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Mwanza City Council Physics Exam 2025

The document is an examination paper for Physics 1, scheduled for May 2025, consisting of three sections with a total of eleven questions. Students are required to answer all questions in sections A and B, and two questions from section C, with specific marks allocated to each section. The paper includes various physics concepts, calculations, and theoretical questions, along with constants for reference.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
8 views5 pages

Mwanza City Council Physics Exam 2025

The document is an examination paper for Physics 1, scheduled for May 2025, consisting of three sections with a total of eleven questions. Students are required to answer all questions in sections A and B, and two questions from section C, with specific marks allocated to each section. The paper includes various physics concepts, calculations, and theoretical questions, along with constants for reference.

Uploaded by

azizshelukindo
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

PRESIDENTS OFFICE

MWANZA CITY COUNCIL


MAHINA, MUHANDU, MBUGANI
JOINT EXAMINATION, MAY 2025
SUBJECT CODE TIME
PHYSICS 1 031 3:00 HOURS

Instructions:
1. This paper consists of section A, B and C with a total of eleven (11) questions.
2. Answer all question in section A and B and two (2) questions from section C
3. Section A carries sixteen (16 Marks), section B fifty – four (54 Marks) and Section
C carries thirty (30 Marks)
4. Non – programmable calculators may be used.
5. Write your Examination Number on every page of your answer sheet (s)
6. Where necessary the following constants may be used:
i) Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s2
ii) Pie,  = 3.14
iii) Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s
iv) Speed of the light = 3 x 108 m/s
v) Density of the sea water = 1.3 g/cm3 or 1300 kg/m3
vi) Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J/kg 0C
vii) Gravity of the moon = 1.67 N/kg

SECTION A (16 Marks)


Answer all questions in this section
1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer from among the given
alternatives and write its letter beside the item number in the answer booklet (s)
provided.
i) When a plastic pen is rubbed against dry hair, the pen attracts small pieces of
paper. This means that:
A. Hair become negatively charged D. Hair gain electrons
B. Hair become positively charged E. Paper lose electrons
C. Pen loses electrons
ii) Which of the following take place when water solidifies to become ice?
A. Water molecule get near to each other
B. Energy is absorbed from the surrounding
C. Water molecule are not arranged orderly
D. Its mass increases
E. The weight decreases
iii) In first 5 seconds an athlete completes 50 metres running due to north and then
5 seconds to complete the remaining 50 metres in the same direction. For this
case he/she is said to run with:
A. Uniform speed D. Uniform deceleration
B. Uniform acceleration E. Uniform distance
C. Uniform velocity
iv) The heat energy that comes from interior part of the earths is best termed as:
A. Sea wave energy D. Thermal nuclear power
B. Geothermal energy E. Solar energy
C. Hydroelectric power
v) A crest of one wave meets the crests of another wave at the same point then the
resultant wave has a greater amplitude. The phenomena is referred as:
A. Diffraction D. Destructive interference
B. Refraction E. Principle of superposition
C. Constructive interference
vi) Why oil is used as lubricant?
A. Has low density D. It has less density
B. It is inflammable E. Is low viscosity
C. Is high viscosity
vii) People eat food everyday without missing because they get:
A. Mechanical energy D. Solar energy
B. Heat energy E. Nuclear energy
C. Chemical energy
viii) A sample of radioactive element contain 120 nuclei. How many half – lives must
elapse. For the sample to get 15 nuclei.
A. 5 B. 3 C. 2 D. 8 E. 4
ix) A bus carrying a very big load on his top carrier can easily overturn because;
A. It can not run fast D. It is more stable
B. Its equilibrium is stable E. Its centre of gravity is high
C. Its centre of gravity is low
x) Which of the following is not a property of a magnetic line of a force due to a bar
magnet?
A. They have direction from north pole to south pole outside the magnet
B. They don’t exist inside the magnet
C. They have direction from south pole to north pole inside the magnet
D. They tend to be closer inside but wider apart outside the magnet
E. They form complete loop
2. Match the item in List A with the corresponding in List B by write the letter of the
correct response beside the item number in the answer sheets provided;
LIST A LIST B
i) The region where two semi – conductor A. Junction voltage
meet B. Extrinsic semi-conductor
ii) The region near the boundary is fairly free C. Depletion lay
of majority charge carriers D. Reverse biased
iii) The potential difference in the region near E. Transistor
the boundary fairly free of majority charge F. Break down current
carrier G. Junction
iv) Is formed by deposition of a metal on a H. Forward bias
surface of metal conductor I. Zenar diode
v) A device commonly used to amplify or J. Metal semiconductor
switch electronic signals diode
vi) It is conductivity is high

SECTION B (54 Marks)


Answer all questions from this section
3. a) i. Explain why bubble of an air becomes bigger as it comes from the bottom
of water to its top surface.
ii. Explain why the freezing compartment of a refrigerator is located near the
top of cabinet.
b) A bubble of air of volume 50.0 mm3 is released by a driver at a depth where the
pressure is 304.0 cmHg. Assume the temperature remain constant, what is the
volume just before it reaches the surface where the pressure if 76.0 cmHg.

4. a) Explain why luggage compactment of a bus located at the bottom of bus. State two
condition for body to be in equilibrium.
b) A hollow metal sphere of a mass 5 kg is tied to the bottom of the sea – bed by rope.
The tension in the rope is 60N. Calculate the volume of sphere.

5. a) Imagine you are given a task of design a saloon using two larger plane mirrors, the
owners of the saloon want three images only of a custom to be seen in the mirrors
when trimming. At what angle could you arrange the two mirrors to meet the owner
needs? Show clearly your approach.
b) In a figure below shows a uniform plank with dimensions 3.0 cm wide, 0.6 cm
thick and 100 cm long. The density of plank is 2.7 g/cm3.

i. Determine weight W of a plank


ii. If a uniform plank in equilibrium. Determine value of F and R

6. a) At the sea side, the sun shines down equally on the sand and sea. Assume they
both absorb the same amount of energy. Why is sand hotter than sea?
b) Why water is recommended as coolant in motor vehicle engines?
c) 0.2 kg of aluminium block at 670C is put in to 0.4 kg of water at 26 0C. If the final
temperature of mixture is 30 0C. Calculate specific heat capacity of aluminium.

7. a) The frequency obtained from a plucked string is 400 Hz when the tension is 2N.
Calculate
i. The frequency when tension is increased to 8N
ii. Tension needed to produce a note of frequency 600 Hz
b) State one use of radioactivity in each of the following
i. Medicine
ii. Archaeology
c) At time t=0, the activity of iodine – 131 is 1024 count per minute after 32 days it
decrease to 64 count per minute. Calculate the half-life of iodine – 131.

8. a) Assume a body has mass of 50 kg. How much mass and weight will it have on a
moon.
b) Outline three difference between terrestrial planets and Jovian planets.
c) The inner core of the earth is in solid form although it is hotter than the outer core.
Give reasons.
d) State reason why an astronaut in a space
i. Need special space suit to prevent blood from boiling
ii. Can float without falling
SECTION C (30 Marks)
Answer any two (2) questions from this section
9. a) With the aid of diagram explain how Geiger muller tube may be used to detect
radiation.
b) After a long flight a plane may be charged
i. What cause a charge
ii. Why is passenger in a plane not charged but attendant who immediately
opens the door outside after landing the plane from outside is at risk?
c) A television set (TV) rated 40 W is switched ON for 5 hours every day. If the piece
of unit of electricity is Tsh 300, what is the total electricity cost.
d) How increase in cross – sectional area affect its resistance?

10. a) An engineer determines the power output of a transformer is smaller than the
power input. What is the possible three (3) reasons for this?
b) Induced current is always produced in a conductor placed in varying magnetic
flux. Explain four ways of increasing size of induced current.
c) In Tanzania, electricity distribution throughout the country by national grid
system which transmit electricity at very high voltage. Explain in what will
happen if larger current is used instead of high voltage.
d) The number of turns in primary coil to the secondary coil of a transformer is 20:1.
What will be output voltage if the input voltage is 240v?

11. a) i. What is meant by beat as applied in sound wave.


ii. Under what condition would beat produced.
b) A man standing 510m from a cliff fires a rifle. Another man stand near to the cliff
hear two shots, the interval between two shots is 1.0 sec. What is the distance
between the two men if the line joining them is right angle to the cliff.
c) With aid of a well labelled diagram describe function of each part of cathode ray
tube (CRT)?

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