TOP CREW AVIATION METEOROLOGY EXAM NOTES 2024-25

METEOROLOGY

PRACTICE SETS
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TOP CREW AVIATION METEOROLOGY EXAM NOTES 2024-25

TOP CREW AVIATION (INDIA) 2024

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80A Sudha Enclave

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TOP CREW AVIATION METEOROLOGY EXAM NOTES 2024-25

CONTENT

1. ATMOSPHERE.......................................................................................1

2. PRESSURE and TROPICAL SYSTEMS.............................................8

3. TEMPERATURE...................................................................................22

4. AIR DENSITY........................................................................................28

5. HUMIDITY.............................................................................................30

6. STABILITY & INSTABILITY OF ATMOSPHERE……….............32

7. CLOUDS and PRECIPITATION and OPTICAL PHENOMENA...36

8. TS (THUNDER STORM)......................................................................46

9. AIR MASSES, FRONTS AND WD......................................................52

10. WIND.....................................................................................................57

11. JETSTREAM and Cat and CLEAR AIR TURBULENCE AND

MOUNTAIN WAVES and GENERAL CIRCULATION.....................64

12. VISIBILITY AND FOG......................................................................73

13. ICE ACCREATION............................................................................77

14. CLIMATOLOGY OF INDIA.............................................................81

15. METAR AND SPECI..........................................................................87

16. TAF (AERODROME FORECAST)..................................................94

17. METEOROLOGICAL SERVICES FOR AVIATION………........97

18. STATION MODEL............................................................................104

19. MISCELLANEOUS QUESTIONS...................................................108

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TOP CREW AVIATION METEOROLOGY PRACTICE SET 2024-25

ATMOSPHERE

1. Lowest layer of atmosphere is.............

a) Troposphere
b) Tropopause
c) Stratosphere

2. Height of Tropopause at equator is..............

a) 10-12 km
b) 16-18 km
c) 12-14 km

3. Height of tropopause at poles is.............

a) 12-14 km
b) 12-13 km
c) 08-10 km

4. Higher of the surface temperature ................ would be the tropopause

a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Same

5. Height of tropopause...............
a) Is Constant
b) Varies with altitude
c) Varies with latitude

6. Above 8 km the lower temperatures are over.........

a) Equator
b) Mid Latitudes
c) Poles

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7. Atmosphere is heated by.............

a) Solar
b) heat from earth surface
c) from Above

8. Tropos Means...............
a) Turning
b) Under current
c) Convection

9. CO2 and H2O are also called.............

a) Greenhouse Gases
b) Rare Earth Gases
c) All of the above

10. Troposphere is generally .............

a) Stable
b) Unstable
c) Neutral

11. Stratosphere is............

a) Unstable
b) Neutral
c) Stable

12. Tropopause is discontinuous at about................

a) 30olat
b) 40olat
c) 80olat

13. Most of atmospheric mass is contained in.................

a) Troposphere
b) Stratosphere
c) Heterosphere

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14. Stratosphere extends from tropopause to............

a) 50 km
b) 60 km
c) 40 km

15. The middle atmosphere layer with temperature inversion and stability...............
a) Troposphere
b) Tropopause
c) Stratosphere

16. Mother of pearl Clouds occurs in..............

a) Mesosphere
b) Thermosphere
c) Stratosphere

17. The temperature in ISA at 17 km is..........

a) -56.5oC
b) -65.5oC
c) -35.5oC

18. By Weight, Approximate ratio of O2to N2 in the atmosphere is.............

a) 1:3
b) 1:4
c) 1:5

19. By Volume, the approximate ratio of O2 to N2 in the atmosphere is...............

a) 1:3
b) 1:4
c) 1:5

20. By Volume the proportion of CO2 in the atmosphere is.................

a) 3%
b) 0.3%
c) 0.03%

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21. In ISA the mean sea level temperature is...............

a) 15oC
b) 10° C
c) 25° C

22. Maximum concentration of ozone is at a height of...............

a) 10-15 km
b) 20-25 km
c) 30-35 km

23. Additional oxygen is needed while flying above.............

a) 5000 ft
b) 7000 ft
c) 10000 ft

24. CO2 and H2O keep the atmosphere............

a) Warm
b) cold
c) Have no effect

25. Noctilucent clouds occur in

a) Thermosphere
b) Mesosphere
c) Stratosphere

26. Temperature at 2 km is 05oC What is ISA Deviation. Hint: (Actual-ISA)

a) -05oC
b) -02oC
c) 03oC

27. Pressure at MSL is 1002.25 hpa Find the ISA Deviation?

a) -11 hPa
b) 10 hPa
c) 12 hPa

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28. In Actual atmosphere temp at 19 km is -60oC find the ISA deviation ?

a) -4.5oC
b) -05.5oC
c) -03.5oC

29. Nacreous clouds occur in

a) Thermosphere
b) Mesosphere
c) Upper Stratosphere

30. The Atmosphere up to 80 km has a nearly similar composition and is called the
homosphere. Its Uniform composition is due to
(a) Pressure
(b) Gravitation of earth
(c) Mixing due to turbulence

31. Half of the atmospheric air mass is contained............. below

a) 20,000 ft
b) 15,000 ft
c) 10,000 ft

32. In Jet Standard Atmosphere the lapse rate is

a) 2oC/1000 ft
b) 2oC/ km
c) 5oC/ km

33. The rate of fall of temperatures with height, called

a) Isothermal rate
b) Inversion Rate
c) Lapse Rate

34. In Actual Atmosphere the Lapse rate could

a) Assume any value
b) Fall up to 8 km
c) Rise up to 50 km
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35. Tropical tropopause extends from the equator to lat. 35 o-40o. Over India It is at
a) 20-21 km
b) 14-15 km
c) 16-16.5 km

36. Lapse rate in the Troposphere is Produced by ............. and in the Stratosphere
by...........
a) Evaporation; Condensation
b) Rising air; solar radiation (Uvreduction)
c) Solar radiation, Convection

37. Most of the water vapor in the atmosphere is confined up to

a) Stratosphere
b) 30,000 ft
c) mid Troposphere

38. Negative lapse rate of temperature is

a) Isothermal rate
b) Temperature rise with lowering height
c) Temperature rise with height

39. In ICAO ISA the atmosphere is assumed to be isothermal in

a) Stratosphere
b) 11 to 16 km
c) 11 to 20 km
d) 11 to 32 km

40. One of the characteristics of our atmosphere is:

a) Poor conductor of heat and electricity
b) Equator is warmer than poles above 10 km
c) Lapse rate in the stratosphere is Positive
d) Density is Constant above 8 km

41. Heat Transfer in the atmosphere is maximum due to

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a) Convection
b) Radiation
c) Sensible heat
d) Latent heat

42. The knowledge of the height of tropopause is important for a pilot because
a) Weather is mainly confined up to this level
b) Clouds rarely reach up to this height due to jet streams
c) Stratosphere starts at this height where all solar radiation are absorbed

43. In ISA atmosphere the tropopause occurs at a height of

a) 8-10 km
b) 11 km
c) 16-18 km

44. Most of the transfer of heat in the atmosphere is due to

a) Conduction and freezing
b) Convection and evaporation
c) Condensation, Sublimation and freezing
d) Sublimation and radiation

45. There is reversal of temperature in the atmosphere at 8 km because

a) Lapse rate at poles is always higher than at equator
b) Lapse rate at equator is always higher than at poles
c) Lapse rate at equator is the same as at poles even above the poles
d) Lapse rate reverses at poles and because negative

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PRESSURE

1. Winds in a low pressure

a) Converge
b) Diverge
c) Go Straight

2. Low Pressure is associated with

a) Good weather
b) Bad weather
c) Weak

3. In a high pressure area winds are

a) Normal
b) Strong
c) Weak

4. Flying from low to high an altimeter would read

a) Over
b) Under
c) Constant

5. Isallobars are lines of equal

a) Pressure
b) Temperature Tendency
c) Pressure Tendency

6. What kind of a barometer is an altimeter?

a) Aneroid
b) Mercury
c) Alcohol

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7. A Region between two lows and two highs is

a) Depression
b) Secondary Low
c) Col

8. Bad Weather and better visibility is associated with

a) High
b) Low
c) Col

9. The relationship between height and pressure is made use in construction on

a) Altimeter
b) ASI
c) VSI

10. Altimeter always measure the height of aircraft above

a) MSL
b) Datum of 1013.2 hPa
c) Datum at which its sub- scale is set

11. Two Aircraft flying at same indicated altitude with altimeters set to 1013. 2hPa.
one is flying over cold air mass and other warm air mass. Which of the two has
greater altitude?
a) AC flying over warm air mass
b) Ac flying over cold air mass
c) I don’t know

12. The rate of fall of pressure with height in a warm air mass compared to cold air
mass will be
a) Same
b) More
c) Less

13. An Increase of 1000 ft at msl is associated with decrease of pressure of

a) 100 hPa
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b) 1000 hPa
c) 3 hPa
d) 33 hPa

14. Lines drawn through places of equal pressure are known as

a) Isobars
b) Isotherms
c) Isogonal
d) Isoclinal

15. Which is true?

a) Trough has frontal Characteristics
b) At Trough Winds back in N-Hemisphere
c) At Trough winds veer in N-hemisphere

16. Semi Diurnal Pressure changes are most pronounced in

a) Polar region
b) Middle Latitudes
c) Tropics

17. Flying from Delhi to Kolkata at constant indicated altitude but, experiencing drift
to starboard. The actual altitude will be (Vis-a-vis) Indicated altitude.
a) Lower
b) Same
c) Higher

18. In the southern hemisphere, around a low pressure area wind blows
a) In Clock wise Direction
b) In Anticlockwise direction
c) Across isobars towards the center

19. Altimeter of a/c on ground reads aerodrome elevation; its sub-scale is set to
a) QNH
b) QNE
c) QFF
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d) QFE

20. Instrument for recording Pressure Is Called

a) Anemograph
b) Barometer
c) Hygrograph

21. Poor visibility is associated with

a) High
b) Low
c) Trough

22. On either side, perpendicular to the............

a) Trough
b) Ridge
c) Low

23. Fall of pressure with height is more rapid in

a) Cold areas
b) Warm areas
c) Humid areas

24. 300 hpa In ISA Corresponds to the level

a) 20,000 ft
b) 30, 000 ft
c) 35,000 ft

25. 18,000 Ft Height in ISA Corresponds to the pressure level

a) 700 hPa
b) 200 hPa
c) 500 hPa

26. 200 hPa in ISA Corresponds to the level

a) 20,000 Ft
b) 30,000 Ft
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c) 40,000 Ft

27. 24,000 ft height in ISA Corresponds to pressure level

a) 400 hPa
b) 500 hPa
c) 300 hPa

28. 700 hpa In ISA Corresponds to the flight level

a) 20,000 ft
b) 10,000 ft
c) 18,000 ft

29. 40,000 ft height is ISA Approximately Corresponds to pressure level

a) 400 ft
b) 500 ft
c) 200 ft

30. 850 hPa in ISA Corresponds to the height

a) 7,000 ft
b) 5,000 ft
c) 10,000 ft

31. Atmospheric pressure is due to

a) Wind
b) Temperature
c) Density

32. An aircraft is gaining altitude inspite of altimeter reading constant altitude. Why
a) Standard pressure has raised
b) Flying towards high
c) Flying towards low
d) Temperature has decreased

33. A Contour of 9160m can be expected on a constant pressure chart for pressure
level
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a) 500 hPa
b) 400 hPa
c) 300 hPa
d) 200 hPa

34. In Constant pressure chart of 300 hPa, Isotypes(contours) are drawn at interval
of
a) 20 gpm
b) 40 gpm
c) 60 gpm
d) 80 gpm

35. In Contour chart of 500 hPa, Isotypes(Contours) are drawn at interval of

a) 20 gpm
b) 40 gpm
c) 60 gpm
d) 80 gpm

36. QNH of an aerodrome 160 m Amsl is 1005 hPa. QFE? Assuming 1 hPa =8m
a) 1010 hPa
b) 985 hPa
c) 1005 hPa
d) 990 hPa

37. Steep Pressure gradient would mean

a) Contours far apart, weak wind
b) Contours far apart, Strong wind
c) Isobars Far apart and temperature low
d) Isobars Closely packed and strong wind

38. What type of inversion occurs when a stable layer lies in a high pressure area?
a) Negative
b) Radiation
c) Subsidence
d) Air mass
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39. Which of the following would cause true altitude to increase when altimeter
indicates constantltitude?
a) Warm/ low
b) Cold/ low
c) hot/high
d) Cool/ low

40. The movement of wind in relation to a cyclone is

a) Descending and Subsiding
b) Ascending and converging
c) Descending and cooling
d) Ascending and diverging

41. An aerodrome is at the mean sea level. Its QNH is 1014.0 [Link] QFF will be
a) 1014.0 hPa
b) 1013.25
c) Difficult to tell
d) More Than QNH

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TROPICAL SYSTEMS
1. Wind speed in a tropical severe cyclone is:
a) 27 -33 kt
b) 48-63 kt
c) 17-27 kt

2. Fronts are characteristic of:

a) Tropical cyclone
b) Extra-tropical depressions
c) Monsoon depressions

3. In a mature tropical cyclone, the eye area is characterized by:

a) Moderate winds and heavy rains
b) Hurricane force winds and squalls
c) Calm wind, little clouding and practically no rainfall

4. Cyclonic storm cross Tamil Nadu coast in:

a) Oct-Nov
b) Jul- Aug
c) Feb-May

5. Cyclonic storms form over Indian seas during:

a) SW monsoon
b) NE monsoon
c) Pre-Monsoon & Post Monsoon

6. TRS occurs over Indian seas in:-

a) Equatorial Region
b) 5 – 15° N
c) 0 – 5° N

7. In the Bay of Bengal during the months of Jul, August, Monsoon Depression
form:
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a) Over Head Bay

b) Central Bay
c) South Bay

8. In a monsoon depression maximum weather occurs in:

a) SE sector
b) NW sector
c) SW sector

9. During re-curvature maximum weather in a monsoon depression occurs in:

a) SE sector
b) NW sector
c) SW sector
d) NE sector

10. On whatever compass course the cyclone is approached, strong winds from the
port indicate that the center lies somewhere:
a) Ahead
b) Behind
c) port
d) Starboard

11. The well-developedextra tropical cyclonic storm is composed of two main frontal
systems and an occluded front, which varies in extent:
a) Stationary Front followed by a warm front
b) A low with a warm front radiating out Southwards followed by a cold front.
c) A warm front and an occluded front
d) None of the above

12. Cyclonic storms are confined allmost entirely to the:

a) Latitudes near Equator
b) Tropical latitudes
c) Polar lat
d) Mid lat

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13. The weather expected in a well-developed cyclonic storm is:

a) Moderate Weather
b) Stormy weather
c) Clear skies
d) No wind or temperature change

14. After entering land the Cyclones gradually die down:

a) True
b) False

15. The...is the most dangerous part of the cyclone is:

a) Eye wall
b) Eye
c) Outer storm area
d) complete cyclone

16. No CS form:
a) At Poles
b) At Equator
c) At Lat 40 deg
d) All these

17. Average life of a tropical cyclone in India is:

a) 10 Days
b) 6-8 Days
c) 3-4 days

18. CS in India is mostly of intensity:

a) Severe
b) Very Weak
c) Moderate

19. Eye of a CS is surrounded by:

a) Shelf Clouds
b) Wall Clouds
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c) Rotor Clouds
d) Roll clouds

20. CS in Indian region are less intense because:

a) They have a very short travel over the sea
b) Sea surface temp. is not high
c) India is close to Equator

21. Surge is sudden strengthening of wind in the........ Air mass:

a) Same
b) Different
c) Both

22. Surge and Shear Line are features of.......monsoon:

a) Vigorous
b) Weak
c) Moderate

23. Peninsular discontinuity occurs along:

a) West
b) East coast
c) Central Peninsula

24. Peninsular discontinuity occurs during:

a) Monsoon
b) NE Monsoon
c) Pre Monsoon

25. Surge is also:

a) Velocity Divergence
b) Velocity Convergence
c) like ITCZ

26. In a depression the wind speed is:

a) < 17 kt
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b) 34-47 kt
c) 17-27 kt
d) 48 -63 kt

27. In a CS the wind speed is:

a) < 17 kt
b) 34-47 kt
c) 17-27 kt
d) 28 -33 kt

28. A monsoon depression slopes............. with height:

a) SE
b) NW
c) SW
d) NE

29. Average life of a monsoon depression is:

a) 2-3 days
b) 8-9 days
c) 3-5 days
d) 10-12 days

30. Monsoon depressions move faster over:

a) Sea
b) Plains
c) Hills
d) Rivers

31. For formation of a CS sea surface temperature should be:

a) 26-27 °C
b) 23-24 °C
c) 24-25 °C
d) 30 °C

32. In extra tropical cyclone family there are 3 - 4 CS or depressions, one to

the...........of the other:
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a) SE
b) NW
c) SW
d) NE

33. In TRS the central pressure is about:

a) 1002-1010 hPa
b) 1000-900 hPa
c) 1010-1020 hPa

34. TRS develop over:

a) Sea
b) Land
c) Islands
d) at equator

35. TRS develop over............... degLat:

a) 0-5
b) 5-15
c) 25-30
d) 30-40

36. In TRS pressure gradient is very steep up to a radius of:

a) 30 km
b) 50 km
c) 100 km
d) 400 km

37. Extra Tropical Storms originate in:

a) Equatorial Front
b) Tropical Front
c) Polar Front

38. Extra-tropical Storms generally move in the direction:

a) S to E
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b) W to E
c) S to W
d) E to W

39. A Tropical Cyclone moves.................in a day:

a) 300-500 km
b) 500-700 km
c) 700-900

40. A Tropical CS has outer storm area of about:

a) >400 km
b) >700 km
c) >900 km

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TEMPERATURE

1. Diurnal Variation of temperature is greatest when wind is

a) Calm
b) Light
c) Strong

2. Diurnal Variation of temperature is maximum over

a) Forest
b) Ocean
c) Land

3. On clear day the amount of solar radiation received by earth surface

a) 3/4
b) 30%
c) 5/6

4. ALBEDO is
a) Radiation received by earth
b) Amount of heat
c) Reflecting power of earth

5. During day the ambient temperature is .......... than ground 80°C

a) Lower
b) higher
c) Same

6. Diurnal Variation of temperature over ocean is...........

a) More than land
b) Above 3oC
c) Less Than 1oC

7. At a coastal station the diurnal variation of temperature depends on.........

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a) Wind direction
b) wind speed
c) Radiation

8. Snow surface about..........% of solar radiation

a) 75%
b) 80%
c) 90%

9. Amount of solar radiation received per unit area is............

a) Insolation
b) Convection
c) Radiation

10. Solar radiation received by the earth is

a) Long Wave
b) Albedo
c) Shortwave

11. Rise in Temperature of A surface is proportional to its specific heat

a) Directly
b) Inversely
c) Specific heat

12. Specific heat of land is.......... Than that of water

a) Lower
b) Same
c) Higher

13. Minimum Temperature is reached at.........

a) Sunrise
b) Midnight
c) 1/2 –1 Hour after dawn

14. An air Parcel is lifted till gets saturated. The temperature attained by it is called
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a) Potential Temperature
b) Dew Point
c) Wet Bulb

15. Cloudy night is..........

a) Cold
b) Normal
c) Warm

16. Water vapor is transparent to terrestrial radiation

a) Completely
b) Partially
c) Indifferent

17. Higher the Temperature........... Would be the wavelength of emitted Radiation

a) Longer
b) Shorter
c) May be longer and shorter

18. Air is a bad conductor of heat. A Parcel of air can therefore be regarded as
insulated from the environment
a) False
b) True
c) Can’t decide

19. Warmer the earth .......... will be the nocturnal radiation

a) Intense
b) Weaker
c) Moderate

20. Heat is the........... Of the KE of all the molecules and atoms of a substance
a) Sum total
b) Average
c) All of the above

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21. The solar radiation consists of about 46% ...........

a) UV
b) IR
c) Visible

22. The total energy radiated by a black body is proportional to its temperature
a) T2
b) T3
c) T4

23. Intense Radiation are emitted by

a) Hot bodies
b) Cold bodies
c) Stars

24. The Wavelength of most intense radiation is inversely proportional to its ..........
a) Absolute temperature
b) Humidity
c) Albedo

25. Hot Bodies (Like sun)

a) Short waves
b) long waves
c) Both

26. The flow of heat from earth surface is 77% by

a) Sensible heat
b) Latent heat
c) Both of the above

27. -40oC = 40oF

a) True
b) False
c) Data is not sufficient to decide

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28. Surface Temperature is recorded at a height of .......... above ground

a) 1.5 m
b) 1.25 m
c) 2 m

29. The door of Stevenson’s should open

a) Opposite to sun
b) Into sun
c) Any Direction

30. The liquid used in minimum thermometer is

a) Mercury
b) Alcohol
c) Sprit

31. Freezing Point of water is

a) 0oF
b) 12oF
c) 22oF
d) 32oF

32. Boiling point of water is

a) 100oF
b) 112oF
c) 212oF
d) 312oF

33. Freezing point of water is

a) 173 k
b) 273 k
c) 373 k
d) 473 k

34. Boiling point of water is

a) 373 k
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b) 273 k
c) 173 k
d) 312ok

35. Convert 68oFinto kelvin temperature

a) 233 k
b) 283 k
c) 293 k

36. Diurnal variation of temperature is least on a day when it is

a) Clear
b) Partly cloudy
c) Overcast

37. A clear and calm night is cooler than a cloudy night because nocturnal radiation
a) Escape through cloud
b) Are partly radiated back by clouds to earth
c) Are fully absorbed by H2O
d) Are fully prevented by clouds to escape

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AIR DENSITY

1. Density is ......... at poles than equator

a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Same

2. Above 8 km density is ......... at poles than at equator

a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Same

3. The Altitude in ISA at which air density is the same as the observed is
a) Density altitude
b) ISA Density
c) Real Density

4. Density is usually expressed as...........

a) Kg/sq m
b) g/cu m
c) N/sq m

5. Higher Density Altitude Means............ Density

a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Same

6. For Given Pressure and temperature moist air has density

a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Same

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7. Air is less denser in

a) High Altitudes
b) Warm Air
c) High Humidity
d) All these

8. Density altitude may be defined as :

a) The altitude in ISA at which the Prevailing pressure occurs.
b) The altitude in ISA at which the prevailing density occurs.
c) The altitude in actual atmosphere at which the prevailing density occurs.

9. If pressure increases the density altitude

a) Increases
b) Lowers
c) Remains the same

10. For every 1oC Change temperature, density altitude differs from pressure altitude
by
a) 33 ft
b) 100 ft
c) 120 ft
d) 210 ft

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HUMIDITY

1. The ratio in % between the amounts of water vapors present in the air to the
amount of water Vapor that it can hold at the same temperature is
a) Humidity
b) Relative Humidity
c) Dew point

2. The Temperature to which air be cooled at constant pressure to become

saturated, is called
a) Wet bulb temperature
b) Dry bulb temperature
c) Dew point

3. Free air temperature, wet bulb temperature and dew point temperature are equal
when
a) Air Temperature is 0oC
b) Relative humidity is 100%
c) Air Temperature is not below 0oC

4. On a rainy day compared to sunny day the length of runway required is

a) More
b) Less
c) Same

5. The spread (Difference) between free air temperature and dew point temperature
is............When air is saturated
a) Large
b) Least
c) Same

6. The saturation vapors pressure over water is ......... than the ice
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a) More
b) Less
c) Same

7. As the temperature of the air increases the amount of water vapor required to
saturate it.......
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains Same

8. The actual amount of water vapors contained in a given volume if air at a given
Temperature is termed as...........
a) Relative humidity
b) Specific humidity
c) Absolute humidity

9. Humidity mixing ratio ............ when air is lifted adiabatically

a) Decreases
b) Remains constant
c) Increases

10. It is the lowest temperature which air would attain by evaporating water into it to
saturate it.
a) Wet bulb temp
b) Dry bulb temp
c) Dew point

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STABILITY & INSTABILITY OF ATMOSPHERE

1. DALR =9.8 oC, ELR = 6.8 oC; atmosphere is:

a) Stable
b) Unstable
c) Indifferent

2. SALR = 5.5 oC, ELR = 4.5 oC, atmosphere is:

a) Unstable
b) Stable
c) Indifferent

3. DALR > ELR > SALR:

a) Conditionally unstable
b) Latently stable
c) Potentially Stable

4. Dry Air is unstable when:

a) ELR = DALR
b) ELR>DALR
c) ELR>DALR

5. The saturated air is said to be unstable if:

a) SALR = ELR
b) SALR < ELR
c) SALR > ELR

6. If ELR = SALR = DALR the atmosphere is:

a) Stable
b) Instable
c) Indifferent

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7. DALR means:
a) The rate at which temperature of unsaturated parcel of air falls with height when
made to ascend adiabatically
b) The rate which temp falls with height
c) The rate at which ascending parcel of saturated air cools

8. Surface temp is 30oC Assuming DARL what is the temperature at 2 km

a) 18oC
b) 10oC
c) 42oC

9. An Isothermal atmosphere is:

a) Stable
b) Unstable
c) Neutral

10. If ELR is less than SALR, the atmosphere is said to be:

a) Absolutely unstable
b) Conditionally unstable
c) Absolutely stable

11. DALR is approximately:

a) 5oC /km
b) 15oC/ km
c) 10oC /km

12. SALR at mean sea level is about;

a) 10oC/ km
b) 5oC/ km
c) 5oF/ km

13. SALR approaches DALR:

a) At 0oC
b) at – 15oF
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c) at -40oC

14. Dry air having a temperature of 35oC on surface when forced to rise adiabatically
by 1 km would attain a temperature of:
a) 29oC
b) 25oC
c) 45oC

15. Inversion is the atmosphere indicates:

a) Stability
b) Instability
c) Neutrality

16. Inversion is........ Lapse rate (LR):

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Neutral

17. Environmental LR can be more than DALR:

a) True
b) False
c) May be May not be

18. The process which to a large extent determines the vertical distribution of
temperature is:
a) Adiabatic
b) Isothermal
c) Isentropic

19. Rise in temperature with height is:

a) Inversion
b) Lapse
c) Normal

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20. Inversion is common in:

a) Post monsoon
b) Monsoon
c) Winter

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CLOUDS

1. Drizzle Occurs from:

a) CS
b) ST
c) NS
d) CU

2. Altostratus (AS) is:

a) Low cloud of sheet type
b) A medium cloud of sheet type
c) A Cloud of Large vertical Growth
d) A high cloud of sheet type

3. Showers occurs from:

a) CU
b) CB
c) AS
d) AC

4. Heavy icing is possible in:

a) CI
b) CS
c) CB

5. To avoid icing in cloudy conditions, a pilot is advised to fly through a cloud which
shows optical phenomena:
a) Halo
b) Corona
c) With Multi-Colored clouds

6. Dark gray cloud giving continuous rain is called:

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a) AS
b) NS
c) ST
d) CB

7. A Uniform layer of clouds resembling for but not on the ground:

a) AS
b) NS
c) ST

8. The clouds Composed of ice crystals having feathery appearance:

a) CI
b) CS
c) AS

9. NS clouds occur:
a) At cold front
b) At warm front
c) Oceluded front

10. Halo is associated with the cloud:

a) AC
b) AS
c) CS
d) CI

11. Corona is associated with the cloud:

a) AS
b) AC
c) CC
d) CS

12. Lenticular clouds indicate presence of :

a) Warm front
b) Cold front
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c) Mountain waves

13. The Lowest level below which condensation trails will not form is:
a) Mintra level
b) Drytra level
c) Maxtra level

14. Rain falling from cloud but not reaching ground is:
a) Virgo
b) Virga
c) Mirage

15. CB with Distinct anvil is called:

a) Castellanos
b) Cupillatus
c) Uncinus

16. Cloud celling is the height of the cloud covering...........

a) 3-4/8
b) 8/8
c) 5/8 or more

17. No Condensation trails occur above:

a) Maxtra level
b) Dytra level
c) Mintra level

18. Cloud of operational significance has base below......... m or below the highest
Minimum sector altitude which is greater:
a) 1500
b) 2000
c) 1000

19. AC cloud with cumuliform protuberances is indicative of:

a) Stability
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b) Instability
c) Neutrality

20. Hail may be experienced under the anvil of a CB:

a) True
b) False

PRECIPITATION

1. When super cooled water drops and ice particles co-exist, the ice crystals grow at
the expense of the water drop because:
a) Saturation vapor pressure over water drops is less than over the ice crystals
b) Saturation vapor pressure over the ice crystals is less than over water drops
c) The ice crystals convert into water drops

2. The clouds whose tops extend well above the freezing level are Called:
a) The clouds
b) Cold clouds
c) Moderate clouds

3. The clouds whose tops do not extend to the freezing level are called:
a) Warm clouds
b) Cold clouds
c) Moderate clouds

4. Coalescence theory explains occurrence of rainfall from the:

a) Warm clouds
b) Cold clouds
c) Both Types of Clouds

5. Ice crystal theory explain occurrence of rainfall from the:

a) Warm clouds
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b) Cold
c) Both types of clouds

6. Giant Nucleus theory explains occurrence of rainfall over:

a) Maritime areas
b) Inland areas
c) Hilly areas

7. Very heavy precipitation as showers over a short period is called:

a) Flash Hoods
b) Cloud Burst
c) Orographic Rain

8. Rain shadow area is on the ............. of the mountain range:

a) Top
b) Windward side
c) Leeward side

9. Sleet is a mixture of:

a) Hail & snow
b) Rain & Snow
c) Frozen rain

10. Rainfall in the tropics is more in:

a) Winters
b) Summers
c) Post monsoon

11. Rainfall in tropies is more in:

a) Morning
b) Afternoon
c) Night

12. Rainfall in the temperate latitudes is more in:

a) Winters
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b) Summers
c) Spring

13. Over J&K and western Himalaya’s rainfall is more in:

a) Winters
b) Summers
c) Post monsoon

14. Rainfall over coastal areas is more in the:

a) Evening
b) Afternoon
c) Night & early morning

15. Areas to the ............ of Western Ghats of India are rain shadow areas:
a) W
b) S
c) E

16. A sudden rise in thelabelof rivers or Stremscausing floods is Called:

a) Cloud bursi
b) Catchments flooding
c) Flash floods

17. Artificial rain making is also termed as:

a) Simulations
b) Cloud seeding
c) Nucleation
18. Fog can be dispread for short period by arterial stimulation:
a) True
b) fake
19. Showery precipitation occurs from:
a) Ns
b) Ac
c) CB

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20. A day is called rainy day when rainfall in 24 hr. is..........mm of more:
a) 1.5
b) 2
c) 2.5

OPTICAL PHENOMENA

1. Aurora Austral is occur in the:

a) S hemisphere
b) N hemisphere
c) Equator

2. Aurora Australis called........... Lights:

a) Northern
b) Southern
c) Temperate

3. Aurora Borealis occur in the:

a) S hemisphere
b) N hemisphere
c) Equator

4. Aurora Borealis are called ......... lights:

a) Northern
b) Southern
c) Temperate

5. Corona occur in .......... clouds:

a) AS
b) NS
c) CS

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6. Bishop’s ring is due to the diffraction of light by fine particles of:

a) Water
b) Dust
c) Ice

7. The radius of the bishop’s ring is about:

a) 32o
b) 22o
c) 42o

8. Superior mirage occurs in marked:

a) Lapse
b) Isothermal
c) Inversion

9. Inferior mirage occurs when there is:

a) Lapse
b) Isothermal
c) Inversion

10. Corona is formed due to the.............. Of light:

a) Refraction
b) Diffraction
c) Scattering

11. Corona are formed due to light, passing through:

a) Mist only
b) Fog only
c) Small water or ice particles only
d) Any one of all these

12. Halo is produced by:

a) Refraction
b) Diffraction
c) Scattering
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13. Halo is produced when light passes through:

a) Water particles
b) Ice crystals
c) Both

14. Halo occur in the cloud;

a) AS
b) NS
c) CS

15. Halo is luminous ring of ............ radius as the lights grew biggest it fades:
a) 32o
b) 22o
c) 42o

16. Halo round the sun shows a pure clear.......... on the outside:
a) Red
b) Yellow
c) Violet

17. Halo signifies predominance in the cloud of :

a) Super cooled water drops
b) Ice
c) Both

18. The cloud which cause Halo has............chance of ice accretion:

a) Negligible
b) Maximum
c) Medium

19. Sometimes a halo with a radius of..........is observed, called Large Halo:
a) 32o
b) 42o
c) 22o
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20. Hallo occurs from..............cloud:

a) Low
b) Medium
c) High

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TS (THUNDER STORM)

1. The condition necessary for the formation of a thunderstorm are:

a) Steep lapse rate, strong winds
b) Shallow lapse rate, adequate supply of moisture
c) Steep lapse rate, adequate supply of moisture and trigger action

2. Hail is most like to fall from a cloud:

a) Having Layers
b) Composed of ice crystals
c) Having strong vertical development

3. Norwesters are:
a) The western disturbances which affect NW India
b) Severe thunderstorms which occurs over NE India during hot period
c) Severe thunderstorms which occur over peninsula during hot weather period

4. Dust storm usually over NW India during:

a) Post-Monsoon
b) Winter
c) Pre-Monsoon

5. A ‘Mature’ thunderstorm has strong:

a) Updraft
b) Downdraft only
c) Updrafts and downdrafts

6. Aircrafts icing is most favored in the cloud which has temperatures ranging
between;
a) -20° C and -40° C
b) 0° C and -20° C

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c) below -40° C

7. A short duration, showery precipitation is associated with:

a) ST
b) AS
c) CB

8. Hail is:
a) Solid precipitation commonly occurring over the mountainous regions in winters.
b) Frozen or partly frozen rain falling from sheet type of clouds
c) Solid precipitation falling from a deep convective cloud

9. The most hazardous cloud for aviation is:

a) CB
b) CU
c) NS

10. The life of a Cb cell is usually:

a) 7 to 8 hrs
b) 3 to 4
c) 2-3 hr

11. Generally the severest activity of a, heat type, TS is for:

a) 2 hrs
b) 30 to 45 min
c) 3 to 4 hr

12. Norwesters occur during:

a) Jan-Feb
b) Mar-May
c) June-Sep
d) Oct- Dec

13. Norwesters occur during:

a) Winter
b) Hot weather
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c) Monsoon
d) Post Monsoon

14. Norwesters affect:

a) North India
b) Bengal, Bihar, Orissa and Assam
c) Central India

15. The trigger action may take place due to:

a) Clear night sky, no wind
b) Orographic lifting
c) High pressure

16. Norwesters normally occur during:

a) Mornings
b) Afternoons
c) Nights

17. Norwesters originates over:

a) Chhota-Nagpur hills
b) Deccan Plato
c) Khasi hills

18. Andhi (blinding storms) occur generally over:

a) S India
b) N India
c) NE India

19. Wind speed in Light DS is:

a) 25 kt
b) 30 kt
c) up to 21 kt

20. The diameter of Microburst is:

a) less than 4 km
b) less han 2 km
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c) less than 6 km

21. The diameter of and Microburst:

a) <4 km
b) 4 km or more
c) 8 km

22. For detecting precipitation a Radar wavelength in the range.........is suitable:

a) 30 to 200 mm
b) 400-500 mm
c) 600-700 mm

23. For airborne radars wavelength generally used:

a) 20 mm
b) 40 mm
c) 60 mm

24. The wavelength of TS detection X band radar is:

a) 10 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 30 mm

25. The wavelength of storm detection S band radar is:

a) 50 mm
b) 100 mm
c) 200 mm

26. Over plains TS mostly occur during the:

a) Afternoon
b) Night
c) Early morning

27. Over valley and foot hills TS generally occur during:

a) Afternoon
b) Night & Early morning
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28. Over the sea TS are more frequent:

a) Afternoon
b) Night
c) Early morning

29. The life of Mesoscale Convective Complex TS is:

a) 2-3 hr
b) 3-4 hr
c) 6 to 24 hr

30. Loud peals of thunder, frequent flashes of lightning, moderate or heavy showers
accompanied by light hail with maximum wind speed 15-40 kt is classified as:
a) Light TS
b) Moderate TS
c) Severe TS

31. For severe TS one of the requirements is strong wind shear:

a) Horizontal
b) Vertical
c) Slant

32. Severe TS cells are tilted:

a) In vertical
b) To be South
c) To the North

33. When flying through on active TS, lighting strikes are most likely:
a) Above 5000 Ft and under the anvil.
b) In the clear air below the cloud in rain
c) In the temperature band between +10° and -10°C
d) At or about 10000 Ft

34. Hazards of the mature stage of a TS Cell include lighting, turbulence and:
a) Microburst, wind-shear and anvil
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b) Icing, microburst and WS

c) Icing, drizzle and microburst
d) WS, hail and fog

35. Hail grows by:

a) Freezing as it leaves the cloud
b) Up and down forces in CU cloud
c) Collision with ice crystals
d) Collision with super cooled water drops

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AIR MASSES, FRONTS AND WD

1. The air mass which originates at sea in high Latitudes is called:

a) Polar maritime
b) Tropical continental
c) Tropical maritime

2. The air mass which originates over equatorial region is:

a) Warm & dry
b) Warm & Moist
c) Cold & dry

3. If the advancing cold front is colder than the cool air mass of the warm front, the
advancing cold front undercuts and lifts both the warm and cool air masses of the
warm front. This is:
a) Warm Occlusion
b) Cold Occlusion

4. The air mass which originated over land area located in polar region:
a) Warm & dry
b) Warm & Moist
c) Cold & dry

5. If a warm air mass overtakes a cold air mass, it is called:

a) Cold Front
b) Warm Front
c) Occluded Front

6. At warm front:
a) Warm air overtakes the cold air
b) Cold air undercuts the warm air
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7. The conditions are always unstable at:

a) Cold front
b) Warm front

8. Line squall occur about 100-300 km ahead of:

a) Warm front
b) Cold front

9. Precipitation occurs over a belt of 30 -50 km on both side of front:

a) Cold front
b) Warm front

10. Cold front moves at the speed of a warm front moves:

a) Same
b) Double
c) Half

11. Line Squalls occur of Cold front:

a) Ahead
b) Behind
c) At the

12. Fronts are associated with:

a) Tropical cyclone
b) Monsoon Depression
c) Extra-tropical Cyclones

13. CB, Roll-type clouds, SC, AC with embedded CB is associated:

a) Cold front
b) Warm front

14. The Surface of discontinuity between the Polar Easterlies and the temperate
Westerlies is called:
a) Equatorial Front

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b) Tropopause
c) Polar Front

15. The air mass which originates from sea area located in lower Lat is:
a) Warm & Dry
b) Warm & Moist
c) Cold & Moist

16. WDs approach India as:

a) Cols
b) Occluded Fronts
c) Highs

17. Maximum WDs occur in:

a) Summers
b) Post Monsoon
c) Winters

18. Ahead of a warm front the surface wind:

a) Backs & weakens
b) Veers & strengthens
c) Backs & strengthens

19. On approach of a warm front temperature:

a) Fall
b) Rise
c) Remain same

20. CI, CS, AS, NS, ST in sequence is associated with the front:
a) Warm
b) Cold
c) Occluded

21. During the passage of a Cold Front winds:

a) Suddenly become squally
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b) Back and weaken

c) Veer and are of moderate strength

22. Visibility is poor in a Warm Front:

a) Ahead
b) Ahead & During
c) After & During

23. Fog occurs in Cold Front:

a) Ahead
b) During
c) After

24. WD is a.....................front:
a) Cold
b) Warm
c) Occluded

25. FZRA and FZFG occur............ of warm front:

a) Ahead
b) During
c) After

26. Precipitation ceases after the passage of a front:

a) Cold
b) Warm
c) Occluded

27. During the approach of a Warm Front wind:

a) Backs
b) Veers
c) Does not change

28. A WD with two or more closed isobars, at 2 hPa interval, it is termed as

a) Troughs in Westerlies

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b) Western Depression
c) Western Cyclone

29. A WD originate over:

a) Baluchistan
b) Caspian Sea
c) Mediterranean, Caspian and Black Seas

30. Induced lows develop to the ....of WD:

a) N
b) S
c) NE

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WIND

1. Is S hemisphere if an observer faces wind, low will be to his..........

a) Right
b) Left
c) It can be left or right

2. In N Hemisphere Due to rotation of earth winds are deflected to.............

a) Left
b) Right
c) Either way is correct

3. Local Winds follow buys ballots law

a) False
b) True
c) May be

4. Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the ............. of wind direction in N

Hemisphere
a) Left
b) Right
c) Centre

5. Geostrophic wind is due to the balance between the forces........

a) Coriolis and frictional
b) Pressure gradient and cyclostrophic
c) Pressure gradient and Coriolis Force

6. Coriolis force is strongest at............

a) Mid latitudes
b) Poles
c) Equator

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7. Geostrophic rule breaks down at.............

a) Mid Latitudes
b) poles
c) Equator

8. Fohn winds are ................... on the leeward side of a mountain.

a) Dry & Warm
b) Cold & Humid
c) Both of the above

9. The wind sliding down a hill during night is called ....... wind.
a) fohen
b) Anabatic
c) Katabatic

10. With the onset of sea breeze there is a ............... in temperature and ............... in
RH.
a) Fall/ Rise
b) Rise/ fall
c) Fall/fall

11. Sea Breeze sets in by ............ and dies off at............

a) Night/ Day
b) Day/Night
c) Both day and night

12. If an aircraft in N-hemisphere flies from H to L it will experience

a) Starboard drift
b) Port Drift
c) It can be starboard or port

13. In N-hemisphere if you experience port drift, altimeter will read

a) Under
b) Over
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c) Both of the above

14. Lines of Constant wind speed drawn on weather charts are called
a) Isobars
b) Isotachs
c) Isogons

15. Squall (Long lasting) is distinguished speed from gusts by:

a) Shorter duration
b) longer duration
c) Lower wind speed

16. The Thermal wind is:

a) The wind that blows because of thermals
b) The warm wind that blows dowses the hill on the leeward side
c) The wind which must be added vector ally to the lower geostrophic wind to obtain
the Upper level geostrophic wind

17. On a weather map if isobars are closely packed, the surface winds are likely to be
a) Light and Parallel to isobars
b) Strong and parallel to isobars
c) Strong and blowing across the isobars

18. Anabatic wind occurs

a) At night
b) Any time of day and night
c) During day

19. Anabatic wind is stronger than katabatic

a) True
b) False

20. Katabatic wind is down slope cold wind due to nocturnal cooling
a) True
b) False
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21. Katabatic wind occur due to sinking of cold air down the hill slope
a) True
b) False

22. Anabatic wind occur due to downward movement of air along valley
a) True
b) False
23. Sea breeze is stronger than land breeze
a) True
b) False

24. The wind blows clockwise around a low in N- hemisphere

a) True
b) False

25. The wind blows clockwise around a low in S- hemisphere

a) True
b) False

26. The wind blows anticlockwise around a low in N- hemisphere

a) True
b) False

27. The wind blows anticlockwise around a low S- hemisphere

a) True
b) False

28. The Resultant wind that blows under the influence of pressure gradient force
geostrophic force andcyclostrophic force is called
a) Gradient wind
b) Geostrophic wind
c) Cyclostrophic wind

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29. Due to friction, from day to night for an isobaric pattern (in N hemisphere) the
surface wind Backs and weakens
a) True
b) False

30. The wind which spirals inward counter-clockwise in the N-hemisphere are
associated with
a) Turbulence
b) High Pressure area
c) Low Pressure area

31. Lower level wind 05010 kt, Upper level wind 23005 kt, what is the thermal wind
a) 05005 kt
b) 23015 kt
c) 05015 kt

32. A change in wind direction from 310°to 020°is

a) Backing
b) Veering
c) Both of the above

33. A change from 270o to 250ois

a) Backing
b) Veering
c) Both of the above

34. Sudden changes in wind speed from 10kt to 30kt and then 15kt are
a) Gust
b) Squall
c) Gale

35. Sudden change in wind speed from 10kt to 30kt for 2-3 minutes
a) Squall
b) Gust
c) Gale
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36. A significant wind shear is generally associated with TS or line squall

a) False
b) True

37. Cyclostrophic wind gives a good approximation of the 2000ʼʼ wind in an intense
tropical storm
a) True
b) False

38. Robot clouds have extremely turbulent flying conditions

a) False
b) True

39. Friction Causes winds to flow cross isobaric by.............. Over land and .......... over
sea
a) 20o/10o
b) 15o/30o
c) 40o/30o

40. If the S is warmer than the N, level by level from surface up to higher levels, than
the.......... wind will strengthen with height with no change in direction in N
hemisphere
a) Ely
b) Wly
c) Sly
d) Nly

41. Gradient wind is ......... of the geostrophic wind in an anticyclone

a) Under estimate
b) Accurate
c) Over Estimate

42. Gale is
a) Persistent strong wind with mean speed 44 kt, associated With thunderstorm
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b) Marked increase in wind speed lasing few minutes Associated with CB or DS

c) Persistent strong winds exceeding 33 kt, associated with Depression

43. In N hemisphere thermal wind is parallel to .......... with low value to left
a) Isobars
b) Isotherms
c) Isallobars

44. The inertial flow is

a) Cyclonic in both the Hemispheres
b) Anti Cyclonic in both the hemispheres
c) Anti cyclonic around an anticyclone

45. Upper level wind is 24025 kt, lower level wind is 06015 kt, and the thermal wind
is?
a) 16010 kt
b) 24040 kt
c) 24010 kt

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JETSTREAM

1. The arbitrary lower limit of jet core velocity has been assigned by WMO as:
a) 60 kt
b) 60 m/s
c) 70 m/s

2. Jet stream has:

a) one maxima
b) one or more maxima
c) only two maxima

3. The vertical wind shear in a Jet stream is about:

a) 5 m/s/km
b) 6 m/s/km
c) 8 m/s/km

4. Compared to horizontal wind shear the vertical wind shear in a Jet stream is:
a) weaker
b) stronger
c) same

5. In a jet stream, the path of the maximum speed is known as:

a) Core
b) Axis
c) Jet streak

6. The wind speed along the axis of a jet stream is always:

a) Uniform
b) Not uniform

7. Along the axis of a jet stream there are centers of high speed winds, these are
called:
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a) Jet streaks
b) Core
c) Axis

8. In a wavy jet the Jet streaks are located over or near the:
a) Ridge
b) Trough
c) Between Trough and Ridge

9. Sub-tropical Jet Stream (STJ) is:

a) Westerly
b) Easterly
c) Southerly

10. The normal position of Sub-tropical Jet Stream is:

a) 30° N
b) 27° N
c) 35° N

11. The southernmost position of STJ is in February is:

a) 22° N
b) 27° N
c) 18° N

12. The STJ affects India from:

a) Jun to Jul
b) Oct to May
c) Aug to Sep

13. STJ has a layered structure. There are often two layers of maximum wind to
the...............of jet core:
a) S
b) N
c) SW

14. The STJ strengthens:

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a) Northwards
b) Upstream
c) Downstream

15. At and near the STJ the temperature gradient is very:

a) Small
b) Large
c) Moderate

16. Vertical wind shear in STJ is greater............ the core:

a) Above
b) below
c) along

17. The TJ prevails over the Indian Peninsula from:

a) May to Jun
b) Sep to Oct
c) Jun to Aug

18. The TJ is located over the Indian Peninsula, approximately at:

a) 13° N
b) 17° N
c) 18° N

19. The TJ is located over Indian, approximately at a height of:

a) 15 – 16 km
b) 12 – 13 km
c) 11 – 12 km

20. The TS is strongest in:

a) July – Aug
b) Sep – Oct
c) June

21. In the TJ the wind shears are much...............than the STJ:

a) More
b) less
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c) same

22. TJ is:
a) Westerly
b) Easterly
c) Southerly

23. A jet stream can be recognized by:

a) High level dust
b) High Pressure
c) Streaks of CI
d) lenticular clouds

24. Flying at right angles to a jet stream with falling pressure you will experience:
a) Wind from left
b) Increasing head wind
c) Increasing tail wind
d) Wind from right

25. When and where tropical jet stream occurs:

a) All year along equator
b) In Middle East in summers
c) In winter over Russia
d) In summer over SE Asia and Central Africa

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CLEAR AIR TURBULENCE AND MOUNTAIN WAVES

1. For mountain waves to form there should be flow of air across the ridge,
generally within.............of the perpendicular to the ridge:
a) 30°
b) 45°
c) 60°

2. For mountain waves to form the wind speed for small mountains should be at
least:
a) 15 m/s
b) 10 m/s
c) 7m/s

3. For mountain waves to form the wind speed for large mountains should be at
least:
a) 15 m/s
b) 10 m/s
c) 7m/s

4. For mountain waves to form the atmosphere should be............up to the ridge,
where air stream strikes the ridge:
a) Unstable
b) Stable
c) Indifferent

5. For mountain waves to form the atmosphere should be...... at higher levels above
the ridge:
a) Unstable
b) Stable
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c) Indifferent

6. In Mountain waves the Rotor clouds form in:

a) Troughs
b) Ridges
c) Valley

7. Clear air turbulence is often encountered:

a) At the boundary of a jet stream
b) In the wake of a passing airplane
c) In the wake of a larger airplane at takeoff and landing
d) All of the above

8. Most CAT occurs on the..........of a jet stream and in the vicinity of upper level
frontal zones where temperature contrasts are strong:
a) Fringes
b) Within the core
c) Axis

9. CAT is the bumpiness experienced by aircraft at high altitudes............in either

cloud-free conditions or in strati form clouds:
a) above 18,000 feet
b) below 18,000 feet
c) below 28,000 feet

10. When approaching an area where mountain waves have been reported, a pilot
should expect:
a) Possible presence of roll clouds and lenticular clouds
b) Intense up drafts and down drafts on the lee side of the mountains.
c) Moderate to severe turbulence as far as 20 to 30 nm from range on leeward side.
d) All of the above

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GENERAL CIRCULATION
1. The pole wards moving air piles up in the subtropical regions and forms high
pressure belt at the surface, called:
a) Subtropical high
b) Polar High
c) Equatorial high

2. .............occurs over subtropical high:

a) Advection
b) convection
c) subsidence

3. The occurrence of large deserts near 30N and 30S are due to large scale:
a) Subsidence
b) convection
c) advection

4. A part of the sinking air over the subtropical highs flows towards the equator,
turning west (in the northern hemisphere) due to the Coriolis force. This surface
air is called:
a) Trade winds
b) Roaring forties
c) Doldrums

5. The huge vertical circulations, one between the equator and 30N and another
between equator and 30S, are called:
a) Hadley Cells
b) Ferrell Cells
c) Polar Cells

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6. The descending branch of the Hadley cell marked by calm winds and high
pressure at the surface are called:
a) Tropical Latitudes
b) Middle latitudes
c) Horse Latitudes

7. The winds in the upper troposphere are westerly. These are known as:
a) Natural Westerlies
b) Steady Westerlies
c) Zonal Westerlies

8. In the equatorial regions the upper tropospheric winds are at the surface are
called:
a) Westerlies
b) Easterlies
c) Zonal Westerlies

9. The disturbances of middle latitudes move from:

a) W to E
b) E to W
c) N to S
d) S to N

10. The tropical disturbances which form in the equatorial low pressure belt move in:
a) Easterly direction
b) Westerly direction
c) Southerly direction

11. Tropical disturbance which reach the zone of transition in the upper level flow
change course and begin to move in a:
a) Perpendicular direction
b) Opposite direction
c) Southwards

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12. Latitudinally, on the average there is radiation.................. in the tropics than in

the Polar Regions:
a) Surplus
b) Deficit
c) Balance

13. The systems like highs, lows, cyclonic circulation etc. are associated with distinct
types of weather. A study of the behavior of these systems, known as:
a) Synoptic Meteorology
b) Climatology
c) Physical Meteorology

14. Rising air creates calms or doldrums in the equatorial region:

a) ITCZ
b) Horse Latitudes
c) Equatorial Doldrums

15. Steady NE winds in the N hemisphere and SE winds in the S hemisphere are
called:
a) Easterly winds
b) Trade Winds
c) Tropical Winds

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VISIBILITY AND FOG

1. Fog is reported when visibility is reduced to

a) Less than 1000m
b) 1000m
c) 1000 to 2000

2. RVR is reported when visibility falls below

a) 500 m
b) 1000 m
c) 1500 m
d) 2000 m

3. Radiation fog occurs

a) Over land
b) Over sea
c) During Day

4. When visibility reduces between 5000 m and 1000 m and RH is almost 100%, it is
a) Mist to junk
b) Haze
c) Fog

5. Radiation fog forms over N India During

a) May to June
b) Dec to Feb
c) Oct to Nov

6. Warm and moist air moving over a cold ground gives rise to:
a) Thunder clouds
b) Fog and stratus

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c) Frontal clouds

7. Warm and moist air moving over a cold surface causes

a) Radiation fog
b) Advection fog
c) Frontal fog

8. The radiation fog forms due to

a) Heating of the earth during day
b) Radiation cooling of earth at night
c) Advection of cold air

9. The radiation fog activity increases after the passage of a..........

a) WD
b) Depression
c) Col

10. Radiation fog is essentially a ............. phenomenon

a) Nocturnal
b) Dusk
c) Day

11. The radiation fog forms over.........

a) Water
b) Land
c) Both

12. The .......... fog forms due to horizontal of warm moist air over cold surface
a) Radiation
b) Advection
c) Frontal

13. Advection fog form during

a) Night only
b) Day time only
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c) any time of day and night

14. For formation of radiation fog

a) There should be sufficient moisture in atmosphere cloudy sky, nil wind
b) There should be sufficient moisture in atmosphere, clear sky, and light wind.
c) There should be sufficient moisture in atmosphere, cloudy sky, and strong wind.

15. Instrument used for measuring visibility is called

a) Visiometer
b) Transmisometer
c) Ceilometer

16. Advection fog forms:

a) Over sea
b) Over land
c) Both over Land Sea

17. Fog is........ Cloud on ground:

a) Stratocumulus
b) Stratus
c) Nimbostratus

18. Frontal fog is more common with a:

a) Western disturbance
b) Cyclone
c) Warm front
d) Cold front

19. The favorable pressure system for formation of fog is:

a) Lows and cols
b) High and trough
c) Lows and ridges
d) Highs and cols

20. Thermal processes/temperature distribution which favors formation of fog is

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a) Isothermal
b) Adiabatic
c) Inversion
d) SALR

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ICE ACCREATION

1. How forest occurs on airframe in clear air when the temperature of Airframe is:
a) Below the frost point
b) Frost point
c) Just above the frost point

2. In clouds at temperature below 0°C aircraft may encounter icing of the type:
a) Only glazed
b) Only rime
c) Intermediate between these two

3. Opaque rime ice is:

a) Light porous
b) Solid
c) Mixture of pours and soiled

4. Rime is formal by freezing of.........super cooled water droplets whenaircraft in

flying through clouds:
a) Small
b) Large
c) Medium

5. Glazed ice is formed by freezing of..............super cooled water

Airframe when aircraft is flying through clouds:
a) Small
b) Large
c) Medium

6. The........ice poses serious aviation hazard:

a) Rime
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b) Hour frost
c) Glazed

7. Airframe icing occurs below 0°C its probability of occurrence decreases

progressively below -20°C as at lower temperaturethe proportion of super cooled
water drops in a cloud:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Does not change

8. CI, CS and CC clouds consist mostly ice crystals, icing hazard is there for:
a) Maximum
b) Medium
c) Negligible

9. AS, NS consist of super cooled water drops and ice varying proportion.....icing is
possible:
a) Maximum
b) Light or moderate
c) Negligible

10. In AC clouds..........icing is possible in mountainous area:

a) Light
b) Moderate
c) Servers

11. In TCU icing may range of server type at last up to.......level.

a) -40° C level
b) 30° C level
c) -20° C level

12. In CB icing may range from right to server type up to -20°C level below
thistemperature server icing is:
a) Not significant
b) Significant
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c) Maximum

13. Liquid water contant is an important factor in icing. Asthe maximumwater

Concentration is around..........maximum ice formation in clouds may: also be
expacted around that level.
a) -25o C level
b) -20 o C level
c) -15 o C level

14. Carburetor icing occur when air from intake passes through a venture(Choke)
and cause expansional cooling and vaporization of fuel. Serious icing can occur at
extreme temperatures:
a) 13o C
b) 30o C to - 10oC
c) 20o C

15. ............ occurs in a moist cloudless air on an aircraft surface having temp. Below
0oC, Due to sublimation of water vapors onto feathery ice crystals.
a) Rime
b) Glazed
c) Hoar Frost

16. .............occurs in ST, SC, AC, CU, NS at temperature – 10 To -40oC and in CB at

temperature -20 to -40oC
a) Rime
b) Glazed
c) Hoar frost

17. In clouds........... Occurs when a wide range of water drop sizes are present at
temperatures between 0 oC and -40oC
a) Rime
b) Glazed
c) Mixture of rime and clear ice

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18. .......... occurs in AS, NS, AC, and towering CU or CB between 0 oC and -20o C, in
warm front below 0oC, especially if the aircraft has rapidly descended from a
colder region:
a) Glazed
b) Rime
c) Mixture of rime and clear ice

19. When fog freezes on parked aircraft it produces.........

a) Hoar Frost
b) Rime
c) Clear ice

20. Icing ............. the stalling speed appreciably:

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Does not increases/decrease

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CLIMATOLOGY OF INDIA

1. During winters:
a) Advection fog occurs over northern & central part of India
b) Radiation fog occurs in southern part of country
c) Activity of Radiation fog increases after the passage of a WD over N India

2. Low Temperatures and low humidity is the characteristic of:

a) Post Monsoon
b) Hot weather
c) Monsoon
d) Winter months

3. Hot weather period is:

a) Jan-Feb
b) Mar-May
c) Jun-Sept
d) Oct – Dec

4. During hot weather:

a) WDs cause TS/ DS over Punjab & Rajasthan
b) No WD affect N-parts of country
c) Track of WD is southern most

5. The monsoon current over the West coast of India is:

a) SWly
b) SEly
c) NEly

6. Monsoon period is:

a) Jan to Feb
b) March to May
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c) June to Sep
d) Oct to Dec

7. The monsoon advances with:

a) Bay of Bengal current only
b) Arabian Sea current only
c) Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea currents

8. The rainfall over India during monsoon depends on:

a) Low over Pakistan.
b) Depression over Bay of Bengal
c) The position of the axis of Monsoon Trough

9. Rainfall occurs all over the country during monsoon when:

a) Axis of MT is in its normal position along Gangetic plains
b) Avis of MT is along Himalayas
c) Depression has formed over Bay of Bengal

10. Break in monsoon occurs when the axis of monsoon trough is along the:
a) Gangetic plains
b) Foot hills of Himalayas
c) Bay of Bengal

11. With a depression over the head Bay fair weather during monsoon occurs over:
a) Assam
b) W Bengal
c) Orissa

12. Monsoon is also called:

a) NE monsoon
b) SW monsoon
c) SE monsoon

13. Post monsoon weather period is:

a) Mar to May
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b) Jun to Sept
c) Oct to Dec
d) Jan to Feb

14. During post monsoon, pressure gradient over India is:

a) Weak
b) Steep
c) same as winters

15. During monsoon period, low pressure lies over:

a) Bay of Bengal
b) NE India
c) Central India
d) Pakistan

16. During vigorous monsoon period the pressure gradient over west coast is:
a) Weak
b) Steep
c) Normal

17. Flying in Monsoon from Chennai to Kolkata at 14 km a/c will experience winds:
a) Easterly
b) Westerly
c) Nly
d) Southerly

18. An aircraft flying in winter season from Chennai to Kolkata at 12 km will

experience winds:
a) Ely
b) Wly
c) Nly
d) Sly

19. An aircraft lying in Pre monsoon season from Delhi to Kolkata at 10 km

experience winds:
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a) Easterly
b) Westerly
c) Northerly
d) Southerly

20. An aircraft flying in Monsoon season from Mumbai to Ahmadabad at 03 km will

experience winds:
a) SEly
b) SWly
c) Nly
d) NWly

21. A& C flying in winter season from Delhi to Kolkata at 06 km will experience
winds:
a) SEly
b) SWly
c) Nly
d) NW – Wly

22. An aircraft flying in winter season from Delhi to Kolkata at 06 km will

experience:
a) Port drifts
b) Starboard drift
c) Tail wind
d) Head wind

23. Flying in winter season from Kolkata to Nagpur at 02 km will experience:

a) Port drifts
b) Starboard drift
c) Tail wind
d) Head wind

24. During break monsoon the pressures all over the country:
a) Rise
b) Fall

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c) Do not change

25. During break of monsoon sometimes surface winds over East UP and Bihar are:
a) Very strong
b) weak
c) normal

26. Mid tropospheric cyclone occurs during:

a) Pre monsoon
b) Winters
c) Post monsoon
d) SW monsoon

27. Mid tropospheric cyclone during monsoon form over:

a) Orissa
b) Punjab
c) Gujarat
d) Chennai

28. El Nino episode is applied by fishermen (of Ecuador and N Peru) to a period of
reduced fish catch due to suppression of upwelling:
a) warm surface coastal current
b) Wly surface coastal current
c) Cold surface coastal current

29. Maximum cyclones occur over India in:

a) Pre monsoon
b) Winters
c) Post monsoon
d) SW monsoon

30. Tropical Jet stream occurs in India during:

a) Pre monsoon
b) Winters
c) Post monsoon
d) SW monsoon
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31. Pressure gradient over West Coast of India is steep during:

a) Pre monsoon
b) Winters
c) Post monsoon
d) SW monsoon

32. During break in monsoon rain occurs:

a) Along foot hills
b) NW India
c) S India

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METAR AND SPECI

METAR VIDP 160230Z 30005KT 290V050 1500S 5000N R1S/P1500U BR FEW020 FEW025CB
SCT120 BKN300 32/29 Q1003 REFG TEMPO FM0330 22015G25KT 3000 + TSRA FEW010
SCT025 CB BKN150 BECMG AT0415 27008KT CAVOK=

1. The METAR has been issued on ............day:

a) 15th
b) 16th
c) 17th

2. The METAR has been issued at:

a) 0630 IST
b) 0230UTC
c) 0230IST

3. The surface wind speed is:

a) 2-6 kt
b) 3-7 kt
c) 4-6 kt

4. Wind direction is varying from:

a) 290 to 050°
b) 050 to 290°
c) 200 to 050°

5. Visibility 1500 m is towards:

a) N
b) S
c) All over the airport

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6. Visibility towards N is:

a) 1500m
b) 5000 m
c) 3000 m

7. Height of base of low clouds above station level is:

a) 2000 Ft
b) 2500 Ft
c) 2500 nm

8. Runway Visual range is:

a) 1500 m
b) >1500 m
c) <1500 m

9. Runway Visual range has:

a) Decreased
b) Increased
c) Remained same

10. The poor visibility is due to the Present weather, which is:
a) Fog
b) Brown Dust
c) Mist

11. Amount of lowest cloud is:

a) 1-2/8
b) 2-4/8
c) 5-7/8

12. Amount of CB cloud is:

a) 1-2/8
b) 2-4/8
c) S-7/8
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13. Height of base of CB is:

a) 2500 m
b) 3000 m
c) 2500 Ft

14. The height of topmost layer of cloud is:

a) 3000 m
b) 30000 m
c) 30000 Ft

15. The landing forecast appended to any METAR is valid for:

a) 1 hr
b) 2 hr
c) 3 hr

16. The wind in TREND from 0330 UTC is valid up to.............UTC:

a) 0400
b) 0430
c) 0415

17. Expected visibility after 0415 UTC is:

a) 6000 m
b) 10 km
c) >10km

18. The group Q1003 in the METAR indicates:

a) QFE
b) QFF
c) QNH

19. The difference between TT and TdTd is 3° C. The atmosphere is:

a) Very dry
b) Moist
c) Saturated

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20. Just before the METAR was issued the weather was:
a) Rain
b) Mist
c) Fog

21. The range of pressure reported as Q1003 is:

a) 1002.5 to 1003.5 hPa
b) 1003.0 to 1003,9hPa
c) 1003.1 to 1003.5 hPa

22. The range of temperature reported as 32 is:

a) 31.5 to 32.4° C
b) 32.1 to 32.4° C
c) 31.5 to 32.4° C

23. Visibility is reported in steps of 50 m when visibility is:

a) 800 m to 5000 m
b) 0 to 800 m
c) 5000 m to 10 km

24. Visibility is reported in steps of 100 m when visibility is:

a) 800 m to 5000 m
b) 0 to 800 m
c) 5000 m to 10 km

25. Visibility is reported in steps of 1000 m when visibility is:

a) 800 m to 5000 m
b) 0 to 800 m
c) 800 m
d) 5000 m to 9999

26. Visibility is reported 9999 when visibility is:

a) 800 m to 5000 m
b) 9000 to 9999 m
c) 10 km or more

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27. Temperature +2.5°C is reported as:

a) 02
b) 03
c) 2.5°C

28. Temperature -12.5°C is reported as:

a) -12
b) 13
c) M 12

29. Pressure is rounded down to the nearest whole number in hectopascal:

a) exact value
b) upper value
c) lower value

30. QNH 1002.6 hPa is reported as:

a) Q1002
b) Q1003
c) Q1002.6

31. QNH 29.92 inches is reported as:

a) Q2900
b) A2992
c) A 3000

32. Fog is reported when visibility is:

a) <1000m
b) 1000 m
c) >1000 m

33. Mist is reported when visibility is:

a) < 1000 m to 2000m
b) 1000 to 5000m
c) >1000 m

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34. CAVOK signifies Visibility, Cloud ..............and present weather better than the
prescribed values or conditions:
a) Ceiling
b) base
c) amount

35. CAVOK is issued when visibility is:

a) 9-10 km
b) 10 km or more
c) 10 km only

36. CAVOK is issued when:

1) Visibility 10 km or more
2) No weather of significance
3) No clouds below 1500 m or below the highest minimum sector altitude,
whichever is greater and no cumulonimbus.
a) Any one condition
b) Any two conditions
c) All the three conditions

37. SPECI is issued when:

1) Change in wind direction is >60° and speed before and/ after change >10 kt.
2) Mean speed has changed by >10 kt
3) Variation from mean speed by >10 kt and speed before and/ after change >
15kt
a) Any two conditions
b) Any one condition
c) All the three conditions

38. SPECI is issued when Clouds are:

1) BKN or OVC base at 30, 60, 150, 300, 450 m
2) Cloud amount below 450 m changes:

From SKC/ FEW/ SCT to BKN/OVC OR

From BKN/ OVC to SKC/ FEW/ SCT.

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a) Any one condition

b) Any two conditions
c) All the above conditions

39. SPECI is issued for vertical visibility, by stations having Ceil graph, when sky is
obscured:
a) True
b) False

40. SPECI is issued when surface temperature has increased by............. or more from
the last observation:
a) 3° C
b) 4° C
c) 2° C

41. WS RWY28 indicates that the wind shear has been reported for RW 28 in:
a) take off path
b) approach path
c) both take off and approach paths

42. R26/M0150 in a METAR indicates that:

a) maximum RVR is 150 m
b) minimum RVR is 150 m
c) 150 m is the lowest RVR instrument can measure and RVR is < 150 m

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TAF(AERODROME FORECAST)

TAF VILK 24 1800Z 2500/2509 09008KT 0800 FG BECMG 2504/2505

09015KT 6000 SCT008 BKN120 TEMPO 2506/2508 12015G30KT 3000

TSRA FEW012 FEW025CB BKN100 BECMG AT 25/0800 09010KT 7000 FEW030
SCT120 BKN280 =

1. The TAF has been issued on....day:

a) 23rd
b) 18th
c) 24th

2. The TAF has been issued at:

a) 2330 IST
b) 1830 UTC
c) 24 UTC

3. The expected surface wind speed is:

a) 09 kt
b) 06 kt
c) 08 kt

4. Initially expected wind direction is:

a) 120°
b) 090°
c) 050°

5. TAF is Valid for Date:

a) 23rd
b) 24th
c) 25th

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6. Lowest forecast visibility in TAF is:

a) 1500m
b) 0800 m
c) 0200 m

7. Height of base of lowest clouds in TAF is e:

a) 100 m
b) 1000 Ft
c) 0800 Ft

8. Weather TSRA is expected after:

a) 0600 UTC
b) 0600 IST
c) 0800 UTC

9. Direction of gusty wind is:

a) 090°
b) 100°
c) 120°

10. Expected weather up to 25/0400UTC is:

a) Fog
b) TSTA
c) Mist

11. Amount of lowest cloud is:

a) 1-2/8
b) 3-4/8
c) 5-7/8

12. Amount of CB clouds is:

a) 1-2/8
b) 2-4/8
c) 5-7/8

13. Height of base of CB is:

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a) 2500 Ft
b) 3000 m
c) 2500 m

14. The height of topmost layer of cloud is:

a) 2800 m
b) 28000 m
c) 28000 Ft

15. Period of validity of TAF is:

a) 23 to 00 IST
b) 00 to 09 UTC
c) 20 to 12 UTC

16. Group 1500/1509 in a TAF indicates:

a) TAF is issued on 15th at 0000 UTC
b) TAF is valid from 15th 0000 to 0900 UTC
c) TAF is valid from 1500 to 0900 UTC

17. What is true of a TAF:

a) 9 hr TAF is for international dissemination
b) TAF valid for 9 hr is issued every 6 hr
c) TAF valid for 12-30 hr is issued every 3 hr
d) TAF for national use are valid for 9 hr and issued every 3 hr

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METEOROLOGICAL SERVICES FOR AVIATION

1. For non-scheduled National Flights an advance notice (before ETD) is required to

be given to AMOs:
a) 3 hr
b) 18-24 hr
c) 6 hr

2. For non-scheduled National Flights an advance notice (before ETD) is required to

be given to AMSs:
a) 3 hr
b) 18-24 hr
c) 6 hr

3. WAFS provides high quality en-route forecasts of.......to Meet Offices.

a) High quality en-route forecasts of winds and temperature
b) SIGMET
c) TREND

4. IMD has.............Regional Met offices:

a) 4
b) 5
c) 6

5. There are............Aerodrome Met Offices:

a) 17
b) 18
c) 19

6. There are............. Aeronautical Met Stations:

a) 56

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b) 54
c) 52

7. In AIREP the Met Information is contained in Section:

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3

8. TAF are generally valid for:

a) 18 hr
b) 12 hr
c) 9 hr

9. The validity of Landing Forecast (TREND) is:

a) 1 hr
b) 2hr
c) 3 hr

10. Landing Forecast is append to:

a) METAR and SPECI
b) TAF
c) AIREP

11. Local/Area Forecast is issued three times a day valid for next:
a) 18 hr
b) 8 hr
c) 9 hr

12. Local/Area Forecast covers an area:

a) 100 NM
b) 100 km
c) 50 NM

13. Global SIGWX Charts are issued by:

a) WMO
b) AMO

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c) WAFC

14. Global SIGWX Charts are valid for:

a) 18 hr
b) 24 hr
c) 9 hr

15. Global SIGWX Charts for high-level are issued for Flight Levels:
a) 250 & 630
b) 460 &100
c) 460 & 260

16. CODAR is:

a) Radar Report
b) Coded ARFOR
c) Upper report from an aircraft, other than weather reconnaissance aircraft

17. WINTEM is:

a) Actual upper winds
b) Forecast upper wind and temperature
c) Actual temperature and upper winds

18. SIGMET is a notice of severe weather for:

a) actual
b) expected
c) both

19. SIGMET is issued for aircraft:

a) in flight
b) on ground
c) both

20. SIGMET is issued by:

a) WAFC
b) AMO
c) MWO

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21. SIGMET is valid for:

a) 4 hr
b) 8 hr
c) 9 hr

22. SIGMET is not issued for:

a) Rain
b) Volcanic Ash
c) SEV Icing

23. AIRMET is SIGMET issued by a MWO for the safety of:

a) Low-levelaircraft
b) High- level aircraft
c) Both

24. GAMET is an area forecast in abbreviated plain language for:

a) Low level flights
b) high level flights
c) all level flights

25. The validity of Airfield warnings is not exceeding:

a) 3 hr
b) 4 hr
c) 6 hr

26. Airfield warning is issued for expected wind speed:

a) 30 kt
b) 24 kt
c) 15 kt

27. Airfield warning is issued for wind direction of 20 kt changes by:

a) 45°
b) 30°
c) 60°

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28. Airfield Warning for gliders, light aircraft and helicopters is issued for expected
wind speed:
a) 15 kt
b) 17 kt
c) 30 kt

29. Wind Shear Warning is issued for the observed or expected wind shear above
runway:
a) Up to 500 m
b) above 500 m
c) 300 m

30. (VOLMET) is MET information for aircraft:

a) On ground
b) in flight
c) both

31. VOLMET Radio Telephony Broadcast made on HF Channel from:

a) Mumbai only
b) Kolkata only
c) Both Kolkata and Mumbai

32. VOLMET consists of:

a) SIGMET
b) TAF only
c) TAF and METAR

33. In ROBEX the METAR / SPECI of international aerodromes and their alternates
is exchanged:
a) Within India
b) outside India

34. Global SIGWX Charts are issued.................times a day:

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
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35. Global SIGWX Charts for Medium-level are issued for Flight Levels:
a) 150 & 200
b) 100 & 250
c) 100 & 150

36. In India who compiles a single National SIGWX chart:

a) New Delhi
b) Mumbai
c) Kolkata
d) Chennai

37. The Indian National SIGWX chart is made for Medium Levels between Flight
Levels:
a) 150 & 200
b) 100 & 250
c) 100 & 150

38. The Indian National SIGWX chart is valid for:

a) 24 hr
b) 18 hr
c) 12 hr

39. In India the National SIGWX chart is issued:

a) 2 times a day
b) 4 times a day
c) 6 times a day

40. Individual TS which cover less than 50 % area, is termed as:

a) FRQ
b) ISOL
c) OCNL

41. If TS cells have no separation between adjacent TS and cover an area more than
75%, it is termed as:
a) FRQ
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b) ISOL
c) OCNL

42. If TS cells are well separated and cover an area 50-75 %, it is termed as:
a) FRQ
b) ISOL
c) OCNL

43. The Indian National SIGWX chart is made for High Levels between Flight
Levels:
a) 150 & 200
b) 100 & 250
c) 100 & 150
d) FL250 and FL630

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STATION MODEL

34 962

95 ] -14

30 -- -- -- 5
3 / 2 2

1. The direction of surface wind is:

a) NW
b) NE
c) SE

2. The range of wind speed is:

a) 20-25 kt
b) 16-22 kt
c) 18-22 kt

3. The type of medium cloud is:

a) AC
b) AS
c) AC & AS

4. Low clouds are:

a) CU
b) SC
c) ST

5. High clouds are:

a) CC

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b) CI
c) CS

6. Height of base of low clouds is:

a) 200 m
b) 250 m
c) 100 to 199 m

7. Amount of lowest cloud is:

a) 2/8
b) 4/8
c) 3/8

8. Dew Point temperature range is:

a) 29.5 to 30.4° C
b) 29.1 to 30.4° C
c) 30.6 to 30.4° C

9. Temperature 34℃ is:

a) Dry
b) Wet
c) Dew Point

10. 962 represents:

a) QFF
b) QFF
c) QNH

11. Pressure value in hPa is:

a) 996
b) 996.2
c) 1096.2

12. Pressure change of 1.4 hPa is in:

a) 6 hr
b) 3hr
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c) 24 hr

13. Past weather is:

a) Moderate Light Rain
b) Continuous Rain
c) Heavy Rain

14. Rainfall amount is:

a) 2 mm
b) 1.5 mm
c) 1.6 to 2.4 mm

15. Rainfall reported is from:

a) 0300Z of yesterday to 0300Z of today
b) 0100 to 2400Z
c) 0530 to 0830 IST

16. Speed of Ship is:

a) 5 KMH
b) 5 MPS
c) 5 KT

17. Direction of movement of Ship:

a) NW
b) SW
c) NE

18. Speed of Ship reported is averaged for:

a) 3 hr
b) 6 hr
c) 12 hr

19. Surface visibility is:

a) 500 to <1000 m
b) 1000 to 2000m
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c) 2000 to< 4000 m

20. Weather reported is:

a) Rain at the time of observation
b) Rain during last one hour
c) Rain not at station but within 5 km

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MISCELLANEOUS QUESTIONS
1. Translucent rime ice forms due to:
a) Melting of large snow particles
b) Freezing of large super cooled water drops
c) Freezing of small super cooled water drops
d) Sublimation of large hail

2. Advection fog occurs due to...........air moving over............ surface over.......

a) Dry, wet, land only
b) Moist and cold, warm, land only
c) Warm & moist air, cold, both land & sea.

3. ELR 6.5°C and SALR 7°C on lifting a saturated parcel of air the atmosphere
would be:
a) Stable
b) Absolutely stable
c) Absolutely unstable
d) Indifferent

4. Gradient wind is weaker than geostrophic wind around a low because:

a) Centripetal force is provided by pressure gradient force
b) Centripetal force is added to the pressure gradient force
c) Coriolis force is added to the pressure gradient force
d) Coriolis force is opposite to Centripetal

5. The altimeter of an aircraft is set to QFE before landing, on landing it will

indicate:
a) Height of A/C wheels above runway
b) Flight Level
c) A/C altitude AMSL
d) Height of A/C above ARP in ISA

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6. TAF generally has a validity of.................hr and TREND............hr:

a) 9 hr; 2hr
b) 24 hr; 3hr
c) 12 hr; 2hr
d) 24 hr; 9hr

7. CAT is most pronounced on which side of a subtropical jet stream:

a) About 3 km above the core
b) cold side of core
c) South side of core
d) at core

8. Hail forms by collision with super-cooled water drops by:

a) Condensation
b) Sublimation/ deposition
c) Evaporation
d) Transpiration

9. Thermal wind blows parallel to...... keeping................. To the left :

a) Isotherms, low temperature
b) isobars, low temperature
c) Isobars, low pressure
d) isallobars, high temperature

10. Roaring Forties are............ winds blow throughout the year and are of very
stormy nature in:
a) Wly, N hemisphere
b) Ely, S hemisphere
c) Wly, S hemisphere
d) Ely, S hemisphere

11. Temperature in the troposphere decreases from equator to poles. The thermal
wind throughout troposphere is therefore........... and...........as height increases:
a) Wly, increases
b) Wly, decreases
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c) Wly, remains same

d) Ely, increases

12. A Cold Front passes a station, the pressure:

a) Changes are very small
b) First increases and then decreases
c) First decreases and then increases
d) Rise continually

13. Flying conditions associated with CB during pre-monsoon are:

a) Continuous rain, poor visibility, light turbulence
b) Good visibility, drizzle, turbulence
c) Hail, gusts, shower, and severe turbulence
d) Rain, poor visibility, and turbulence

14. Which is true of a cold front?

a) less steeper than a warm front
b) associated with continuous rain and ST clouds
c) heavy convective weather and squall line
d) similar slope as warm front

15. The observed temperature is -40 ℃ at FL 300 (10 km): It is termed as

a) 10°C warmer than ISA
b) 10°C colder than ISA
c) 15℃ warmer than ISA
d) 15℃ colder than ISA

16. Aquaplaning may occur in:

a) -GR
b) +RA
c) -TS
d) Thick Fog

17. CAT is most likely to be encountered in:

a) A high close to a Dust Storm
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b) After the passage of a severe Sandstorm

c) A sharp trough aloft with winds of jet stream speed
d) A ridge aloft

18. What are norwesters:

a) Warm dry winds coming from NW
b) Severe Dust storm from NW
c) TS affecting NW India in premonsoon
d) TS of E and NE India in premonsoon

19. Example of non-frontal stability is:

a) Squall line
b) Inversion
c) Frontogenesis
d) Occlusion

20. If temperature initially is constant and then increases with height, the atmosphere
is:
a) Stable
b) Unstable
c) Indifferent
d) Adiabatic

21. Under what conditions severe icing is encountered:

a) temperature below 0 deg C
b) rain and temperature below -10 deg C
c) visible vapour and temperature -5 deg C
d) rain at temperature 20 deg C

22.
a) The level from ground to freezing level is more susceptible for icing
b) Most potent area for dangerous icing is freezing level to about 25,000 Ft
c) Icing may be severe in the temperature range -20 to -40 deg C
d) Severe icing may form in the temperature range 10 to 30 deg C

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23. Ice accretion:

a) increases drag but reduces stalling speed
b) alters aerodynamics, reduces weight, and decrease lift
c) alters aerodynamics, increases weight, and lift
d) increases drag and weight and stalling speed

24. When wind is 260102 KT, how it will be reported is a METAR/SPECI:

a) 26010 KT +26002 KT
b) 260P99 KT only
c) Only in remark column
d) 260P99 KT and complete wind in remark column

25. Will SPECI be issued if the change is?

a) Wind, from 27010 KT to 29018KT
b) RVR, from 1400 m to 1600 m
c) Visibility, from 6000 m to 4000 m
d) Temperature changes from 15 to 16 deg C

26. CAVOK in a METAR replaces:

a) Visibility, cloud and Wx groups
b) Wind, visibility & cloud groups
c) Wind, visibility & cloud groups
d) Visibility, temp &cloud groups

27. Why calm and clear night is cooler than cloudy night:
a) Clouds prevent terrestrial radiation from escaping
b) Clouds radiate heat towards sky
c) Due to CO₂ and H₂O present in the air
d) Terrestrial radiation skip through clouds

28. Diurnal variation of temperature is least:

a) Clear skies
b) Over the coastal areas during land breeze
c) Overcast skies
d) Over the land surface when winds are weak

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29. Density altitude is:

a) Higher if atmosphere is warmer than ISA
b) Lower if atmosphere is warmer than ISA
c) Higher if atmosphere is colder than ISA
d) Higher if atmosphere is isothermal

30. The temperature to which air should be cooled to saturate it is..............

Temperature:
a) Wet bulb
b) Dew point
c) Dry bulb
d) Ambient

31. No cyclonic storm or high pressure systems form within 5° of the equator
because:
a) Pressure gradient force is negligible
b) Frictional force is minimal
c) Coriolis force is negligible
d) Geotropic force is maximum

32. Gradient wind:

a) Is due to the balance between Pressure gradient force and Friction
b) Is super geostrophic in a low and sub geostrophic in a high
c) Is due to the balance between Pressure gradient, Coriolis and Centripetal forces
d) Blows parallel to straight isobars

33. Effect of Wind Shear:

a) Decreasing head wind increases lift
b) Increasing tail wind increases lift
c) Decreasing tail wind increases lift and a/c rises above the glide path
d) Weakening head wind raises aircraft above the flight path

34. Due to friction the wind:

a) Strengthens and backs during landing
b) Decreases and backs during landing
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c) Strengthens and backs during takeoff

d) Decreases and veers during landing

35. The term 'monsoon' means:

a) Seasonal reversal of winds and rainfall
b) Rains all over India
c) One of the four seasons with maximum rain in the N
d) Monsoon circulation

36. The two main seasons in India are:

a) Pre monsoon and SW monsoon
b) Winters and hot season
c) Hot season and rainy season
d) NE monsoon and SW monsoon

37. The main cause of seasons in India is:

a) Oscillation of sun 23.5 N to 23.5 S
b) Advection of air from Arabian sea
c) Thermal equator at equator whole year
d) Earth rotating around its own axis

38. The axis of monsoon trough runs:

a) In the Bay of Bengal
b) Along the Gangetic plains
c) Along 22°East to West of India
d) Along central peninsula

39. During monsoon season the low level winds are:

a) SEly along E coast
b) NEly over Tamil Nadu
c) SEly over Bay of Bengal
d) SEly North of Monsoon Trough

40. During SW monsoon the winds above 500 hPa are:

a) Ely over S and weak Wly over N India
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b) Wly over S and strong over N India

c) Wly over S and weak Wly over N India
d) Strong Ely over S and weak over N India

41. Which is not true of post monsoon?

a) Pressure gradient is weakest of all seasons
b) Frequency of tropical cyclones is max.
c) Monsoon withdraws from the country
d) Worst period for flying expect S India

42. The season during which Tamil Nadu gets maximum rainfall is ............monsoon:
a) Post
b) SW
c) Pre
d) NE

43. ITCZ affects weather over India during:

a) Winters only
b) Pre- monsoon only
c) Monsoon only
d) All the four seasons

44. ESNO is the name given to:

a) El-Nino only
b) Southern oscillations and La Nino
c) El-Nino and Southern oscillations
d) El- Nino and La- Nino combined

45. Friction causes winds to get deflected.............

a) Parallel to isobars
b) Towards low
c) Perpendicular to isobars
d) towards high

46. Station level pressure at ARP is reduced to MSL as per:

a) ISA is QFF
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b) ISA is QFE
c) Isothermal is QNH
d) ISA is QNH

47. A/C moving from west to east and is drifting northwards. Its altimeter will:
a) Under read
b) Over read Under read
c) reading will remain unchanged

48. Wind Shear in TS is maximum:

a) Below the anvil
b) all sides of a CB
c) Beneath the cloud
d) in SW sector

49. Difference between Air mass TS ( AM TS ) and Steady State TS ( SS TS ) is:

a) SS TS duration is more
b) AM TS duration is more
c) SS TS duration is less
d) AM TS occur in fronts

50. In a line of TS there is a hole in the Radar echo, what would you infer:
a) No precipitation
b) Strong convective activity
c) Area free of clouds
d) a gap between two CB

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