05-01-2025

1901CMD303001240160 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) The amplitude of a wave represented by displacement equation : y = sin ωt ± cos ωt will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Water waves are

(1) Longitudinal
(2) Transverse
(3) Both longitudinal and transverse
(4) Neither longitudinal nor transverse

3) A transverse wave is represented by y = A sin (ωt – kx). For what value of the wavelength is the
wave velocity equal to the maximum particle velocity ?

(1) A

(2)

(3) πA
(4) 2πA

4) A transverse wave is travelling along string from left to right. The adjoining figure represents the
shape of the string at a given instant. At this instant, among the following, choose the wrong

statement :-

(1) Points D, E and F have upwards positive velocity

(2) Points A, B and H have downwards negative velocity
(3) Points C and G have zero velocity
(4) Points A and E have minimum velocity

5) In resonance tube experiment if 1st and 2nd resonating length are 11 cm and 35 cm respectively,
then value of end correction will be : -

(1) 1 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 3 cm
(4) 0.5 cm

6) A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency f in air. The pipe is dipped vertically in
water so that half of it is in water. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now :

(1)

(2) 2ƒ
(3) ƒ

(4)

7) A pipe of length 85 cm is closed from one end. Find the number of possible natural oscillations of
air column in the pipe whose frequencies lie below 1250Hz. The velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s.

(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 12

8) In a resonance tube we get :

(1) Stationary-longitudinal waves

(2) Stationary-transverse waves
(3) Progressive-longitudinal waves
(4) Progressive-transverse waves

9) Speed of sound wave in air

(1) is independent of temperature.

(2) increases with pressure.
(3) increases with increase in humidity,
(4) decreases with increase in humidity.

10) A tuning fork of known frequency 256 Hz makes 5 beats per second with the vibrating string of a
piano. The beat frequency decreases to 2 beat per second when the tension in the piano string is
slightly increased. The frequency of the piano string before increasing the tension was:-
(1) 258 Hz
(2) 254 Hz
(3) 251 Hz
(4) 261 Hz

11) Two spheres of radius R & 2R having charge Q & 2Q respectively are placed far away from each

other. How much charge will flow when key 'k' is pressed ?

(1) Q

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

12) Two pith balls carrying equal charges are suspended from a common point by strings of equal
length. The equilibrium separation between them is r. Now the strings are rigidly clamped at half

the height. The equilibrium separation between the balls now become

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) In figure (a), a charge q is placed just outside the centre of a closed hemisphere, in figure (b),
the same charge q is placed just inside the centre of the closed hemisphere. Then flux passing
through the hemisphere in figure-(a) & (b) will be respectively

(1)

(2) 0, 0
(3)

(4)

14) Eight dipoles of charges of magnitude 'q' are placed inside a cube. The total electric flux coming
out of the cube is

(1) 8 q/ε0
(2) 16 q/ε0
(3) q/ε0
(4) zero

15) A negative charge particle (–q, m) is revolving around a uniformly charged long wire (+λ). Find

speed of the particle.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16)

A charged ball B hangs from a silk thread S, which makes an angle q with a large charged
conducting sheet P, as shown in the figure. The surface density s of the sheet is proportional to

(1) sin θ
(2) cos θ
(3) tan θ
(4) cot θ

17) A hollow cylinder has charge q coulomb within it. If ϕ is the electric flux in units of V-m
associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A in unit of V-m will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Two identical shell having +10µC and –90µC attract each other with a force 'F' of they kept in
contact and separated by the same distance, the new force magnitude between them :-

(1)

(2) 16F

(3)

(4) 9F

19)

Electric field at point O is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) An infinite no. of equal charges q are placed at distances x = 1, 2, 4, 8......∞. If the alternate
charges are of opposite nature, then the total potential at origin will be :-
(1) Zero
(2) 2 Kq

(3)

(4)

21) At what distance from the centre of ring on axis, electric field is maximum :-

(1) 10 cm
(2) 5 cm
(3)
(4)

22) In which of the following states is the potential energy of electric dipole maximum ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Three charges +4q, Q and q are placed in a straight line of length l at distances O, (l/2) and l
respectively. What should be Q in order to make the net force on q to be zero ?

(1) –q
(2) –2q
(3) –q/2
(4) 4q

24) An electric dipole of dipole moment is kept in a uniform electric field . Angle between and
is 30°. Calculate work done by field when angle is increased to 60°.
(1)

(2)

(3) pE
(4) Zero

25) The electric field due to a short dipole at a large distance r on its axis is :-

(1) Directly propotional to r3

(2) Inversely propotional to r3
(3) Directly propotional to r2
(4) Inversely propotional to r2

26) A drop of water of mass 1mg is charged with a positive charge of 1μC, how much electric field
should be exerted upon it so that it may be in equilibrium in the gravitational field of the earth :-

(1) 10 V/m, upward

(2) 10 V/m, downward
(3) 0.1 V/m, upward
(4) 0.1 V/m, downward

27) The acceleration due to gravity 'g' and mean density of earth 'ρ' are related by which of the
following relation ? (G = gravitational constant and R = Radius of earth)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) For a spherical shell of mass M and radius R at centre:-

Field is zero but potential is

(1)

Field is zero but potential is –

(2)

(3) Field and potential both are zero

(4)
Magnitude of field is and potential

29) Which of the following waves expresses the variation of gravitational potential with distance for
a hollow sphere of radius R :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A body is projected vertically upwards from the surface of earth with a velocity equal to one
third of escape velocity. The maximum height attained by the body will be:
(Take radius of earth = 6400 km and g=10 ms–2)

(1) 800 km
(2) 1600 km
(3) 2133 km
(4) 4800 km

31) A satellite of earth of mass 'm' is taken from orbital radius 2R to 3R, then minimum work done is
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A satellite of mass m is orbiting the earth (of radius R) at a height h from its surface. The total
energy of the satellite in terms of g0, the value of acceleration due to gravity at the earth’s surface, is
:-

(1)

(2)
–

(3)

–
(4)

33) Potential energy of a 2 kg body at the surface of a planet is –100 J, then escape velocity from the
surface of planet will be :-
(1) 10 m/s
(2) 8 m/s
(3) 6 m/s
(4) 4 m/s

34) The gravitational field due to a mass distribution is E = K/x in the x-direction. (K is a constant).
Taking the gravitational potential to be zero at infinity, its value at a distance x is :

(1) K/x
(2) K/2x
(3) K/x2
(4) K/2x2

35) A planet is revolving around the sun in elliptical orbit. Its closest distance from the sun is r and
farthest distance is R. If the orbital velocity of the planet closest to the sun be v, then what is the
velocity at the farthest point?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B

1) Given equation is for the displacement y of the particles of the medium for a wave.

. The wave is a

(1) Transverse progressive

(2) Longitudinal progressive
(3) Longitudinal stationary wave
(4) Transverse stationary wave

2) Two interfering waves of the same frequency have an intensity ratio 16 : 1. The ratio of intensities
at the maxima and the minima is :-

(1)

(2) 9
(3) 4

(4)
3) When a sound wave is reflected from a rigid support then its path changes by :

(1) λ/2
(2) λ
(3) π
(4) 2π

4) The figure below shows two equipotential lines in XY-plane for an electric field. The scales are
marked. The x-component Ex and y-component Ey of the electric field in the space between these

equipotential lines are respectively :-

(1) +100 V m–1, –200 V m–1

(2) +200 V m–1, +100 V m–1
(3) –100 V m–1, + 200 V m–1
(4) –200 V m–1, –100 V m–1

5) The speed of sound in oxygen (O2) at a certain temperature is 460 ms–1. The speed of sound in
helium (He) at the same temperature will be (assume both gases to be ideal)

(1) 330 ms–1

(2) 460 ms–1
(3) 500 ms–1
(4) 1420 ms–1

6) Sound level at intensity I is 20 dB if intensity of sound source is increased from I to 16I then
sound level will be : -

(1) 29 dB
(2) 12 dB
(3) 32 dB
(4) 35 dB

7) A simple pendulum has a length & mass of bob m. The bob is given a charge q coulomb. The
pendulum is suspended in a uniform horizontal electric field of strength E as shown in figure, then
calculate the time period of oscillation when the bob is slightly displaced from its mean position.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Figure shows electric field lines in which an electric dipole p is placed as shown. Which of the

following statements is correct?

(1) The dipole will not experience any force

(2) The dipole will experience a force towards right.
(3) The dipole will experience a force towards left
(4) The dipole will experience a force upwards.

9) Two concentric spherical shells have charges +q and –q as shown in figure. Choose the wrong
options :-

(1) At A electric field is zero, but electric potential is non-zero

(2) At B electric field and electric potential both are non-zero
(3) At C electric field is zero but electric potential is non-zero
(4) At A electric field and electric potential both are zero

10) Charges +q and –q are placed at points A and B respectively which are a distance 2L apart, C is
the midpoint between A and B. The work done in moving a charge +Q along the semicircle CRD is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as the nth power of the distance. Then, the time
period of a planet in circular orbit of radius R around the sun will be proportional to :

(1) Rn
(2) R(n+1)/2
(3) R(n–1)/2
(4) R–n

12) A body of mass m is taken to the bottom of a deep mine. Then its mass :

(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Becomes zero
(4) Remain same

13) Assertion : For the planets orbiting around the sun, angular speed, linear speed, kinetic energy
change with time, but angular momentum remains constant.
Reason : No torque is acting on the rotating planet, so its angular momentum remains constant.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.
14) The change in the value of 'g' at a height 'h' above the surface of the earth is same as at a depth
'd' if 'd' and 'h' are much smaller than the radius of earth, then which one of the following is correct
?

(1) d = h
(2) d = 2h

(3)

(4) d = h/2

15) A small satellite is in elliptical orbit around Earth as shown. If L denotes the magnitude of its
angular momentum about the centre of the earth and K denotes kinetic energy :-

(1) L2 > L1 and K2 = K1

(2) L2 = L1 and K2 = K1
(3) L2 < L1 and K2 = K1
(4) L2 = L1 and K2 > K1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following is pyridine :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

2) No. of 2° carbon are present in given compound:-

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) 2

3) In the following compound find out 1°, 2°, 3° carbons respectively :-

(1) 4, 3, 0
(2) 4, 2, 1
(3) 3, 3, 0
(4) 3, 2, 1

4) Which among the following is crotonic acid ?

(1) CH2 = CH – COOH

(2) CH3 – CH = CH – COOH
(3) CH2 = CH – CH2 – COOH
(4) Ph – CH = CH – COOH

5)

The IUPAC name of the compound CH3CH=CHC≡CH is :

(1) Pent-3-en-1-yne
(2) Pent-2-en-4-yne
(3) Pent-1-yn-3-ene
(4) Pent-4-yn-2-ene

6)
The IUPAC name of is

(1) 4–ethylcyclobut–2–en–1–ol
(2) 4–ethylcyclobut–1–en–3–ol
(3) 3–ethylcyclobut–1–en–2–ol
(4) 2–ethylcyclobut–3–en–1–ol

7) Select the correct priority for principal functional group :- (Acc. to IUPAC)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) IUPAC name of is :-

(1) Acetic anhydride

(2) Formyl ethanoate
(3) Butane-2,4-dione
(4) Ethanoicmethanoic anhydride

9) The IUPAC name for the compound is :-

(1) Cyclohexanoyl chloride

(2) Cyclohexane carbonyl chloride
(3) 1–Chloro cyclohexanal
(4) Chloro cyclohexyl methanal

10)
Correct IUPAC name of following
(1) 3-Carboxypentanedioic acid
(2) 3-Carboxypentane–1, 5–dioic acid
(3) Propane–1,2,3–trioic acid
(4) Propane–1,2,3–tricarboxylic acid

11) One among the following is the correct IUPAC name for the compound.

(1) N-formylamino ethane

(2) N-ethyl formyl amine
(3) N-ethylmethanamide
(4) Ethlamino methanal

12) IUPAC name of the given compound is :-

(1) 4-cyano-4-formyl-4-methyl butanoic acid.

(2) 4-cyano-4-formyl pentanoic acid
(3) 4-cyano-4-methyl-5-oxo pentanoic acid
(4) None of these

13) The two compounds and may be considered as :-

(1) Position isomers

(2) Chain isomers
(3) Tautomers
(4) Stereo isomers

14) Which type of structural isomerism is observed between following compound ?

CH3–CH2–CH2–NH–CH3
CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–NH–H

(1) Metamerism
(2) Chain isomerism
(3) Functional group isomerism
(4) Positional isomerism
15) and are

(1) Position isomers

(2) Functional isomers
(3) Chain isomers
(4) Metamers

16) and are :-

(1) Position isomer

(2) Chain Isomer
(3) Functional group isomer
(4) Ring chain isomer

17) Find Relation between given compounds :-

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Identical, i.e., homomers
(4) Constitutional isomers

18) The correct order of increasing basic nature of the following bases is

(1) CH3NH2 < NH3 < (CH3)2NH

(2) (CH3)2NH < NH3 < CH3NH2
(3) NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
(4) CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < NH3

19) Which of the following compounds has an S configuration?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Meso-tartaric acid is :

(1) Optically active

(2) Optically inactive
(3) G.I.
(4) Structural isomer

21) Which of the following will be optically active?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

22) Which of the following compound will be chiral molecule?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

23) Among the following, the Newmann projections of meso-2,3-butadiol are

(P)

(Q)
(R)

(S)

(1) P,Q
(2) P,R
(3) R,S
(4) Q,S

24) Which of the following best explains the reason for the relative stabilities of the conformers
shown?

(I) (II)

(1) I has more torsional strain

(2) I has more steric strain
(3) II has more torsional strain
(4) II has more steric strain

25) Which of the following compound is resolvable ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

26) Which of the following can show geometrical isomerism?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Incorrect stability order is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Effect of –NO2 operating an –NH2 group in this molecule :-

(1) Only –I effect

(2) Only +M effect
(3) Only –M effect
(4) Both –M and –I effect

29)

Which of the following has lowest pKa value?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30)

The correct decreasing order of stability of following intermediate is :-

(1) I > III > II > IV

(2) I > II > III > IV
(3) I > IV > III > II
(4) I > II > IV > III

31) Which of the following is most stable cation :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
32) The decreasing order of stability of following cation is :-

(1) P > Q > R > S

(2) Q > S > R > P
(3) Q > P > S > R
(4) Q > P > R > S

33) Correct order of stability is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) All of these

34)

The relative stability of the following carbocation:-

(I) (II) (III)

(1) I > II > III
(2) I > III > II
(3) II > I > III
(4) II > III > I

35) Which is most stable :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
 SECTION-B

1)

Decreasing order of stability of given carbocation's is -

(1) a > c > b > d

(2) a > b > c > d
(3) c > a > b > d
(4) c > b > a > d

2) Resonance shown by -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

3) Which of the following is an aromatic compound ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
4) Among the following, which has maximum electron density :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) The radical, is aromatic because it has :-

(1) 6p–orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons

(2) 6p–orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons
(3) 7p–orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons
(4) 7p–orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons

6) Which of the following molecules is expected to have the greatest resonance stabilization ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

7) The compound which will give white precipitate with aq. AgNO3 is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Identify correct acidic strength order in the following compounds :-

(1) i > ii > iii
(2) ii > iii > i
(3) i > iii > ii
(4) iii > i > ii

9) Correct decreasing pKa value:-

CF3COOH > NO2CH2COOH > C6H5COOH >

(1)
CH3COOH
CF3COOH > C6H5COOH > NO2CH2COOH >
(2)
CH3COOH
C6H5COOH > NO2CH2COOH > CF3COOH >
(3)
CH3COOH
CH3COOH > C6H5COOH > NO2CH2COOH >
(4)
CF3COOH

10) Which of the following is most stable anion :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

11) Correct order of pkb among following is :-

(1) C2H5–NH2 > (C2H5)3N > (C2H5)2NH > Ph–NH2

(2) Ph–NH2 > (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5–NH2
(3) Ph–NH2 > C2H5–NH2 > (C2H5)3N > (C2H5)2NH
(4) (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5–NH2 > Ph–NH2

12) Compare relative stability of following resonating structures :

(1) a > b > c

(2) a > c > b
(3) b > a > c
(4) c > a > b

13) The increasing order of basicity of the following compounds is :

(1) II < IV < I < III

(2) I < II < III < IV
(3) IV < I < II < III
(4) II < I < III < IV

14) Which of the following does not show tautomerism ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Which of the following compound has maximum enol content ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) In which of the following condition phenotype may not be affected ?

(1) When modified allele produce a normal enzyme.

(2) When modified allele produces a non-functional enzyme.
(3) When the unmodified allele produces no enzyme.
(4) All the above
2)

Which of the following is correct :

(1) Homozygous – Mm
(2) Heterozygous – NN
(3) Hemizygous – er
(4) Heterozygous – AA

3) There are three genes a, b, c percentage of crossing over between a and b is 20%, b and c is 28%
and a and c is 8%. What is the sequence of genes on chromosome

(1) b, a, c
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, c, b
(4) None

4) A colour blind man has a colourblind sister, but a normal brother, then his mother would be :-

(1) Colourblind
(2) Completely normal
(3) Normal but carrier
(4) May be carrier or colour blind

5) Which disease is sex linked recessive disease ?

(1) Haemophilia
(2) Sickle cell anaemia
(3) Phenylketonuria
(4) Thalassemia

6) Presence of one additional copy of a chromosome known as :-

(1) Monosomy
(2) Tetrasomy
(3) Trisomy
(4) Double monosomy

7) The X body that was named by Henking was observed by him in a few

(1) Insects
(2) Birds
(3) Mammals
(4) Protozoans

8) This is the pedigree for autosomal recessive disease albinism (aa). What is the probability of II-I

homozygous normal?

(1) 1/3
(2) 1/2
(3) 2/3
(4) 1/4

9) In Lac-operon model which one acts as inducer.

(1) Glucose
(2) Allolactose
(3) Tryptophan
(4) Galactose

10) Identify A, B and C from the following diagram.

(1) A: CTC; B: GAG; C: Glu

(2) A: GAG; B: CTC; C: Pro
(3) A: CTC; B: GAG; C: Thr
(4) A: CTC; B: GAG; C: Leu

11) Read the following statements from column given below and choose the correct option:

A B

Occur in pairs Occur in pairs

 Segregate at the time of gamete Segregate at gamete formation
formation such that pair is and only one of each pair is
transmitted to gamete transmitted to a gamete

Independent pairs segregate One pair segregates

independently of each other independently of another pair
(a) All the statements of column A are true for chromosome
(b) All the statements of column B are always true for chromosome
(c) All these statements of column A are always true for Gene
(d) All the statements of column B are always true for Gene
How many statements are incorrect ?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

12) In the following representation A and B is -

Pneumococcus S Strain → injected into Mice → A
Pneumococcus R Strain → injected into Mice → B

A → Mice die
(1)
B → Mice live
A → Mice die
(2)
B → Mice die
A → Mice live
(3)
B → Mice live
A → Mice live
(4)
B → Mice die

13) Polypeptide synthesis require energy during :-

P – An amino acid activation
Q – Binding of large ribosomal subunit
R – Binding of tRNA to P site
S – Binding of tRNA to A site

(1) P, Q, R, S
(2) P, Q, R
(3) P, R, S
(4) Only P, S

14) Identify the molecule shown below and select the right option :-

Options :-

Molecule Present in Biomolecule

 (1) Thymine DNA Pyrimidine

(2) Guanine DNA Purine

(3) Adenine RNA and DNA Purine

(4) Uracil DNA Purine

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) In a double stranded DNA molecule each step of ascent is represented by a pair of bases. At each
step of ascent, the strand turns :-

(1) 0.34 nm
(2) 36°
(3) 3.4 nm
(4) 34°

16) Which positions in a purine ring are occupied by nitrogen ?

(1) 1st, 3rd, 8th and 9th

(2) 2nd, 5th, 7th and 9th
(3) 1st, 3rd, 7th and 9th
(4) 3rd, 5th, 7th and 9th

17) Read the following statements (A-D).

(A) DNA is an acidic substance
(B) The two chains of DNA have antiparallel polarity
(C) 5-Methyl uracil is another chemical name of thymine
(D) The two chains of B-DNA are coiled in a right handed fashion How many of above statements are
correct ?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

18) Which one of the following is the main enzyme of DNA replication :-

(1) DNA-polymerase I
(2) DNA polymerase III
(3) RNA polymerase I
(4) RNA polymerase III

19) Incorrect about nucleosome is

(1) Histones are organized to form a unit of eight molecules called a histone octamer
(2) The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer.
(3) Nucleosomes constitute the repeating unit of a structure in nucleus called chromatin
The nucleosomes in chromatin are seen as ‘Beads on string’ structure when viewed under light
(4)
microscope.

20) The Hershey – Chase experiments show the following steps chronologically

(1) Blending, Infection, Centrifugation

(2) Centrifugation, Infection, Blending
(3) Infection, Centrifugation, Blending
(4) Infection, Blending , Centrifugation

21) Bacteriophage lambda has ________ base pairs in nucleic acid (genetic material).

(1) 48205
(2) 5386
(3) 48502
(4) 45802

22) One of the hallmarks of Watson and Crick was

(1) Presence of nucleotide

(2) Phosphoester bond
(3) Base pairing
(4) Covalent bond

23) What will the amount of guanine in a DNA if the total amount of adenine and thymine in the DNA
is 45% ?

(1) 45%
(2) 65%
(3) 27.5%
(4) 22.3%

24) Which non - radioactive isotope was used by Messelson and Stahl in their experiment ?

(1) P32
(2) S35
(3) N15
(4) C12

25) Which of the following event takes place in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells?

(1) Splicing of RNA

(2) Capping of RNA
(3) Formation of peptide bonds
(4) Tailing of RNA

26) An E. Coli cell has hybrid DNA with one strand of 14N and other of 15N. If this cell is allowed to
grow in a medium containing 14NH4Cl as the only nitrogen source, then what percent of cells in the
third generation will have hybrid DNA ?

(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 12.5%
(4) 87.5%

27) In - post transcriptional procesing, splicing is

(1) Removal of exons

(2) Fragmentation of hnRNA
(3) Removal of introns and joining of exons
(4) Joining of two mRNAs

28) For the first time, Georgge Gamow argued that

(1) The information of the amino acid sequence in proteins is present in the DNA
(2) The codon in mRNA should be present in commaless fashion
(3) The genetic code should constitute a combination of bases
(4) A single codon can code for more than one amino acid

29) Which of the following codons has two functions ?

(1) UAA
(2) AUG
(3) UGG
(4) UAG

30) Select the incorrect match w.r.t. lac operon

(1) Structural genes - Transcribe mRNA for polypeptide synthesis

(2) Regulatory gene - Functional in the presence of lactose
(3) Operator gene - Interacts with a regulator molecule
(4) Promoter gene - Possess site for RNA polymerase

31) DNA is wrapped around the histone octamer to form -

(1) Nuclein
(2) Nucleolus
(3) Nucleosome
(4) Nucleus
32) Identify the incorrect statement related to genetic material

(1) It should be able to generate its replica

(2) It should chemically & structurally be stable
(3) It should provide scope for slow changes (mutations)
(4) It should not be able to express itself in the form of 'Mendelian characters'.

33) If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at
position 901 is deleted such that the length of RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be
altered ?

(1) 1
(2) 11
(3) 33
(4) 333

34) The number of nucleosome present in human cell is -

(1) 3.3 × 107 nucleosome

(2) 1.1 × 107 nucleosome
(3) 6.3 × 107 nucleosome
(4) indefinite

35) What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by the following stretch of DNA ?
3' - ATGCATGCATGCATG - 5' Template strand
5' - TACGTACGTACGTAC - 3' Coding strand

(1) 3' - AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG - 5'

(2) 5' - UACGUACGUACGUAC - 3'
(3) 3' - UACGUACGUACGUAC - 5'
(4) 5' - AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG - 3'

SECTION-B

1) In bacteria, which enzyme catalyses the transcription of m - RNA, tRNA & r - RNA ?

(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase

(2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(3) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
(4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase

2) Assertion (A): If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is known, then the sequence in
another strand can be predicted
Reason (R): Only one strand of the DNA is copied during transcription

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is a correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but the (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

3) Match the following Columns and choose the correct option

Column - I Column - II

a. RNA polymerase I i. hnRNA

b. RNA polymerase II ii. 23S rRNA

c. RNA polymerase III iii. 18S rRNA

d. Ribozyme iv. tRNA

(1) a (iii), b (i), c (ii), d (iv)
(2) a (iv), b (i), c (iii), d (ii)
(3) a (iii), b (i), c (iv), d (ii)
(4) a (i), b (iii), c (iv), d (ii)

4) Read the following statements and choose the correct answer

Statement I: Eukaryotic genes are split genes and polycistronic
Statement II: Structural genes in Lac-operon are Monocistronic genes

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct

5) Find the incorrect match

Process Location

Transcription in
(1) Nucleus
prokaryotes

Transcription in
(2) Nucleus
eukaryotes

Translation in
(3) Cytoplasm
prokaryotes

Translation in
(4) Cytoplasm
eukaryotes
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Which of the following figures correctly represents process of DNA replication?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) The promoter and Terminator of a transcription unit are located towards

(1) 5’ end (upstream) and 3’ end (downstream) respectively

(2) 5’ end (downstream) and 3’ end (upstream) respectively
(3) 3’ end (upstream) and 5’ end (downstream) respectively
(4) 3’ end (downstream) and 5’ end (upstream) respectively

8) Promoter in a transcription unit provide binding site for

(1) DNA polymerase

(2) RNA polymerase
(3) Repressor protein
(4) Termination factor

9) Double Helix model of DNA given by Watson & Crick was based on:-

(1) X-ray diffraction data

(2) Chargaff rule
(3) Complementary base pairing
(4) All of these

10) Which linkage (bond) is not found in DNA?

(1) N-glycosidic linkage
(2) Phosphodiester linkage
(3) Peptide linkage
(4) Phosphoester linkage

11) During replication of DNA, Okazaki fragments are formed in the direction of :

(1) 3' → 5'

(2) 5' → 3'
(3) 5' → 5'
(4) 3' → 3'

12) Guanosine & Cytosine are respectively :-

(1) Nucleotide, Nucleoside

(2) Nucleoside, Nucleotide
(3) Nucleoside, Nucleoside
(4) None of them

13) m-RNA also has some additional sequences that are not translated called UTR. The function of
UTR is

(1) Charging of t-RNA

(2) Formation of peptide bond
(3) Helps in efficient translation
(4) Helps in translocation

14) Question. Which one of the following steps in transcription is catalysed by RNA polymerase?

(1) Initiation
(2) Elongation
(3) Termination
(4) All of these

15) To initiate translation, the mRNA first binds to

(1) The smaller ribosomal subunit

(2) The larger ribosomal subunit
(3) The whole ribosome
(4) No such specificity exists

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A
1) According to Big-Bang theory universe is about ____.

(1) 5 million years old

(2) 10 million years old
(3) 20 billion years old
(4) 30 billion years old

2) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita are example of :-

(1) Homologous organ

(2) Analogous organ
(3) Homoplastic organ
(4) Vestigial organ

3) Flipper of penguin and flipper of dolphins are example of :-

(1) Homologous organ

(2) Analogous organ
(3) Atavistic organ
(4) Vestigial organ

4) Select the incorrect statements :-

(A) The essence of Darwinian theory of evolution is natural selection.
(B) Evolution is a directed process in the sense of determinism.
(C) The geological history of earth is not related with the biological history of earth.
(D) During evolution the rate of appearance of new forms is linked to the life span.

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and D
(4) B and D

5) The first non-cellular form of life could have originated around :

(1) 4 billion years back

(2) 3 billion years back
(3) 2 billion years back
(4) 0.5 billion years back

6) Which of following antibody will be produced during allergic reaction ?

(1) IgA
(2) IgE
(3) IgM
(4) IgD

7) Which of the following is not a component of innate immunity ?

(1) Interferons
(2) Phagocytes
(3) Skin
(4) Antibodies

8) Hepatitis-B vaccine produced from :-

(1) Bacteria
(2) Recombinant RNA technology
(3) Fungus (yeast)
(4) Both (2) and (3)

9) The region of antibody that recognises the antigen is called :-

(1) Paratope
(2) Epitope
(3) Aggretope
(4) Hapten

10) Widal test is used to diagnose the disorder :-

(1) Tuberculosis
(2) Dengue
(3) Cholera
(4) Typhoid

11) Identify the procedure shown in the figure given below:

(1) Tubectomy
(2) Vasectomy
(3) Ovarian cancer
(4) Uterine cancer

12) Identify the contraceptive device shown below as well as the related right place of its
implantation into a woman and select the correct option for the two together :

Contraceptive Site of
device implant

Fallopian
(1) LNG – 20
tube

(2) Lippes loop Uterine wall

(3) Copper–T Uterine cavity

(4) Multiload 375 Oviduct

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) Which of the following are natural contraceptive methods?

(A) Periodic abstinence
(B) Coitus interruptus
(C) Lactational amenorrhoea
(D) M.T.P.

(1) A, B and D
(2) A, C, D
(3) A, B, C
(4) B, D

14) Which of the following method of birth control can cause excessive menstrual bleedings, pain
and inflammation of uterine wall ?

(1) Condom
(2) Cervical cap
(3) Oral contraceptive
(4) Intra uterine device (IUDs)

15) Cu ions released from copper–releasing intra uterine devices (IUDs) helps in :-

(1) Prevent ovulation

(2) Block the uterus
(3) Increase phagocytosis of ovum
(4) Suppress sperm motility

16) Industrial melanism, drug resistance are example of ............ :-

(1) Stabilising selection

(2) Directional selection
(3) Disruptive selection
(4) Artificial selection

17) Analogous organs are :-

(1) Similar in origin

(2) Similar in function
(3) Similar in structure
(4) Dissimilar in function

18) Mole and Marsupial mole both are fossorial mammals and provide good examples of :-

(1) Homology
(2) Analogy
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) (2) and (3) both

19) For a long time it was believed that life come out of decaying and rotting matter like mud straw
etc. This was theory of :-

(1) Special creation

(2) Sponteneous generation
(3) Panspermia
(4) Biogensis

20) Primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing :

(1) 25 mya
(2) 15 mya
(3) 5 mya
(4) 2 mya

21) Find out the odd one ?

(1) Common cold

(2) Typhoid
(3) Dengue
(4) Hepatitis–B
22) Fusion of gametes, in the life cycle of Plasmodium occurs in :-

(1) RBCs of mosquito

(2) Stomach of mosquito
(3) Liver of man
(4) RBCs of man

23) Which disease is shown in the figure?

(1) Malaria
(2) Kala azar
(3) Filariasis
(4) Ascariasis

24) Gametocytic stage of plasmodium develops in :-

(1) Stomach in mosquito

(2) Liver of human
(3) RBC of human
(4) Salivary glands of mosquito

25) Most common cause of pneumonia is ?

(1) Streptococcus pneumonae

(2) Haemophilus influenzae
(3) Mycobacterium
(4) Both 1 & 2

26) Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of :-

(1) Ovum into the fallopian tube

(2) Zygote into the fallopian tube
(3) Zygote into the uterus
(4) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian tube

27)

Read the following four statements (A - D) : -

(A) Removal of gonads cannot be considered as a contraceptive option
(B) Complete lactation could help as a natural method of contraception
(C) Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete formation

(D) Medical termination of pregnancy is legalised in our country

How many statements are correct?
(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

28) Which technique is suitable for the females who cannot produce the ovum but can provide a
suitable environment for fertilization and further development?

(1) ZIFT
(2) GIFT
(3) IUT
(4) ICSI

29) In Lactational Ammenorrhoea, ovulation does not ocuur during the period of intense lactation
because :-

(1) Synthesis of prostaglandin.

(2) Presence of large amount of IgA in milk.
(3) Increase in estrogen & progesterone ratio.
(4) High level of prolactin.

30) In ______ the egg is first fertilised outside the body and then it is inserted into the oviduct.

(1) GIFT
(2) ZIFT
(3) IUT
(4) AI

31) The golden age of reptiles :

(1) Archaeozoic era

(2) Proterozoic era
(3) Coenozoic era
(4) Mesozoic era

32) S.L. Miller an American scientist, in his experiment, created electric discharge at 800°C in a
closed flask containing some gases with water vapour. These gases were :

(1) Oxygen, Nitrogen, Hydrogen

(2) Methane, Ammonia, Nitrogen
(3) Methane, Ammonia, Hydrogen
(4) Oxygen, Methane, Ammonia

33) During evolution sea weeds existed probably before how many years :-

(1) 320 million years

(2) 200 million years
(3) 100 million years
(4) 350 million years

34) Fish like reptile (Ichthyosaurs) which go back into the water from it's land ancestors evolved
before how many years :-

(1) 400 million years

(2) 100 million years
(3) 200 million years
(4) 150 million years

35) According to Hugo de vries, single step large mutation is called :-

(1) Sport
(2) Saltation
(3) Variation
(4) Mutation

SECTION-B

1) This graph indicate which type of natural selection:-

(1) Directional
(2) Stabilising
(3) Disruptive
(4) Progressive

2) The brain capacity of neanderthal man was :-

(1) 600 cc
(2) 900 cc
(3) 1650 cc
(4) 1400 cc

3) The cells which in reality release the antibodies are:-

(1) B - lymphocytes
(2) Helper -T cells
(3) Cytotoxic T-cells
(4) Memory cells

4) Use of which of these drugs can reduce the symptoms of allergy ?

(1) Steroids
(2) Adrenalin
(3) Anti - histamine
(4) All of these

5) From the list of symptoms given below, identify how many of these are common in typhoid ?
(a) Sustained high fever
(b) Stomach pair
(c) Constipation
(d) loss of aplite
(e) Sore throat
(f) dry scaly lesions on skin
(g) Swelling in lower limbs

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

6)

Among the following, which is the most dangerous STD ?

(1) AIDS
(2) Hepatitis-B
(3) Genital herpes
(4) Syphilis

7) Cellular Barriers of innate immune system includes :-

(1) T-Lymphocytes, Macrophages and NK-cells

(2) Neutrophils, Monocytes and Macrophages
(3) NK cells, Adipocytes and Platelets
(4) Neutrophils, plasma cells & NK cells

8)
Which is not a viral disease ?

(1) Common cold

(2) Pneumonia
(3) Hepatitis-B
(4) AIDS

9) Which of the following contraceptive has least side effects ?

(1) CuT
(2) Condom
(3) Mala-D
(4) Saheli

10) Which one of the following belongs to hormone releasing IUDs :-

(1) Lippes loop

(2) Cu7
(3) Progestasert
(4) Multiload 375

11) MTP is relatively safe during?

(1) 16 week
(2) 18 week
(3) First trimester
(4) Second trimester

12) Which of the following is an incorrect statement for periodic abstinence?

The couple should abstain from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle when ovulation
(1)
could be expected
(2) 10th to 17th day of the cycle is fertile period, when the chances of fertilisation are high
(3) This prevents the chances of union of male and female gametes
In this method, the ovum and sperms are prevented from physically meeting with the help of
(4)
barriers

13) Which one of the following is the most widely used method of contraception by females in India?

(1) Oral contraceptive pills

(2) Condoms
(3) IUDs
(4) Sterilisation

14) Which of the following is/are complication of STIs?

(1) PIDs
(2) Stillbirth
(3) Infertility
(4) All of these

15) Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

(1) Non - medicated IUDs - Lippesloop

(2) Copper releasing IUD - LNG - 20
(3) Hormone releasing IUD -Progestasert
(4) Saheli - Once a week contraceptive pill
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 4 4 1 3 2 1 3 3 4 1 1 4 1 3 4 3 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 1 1 2 2 1 3 2 3 1 2 2 1 4 1

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 4 1 3 4 3 4 3 3 3 2 4 1 2 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 3 1 2 1 1 4 4 2 4 3 3 2 3 2 3 1 3 2 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 2 4 2 4 2 1 4 2 2 4 4 1 2

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 3 4 2 2 2 2 1 4 2 3 1 1 3 3

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 3 1 3 1 3 1 1 2 1 1 1 3 3 2 3 1 2 4 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 2 2 3 4 3 1 2

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 3 2 1 1 1 2 4 3 2 4 3 2 1

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 2 2 2 2 4 3 1 4 1 3 3 4 4 2 2 4 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 2 3 3 4 2 2 2 4 2 4 3 1 3 2

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 4 1 4 2 1 2 2 2 3 3 4 3 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Ideal equation

y= sin (ωt + ϕ)

y= sin (ωt + ϕ)

amplitude A = =

3)

Wave velocity = nλ = ωA

⇒λ= = 2πA

4) Particle velocity, = –v

or = –wave velocity × slope of the wave

(1) For upward velocity, = +ve, so slope must be negative which is at the points D, E and F

(2) For downward velocity, = –ve, so slope must

be positive which is at the points A, B and H
(3) For zero velocity, slope must be zero which is at C and G.
(4) For maximum magnitude of velocity,
|slope| = maximum, which is at A and E. Hence, alternative is wrong.

5)

11)

Potential of both spheres are same so no charge will flow.

13) In case (a)

Charge inside is zero
ϕ=0
In case (b)
Charge inside in q

14) Total flux = (qnet = 0 for dipole)

15) Force of attraction of wire on -q will provide required centripetal force

where,
E will be radially away from wire, so force on charge will be towards the wire

0
19) E = ;λ=

0
E =

0
E =

20) Potential at x = 0
v = v1 + v2 + v3 + v4 + .....

v=

21) E.F is maximum at x =

24) Wfield = PE (cos θ2 – cos θ1)

= PE (cos 60 – cos 30)

= PE =
 30)

31) W = E2 – E1 =

32)

Total energy =
Here, r = R + h and GM = g0R2

⇒E=

33)

Ve = = 10 m/s

34) Gravitational potential =

37)

39)
 41) I = 102 × 10–12 = 10–10 W/m2

42) Time period of simple pendulum is given as

T = 2π ; where = geff = =

∴ T = 2π

43) Conceptual

44) E = 0 for both +v & –ve outside sphere & v=0

45)

46)

or

CHEMISTRY

57)

Correct priority order for principal functional group → (According to IUPAC)

58)
Ethanoicmethanoic anhydride

59) Special suffix used

60)
Propane–1,2,3–tricarboxylic acid

68)
So correct order is –
NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH

76)

77)

Stability of C⊕ ∝
Stability of Co ∝ +M / Resonance / +H.C. / +I
Stability of C– ∝ –M / Resonance / –I

82) Stability of carbocation a ERG α

83)

All order are correct.

87)

Resonance shown by
 97)

98)

99) does not contain a-H attached to sp3 carbon.

BOTANY

101) NCERT-XII, Page # 60

112) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 84

115) NCERT XI, pg.#152

117) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 97, para 2,3,5

118) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 90

137) NCERT (Class 12) [Link]. 81, 91

138) NCERT (Class 12) page no. 95, 99

139) NCERT (Class 12) [Link]. 93, 100

140) NCERT (Class 12) [Link]. 94

 141) NCERT (Class 12) [Link]. 91

142) NCERT (Class 12) [Link]. 92-93

143) NCERT (Class 12) [Link]. 92

148)

Ncert Pg No: 115, 2021-22

150)

Ncert Pg No: 114, 2021-22

ZOOLOGY

155)

NCERT(XII) Pg# 128 Para: 7.1

156)

NCERT Pg. No. 153

157)

NCERT Pg. No. 150

158)

NCERT Pg. # 136

159)

Allen module

161) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 61

162) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 60 (E) 67 (H) Fig. 4.2

163) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 60 (E) 66 (H)

164)

NCERT Pg No # 60

165) NCERT Pg No # 60

179) NCERT Pg. # 60

182) NCERT(XII) Pg# 127 Para: 7.1

184)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 124

185)

NCERT : PAGE 135