Practice Questions

- Aishwaria Vijayvergia
Q: Input, output and processing devices grouped together represent a(n) ?
(a) mobile device
(b) information processing cycle
(c) circuit board
(d) computer system

Q: Collecting the data and converting it into information is called

(a) Processing
(b) Compiling
(c) Importing
(d) Exporting
(e) None of these
Q: The steps and tasks needed to process data, such as responses to questions or clicking an
icon, are called
(a) Instructions
(b) The operating system
(c) Application software
(d) The system unit
(e) The hardware unit

Q: Which among the following cycle consists of an input, processing, output and storage as
its constituents?
(a) Processing
(b) Output
(c) Input
(d) Storage
(e) Data
Q: A collection of unprocessed items is
(a) Information
(b) Data
(c) Memory
(d) Reports
(e) None of these

Q: Abacus can perform

(a) Addition
(b) Subtraction
(c) Multiplication
(d) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’
Q: Which of the following is known as father of computer?
(a) Dennis Ritchie
(b) Napier
(c) Charles Babbage
(d) Alan Turing

Q: The Analytical Engine developed during first generation of computers used .........
as a memory unit.
(a) RAM
(b) Floppies
(c) Cards
(d) counter wheels
(e) None of these
Q: Tabulating machine was the first electromechanical machine developed by
(a) Herman Hollerith
(b) Howard Aiken
(c) Blaise Pascal
(d) John Napier

Q: The first computer which provides storage is

(a) EDSAC
(b) EDVAC
(c) MARK-I
(d) ACE
Q: First generation computers used .........languages.
(a) Machine
(b) Assembly
(c) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’
(d) high level
(e) None of these

Q: The first computer which provides storage is

(a) EDSAC
(b) EDVAC
(c) MARK-I
(d) ACE
Q: Time sharing became possible in ......... generation of computers.
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
(e) None of these

Q: Integrated Chips or IC’s were started to be use from which generation of computers?
(a) 1st Generation
(b) 2nd Generation
(c) 3rd Generation
(d) 4th Generation
(e) 5th Generation
Q: A complete electronic circuit with transistors and other electronic components
on a small silicon chip is called a(n)
(a) Workstation
(b) CPU
(c) Magnetic disc
(d) Integrated circuit
(e) Complex circuit

Q: Microcomputer hardware consists of three basic categories of physical equipmen

(a) keyboard, monitor, hard drive
(b) system unit, input/output, memory
(c) system unit, input/output, secondary storage
(d) system unit, primary storage, secondary storage
Q: Which of the following options correctly expresses the meaning of the term ‘PCs’?
(a) Independent computers for all working staff
(b) Personal computers widely available to individual workers with which they can access information
from layer systems and increase their personal productivity
(c) Packed computers system formed by joining together of various computer terminals
(d) Computer manufactured by the Pentium Company
(e) None of the above

Q: Which of the following is a small microprocessor-based computer designed to be used by one

person at a time?
(a) Netbook
(b) Supercomputer
(c) All-in-one
(d) Notebook
(e) Personal computer
Q: Which computer is used for Computer Aided Design (CAD) calculations?
(a) Minicomputer
(b) Mainframe computer
(c) Supercomputer
(d) Microcomputer

Q: Which of the following is generally costlier?

(a) Server
(b) Notebook computer
(c) Personal computer
(d) Laptop computer
(e) Mainframe
Q: The user generally applies ......... to access mainframe or supercomputer.
(a) Terminal
(b) Node
(c) Desktop
(d) Handheld

Q: First supercomputer developed in India is

(a) PARAM
(b) CRAY-1
(c) PARAM ISHAN
(d) EPRAM
Q: Pratyush is …… fastest supercomputer in the world.
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth

Q: A hybrid computer is the one having the combined properties of

(a) Super and microcomputers
(b) Mini and microcomputers
(c) Analog and digital computers
(d) Super and mini computers
(e) None of the above
Q: Which of the following is the smallest and fastest computer imitating brain
working?
(a) Supercomputer
(b) Quantum computer
(c) Param-10000
(d) IBM chips
(e) None of these

Q: It is the science that attempts to produce machines that display the same type of
intelligence that humans do
(a) Nano science
(b) Nano technology
(c) Simulation
(d) Artificial Intelligence (AI)
Q: The basic function (s) performed by computer is/are
(1) data processing
(2) data storage
(3) data movement
(4) data control
(5) All of these

Q: ............. forms the backbone for building successful computer system.

(1) Computer architecture
(2) Computer model
(3) Computer instructions
(4) None of the above
Q: Which circuit board is used in all electronic systems such as computer, calculators,
digital system?
(1) Architecture
(2) Printer
(3) Value
(4) Register

Q: The system unit

(1) coordinates input and output devices
(2) is the container that houses electronic components
(3) is a combination of hardware and software
(4) controls and manipulates data
Q: Which of the following is metal or plastic case that holds all the physical parts of
the computer?
(1) System unit
(2) CPU
(3) Mainframe
(4) Platform
(5) Microprocessor

Q: The components that process data are located in which of the following?
(1) Input devices
(2) Output devices
(3) System unit
(4) Storage component
(5) Expansion board
Q: Which of the following is not responsible for the performance of the computer?
(1) number of keys in the keyboard
(2) format of the video/graphics word
(3) memory in the video/graphics word
(4) the clock speed of the processor
(5) number of cores available in the processor

Q: Information that comes from external source and fed into computer software is
called.
(1) Output
(2) Input
(3) Throughout
(4) Reports
(5) Process
Q: This component is required to process data into information and consists of
integrated circuits.
(1) Hard disk
(2) RAM
(3) CPU
(4) ROM
(5) None of these

Q: The main job of a CPU is to

(1) carry out program instructions
(2) store data/information for further use
(3) process data and information
(4) Both 1 and 3
Q: What is the responsibility of the logical unit in the CPU of a computer ?
(1) To produce result
(2) To compare numbers
(3) To control flow of information
(4) To do Maths work
(5) None of the above

Q: Which among the following is a small set of data holding place that is a part of
the computer processor and may hold an instruction, a storage address, or any kind
of data?
(1) Register
(2) WAN
(3) Bus
(4) Address
(5) Processor
Q: Which unit is a combinational digital electronic circuit that performs arithmetic
and bitwise operations on integer binary numbers?
(1) BOU
(2) AEU
(3) CPU
(4) ALU
(5) UPS

Q: The CPU and memory are located in which of the following devices?
(1) Motherboard
(2) Expansion board
(3) Storage device
(4) Output device
(5) System unit
Q: The main circuit board in the computer that connects the parts of the computer is
the
(1) motherboard
(2) father board
(3) match board
(4) hard drive
(5) special board

Q: The communication line between CPU, Memory and peripherals is called a

(1) bus
(2) line
(3) media
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
Q: Which computer memory is used for storing programs and data currently being
processed by the CPU?
(1) Mass memory
(2) Internal memory
(3) Non-volatile memory
(4) PROM

Q: A physical connection between the microprocessor memory and other parts of the
micro computer is known as
(1) path
(2) address bus
(3) route
(4) All of these
Q: What is the full form of DMA?
(1) Direct Memory Access
(2) Dynamic Memory Access
(3) Direct Metho Access
(4) Double Memory Access

Q: When machine instructions are being executed by a computer, the instruction

phase followed by the execution phase is referred to as
(1) program cycle
(2) machine instruction
(3) instruction cycle
(4) task cycle
Q: A device that not only provides surge protection, but also furnishes the computer
with battery backup power during a power outage is
(1) Battery strip
(2) UPS
(3) Surge strip
(4) USB
(5) Memory

Q: Pipeline strategy is called implement

(1) instruction execution
(2) instruction prefetch
(3) instruction decoding
(4) instruction manipulation
Q: A uniform interval of CPU time allocated for use in performing a task is known as
(1) real time
(2) seek time
(3) down time
(4) time slice

Q: A (n) …… device is any hardware component that allows you to enter data and
instructions into a computer?
(1) interaction
(2) input
(3) communication
(4) output
(5) terminal
Q: You can use the Tab key to
(1) move a cursor across the screen
(2) indent a paragraph
(3) move the cursor down the screen
(4) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’
(5) None of the above

Q: Which key is also known as toggle keys?

(1) Caps lock
(2) Num lock
(3) ‘1’ and ‘2’ both
(4) None of these
Q: Which is the best position for operating the mouse?
(1) Tail away from the user
(2) Tail towards the user
(3) Tail facing the right
(4) Tail facing the left
(5) None of the above

Q: In a keyboard, left-right-up-down set of keys facilitates which among the following

functions?
(1) Deleting Data or Modification
(2) Page Scrolling to view a Document
(3) Launching Start Menu
(4) Initiating Search and Help
(5) Controlling RAM or process execution
Q: Shift, Ctrl, Alt are examples of which among the following category?
(1) Modifier Keys
(2) Primary Keys
(3) Function Keys
(4) Alternate Keys
(5) Candidate Keys

Q: A joystick is primarily used to/for …… .

(1) control sound on the screen
(2) computer gaming
(3) enter text
(4) draw pictures
(5) print text
Q: Which of these is a pointing and draw device?
(1) Mouse
(2) Scanner
(3) Printer
(4) CD-ROM
(5) Keyboard

Q: First computer mouse was built by

(1) Douglas Engelbart
(2) William English
(3) Oaniel Coogher
(4) Robert Zawacki
Q: A device, which is used for making drawings, graphics and for menu selection.
(1) Keyboard
(2) Mouse
(3) Touch screen
(4) Light Pen

Q: The pattern of printed lines on most products are called

(1) prices
(2) OCR
(3) scanners
(4) barcodes
(5) None of these
Q: A........ is used to read handwritten or printed text to make a digital image that is
stored in memory.
(1) printer
(2) laser beam
(3) scanner
(4) touchpad
(5) None of these

Q: An optical input device that interprets pencil marks on paper media is ………
(1) OMR
(2) punch card reader
(3) optical scanners
(4) magnetic tapes
(5) Stylus
Q: The OCR is used for the preparation of
(1) electricity bills
(2) insurance premium
(3) telephone bills
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

Q: What does MICR stand for?

(1) Magnetic Ink Character Register
(2) Magnetic Ink Code Reader
(3) Magnetic Ink Code Register
(4) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
(5) Magnetic Ink Cases Reader
Q: Which of the following groups consists of only input devices?
(1) Mouse, Keyboard, Monitor
(2) Mouse, Keyboard, Printer
(3) Mouse, Keyboard, Plotter
(4) Mouse, Keyboard, Scanner
(5) None of the above

Q: After a picture has been taken with a digital camera and processed appropriately,
the actual print of the picture is considered as
(1) data
(2) output
(3) input
(4) the process
Q: Which among the following is the smallest unit in an image in a computer screen?
(1) Unit
(2) Pixel
(3) Array
(4) Resolution
(5) Clip

Q: The higher the resolution of a monitor, the

(1) larger the pixels
(2) less clear the screen is
(3) further apart the pixels
(4) closer together the pixels
(5) None of the above
Q: Speed of line printer is limited by the speed of
(1) paper movements
(2) cartridge used
(3) length of paper
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

Q: Dot matrix printer is

(1) unidirectional
(2) bi-directional
(3) sequential
(4) random
Q: Line printer speed is specified in terms of
(1) LPM (Lines Per Minute)
(2) CPM (Characters Per Minute)
(3) DPM
(4) Any of the above
(5) None of the above

Q: In laser printers, printing is achieved by deflecting laser beam on to …… surface

of a drum.
(1) magnetised
(2) photosensitive
(3) magnetic
(4) Either ‘1’ or ‘2’
(5) None of these
Q: The transfer of data from a CPU to peripheral devices of computer is achieved
through
(1) interfaces
(2) buffer memory
(3) modems
(4) I/O ports

Q: USB in data cables stands for

(1) Unicode Smart Bus
(2) Universal Structural Bus
(3) Unicode Serial Bus
(4) Universal Smart Bus
(5) Universal Serial Bus
Q: …… can interpret voice data into words that can be understood by the computer.
(1) Speech input hardware
(2) Speech recognition software
(3) Word recognition software
(4) Talking software
(5) Other than those given as options

Q: Input devices are used to provide the steps and tasks the computer needs to
process data and these steps and tasks are called
(1) program
(2) design
(3) information
(4) instructions
(5) flow chart
Q: The …… format reduces an audio file to about one-tenth of its original size, while
preserving much of the original quality of the sound.
(1) DOC
(2) PNG
(3) GIF
(4) MP3
(5) VMEG

Q: How many types of memory does a computer have?

(1) Four
(2) Eight
(3) One
(4) Two
Q: The key feature(s) of internal memory is/are
(1) limited storage capacity
(2) temporary storage
(3) fast access and high cost
(4) All of the above

Q: Which memory is used as temporary memory?

(1) Non-volatile memory
(2) Volatile memory
(3) Hard disk memory
(4) Read only memory
Q: Which of the following is a correct definition of volatile memory?
(1) It does retain its contents at high temperatures
(2) It is to be kept in air-tight boxes
(3) It loses its contents on failure of power supply
(4) It does not lose its contents on failure of power supply

Q: Cache and main memory will not be able to hold their contents when the power is
OFF. They are
(1) dynamic
(2) static
(3) volatile
(4) non-volatile
(5) Faulty
Q: Which of the following is not an access mode?
(1) Random
(2) Sequential
(3) Continuous
(4) Direct

Q: ……memory in a computer is where information is temporarily stored while it is

being accessed or worked on by the processor.
(1) Logical
(2) Secondary
(3) ROM
(4) RAM
(5) Cache
Q: Why RAM is so called?
(1) Because it is read and write memory
(2) Because it is a volatile memory
(3) Because it can be selected directly for storing and retrieving data and instructions
of any location of chip
(4) Because it is a non-volatile memory
(5) None of the above

Q: Which of the following is not true about RAM?

(1) RAM is the same as hard disk storage
(2) RAM is a temporary storage area
(3) RAM is volatile
(4) RAM is a primary memory
(5) Other than those given as options
Q: Virtual memory allocates hard disk space to supplement the immediate, functional
memory capacity of
(1) ROM
(2) EPROM
(3) The registers
(4) Extended memory
(5) RAM

Q: Storage that retains its data after the power is turned OFF is referred to as
(1) volatile storage
(2) non-volatile storage
(3) sequential storage
(4) direct storage
(5) None of these
Q: A disc’s content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be
changed or erased by the user is
(1) memory only
(2) write only
(3) once only
(4) run only
(5) read only

Q: When you first turn on a computer, the CPU is preset to execute instructions
stored in the
(1) RAM
(2) flash memory
(3) ROM
(4) CD-ROM
(5) ALU
Q: Permanent instructions that the computer use when it is turned ON and that
cannot be changed by other instructions are contained in
(1) ROM
(2) RAM
(3) ALU
(4) SRAM

Q: ………is the ability of a device to ‘jump’ directly to the requested data.

(1) Sequential access
(2) Random access
(3) Quick access
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above
Q: The difference between memory and storage is that memory is …… and storage is
……… .
(1) temporary; permanent
(2) permanent; temporary
(3) slow; fast
(4) non-volatile; volatile
(5) None of the above

Q: Which of the following is the high speed memory which compensates the gap in
speeds of processor and main memory?
(1) Cache
(2) PROM
(3) EPROM
(4) SRAM
(5) None of these
Q: Which of the following statements is/are true?
(1) Cache memories are bigger than RAM
(2) Cache memories are smaller than RAM
(3) ROM are faster than RAM
(4) Information in ROM can be written by users
(5) None of the above

Q: What is the main folder on a storage device?

(1) Root directory
(2) Interface
(3) Device driver
(4) Platform
(5) Main directory
Q: The ……… is the amount of data that a storage device can move from the storage
to the computer per second.
(1) data migration rate
(2) data digitising rate
(3) data transfer rate
(4) data access rate
(5) None of the above

Q: Virtual memory is
(1) an extremely large main memory
(2) an extremely large secondary memory
(3) an illusion of extremely large main memory
(4) a type of memory used in super computers
(5) None of the above
Q: Which of the following computer’s memory is characterised by low cost per bit
stored?
(1) primary
(2) secondary
(3) hard disk
(4) All of these

Q: Where do you save the data that, your data will remain intact even when the
computer is turned OFF?
(1) RAM
(2) Motherboard
(3) Secondary storage device
(4) Primary storage device
Q: The term ……… refers to data storage systems that make it possible for a
computer or electronic device to store and retrieve data.
(1) retrieval technology
(2) input technology
(3) output technology
(4) storage technology
(5) None of these

Q: The storage device used to compensate for the difference in rates of flow of data
from one device to another is termed as
(1) chip
(2) channel
(3) floppy
(4) call
(5) Buffer
Q: The hard drive is normally located
(1) next to the printer
(2) plugged into the back of the computer
(3) underneath the monitor
(4) on top of the CD-ROM
(5) inside the system base unit

Q: The thick, rigid metal plotters that are capable of retrieving information at a high
rate of speed are known as
(1) hard disks
(2) SAN
(3) soft disks
(4) flash memory
(5) None of the above
Q: The concentric circles on the floppy disk are further divided into
(1) tracks
(2) sectors
(3) cylinders
(4) circles

Q: A track location that cuts across all platters is called a

(1) cylinder
(2) spindle
(3) diskette
(4) Platters
Q: Which of the following is/are example(s) of magnetic storage media?
(1) Zip disk
(2) CD-ROM
(3) Floppy disk
(4) DVD
(5) Both ‘1’ and ‘3’

Q: Floppy disks are organised as

(1) files
(2) heads and folders
(3) tracks and sectors
(4) All of these
(5) None of the above
Q: Which of the following has the smallest storage capacity?
(1) Zip disk
(2) Hard disk
(3) Floppy disk
(4) Data cartridge
(5) CD

Q: ......... is the process of dividing the disc into tracks and sectors.
(1) Tracking
(2) Formatting
(3) Crashing
(4) Allotting
(5) None of these
Q: Data on a floppy disk was recorded in rings called
(1) flip
(2) ringers
(3) rounders
(4) fields
(5) Segments

Q: Magnetic tape is not practical for applications where data must be quickly recalled
because tape is
(1) a random access medium
(2) a sequential access medium
(3) a read only medium
(4) fragile and easily damaged
(5) an expensive storage medium
Q: Which of the following are advantages of CD-ROM as a storage media?
(1) CD-ROM is an inexpensive way to store large amount of data and information
(2) CD-ROM discs retrieve data and information more quickly than magnetic disks
(3) CD-ROMs make less errors than magnetic media
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above

Q: Which media has the ability to have data/information stored (written) on them by
users more than once?
(1) CD-R discs
(2) CD-RW discs
(3) Zip discs
(4) Optical discs
(5) CD-RW discs and Zip discs
Q: What is the difference between a CD-ROM and CD-RW?
(1) They are the same—just two different terms used by different manufactures.
(2) A CD-ROM can be written to and a CD-RW cannot.
(3) Other than those given as options
(4) A CD-ROM holds more information than a CD-RW.
(5) A CD-RW can be written to but a CD-ROM can only be read from

Q: Which of the following is an example of optical disc?

(1) Digital versatile discs
(2) Magnetic disks
(3) Memory disks
(4) Data bus disks
(5) None of the above
Q: The size of any word/number in a computer is measured in
(1) bits
(2) bytes
(3) meter
(4) Litre

Q: A ‘bit’ refers to
(1) a form of storage
(2) a value equal to a kilobyte
(3) a value equal to a megabyte
(4) the smallest unit of digital information
(5) the same things as a pixel
Q: Instructions and memory address are represented by
(1) character code
(2) binary codes
(3) binary word
(4) parity bit
(5) None of these

Q: ……… are used to measure both computer memory (RAM) and storage capacity
of Floppy disks, CD-ROM drives and Hard drives.
(1) Bytes
(2) Bits
(3) Octal numbers
(4) Hexadecimal numbers
(5) Binary numbers
Q: Which of the following is correct sequence of smallest to largest unit of storage
size?
(1) Petabyte,Kilobyte,Megabyte,Gigabyte, Terabyte
(2) Kilobyte, Megabyte, Terabyte, Petabyte, Gigabyte
(3) Megabyte, Terabyte,Gigabyte,Kilobyte, Petabyte
(4) Kilobyte, Megabyte, Petabyte, Terabyte, Gigabyte
(5) Kilobyte,Megabyte,Gigabyte, Terabyte, Petabyte

Q: …… (HHDD) is a technology where the conventional disk drive is combined with

non-volatile flash memory, of typically 128MB or more to cache data during normal
use.
(1) Hyper Hard Disk Drive
(2) Hybrid Hard Disk Drive
(3) Hybrid Helium Disk Drive
(4) Hyper Helium Disk Drive
Q: Which of the following is the type of software that controls the internal operations
in the computer and controls how the computer works well all its parts?
(1) Shareware
(2) Public domain software
(3) Application software
(4) Operating system software
(5) None of the above

Q: ......... controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a
means by which users can interact with the computer.
(1) The operating system
(2) The motherboard
(3) The platform
(4) Application software
Q: An operating system is a/an
(1) accounting software
(2) application software
(3) system software
(4) utility software

Q: Which of the following is the correct reason to use an operating system?

(1) To manage resources
(2) To control the hardware
(3) To provide an interface between the hardware and user
(4) To make the system user friendly
(5) All of these
Q: The primary purpose of the Windows operating system is
(1) to make the most efficient use of the computer hardware
(2) to allow people to use the computer
(3) to keep systems programmers employed
(4) to make computers easier to use

Q: Every computer has a(n) ……, many also have ……

(1) operating system; a client system
(2) operating system; instruction sets
(3) application programs; an operating system
(4) application programs; a client system
(5) operating system; application programs
Q: A program in execution is called
(1) process
(2) instruction
(3) procedure
(4) Function

Q: Memory utilisation factor shall be computed as

(1) memory in use/allocated memory
(2) memory in use/total memory connected
(3) memory allocated/free existing memory
(4) memory committed/total memory available
(5) None of the above
Q: When a file contains instruction that can be carried out by the computer, it is often
called a(n) …… file.
(1) data
(2) information
(3) executable
(4) application
(5) None of these

Q: Grouping and processing all of a firm’s transactions at one time, is called

(1) a database management system
(2) batch processing
(3) a real time system
(4) on-time system
(5) None of these
Q: Windows operating system is ...... and ...... .
(1) multitasking, multiuser
(2) multi user, single tasking
(3) single user, multitasking
(4) single tasking, single user

Q: Operating system that allows only one user to work on a computer at a time is
known as
(1) single user operating system
(2) multiuser operating system
(3) single tasking operating system
(4) multitasking operating system
(5) real time operating system
Q: …… provides process and memory management services that allow two or more
tasks, jobs or programs to run simultaneously.
(1) Multitasking
(2) Multithreading
(3) Multiprocessing
(4) Multicomputing

Q: …… is a feature for scheduling and multi-programming to provide an economical

interactive system of two or more users.
(1) Time sharing
(2) Multi sharing
(3) Time tracing
(4) Multiprocessing
(5) None of these
Q: Which of the following refers to the means by which an OS or any other program
interacts with the user?
(1) Program front-end
(2) Programming interface
(3) User login
(4) User interface
(5) User compatibility

Q: What happens when you boot up a PC?

(1) Portions of the operating system are copied from disk into memory
(2) Portions of the operating system are copied from memory onto disk
(3) Portions of the operating system are complied
(4) Portions of the operating system are emulated
(5) The PC gets switched off
Q: Which of the following operating systems was first developed by Microsoft?
(1) Windows ME
(2) Windows NT
(3) Windows 97
(4) Windows XP
(5) MS-DOS

Q: Which one of the following file names is invalid in DOS?

(1) RIT. bat
(2) [Link]
(3) [Link]
(4) [Link]
(5) None of these
Q: This command is used to display a list of files and sub-directories that are in the
directory you specify.
(1) DER
(2) DIS
(3) DIR
(4) DAR
(5) None of these

Q: Which one of the following DOS commands sends contents of the screen to an output
device?
(1) BREAK
(2) DISK COPY
(3) MORE
(4) ASSIGN
(5) None of these
Q: Which type of commands in MS-DOS needs external files to perform their
action?
(1) Internal commands
(2) External commands
(3) Batch commands
(4) Redirectories
(5) None of these

Q: Which of the following is the main program of MS-DOS?

(1) Boot Record
(2) [Link]
(3) [Link]
(4) [Link]
(5) All of these
Q: The purpose of DISKCOPY command is to
(1) format the disk if it is not formatted before a write operation is initiated on it
(2) overwrite the existing contents of the destination disk as it copies the new
information to it
(3) make an exact copy of a floppy disk
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above

Q: In DOS, the ‘label’ command is used to

(1) create the label of disk
(2) change the label of disk
(3) remove the label of disk
(4) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’
(5) All of the above
Q: The process of transferring data intended for a peripheral device into a disk, so
that it can be transferred to peripheral at a more convenient time or in bulk, is
known as
(1) multiprogramming
(2) spooling
(3) caching
(4) virtual programming

Q: The DOS command, which cannot be executed with versions 1 and 2 is

(1) GRAPHICS
(2) FIND
(3) LABEL
(4) MODE
(5) None of these
Q: In MS-DOS, which of the following commands is used to delete directory with
all sub-directories and files?
(1) Delete
(2) Del
(3) Deltree
(4) Move
(5) None of these

Q: The instructions that tell a computer how to carry out the processing tasks are referred to
as computer
(1) programs
(2) processors
(3) input devices
(4) memory modules
(5) None of these
Q: A set of rules for telling the computer what operations to perform is called a
(1) Procedural language
(2) Structures
(3) Natural language
(4) Command language
(5) Programming language

Q: Which of the following contains specific rules and words that express the logical
steps of an algorithm?
(1) Programming language
(2) Syntax
(3) Programming structure
(4) Logical chart
(5) Flow chart
Q: A (n) ……… program is one that is ready to run and does not need to be altered in
any way.
(1) interpreter
(2) high level
(3) compiler
(4) COBOL
(5) Executable

Q: A factor in the selection of source language is

(1) programmer skill
(2) language availability
(3) program compatibility with other software
(4) All of the above
Q: Languages which can easily interact with the hardware are called
(1) High level languages
(2) Low level languages
(3) Middle level languages
(4) All of the above

Q: Machine language
(1) is the language in which programs were first written
(2) is the only language understood by the computer
(3) differs from one type of computer to another
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above
Q: The use of combination of 1’s and 0’s is feature of which of the following type of
computer language?
(1) High Level Language
(2) PASCAL
(3) Machine Language
(4) C
(5) COBOL

Q: ....... serves as the bridge between raw hardware and programming layer of a
computer system.
(1) Medium level language
(2) Low level language
(3) High level language
(4) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’
Q: Which of the following computer language is a mathematically oriented language
used for scientific problems?
(1) Fortran
(2) Cobol
(3) Lisp
(4) Prolog

Q: Which of the following is not characteristic of COBOL?

(1) It is a very standardised language
(2) It is a very efficient in terms of coding and execution
(3) It had limited facilities for mathematical notation
(4) It is very readable language
Q: What does CO stand in COBOL?
(1) Common Object
(2) Common Oriented
(3) Common Operating
(4) Computer Oriented
(5) None of the above

Q: Lisp is the second oldest high level programming language. Here, Lisp stands for
(1) Level Program
(2) Level Process
(3) List Processing
(4) List Program
Q: Java is referred to as a
(1) high level language
(2) complex language
(3) hardware device driver
(4) low level language
(5) programming mid level language

Q: The function of an assembler is

(1) to convert basic language into machine language
(2) to convert high level language into machine language
(3) to convert assembly language into machine language
(4) to convert assembly language into low level language
(5) None of the above
Q: The ……… program is used to convert mnemonic code to machine code.
(1) Debug
(2) C + +
(3) FORTRAN
(4) Assembler
(5) None of these

Q: Which of the following is not true about an assembler?

(1) Translates instructions of assembly language in machine language
(2) It translates the C program
(3) It is involved in program’s execution
(4) It is a translating program
Q: Compiling creates a (n)
(1) Error-free program
(2) Program specification
(3) Subroutine
(4) Algorithm
(5) Executable program

Q: Translator program used in assembly language is called

(1) compiler
(2) interpreter
(3) translation
(4) translator
(5) Assembler
Q: Computer programs are written in a high level programming language, however
the human readable version of a program is called
(1) Word size
(2) Source code
(3) Instruction set
(4) Application
(5) Hard drive

Q: A set of step-by-step procedures for accomplishing a task is known as a (n)

(1) Algorithm
(2) Hardware program
(3) Software
(4) Firmware program
(5) None of the above
Q: Error which occurs when program tried to read from file without opening it is
classified as
(1) execution error messages
(2) built in messages
(3) user defined messages
(4) half messages
(5) None of the above

Q: ……… are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use.
(1) Control words
(2) Control structures
(3) Reserved words
(4) Reserved keys
(5) None of these
Q: ......... is a cross between human language and a programming language.
(1) Pseudocode
(2) Java
(3) The Java virtual machine
(4) The compiler
(5) None of the above

Q: In programming, repeating some statements is usually called

(1) looping
(2) control structure
(3) compiling
(4) structure
Q: A computer checks the …… of username and password for a match before
granting access.
(1) website
(2) network
(3) backup file
(4) database
(5) None of these

Q: A ......... is a collection of data that is stored electronically as a series of records in

a table.
(1) Spreadsheet
(2) Presentation
(3) Database
(4) Web page
Q: A collection of interrelated records is called a
(1) utility file
(2) management information system
(3) database
(4) spreadsheet
(5) Datasheet

Q: Which type of database, organised the data in the form of tree with nodes?
(1) Network Database
(2) Hierarchical Database
(3) Relational Database
(4) Multiple Database
Q: The database stores information in
(1) rows and columns
(2) blocks
(3) tracks and sectors
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

Q: In a relational database, a data structure that organises the information about a

single topic into rows and columns, is
(1) block
(2) record
(3) tuple
(4) table
(5) None of these
Q: ……… are distinct items that don’t have much meaning to you in a given context.
(1) Fields
(2) Data
(3) Queries
(4) Properties
(5) None of these

Q: A collection of related files is called a

(1) character
(2) field
(3) database
(4) record
(5) None of these
Q: The cardinality property of a relation, refers to the
(1) number of database
(2) number of columns
(3) number of rows
(4) number of tables

Q: The database administrator’s function in an organisation is

(1) to be responsible for the technical aspects of managing the information contained
in organisational databases
(2) to be responsible for the executive level aspects of decision regarding the
information management
(3) to show the relationship among entity classes in a data warehouse
(4) to define which data mining tools must be used to extract data
(5) None of the above
Q: In the relational modes, cardinality is termed as
(1) number of tuples
(2) number of attributes
(3) number of tables
(4) number of constraints
(5) None of the above

Q: Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest
to largest?
(1) Character, File, Record, Field, Database
(2) Character, Record, Field, File, Database
(3) Character, Field, Record, File, Database
(4) Bit, Byte, Character, Record, Field, File, Database
Q: What is the overall term for creating, editing, formatting, storing, retrieving a text
document?
(1) Word processing
(2) Spreadsheet design
(3) Web design
(4) Database management
(5) Presentation generation

Q: DBMS helps to achieve

(1) data independence
(2) centralised control of data
(3) selection of data
(4) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’
Q: Periodically adding, changing and deleting file records is called ......... file.
(1) updating
(2) upgrading
(3) restructuring
(4) renewing

Q: Architecture of database management can be viewed as

(1) two levels
(2) four levels
(3) three levels
(4) one level
Q: A collection of conceptual tools for describing data, relationships, semantics and
constraints is referred to as
(1) E-R model
(2) database
(3) data model
(4) DBMS
(5) None of these

Q: ......... is one reason for problems of data integrity.

(1) Data availability constraints
(2) Data inconsistency
(3) Security constraints
(4) Unauthorised access of data
(5) Data redundancy
Q: ......... means that the data contained in a database is accurate and reliable.
(1) Data redundancy
(2) Data integrity
(3) Data reliability
(4) Data consistency
(5) None of the above

Q: Which of the following contains data descriptions and defines the name, data type
and length of each field in the database?
(1) Data dictionary
(2) Data table
(3) Data record
(4) Data filed
(5) None of these
Q: An advantage of the database management approach is
(1) data is dependent on programs
(2) data redundancy increases
(3) data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple programs
(4) All of the above

Q: Which of the following is the drawback of DBMS?

(1) Improvement in Data
(2) Backup and recovery
(3) Complexity
(4) Maintenance of Data Integrity
Q: The purpose of the primary key in a database is to
(1) unlock the database
(2) provide a map of the data
(3) uniquely identify a record
(4) establish constraints on database operations
(5) None of these

Q: In files, there is a key associated with each record which is used to differentiate
among different records. For every file, there is atleast one set of keys that is unique.
Sucha key is called
(1) unique key
(2) prime attribute
(3) index key
(4) primary key
Q: The particular field of a record that uniquely identifies each record is called the
(1) key field
(2) primary field
(3) master field
(4) order field
(5) None of these

Q: An E-R diagram is a graphic method of presenting

(1) primary keys and their relationships
(2) primary keys and their relationships to instances
(3) entity classes and their relationships
(4) entity classes and their relationships to primary keys
(5) None of the above
Q: A logical schema
(1) is the entire database
(2) is a standard way of organising information into accessable part
(3) describes how data is actually stored on disk
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above

Q: Data duplication wastes the space, but also promotes a more serious problem
called
(1) isolated
(2) data inconsistency
(3) other than those given as options
(4) program dependency
(5) separated data
Q: When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated. This causes
(1) Data redundancy
(2) Information overload
(3) Duplicate data
(4) Data consistency
(5) Data inconsistency

Q: An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes to form a primary key, is a
(1) strong entity set
(2) weak entity set
(3) simple entity set
(4) primary entity set
(5) None of these
Q: ......... is the transmission of data between two or more computers over
communication links.
(1) Communication
(2) Networking
(3) Data communication
(4) Data networking

Q: In simplex channel, flow of data is

(1) always in one direction
(2) always in both direction
(3) in both direction, but one at a time
(4) All of the above
Q: Which of the following is not a property of twisted pair cabling?
(1) Twisted pair cabling is a relatively low speed transmission
(2) The wires can be shielded
(3) The wires can be unshielded
(4) Twisted pair cable carries signals as light waves

Q: Which of the following cables can transmit data at high speeds?

(1) Flat cable
(2) Co-axial cable
(3) Optic fibre cable
(4) Twisted pair cable
(5) UTP cable
Q: Which of the following is an advantage for using fibre optics data transmission?
(1) Resistance to data theft
(2) Fast data transmission rate
(3) Low noise level
(4) All of the above

Q: Networking using fibre optic cable is done as

(1) it has high bandwidth
(2) it is thin and light
(3) it is not affected by electro magnetic interference/power surges etc
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
Q: Which of the following is not a property of fibre optic cabling?
(1) Transmits at faster speeds than copper cabling
(2) Easier to capture a signal from the copper cabling
(3) Very resistant to interference
(4) Carries signals as light waves
(5) less attenuation

Q: Which of the following is the fastest communication channel?

(1) Radio wave
(2) Microwave
(3) Optical fibre
(4) All are operating at nearly the same propagation speed
Q: Bandwidth refers to
(1) the cost of the cable required to implement a WAN
(2) the cost of the cable required to implement a LAN
(3) the amount of information a peer-to-peer network can store
(4) the amount of information a communication medium can transfer in a given
amount of time
(5) None of the above

Q: Pathways that support communication among the various electronic components

on the system board are called
(1) network lines
(2) processors
(3) logic paths
(4) bus lines
(5) Gateway
Q: What do we call a network whose elements may be separated by some distance? It
usually involves two or more network and dedicated high speed telephone lines.
(1) LAN
(2) WAN
(3) URL
(4) Server
(5) World Wide Web

Q: Ethernet, token ring and token bus are types of

(1) WAN
(2) LAN
(3) communication channels
(4) physical media
(5) None of the above
Q: LAN can use ......... architecture.
(1) peer-to-peer
(2) client and server
(3) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’
(4) Neither ‘1’ nor ‘2’

Q: ……… is the most important/powerful computer in a typical network.

(1) Desktop
(2) Network client
(3) Network server
(4) Network station
(5) Network switch
Q: A ……… is an agreement between the communication parties on how
communication is to proceed.
(1) path
(2) SLA
(3) bond
(4) Protocol

Q: What is the function of a modem?

(1) Encryption and decryption
(2) Converts data to voice and vice- versa
(3) Converts analog signals to digital signals and vice-versa
(4) Serves as a hardware antivirus
(5) None of the above
Q: A packet filtering firewall operates at which of the following OSI layers?
(1) At the application layer
(2) At the transport layer
(3) At the network layer
(4) At the gateway layer

Q: Which is the highest reliability topology?

(1) Mesh topology
(2) Tree topology
(3) Bus topology
(4) Star topology
(5) None of these
Q: Which is the name of the network topology in which there are bi-directional links
between each possible node?
(1) Ring
(2) Star
(3) Tree
(4) Mesh

Q: P2P is a ......... application architecture.

(1) client/server
(2) distributed
(3) centralised
(4) 1-tier
(5) None of these
Q: In which topology, every node is connected to two other nodes?
(1) Bus topology
(2) ring topology
(3) Star topology
(4) Mesh topology
(5) None of these

Q: Hub is associated with ……… network.

(1) bus
(2) ring
(3) star
(4) mesh
(5) All of these
Q: In OSI network architecture, the routing is performed by
(1) Network layer
(2) Data link layer
(3) Transport layer
(4) Session layer
(5) None of these

Q: A processor that collects the transmissions from several communication media

and send them over a single line that operates at a higher capacity is called
(1) multiplexer
(2) bridge
(3) hub
(4) router
(5) None of these
Q: In the following list of devices which device is used in network layer?
(1) Repeaters
(2) Router
(3) Application Gateway
(4) Switch

Q: In IT networking, which of the following device is used in physical layer?

(1) Repeater
(2) Router
(3) Transport Gateway
(4) Bridge
Q: In networks, a small message used to pass between one station to another is
known as
(1) Token
(2) Byte
(3) Word
(4) Ring

Q: Multiplexing involves ……… path(s) and ……… channel(s).

(1) one, one
(2) one, multiple
(3) multiple, one
(4) multiple, multiple
(5) None of these
Q: To send data/message to and from computers, the network software puts the
message information in a
(1) NIC
(2) packet
(3) trailer
(4) header
(5) None of these

Q: How many bits are there in the ethernet address?

(1) 64 bits
(2) 48 bits
(3) 32 bits
(4) 16 bits
(5) None of these
Q: The Internet is
(1) a large network of networks
(2) an internal communication system for a business
(3) a communication system for the Indian government
(4) All of the above
Q: What does the acronym ISP stand for?
(1) Internal Service Provider
(2) International Service Provider
(3) Internet Service Provider
(4) Internet Service Providing
(5) Internet Service Provision

Q: Your business has contracted with another company to have them host and run an
application for your company over the Internet. The company providing this service
to your business is called an
(1) Internet Service Provider
(2) Internet Access Provider
(3) Application Service Provider
(4) Application Access Provider
Q: ……… networks can be used for publicinternet access at hotspot such as
restaurants, coffee shops etc.
(1) Wi-Fi
(2) WiMax
(3) DSL
(4) BPL

Q: A programme, either talk numeric that is made available in digital format for
automatic download over the Internet is called ……… .
(1) Vodcast
(2) Blog
(3) Podcast
(4) Wiki
(5) Broadcast
Q: The standard protocol of the Internet is
(1) TCP/IP
(2) Java
(3) HTML
(4) flash
(5) None of these

Q: Each IP packet must contain

(1) only source address
(2) only destination address
(3) source and destination addresses
(4) source or destination address
(5) None of the above
Q: IPv4 address is
Or
An IP address is ……… bit number
(1) 8 bit
(2) 16 bit
(3) 32 bit
(4) 64 bit

Q: FTP can transfer files between any computers that have an Internet connection.
Here, FTP stands for
(1) File Transfer Protocol
(2) Fast Text Processing
(3) File Transmission Program
(4) Fast Transmission Processor
Q: HTML is used for designing Web pages. Here, HTML stands for
Or
The web uses the ……… to request and serve web pages and programs
(1) High Transfer Machine Language
(2) High Transmission Markup Language
(3) HyperText Markup Language
(4) Hyper Transfer Markup Language

Q: Documents converted to ......... can be published to the Web.

(1) a doc file
(2) http
(3) Other than those given as options
(4) machine language
(5) HTML
Q: Documents converted to……can be published to the Web.
(1) .doc file
(2) http
(3) machine language
(4) HTML

Q: Which of the following is the communication protocol that sets the standard used
by every computer that Accesses Web-based information?
(1) XML
(2) DML
(3) HTTP
(4) HTML
(5) None of these
Q: An HTTP request contains ……… parts.
(1) 1
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 4
(5) 2

Q: Which of the following is required to create an HTML document?

(1) Browser
(2) Internet
(3) Text editor
(4) Search engine
(5) None of these
Q: In HTML, tags consists of keywords enclosed within
(1) flower brackets
(2) angular brackets <>
(3) parentheses ()
(4) square brackets [ ]

Q: Telnet is a ......... based computer protocol.

(1) sound
(2) text
(3) image
(4) animation
(5) digits
Q: The ………… uses an addressing scheme known as URL indicate the location of
files on the web.
(1) java script
(2) World Wide Web
(3) SQL
(4) String

Q: The WWW is made up of the set of interconnected ......... that are linked together
over the Internet.
(1) electronic documents
(2) Web pages
(3) files
(4) All of these
Q: What is a Website?
(1) A place from where we can get information in documents and files
(2) A site that is owned by any particular company
(3) A location on the world wide web
(4) A place from where we can access Internet
(5) None of the above

Q: Through ………, an administrator or another user can access someone else’s

computer remotely.
(1) administrator
(2) Web server
(3) Web application
(4) http
(5) telnet
Q: Which protocol provides E-mail facility among different hosts?
(1) SMTP
(2) FTP
(3) TELNET
(4) SNMP
(5) None of these

Q: ……… is collection of Web pages and ……… is the very first page that we seen on
opening of Website.
(1) Home page, Web page
(2) Website, home page
(3) Web page, home page
(4) Web page, Website
(5) None of the above
Q: A browser is a
(1) tool for creating a database
(2) software program to view Web pages on the Internet
(3) printing device
(4) software program to delete a folder
(5) None of the above

Q: Conference (Netscape), Netmeeting (Internet Explorer) enables (choose the option

that best describes)
(1) sharing voice on the net
(2) live textual conferencing
(3) live audio conferencing
(4) live real time conferencing
(5) None of the above
Q: The ……… which contains billions of documents called Web pages, is one of the
more popular services on the Internet.
(1) Web server
(2) telnet
(3) Web
(4) collection
(5) None of these

Q: What is URL?
(1) A computer software program
(2) A type of programming object
(3) The address of a document or ‘page’ on the world wide web
(4) An acronym for unlimited resource for learning
(5) A piece of hardware
Q: Which of the following is used by the browser to connect to the location of the
Internet resources?
(1) Linkers
(2) Protocol
(3) Cable
(4) URL
(5) None of these

Q: Which of the following must be contained in a URL

(1) A protocol identifier
(2) The letters, WWW
(3) The unique registered domain name
(4) WWW and the unique registered domain name
(5) A protocol identifier, WWW and the unique registered domain name
Q: The last three letters of the domain name describes the type of
(1) organisation (domain name)
(2) connectivity
(3) server
(4) Protocol

Q: An educational institution would generally have the following in its domain name.
(1) .org
(2) .edu
(3) .inst
(4) .com
(5) .sch
Q: Specialised programs that assist users in locating information on the Web are
called
(1) information engines
(2) locator engines
(3) Web browsers
(4) resource locators
(5) search engines

Q: An e-mail attachment is referred to as

(1) The body of the e-mail
(2) The address of the sender
(3) A document that is sent with an e-mail.
(4) The address of the receiver
(5) Any document that can be attached and sent with an e-mail
Q: What can possible be the drawback of e-mails?
(1) E-mails require being physically delivered to the user
(2) E-mails infect computer
(3) E-mails are very expensive to transmit
(4) E-mails are slow to load
(5) People don’t check e-mails regularly

Q: What is included in an E-mail address?

(1) Domain name followed by user’s name
(2) User’s name followed by domain name
(3) User’s name followed by postal address
(4) User’s name followed by street address
(5) None of the above
Q: Which among the following is an area of e-mail that is short description of the
message?
(1) Subject
(2) Cc
(3) Bcc
(4) Attachment
(5) Spam

Q: Junk e-mail is also called

(1) crap
(2) spoof
(3) sniffer script
(4) spool
(5) Spam
Q: If you receive an E-mail from someone you don’t know, what should you do?
(1) Forward it to the police immediately
(2) Delete it without opening it
(3) Open it and respond to them saying you don’t know them
(4) Reply and ask them for their personal information

Q: An E-mail address typically consists of a user ID followed by the………sign and

the domain name that manages the user’s electronic post office box.
(1) #
(2) @
(3) &
(4) $
Q: What is the full form of EDI?
(1) Electronic Data Interchange
(2) Easy Data Interchange
(3) Electronic Data Interconnect
(4) Electrical Data Interconnect
(5) None of the above

Q: The process of trading goods over the Internet is known as

(1) E-selling n buying
(2) E-trading
(3) E-finance
(4) E-salesmanship
(5) E-commerce
Q: Which of the following is a group of servers that share work and may be able to back each
other up if one server fails?
(1) Channel bank
(2) Cluster
(3) Tiger team
(4) Serverless backup
(5) Logical unit

Q: Which of the following will be used if a sender of E-mail wants to bold, italics, etc the
text message?
(1) Reach signature
(2) Rich text
(3) Reach format
(4) Plain format
(5) Plain text
Q: A cookie
(1) stores information about the user’s Web activity
(2) stores software developed by the user
(3) stores the password of the user
(4) stores the commands used by the user
(5) None of the above

Q: Which of the following terms is associated with Internet E-mail?

(1) Plotter
(2) Slide presentation
(3) Bookmark
(4) Pie chart
(5) Microsoft Excel
Q: Which of these is not a means of personal communication on the Internet?
(1) Chat
(2) Instant messaging
(3) Insta notes
(4) Electronic-mail
(5) None of these

Q: A stored link to a Web page, in order to have a quick and easy access to is later, is
called
(1) WP-Link
(2) Bookmark
(3) Field
(4) Length
(5) None of these
Q: A host on the Internet finds another host by its
(1) postal address
(2) electronic address
(3) IP address
(4) name
(5) None of these

Q: Microsoft Office was developed by ………… in …

(1) Microsoft Inc, 1970s
(2) Microsoft Inc, 1980s
(3) Sun Microsoft, 1980s
(4) Sun Microsoft Inc, 1970s
Q: MS-Word is a
(1) tabular data formatting software
(2) Word processing software
(3) presentation software
(4) E-mail client

Q: Microsoft Office Word is a(n)

(1) area in the computer’s main memory in which Microsoft Office text files are
stored temporarily
(2) Program included with Windows 2000 that can be used only to create or edit text
files, smaller than 64k, that do not require formatting
(3) classified password that prevents unauthorised users from accessing a protected
Microsoft Office item or document
(4) full featured Word processing program that can be used to create and revise
professional looking documents easily
Q: A Word processor would be used best to
(1) paint a picture
(2) draw a diagram
(3) type a story
(4) work out income and expenses
(5) None of the above

Q: This program is made by Microsoft and embedded with Windows and used to
view Web document.
(1) Netscape
(2) Outlook Express
(3) Internet Explorer
(4) MS-Word
(5) None of these
Q: A ...... is an additional set of commands that the computer displays after you
make a selection from main menu.
(1) dialog box
(2) sub menu
(3) menu selection
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

Q: When you start MS-Word, the opening document has the name as
(1) DOC 1
(2) Document1
(3) Document
(4) Workbook
Q: What is the default file extension for all Word documents?
(1) WRD
(2) TXT
(3) DOC
(4) FIL
(5) WD

Q: Editing a document that has been created means

(1) saving it
(2) printing it
(3) scanning it
(4) correcting it
(5) None of these
Q: The first bar of MS-Word is
(1) menu bar
(2) status bar
(3) title bar
(4) formatting toolbar

Q: Microsoft Word is a word processor developed by Microsoft. In MS-Word,

Spelling Check is a feature available in which tab?
(1) File
(2) Home
(3) Insert
(4) Review
(5) References
Q: MS-Word is a text or document editing application program that comes in the
package of MS-Office Suite. Which among the given options is not related with MS-
Word?
(1) Page Layout
(2) Antivirus
(3) Mailings
(4) Format Painter
(5) SmartArt

Q: In order to choose the font for a sentence in a Word document

(1) select Font in the Format menu
(2) select Font in the Edit menu
(3) select Font in the Tools menu
(4) select Font in the View menu
(5) None of the above
Q: Which bar is usually located below title bar that provides categorised options?
(1) Menu bar
(2) Status bar
(3) Tool bar
(4) Scroll bar
(5) None of these

Q: The process of making changes to an existing document is referred to as … it.

(1) editing
(2) changing
(3) modifying
(4) creating
(5) Adjusting
Q: Which of the following should be used to move a paragraph from one place to
another in a Word document?
(1) Copy and paste
(2) Cut and paste
(3) Delete and retype
(4) Find and replace
(5) None of these

Q: In which menu, we will find the command document?

(1) File
(2) Insert
(3) Tools
(4) Data
(5) None of these
Q: Portrait and landscape are
(1) page orientation
(2) paper size
(3) page layout
(4) page margin
(5) page gap

Q: Which of the following justification align the text on both the sides left and right
of margin?
(1) Right
(2) Justify
(3) Both sides
(4) Balanced
(5) None of these
Q: Auto-text can be used to insert …. . in document.
(1) Text
(2) Graphics
(3) Either 1 or 2
(4) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’
(5) None of these

Q: About margins
(1) all sections in a document need to have same margin
(2) different section can have different margins
(3) Word have predefined margins settings for all documents
(4) can’t say, depend on the version of Word
(5) None of the above
Q: When entering text within a document, the Enter key is normally pressed at the
end of every
(1) line
(2) sentence
(3) paragraph
(4) word
(5) File

Q: In order to delete a sentence from a document, you would use

(1) highlight and copy
(2) cut and paste
(3) copy and paste
(4) highlight and delete
(5) select and paste
Q: Soft page breaks
(1) are induced by the user
(2) are inserted by word automatically at the end of the page
(3) can be deleted
(4) are the one to show end of paragraph
(5) None of the above

Q: In Word, you can force a page break

(1) by positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing the F1 key
(2) by positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing the Ctrl+Enter
(3) by using the insert/section break
(4) by changing the font size of your document
(5) None of the above
Q: You specify the save details of your file in the
(1) “Save as a file” dialog box
(2) “Save the file as” dialog
(3) “File save” dialog box
(4) Any of ‘1’ and ‘2’
(5) None of the above

Q: To move to the bottom of a document while working on MS-Word, which

command is used?
(1) Home key
(2) End key
(3) Ctrl + Page Down Key
(4) Insert key
(5) Ctrl + End key
Q: Which of the following can be used to select the entire document?
(1) Ctrl + A
(2) Alt + F5
(3) Shift + A
(4) Ctrl + K
(5) Ctrl + H

Q: Shortcut for displaying the full page as they are printed.

(1) Ctrl + F1
(2) Ctrl + F2
(3) Shift + F1
(4) Shift + F2
(5) Alt + F2
Q: What is the shortcut key for centering the text selected by the user in Word?
(1) Ctrl + A
(2) Ctrl + B
(3) Ctrl + C
(4) Ctrl + D
(5) Ctrl + E

Q: What kind of software would you most likely use to keep track of a billing
account?
(1) Web Authoring
(2) Electronic Publishing
(3) Spreadsheet
(4) Word Processing
(5) PowerPoint
Q: Excel worksheet data can be shared with Word document by
(1) inserting an Excel file into Word
(2) copy and paste Excel worksheet into Word document
(3) link Excel data in a Word document
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above

Q: A worksheet is made of columns and rows, wherein

(1) columns run horizontally and rows run vertically
(2) columns run vertically and rows run horizontally
(3) the run is dependent on the application being used
(4) Both ‘2’ and ‘3’
(5) None of the above
Q: Which of the following software applications would be the most appropriate for
performing numerical and statistical calculations?
(1) Database
(2) Document processor
(3) Graphics package
(4) Spreadsheet
(5) PowerPoint

Q: Anything that is typed in a worksheet appears

(1) in the formula bar only
(2) in the active cell only
(3) in both active cell and formula bar
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above
Q: Which one is the example of spreadsheet package?
(1) VisiCalc
(2) Unity
(3) Ada
(4) Snowball
(5) None of these

Q: The extension of saved file in MS-Excel is

(1) .xis
(2) .xas
(3) .xlsx
(4) .xll
(5) .lxs
Q: A collection of worksheets is called
(1) Excel book
(2) Worksheets
(3) Excel sheets
(4) Workbook
(5) None of these

Q: Which of the following is an active cell in Excel?

(1) Current cell
(2) Formula
(3) Range
(4) Cell address
(5) None of these
Q: What does an electronic spreadsheet consist of ?
(1) Rows
(2) Columns
(3) Cells
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

Q: The advantage of using a spreadsheet is

(1) calculations can be done automatically
(2) changing data automatically updates calculations
(3) more flexibility
(4) All of the above
Q: To select a column the easiest method is to
(1) double click any cell in the column
(2) drag from the top cell in the column to the last cell in the column
(3) click the column heading
(4) click the row heading
(5) None of the above

Q: You can create hyperlinks from the Excel workbook to

(1) a Web page on company Internet
(2) a Web page on the Internet
(3) other Office 97 application documents
(4) All of the above
Q: On saving a worksheet, the ‘Save As’ dialog box
(1) is used to open the saved Excel files
(2) is used for saving the file for the first time
(3) is used for saving the file by some alternative name
(4) Both ‘2’ and ‘3’
(5) None of the above

Q: In Excel, ......... allows users to bring together copies of workbooks that other
users gave worked on independently.
(1) copying
(2) merging
(3) pasting
(4) compiling
(5) None of these
Q: Which of the following will you use as an option for saving a file?
(1) Save button on Standard toolbar
(2) Save option from File menu
(3) Pressing Ctrl + S
(4) All of the above

Q: Magnifier button is available on

(1) Print Preview toolbar
(2) Standard toolbar
(3) Formatting toolbar
(4) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’
(5) None of the above
Q: Which of the following is not a valid formula in Microsoft Excel?
(1) = A2 + A1
(2) = A2 + 1
(3) = 1 + A2
(4) = 1A + 2
(5) = A1 + A2

Q: The letter and number of the intersecting column and row is the
(1) cell location
(2) cell position
(3) cell address
(4) cell coordinates
(5) cell contents
Q: The function TODAY ( ) in Excel, enters the current
(1) system time in a cell
(2) system date and time in a cell
(3) system date only
(4) time at which the current file was opened
(5) None of the above

Q: You can copy data or formulas

(1) with the copy, paste and cut commands on the Edit menu
(2) with commands on a shortcut menu
(3) with buttons on the standard toolbars
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above
Q: Which of the following characteristics is used to compute dynamically the results
from Excel data?
(1) Goto
(2) Table
(3) Chart
(4) Diagram
(5) Formula and function

Q: Three types of data can be entered in a worksheet, as number/characters, text and

(1) formulas
(2) functions
(3) logic
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
Q: Which of the following commands in Office 2007, can be used to go to the first
cell in the current row?
(1) Tab
(2) Shift + Tab
(3) Esc + Home
(4) Shift + Home
(5) Home

Q: To select entire row, which shortcut is used?

(1) Shift + space
(2) Ctrl + space
(3) Alt + space
(4) None of these
(5) None of these
Q: In a worksheet in MS-Excel, what is shortcut key to hide entire row?
(1) Ctrl + 2
(2) Ctrl + 9
(3) Ctrl + N
(4) Ctrl + -
(5) Ctrl + N

Q: Which key is used in combination with another key to perform a specific task?
(1) Function
(2) Space bar
(3) Arrow
(4) Control
(5) None of these
Q: Which software is used to create presentation?
(1) Microsoft Word
(2) Microsoft Excel
(3) Microsoft PowerPoint
(4) Microsoft Access
(5) All of the above

Q: What is the extension of PowerPoint in Microsoft Office 2007?

(1) .ptp
(2) .pptx
(3) .ppx
(4) .ptx
(5) .pt
Q: You can add any picture in your document from which menu?
(1) File
(2) Edit
(3) Insert
(4) Format
(5) View

Q: Which of the following should you use if you want all the slides in the
presentation to have the same ‘look’?
(1) The slide layout option
(2) Add a slide option
(3) Outline view
(4) A presentation design template
(5) None of the above
Q: The ......... defines the appearance and shape of letters, numbers and special characters.
(1) font
(2) font size
(3) point
(4) paragraph formatting
(5) None of these

Q: ......... shows how the contents on printed page will appear with margin, header and
footer.
(1) Draft
(2) Full screen reading
(3) Outline
(4) Page layout
(5) None of these
Q: By default, on which page the header or footer is printed?
(1) On first page
(2) On alternative page
(3) On every page
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

Q: To find the paste special option, or use the Clipboard group on the …… tab of
Power Point.
(1) Design
(2) Slide Show
(3) Page Layout
(4) Insert
(5) None of these
Q: This is to insert an object, which is not miss print to its originating document into
a destination document?
(1) Cell
(2) Embed
(3) Defaults
(4) Any of these
(5) None of these

Q: Selecting Portrait changes our page from

(1) a wide to tall orientation
(2) a tall to wide orientation
(3) a normal font size to a condensed one
(4) a condensed font size to a normal one
(5) None of the above
Q: Which of the following controls the format and placement of the titles and text you on
slides, as well as, background items and graphics you want to appear on every slide?
(1) Slide
(2) Copyright
(3) Layout
(4) Design
(5) None of these

Q: Which of the following views is the best view to use when setting transition effects for all
slides in presentation?
(1) Slide sorter view
(2) Notes page view
(3) Slide view
(4) Outline view
(5) None of these
Q: Which PowerPoint view displays each slide of the presentation as a thumbnail
and is useful for rearranging slides?
(1) Slide sorter
(2) Slide show
(3) Slide master
(4) Notes page
(5) Slide design
Q: Which is a feature included in Microsoft PowerPoint software that allows the user
to see all the slides in a presentation at one time?
(1) Slide Sorter
(2) Slide Master
(3) Handout Master
(4) Slide Header
(5) Reading View
Q: To add a header or footer to your handout, you can use the
(1) Title master
(2) Slide master
(3) Handout master
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

Q: The maximum zoom percentage in MS-PowerPoint is

(1) 100%
(2) 200%
(3) 400%
(4) 500%
(5) None of these
Q: In Microsoft PowerPoint, two kinds of sound effect files can be added to the
presentation are
(1) .wav files and .mid files
(2) .wav files and .gif files
(3) .wav files and .jpg files
(4) .jpg files and .gif files
(5) None of the above

Q: Which file format can be added to a PowerPoint show?

(1) .jpg
(2) .giv
(3) .wav
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
Q: PowerPoint provides .......... number of layouts for use with blank presentation.
(1) 20
(2) 22
(3) 24
(4) 26
(5) None of these

Q: In PowerPoint, the Header and Footer buttons can be found on the Insert tab in
which group?
(1) Illustrations group
(2) Object group
(3) Insert group
(4) Tables group
(5) None of these
Q: Which command brings you to the first slide in your presentation?
(1) Next slide button
(2) Page up
(3) Ctrl + Home
(4) Ctrl + End
(5) None of these

Q: Which of the following allows you to select more than one slides in a
presentation?
(1) Alt + click each slide
(2) Shift + drag each slide
(3) Shift + click each slide
(4) Ctrl + click each slide
(5) None of the above
Q: Which of the following will not advance the slides in a slide show view?
(1) Esc key
(2) Spacebar
(3) Enter key
(4) Mouse button
(5) None of the above

Q: Which of the following bypasses the Print dialog box when printing individual
slides or an entire presentation?
(1) File, Print preview
(2) Print button
(3) File, Print
(4) Ctrl + P
(5) None of these
Q: Which key on the keyboard can be used to view slide show?
(1) F1
(2) F2
(3) F5
(4) F10
(5) None of these

Q: In MS-Access, a table can have……primary key/keys.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) None of these
Q: Which of the following is a DBMS software?
(1) Access
(2) Excel
(3) Word
(4) PowerPoint
(5) None of these

Q: How many types of relationships are there in MS-Access?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
(5) None of these
Q: Attributes can be defined for
(1) entity
(2) switch board
(3) macro
(4) pages
(5) None of these

Q: In order to include picture data type must be

(1) OLE
(2) hyperlink
(3) Yes/No
(4) picture
(5) None of these
Q: What is the default size of the data type in MS-Access ?
(1) 50
(2) 60
(3) 70
(4) 80
(5) None of these

Q: Which is the short key to invoke the spell checker in MS-Access?

(1) F2
(2) F7
(3) Alt+F7
(4) F3
(5) None of these
Q: We can’t make query by Insert menu?
(1) True
(2) False
(3) Cannot say
(4) Sometimes
(5) None of the above

Q: A template is a
(1) pattern of worksheet
(2) heading
(3) title
(4) theme
(5) None of the above
Q: E-mail client is the feature of
(1) MS-Word
(2) MS-Excel
(3) MS-PowerPoint
(4) MS-Access
(5) MS-Outlook

Q: If you are performing Windows 98 operating system to Windows XP you are

performing a(n)
(1) push up
(2) China
(3) patch
(4) pull down
(5) Update
Q: Which of the following is not a feature of Windows 98?
(1) It supports Internet Explorer 4.0.1.
(2) It also supports many peripheral devices USB, DVD
(3) It was the first operating system to use the WDM
(4) It provides multiple firewall.

Q: Windows 95, Windows 98 and Windows NT are known as what?

(1) Processor
(2) Domain names
(3) Modems
(4) Operating systems
Q: Which of the following is not a version of the Windows operating system software for
the PC?
(1) ME
(2) 98
(3) XP
(4) Linux
(5) 95

Q: Which of the following is not an in-built software application found in MS Windows?

(1) Paint
(2) CD Player
(3) Disk Defragmentor
(4) Volume Control
(5) MS Word
Q: What is Windows Explorer?
(1) Personal Computer
(2) Network
(3) File Manager
(4) Drive
(5) Web Browser

Q: The desktop of a computer refers to

(1) the visible screen
(2) the area around the monitor
(3) the top of the mouse pad
(4) the inside of a folder
Q: A blinking indicator that shows you where your next action will happen, is
(1) CPU
(2) cursor
(3) toolbar
(4) Boot

Q: Graphical pictures that represent an object like file, folder, etc. are
(1) task bar
(2) windows
(3) desktop
(4) icons
(5) None of these
Q: To open disk, mouse pointer is placed on disk icon and then
(1) mouse is dragged pushing the button
(2) mouse is double-clicked
(3) mouse is rotated around
(4) mouse is clicked after rotating it

Q: To display the content sofa folder in Windows Explorer, you should…….

(1) click on it
(2) collapse it
(3) name it
(4) give it a password
(5) rename it
Q: Generally, you access the recycle bin through an icon located
(1) on the desktop
(2) on the hard drive
(3) on the shortcut menu
(4) in the properties dialog box

Q: Which of the following is used to access a file from the computer store?
(1) Insert
(2) Retrieve
(3) File
(4) Print
(5) Find
Q: In the split window mode, one title bar looks darker than the other, because
(1) darker title bar shows window not in use
(2) darker title bar shows active window
(3) darker title bar shows unavailable window
(4) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’
(5) None of the above

Q: Which of the following is appropriate method to shutdown computer?

(1) Click ‘Start’ then select ‘Shut down’
(2) Click ‘Start’ then select ‘Restart’
(3) Click ‘Start’ then switch user
(4) Switch off monitor
Q: End menu is available at which button?
(1) End
(2) Start
(3) Turn off
(4) Restart
(5) Reboot

Q: When you install a new program on your computer, it is typically added to the
menu.
(1) All Programs
(2) Select Programs
(3) Start Programs
(4) Desktop Programs
Q: Why do you log-off from your computer when going out from your office?
(1) Someone might steal your files, passwords, etc.
(2) In order to save electricity
(3) Logging off is essential to increase performance
(4) Logging off is mandatory before you go out
(5) Logging off is a good exercise to perform regularly

Q: Which of the following refers to the rectangular area for displaying information
and running programs?
(1) Desktop
(2) Dialog box
(3) Menu
(4) Window
(5) Icon
Q: Which of the following are lists of commands that appear on the screen?
(1) GUIs
(2) Icons
(3) Menus
(4) Windows
(5) Stack

Q: Commands at the top of a screen such; FILE-EDIT-FONT-TOOLS to operate

and change things within program comes under
(1) menu bar
(2) tool bar
(3) user friendly
(4) Word processor
Q: What is an on-screen display listing of available options of functions on a
computer?
(1) Document
(2) View
(3) Tool
(4) Format
(5) Menu

Q: The steps involved to open a document are

(1) select the document to open from the File down menu
(2) click on the Open option in the Tools menu
(3) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’
(4) can be different for different Word document
(5) None of the above
Q: A computer message is ‘‘Do you really want to delete the selected file (s)’’? The
user clicks ‘Yes’ key. It is called
(1) program response
(2) user output
(3) user response
(4) program output

Q: A symbol or question on the screen that prompts you to take action and tell the
computer what to do next, is
(1) scanner
(2) questionnaire
(3) information seeker
(4) prompt and dialog box
(5) None of these
Q: The extension of paint file is/are
(1) .png
(2) .jpg
(3) .bmp
(4) All of these

Q: Which of the following options is used to open calculator?

(1) Start button → All Programs → Accessories → Calculator
(2) Start button → All Programs → Calculator
(3) Start button → Accessories → Calculator
(4) All of the above
Q: ........ is an easy-to-use interface to play digital media files.
(1) Wordpad
(2) Notepad
(3) Media player
(4) Games

Q: When you cut or copy information it gets place in the …… .

(1) clipart
(2) clipboard
(3) motherboard
(4) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’
(5) None of these
Q: A clipboard
(1) is used to save data on disk in the event of a power failure
(2) is able to retain the contents even when computer is switched OFF
(3) is available only in Microsoft Word
(4) is a temporary storage in computer memory and temporarily stores the cut or
copied data
(5) None of the above

Q: A file is often referred to as a

(1) wizard
(2) document
(3) pane
(4) device
(5) Documentation
Q: Which of the following statements is a false conceiving file names?
(1) Every file in the same folder must have a unique name
(2) The file name comes before the dot (.)
(3) File extension is another name for the type
(4) The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the file name
(5) Files may share the same name or the same extension, but not both at the same
time

Q: File extensions are used in order to

(1) name the file
(2) ensure the file name is not lost
(3) identify the file
(4) identify the file type
Q: Which of the following contained at the end of the file name and help to
determine the type of file?
(1) File property
(2) File type
(3) File name
(4) File subname
(5) File extension

Q: What are .bas, .doc, .htm examples of in computing?

(1) Extensions
(2) Protocols
(3) Database
(4) Domains
(5) None of these
Q: What is the default file extension for all Word documents?
(1) WRD
(2) TXT
(3) DOC
(4) FIL
(5) WD

Q: You organise files by storing them in

(1) archives
(2) lists
(3) indexes
(4) folders
(5) None of these
Q: ......... may be included in other folder while making hierarchical structure folder.
(1) Minifolder
(2) Small folder
(3) Sub-folder
(4) Object folder

Q: Which of the following refers to containers used to store related documents

located on the computer?
(1) Labels
(2) Indexes
(3) Programs
(4) Folders
(5) Sections
Q: When embedding object into document, one of the following occurs
(1) embedded object becomes a part of the document
(2) embedded object remains outside object to the document, but loaded with
document
(3) Both becomes a zip file
(4) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’
(5) None of the above

Q: Which of the following shortcut keys represents the correct sequence for copy,
paste and cut commands?
(1) Ctrl + V; Ctrl+C; Ctrl+V
(2) Ctrl + C; Ctrl+V; Ctrl+X
(3) Ctrl + X; Ctrl+C; Ctrl+V
(4) Ctrl + C; Ctrl+X; Ctrl+V
Q: Which of the following keys is used to delete characters to the left of the cursor?
(1) Alt + Delete
(2) Shift
(3) Esc
(4) Delete
(5) Backspace

Q: To restart the computer, following combination of keys is used

(1) Del + Ctrl
(2) Backspace + Ctrl
(3) Esc + Ctrl
(4) Insert + Esc
(5) Ctrl + Alt + Del
Q: Which of the following shortcut keys is used to close current or active window?
(1) Alt+F4
(2) Ctrl+F4
(3) Alt+F6
(4) Ctrl+F6
(5) Ctrl+Esc

Q: ……… is a branch of information technology known as information security.

(1) Computer security
(2) Cyber security
(3) IT security
(4) All of these
Q: It takes advantages of basic hardware and software security characteristics.
(1) System design
(2) Data access control
(3) System access control
(4) None of these

Q: If you are allowing a person on the network based on the credentials to maintain
the security of your network, then this act refers to the process of
(1) Authentication
(2) Automation
(3) Firewall
(4) Encryption
(5) None of these
Q: The main reason to encrypt a file is to
(1) reduce its size
(2) secure it for transmission
(3) prepare it for backup
(4) include it in the start-up sequence

Q: Softwares such as Viruses, Worms and Trojan Horses that have a malicious
content, is known as
(1) Malicious software (malware)
(2) adware
(3) scareware
(4) spyware
(5) Firewall
Q: Viruses, trojan horses and worms are
(1) able to harm computer system
(2) unable to detect if present on computer
(3) user-friendly applications
(4) harmless applications resident on computer
(5) None of the above

Q: …… are often delivered to a PC through an mail attachment and are often

designed to do harm.
(1) Portals
(2) Spam
(3) Viruses
(4) Other than those given as options
(5) E-mail messages
Q: Which of the following refers to dangerous programs that can be ‘caught’ of
opening E-mail attachments and downloading software from the Internet?
(1) Utility
(2) Virus
(3) Honey Pot
(4) Spam
(5) App

Q: If your computer rebooting itself then it is likely that

(1) it has a virus
(2) it does not have enough memory
(3) there is no printer
(4) there has been a power surge
(5) it needs a CD-ROM
Q: The ......... of a threat measures its potential impact on a system.
(1) vulnerabilities
(2) counter measures
(3) degree of harm
(4) susceptibility
(5) None of these

Q: Worm is a program that infects computer and spreads by inserting copies of itself
into other executable code or documents.
(1) Self attach
(2) Self-replicating
(3) Non-self-replicating
(4) Hacking
Q: Which of the following is the type of software that has self-replicating software
that causes damage to files and system?
(1) Viruses
(2) Trojan horses
(3) Bots
(4) Worms

Q: A computer virus normally attaches itself to another computer program known as

a
(1) host program
(2) target program
(3) backdoor program
(4) bluetooth
(5) trojan horse
Q: Hackers often gain entry to a network be pretending to be at a legitimate computer
(1) spoofing
(2) forging
(3) IP spoofing
(4) All of these

Q: It is a situation in which one person or program successfully masquerades as

another by falsifying data and thereby gaining illegitimate access.
(1) Spoofing attack
(2) Vulnerability scanner
(3) Packet sniffer
(4) Rootkit
Q: An act of sending e-mails or creating webpages that are designed to collect and
individual’s online bank, credit card or other login information?
(1) Phishing
(2) Spam
(3) Hacking
(4) Cracking

Q: ......... are attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you by

falsifying their identity.
(1) Phishing trips
(2) Computer viruses
(3) Spyware scams
(4) Viruses
(5) Phishing scams
Q: Which of the following is a criminal activity attempting to acquire sensitive information such as
passwords, credit cards, debits by masquerading as a trustworthy person or business in an electronic
communication?
(1) Spoofing
(2) Phishing
(3) Stalking
(4) Hacking
(5) None of these

Q: A person who uses his or her expertise to gain access to other people computers to get information
illegally or do damage is a
Or
A person who uses his expertise for software?
(1) spammer
(2) hacker
(3) instant messenger
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
Q: Hackers
(1) all have the same motive
(2) are another name of users
(3) many legally break into computer as long as they do not do any damage
(4) are people who are allergic to computers
(5) break into other people’s computer

Q: What is a person called who uses a computer to cause harm to people or destroy
critical systems?
(1) Cyber Terrorist
(2) Black-hat-Hacker
(3) Cyber Cracker
(4) Hacktivist
(5) Other than those given as options
Q: ……… is a type of electronic spam where unsolicited messages are sent by e-mail.
(1) Trash mail
(2) Cram mail
(3) Draft mail
(4) Spam mail

Q: Adware is something
(1) which is added to your computers
(2) by adding this performance of your computer increases
(3) software that gets different advertisement
(4) None of the above
Q: It is a toolkit for hiding the fact that a computer’s security has been compromised,
is a general description of a set of programs which work to subvert control of an
operating system from its legitimate (in accordance with established rules) operators.
(1) Rootkit
(2) Keylogger
(3) Worm
(4) Cracker

Q: A firewall operated by
(1) the pre-purchase phase
(2) isolating intranet from extranet
(3) Screening packets to/from the network and provide controllable filtering of
network traffic
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above
Q: Which one of the following is a key function of firewall?
(1) Monitoring
(2) Deleting
(3) Copying
(4) Moving
(5) None of these

Q: A digital signature is an
(1) scanned signature
(2) signature in binary form
(3) encrypting information
(4) handwritten signature
(5) None of the above
Q: To protect yourself from computer hacker intrusions, you should install a
(1) firewall
(2) mailer
(3) macro
(4) script
(5) None of these

Q: Which of the following is the combination of numbers, alphabets along with

username used to get access to user account?
(1) Password
(2) Username
(3) Title name
(4) Host-Id
Q: The unauthorised real-time interception of private communication such as a phone call,
instant message known as
(1) replay
(2) eavesdropping
(3) patches
(4) payloads
(5) None of these

Q: Which of the following a computer’s memory, but unlike a virus, it does not replicate
itself ?
(1) Trojan horse
(2) Logic bomb
(3) Cracker
(4) Firewall
(5) None of these
Q: Vendor created program modifications are called
(1) patches
(2) antiviruses
(3) hales
(4) fixes
(5) overlaps

Q: Which was the first PC boot sector virus?

(1) Creeper
(2) Payload
(3) Bomb
(4) Brain
Q: It hides the true network addresses and used to intercept all messages entering and
leaving the network.
(1) Logic bomb
(2) Firewall
(3) Patches
(4) Proxy server

Q: It is a software program designed to record (log) every keystroke on the machine

on which it runs.
(1) Keylogger
(2) Worm
(3) Virus
(4) Cracker
Q: The legal right to use software based on specific restrictions is granted via a
(1) software privacy policy
(2) software license
(3) software password manager
(4) software log
(5) None of the above

Q: ……… refers to the unauthorised copying and distribution of software.

OR
Illegal copying and distribution of software is
(1) Hacking
(2) Software piracy
(3) Software literacy
(4) Cracking
(5) Copyright
Q: Which of the following is an example of non-volatile memory?
(1) ROM
(2) RAM
(3) LSI
(4) VLSI
(5) None of these

Q: Which of the following is a unit of measurement used with computer system?

(1) Byte
(2) Megabyte
(3) Gigabyte
(4) All of these
Q. Which command is used to copy files?
(1) Copy
(2) Disk copy
(3) Type
(4) All of the above

Q. What will you insert, when you need to see all the information from two tables on
one form?
(1) A page break
(2) A subform
(3) A linked command button
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above
Q. Which is not an advantage of using computerised spreadsheets?
(1) Flexibility moving entries
(2) Speed of calculation
(3) Ability of generate tables
(4) Cost of initial setup
(5) None of the above

Q. To select several cells or ranges that are not touching each other, what would you
do while selecting?
(1) Hold down the Ctrl key
(2) Hold down the Shift key
(3) Hold down the Alt key
(4) Hold down Ctrl + Shift key
(5) None of the above
Q. Which of the following is select in Power Point to play a PowerPoint slide show
for previewing?
(1) View, Slide Sorter
(2) View, Slide
(3) View, Slide Show
(4) View, Outline
(5) None of these

Q. Which of the following is used in MS-PowerPoint, in order to see all the slides on
one screen?
(1) View, Slide Sorter
(2) View, Slide
(3) View, Master
(4) View, Slide Show
Q. Which of the following is not a property of fibre optic cabling?
(1) Transmits at faster speeds than copper cabling
(2) Easier to capture a signal from than copper cabling
(3) Very resistant to interference
(4) Carries signals as light waves
(5) None of the above

Q. What does fibre use to transmit data?

(1) Vibrations
(2) Sound
(3) Electrical current
(4) Light
Q. To cut the selected text, these keys should be pressed.
(1) Ctrl + C
(2) Ctrl + D
(3) Ctrl + V
(4) Ctrl + X
(5) None of the above

Q. It is the abuse of messaging systems to send unsolicited bulk messages in the form
of e-mails.
(1) Spam
(2) Adware
(3) Hacking
(4) Cracking
(5) Phishing
Q. ……… is a software that is designed to prevent, detect and remove viruses.
(1) Firewall
(2) Digital certificate
(3) Antivirus software
(4) Password
(5) None of these

Q. The secondary storage devices can only store data, but they cannot perform
(1) arithmetic operations
(2) fetch operations
(3) logic operations
(4) All of the above
Q. Which of the following statements is false?
(1) Secondary storage is a non-volatile
(2) Primary storage is volatile
(3) When the computer is turned off, data and instructions stored in primary storage
are erased
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above

Q. In computer science, by information we mean

(1) any output coming out from computer
(2) processed data put in an intelligent form
(3) a report printed by the computer
(4) plural of data
Q. DEL command is used to
(1) delete files
(2) delete directory
(3) delete labels
(4) delete contents of file
(5) None of these

Q. C++ language developed by

(1) Dennis Ritchie
(2) Charles Babbage
(3) Niklaus Wirth
(4) Bjarne Stroup
(5) John Mccharthy
Q. The bar which shows your current status in the document is called
(1) status
(2) standard
(3) format
(4) title
(5) None of these

Q. You can delete one character to the left of cursor using …… key.
(1) backspace
(2) delete
(3) edit
(4) Format
Q. You can use ……… alignment to centralise your text.
(1) right
(2) centre
(3) left
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

Q. MS-word, Spell check is under which menu?

(1) Edit
(2) Review
(3) Tool
(4) Format
Q. Grammatical errors are shown in which colour?
(1) Red
(2) Green
(3) Blue
(4) Black
(5) None of these

Q. This part of operating system manages the essential peripherals, such as the
keyboard, screen, disk drives and parallel and serial ports.
(1) Basic input/output system
(2) Secondary input/output system
(3) Peripheral input/output system
(4) Marginal input/output system
(5) None of the above
Q. The following are all computing devices, except
(1) notebook computers
(2) cellular telephones
(3) digital scanners
(4) personal digital assistants

Q. It performs basic tasks such as controlling input and output devides, processing of
instructions, controlling and allocating memory, managing files.
(1) The platform
(2) Application software
(3) Operating system
(4) The motherboard
(5) None of the above
Q. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a
(1) mainframe
(2) network
(3) supercomputer
(4) client
(5) None of these

Q. A database Management System(DBMS) is a

(1) hardware system used to create, maintain and provide controlled access to a database
(2) hardware system used to create, maintain and provide uncontrolled access to a database
(3) software system used to create, maintain and provide uncontrolled access to a database
(4) software system used to create, maintain and provide controlled access to a database
(5) None of the above
Q. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes
(1) data redundancy
(2) information overload
(3) duplicate data
(4) data inconsistency
(5) None of these

Q. Words that a programming language has set aside for its own use
(1) control words
(2) reserved words
(3) control structures
(4) reserved keys
(5) None of these
Q. A ……… is a software program used to view web pages.
(1) site
(2) host
(3) link
(4) Browser

Q. You must install …… on a network if you want to share a broadband Internet

connection.
(1) router
(2) modem
(3) node
(4) Cable
Q. Which term identifies a specific computer on the Web and the main page of the
entire site?
(1) URL
(2) Website address
(3) Hyperlink
(4) Domain name
(5) None of these

Q. Which one of the following is a valid binary number?

(1) 120
(2) 459
(3) 10101
(4) 10108
(5) None of these
Q. Process to verify the username and password is known as
(1) logic
(2) check-in
(3) authentication
(4) authorisation
(5) None of these

Q. The unit of speed used for super computer is

(1) KB
(2) FLOPS
(3) GB
(4) EB
(5) None of these
Q. HTTP stands for
(1) HyperText Transfer Protocol
(2) HighText Transfer Protocol
(3) HyperTechnical Transfer Protocol
(4) HyperText Test Protocol
(5) HyperText Transfer Program

Q. 23 will be written in binary as

(1) 10111
(2) 11111
(3) 10011
(4) 11011
(5) 10001
Q. Which one of the following is a good password?
(1) My date of birth
(2) My school name
(3) My name
(4) Timepass_09

Q. Memory is also known as temporary memory.

(1) ROM
(2) RAM
(3) DVD
(4) CD
(5) Hard Disk
Q. Which of the following is correct syntax of a URL?
(1) [Link]
(2) .[Link]
(3) [Link]
(4) @udinra.
(5) None of these

Q. Which of the following is the communication protocol that sets the standard used
by every computer that accessesWeb based information?
(1) XML
(2) DML
(3) HTTP
(4) HTML
(5) CSS
Q. Which program will you use to write a business letter?
(1) MS-Word
(2) MS-Excel
(3) MS-PowerPoint
(4) MS-Access

Q. An operating system is said to be multitasking if

(1) more than one programs can run simultaneously
(2) more than one users can work simultaneously
(3) Either ‘1’ or ‘2’
(4) All of the above
Q. What is E-commerce?
(1) Buying and selling takes place over Internet
(2) Buying and selling takes place over phone call
(3) Buying and selling takes place over both Internet and phone call
(4) Buying and selling takes place over either Internet or phone call
(5) None of the above

Q. The default extensions of Microsoft Word 2007 and Microsoft Excel 2007 files are
(1) .doc,.xsl
(2) .doc,.xml
(3) .docx,. xlsx
(4) .docx,.xml
Q: 30,000 bytes is nearly equal to
(1) 30 KB
(2) 3MB
(3) 3GB
(4) 3TB
(5) None of these

Q: EDI stands for

(1) Electronic Data Internet
(2) Electronic Data Interchange
(3) Electric Device Internet
(4) Electric Data Interchange
Q: Which command is used to permanently delete files or folders?
(1) Shift + Delete
(2) Ctrl + Delete
(3) Alt + Delete
(4) Delete
(5) Shift + All + Delete

Q: While working with MS-DOS, which command transfers a specific file from one
disk to another?
(1) Copy
(2) Diskcopy
(3) Time
(4) Rename
(5) Date
Q: First supercomputer developed in India is
(1) PARAM
(2) Aryabhatta
(3) Buddha
(4) CRAY-1
(5) None of these

Q. Which of the following is an example of computer software?

(1) Impact printer
(2) Console
(3) Device driver
(4) OCR
(5) None of these
Q. Programmers use a variety of ............. To communicate instructions to the
computer.
(1) programming languages
(2) system languages
(3) high level languages
(4) low level languages

Q. Which of the following displays the contents of the active cell?

(1) Active cell
(2) Formula bar
(3) Menu bar
(4) Name box
(5) None of these
Q. A software used to convert source program instructions to object instruction is
known as
(1) compiler
(2) assembler
(3) interpreter
(4) language processor
(5) None of these

Q. In computers, IC chip is used which is made of

(1) chromium
(2) iron oxide
(3) silica
(4) silicon
(5) None of these
Q. Example of mainframe computer is
(1) IBM–370
(2) UNIVAC–1110
(3) IBM–S/390
(4) All of these

Q. Which of the following is a part of central processing unit?

(1) Printer
(2) Keyboard
(3) Mouse
(4) ALU
Q. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(1) Windows XP is an operating system
(2) Linux is owned and sold by Microsoft
(3) Photoshop is a graphical design tool by adobe
(4) Linux is free and open-source software
(5) None of the above

Q. Pointing device includes the following except

(1) mouse
(2) light pen
(3) trackball
(4) keyboard
(5) joystick
Q. The term ‘operating system’ means
(1) a set of programs which controls computer working
(2) the way a user operates the computer system
(3) conversion of high-level language to machine language
(4) the way computer operator works
(5) None of the above

Q. The physical arrangement of elements on a page is referred to as a document’s

(1) features
(2) format
(3) pagination
(4) grid
Q. Most Websites have a main page, the……which acts as a doorway to the rest of
the Website pages.
(1) search engine
(2) home page
(3) browser
(4) URL
(5) None of these

Q. Input, output and processing devices grouped together represent a(n)

(1) mobile device
(2) information processing cycle
(3) circuit boards
(4) computer system
Q. What type of computer could be found in a digital watch?
(1) Mainframe computer
(2) Supercomputer
(3) Embedded computer
(4) Notebook computer
(5) Microcomputer

Q. Which of the following is not true about computer files?

(1) They are collections of data saved to a storage medium
(2) Every file has a file name
(3) A file extension is established by the user to indicate the file’s contents
(4) Files usually contain data
(5) None of the above
Q. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks except
(1) hackers
(2) spam
(3) viruses
(4) identity theft

Q. What type of technology allows you to use your finger, eye or voice print to secure
your information resources?
(1) Haptics
(2) Caves
(3) Biometrics
(4) RFID
(5) All of these
Q. Main memory is
(1) Random Access Memory
(2) Random Only Memory
(3) Serial Access Memory
(4) Storage Memory

Q. The smallest and fastest computer imitating brain working is

(1) Supercomputer
(2) Quantum computer
(3) Param-1000
(4) IBM chips
(5) None of these
Q. A Compact Disc (CD) is which type of data storage?
(1) Magnetic
(2) Optical
(3) Electrical
(4) Electromechanical
(5) None of these

Q. Which of the following is not a language for computer programming?

(1) Windows
(2) Pascal
(3) Basic
(4) Cobol
(5) All of these
Q. First computer mouse was built by
(1) Douglas Engelbart
(2) William English
(3) Oaniel Coogher
(4) Robert Zawacki

Q. C Language was developed by

(1) Ada Byron
(2) Bill Gates
(3) Blaise Pascal
(4) Dennis Ritchie
(5) None of these
Q. Which of the following is not one of the four major data processing functions of a
computer?
(1) Gathering data
(2) Processing data into information
(3) Analysing the data or information
(4) Storing the data or information
(5) None of the above

Q. When you connect to this service your computer is communicating with a server
at your Internet Service Provider (ISP). What does refer this?
(1) Modem
(2) Internet
(3) Intranet
(4) Server
(5) Computer
Q. A collection of related files is called a
(1) character
(2) field
(3) database
(4) record
(5) None of these

Q. Hard disk drives and CD drives are examples of

(1) backup
(2) storing
(3) storage
(4) All of these
Q. You would use ……… software to create spreadsheets, type documents and edit photos.
(1) application
(2) utility
(3) system
(4) operating
(5) None of these

Q. Which of the following are computers that support hundreds or thousands of users
simultaneously?
(1) Super
(2) Macro
(3) Mini
(4) Mainframes
(5) Digital
Q. Which device is a microprocessor-based computing device?
(1) Personal computing
(2) Mainframe
(3) Workstation
(4) Server
(5) None of these

Q. An E-mail account includes a storage area, often called a(n)

(1) attachment
(2) hyperlink
(3) mailbox
(4) IP address
(5) None of these
Q. Data becomes……when it is presented in a format that people can understand and
use it.
(1) processed
(2) graphs
(3) information
(4) presentation
(5) None of these

Q. A set of computer programs that helps a computer monitor itself and function
more efficiently is a/an
(1) Windows
(2) system software
(3) DBMS
(4) application software
Q. A ...... converts all the statements in a program in a single batch and the resulting
collection of instructions is placed in a new file.
(1) converter
(2) compiler
(3) interpreter
(4) instruction
(5) None of these

Q. One thousand bytes is a

(1) kilobyte
(2) megabyte
(3) gigabyte
(4) terabyte
(5) None of these
Q. Which one of the following is not a broadband communication medium?
(1) Microwave
(2) Fibre optic cable
(3) Twisted pair
(4) Co-axial cable
(5) None of these

Q. Which of the following performs modulation and demodulation?

(1) Co-axial cable
(2) Satellite
(3) Modem
(4) Optical fibre
(5) None of these
Q. The earliest calculating device is
(1) Abacus
(2) Difference engine
(3) Clock
(4) Pascaline
(5) None of these

Q. The function of Esc key is

(1) to end the action
(2) go to last action
(3) to repeat the last action
(4) to begin the action
Q. Which of the following is not an advantage of magnetic disk storage?
(1) The access time of magnetic disk is much less than that of magnetic tape
(2) Disk storage is longer lasting than magnetic tape
(3) Disk storage is less expensive than tape storage
(4) All of the above

Q. The memory sizes in mainframe computers and advanced technology micro

computers are expressed as
(1) bytes
(2) kilobytes
(3) bits
(4) megabytes
(5) None of these
Q. Computer virus is
(1) hardware
(2) Windows tool
(3) a computer program
(4) a system software
(5) None of these

Q. Each model of a computer has a unique

(1) assembly language
(2) machine language
(3) high level language
(4) All of these
Q. A website is a collection of
(1) graphics
(2) programs
(3) algorithms
(4) web pages
(5) Charts

Q. To move the cursor to the end of the document, press

(1) Ctrl + Esc
(2) Ctrl + End
(3) Ctrl + B
(4) Ctrl + C
(5) None of these
Q. The shortcut key to print documents is
(1) Ctrl + A
(2) Ctrl + B
(3) Ctrl + P
(4) Ctrl + C

Q. Viruses, Trojan horses and worms are

(1) able to harm computer system
(2) unable to detect if affected on computer
(3) user-friendly applications
(4) harmless applications resident on computer
Q: Which of the following is used to browse Internet?
(1) Skype
(2) Facebook
(3) Google
(4) Firefox
(5) Yahoo

Q. Internet banking is done over

(1) Internet
(2) mobile
(3) laptop
(4) computer
(5) tab