Risk and Return Fundamentals in Finance
Risk and Return Fundamentals in Finance
Part 4
Risk and the Required Rate of Return
Chapter 8
Risk and Return
Instructor’s Resources
Chapter Overview
This chapter focuses on the fundamentals of risk and return—beginning with simple definitions of total and
expected return, risk neutral, risk averse, and risk seeking. The discussion then moves to risk measurement by
focusing on a single asset and measuring risk with statistics associated with a probability distribution—
namely, mean, standard deviation, and coefficient of variation. To demonstrate that insights about risk for a
single asset do not necessarily carry through to a collection of assets, the discussion broadens to risk and
return for a portfolio. Diversification is introduced through examination of risk for a portfolio of positively
correlated, negatively correlated, and uncorrelated assets. The key takeaway is that the volatility (risk) of a
portfolio will be less than a weighted average of the volatilities of the assets in the portfolio as long as the
correlation is less than 1.0. The potential for risk-reduction through international diversification is offered as an
intuitive example. These ideas are used to motivate the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). Diversifiable
and nondiversifiable risk are distinguished, with the key idea that the market only rewards bearing
nondiversifiable risk because firm-specific risk can so easily be eliminated through diversification. Then, the
CAPM equation and its pictorial representation (Security Market Line or SML) are introduced to show the
link between return and nondiversifiable risk. The chapter concludes by illustrating the impact of changes in
inflation expectations and investor risk aversion on the SML.
The Opportunity Fund performed better. A $1,000 investment in Opportunity January 1, 2009 would have
grown to $1,865 by year-end 2012 ($1,000 × 1.76 × 1.166 × 0.651 × 1.396) while a $1,000 investment in
the S&P 500 would have grown to only $1,724 ($1,000 × 1.265 × 1.151 × 1.0211 × 1.160).
To find standard deviation of returns (σ) for each fund, use the standard-deviation formula for n
observations of that fund’s historical data:
, where rj is return in year j (running to year n) and is average return over n years.
For the Opportunity Fund:
Opportunity
Fund Mean Difference
Year Return Return Difference Squared
2009 76.00% 24.33% 0.51675 0.26703
2010 16.60% 24.33% -0.07725 0.00597
2011 -34.90% 24.33% -0.59225 0.35076
2012 39.60% 24.33% 0.15275 0.02333
Sum of Squared Differences = 0.64709
n-1= 3
Sum of Squared Differences / (n - 1) = 0.215696917
Square Root of Sum of Squared Differences / (n - 1) = 46.44%
8-2 Total return (gain or loss) on an investment over a given time period is the change in value over that
period plus any cash distributions, expressed as a percentage of beginning-of- period value.
Specifically:
8-3 a. Risk-averse investors dislike risk and, therefore, expect higher returns on riskier investments.
b. Risk-neutral investors select investments based on expected return—the higher the better—without
regard to risk. Such investors require no compensation for bearing more risk.
c. Risk-seekers like risk. Just as risk-averse investors will give up some return to avoid some risk,
risk-seeking investors will give up some return to take more risk.
Most financial managers are risk averse—they expect compensation for bearing additional risk. Risk
tolerance refers an investor’s degree of risk aversion, that is the specific compensation she requires for
taking additional risk. Two investors may both refuse to accept more risk unless awarded a higher
expected return—that is, both are risk averse. But the more risk tolerant of the two will require less
additional compensation.
8-4. Scenario analysis assesses asset risk using more than one possible set of returns to gauge the variability
of outcomes. Range—a measure of variability—is found by subtracting the pessimistic outcome from
the optimistic outcome, with larger ranges suggesting greater risk. Note, however, after getting deeper
into the chapter, students will learn the range of outcomes suffers as a risk measure by not
distinguishing diversifiable and undiversifiable components.
8-5 Decision makers can estimate risk with a plot of the probability distribution—which relates probabilities
to potential returns by showing the dispersion in returns. The wider the distribution of potential returns,
the greater the variability (risk) associated with returns. It is important to note, however, the plot offers
a feel for an asset’s risk but does not distinguish between diversifiable and undiversifiable components.
8-6. The standard deviation of a distribution of asset returns is an absolute measure of dispersion of risk
around the mean or expected value. A higher standard deviation more variable returns.
8-7 The coefficient of variation (CV)—another risk indicator—is the standard deviation on an asset’s
returns divided by its average return. In other words, rather than measuring risk solely by the volatility
of an asset’s returns, CV shows the volatility of returns relative to average or expected return.
8-8 An efficient portfolio offers the maximum return for a given risk level. Portfolio return is just the
weighted average of returns on individual assets in the portfolio. Specifically:
n
rp = (w1×r1) + (w2×r2) + … + (wn×rn) = ∑ ( w j × r j )
j=1
where:
rp = portfolio return rj = the return on asset j
n
wj = the portfolio weight of asset j (∑ w j = 1) n = number of assets in the portfolio
j=1
The standard deviation of a portfolio is not the weighted average of the standard deviations of
component assets. Rather, it is calculated with the standard-deviation formula, using portfolio returns
for various time periods (rather than returns on individual assets in the portfolio) and the average
portfolio return over those time periods. Specifically:
√∑
2
σrp =
n
( r i−r̅ p ) where: σrp = standard deviation of portfolio returns
j=1 ( n−1 )
8-9 The correlation between asset returns is key to evaluating the effect of a new asset on portfolio risk.
Returns on different assets that move in the same direction are positively correlated, while those
moving in opposite directions are negatively correlated. Unless the returns on assets in a portfolio are
perfectly positively correlated, portfolio standard deviation will be less than the weighted average of
the standard deviations of portfolio assets. If the absolute value of correlation between assets in the
portfolio is sufficiently low—it need not be negative—portfolio standard deviation may be less than the
standard deviation of the least volatile portfolio asset. In short, the magic of diversification is that
portfolio returns can be less volatile than the returns on any single portfolio asset.
8-10 Adding foreign assets to a domestic portfolio can reduce risk for the same reason a portfolio of two
domestic assets can have less risk than one asset: returns on foreign investments are not perfectly
correlated with returns on U.S. investments, so an internationally diversified portfolio generally has a
lower standard deviation of returns (less risk) than a purely domestic portfolio. That said, under some
circumstances, international diversification can produce subpar returns. For example, when the dollar
appreciates relative to other currencies, the dollar value of foreign-currency-denominated portfolios
declines, thereby producing lower dollar returns. If the appreciation is traceable to a strong U.S.
economy, foreign-currency-denominated portfolios will generally have lower returns in local currency
as well, further reducing returns. Political risk—the risk political instability or hostile governments
could endanger foreign assets or profits—is another potential pitfall of international diversification,
particularly when investing in developing countries.
8-11 The total risk of a security is measured by the standard deviation of returns; it has two components –
nondiversifiable risk and diversifiable risk. Diversifiable risk refers to the portion of risk attributable to
firm-specific, random events (such as strikes, litigation, and loss of key contracts) that can be
eliminated by diversification. Nondiversifiable risk, in contrast, is attributable to market factors
affecting all firms at the same time (such as war, inflation, and political events). Nondiversifiable risk
is the only relevant risk because diversifiable risk can be easily eliminated by forming a portfolio of
assets with less than perfect positive correlation. Because investors can easily eliminate this risk, the
market will not offer compensation in the form of higher returns to those who bear it.
8-12 Beta measures the nondiversifiable risk of a specific asset or portfolio; it is an index of the co-
movement of an asset’s return with the market return. The beta coefficient for an asset can be found by
plotting the asset’s historical returns relative to the returns for the market and using statistical
techniques to fit the “characteristic line” to the data points. The slope of this line is beta. Beta
coefficients for actively traded stocks are widely published in print and online. The beta of a portfolio
is simply the weighted average of the betas of component assets.
8-14 a. An increase in inflationary expectations shifts the SML upwards by an amount equal to the
increase. The shift is parallel—that is, SML slope remains the same—because the only change is
that required return for a given level of risk rose to reflect the higher expected inflation rate.
b. If investors become less risk averse, the slope of the SML (beta coefficient) will decline—that is
the SML will rotate clockwise around the given fixed risk-free rate because a lower return is now
required for each level of risk.
Global funds differ from international funds by investing in stocks and bonds around the world, including
U.S. securities. International funds, in contrast, invest in stocks and bonds around the world but not U.S
securities. Global funds, therefore, are more likely to be correlated with U.S. mutual funds because U.S.
securities (particularly equities) are typically a sizeable chunk of their portfolios. A U.S. investor seeking to
further internationally diversify her portfolio should either add international funds or—if the portfolio already
includes global funds—increase the portfolio weight of those funds.
Academic research on the investment performance of actively managed funds has produced two consistent
findings: (i) after adjusting for differences in fees, active funds do not—on average—outperform passive
(index) funds, and (ii) funds that do outperform the market for a while cannot maintain that edge. These
findings suggest a fund manager can consistently beat the market over a long period only by taking more risk
or committing fraud. (And, “taking more risk” in this context means returns will be more volatile than the
market return.) So investors should beware of fund managers who claim to earn “abnormal” returns
consistently over a long stretch, particularly if the explanation offered is a new, proprietary strategy. As for
believing Ponzi and Madoff, of course, it is impossible to know what was in their hearts. But successful scam
artists have to be good salesman, and all good salesman must—to some extent at least—believe their pitch.
That is what makes the pitch so believable to others (along with greed). The bottom line here is that scam
artists seldom wear nametags identifying themselves as such. So it is best to look past the sales pitch and ask
skeptical questions about returns that appear too good to be true.
1 0.35 7%
2 0.35 5%
3 0.05 -4%
4 0.25 10%
Total = 1.00 Expected return
Investment 1 has a standard deviation of 10% and an average return of 15% while Investment 2
has a standard deviation of 5% and an average return of 12%, so:
CV1 0.10 0.15 0.6667 CV2 0.05 0.12 0.4167
Based on standard deviations and coefficients of variation, Investment 2 has lower risk if held in
isolation. That said, neither standard deviation nor coefficient of variation decomposes measured
volatility into nondiversifiable and diversifiable components. But coefficient of variation does at
least measure an asset’s volatility relative to expected return and, therefore, offers a broader
perspective on risk than standard deviation alone.
rp = (0.25 × 0.048) + (0.5 × 0.152) + (0.25 × 0.234) = 0.012 + 0.076 + 0.0585 = 0.1465 =
14.65%
Answer: The CAPM equation can be used to find required return, given an asset’s beta, the risk-free rate,
and market return. Specifically:
where:
rj = required return on asset j β j = Beta coefficient for asset j
RF = risk-free rate rm = Expected return on market portfolio of assets
a. Required return 0.05 1.8 (0.10 0.05) 0.05 0.09 0.14.
b. Required return 0.05 1.8 (0.13 0.05) 0.05 0.144 0.194.
c. The risk-free rate does not change, but market return increases. The resulting rise in the
market-risk premium will cause the Security Market Line (SML) to rotate counterclockwise
about the fixed risk-free rate..
Solutions to Problems
P8-1 Rate of return (LG 1; Basic)
Total return on an investment is given by:
b. Investment A should be selected because it has a higher rate of return for the same level of risk.
d. The answer will still be not very clear, as the facts remain the same and the basic choice is the
risk return tradeoff which will be decided by the risk preference of the management.
Camera Range
R 30% 20% 10%
S 35% 15% 20%
c. Line K appears less risky because of a slightly tighter distribution of potential outcomes.
P8-8 Standard deviation versus coefficient of variation as measures of risk (LG 2; Basic)
a. Project A is least risky based on range because it has the smallest value (4%).
b. Project A has the lowest standard deviation. Standard deviation fails to take into account both the
volatility and return of the investment and does not distinguish between a project’s diversifiable
and nondiversifiable risk.
A: C:
B: D:
Project D may be the best alternative because it has the least amount of risk per percentage point
of return. Coefficient of variation is probably the best measure here because it provides a
standardized method of capturing the risk-return tradeoff for investments with differing returns.
That said, like the standard deviation, the coefficient of variation does not distinguish between an
investment’s diversifiable and nondiversifiable risk.
P8-9 Personal finance: Rate of return, standard deviation, coefficient of variation (LG 2; Challenge)
a.
Stock Price
Year Beginning End Returns
2015 $14.36 $21.55 50.07%
2016 21.55 64.78 200.60%
2017 64.78 72.38 11.73%
2018 72.38 91.80 26.83%
Average return = 72.31%
ri Pri
20 0.05 1 -26.9
40 0.35 14 –96.6
60 0.15 9 117.9
= 46.9 σ 2=293.39
ri is the return for outcome i, is the average return across all outcomes, and Pri is the
probability of outcome i. σ = √ 293.39 = 17.13 %
(4) Coefficient of variation (CV) is given by σ ÷ , where σ is the standard deviation of the
returns on the asset and is the average return. So: CV = 17.13% ÷ 46.9% = 0.3652
Project ACY
(1) Range: 0.55 0.10 0.45 percentage points
(2) Expected or average return:
ri Pri
20 0.10 2 –20.7
40 0.25 10 96.5
= 30.35 σ 2= 123.1275
ri is the return for outcome i, is the average return across all outcomes, and Pri is the
probability of outcome i. σ = √ 123.1275= 11.096 %
(4) Coefficient of variation (CV) is given by σ ÷ , where σ is the standard deviation of returns
on the asset and is the average return. So, CV = 11.096% ÷ 30.35% = 0.3656.
b. Bar charts
c. The primary criteria for assessing risk should be coefficient of variation. As both the projects
have very similar coefficients of variation, we need to look elsewhere. Another measure of risk
can be standard deviation of returns. Project ACX has a standard deviation of 17.163%, making it
a relatively more risky project.
Asset F
Column → (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6)
Return Average Probability
2
(r i ) Return (r̅) = (1) ─ (2) = (3) (P ri ) = (4) x (5)
0.40 0.04 0.360 0.1296
0.100 0.012960
0.10 0.04 0.060 0.0036
0.200 0.000720
0.00 0.04 -0.040 0.0016
0.400 0.000640
-0.05 0.04 -0.090 0.0081
0.200 0.001620
-0.10 0.04 -0.140 0.0196
0.100 0.001960
Sum = 0.017900
√ (Sum) = Standard Deviation (σ) = 0.133791
= 13.38%
Asset F
Column → (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6)
Return Average Probability
2
(r i ) Return (r̅) = (1) ─ (2) = (3) (P ri ) = (4) x (5)
0.40 0.04 0.360 0.1296
0.100 0.012960
0.10 0.04 0.060 0.0036
0.200 0.000720
0.00 0.04 -0.040 0.0016
0.400 0.000640
-0.05 0.04 -0.090 0.0081
0.200 0.001620
-0.10 0.04 -0.140 0.0196
0.100 0.001960
Sum = 0.017900
√ (Sum) = Standard Deviation (σ) = 0.133791
= 13.38%
Asset G
Column → (1) (2) (3) (4)
(5) (6)
Return Average Probability
2
(r i ) Return (r̅) = (1) ─ (2) = (3) (P ri ) = (4) x (5)
0.35 0.11 0.240 0.0576 0.400 0.023040
0.10 0.11 -0.010 0.0001 0.300 0.000030
-0.20 0.11 -0.310 0.0961 0.300 0.028830
Sum = 0.051900
√ (Sum) = Standard Deviation (σ) = 0.227816
= 22.78%
Asset H
Column → (1) (2) (3) (5) (4) (6)
Return Average Probability
2
(r i ) Return (r̅) = (1) ─ (2) = (3) (P ri ) = (4) x (5)
0.40 0.10 0.300 0.0900 0.100 0.009000
0.20 0.10 0.100 0.0100 0.200 0.002000
0.10 0.10 0.000 0.0000 0.400 0.000000
0.00 0.10 -0.100 0.0100 0.200 0.002000
-0.20 0.10 -0.300 0.0900 0.100 0.009000
Sum = 0.022000
√ (Sum) = Standard Deviation (σ) = 0.148324
= 14.83%
(2) 95% of the outcomes will lie between 2 standard deviations from the expected value:
+2 σ = 16% + (2 × 10.4%) = 36.8% – 2 σ = 16% – (2 × 10.4%) = –
4.8%
(3) 99% of the outcomes will lie between 3 standard deviations from the expected value:
+2 σ = 16% + (3 × 10.4%) = 47.2% – 2 σ = 16% – (3 × 10.4%) = –
15.2%
c.
Data Point Return
1 –15.20%
2 –4.80%
3 5..6%
4 16%
5 26.40%
6 36.80%
7 47.20%
Probability Distribution
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
P8-13 Personal finance: Portfolio return and standard deviation (LG 3; Challenge)
a. Actual portfolio return for each year: rp (wLrL) (wMrM), where w is the portfolio
weight of asset L or M, and r is the actual return in a given year on asset L or M.
where ri is the asset return in year i (running to year n), and is average return over n years:
Asset L
Column → (1) (2) (3)
Return Average
2
Year (r i ) Return (r̅) = (1) ─ (2) = (3)
2013 0.14000 0.16167 -0.022 0.000469
2014 0.14000 0.16167 -0.022 0.000469
2015 0.16000 0.16167 -0.002 0.000003
2016 0.17000 0.16167 0.008 0.000069
2017 0.17000 0.16167 0.008 0.000069
2018 0.19000 0.16167 0.028 0.000803
Sum of Squared Differences = 0.001883
n─1= 5
Sum of Squared Differences / (n ─ 1) = 0.000377
√ [Sum of Squarted Differences) / (n ─ 1)] = σ = 0.019408
= 1.94%
Asset M
Column → (1) (2) (3)
Return Average
2
Year (r i ) Return (r̅) = (1) ─ (2) = (3)
2013 0.20000 0.15000 0.050 0.002500
2014 0.18000 0.15000 0.030 0.000900
2015 0.16000 0.15000 0.010 0.000100
2016 0.14000 0.15000 -0.010 0.000100
2017 0.12000 0.15000 -0.030 0.000900
2018 0.10000 0.15000 -0.050 0.002500
Sum of Squared Differences = 0.007000
n─1= 5
Sum of Squared Differences / (n ─ 1) = 0.001400
√ [Sum of Squarted Differences) / (n ─ 1)] = σ = 0.037417
= 3.74%
Portfolio
Column → (1) (2) (3)
Return Average
2
Year (r i ) Return (r̅) = (1) ─ (2) = (3)
2013 17.6% 0.15 0.021 0.000455
2014 16.4% 0.15 0.009 0.000087
2015 16.0% 0.15 0.005 0.000028
2016 15.2% 0.15 -0.003 0.000007
2017 14.0% 0.15 -0.015 0.000215
2018 13.6% 0.15 -0.019 0.000348
Sum of Squared Differences = 0.001141
n─1= 5
Sum of Squared Differences / (n ─ 1) = 0.000228
√ [Sum of Squarted Differences) / (n ─ 1)] = σ = 0.015108
= 1.51%
d and e.
The standard deviation (risk) of portfolio returns is 1.51%, lower than either asset (1.94% for
Asset L and 3.74% for Asset M). So holding the two assets as a portfolio yields a diversification
benefit, indicating the returns on Asset L and M must be less than perfectly positively correlated.
[Note: The actual correlation coefficient between the returns on Asset L and Asset M is
-0.9635—the assets are highly negatively correlated—but negative correlation is not necessary
for a diversification benefit.]
b. Standard deviation: ,
where ri is asset return in year i (running to year n), and is average return over n years:
Alternative 1:
100% Asset F
Column → (1) (2) (3)
Return Average
2
Year (r i ) Return (r̅) = (1) ─ (2) = (3)
2016 16% 0.175 -0.015 0.000225
2017 17% 0.175 -0.005 0.000025
2018 18% 0.175 0.005 0.000025
2019 19% 0.175 0.015 0.000225
Sum of Squared Differences = 0.000500
n─1= 3
Sum of Squared Differences / (n ─ 1) = 0.000167
√ [Sum of Squarted Differences) / (n ─ 1)] = σ = 0.012910
= 1.291%
Alternative 2:
50% Asset F and 50% Asset G
Column → (1) (2) (3)
Return Average
2
Year (r i ) Return (r̅) = (1) ─ (2) = (3)
2016 0.16500 0.16500 0.000 0.000000
2017 0.16500 0.16500 0.000 0.000000
2018 0.16500 0.16500 0.000 0.000000
2019 0.16500 0.16500 0.000 0.000000
Sum of Squared Differences = 0.000000
n─1= 3
Sum of Squared Differences / (n ─ 1) = 0.000000
√ [Sum of Squarted Differences) / (n ─ 1)] = σ = 0.000000
= 0.00%
Alternative 3:
50% Asset F and 50% Asset H
Column → (1) (2) (3)
Return Average
2
Year (r i ) Return (r̅) = (1) ─ (2) = (3)
2016 0.15000 0.16500 -0.015 0.000225
2017 0.16000 0.16500 -0.005 0.000025
2018 0.17000 0.16500 0.005 0.000025
2019 0.18000 0.16500 0.015 0.000225
Sum of Squared Differences = 0.000500
n─1= 3
Sum of Squared Differences / (n ─ 1) = 0.000167
√ [Sum of Squarted Differences) / (n ─ 1)] = σ = 0.012910
= 1.291%
d. Summary:
r CV
Alternative 1 (F) 17.5% 1.291% 0.0738
Alternative 2 (FG) 16.5% 0 0.0
Alternative 3 (FH) 16.5% 1.291% 0.0782
Alternative 1 posted the highest return but Alternative 2 the lowest volatility (risk). When
thinking about performance, it is instructive to ask how a hypothetical investor might view these
alternatives. She would first note Alternative 2 is clearly preferable to Alternative 3 because it
offers the same expected return but no volatility in returns. Now, as between Alternatives 1 and 2,
Alternative 1 offers a higher expected return but also has more volatile returns. Without knowing
an investor’s risk tolerance, it is not possible to say whether Alternative 1 or 2 is “best.”
c. Only nondiversifiable risk is relevant because, as shown above, building a portfolio of at least 20
securities with imperfectly correlated returns substantially reduces diversifiable risk. When
additional securities no longer reduce risk, the remaining standard deviation of David Talbot’s
portfolio is non-diversifiable. That standard deviation of returns of 6.47% (down from 14.50%).
30.0%
Asset B
Beta = 1.38
25.0%
20.0%
15.0%
Asset A
Beta = 0.793
10.0%
5.0%
0.0%
-13.0% -8.0% -4.0% 0.0% 2.0% 6.0% 8.0% 10.0% 13.0% 15.0% 16.0%
-5.0% Market
Return
-10.0%
-15.0%
b. The betas for assets A and B are the slopes of the characteristic lines above. Typically, the slopes
of these lines are estimated with a statistical technique known as linear regression. But, slope can
also be calculated given any two points on a line. Here, we can obtain slopes (i.e., betas) with the
highest and lowest returns for each asset. Specifically:
d. The asset is less risky than the market portfolio, which has a beta of 1. The higher beta makes
the return move more than the market.
c. Asset X should be chosen because it is a defensive asset, moving in opposition to the market. In
an economic downturn, Asset X’s return is increasing.
d. Asset Z would be the appropriate choice because it will have the highest increase in return.
b. and part ©.
∆ Market ∆ Asset ∆ Market ∆ Asset
Asset Beta
Return Return Return return
-
B 1.6 15% 24.00% -10%
16.00%
d. If you believe that the stock market is going to experience a significant decline, stocks with
negative Betas should be chosen. In this case Thomas should choose stock C.
e. If you believe that the stock market is going to experience a significant rally, stocks with high
positive Betas should be chosen. In this case Thomas should choose stock B.
where β p is portfolio beta, β j is beta of asset j, and w j = portfolio share of the asset j (running to n)
a.
Portfolio X Portfolio Y
Asset Beta WX WX × bX WY WY × bY
bX = 1.51 bY = 1.20
b. Portfolios X and Y are both more risky than the market (average risk). Comparatively speaking,
Portfolio Y is slightly less risky than Portfolio X. Portfolio X’s return will move more than
Portfolio Y’s for a given increase or decrease in the market return. Thus, Portfolio X is more
risky.
P8-25 Personal finance: Beta coefficients and the CAPM (LG 5 and LG 6; Intermediate)
The CAPM equation is rj RF [j(rm RF)], where rj is the expected or required return on asset
j, j is the beta coefficient for asset j, RF is the risk-free rate, and rm is the expected return on the
market portfolio. The problem provides values for rj, RF and rm and asks for beta; using the CAPM
equation:
(i) rj RF [j(rm RF)] (iii) j(rj RF) ÷ (rm RF)]
(ii) rj RF j(rm RF)
13 %−3 % 10 %
Beta= = =1. 1111
a. 12 %−3 % 9 %
25 %−3 % 22%
Beta= = =2. 4444
b. 12 %−3 % 9 %
16 %−3 % 13 %
Beta= = =1. 4444
c. 12 %−3 % 9 %
18 %−3 % 15 %
Beta= = =1. 6666
d. 12 %−3 % 9 %
e. If you are willing to take a maximum of average risk, then you will have an
expected return of only 12% (r = 3% + 1.0 (12% − 3%) = 12%).
rj = 64.4%
RF = 5%
rm = 16.33%
bj = 1
In a declining market, an investor should choose stock with a negative beta. When the market
return decreases, the return on C increases.
If you are expecting a potential market rally, an investor should choose an aggressive stock like
stock B. Its return will be higher than the market return in a booming market.
P8-27 Personal finance: Portfolio return and beta (LG 1, LG 2, LG 3, LG 5, and LG 6: Challenge)
a. The beta of a portfolio assets is the weighted average of the betas of the individual assets in the
portfolio, with the weight on each asset being that asset’s share in the portfolio. Specifically,
n n
β p = ∑ w j × β j and ∑ w j = 1 → β p (w A × β A ) (w B × β B ) (w C × βC ) (w D × β D)
j=1 j=1
b.
rA rC
rB rD
c. Total value of the portfolio today is $107,500, and total annual income from Assets A–D during
the year was $3,375, so portfolio return is given by:
rP
d. Using the CAPM equation, rj RF [ β j (rm RF)], where rj is the required return on asset j,
RF the risk-free rate (given as 4%), β j the beta on asset j and rm the return on the market portfolio
(given as 10%), solve for required return on each project:
rA 4% [0.80(10% 4%)] = 8.8% rC 4% [1.50(10% 4%)] = 13.0%
rB 4% [0.95(10% 4%)] = 9.7% rD 4% [1.25(10% 4%)] = 11.5%
e.
Over- or
Actual CAPM Underperformed
Asset Return Return CAPM
A 8.00% 8.80% Under
B 6.86% 9.70% Under
C 15.00% 13.00% Over
D 12.50% 11.50% Over
Security analysts typically use statistical techniques to estimate an asset’s beta by obtaining a line
of best fit through historical asset and market returns. The slope of this line is beta. Data points—
that is, actual returns on the asset and market for a given period—will be randomly scattered
around the line no matter how well it “fits” the data. The point here is asset betas are estimates.
The CAPM return is, in a sense, a forecast and even good forecasts are subject to random error.
Another possibility is beta does not fully capture all nondiversifiable or systemic factors that
affect expected returns. Still another possibility is the firm behind the asset has changed, so the
beta estimated with historical data does not reflect the asset’s current beta.
14.0% Asset A
Required Return = 12.2% Asset B
12.0% Market Risk Premium
1.3 ൈ(0.13 െ 0.09) = 5.2%
10.0%
4.0%
Average Risk Asset
2.0% β=1
Market Risk Premium = 0.13 - 0.09 = 4%
0.0%
0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0 1.2 1.4 1.6 1.8 2.0
Beta
c. Using the CAPM equation: rj RF [ β j (rm RF)], where rj is the required return on asset j,
RF the risk-free rate, β j the beta on asset j and rm the return on the market portfolio:
Asset A: rj 0.09 [0.80(0.13 0.09)] = 0.122 or 12.2%
Asset B: rj 0.09 [1.30(0.13 0.09)] = 0.142 or 14.2%
d. Asset A has the smaller beta, hence the smaller risk premium and required return. Specifically,
the risk premium is 3.2% (12.2% 9%)—compared with 5.2% for Asset B’s (14.2% 9%).
b. Using the CAPM equation: rA RF [ β A (rm RF)], where RF is the risk-free rate (here 8%),
β A the beta on asset A (here 1.1) and rm the return on the market portfolio (here 12%), solve for
rA is the required return on asset A: rA 8% [1.1(12% 8%)] = 8% 4.4% = 12.4%.
c. Using the CAPM equation, rA = RF [ β A (rm RF)], with RF = 6%, β A = 1.1 and rm = 10%,
solve for rA 6% [1.1(10% 6%)] = 6% 4.4% = 10.4%.
d. Using the CAPM equation, rA RF [ β A(rm RF)], with RF = 8%, β A = 1.1 and rm = 13%,
solve for rA = 8% [1.1(13% 8%)] = 8% 5.5% = 13.5%.
e. (1) A decline in inflationary expectations reduces required return by the same amount for every
beta—that is, produces a parallel downward shift of the SML. (2) Increased risk aversion gives
the SML a steeper slope because a higher return is now be required for each beta.
c. The premium for project j’s nondiversifiable risk is β j (rm RF). In words, the spread between
the return on the market portfolio and risk-free rate is the risk premium necessary to induce a
manager to undertake a project of average risk (i.e., one with the same nondiversifiable risk as the
market portfolio). Multiplying this spread by the project beta—the co-movement of project
returns with the market return—yields the risk premium for the project’s nondiversifiable risk.
Projects A and C have more nondiversifiable risk than the market because their betas exceed 1.0;
they require risk premiums above the average risk premium. Projects B, D, and E have less
nondiversifiable risk than the market because their betas are less than 1.0; they carry risk
premiums below the average risk premium). Projects D and E are particularly noteworthy. Project
D requires no premium for nondiversifiable risk because its beta is 0. Project E has a negative
beta, meaning its return moves in the opposite direction of the market. Required return for Project
E will actually be less than the risk-free rate.
d. rA 9% [1.5(12% 9%)] 13.50% rD 9% [0.0(12% 9%)] 9.00%
rB 9% [0.75(12% 9%)] 11.25% rE 9% [0.5(12% 9%)]
7.50%
rC 9% [2.0(12% 9%)] 15.00%
e. When investor risk aversion declines, investors require lower returns for any given risk level
(beta). The SML will rotate clockwise about the fixed risk-free rate (because the risk premium for
an zero-beta asset will remain zero).
This case requires students to use standard deviation, coefficient of variation, and CAPM to assess the trade-
off between risk and return for two possible investments.
where rt is return in year t, is average return over n years, and n is the number of years. For Asset X:
÷ r̅ ÷
, and CVy = y y = 2.78% 11.14% = 0.25.
c. Summary statistics Asset Asset Y
X
Expected return 11.74% 11.14%
Standard deviation 8.90% 2.78%
Coefficient of variation 0.76 0.25
Comparing expected returns calculated in part (a), Asset X provides a return only slightly above that
from Asset Y. At the same time, both the standard deviation of returns and coefficient of variation for
Asset X are roughly three times greater than that for Asset Y. So Asset X appears significantly riskier
than Asset Y. But the problem notes Mr. Sayou is choosing between X and Y to add to a diversified
portfolio. That means he should care only about the nondiversifiable risk of the two assets. Standard
deviation and coefficient of variation are measures of the total volatility of returns from both
diversifiable and nondiversifiable shocks. For this reason, the better asset cannot be determined.
d. Using the CAPM equation: rj RF [ β j (rm RF)], where rj is the required return on asset j,
RF the risk-free rate, β j the beta on asset j and rm the return on the market portfolio, the required returns
on Asset X and Y are:
CAPM Required Expected Return
Asset RF [ j(rm RF)]
β = Return Part (a)
X 7% [1.6(10% = 1 11.74%
7%)] 1
.
8
%
Y 7% [1.1(10% = 1 11.14%
7%)] 0
.
3
%
Of the two assets, only Asset Y offers an expected return above the required return determined by
CAPM. Moreover, required return is calculated with the correct risk measure—beta—which captures
nondiversifiable risk.
e. Mr. Sayou wants to add X or Y to a diversified portfolio, so he should care only about the
nondiversifiable risk of the two assets. [Standard deviation and coefficient of variation measure total
volatility of returns from both diversifiable and nondiversifiable shocks.] CAPM will indicate the
required return for the two assets based on their nondiversifiable risk ( β x = 1.60 and β y = 1.10). As
noted, of the two assets only Y offers an expected return above required return (based on
nondiversifiable risk). So Asset Y should be recommended.
f. (1) A one percentage point rise in expected inflation will boost the risk-free rate to 8% and market
return to 11% and have the following effect on rx and ry:
CAPM: Required Expected Return
Asset RF [bj(rm RF)] = Return (rj) Part (a)
X 8% [1.6(11% = 12.8% 11.74%
8%)]
Y 8% [1.1(11% = 11.3% 11.14%
8%)]
Spreadsheet Exercise
Answers to Chapter 8’s stock portfolio analysis spreadsheet problem are available on
[Link]/mylab/finance.
Group Exercise
Group exercises are available on [Link]/mylab/finance.
This exercise will give students insight into the world of stock-market analysis. Each group is asked to obtain
stock-market data from several websites on the recent performance of its shadow firm and compare the
numbers with a relevant market index over one and five years. Students will calculate annual returns,
investigate correlation between returns and the market return, and graph the results. As always, the instructor
can modify the exercise the meet class needs, perhaps by adding other corporations to the comparison(s) and
dropping more complex calculations.
The coefficient of variation (CV) adjusts the standard deviation to the scale of returns, offering a standardized measure to compare risk among different investments. For Hi-Tech, Inc., the CV is 1.2, indicating that for each unit of return, the stock carries 1.2 units of volatility, highlighting its risk despite average returns. This measure exceeds Mike's risk limit but suggests that if he believes in continued high returns, an exception may be justified .
The diversification effect reduces risk by combining assets that are not perfectly correlated, averaging out fluctuations over the portfolio. Assets L and M illustrate this effect: even though they have individual risks, their combined portfolio risk is reduced to 1.51% due to less than perfect positive correlation, specifically -0.9635, effectively smoothing out variability in returns .
Shifts in the SML can result from changes in risk aversion or inflation expectations. Increased risk aversion causes a steeper SML slope, as higher returns are demanded for given risks. Lower inflationary expectations cause a parallel downward shift, reducing required returns for all levels of beta. These shifts are indicative of changing economic sentiments or expectations .
The coefficient of variation should be prioritized because it represents the risk per unit of return, standardizing the measurement of volatility across different projects. While Projects ACX and ACY have similar CV values, pointing to similar risk-reward ratios, emphasizing the CV helps mitigate the distortion different scales of return can introduce .
In the CAPM context, project B, with a beta of 1.0, aligns exactly with market risk, providing a stable investment tied closely to market fluctuations. As it matches the average market risk, it suits investors seeking returns comparable to market averages with neither excessive risk nor conservatism .
By using the CAPM formula: rj = RF + [βj × (rm − RF)], expected returns (CAPM return) can be calculated. Comparing this with actual asset returns allows for assessment. If actual return exceeds the CAPM return, the asset overperforms; otherwise, it underperforms. This analysis can highlight market inefficiencies or imprudent risk assessments .
Combining Assets L and M yields a lower portfolio risk than holding the assets separately, indicated by the portfolio standard deviation of 1.51%, which is lower than L's 1.94% and M's 3.74%. This benefit arises because the assets are less than perfectly correlated, specifically having a high negative correlation of -0.9635, reducing overall portfolio risk through diversification .
A negative beta indicates an asset moves inversely to the market. In a declining market, such an asset becomes valuable for diversification, offering potential positive returns as market values decrease. By incorporating negatively correlated assets, investors can hedge against market downturns, stabilizing overall portfolio performance .
The average return provides a baseline for measuring risk through deviations, as seen in standard deviation and the coefficient of variation, both anchored to the average return. Contextualizing average return helps understand relative volatility and risk exposure. For instance, Project ACX and ACY's similar coefficients of variation suggest comparable risk per unit of return, despite differing average returns .
Beta, as used in CAPM rj = RF + [βj × (rm − RF)], measures an asset's volatility relative to the market. A beta greater than 1 indicates an aggressive stock, moving more than the market, suggesting higher expected returns and risks. Conversely, a beta less than 1 denotes a defensive stock, moving less than the market, suggesting lower risk and return .