm
4. Leaf cell.
Answer:
1. 24
2. 48
3. 72
4. 48.
12. Why do organisms formed by asexual reproduction are considered as clones? State the advantage
of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction.
Answer: Organisms formed through asexual reproduction are considered clones as they are
genetically similar to one another as well as their parent.
Sexual reproduction is advantageous over asexual reproduction as it produces a lot of variations
due to reshuffling of chromosomes and crossing over. This provides better adaptability, more
vigour and vitality to the offspring.
13. (a) What is the site of implantation and development of young one in human female?
(b) Mention two advantages of using mechanical barriers during sexual act.
Answer:
(a) Uterus,
(b)
1. Non-transmission of STDs
2. Prevention of pregnancy.
14. (a) Leaves of Bryophyllum fallen on ground produce new plants whereas the leaves of Jasmine do
not. Why?
(b) Write two points of differences between asexual and sexual reproduction.
Answer:
(a) Leaves of Bryophyllum possess adventitious buds in their marginal notches. The buds sprout to
produce plantlets when leaves fall on soil. Leaves of Jasmine cannot undertake asexual
reproduction as they do not develop adventitious buds.
(b)
Asexual Reproduction Sexual Reproduction
1. Parents: It is monoparental. It is generally biparental
2. Meiosis: Meiosis does not occur during
Meiosis occurs: Gametes are formed and fertilization
asexual reproduction. There are no
occurs in sexual reproduction.
gametes and no fertilization.

38
 Ex: Binary fission in Amoeba, Budding in
Ex: Offspring in Wheat, Human.
Yeast
15. (a) Name the parts of the flower which ripens to form fruit and seed

(b) In the diagram, label A and B.

Answer:
(a) Fruit — Ovary.
Seed — Ovule.
(b) A — plumule.
B — radicle.
16. With the help of a diagram only show regeneration in Planaria. Regeneration is not possible in all
types of animals. Why?
Answer:

1. Regeneration is possible in only simple animals having reserve or stem cells.

2. In complex higher animals regeneration is controlled by nervous and hormonal systems which
become impaired at the site of injury.
17. How does the process of seed germination take place in plants? Describe in brief.
Answer: Seed germination occurs when a seed is placed in moist soil in such a way that it is also
able to absorb oxygen from air. The seed absorbs moisture through its micropyle. The embryo
becomes active. The seed coat softens. Seed interior swells causing breaking of seed coat. The
radicle grows, passes out of the seed and enters the soil as root. The plumule, with or without
cotyledons, comes out of soil and gives rise to shoot. The seedling becomes nutritionally
independent.

39
 18. Name the sex hormones secreted by male and female sex organs in human beings. State one
function of each.
Answer:
Male — Testosterone — Sperm formation and male characteristics.
Female —
1. Estrogen — Release of ovum, maintenance of female characteristics,
2. Progestérones— development of uterine lining.
19. (a) How is the process of pollination different from fertilization?
(b) State the mode of reproduction in Earthworm, Frog, Rhizopus and Plasmodium
Answer:
(a)
Pollination Fertilization
It is the fusion of male and female gametes.
1. Definition. It is transfer of pollen grains from anther to Fertilization occurs only after pollination when
the stigma of a flower. the pollen grain has germinated and male
2. Step. Pollination precedes fertilization. gametes are carried into ovule.
3. Purpose. It carries the male gamete producing pollen It actually brings about fusion of gametes.
grains to the female sex organ. Fertilization is a physico-chemical (biological)
4. Process. Pollination is a physical process. process.
5. Occurrence. It occurs only in seed plants. It occurs in both plants and animals of various
types.
(b) Earthworm—sexual, also asexual.
Frog — sexual.
Rhizopus —spore formation, also sexual.
Plasmodium — multiple fission, also sexual.
20. Prenatal sex determination has been prohibited by law. State two reasons.
Answer:
1. The test has been banned since due to desire of male child, there has been large scale female
foeticide.
2. This has resulted in declining female-male sex ratio.

3 MARKS QUESTION
1. State one function each of the following parts of human male reproductive system:
a. Vas deferens
b. Testis
c. Prostate Gland.
Answer:
a. Vas Deferens: Passage of sperms (hence sperm duct).
b. Testis: Produces sperms and male sex hormone called testosterone.
c. Prostate Gland: Forms 20-30% of semen, essential for sperm motility.
2. (a) Name an organism in which binary fission occurs in a definite orientation.
(b) Draw a neat diagram of germinating seed and label on it the following: Cotyledon, Plumule, and

40
 Radicle.
Answer:
(a) Leishmania, Euglena
(b)

3. (a) Name the parts 1 to 5 of human female reproductive system

(b) Name the part in which fertilization takes place in the system.
Answer:
(a) 1 — fallopian tube,
2 — ovary,
3 — Uterus,
4 — cervix,
5 — vagina.
(b) Fallopian tube.
4. (a) How do oral pills function as contraceptives?
(b) The use of these pills may be harmful. Why?
Answer:
(a) Oral pills prevent ovulation as they contain progesterone with or without estrogen.
(b) Use of oral pills may cause some side effects because they do change the hormonal balance of
the body.

41
 5. (a) Draw a neat diagram of female reproductive system in human beings and label on it:
1. The part which secretes ova
2. The part where implantation takes place.
(b) What happens if fallopian tube is blocked?
Answer:
(a)

Label
1. Ovary (Produces ova)
2. Uterus (implantation).
(b) Blockage of fallopian tube will prevent fertilization.
6. State in brief the function of the following organs in the human female reproductive system,
(a) Ovary
(b) Fallopian tube
(c) Uterus.
Answer:
(a) Ovary: Formation of ova and secretion of hormones, estrogen and progesterone.
(b) Fallopian Tube: Passage of ovum, site for fertilization.
(c) Uterus: Implantation and nourishment of embryo.
7. (a) Name a unisexual flower,
(b) Name the organ known as “birth canal” in female reproductive system.
(c) Mention two factors that determine the size of population.
Answer:
(a) Papaya, Watermelon,
(b) Vagina
(c) Birth rate or natality and death rate or mortality.
8. Draw a neat diagram of germination of pollen on stigma. Also label on it the following parts:
a. Female germ cell
b. Pollen tube
c. Pollen grain
d. Male germ cell.

42
Answer:

9. Explain the following methods of contraception giving one example of each

a. Barrier method
b. Hormonal imbalance method
c. Surgical method.
Answer:
1. Barrier Method. Mechanical Barrier Methods. They prevent passage of sperms into genital tract of
the female.
a. It is tubular latex sheath to be worn over male copulatory organ during sex.
b. Cervical Cap. It is a rubber nipple to be fitted over cervix,
c. Contraceptive Diaphragm. It is tubular sheath that is fitted in vagina during sex.
2. Hormonal Imbalance Method. It is commonly carried out by the ladies through regular use of oral
pills. They inhibit ovulation through suppression of FSH.
3. Surgical Method. It is of two types :
a. Vasectomy. The two vasa deferentia of the male are blocked by cutting and tying.
b. Tubectomy. The two fallopian tubes of the female are blocked by cutting and tying or
ligating.
c.
10. Expand AIDS. List any four methods of prevention (control) of AIDS.
Answer:
AIDS—Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome.
Methods of Prevention
a. Avoiding unprotected sex.
b. Use of disposable syringes and needles
c. Use of disposable blades and razors,
d. Compulsorily complete sterilization of all equipment used in dental treatment and surgery.
e. Proper screening of blood before transfusion.

11. (a) Name any sexually transmitted disease which is

i. caused by virus

43
 ii. Caused by bacteria.
(b) What may be the possible reasons for adopting contraceptives for sex? Mention any two.
Answer:
(a)
i. Bacterial STD: Gonorrhoea by Neisseria gonorrhoeae
ii. Viral STD: Genital warts by Human Papilloma Virus,
(b) Reason: Preventing pregnancy for
i. Limiting size of family,
ii. Spacing birth of children so as to provide proper care to each child. .
Methods:
a. Barrier method like condom and diaphragm
b. Intrauterine device like copper-T
c. Oral pills.
12. State in brief the role of human male reproductive system. Why is it called the urinogenital
system?
Answer:
Role:
a. Human male reproductive system synthesises sperms in seminiferous tubules of testes. The
testes lie in a pouch of skin or scrotum outside the abdomen to provide 1°-3°C temperature
lower than that of body.
b. Leydig cells present in the connective tissue of testes secrete male sex hormone or
testosterone for maintaining the secondary male sex traits,
c. The sperms are stored in epididymis and passed out at the time of ejaculation when secretions
from seminal vesicles, prostate gland and Cowper’s glands mix with them to form semen.
Urinogenital System. The passage way of male reproductive system is common with the
passage of urine from the body. Therefore, male reproductive system is also called urinogenital
system.
13. (a) Explain the process of budding,
(b) Show in sequence the process of budding in Hydra with the help of diagram.
Answer:
(a) Budding is the formation of an outgrowth from an organism which grows and separates to form
a new individual. It is a mode of asexual reproduction in both unicellular (e.g., Yeast) and
multicellular (e.g., Hydra) organisms.
(b) Budding in Hydra. Some reserve cells present in the lower half of Hydra begin to divide due to
some
internal or external stimulus. They form a cellular mound which grows into a bud. Soon the bud
develops a mouth and tentacles. It makes the bud nutritionally independent. The bud constricts

44
 from base and separates as a new individual.

14. Give a reason for each of the following:

(a) Regeneration is not considered a method of reproduction.
(b) Blocking of the fallopian tube causes birth control,
(c) Spores generally have a thick wall.
Answer:
(a) Regeneration is not the same as reproduction as no propagule is formed and no organism will
depend on being cut to be able to reproduce.
(b) Blocking of fallopian tubes will not allow the sperms to reach the ovum.
(c) Spores are a means of dispersal as well as perennation. They have to be thick-walled to tolerate
adverse environmental conditions.
15. (a) Draw a neat labelled diagram of a germinated seed and label radicle, plumule and cotyledon.
(b) Mention function of each of these parts.
Answer:
(a)

(b)
1. Radicle: It forms the first root of the seedling,
2. Plumule: It grows to form the shoot of the seedling,
3. Cotyledon: It stores food and supplies the same to embryo axis for its growth.

16. (a) Differentiate between binary and multiple fission. Name an organism that reproduces by
multiple fission.

45
 (b) Vegetative reproduction is beneficial to plants that are propagated asexually. Give two
advantages.
Answer:
(a) In binary fission a unicellular organism divides into two equal daughters. In multiple fission it
gives rise to several (more than 2) individuals. Some residue may be left in multiple fission while no
such wastage occurs in binary fission.
Multiple fission occurs in Plasmodium (Malaria Parasite).
(b) Vegetative Reproduction,
1. It is the only known method of multiplication in seedless plants like Banana and Sugarcane,
2. It is quicker method of multiplication with a crop of uniform yield.

17. (a) Name any two plants that reproduce through grafting.
(b) List any two benefits to an organism that reproduces through spores.
Answer:
(a) Grafting. It is performed in case of high quality Apple, Mango, Pear and some other plants.
(b) Benefits of Spore Formation,
a. Spores are a means of dispersal.
b. They are often thick-walled and take part in perennation.
c. A large number of spores are often formed at one time so that rapid multiplication can
occur.
18. List any four methods of contraception used by humans. How does their use have a direct effect on
health and prosperity of the family?
Answer:
Methods of Contraception:
a. Mechanical Barriers like condoms, cervical cap, diaphragm.
b. Oral Contraceptives or oral pills like Mala D, Saheli
c. Intrauterine Contraceptive Devices (IUCD) like loop, bow, Cu-T.
d. Surgical Methods like vasectomy in males and tubectomy in females.
Effects:
a. Enjoying a good reproductive health.
b. Protecting from sexually transmitted diseases.
c. Restricting the number of children.
d. Spacing the birth of children so as to properly look after them, provide them proper
education without depleting the resources of the family.
e. Controlling population.
19. (a) Explain the process of regeneration in Planaria.
(b) How is regeneration different from reproduction?
Answer:
(a) Regeneration in Planaria. In Planaria, a broken piece of the body grows the missing parts and
forms the complete animal. This occurs with the help of reserve or stem cells and dedifferentiation
of differentiated cells. They proliferate to form mass of cells which differentiate into various types
of cells and tissues just like development in the young animal.

46
 (b) Reproduction is the formation of new individuals by the grown up organisms with the help of
propagules or germ cells. Regeneration is growth of injured parts of the individuals for repair and
replacement of lost parts.
20. Write two examples each of sexually transmitted diseases caused by
a. virus
b. bacteria.
Explain how the transmission of such diseases be prevented?
Answer:
a. Viral STDs. Genital warts by human papilloma virus (HPV), AIDS by human immunodeficiency virus
(HIV).
b. Bacterial STDs. Gonorrhoea by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Syphilis by Treponema pallidum.
Q5 MARKS QUESTION
1.
(a) The fertilized ovules also grow in size. They ripen into seeds. How does reproduction occur in
i. Malaria Parasite
ii. Leishmania.
(b) Categorise the following flowers into bisexual and unisexual: Papaya, Watermelon, Hibiscus,
Mustard.
(c) State in brief the function of urethra in man.
Answer:
(a)
i. Malaria Parasite: Multiple fission (asexual). Sexual reproduction also occurs,
ii. Leishmania: Longitudinal binary fission (asexual). Sexual reproduction also occurs.
(b) Bisexual: Hibiscus, Mustard. Unisexual. Papaya, Watermelon
(c) Urethra: Passage of urine (both in males and females), passage of semen in males.
2.
(a) Draw a well labelled diagram of human male reproductive system,
(b) When does ovulation occur during the menstrual cycle in a normal healthy woman,
(c) What is menopause ?
Answer:
(a)

47
 (b) Timing of Ovulation: 13th or 14th day of menstrual cycle.
(c) Menopause: It is permanent stoppage of menstruation in women which generally occurs
between the ages of 45—50 years.
3. (a) What is meant by asexual reproduction? List four different methods of asexual reproduction.
(£) Describe in brief binary fission in Amoeba.

48
 Answer:
(a) Asexual Reproduction. It is mode of reproduction in which a part of a single parent gives rise to
a new individual without fertilisation or fusion of gametes.
Methods,
1. Fission (binary and multiple)
2. Budding.
3. Fragmentation,
4. Spore formation.
(b) Binary Fission in Amoeba. It can occur in any plane. Pseudopodia are withdrawn. The nucleus
elongates and then divides into two. The cytoplasm also cleaves. It produces two daughters, each
with a single nucleus.

4.
(a) Draw a labelled diagram of human male reproductive system.
(b) Mention the function of testes. Where are they located?
Answer:
(a)

49
 (b) Function of Testes. Formation of sperms and secretion of male sex hormone testosterone.
Location. The two testes lie in the two chambers of scrotum which hangs from the abdomen
behind the penis.
5. (a) How do the following contraceptives prevent pregnancy?
i. Oral pills
ii. Condom.
(b) Mention the possible misuse of surgical method of birth control by some people. How is this
method causing harm to the society? State the steps taken by the government to prevent this
misuse.
Answer:
(a)
i. Oral Pills: They prevent ovulation (release of mature ovum from ovary) as they contain
progesterone (with or without estrogen).
ii. Condom: It is a mechanical method which prevents the entry of sperms in the reproductive
tract of the female.
(b) Misuse of Surgical Method. Abortion as a means of termination of unwanted pregnancy has
been misused to terminate only female foetus. This has caused a decline in sex ratio which is likely
to create social tension. In order to prevent female foeticide, the government has banned prenatal
sex determination.
6. (a) Give an example of a bisexual flower. What is its female reproductive organ known as?
(b) Draw a diagram of its longitudinal section showing the process of germination of pollen on
stigma and label the following on it :
i. Male germ cell
ii. Female germ cell
iii. Ovary
iv. Pollen tube.

50
 (c) List any two differences between pollination and fertilization.
Answer:
(a) Bisexual Flower. Mustard, Salvia. Female Reproductive Part. Pistil or carpel.
(b)

(c)
i. Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the anthers to the stigma of a flower.
Fertilization is the fusion of a male gamete brought by pollen tube with the egg or oosphere of
the embryo sac.
ii. Pollination is the first physical process of sexual reproduction in seed plants. Fertilization is the
later biological process of sexual reproduction.
7. (a) Female and male germ cells are respectively present in ovary and pollen grains of a flowering
plant. Draw a labelled diagram to show germination of pollen on stigma.
(b) Explain post fertilization changes that occur in a flower.
Answer:
(a)Female Germ Cell. Oosphere, present in embryo sac part of ovule. Male Germ Cell. Male gamete
or sperm formed in germinating pollen grain and taken to embryo sac by pollen tube.

51
(b) Post Fertilization Changes,
1. Zygote forms embryo,
2. Primary endosperm cell produces nutritive tissue called endosperm
3. Integuments. Form seed coats. Ovule is transformed into seed. Ovary is transformed into fruit.
Sepals, petals and stamens shrivel and fall down. Sepals persist is some plants. Style and stigma
also fall down.
8.
(a) Draw diagram of a germinating seed and label
1. Part that gives rise to shoot system,
2. Part that gives rise to root system,
3. Part that contains stored food.
(b) How do Potato and Bryophyllum plants reproduce vegetatively?
Answer:
(a)

label:
i. Plumule
ii. Radicle
iii. Cotyledon.
(b)
i. Potato is multiplied vegetatively by planting pieces of tubers, containing one or more eyes
(depression with buds),
ii. Bryophyllum is multiplied by placing a mature leaf over moist soil when several plantlets
will be formed from growth of buds present in marginal notches.
9.
(a) List the sexually transmitted diseases.
(b) Mention any one method that should be adopted both by male and female for safe sex.
Answer:
(a) Gonorrhoea, syphilis, genital warts, AIDS.
(b) Wearing of condoms (males) or contraceptive diaphragms (females) protect both males and
females from getting sexually transmitted diseases.
10. (a) Draw labelled diagram of human male reproductive system.
(b) State the reason why testes are located outside abdominal cavity.
(c) Name the hormone secreted by testes.

52
(d) Write two glands found in male reproductive pathway and specify their roles.
Answer:
(a)

(b)
i. Scrotum not only protects the testes but also acts as a thermoregulator by changing
position of the testes.
ii. It keeps the temperature of testes 1 -3° C below that of the body. A lower temperature is
essential for development of sperms.
53
 (c) Testosterone:
i. Regulating sperm formation,
ii. Puberty changes in males,
iii. Maintenance of male secondary organs and traits.
(d) Two Glands: A pair of seminal vesicles and prostate gland.
Seminal Vesicles: They secrete 60-70% of semen plasma that is alkaline and viscous having fructose
(for nourishing the sperms), fibrinogen, proteins and prostaglandins. Prostaglandins cause
movements in the genital tract of the female. Sperms are also activated by secretion of seminal
vesicles.
Prostate Gland: It produces 20-30% of semen plasma. The secretion is alkaline and viscous. It has
clotting enzyme and chemical essential for sperm activity.
11.
(a) Draw a neat diagram of human female reproductive system and label
i. Oviduct
ii. Ovary
iii. Uterus
iv. Cervix.
(b) Mention the function of uterus and oviduct.
Answer:
(a)

54
 (b)
i. Uterus,
ii. It is seat of implantation of embryo.
iii. Uterus provides protection to embryo,
iv. It supplies nutrients to the foetus and takes away its waste products.
v. Oviduct (Fallopian Tube),
vi. It is passageway for ova.
vii. It is the site of fertilization of ovum.
12. .
(a) Give reason:
i. Wind acts as a pollinating agent
ii. Variation is essential and beneficial to a species.
iii. Use of condoms prevents pregnancy.
(b) What is menstruation? Explain why it occurs.
How does embryo get nutrition in mother’s womb?
Answer:
(a)
i. Wind picks up the pollen grains of dehisced anthers and disperses the same. Stigmas are
often feathery or sticky to retain pollen grains striking against them. Wind pollination is
called anemophily.
ii. Variations function as preadaptations which help the species to survive in changed
environmental conditions.
iii. Condoms are mechanical barriers which do not allow the sperms to pass into genital tract
of the female. Therefore, pregnancy is prevented.
(b) Menstruation:

55
 i. It is discharge of blood, mucus and broken pieces of endometrial lining in reproductively
active females which occurs for 3-5 days at regular intervals of 28 days (lunar month). It
occurs in response to non-fertilization of ovum and non-availability of progesterone
hormone.
ii. Nutrition to Embryo: Embryo gets nourishment from mother’s body with the help of
placenta through a cord called umbilical cord. Placenta contains many finger-like villi from
the chorion covering of the embryo. They occur in contact with blood sinuses of the mother
present in the endometrial lining of uterus. All nutrients (glucose, amino acids, vitamins,
etc.) diffuse from mother’s blood into villi and from there to embryo through the umbilical
cord.
13. With the help of suitable diagrams explain how reproduction occurs in Hydra and Planaria. Also
name the process involved.
Answer: Reproduction, in Hydra: Some reserve cells present in the lower half of Hydra begin to
divide due to some internal or external stimulus. They form a cellular mound which grows into a
bud. Soon the bud develops a mouth and tentacles. It makes the bud nutritionally independent.
The bud constricts from base and separates as a new individual.

Reproduction in Planaria. It occurs by regeneration. Due to passage through narrow spaces,

Planaria often gets broken into two or more pieces. The cut ends of the pieces show proliferation
of cells. The newly formed cells undergo differentiation and form missing parts to regenerate the
whole animal.

56
 14. Write two causes of human population explosion. Explain with the help of suitable examples, how
this explosion can be checked.
Answer:
Population explosion is the rapid rise in human population.
Causes:
i. Decrease in death rate,
ii. Longer life span. Both are due to progressively improving health care facilities.
Check: Population explosion can be checked only through fertility control or family planning.
This can be achieved through
i. Education. There is an inverse ratio between education and population growth.
ii. Population Education. It is imparting knowledge to public about the effects of excessive
population, advantages of small families and means to achieve it.
iii. Marriageable Age. Number of births is reduced if young persons marry late. Gainful
employment and higher social status of women also reduce birth rate.
iv. Easy Availability of Birth Control Means. This will reduce reluctance on the part of eligible
couples to adopt family planning measures.
15. What is pollination? How does it occur in plants? How does pollination lead to fertilization?
Explain.
Answer:
Pollination: It is the transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma.
Occurrence: Pollination can occur through the agency of air (anemophily), water (hydrophily),
insects (entomophily) as well as other animals and mechanical disturbance (self pollination).
Fertilization: After falling on a compatible stigma, the pollen grain absorbs water and nutrients. It
gives out pollen tube. The pollen tube carries two male gametes. It grows through style, reaches
ovary, enters an ovule and bursts open into its embryo sac. One male gamete fuses with the egg to
produce diploid zygote. It is fertilization. The zygote later forms embryo. There is a second
fertilization in flower bearing plants—the second male gamete Fuses with central cell of embryo
sac to form nutritive tissue endosperm. It is required for nourishment of embryo.
16. (a) List three distinguishing features between sexual and asexual types of reproduction.
(b) Explain why variations are observed in the offspring of sexually reproducing organisms.
Answer:
(a)
i. Parents: Sexual reproduction is generally biparental while asexual reproduction is
monoparental
ii. Gametes: Sexual reproduction involves the formation and fusion of gametes. Gametes have
no role in asexual reproduction.
iii. Meiosis: Meiosis occurs once in sexual reproduction. All divisions are mitotic in asexual
reproduction.
(b)
i. Chance separation of chromosomes during meiosis required for gamete formation,
ii. Crossing over during meiosis.
iii. Chance coming together of chromosomes during fertilization,
iv. Mutations or mistakes during DNA replication.
57
 Heredity and Evolution.
1. Who is called ‘Father of Genetics’?
Ans. Gregor Johann Mendel.
2. Give common and scientific name of the plant on which Mendel performed his experiment.
Ans. Garden pea, Pisum sativum.
3. Where is DNA found in the cells?
Ans. DNA is found in the chromosomes of the nucleus.
4. What are acquired traits? Give one example.
Ans. Traits acquired during lifetime are known as acquired traits. For e.g., musculature, singing
5. What are inherited traits? Give one example.
Ans. Traits that are obtained from parents and passed on to next generation also. For e.g. Earlobe.
6. Assertion: Mendel choose pea plants for his experiment.
Reason: Pea plants were the only plants available to him
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c. Assertion is true but reason is false.
d. Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans. c
7. How many pairs of contrasting characters do pea plants show? Name any two.
Ans. 7 pairs. Tall x Dwarf and Round x Wrinkle
8. State the laws given by Mendel? .
Ans. i) Law of dominance.
ii) Law of segregation.
iii) Law of independent assortment.
9. What is monohybrid cross?
Ans. Cross in which only one pair of contrasting character is involved is called monohybrid cross
For e.g. cross between tall x dwarf, round and wrinkled seeds
10. What is a test cross? Why it is done?
Ans. Cross between an organisms of unknown genotype with a homozygous recessive organism
is called test cross. It is done to know the genotype of unknown organism.
10. State law of dominance?
Ans. In a monohybrid cross, when one pair of trait is crossed, only one trait appears in F 1
generation and that is called dominant trait, the other trait remains hidden. This is called
law of dominance.
Tall x Dwarf
TT X tt
Tt ( Tall)
11. Write seven contrasting characters noted by Mendel in garden pea plant. Also state which is
dominant and recessive?
Ans. CHARACTER DOMINANT RECESSIVE
1) Height Tall dwarf
2) Colour of seed yellow green
3) Shape of seed round wrinkled
58
4) Colour of flower Violet white
5) Position of flower Axial terminal
6) Shape of pod Inflated constricted
7) Colour of pod Green yellow

12. If we cross pure breed tall (dominant) pea plant with pure breed dwarf (recessive) pea
plant, we will get pea plants of F1 generation. If we now self cross the pea plants of F1
generation, then we obtain pea plants of F2 generation:
i) Fill the boxes a, b, c with correct answers.
Tall Dwarf

Parents TT tt
Gametes a b

F1 c
Ans. a- T, b- t, c- Tt
ii) State the ratio of Tall plants to dwarf plants in F2 generation.
Ans. Tall plants: Dwarf plants = 3: 1
iii) Fill the square checker board (d, e, f, g)
T t
T d e
t f g

Ans. d- TT, e- Tt f- Tt g- tt
iv) What is the genotypic ratio in F2 generation?
Ans – TT, Tt, Tt, tt = 1:2:1

VALUE BASED QUESTION

13. Each human cell has 46 chromosomes. Out of these 22 pairs are similar and 1 pair is
Dissimilar. This dissimilar pair of chromosome plays very important role in sex
Determination in humans.
Answer the following questions based on it.
a) What is the name given to similar chromosomes?
Ans. Autosomes
b) By what name dissimilar chromosomes are known?
Ans. Sex chromosomes
c) How sex chromosome of females is represented?
Ans. XX
d) How male sex chromosomes are represented?
Ans. XY
e) What will happen if X chromosome of female fuses with Y chromosome of male?
Ans. Resulting baby will be a boy.
59
 LIGHT REFLECTION AND REFRACTION
1. Why does the Sun appear white at noon?
Ans. All colours scatter least.
2. You are given water, mustard oil, glycerine and kerosene. In which of these media a ray of light
incident obliquely at same angle would bend the most?
(a) Kerosene
(b) Water
(c) Mustard oil
(d) Glycerine
3. Both a spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens have a focal length of (-)15 cm. What type of
mirror and lens are these?
Ans. Concave mirror and concave lens.
4. The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to be real, inverted and larger than the
object. Where is the object placed?
Ans. Between focal point and Centre of curvature.
OR
Name the part of a lens through which a ray of light passes without suffering any deviation.
Ans. Optical centre. 1
5. Which one of the following materials cannot be used to make a lens?
(a) Water
(b) Glass
(c) Plastic
(d) Clay
6. The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to be virtual, erect and larger than the object.
Where should be the position of the object?
(a) Between the principal focus and the centre of curvature
(b) At the centre of curvature
(c) Beyond the centre of curvature
(d) Between the pole of the mirror and its principal focus.
7. Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens to get a real image of the
size of the object?
(a) At the principal focus of the lens
(b) At twice the focal length
(c) At infinity
(d) Between the optical centre of the lens and its principal focus.
8. A spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens have each a focal length of –15 cm. The
mirror and the lens are likely to be
(a) both concave.
(b) both convex.
(c) the mirror is concave and the lens is convex.
(d) the mirror is convex, but the lens is concave.
9. No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror
is likely to be
60
(a) plane.
(b) concave.
(c) convex.
(d) either plane or convex.
10. Which of the following lenses would you prefer to use while reading small letters
found in a dictionary?
(a) A convex lens of focal length 50 cm.
(b) A concave lens of focal length 50 cm.
(c) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm.
(d) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm.
11. Read the following and answer any four questions out of five.
Sumati wanted to see the stars of the night sky. She knows that she needs a telescope to see those
distant stars. She finds out that the telescopes, which are made of lenses, are called refracting
telescopes and the ones which are made of mirrors are called reflecting telescopes.

So she decided to make a refracting telescope. She bought two lenses, L1 and L2. out of which L1 was
bigger and L2 was smaller. The larger lens gathers and bends the light, while the smaller lens
magnifies the image. Big, thick lenses are more powerful. So to see far away, she needed a big
powerful lens. Unfortunately, she realized that a big lens is very heavy. Heavy lenses are hard to
make and difficult to hold in the right place. Also since the light is passing through the lens, the
surface of the lens has to be extremely smooth. Any flaws in the lens will change the image. It
would be like looking through a dirty window.
(i) Based on the diagram shown, what kind of lenses would Sumati need to make the telescope?
a. Concave lenses
b. Convex lenses
c. Bifocal lenses
d. Flat lenses
(ii) If the powers of the lenses L1 and L2 are in the ratio of 4:1, what would be the ratio of the focal
length of L1 and L2?
a. 4:1
b. 1:4
c. 2:1
d. 1:1

61
(iii) What is the formula for magnification obtained with a lens?
a. Ratio of height of image to height of object
b. Double the focal length.
c. Inverse of the radius of curvature.
d. Inverse of the object distance.
(iv) Sumati did some preliminary experiment with the lenses and found out that the magnification of
the eyepiece (L2) is 3. If in her experiment with L2 she found an image at 24 cm from the lens, at
what distance did she put the object?
a. 72 cm
b. 12 cm
c. 8 cm
d. 6 cm
12. Why is convex mirror used for rear view in automobile? Explain using ray diagrams.
Ans. It has wider field view.

62
 HUMAN EYE AND THE COLOURFUL WORLD

1. Explain why the planets do not twinkle.

Answer: -Planets are much closer to the earth so not much refraction occurs. Therefore, planets appear
equally bright and there is no twinkling of planets.
2. The least distance of distinct vision for a healthy eye is about
a. 50 cm
b. 25 m
c. 25 cm
d. 50 m
Answer: -c. 25 cm
3. Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric
(a) dispersion of light by water droplets
(b) refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices
(c) scattering of light by dust particles
(d) internal reflection of light by clouds
Answer: - (b) refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices.
4. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the propagation of light of different
colours of white light in air?
(a) Red light moves fastest
(b) Blue light moves faster than green light
(c) All the colours of the white light move with the same speed
(d) Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that of the red and the violet light
Answer: - (c) All the colours of the white light move with the same speed
5. What is meant by scattering of light?
Answer: -Change of direction of light on striking is called scattering.
6. What is dispersion of light?
Answer: - The phenomenon of splitting white light into seven colours when it passes through a glass
prism is called dispersion of light.
7. What will be the colour of the sky, when it is observed from a place in the absence of any
atmosphere? Why?
Answer: -Sky appears dark. In the absence of atmosphere, there would have been no scattering of
sunlight at all.
8. Give an example of optical phenomena which occurs in nature due to atmospheric refraction.
Answer: -Twinkling of stars.
9. Name the type of particles which acts as a prism in the formation of rainbow in the sky.
Answer: -Water droplets present in the atmosphere.
10. Give reasons:
(i) The extent of deviation of a ray of light on passing through a glass prism depends on its colour.
(ii) Lights of red colour are used for danger signals.

Answer: -

63
a. Refractive index of a medium is different for different colours of light.
b. Due to large wavelength, red colour is least scattered and travel to large distance.

11. Which of the following phenomenon contributes significantly to the reddish appearance of the
sun at sunrise or sunset?
(a) Dispersion of light
(b) Scattering of light
(c) Total internal Reflection
(d) Reflection of light from the earth
Answer: - (b) Scattering of light
12. State one effect produced by the scattering of light by the atmosphere?
Answer: -Tyndall effect.
13. What is a spectrum?
Answer: -The band of seven colors obtained by dispersion of white light is called spectrum.
14. A person having a myopic eye used the concave lens of focal length 50cm. What is the power of
the lens?
1
Answer: -The formula for the power of lens is Power 𝑃 = 𝑓 .
100
P= = 2 D.
50

64
 ELECTRICITY

FOR SLOW LEARNER:

1. The maximum resistance which can be made using four resistors each of 2  is
(a) 2  (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16

ANS: 8
2. A student plots V-I graphs for three samples of nichrome wire with resistances R1 , R2 and R3
. Choose from the following the statement that holds true for this graph.

(a) R1 = R2 = R3 (b) R1 > R2 > R3 (c) R3 > R2 > R1 (d) R2 > R1 >
R3
ANS: (d) R2 > R1 > R3

3. Two resistors of resistance 2 Ω and 4 Ω when connected to a battery will have

(a) Same current flowing through them when connected in parallel
(b) Same current flowing through them when connected in series
(c) Same potential difference across them when connected in series
(d) Different potential difference across them when connected in parallel
Ans:(b) Same current flowing through them when connected in series

4. Electric current is measured by

a) A voltmeter
b) An ammeter
c) A rheostat
d) A potentiometer
Ans: b) An ammeter

5. What is the maximum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of 1/5 Ω?
(a) 1/5 Ω (b) 10 Ω (c) 5 Ω (d) 1 Ω
Ans: (d) 1 Ω

6. The resistivity does not change if

(a) The material is changed (b) The temperature is changed
(c) The shape of the resistor is changed (d) Both material and temperature are
changed
Ans: (c) The shape of the resistor is change
Assertion and reasoning questions
The following three questions consists of two statements –ASSERTION(A) and REASON (R)
65
answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true.
7. Assertion (A): If a graph is plotted between potential difference and current a linear graph is
obtained.
Reason(R): current is directly proportional to the potential difference.
Ans: a
8. Assertion (A): A cell converts chemical energy into electrical energy.
Reason(R): A cell maintains a potential difference across its terminals due to chemical reactions.
Ans:b
9. Why are heating elements made of alloys rather than metals?
Ans: High resistivity, does not oxidise at high temperatures
10. What happens to resistance of a conductor if area of cross-section is doubled?
Ans: It halves
11. Which device helps to maintain a potential difference across a conductor?
Ans: Cell or battery
12. a) State Ohms law. Give the graphical relation between V & I.
b) An electric oven rated at 500W is connected to a 220V line and used for 2 hours daily.
Calculate the cost of electric energy per month at the rate of Rs.5 per KWh.
Ans. a) Ohms law state that current flowing in a conductor is directly proportional to the applied
potential provided that temperature and physical conditions remains same.
b) Energy consumed per day = 1 KWh (P x t) cost for 30 days = 1 X 5 X 30 = Rs.150.00
13. If three resistors of 6Ω, 9Ω and 21Ω are connected in series to a 12V battery, find
a) The total resistance of the circuit.
b) The current flowing through the circuit.
c) The potential difference across the 21 Ω resistor.
Ans. a) 36 Ω b) 0.33A c) 6.93V
14. What are the advantages of connecting electrical devices in parallel with the battery rather
than in series?
Ans:
i. The current required by each device is different which is possible only in parallel.
ii. Potential difference is constant for all devices.
iii. Total resistance in the circuit is decreased
15. Define the term electrical resistivity of a material.
ANS: Resistance of material / conductor whose area of cross section is 1m2 and length 1 meter
16. Consider the scale of a voltmeter shown in the diagram and answer the following questions:
(a) What is the least count of the voltmeter?
(b) What is the reading shown by the voltmeter?
(c) If this voltmeter is connected across a resistor of 20 , how much current is flowing through the
resistor?
Ans:
66
a) 0.15V is the least count
b) The reading shown is 1.8V
𝑉 1.8
c) R=20Ω V=1.8V 𝑖 = 𝑅 = = 0.9𝐴
20
17. Show how would you join three resistors, each of resistance 9  so that the equivalent
resistance of the combination is (i) 13.5  (ii) 6 ?
ANS:

67
 18. How does use of fuse wire protect electrical appliances?
Ans. When large amount of current flows through the circuit, temperature of the wire increases and fuse
wire gets melted. This in term prevent the flow of current in the other circuits of the house and
thus saved electrical appliance
19. alculate the resistance of an electric bulb which allows a 10A current when connected to a
220V power source?

Ans: I=10A, V=220V

R= = =22 ohm
20. What do the following symbols represent in a circuit?
Write the name and one function of each?

(a)

(b)

Ans: (a) It represents a battery which maintains a potential difference across the circuit element for the
flow of current in the circuit.
(b) It is an ammeter which measures the current flowing in the circuit.
21. Define the term “volt”?
Ans: The potential difference between two points A and B is said to be one volt if 1 joule of work is done
to move 1 coulomb of charge from one point to another point in an electric field.
22. Alloys are used in electrical heating devices rather than pure metals. Give reason.
Ans: Alloys are used in electricity heating devices rather than pure metals because Resistivity of an alloy
is more and hence more heat is produced in any alloy. Moreover, alloy does not burn (or oxidize
easily at higher temperature).
23. What does an electric circuit mean?
Ans. An electric circuit is a continuous and closed path of an electric current. If the electric circuit
complete, current can flow through the circuit.
24. Define the unit of current.
Ans. SI unit of electric current is Ampere. Current is said to be 1 ampere, if 1 coulomb charge flows per
second across a cross-section of conductor.
25. How is a voltmeter connected in the circuit to measure the potential difference between two
points?
Ans. A voltmeter is always connected in parallel to resistance across the point between which the
potential difference is to be measured
26. Which has more resistance: 100W bulb or 60W bulb?
Ans. As Rα 1/P. Thus, the resistance of 60W bulb is more.
27. (a) Write Joule’s law of heating.

68
 (b) Two lamps, one rated 100 W; 220 V, and the other 60 W; 220 V, are connected in parallel
to electric mains supply. Find the current drawn by two bulbs from the line, if the supply voltage
is 220 V.
Ans: (a) Joule’s law of heating – Heat produced in a resistor is (i) directly proportional to the square of
current for a given resistance, (ii) directly proportional to the resistance for a given current and (iii)
directly proportional to the time for which the current flows through the resistor / H = I2Rt where,
H = Heat produced, I = current, R = Resistance of the conductor and t = Time for which the current
flows through the resistor

28. (a) List the factors on which the resistance of a conductor in the shape of a wire depends.
(b) Why are metals good conductors of electricity whereas glass is a bad conductor of
electricity? Give reason.
(c) Why are alloys commonly used in electrical heating devices? Give reason.
Ans: a. Factors on which resistance of a conductor depends:
i. Length of conductor [or R  l
ii. Area of cross-section of the conductor [or R  1/A]
b. Metals are good conductor of electricity –as they have low resistivity/ have free electrons Glass is a
bad conductor of electricity – as it has high resistivity/have no free electrons
c. Reason: Alloys have high resistivity /high melting point / alloys do not oxidize (Or burn) readily at high
temperatures.
29. The values of current (I) flowing through a given resistor of resistance (R), for the
corresponding values of potential difference (V) across the resistor are as given below:

Plot a graph between current (I) and potential difference (V) and determine the resistance (R) of the
resistor.
Ans:

69
 30. The length of different metallic wires but of same area of cross section and made of the same
material are given below

(i) Out of these two wires which wire has higher resistance.
(ii) Which wire has higher electrical Resistivity? Justify your answer.
Ans. (i) Since Rl (length of the conductor)
Since length of wire C is more than A and B therefore wire C has higher resistance.
(ii) Electrical Resistivity of a wire depends on the nature of the material and not on dimensions of a
wire hence Resistivity of all wires is same as material of all the wires is same.

31. Why are coils of electric toasters and electric irons made of an alloy rather than a pure
metal?
Ans. Coils of electric toasters and electric irons are made of an alloy due to the following reasons:
i. Resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of pure metal.
ii. At high temperature, an alloy does not oxidize readily. Hence, coil of an alloy has longer life.

32. (a) List two disadvantages of using a series circuit in homes.

(b) Calculate the effective resistance between A and B in the circuit given below:
Ans: a) Current is constant throughout the electric circuit. So it is impractical to connect an electric bulb
and a heater in series.  When one component fails, the circuit is broken and none of the
component works.
b) Resistors in series, R1 = 6 + 4 = 10 Ω
Resistors in series, R2 = 3 + 3 = 6 Ω
R3 = 15 Ω
R1, R2 and R 3 are connected in parallel So effective resistance of the circuit is given by
1 1 1 1
= + +
𝑅 10Ω 6Ω 15Ω

R=3Ω
33. (a) Derive the relation for the equivalent resistance when three resistors of resistances R1 ,
R2 and R3 are connected in parallel.
(b) Find the minimum resistance that can be made using four resistors, each of 20 .

70
ANS:Potential difference applied across each resistors is V, then current drawn from battery
𝑉
𝐼=
𝑅𝑃
Current through R1
𝑉
𝐼1 =
𝑅1
𝑉
Similarly, 𝐼2 = 𝑅
2
𝑉
𝐼3 =
𝑅3
𝐼 = 𝐼1 + 𝐼2 + 𝐼3
𝑉 𝑉 𝑉 𝑉
= + +
𝑅 𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑅3
1 1 1 1
= + +
𝑅 𝑅1 𝑅2 𝑅3
b) For minimum resistance all resistors must be connected in parallel.

34. (a) In a given ammeter, a student saw that needle indicates 12th division in ammeter while
performing an experiment to verify Ohm’s law. If ammeter has 10 divisions between 0 to 0·5
A, then what is the ammeter reading corresponding to 12th division?
(b) How do you connect an ammeter and a voltmeter in an electric circuit?

ANS: a) Least count of ammeter = 0.5/ 10 = 0.05 A Thus, value corresponding to 12 divisions = 0.05
×12 = 0.6 A
b) An ammeter is connected in series and a voltmeter is connected in parallel in an electric circuit.

35.A household uses the following electric appliances

(i) Refrigerator of rating 400w for 2 hours each day.
(ii) Two electric fans of rating 80w each for twelve hours each day.
(iii) Six electric tubes of rating 18 W each for 6 hours each day.
Calculate the electricity bill of the household for the month of June if the cost
per unit of electric energy is Rs. 3.00.
Ans. Month of June has 30 days.
i. Refrigerator of 400 W is run 2 hours each day.
Total hours it is run in 30 days = 2 × 30 = 60 h
Energy consumed in kWh is = 400 × 60/1000 = 24 kWh
ii. Two electric fans of 80 W are run 12 hours each day.
Total hours they are run in 30 days = 12 × 30 = 360 h
Energy consumed in kWh is = 2 × 80 × 360/1000 = 57.6 kWh
iii. Six electric tubes each of 18 W are run 6 hours daily.
Total hours it is run in 30 days = 6 × 30 = 180 h
Energy consumed in kWh is = 6 × 18 × 180/1000 = 19.44 kWh
Net energy consumed in the month of June is = 24 + 57.6 + 19.44 = 101.04 kWh
Thus, the electric bill is = 3 × 101.04 = Rs 303.12.

71
 MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

1. Name the scientist who discovered the magnetic effect of current.

Answer: Oersted
2. State any two properties of magnetic field lines.
Answer: 1. The magnetic field lines originate from the north pole of a magnet and end at its south
pole.
2. The magnetic field lines do not intersect (or cross) one another.
3. Why does a compass needle get deflected when brought near a bar magnet?
Answer: A compass needle gets deflected when brought near a bar magnet because the bar magnet
exerts a magnetic force on the compass needle, which is itself a tiny pivoted magnet (free to
move in the horizontal plane).
4. The magnetic field lines produced by a bar magnet:
(a) originate from the south pole and end at its north pole
(b) originate from the north pole and end at its east pole
(c) originate from the north pole and end at its south pole
(d) originate from the south pole and end at its west pole
Answer: (c) originate from the north pole and end at its south pole
5. Fill in the following blanks with suitable words-
(a) Magnetic field lines leave the..........pole of a bar magnet and enter at its........pole.
(b) The earth’s magnetic field is rather like that of a ......... magnet with its........pole in the northern
hemisphere.
(c) A motor is a device which converts ………..energy into ………. Energy.
(d) A device which reverses the direction of current through a circuit is called a …………………
Answer: (a)North, South
(b) Bar, North
(c) electrical, mechanical
(d)commutator (or split ring).
6. The north pole of earth’s magnet is in the:
(a) geographical south
(b) geographical east
(c) geographical west
(d) geographical north
Answer: (d) geographical north
7. A magnet attracts: (a) plastics (b) any metal (c) aluminium (d) iron and
steel
Answer: (b) any metal
8. The most suitable material for making the core of an electromagnet is:
(a) soft iron (b) brass (c) aluminium (d) steel
Answer: (a) soft iron

Short Answer Type Questions:

1. Draw a diagram to show the magnetic field lines around a bar magnet.
72
Answer:

2. What is a magnetic field? How can the direction of magnetic field lines at a place be determined?
Answer: The space surrounding a magnet in which magnetic force is exerted, is called a magnetic field.
The magnetic field has both, magnitude as well as direction.
The direction of magnetic field at a point is the direction of the resultant force acting on a hypothetical
north pole placed at that point which is traced with the help of magnetic compass.
3. Define Fleming’s Left Hand Rule.
Answer: According to Fleming’s left-hand rule: Hold the forefinger, the centre finger and the thumb of
your left hand at right angles to one another [as shown in Figure]. Adjust your hand in such a way
that the forefinger points in the direction of magnetic field and the centre finger points in the
direction of current, then the direction in which thumb points, gives the direction of force acting
on the conductor.

4. What conclusion do you get from the observation that a current-carrying wire deflects a compass
needle placed near it?
Answer: The conclusion that is drawn by observing a current-carrying wire that deflects a compass
needle is that there is a production of magnetic field around the needle.
5. What is the working principle of Electric motor? Name some of the devices in which electric
motors are used.
Answer: A motor works on the principle that when a rectangular coil is placed in a magnetic field and
current is passed through it, a force acts on the coil which rotates it continuously.
Electric fan, electric car, mixer and grinder, refrigerator etc.

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 6. Assertion (A): Every magnet has two poles–North and South.
Reason (R): Like poles repel each other.
(a) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
(b) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: (c) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
7. Name the physical quantities which are indicated by the direction of thumb and forefinger in the
Fleming’s right hand rule?
Answer: In Fleming’s right hand rule,
thumb indicates — direction of motion of the conductor; forefinger indicates — direction of
magnetic field.
8. Two circular coils A and B are placed close to each other. If the current in the coil A is changed,
will some current be induced in the coil B? Give reason.
Answer: Yes, when a current in coil A changes, magnetic field lines linked with coil B also change.
Hence, due to change in number of magnetic field lines, there is an induced current in coil B.
9. Write any one method to induce current in a coil.
Answer:
A current is induced in a coil when it is moved (or rotated) relative to a fixed
magnet.

Long Answer Type Question:

1. Explain why, two magnetic field lines do not intersect each other.
Answer: Two magnetic field lines do not intersect each other due to the fact that the resultant force on a
north pole at any point can be only in one direction. But if the two magnetic lines get intersect one
another. this means that resultant force on a north place at the point of intersecting will be along two
directions, which is not possible.

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 2. (a) What is a solenoid? Draw a sketch to show the magnetic field pattern produced by a current-
carrying solenoid.
(b) Name the type of magnet with which the magnetic field pattern of a current-carrying solenoid
resembles.
Answer: (a)A long cylindrical coil of insulated copper wire having large number of circular turns is
called Solenoid. And when a current passed through a solenoid. it produces magnetic field
around it. The magnetic field pattern produced by a current carrying Solenoid is similar to the
magnetic field produced by a bar magnet.

(b) Bar magnet.

3. (a) Explain why, an electromagnet is called a temporary magnet.
(b) Explain why, the core of an electromagnet should be of soft iron and not of steel.
Answer: (a) An electromagnet is called a temporary magnet because it produces magnetic field so long as
current flows in its coil. It means it acts as a magnet as long as there is current in the coil since soft iron
core loses all of its magnetism when current in the coil is switched off.
(b) Core of an electromagnet should be of soft iron and not of steel because soft iron loses all its
magnetism when current in the coil is switched off but steel does not lose its magnetism when the
current is stopped and it becomes a permanent magnet.

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 OUR ENVIRONMENT
One Mark Questions
1. What is trophic level?
Ans. Various levels or steps in a food chain in which transfer of food takes place from one
organism to another is called trophic levels.
2. Write a fresh water food chain?
Ans. Phytoplankton zooplankton small fish large fish
3. What is acid rain?
Ans. Oxides of Sulphur and nitrogen when dissolves in rain water form sulphuric acid and
nitrous acid or nitric acid. The polluted rain with this acid is called acid rain.
4. Name the organisms occupying the second tropic level of food chains?
Ans. Primary consumers are always at the second trophic level.
5. What are the various steps of food chains called?
Ans. Trophic levels
6. Which one is not biodegradable: paper, plastic, sewage?
Ans. Plastic
7. Using Kulhads as disposable cups to serve tea in trains, proved to be a bad idea.
Why?
Ans. Making Kulhads on large scales leads to the loss of top soil.
8. Ozone layer is damaged by-
(a) methane
(b) carbon-dioxide
(c) Sulphur-dioxide
(d) CFCs
Ans. CFC’s
9. The ecosystem of earth is known as-
(A) biome
(B) community
(C) biosphere
(D) association
Ans. Biosphere
10. Which of the following constitute a food chain?
(A) Grass, goat and human
(B) Goat, cow and elephant
(C) Grass fish and goat
(D) Grass, wheat and mango Ans. Grass, goat, human
11. In natural ecosystems, decomposers include-
(a) only bacteria and fungi
(b) only microscopic animals
(c) herbivores and carnivores
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. Only bacteria and fungi
12. All living organisms of the earth constitute a-
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(a) biosphere
(b) biotic community
(c) biome
(d) ecosystem
Ans. Biosphere
13. Which of the following groups contain only biodegradable items?
(a) Grass, flowers and leather
(b) Grass, wood and plastic
(c) Fruit peels, cake and lime-juice
(d) Cake, wood and grass
Ans. Groups (a), (c) and (d).
14. Which of the following are environment-friendly practices?
(a) Carrying cloth-bag to put purchases in while shopping.
(b) Switching off unnecessary lights and fans.
(c) Walking to school instead of getting your mother to drop you on her scooter.
(d) All of the above.
Ans. (d) All of the above.
15. The decomposers in an ecosystem-
(a) convert organic material to inorganic forms
(b) convert inorganic material to simpler forms
(c) convert inorganic material into organic compound
(d) do not break down organic compound
Ans. Convert organic material to inorganic forms.
16. Name the process that is a direct outcome of excessive burning of fossil fuels?
Ans. Global warming is a direct outcome of excessive burning of fossil fuels.
17. Write a food chain having five steps.

One-mark questions (Assertion & reasoning)

Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false.
1. Assertion: Ozone in stratosphere is called good ozone.
Reason: This ozone absorbs UV-radiation coming from sun, thus act as shield.
Ans. a
2. Assertion: Pyramid of energy is always upright.
Reason: Energy flow is unidirectional and some energy is always lost as heat at each step.
Ans.a
3. Assertion: Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels is called stratification.

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 Reason: Tree occupy top vertical strata of forest.
Ans.a
4. Assertion: The energy pyramid is always upright.
Reason: Some energy is always lost as heat at each step when energy flows from a particular
trophic level to the next trophic level.
Ans.b
5. Assertion: Integrated organic farming is cyclical zero waste procedure.
Reason: In integrated organic farming waste product from one process is cycled as nutrients for
other process.
Ans.a
Two Mark Questions

1. What is meant by environment? Name its components.

Ans. The aggregate of all external conditions and their influences affecting the life and the
development of an organism in its natural habitat is environment. It has two components-
(1) Abiotic components (non-living): For example- air, water, soil, temperature, etc.
(2) Biotic components (living): For example- Plant, animals and micro-organisms.
2. What is 10% law? Give an example
Ans. According to 10% law only 10% of energy is available at the next trophic level. For
example- If energy available at producer level is 1000J then at next level only 10% of 1000J
i.e.100J is available.
3. What is artificial ecosystem? Give two examples.
Ans. Man-made ecosystem are called artificial ecosystem. For example- Garden, Aquarium.
4. Differentiate between abiotic and biotic components of ecosystem.
Ans.

5. Give any two methods reducing the problem of waste disposal.

Ans. (a) Use of recycled material.
(b) Separation of biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste during disposal.

6. What is ozone and how does it affect any ecosystem?

Ans. Ozone is a form of oxygen. It has the molecular formula. It is present at a higher
level in the atmosphere. It protects the ecosystem from the harmful effects of ultraviolet rays coming
from the Sun. UV rays may cause skin cancer, cataract to us.
7. Give the correct sequence of various & trophic levels in a food chain.

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 Three-mark Questions
1. Describe how ozone layer is formed?
Ans. Formation of the ozone layer-
(a) During the origin of life Earth, some of underwater micro-organisms were to
photosynthesize due to molecular oxygen
was released in atmosphere.
(b) This oxygen is released to stratosphere where it began to react with ultraviolet radiations from
sun to form free oxygen (O).
(c) Free oxygen combines with molecular oxygen O2 to form O3
2. What are the components of an ecosystem? Explain with examples
Ans. An ecosystem has two major components-
(1) Biotic components- It includes producers (plants), consumers (animals) and decomposers
(bacteria and fungi).
(a) Producers- Organisms which are able to photosynthesis are called producers. It includes all
green plants.
(b) Consumers- Organisms which depends upon other are called consumers. It is of few
types-
(i) Herbivores- Animals which directly depends upon plants.
(ii) Carnivores- These animals eat herbivores.
3. Write any three activities which are eco-friendly.
Ans. (a) Making the compost of biodegradable wastes by burying them under soil.
(b) Use of cloth bags instead of polythene bags.
(c) Using CNG in vehicles instead of petrol or diesel.
4. What is the difference between food chain and food web?

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 5. Write any three activities which are eco-friendly.
Ans. (a) Making the compost of biodegradable wastes by burying them under soil.
(b) Use of cloth bags instead of polythene bags.
(c) Using CNG in vehicles instead of petrol or diesel.
6. "Energy flow in a food chain is unidirectional" Justify this statement. Explain how
the pesticides enter a food chain and subsequently get into our body.
Ans: The flow of energy in the ecosystem is said to be unidirectional because the energy lost as heat
from the living organisms of a food chain cannot be reused by plants in photosynthesis. Pesticides
are non-biodegradable wastes which pass along the food chain from crops to man or other animals
and birds and harm them
7. Why is it necessary to conserve our environment?
Ans. It is necessary to conserve our environment because
(i) It helps in protecting the ozone layer.
(ii) It helps in maintaining animal and human food chains.
(iii) It provides us with many useful products such as medicines and wood.
8. State the importance of green and blue dust-bins in the safe disposal of the
household waste.
Ans. Disposal of household waste is carried out in green and blue bins, respectively. It will be very useful
in the separate disposal of biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes. This will also ensure the
application of 3Rs—reduce, reuse and recycle.

9. What are the harmful effects of acid rain?

Ans. (1) Acid rain makes the soil acidic which affects the growth of trees and cereal crops badly.
(2) It makes the water of lakes, ponds, etc acidic which affects the growth of aquatic plants and
animals.
(3) Bacteria useful for maintaining soil fertility are killed.
10. What are the ill effects of ozone layer depletion?
Ans. Ill effect of ozone depletion.
(a) It causes skin cancer.
(b) Eye diseases like cataracts.
(c) Suppression of the immune system.
Five Mark Questions

1. What are the components of an ecosystem? Explain with examples

Ans. An ecosystem has two major components-
(1) Biotic components- It includes producers (plants), consumers (animals) and decomposers
(bacteria and fungi).
(a) Producers- Organisms which are able to photosynthesis are called producers. It includes
all green plants.
(b) Consumers- Organisms which depends upon other are called consumers. It is of few
types-
(i) Herbivores- Animals which directly depends upon plants.
(ii) Carnivores- These animals eat herbivores.
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 (iii) Secondary carnivores- Animals which depends upon carnivores.
(iv) Tertiary carnivores- Largest animals which depends upon secondary carnivores.
(c) Decomposers- These organisms depend upon dead plants and animals. They change
complex organic substances into simple inorganic substances.
(2) Abiotic components- Non-living components. It includes physical and chemical factors
such as light, water, soil, air temperature, oxygen, carbon, nitrogen and other nutrients.
2. How Garbage pollution can be controlled?
Ans. Pollution of garbage can be controlled by-
(a) Recycling of certain wastes products like plastic and paper.
(b) Making use of biodegradable products as much as we can.
(c) Producing biogas from the organic wastes.
(d) Separation of biodegradable and non-bio-degradable waste during disposal.
(e) Making the compost of biodegradable wastes by burying them under soil.
3. What is the significance of food chains?
Ans. Significance of food chain
(a) It is a means of transfer of food from one trophic level to another.
(b) It provides information about the living component of an ecosystem.
(c) It helps us in understanding the interactions and interdependence amongst different
organism in an ecosystem.
(d) It is a pathway for the flow of energy in any ecosystem.

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