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Radio Navigation
1. A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight
level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
a. 7 nm.
b. 11 nm.
c. 8 nm.
d. 6 nm.

2. The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:
a. Air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC aircraft
surveillance capability.
b. Collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range (HF) communication capability.
c. Continuous automatic position reporting using Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites and
collision avoidance using TCAS II.
d. The elimination of ground to air communications and the introduction of automatic separation
between aircraft using TCAS II.

3. Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil aviation?

a. It can provide a DME distance and magnetic bearing.
b. It can provide a magnetic bearing.
c. It can provide a DME distance.
d. It is of no use to civil aviation.

4. Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather
radar when using the “weather beam”?
a. Altostratus.
b. Cumulus.
c. Cirrocumulus.
d. Stratus.

5. A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the
call sign. Having heard the same call sign 4 times in 30 seconds the:
a. VOR and DME call signs were the same and broadcast with the same pitch.
b. DME call sign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once.
c. DME call sign was not transmitted; the distance information is sufficient proof of correct
operation.
d. DME call sign is the one with the lower pitch that was broadcast several times.

6. Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°. From/To
indicator indicates "TO". CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what radial is
the aircraft?
a. 0950
b. 2750
c. 0850
d. 2650

7. The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°. Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the
localizer needle will be:
a. Centred.
b. Left of centre.
c. Right of centre.
d. Centred with the 'fail' flag showing.

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8. What is the maximum number of usable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)

transponder codes?
a. 760.
b. 4096.
c. 3600.
d. 1000.

9. What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a

groundspeed of 120 kt?
a. 950 ft/min.
b. 600 ft/min.
c. 550 ft/min.
d. 800 ft/min.

10. What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a
3° ILS glide path out to a distance of 10 NM?
a. 3° above and below the glide path and 10° each side of the localiser centreline.
b. 1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the localiser
centreline.
c. 0.45° above the horizontal to 1.75° above the glide path and 8° each side of the localiser
centreline.
d. 0.7° above and below the glide path and 2.5° each side of the localiser centreline.

11. What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a
three-dimensional fix?
a. 3.
b. 5.
c. 6.
d. 4.

12. What is the minimum number of satellites required for a Satellite-Assisted

Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out two-dimensional operation?
a. 4.
b. 5.
c. 2.
d. 3.

13. Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3° ILS glide path, will require an

approximate:
a. Increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 ft/min.
b. Decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 ft/min.
c. Increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 ft/min.
d. Decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 ft/min.

14. The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:

a. Entry into airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required.
b. Unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight.
c. An emergency.
d. Transponder malfunction.

15. Which one of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes should be
used by aircraft entering airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been
required?
a. 7000
b. 0000
c. 2000
d. 5000

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16. The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:

a. Radio communication failure.
b. Unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight.
c. An emergency.
d. Transponder malfunction.

17. The ATC transponder system, excluding Mode S, contains:

a. Two modes, each of 4096 codes.
b. Four modes, each 1024 codes.
c. Four modes, each 4096 codes.
d. Two modes, each 1024 codes.

18. Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground
speed?
a. A DME station sited on the flight route.
b. An ADF sited on the flight route.
c. A VOR station sited on the flight route.
d. A DME station sited across the flight route.

19. When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional
information transmitted is:
a. Altitude based on regional QNH.
b. Aircraft height based on sub-scale setting.
c. Height based on QFE.
d. Flight level based on 1013.25 hPa.

20. When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air
traffic controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated
flight level that is accurate to within:
a. + Or - 25 ft.
b. + Or - 50 ft.
c. + Or - 75 ft.
d. + Or - 100 ft.

METEOROLOGY
21. Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation?
a. Solid direct to liquid.
b. Liquid direct to solid.
c. Liquid direct to vapour.
d. Solid direct to vapour.

22. The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How is the relative humidity of
this air mass influenced by changes of the amount of water vapour in it?
a. It decreases with increasing water vapour.
b. It is only influenced by temperature.
c. It increases with increasing water vapour.
d. Changing water vapour does not influence it.

23. Relative humidity

a. Does not change when water vapour is added provided the temperature of the air remains
constant.
b. Changes when water vapour is added, even though the temperature remains constant.
c. Is not affected when air is ascending or descending.
d. Is not affected by temperature changes of the air.

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24. What does dew point mean?

a. The freezing level (danger of icing).
b. The temperature at which the relative humidity and saturation vapour pressure are the same.
c. The temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in order to reach saturation.
d. The temperature at which ice melts.

25. Which of the following is the definition of relative humidity?

a. Ratio between water vapour pressure and atmospheric pressure X 100.
b. Ratio between water vapour (g) and air (kg) X 100.
c. Ratio between the actual mixing ratio and the saturation mixing ratio X 100.
d. Ratio between air temperature and dew point temperature X 100.

26. Relative humidity

a. Increases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant.
b. Is higher in warm air than in cool air.
c. Is higher in cool air than in warm air.
d. Decreases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant.

27. During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition
altitude. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during
the resetting procedure?
a. It is not possible to give a definitive answer.
b. It will decrease.
c. It will increase.
d. It will remain the same.

28. You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000 FT. What is the
temperature deviation from that of the standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH 1013,2
hPa)?
a. ISA -20°C
b. ISA +/-0°C
c. ISA +20°C
d. ISA +12°C

29. The lowest assumed temperature in the International

Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is:
a. -273°C
b. -44.7°C
c. -100°C
d. -56.5°C

30. Fallstreaks or virga are

a. Strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy precipitation.
b. Water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching the ground.
c. Strong downdraughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks.
d. Gusts associated with a well-developed Bora.

31. The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of the:

a. Development of thermal lows.
b. Presence of valley winds.
c. Presence of mountain waves.
d. Risk of orographic thunderstorms.

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32. The QNH is equal to the QFE if:

a. The elevation = 0.
b. T actual = T standard.
c. T actual > T standard.
d. T actual < T standard.

33. If you are flying at FL 120 and the outside temperature is -2°C, at what altitude will
the "freezing level" be?
a. FL 150.
b. FL 90.
c. FL 110. *
d. FL 130.

34. The wind direction in a METAR is measured relative to

a. Magnetic north.
b. The 0-meridian.
c. Grid north.
d. True north. *

35. If CAVOK is reported then

a. Low-level windshear has not been reported.
b. Any CB's have a base above 5000 FT.
c. No low drifting snow is present. *
d. No clouds are present.

36. What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?
a. Tropopause. *
b. Ionosphere.
c. Stratosphere.
d. Atmosphere

37. Which one of the following statements applies to the Tropopause?

a. It is, by definition, an isothermal layer.
b. It indicates a strong temperature lapse rate.
c. It is, by definition, a temperature inversion.
d. It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere. *

38. How are high level condensation trails formed that are to be found occasionally
behind jet aircraft?
a. Through water vapour released during fuel combustion. *
b. Through a decrease in pressure, and the associated adiabatic drop in temperature at the wing
tips while flying through relatively warm but humid air.
c. Only through unburnt fuel in the exhaust gases.
d. In conditions of low humidity, through the particles of soot contained in the exhaust gases.

39. Which of the following types of clouds is evidence of unstable air conditions?
a. SC, NS.
b. CI, SC.
c. CU, CB.
d. ST, CS.

40. The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere:

a. Has a fixed value of 2°C/1000 FT.
b. Varies with time.
c. Has a fixed value of 1°C/100m.
d. Has a fixed value of 0.65°C/100m.

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41. Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when:

a. Water vapour condenses.
b. Water vapour is present.
c. Relative humidity reaches 98%.
d. Temperature and dew point are nearly equal.

42. Which of the following meteorological phenomena can rapidly change the braking
action of a runway?
a. HZ
b. +FZRA
c. MIFG
d. FG

43. How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a METAR valid?
a. 1 hour.
b. 30 minutes.
c. 2 hours.
d. 9 hours

44. Appended to a METAR you get the following runway report: 01650428. What must
you consider when making performance calculations?
a. The braking action will be medium to good.
b. The runway will be wet.
c. Aquaplaning conditions.
d. The friction coefficient is 0.28.

45. In the TAF for Delhi, during the summer, for the time of your landing you note:
TEMPO TS. What is the maximum time this deterioration in weather can last in anyone
instance?
a. 60 minutes.
b. 120 minutes.
c. 10 minutes.
d. 20 minutes

46. Refer to the following TAF extract:

BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001
What does the abbreviation "VV001" mean?
a. Vertical visibility 100 m.
b. Vertical visibility 100 ft.
c. RVR less than 100 m.
d. RVR greater than 100 m.

47. Refer to the following TAF extract:

BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001
What visibility is forecast for 2400 UTC?
a. 500 m.
b. 2000 m.
c. Between 500 m and 2000 m.
d. Between 0 m and 1000 m.

48. Refer to the following TAF extract:

BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001
What does the abbreviation "BKN004" mean?
a. 4 - 8 oktas, ceiling 400 m.
b. 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 m.
c. 5 - 7 oktas, ceiling 400 ft.
d. 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 ft.

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49. What does the term SIGMET signify?

a. A SIGMET is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report.
b. A SIGMET is an actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-hourly
intervals.
c. A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions.
d. A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily.

50. In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET issued?

a. Marked mountain waves.
b. Fog or a thunderstorm at an aerodrome.
c. Clear ice on the runways of an aerodrome.
d. A sudden change in the weather conditions contained in the METAR

51. Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be
potentially hazardous to aircraft in flight?
a. SIGMET.
b. ATIS.
c. SPECI.
d. TAF.

52. What is the approximate speed of a 90km/h wind, expressed in knots?

a. 55 kt.
b. 60 kt.
c. 70 kt.
d. 50 kt.

53. Refer to the TAF below.

EGBB 261812 28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1822 29018G35KT 5000 SHRASN
BKN010CB PROB30 TEMPO 1821 1500 TSGR BKN008CB BECMG 2124 26010KT
From the TAF above you can assume that visibility at 2055Z in Birmingham (EGBB)
will be:
a. More than 10 km.
b. Not less than 1,5 km but could be in excess of 10 km.
c. A maximum 5 km.
d. A minimum of 1,5 km and a maximum of 5 km.

54. What does the expression "Broken (BKN)" means?

a. 5-7 Eights of the sky is cloud covered.
b. 3-4 Eights of the sky is cloud covered.
c. 3-5 Eights of the sky is cloud covered.
d. Nil significant cloud cover.

55. Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations,
abbreviated to “CAVOK”? (MSA above ground: LSZB 10000ft, LSZH 8000ft, LSGG
12000ft, LFSB 6000ft.
a. LFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA NOSIG.
b. LSZH VRB02KT 9000 BKN080 21/14 Q1022 NOSIG.
c. LSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA NOSIG.
d. LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 BECMG 5000.

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56. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR? 00000kt 0200
R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 M03/M03 Q1022 BECMG 0800.
a. Meteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres, temperature 30C,
vertical visibility 100 metres.
b. Meteorological visibility 200ft, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres, vertical visibility
100ft, fog with hoar frost.
c. Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16
more than 1500 metres.
d. RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100ft, calm, meteorological visibility
improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours.

57. What does the term METAR signify?

a. A METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily.
b. A METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather reports as a brief prognostic
report.
c. A METAR signifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued in half
hourly internals.
d. A METAR is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions within a FIR.

58. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominantly
by downdrafts?
a. Anvil stage.
b. Dissipating stage.
c. Cumulus stage.
d. Mature stage.

59. How long does a typical microburst last?

a. 1 to 2 hours.
b. About 30 minutes.
c. 1 to 5 minutes.
d. Less than 1 minute.

60. What is the approximate maximum diameter of a microburst?

a. 20 km.
b. 50 km.
c. 4 km.
d. 400 m.

61. The diameter and the lifetime of a typical microburst are in the order of:
a. 8 km and 5-15 minutes..
b. 12 km and 5-10 minutes
c. 4 km and 1-5 minutes.
d. 4 km and 30-40 minutes.

62. In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probability of fog
formation in the coming night, the highest?
a. 00000KT 9999 SCT300 21/01 Q1032 NOSIG.
b. VRB01KT 8000 SCT250 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000.
c. 22004KT 6000 RA SCT012 OVC030 17/14 Q1009 NOSIG.
d. VRB02KT 2500 SCT120 14/M08 Q1035 NOSIG.

63. An altimeter adjusted to 1013hpa indicates an altitude of 3600ft. Should this

altimeter be adjusted to the local QNH value of 991hpa, the altitude indicated would be:
a. 4278ft.
b. 4194ft.
c. 3006ft.
d. 2922ft.

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64. Altostratus clouds are classified as

a. High-level clouds.
b. Convective clouds.
c. Medium level clouds.
d. Low-level clouds.

65. How does freezing rain develop?

a. Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below 0°C.
b. Rain falls on cold ground and then freezes.
c. Through melting of sleet grains.
d. Through melting of ice crystals.

66. Freezing rain occurs when

a. Snow falls into an above-freezing layer of air.
b. Rain falls into a layer of air with temperatures below 0°C.
c. Ice pellets melt.
d. Water vapour first turns into water droplets.

67. Supercooled droplets are always

a. At a temperature below -60°C.
b. At a temperature below freezing.
c. Small and at a temperature below freezing.
d. Large and at a temperature below freezing.

68. What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the troposphere?
a. 50% oxygen, 40% nitrogen and the rest other gasses.
b. 21% oxygen, 78% nitrogen and the rest other gasses.
c. 10% oxygen, 89% nitrogen and the rest other gasses.
d. 88% oxygen, 9% nitrogen, and the rest other gasses.

69. The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always the

a. Highest value of the A-, B- and C- position.
b. Lowest value of the A-, B- and C- position.
c. Value representative of the touchdown zone.
d. Average value of the A-, B- and C- position.

70. Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport.

FCFR31 281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT
8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA =
Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Bordeaux what is the lowest quoted
visibility forecast?
a. 10 or more km.
b. 8 km.
c. 8 nm.
d. 10 nm.

71. In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known?
a. Elevation and the temperature at the airfield.
b. Elevation at the airfield.
c. Temperature at the airfield.
d. Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL.

72. What is the approximate speed of a 25-knot wind expressed in kilometres per hour?
a. 45 km/h.
b. 35 km/h.
c. 55 km/h.
d. 60 km/h.

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73. The following weather report EDDM 241322 VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004 BECMG
1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001 is a:
a. 24 hour TAF.
b. SPECI.
c. METAR.
d. 9 hour TAF.

74. One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it:

a. Occurs only at a low altitude (2000ft) and never in the horizontal plane.
b. Can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane.
c. Can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes.
d. Occurs only at a low altitude (2000ft) and never in the vertical plane.

75. Which of these METAR reports suggests that a thunderstorm is likely in the next
few hours?
a. 1350Z 16004KT 8000 SCT110 OVC 220 02/M02 Q1008 NOSIG.
b. 1350Z 34003KT 0800 SN VV002 M02/M04 Q1014 NOSIG.
c. 1350Z 04012KT 3000 OVC012 04/03 Q1022 BECMG 5000.
d. 1350Z 21005KT 9999 SCT040CB SCT100 26/18 Q1016 TEMPO 240/18 Q1016 TEMPO
24018G30 TS.

76. An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1240 FT, QNH 1008 hPa). The
altimeter is set to 1013 hPa. The altimeter will indicate:
a. 1375 ft.
b. 1200 ft.
c. 1105 ft.
d. 1280 ft.

77. Which of the following cloud types is a medium level cloud?

a. ST.
b. SC.
c. AS.
d. CS.

78. Convective clouds are formed:

a. In stable atmosphere.
b. In summer during the day only.
c. In mid latitudes only.
d. In unstable atmosphere.

79. What is the main composition of clouds classified as “high level clouds”?
a. Super cooled water droplets.
b. Water droplets.
c. Water vapour.
d. Ice crystals.

80. For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The approximate
elevation of the airfield is:
a. 120 metres.
b. 160 metres. 27’/hPa X 20hPa = 540’, /3,28’ X m = 164m
c. 600 metres.
d. 540 metres

81. What type of front / occlusion usually moves the fastest?

a. Warm occlusion.
b. Cold front.
c. Warm front.
d. Cold occlusion.

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82. The 0° isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a

temperature of -6° C?
a. FL 80.
b. FL 20.
c. FL 100.
d. FL 110.

83. Under what condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density
altitude?
a. At sea level when the temperature is 0°C.
b. When the altimeter has no position error.
c. When the altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa.
d. At standard temperature.

84. Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an air mass?
a. It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air mass.
b. It can be higher than the temperature of the air mass.
c. It can be used together with the air pressure to estimate the air mass's relative humidity.
d. It can be used to estimate the air mass's relative humidity even if the air temperature is
unknown.

85. Dew point is defined as:

a. The temperature below which the change of state in a given volume of air will result in the
absorption of latent heat.
b. The temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at a given pressure.
c. The lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressure.
d. The lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the relative humidity.

86. The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the:
a. Air temperature.
b. Relative humidity.
c. Stability of the air.
d. Dewpoint.

87. Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation between:

a. Water vapour weight and humid air volume.
b. Dew point and air temperature.
c. Actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour content.
d. Water vapour weight and dry air weight.

88. A microburst:
a. Occurs only in tropical areas.
b. Has a diameter up to 4 km.
c. Has a lifetime of more than 30 minutes.
d. Is always associated with thunderstorms.

89. Refer to the following TAF for Zurich.

LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ
BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=
The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is:
a. 6 km.
b. 6 nm.
c. 4 km.
d. 10 km.

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90. What is a trend forecast?

a. An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hours.
b. A route forecast valid for 24 hours.
c. A routine report.
d. A landing forecast appended to METAR/SPECI, valid for 2 hours.

91. A super-cooled droplet is:

a. A water droplet that is mainly frozen.
b. A small particle of water at a temperature below -50°C.
c. A water droplet that has been frozen during its descent.
d. A droplet still in liquid state at a temperature below freezing.

92. The temperature at FL 110 is -5°C. What will the temperature be at FL 50 if the
ICAO standard lapse rate is applied?
a. +3°C.
b. +0°C.
c. -3°C.
d. +7°C.

93. Vertical wind shear is:

a. Vertical variation in the horizontal wind.
b. Vertical variation in the vertical wind.
c. Horizontal variation in the horizontal wind.
d. Horizontal variation in the vertical wind.

94. Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport.

FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618
12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301
25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 =
Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. At ETA Amsterdam what
surface wind is forecast?
a. 120° / 15 kt gusts 25 kt.
b. 140° / 10 kt.
c. 300° / 15 kt maximum wind 25 kt.
d. 250° / 20 kt.

95. What type of cloud can produce hail showers?

a. CS.
b. AC.
c. CB.
d. NS.

96. Refer to the following TAF for Zurich. LSZH 061019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA
SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000-DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518
23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010. The lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich (1200
UTC) is:
a. 1000 ft.
b. 1500 m.
c. 5000 ft.
d. 1500 ft.

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97. TAF LSZH 250716 00000 KT 0100 FG VVOO1 BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG
1012 23005KT 2500 BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT007. Which of these statements
best describes the weather that can be expected at 1200 UTC?
a. Meteorological visibility 6 kilometres, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots.
b. Meteorological visibility 2,5 kilometres, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots.
c. Meteorological visibility 800 meters, wind from 2300, cloud base 500 feet.
d. Meteorological visibility 800 meters, vertical visibility 200 meters, calm.

98. During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze:
a. Slowly and do not spread out.
b. Slowly and spread out.
c. Rapidly and spread out.
d. Rapidly and do not spread out.

99. An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the temperature:

a. Decreases with height at a constant rate.
b. Increases with height at a constant rate.
c. Remains constant with height.
d. Increases with height.

100. What is the approximate speed of a 40 kt wind, expressed in m/sec?

a. 20 m/sec.
b. 15 m/sec.
c. 25 m/sec.
d. 30 m/sec.

101. The most dangerous form of airframe icing is:

a. Clear ice.
b. Hoar frost.
c. Dry ice.
d. Rime ice.

102. The temperature at FL80 is +60C. What will the temperature be at FL130 if the
ICAO standard lapse rate is applied?
a. +20C.
b. -40C.
c. -60C.
d. 00C.

103. From what type of cloud does drizzle fall?

a. Altostratus.
b. Cumulus.
c. Cirrostratus.
d. Stratus.

104. Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time
they are observed?
a. SA.
b. TS.
c. FU.
d. DZ.

105. How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard
atmosphere below the Tropopause?
a. Increases.
b. At first it increases and higher up it decreases.
c. Remains constant.
d. Decreases.

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106. The Tropopause is a level at which:

a. Water vapour content is greatest.
b. Pressure remains constant.
c. Vertical currents are strongest.
d. Temperature ceases to fall with increasing height.

107. What surface weather is associated with a stationary high-pressure region over
land in the winter?
a. NS with continuous rain.
b. The possibility of snow showers.
c. A tendency for fog and low ST.
d. Thunderstorms.

108. Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere?
a. Cumulonimbus.
b. Cirrostratus.
c. Altocumulus.
d. Altostratus.

109. The temperature at 10000ft in the international Standard Atmosphere is:

a. -200C.
b. -350C.
c. -50C.
d. -00C.

110. In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest rate
of accretion?
a. Stratus clouds.
b. Snow.
c. Freezing rain.
d. Cirrus clouds.

111. What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH at an airport situated 50
ft. below sea level?
a. QFE equals QNH.
b. No clear relationship exists.
c. QFE is greater than QNH.
d. QFE is smaller than QNH.

112. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause airframe icing?
a. SHSN.
b. PE.
c. +FZRA.
d. GR.

113. Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with regulations,
abbreviated to “CAVOK”?
a. 26012KT 8000 SHRA 16/12 BKN025 Q1018 NOSIG.
b. 270/19G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG.
c. 34004KT MIFG SCT260 09/08 11029 BECMG 1600.
d. 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500.

114. How do air masses move at a warm front?

a. Cold air overrides a warm air mass.
b. Cold air undercuts a warm air mass.
c. Warm air undercuts a cold air mass.
d. Warm air overrides a cold air mass.

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115. At FL180, the air temperature is -350C. The air density at this level is:
a. Equal to the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL180.
b. Unable to be determined without knowing the QNH.
c. Greater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL180. *
d. Less than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL180.

116. Refer to the following TAF extract; BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30
BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001. What does the abbreviation “PROB30” mean?
a. Change expected in less than 30 minutes.
b. Probability of 30%. *
c. Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes.
d. The cloud ceiling should lift to 3000 ft.

117. How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft?

a. Large, abrupt changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft may only be out of control
momentarily.
b. Continued flight in this environment will result in structural damage.
c. Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. *
d. Rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without appreciable changes in
altitude or attitude.

118. In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?
a. NS.
b. CU.
c. CI. *
d. SC.

119. An aircraft is flying at FL80. The local QNH is 1000 hpa.

After the second altimeter has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be
approximately:
a. 8350 ft.
b. 8000 ft.
c. 7650 ft. *
d. 8500 ft.

120. In which zone of a jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected?

a. The warm-air side of the core.
b. Exactly in the centre of the core.
c. About 12000 ft. above the core.
d. The cold-air side of the core. *

121. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET? SIGMET

VALID 121420/121820 embed ts obs and fcst in w part of athinai fr / move e/ intst nc.
a. Athens Airport is closed due to thunderstorms. The thunderstorm zone should be east of
Athens by 1820 UTC.
b. The thunderstorms in the Athens FIR are increasing in intensity, but are stationary above
western part of the Athens FIR
c. Thunderstorms must be expected in the western part of the Athens FIR. The thunderstorm
zone is moving east. Intensity is constant.
d. Thunderstorms must be expected in the eastern part of the Athens FIR and are slowly moving
west.

122. Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of:

a. A high risk of thunderstorms.
b. Turbulence at and below the cloud level.
c. Poor visibility at surface.
d. Smooth flying conditions below the cloud level.

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123. What does the abbreviation “NOSIG” mean?

a. Not signed by the meteorologist.
b. No significant changes.
c. No report received.
d. No weather related problems.

124. What pressure is defined as QFE?

a. The pressure reduced to sea level using actual temperatures.
b. The pressure reduced to sea level using ISA temperatures.
c. The pressure at field elevation.
d. The pressure of the altimeter.

125. What is the meaning of the abbreviation “SCT”?

a. 5-7 oktas.
b. 1-4 oktas.
c. 3-4 oktas.
d. 1-2 oktas.

126. With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated?
a. Cumulonimbus.
b. Stratocumulus.
c. Nimbostratus.
d. Stratus.

127. LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000
+SHRA BKN15CB PROB30 TSRA. ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is
forecast on the approach to LFBD?
a. Continuous moderate rain.
b. Light drizzle and fog.
c. Moderate snow showers.
d. Heavy rain showers.

128. What does the term SIGMET signify?

a. A SIGMET is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report.
b. A SIGMET is an actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half hourly
intervals.
c. A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions.
d. A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily.

129. Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET? LSAW

SWITZERLAND 0307 SIGMET2 VALID 030700/031100 LSSW mod to sev cat fcst
north of alps btn ft 260 and ft 380 / stnr / intsf.
a. Severe turbulence observed below FL260 North of the Alps. Pilots advised to cross this area
above FL380.
b. Moderate to strong clear air turbulence of constant intensity to be expected north of the Alps.
c. Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps. Intensity increasing.
Danger zone between FL260 and FL380.
d. Zone of moderate to severe turbulence moving towards the area north of the Alps. Intensity
increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL260.

130. Which statement is correct regarding the International Standard Atmosphere?

a. At MSL temperature is 150C and the decrease in temperature with height is 10C per 100m.
b. At MSL temperature is 100C and the decrease in temperature with height is 10C per 100m.
c. At MSL pressure is 1013.25 hpa and the decrease of temperature with height is 10C per 100m.
d. At MSL temperature is 150C and pressure is 1013.25 hpa.

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131. In which of the following METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation in
the coming night the highest?
a. 1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/M08 Q1028 NOSIG.
b. 1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG.
c. 1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OVC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO 1500.
d. 1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600.

132. TAF LSZH 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 BECMG 1315
25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 2022 25015KT
T1815Z T1618Z. Which of these statements best describes the weather most likely to be
experienced at 1500 UTC?
a. Meteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main cloud base 3000ft, wind 2500,
temperature 180C. *
b. Meteorological visibility 4000 metres, gusts up to 25 knots, temperature 180C.
c. Meteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main cloud base 1200ft, gusts up to 45 knots.
d. Severe rain showers, meteorological visibility 4000 metres.

Operational Procedures
133. The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the:
a. Depth of standing water on the runway.
b. Aircraft weight.
c. Strength of the headwind.
d. Amount of lift off speed.

134. In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:

a. Surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.
b. It is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.
c. It is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.
d. Its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance.

135. If airworthiness documents do not shown any additional correction factor for
landing performance determination on a wet runway, the landing distance shall be
increased by:
a. 10%.
b. 5%.
c. 15%.
d. 20%.

136. Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at take off:
a. Separate to the left side.
b. Separate on each side of the runway.
c. Stagnate on the runway.
d. Separate to the right side.

137. When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on

take-off, the later shall be located, for a twin-engine aircraft, at an equivalent distance
not exceeding:
a. 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with two engines.
b. 2 hours of flight at cruising speed single engine.
c. 2 hours of flight at cruising speed single engine.
d. 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with a single engine.

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138. Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane’s main wheel tire

pressure is 225 psi, the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may
occur in the event of applying brakes is:
a. 114 kts.
b. 100 kts.
c. 80 kts.
d. 135 kts.

139. The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:

a. 3 hours.
b. 24 hours.
c. 12 hours.
d. 6 hours.

140. Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when
penetrating a windshear?
a. Pitch angle.
b. Vertical speed.
c. Groundspeed.
d. Indicated airspeed.

141. Flight crewmembers on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
a. From take off to landing.
b. While at their station.
c. Only during take off and landing.
d. Only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest of
safety.

142. An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31000 ft. What is

the initial action by the operating crew?
a. Transmit a MAYDAY message.
b. Place the seat belts sign to ON.
c. To put on oxygen masks.
d. Disconnect the autopilot.

143. A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out
with a runway visual range of at least:
a. 500 m.
b. 550 m.
c. 350 m.
d. 800 m.

144. A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be
carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
a. 75 m.
b. 150 m.
c. 250 m.
d. 200 m.

145. A category III a precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach, which may be
carried out with a runway visual range of at least:
a. 200 m.
b. 100 m.
c. 250 m.
d. 50 m.

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146. A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is:

a. Unreliable.
b. Medium.
c. Good.
d. Poor.

147. A category I precision approach (CAT I) has:

a. A decision height equal to at least 100 ft.
b. A decision height equal to at least 50 ft.
c. No decision height.
d. A decision height equal to at least 200 ft.

148. A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with:

a. A decision height of at least 100 ft.
b. A decision height of at least 200 ft.
c. A decision height of at least 50 ft.
d. No decision height.

149. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit seeing an aircraft coming
from the front right, will first see the:
a. Green flashing light.
b. Red steady light.
c. Green steady light.
d. White steady light.

150. The criteria taken into consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories
is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat). Corresponding Aeroplane Category when
Vat is from 141 kts to 165 kts is:
a. C.
b. E.
c. D.
d. B.

151. For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the
scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance
multiplied by a factor of:
a. 0.5 (2 x the actual landing distance).
b. 0.8 (1.25 x the actual landing distance).
c. 0.6 (1.67 x the actual landing distance).
d. 0.7 (1.42 x the actual landing distance).

152. An airplane creates a wake turbulence when:

a. Generating lift.
b. Flying at high speed.
c. Using a high engine R.P.M.
d. Flying with its gear and flaps extended.

153. Wake turbulence risk is highest:

a. When a preceding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust just prior to take off.
b. When a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel runway with
a light crosswind.
c. If, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway with heavy
crosswind.
d. Following a preceding aircraft at high speed.

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154. The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a:

a. High weight and low speed.
b. High weight and high speed.
c. Low weight and low speed.
d. Low weight and high speed.

155. Tip vortices, which are responsible for wake turbulence, appear as soon as the
following is established:
a. Spin up.
b. Lift destruction
c. Lift.
d. Drag.

156. The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is:
a. Large, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration.
b. Small, light, at low speed in clean configuration.
c. Small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration.
d. Large, heavy at low speed in clean configuration.

157. For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar
separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy
aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?
a. 3.7 km (2 nm).
b. 7.4 km (4 nm).
c. 9.3 km (5 nm).
d. 11.1 km (6 nm).

158. When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake
turbulence non-radar minimum time approach separation, according with DOC 4444
(ICAO), shall be:
a. 1 min.
b. 2 min.
c. 4 min.
d. 3 min.

159. DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be
based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum
certificated take-off mass. Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of:
a. 136,000 kg or more.
b. 126,000 kg or more.
c. Less than 136,000 kg but more than 126,000 kg.
d. 146,000 kg or more.

160. According DOC 4444 (ICAO), wake turbulence no radar separation minima of 2
minutes shall be applied to:
a. LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft.
b. MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft.
c. MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel
separated by less than 760m.
d. LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same
runway.

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161. According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), wake turbulence no radar separation minima
of 3 minutes shall be applied to:
a. LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft.
b. LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by
less than 760 m. (using whole runway).
c. LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same
runway.
d. MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft.

162. According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), wake turbulence no radar separation minima
of 3 minutes shall be applied:
a. To LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of parallel
runway separated by less 760 m.
b. To a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a
runway with a displaced landing threshold.
c. To an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a
runway with a displaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross.
d. Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT
aircraft utilizing an opposite-direction runway for take-off.

163. In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft
are using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in
approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied a wake turbulence radar
separation minima of:
a. 4 nm.
b. 3 nm.
c. 2 nm.
d. 5 nm.

164. For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation
time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an
intermediate part of the same runway?
a. 3 minutes.
b. 4 minutes.
c. 5 minutes.
d. 2 minutes.

165. For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar
separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136,000 kg and
more than 7,000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach to
the same runway?
a. 11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes.
b. 7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes.
c. 9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes.
d. 9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes.

166. For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar
separation time if a light aeroplane (7,000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane
(less than 136,000 kg but more than 7,000 kg) on the approach to landing?
a. 4 minutes.
b. 5 minutes.
c. 2 minutes.
d. 3 minutes.

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167. The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body
aircraft during take-off is about:
a. 10 minutes.
b. 3 minutes.
c. 30 seconds.
d. 1 minute.

168. A class B fire is a fire of:

a. Electrical source fire.
b. Special fire: metal, gas, and chemical product.
c. Liquid or liquefiable solid.
d. Solid material usually of organic nature.

169. During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate

services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew’s operational
minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:
a. The middle marker.
b. The start final descent point (glide slope intersection).
c. The outer Marker (OM).
d. The FAF.

170. The term decision height (DH) is used for:

a. A conventional approach.
b. A conventional approach.
c. A conventional approach followed by a visual manoeuvre.
d. A precision approach.

171. A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still
parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:
a. The JAR OPS.
b. The flight manual.
c. The minimum equipment list.
d. The operation manual’s chapter “Abnormal and Emergency procedures”.

172. On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engine aircraft must
mandatorily have a minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying:
a. 30 minutes with normal cruise consumption.
b. 2 hours with normal cruise consumption.
c. 2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft.
d. 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft.

173. In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized
aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:
a. You climb to the maximum flight level, which does not need the use of pressurization.
b. You go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the airplane
in a clean configuration until the final approach.
c. You descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety
altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach
configuration.
d. You carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety Altitude.

174. During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action
will be:
a. To warn the ATC.
b. To comfort your passengers.
c. To put on the oxygen mask.
d. To set the transponder to 7700.

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175. The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an

altitude of 40,000 ft. is:
a. 1 minute.
b. 5 minutes.
c. 12 seconds.
d. 30 seconds.

176. If the cabin pressure increases during level flight, the differential pressure:
a. Increases.
b. Remains constant.
c. Attains its maximum permitted operating limit.
d. Decreases.

177. When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a
small leak develops in the cabin, which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen
on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate:
a. A rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure.
b. A rate of climb.
c. A rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm.
d. Zero.

178. Using an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator controls, the amount of air
that is mixed with pure oxygen when the selector is at the “normal” position. At what
approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only?
a. 32,000 ft.
b. 25,000 ft.
c. 25,000 ft.
d. 8,000 ft.

179. The accumulation of snow or ice an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the:
a. Roll rate.
b. Stalling speed.
c. Value of the stall angle of attack.
d. Tuck under.

180. If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:
a. Less than the actual.
b. Equal to the actual.
c. Dependent on the temperature.
d. Greater than the actual.

181. The greatest possibility of ice build-up, while flying under icing conditions, occurs
on:
a. The aircraft front areas.
b. The upper and lower wing surfaces.
c. The upper and lower rudder surfaces.
d. Only the pitot and static probes.

182. For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of
the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest?
a. Freezing rain.
b. Steady snow.
c. Freezing fog.
d. Frost.

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183. During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:

a. The anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied hot.
b. The anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot.
c. The anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied cold.
d. The de-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing fluid is applied hot.

184. During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the hold over time
starts:
a. At the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage).
b. At the end of the first stage (de-icing stage).
c. At the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage).
d. At the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage).

185. A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while taxiing to the
holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the
procedure to follow is:
a. The minimum equipment list.
b. The JAR OPS.
c. The flight record.
d. The operation manual’s chapter “Abnormal and Emergency Procedures”.

186. The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is:
a. A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire.
b. Burning cargo in a cargo aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide.
c. Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes.
d. Water may only be used for minor fixes.

187. In public transport, prior to take off in icing conditions, the captain must check
that:
a. Possible ice accretions do not cause to exceed weight and balance limits.
b. External surfaces are free from any ice accretion, which may impede the airplane performance
and manoeuvrability, except within the limits specified by the flight manual.
c. External surfaces are free from any ice accretion greater than 5mm.
d. External surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid.

188. A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have:
a. Increased Mach number stability.
b. Reduced range.
c. Increased manoeuvring limits.
d. Increased flight envelope.

189. According to the JAR-OPS rules, the route of a twin-engine aircraft with a
maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 8618 kg or a maximum approved seating
configuration of more than 19 passengers must be planned in such a way that on one
engine an appropriate aerodrome can be reached within:
a. 90 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
b. 120 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
c. 60 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
d. 30 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

190. The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends

vertically between flight levels:
a. 280 and 400.
b. 280 and 390.
c. 275 and 400.
d. 285 and 420.

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191. At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used
within NAT region?
a. Below FL290.
b. Between FL290 and FL410.
c. Between FL275 and FL400.
d. Between FL245 and FL410.

192. When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power
reduction shall be allowed is:
a. 600 m (2,000 ft.).
b. 300 m (1,000 ft.).
c. 450 m (1,500 ft.).
d. 150 m (500 ft.).

193. According to the recommended "noise abatement take-off and climb procedure A"
established in ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to climb
power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft reaches:
a. 3,000 ft.
b. 2,000 ft.
c. 1,000 ft.
d. 1,500 ft.

194. According with the "noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B", as
established in DOC 8168 - Ops Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20
kt, until reaching:
a. 1,500 ft.
b. 3,000 ft.
c. 1,000 ft. Check latest changes from DOC8168, now NAPD 1 or 2 min 800’
d. 500 ft.

195. To use passengers’ oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:

a. Useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions.
b. Possible and recommended.
c. Useless because the toxic cabins smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen.
d. Useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions.

196. Wind shear is:

a. A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a large distance.
b. A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a short distance.
c. A horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance.
d. A vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance.

197. An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kts while making its way towards
the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a
windshear of:
a. 80 kts.
b. 40 kts.
c. 60 kts.
d. 20 kts.

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198. For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be
shown by actual demonstration that the maximum seating capacity, including the
required number of crew members, can be evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground
in:
a. 60 seconds.
b. 90 seconds.
c. 132 seconds.
d. 120 seconds.

Instruments
199. The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is:
a. 644 kts.
b. 332 kts.
c. 661 kts.
d. 1059 kts.

200. The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near
the source is known as:
a. Position pressure error.
b. Barometric error.
c. Instrument error.
d. Hysteresis effect.

201. The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a system working according to
a height span ranging from:
a. The ground to 500 ft.
b. 50 ft. to 2,500 ft.
c. The ground to 1,000 ft.
d. 30 ft. to 5,000 ft.

202. If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the
instrument will:
a. Continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurred.
b. Gradually indicate zero.
c. Under-read.
d. Indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar Subscale.

203. In the event of a conflict, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) will give
information such as:
a. Turn left/turn right.
b. Too low terrain.
c. Glide slope.
d. Climb/descent.

204. The (DH) warning light comes on when an aircraft:

a. Descends below a pre-set barometric altitude.
b. Passes over the ILS inner marker.
c. Descends below a pre-set radio altitude.
d. Passes over the outer marker.

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205. A stall warning system is based on a measure of:

a. Airspeed.
b. Attitude.
c. Groundspeed.
d. Aerodynamic incidence.

206. If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a
descent the instrument will:
a. Continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage.
b. Under-read.
c. Over-read.
d. Read zero.

207. Alarms are standardised and follow a code of colours. Those requiring action but
not immediately, are signalled by the colour:
a. Red.
b. Green.
c. Flashing Red.
d. Amber.

208. The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true airspeed of 100kts, in a
descent with a slope of 3 degrees, indicates:
a. 250 ft./min.
b. 500 ft./min.
c. 300 ft./min.
d. 150 ft./min.

209. The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the
use of:
a. Air traffic control radar systems.
b. Transponders fitted in the aircraft.
c. Airborne weather radar system.
d. F.M.S. (Flight Management System).

210. Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only depends on:
a. Pressure.
b. Density.
c. Temperature.
d. Temperature and the pressure.

211. The flight data recorder must start data recording automatically:
a. When lining up.
b. Before the airplane is able to move by under its own power.
c. When taking off.
d. When the landing gear is retracted.

212. TCAS uses for its operation:

a. The replies from the transponders of other aircraft.
b. The echoes from the ground air traffic control radar system.
c. The echoes of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on board.
d. Both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and the ground based radar echoes.

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213. During a Category II automatic approach, the height information is supplied by

the:
a. Encoding altimeter.
b. Altimeter.
c. Radio altimeter.
d. GPS (Global Positioning System)

214. VNE is the maximum speed:

a. With flaps extended in landing position.
b. Which must never be exceeded.
c. Not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.
d. At which the flight controls can be fully deflected.

215. The static air temperature (SAT) is:

a. A relative temperature expressed in degrees Kelvin.
b. An absolute temperature expressed in degrees Celsius.
c. A differential temperature expressed in degrees Kelvin.
d. A relative temperature expressed in degrees Celsius.

216. If the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) activates, and alerts the pitot
with an aural warning “DON’T SINK” (twice), it is because:
a. During take-off or missed approach manoeuvre, the aircraft has started to loose altitude.
b. The aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to the terrain, landing gear retracted.
c. At too low altitude, the aircraft has an excessive rate of descent.
d. The aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to terrain without landing flap selected.

217. The total air temperature (TAT) is always:

a. Lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the altitude.
b. Higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the Calibrated Air Speed (CAS).
c. Higher or lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the Calibrated Air Speed
(CAS).
d. Higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the altitude.

218. In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is:
a. Independent of the true airspeed (TAS).
b. Higher than the true airspeed (TAS).
c. Lower then the true airspeed (TAS).
d. Equal to the true airspeed (TAS).

219. When climbing at a constant Mach number below the Tropopause, in ISA
conditions, the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) will:
a. Increase at an exponential rate.
b. Decrease.
c. Increase at a linear rate.
d. Remain constant.

220. A radio altimeter can be defined as a:

a. Self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft.
b. Ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft.
c. Ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft.
d. Self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft.

221. The purpose of compass swinging is to determine the deviation of a magnetic

compass:
a. On only one heading
b. At any latitude.
c. At a given latitude.
d. On any heading.

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222. Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum
operational speed (VMO), for a maximum groundspeed descent from a high flight level,
you will be limited:
a. Initially by the VMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight level.
b. By the MMO.
c. By the VMO in still air.
d. Initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level.

223. Vfe is the maximum speed:

a. With the flaps extended in take-off position.
b. With the flaps extended in a given position.
c. With the flaps extended in landing position.
d. At which the flaps can be operated.

224. VLO is the maximum:

a. Flight speed with landing gear down.
b. Speed with flaps extended in a given position.
c. Cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution.
d. Speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.

225. A "resolution advisory" (RA) is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2
(Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by a:
a. Red full circle.
b. Red Full Square.
c. Blue or white full lozenge.
d. Blue or white empty lozenge.

226. When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will:
a. Under read.
b. Be just as correct as before.
c. Show the actual height above ground.
d. Over read.

227. The inputs to the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System), are:
1- Air Data Computer - (Mach number and Vertical Speed)
2- Radio Altimeter
3- NAV/ILS (Glide Slope)
4- NAV/VOR
5- Flap (position)
6- Angle of Attack
7- Landing Gear (position)
The combination of correct statement is:
a. 1,2,5,6,7.
b. 1,2,5,6,7.
c. 1,2,3,5,7.
d. 2,3,4,5,7.

228. During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This
is an indication of the true:
a. Height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.
b. Altitude of the aircraft.
c. Height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time.
d. Height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time.

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229. The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information dedicated to:
a. Systems.
b. Piloting.
c. Weather situation.
d. Engines and alarms.

230. The rate-of-turn is the:

a. Aircraft speed in a turn.
b. Pitch rate in a turn.
c. Change-of-heading rate of the aircraft.
d. Yaw rate in a turn.

231. The stall warning system receives information about the:

1- airplane angle of attack
2- airplane speed
3- airplane bank angle
4- airplane configuration
5- load factor on the airplane
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
b. 2, 3, 4, 5.
c. 1, 3, 5.
d. 1, 4.

232. A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port
open causes the airspeed indicator to:
a. Freeze at zero.
b. React like an altimeter.
c. Read a little high.
d. Read a little low.

233. A transport airplane is compelled to carry on board a Ground Proximity Warning

System (GPWS). This system will warn the crew in case of:
1 - keeping the altitude at a lower level than the one shown in the flight plan entered in
the FMS.
2 - dangerous ground proximity.
3 - loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach.
4 - wrong landing configuration.
5 - descent below glide path, within limits.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a. 1,3,4.
b. 2,5.
c. 2,3,4,5.
d. 2.

234. When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a serviceable mode C transponder,
the TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) generates a:
a. "Traffic advisory" and horizontal "resolution advisory".
b. "Traffic advisory" only.
c. "Traffic advisory", vertical and horizontal "resolution advisory".
d. "Traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory". *

235. VNO is the maximum speed:

a. At which the flight controls can be fully deflected.
b. With flaps extended in landing position.
c. Not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.
d. Which must never be exceeded.

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236. A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed
indicator would cause it to:
a. Under-read in a climb and over-read in a descent.
b. Under-read.
c. Over-read.
d. Over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent.

237. A pitot tube covered by ice, which blocks the ram air inlet, will affect the following
instrument(s):
a. Airspeed indicator only.
b. Altimeter only.
c. Vertical speed indicator only.
d. Airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator.

238. With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed indicator will
indicate in descent a:
a. Decreasing speed.
b. Constant speed.
c. Increasing speed.
d. Fluctuating Speedy.

239. A "TCAS II" (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides:

a. A simple intruding airplane proximity warning.
b. The intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre
within both the vertical and horizontal planes.
c. The intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre
within the horizontal plane only.
d. The intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre
within the vertical plane only.

240. The stall warning system of a large transport airplane includes:

1- an angle of attack sensor
2- a computer
3- a transmitter originating from the anemometer
4- an independent pitot probe
5- a transmitter of the flap/slat position indicating system
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a. 1, 2, 4, 5.
b. 1, 2, 5.
c. 1, 2, 4.
d. 1, 4.

241. The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is active for a height range from:
a. 0 ft. to 5 000 ft. measured by the radio altimeter.
b. 50 ft. to 5 000 ft. measured by the radio altimeter.
c. 50 ft. to 2 500 ft. measured by the radio altimeter.
d. 0 ft. to 2 500 ft. measured by the radio altimeter.

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242. The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) releases a warning in the
following cases:
1- excessive rate of descent
2- excessive ground proximity rate
3- loss of altitude after take-off or go-around
4- abnormal gear/flaps configuration
5- excessive deviation under the glidepath
6- abnormal airbrakes configuration
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
b. 3, 4, 5, 6.
c. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
d. 2, 4, 5, 6.

243. At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from indicated must
not exceed:
a. +/-70 feet.
b. +/-60 feet.
c. +/-75 feet.
d. +/-30 feet.

244. A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator:

a. Only works of there is a complete electrical failure.
b. Contains its own separate gyro.
c. Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the alternator fails.
d. Is fully independent of external energy resources in an emergency situation.

245. During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total pressure
probe of the airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated airspeed:
a. Increases steadily.
b. Increases abruptly towards VNE.
c. Decreases steadily.
d. Decreases abruptly towards zero.

246. A Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates automatically a distinct

warning to the flight crew with aural and/or light warning signals in the case of:
1- an excessive rate of descent with respect to terrain
2- a dangerous proximity to the ground
3- a loss of altitude following take-off or go-around
4- an abnormal flight attitude
5- an abnormal landing configuration
6- an abnormal deviation below ILS glide slope
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a. 1,2 and 4.
b. 3, 4, 5 and 6.
c. 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6.
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.

247. The GPWS calculator is able to operate in the following modes:

1- excessive descent rate
2- excessive rate of terrain closure
3- excessive angle of attack
4- too high descent attitude
5- loss of altitude after take-off
6- abnormal gear/flaps configuration
7- excessive glide path deviation

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The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a. 2,3,5,7.
b. 1,2,5,6,7.
c. 1,2,4,6,7.
d. 3,4,5,6.

248. When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a transponder without altitude
reporting capability, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) issues a:
a. "Traffic advisory" and horizontal "resolution advisory".
b. "Traffic advisory", vertical and horizontal "resolution advisory".
c. "Traffic advisory" only.
d. "Traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory".

249. If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument
will:
a. Gradually return to zero.
b. Continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occurred.
c. Under-read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the time that the instrument became
blocked.
d. Over-read.

250. After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total
pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent and
finds that the indicated airspeed:
a. Increases abruptly towards VNE.
b. Increases steadily.
c. Decreases abruptly towards zero.
d. Decreases steadily.

251. The density altitude is:

a.
The pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point.
b.
The pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point.
c.
The altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the actual density of
the atmosphere.
The temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and the standard
temperature

252. The "cabin differential pressure" is:

a. Approximately 5 psi at maximum.
b. Approximately 15 psi at maximum.
c. The pressure differential between the air entering and leaving the cabin.
d. Cabin pressure minus ambient pressure.

253. On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre:

a. Will wear at the shoulders.
b. It’s tread will deteriorate faster.
c. Will have an increased critical hydroplaning speed.
d. Will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway.

254. If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure:
a. Decreases.
b. Increases.
c. Remains constant.
d. May exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is
taken.

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255. In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to:
a. 100%.
b. Normal.
c. Emergency.
d. On demand.

256. In a compressor stage of a jet engine, the sequence is:

a. Rotor - rotor – stator.
b. Stator - stator – rotor.
c. Rotor – stator.
d. Stator – rotor.

PERFORMANCE
257. Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by:
a. Vr and Vmcg.
b. V2 and Vmca.
c. Vr and Vmca.
d. V2 and Vmcg.

258. The optimum cruise altitude increases:

a. If the aeroplane mass is decreased.
b. If the temperature (OAT) is increased.
c. If the tailwind component is decreased.
d. If the aeroplane mass is increased.

259. The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet:
a. Limits the maneuvring load factor at high altitudes.
b. Can be reduced by increasing the load factor.
c. Exists only above MMO.
d. Has to be considered at take-off and landing.

260. Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:

a. It is dark.
b. The runway is wet.
c. Obstacles are present close to the end of the runway.
d. The runway is contaminated.

261. The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as:

a. Take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft.
b. Lift off speed.
c. Take-off decision speed.
d. Critical engine failure speed.

262. Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre
speed and max brake energy speed are not limiting?
a. Vref.
b. V r.
c. Vmca.
d. V 2.

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263. What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope:
a. Has no effect on the take-off speed V1.
b. Decreases the take-off speed V1.
c. Decreases the TAS for take-off.
d. Increases the IAS for take-off.

264. If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true?
a. It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance.
b. Take-off with antiskid inoperative is not permitted.
c. The accelerate stop distance increases.
d. The accelerate stop distance decreases.

265. The speed Vs is defined as:

a. Speed for best specific range.
b. Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable.
c. Safety speed for take-off in case of a contaminated runway.
d. Desing stress speed.

266. A higher outside air temperature:

a. Does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance.
b. Reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb.
c. Reduces the angle and the rate of climb.
d. Increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb.

267. During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater
than that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed
immediately above the correct value of V1?
a. The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available.
b. The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed the take-off distance available.
c. V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases.
d. It may lead to over-rotation.

268. With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of the following statements is
correct?
a. Screen height cannot be reduced.
b. The screen height can be lowered to reduce the mass penalties.
c. When the runway is wet, the V1 reduction is sufficient to maintain the same margins on the
runway length.
d. In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used.

269. What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure
altitude is increased?
a. It will increase the take-off distance.
b. It will decrease the take-off distance.
c. It will increase the take-off distance available.
d. It will increase the accelerate stop distance available.

270. Moving the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross mass, altitude
and airspeed remain unchanged):
a. Increases the power required.
b. Affects neither drag nor power required.
c. Increases the induced drag.
d. Decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required.

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271. Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:

a. It is dark.
b. The runway is dry.
c. The runway is wet.
d. Windshear is reported on the take-off path.

272. The drift down requirements are based on:

a. The actual engine thrust output at the altitude of engine failure.
b. The maximum flight path gradient during the descent.
c. The landing mass limit at the alternate.
d. The obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising altitude if an engine has failed.

273. After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What
is the procedure which should be applied?
a. Emergency Descent Procedure.
b. ETOPS.
c. Long Range Cruise Descent.
d. Drift Down Procedure.

274. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Vr is the speed at which, during rotation, the nose wheel comes off the runway.
b. Vr is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane.
c. Vr should not be higher than V1.
d. Vr should not be higher than 1.05 Vmcg.

275. The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is
controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as:
a. Vs1.
b. V s.
c. Vmc.
d. Vso.

276. In case of engine failure which is recognized at or above V1:

a. The take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below Vr.
b. The take-off must be continued.
c. The take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below Vlof.
d. A height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off distance.

277. The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will
achieve:
a. Maneuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating.
b. Minimum climb gradient in the event of a go-around with one engine inoperative.
c. Obstacle clearance in the approach area.
d. Maneuvrability in the event of landing with one engine inoperative.

278. The maximum mass for landing could be limited by:

a. The climb requirements with all engines in the landing configuration but with gear up.
b. The climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the approach configuration.
c. The climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the landing configuration.
d. The climb requirements with all engines in the approach configuration.

279. The speed range berween low speed buffet and high speed buffet:
a. Decreases with increasing mass and is independent of altitude.
b. Is only limiting at low altitudes.
c. Increases with increasing mass.
d. Narrows with increasing mass and increasing altitude.

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280. Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be:
a. Only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes.
b. Lower.
c. Higher.
d. Unaffected.

281. Which of the following will decrease V1?

a. Inoperative flight management system.
b. Increased outside air Temperature.
c. Inoperative antiskid.
d. Increased take-off mass.

282. Reduced take-off thrust:

a. Can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10 kts.
b. Has the benefit of improving engine life.
c. Can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the performance limited take-off mass.
d. Is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT).

283. The first segment of the take-off flight path ends:

a. At completion of gear retraction.
b. At completion of flap retraction.
c. At reaching V2.
d. At 35 ft. above the runway.

284. Below the optimum cruise altitude:

a. The Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing altitude.
b. The IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
c. The TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
d. The Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.

285. Which statement about reduced thrust is correct?

a. In case of reduced thrust V1 should be decreased.
b. Reduced thrust can be used when the actual take-off mass is less than the field length limited
take-off mass.
c. Reduced thrust is primatily a noise abatement procedure.
d. Reduced thrust is used in order to save fuel.

286. Before take-off the temperature of the wheel brakes should be checked. For what
reason?
a. To ensure that the wheels have warmed up evenly.
b. To ensure that the thermal blow-out plugs are not melted.
c. Because overheated brakes will not perform adequately in the event of a rejected take-off.
d. To ensure that the brake wear is not excessive.

287. Balanced V1 is selected:

a. For a runway length limited take-off with a clearway to give the highest mass.
b. If it is equal to V2.
c. If the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out take-off distance.
d. For a runway length limited take-off with a stopway to give the highest mass.

288. ETOPS flight is a twin-engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where
no suitable airport is within an area of:
a. 75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed.
b. 60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed.
c. 60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed.
d. 30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed.

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289. Given that: Vef= Critical engine failure speed, Vmcg= Ground minimum control
speed, Vmca= Air minimum control speed, Vmu= Minimum unstick speed, V1= Take-off
decision speed, Vr= Rotation speed, V2min.= Minimum take-off safety speed. The correct
formula is:
a. 1.05 Vmca<= Vef<= V1.
b. 1.05 Vmcg< Vef<= Vr.
c. V2min<= Vef<= Vmu.
d. Vmcg<=Vef < V1.

290. If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover
altitude is:
a. Unchanged.
b. Only affected by the aeroplane gross mass.
c. Lower.
d. Higher.

291. How is V2 if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of T/O flaps 10°?
a. V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are set.
b. V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting, as it is a function of runway length only.
c. V2 decreases if not restricted by Vmca.
d. V2 has the same value in both cases.

292. Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down-slope is correct for a
balanced take-off? Downslope...
a. Increases V1 and reduces the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).
b. Reduces V1 and increases the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).
c. Increases V1 and increases the take-off distance required (TODR).
d. Reduces V1 and reduces take-off distance required (TODR).

293. The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as:

a. Take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft.
b. Lift off speed.
c. Take-off decision speed.
d. Critical engine failure speed.

294. How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere?
a. TAS increases.
b. TAS is constant.
c. TAS is not related to Mach number.
d. TAS decreases.

295. A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:

a. The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available.
b. The clearway does not equal the stopway.
c. The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.
d. The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.

296. The lowest take-off safety speed (V2min) is:

a. 1.15 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes.
b. 1.20 Vs for all turboprop powered aeroplanes.
c. 1.15 Vs for four-engine turboprop aeroplanes and 1.20 Vs for two or three-engine turboprop
aeroplanes.
d. 1.20 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes.

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297. What is the effect of a head wind component, compared to still air, on the
maximum range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively?
a. Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed decreases.
b. Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed increases.
c. Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed stays constant.
d. Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed increases.

298. The speed V2 is:

a. That speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an
engine failure.
b. The lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems.
c. The lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces
in the case of an engine failure.
d. The take-off safety speed.

299. Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is

correct?
a. The field length limited take-off mass will increase.
b. The usable length of the clearway is not limited.
c. V1 is increased.
d. V1 remains constant.

300. Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?

a. In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used.
b. Screen height reduction cannot be applied because of reduction in obstacle clearance.
c. A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce weight penalties.
d. The use of a reduced Vr is sufficient to maintain the same safety margins as for a dry runway.

301. The take-off run is:

a. The horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point
equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is
35 ft. above the take-off surface.
b. 1.5 times the distance from the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point
at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 35 ft. above
the runway with all engines operative.
c. 1.15 times the distance from the point of brake release to the point at which VLOF is reached
assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.
d. The distance of the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which
VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 50 ft. above the
runway assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.

302. Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the
beginning of the 3rd climb segment?
a. The minimum legally allowed acceleration height is at 1500 ft.
b. There is no requirement for minimum climb performance when flying at the acceleration
height.
c. The minimum one engine out acceleration height must be maintained in case of all engines
operating.
d. The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take-off thrust may be
applied.

303. If the field length limited take off mass has been calculated using a Balanced Field
Length technique, the use of any additional clearway in take off performance
calculations may allow:
a. A greater field length limited take off mass but with a higher V1.
b. The obstacle clearance limit to be increased with no effect on V1.
c. The obstacle clearance limit to be increased with an higher V1.
d. A greater field length limited take off mass but with a lower V1.

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304. Which statement regarding V1 is correct?

a. V1 is not allowed to be greater than Vmcg.
b. When determining the V1, reverse thrust is only allowed to be taken into account on the
remaining symmetric engines.
c. The V1 correction for up-slope is negative.
d. V1 is not allowed to be greater than Vr.

305. The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is:
a. A higher V1.
b. A longer take-off run.
c. A shorter ground roll.
d. An increased acceleration.

306. In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft. vertical distance to
clear all obstacles is:
a. Based on pressure altitudes.
b. The height by which acceleration and flap retraction should be completed.
c. The height at which power is reduced to maximum climb thrust.
d. The minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the aeroplane and all obstacles
within the obstacle corridor.

307. Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take-
off distance available?
a. Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the weight of the aeroplane.
b. Yes, but the stopway must have the same width as the runway.
c. No.
d. No, unless its centreline is on the extended centreline of the runway.

308. Which statement is correct?

a. Vr must not be less than 1.05 Vmca and not less than 1.1 V1.
b. Vr must not be less than 1.05 Vmca and not less than V1.
c. Vr must not be less than Vmca and not less than 1.05 V1.
d. Vr must not be less than 1.1 Vmca and not less than Vr.

309. Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?

a. The speed for which the ratios between rate of climb and forward speed is maximum.
b. V2 + 10 kts.
c. The speed for maximum rate of climb.
d. V 2.

310. The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in:

a. The accelerate-stop distance available.
b. The take-off run available.
c. The take-off distance available.
d. The landing distance available.

311. Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at
the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?
a. The minimum value according to regulations is 1000 ft.
b. There is no legal minimum value, because this will be determined from case to case during the
calculation of the net flight path.
c. The minimum value according to regulations is 400 ft.
d. A lower height than 400 ft. is allowed in special circumstances e.g. noise abatement.

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312. Which of the following answers is true?

a. V 1 > V r.
b. V1 < Vmcg.
c. V1 <= Vr.
d. V1 > Vlof.

313. The take-off distance available is:

a. The total runway length, without clearway even if this one exists.
b. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available.
c. The runway length minus stopway.
d. The runway length plus half of the clearway.

314. The Density Altitude:

a. Is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.
b. Is used to determine the aeroplane performance.
c. Is equal to the pressure altitude.
d. Is used to establish minimum clearance of 2,000 feet over mountains.

315. Field length is balanced when:

a. One engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are
equal.
b. Take-off distance equals accelerate-stop distance.
c. Calculated V2 is less than 110% Vmca and V1, Vr, Vmcg.
d. All engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal.

316. What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb limited take-
off?
a. The safety margin with respect to the runway length is greatest.
b. The take-off distance required with one engine out at V1 is the shortest.
c. The accelerate stop distance required is the shortest.
d. The climb limited take-off mass is the highest.

317. For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles in the first segment may be
avoided:
a. By banking not more than 15° between 50 ft. and 400 ft. above the runway elevation.
b. By banking as much as needed if aeroplane is more than 50 ft. above runway elevation.
c. Only by using standard turns.
d. By standard turns - but only after passing 1,500 ft.

318. A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the Tropopause.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a. IAS decreases and TAS decreases.
b. IAS increases and TAS increases.
c. IAS decreases and TAS increases.
d. IAS increases and TAS decreases.

319. The speed Vr:

a. Must be higher than VLOF.
b. Must be equal to or lower than V1.
c. Is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is initiated.
d. Must be higher than V2.

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320. Given: VS= Stalling speed, Vmca= Air minimum control speed,
Vmu= Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine failure),
V1= take-off decision speed, Vr= Rotation speed, V2 min.= Minimum take-off safety
speed, VLOF: Lift-off speed. The correct formula is:
a. Vr< Vmca< VLOF.
b. Vmu<= Vmca< V1.
c. V2min< Vmca> VMU.
d. VS< Vmca< V2min.

321. The second segment begins:

a. When landing gear is fully retracted.
b. When flap retraction begins.
c. When flaps are selected up.
d. When acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction.

322. Vr cannot be lower than:

a. 105% of V1 and Vmca.
b. 1.2 Vs for twin and three engine jet aeroplane.
c. 1.15 Vs for turbo-prop with three or more engines.
d. V1 and 105% of Vmca.

323. A higher outside air temperature (OAT):

a. Decreases the brake energy limited take-off mass.
b. Increases the field length limited take-off mass.
c. Increases the climb limited take-off mass.
d. Decreases the take-off distance.

324. In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
a. In the accelerate stop distance available.
b. In the one-engine failure case, take-off distance.
c. In the all-engine take-off distance.
d. In the take-off run available.

325. In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in
order to decelerate the aeroplane is to:
a. Apply wheel brakes.
b. Deploy airbrakes or spoilers.
c. Reduce the engine thrust.
d. Reverse engine thrust.

326. At which minimum height will the second climb segment end?
a. 1,500 ft. above field elevation.
b. 400 ft. above field elevation.
c. 35 ft. above ground.
d. When gear retraction is completed.

327. Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet aeroplane is correct? (From low
to high speeds):
a. Maximum endurance speed, maximum range speed, maximum angle of climb speed.
b. Maximum endurance speed, long-range speed, maximum range speed.
c. Vs, maximum angle climb speed, maximum range speed.
d. Vs, maximum range speed, maximum angle climb speed.

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328. When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle
clearance / climb performance:
a. Increases / increases.
b. Remains constant / remains constant.
c. Decreases / decreases.
d. Decreases / remains constant.

329. Density altitude is the:

a. Altitude read directly from the altimeter.
b. Height above the surface.
c. Pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature.
d. Altitude reference to the standard datum plane.

330. An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following
consequences on landing performance:
a. A reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance.
b. A reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance.
c. An increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance.
d. An increased landing distance and improved go-around Performance.

331. A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed (Vmca). Which
parameter(s) must be maintainable after engine failure?
a. Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft./min.
b. Altitude.
c. Straight flight.
d. Straight flight and altitude.

332. The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition)
is the demonstrated landing distance plus:
a. 92%.
b. 43%.
c. 70%.
d. 67%.

333. The length of a clearway may be included in:

a. The accelerate-stop distance available.
b. The take-off run available.
c. The distance to reach V1.
d. The take-off distance available.

334. What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number?

a. IAS stays constant so there will be no problems.
b. The "1.3G" altitude is exceeded, so Mach buffet will start immediately.
c. The lift coefficient increases.
d. The TAS continues to increase, which may lead to structural problems.

335. How is Vmca influenced by increasing pressure altitude?

a. Vmca decreases with increasing pressure altitude.
b. Vmca increases with pressure altitude higher than 4,000 ft.
c. Vmca increases with increasing pressure altitude.
d. Vmca is not affected by pressure altitude.

336. During take-off the third segment begins:

a. When acceleration to flap retraction speed is started.
b. When landing gear is fully retracted.
c. When acceleration starts from VLOF to V2.
d. When flap retraction is completed.

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337. The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by:

a. Selecting a lower Vr.
b. A lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2.
c. Selecting a lower V1.
d. Selecting a lower V2.

338. By what factor must the landing distance available (dry runway) for a turbojet
powered aeroplane be multiplied to find the landing distance required? (Planning phase
for destination).
a. 115/100.
b. 1.67.
c. 60/115.
d. 0.60.

339. With a jet aeroplane the maximum climb angle can be flown at approximately:
a. 1.2Vs.
b. 1.1Vs.
c. The highest CL/CD ratio.
d. The highest CL/CD² ratio.

340. A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which of the following
speed limits is most likely to be exceeded first?
a. Maximum Operational Mach Number.
b. Maximum Operating Speed.
c. Never Exceed Speed.
d. High Speed Buffet Limit.

341. Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take-
off distance available?
a. Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the weight of the aeroplane.
b. Yes, but the stopway must have the same width as the runway.
c. No.
d. No, unless its centreline is on the extended centreline of the runway.

342. Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?

a. V1, Vr, V2, Vmca.
b. Vmcg, V1, Vr, V2.
c. V1, Vmcg, Vr, V2.
d. V1, Vr, Vmcg, V2.

343. V1 has to be:

a. Equal to or higher than Vmcg.
b. Equal to or higher than Vmca.
c. Higher than Vr.
d. Equal to or higher than V2.

344. Take-off run is defined as the:

a. Distance from brake release to V2.
b. Horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant
between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft.
above the take-off surface.
c. Distance to V1 and stop, assuming an engine failure at V1.
d. Distance to 35 feet with an engine failure at V1 or 115% all engine distance to 35 feet.

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345. Which of the following is true with regard to Vmca (air minimum control speed)?
a. The aeroplane is uncontrollable below Vmca.
b. The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradient.
c. VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes.
d. Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed.

346. Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being
maintained by:
a. Nose wheel steering only.
b. Primary aerodynamic control only.
c. Primary aerodynamic control and nose wheel.
d. Primary aerodynamic control, nose wheel steering and differential braking.

347. What is the advantage of a balanced field length condition?

a. For a balanced field length the required take-off runway length always equals the available
runway length.
b. A balanced field length provides the greatest margin between "net" and "gross" take-off flight
paths.
c. A balanced field length gives the minimum required field length in the event of an engine
failure.
d. A balanced take-off provides the lowest elevator input force requirement for rotation.

348. Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1?
a. All Engine Take-off distance.
b. Take-off run.
c. Accelerate Stop Distance.
d. Take-off distance.

349. V2 has to be equal to or higher than:

a. 1.1 Vmca.
b. 1.15 Vmcg.
c. 1.1 Vso.
d. 1.15 Vr.

350. Which statement regarding V1 is correct?

a. When determining V1, reverse thrust may only be used on the remaining symmetric engines.
b. The correction for up-slope on the balanced V1 is negative.
c. Vr may not be lower than V1.
d. V1 may not be higher than Vmcg.

351. A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following
consequences on take-off performance:
a. A reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance.
b. An increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance.
c. A reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance.
d. An increased take-off distance and improved initial climb Performance.

352. The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and the climb segments are
only specified for:
a. The failure of two engines on a multi-engine aeroplane.
b. The failure of the critical engine on a multi-engines aeroplane.
c. The failure of any engine on a multi-engine aeroplane.
d. 2 engine aeroplane.

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353. A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is
most likely to be reached?
a. The Stalling speed.
b. The Minimum control speed air.
c. The Mach limit for the Mach trim system.
d. The Maximum operating Mach number.

354. The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit:
a. Increases the stalling speed.
b. Improves the longitudinal stability.
c. Decreases the maximum range.
d. Improves the maximum range.

355. Which of the following set of factors could lead to a V2 value, which is limited by
Vmca?
a. High take-off mass, low flap setting and high field elevation.
b. Low take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation.
c. Low take-off mass, low flap setting and low field elevation.
d. High take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation.

356. Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?

a. Vmu.
b. V r.
c. Vmcg.
d. VLOF.

357. The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet
condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
a. 67%.
b. 70%.
c. 43%.
d. 92%.

358. The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in:
a. The maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane.
b. The maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane.
c. The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane.
d. The maximum range for a jet aeroplane.

359. In the event that the take-off mass is obstacle limited and the take-off flight path
includes a turn, the bank angle should not exceed:
a. 10 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
b. 20 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
c. 25 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
d. 15 degrees up to height of 400 ft.

360. The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point
and:
a. The point half way between V1 and V2.
b. The middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft point.
c. The lift-off point.
d. The point where V2 is reached.

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361. Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and/or
clearway?
a. V 2.
b. Vmcg.
c. Vmca.
d. V 1.

362. The take-off mass could be limited by:

a. The take-off distance available (TODA), the maximum brake energy and the climb gradient
with one engine inoperative.
b. The maximum brake energy only.
c. The climb gradient with one engine inoperative only.
d. The take-off distance available (TODA) only.

363. Which statement is correct?

a. Vr is the speed at which rotation should be initiated.
b. Vr is the lowest climb speed after engine failure.
c. In case of engine failure below Vr the take-off should be aborted.
d. Vr is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure.

364. If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than Vmcg, which is correct?
a. The ASDR will become greater than the one engine out take-off distance.
b. The take-off is not permitted.
c. The one engine out take-off distance will become greater than the ASDR.
d. The VMCG will be lowered to V1.

365. The take-off decision speed V1 is:

a. A chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1 the take-off must be
aborted.
b. Not less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed.
c. A chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1 the take-off must be
aborted.
d. Sometimes greater than the rotation speed Vr.

366. The speed VLO is defined as:

a. Lift off speed.
b. Landing gear operating speed.
c. Design low operating speed.
d. Long distance operating speed.

367. The take-off distance required increases:

a. Due to slush on the runway.
b. Due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack.
c. Due to head wind because of the drag augmentation.
d. Due to lower gross mass at take-off.

368. The take-off performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are
based upon:
a. Failure of critical engine.
b. Failure of critical engine or all engines operating which ever gives the largest take off
distance.
c. All engines operating.
d. Only one engine operating.

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369. May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off and landing data?
a. Only for take-off.
b. Only for landing.
c. Yes.
d. No.

370. For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is correct?

a. When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available
distance is taken into account, if the runway is expected to be dry.
b. In any case runway slope is one of the factors taken into account when determining the
required landing field length.
c. An anti-skid system malfunction has no effect on the required landing field length.
d. The required landing field length is the distance from 35 ft. to the full stop point.

371. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. If a clearway or a stopway is used, the lift-off point must be attainable at least at the end of the
permanent runway surface.
b. A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an
aborted take-off.
c. An under run is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off.
d. A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off.

372. Which of the following is true according to JAA regulations for turbo propeller
powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?
a. Maximum Take-off Run is 0,5 x runway.
b. Maximum use of clearway is 1,5 x runway.
c. Maximum Landing Distance at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome is
0,7 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).
d. Maximum Landing Distance at destination is 0,95 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).

373. An airport has a 3,000 metres long runway, and a 2,000 metres clearway at each
end of that runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the take-
off distance available cannot be greater than:
a. 6,000 metres.
b. 4,000 metres.
c. 5,000 metres.
d. 4,500 metres.

374. When "spoilers" are used as speed brakes:

a. CLmax of the polar curve is not affected.
b. They do not affect wheel-braking action during landing.
c. At same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected.
d. At same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased.

375. How does Vmcg change with increasing field elevation and temperature?
a. Increases, because at a lower density a larger IAS is necessary to generate the required rudder
force.
b. Increases, because Vmcg is related to V1 and Vr and those speeds increase if the density
decreases.
c. Decreases, because the engine thrust decreases.
d. Decreases, because Vmcg is expressed in IAS and the IAS decreases with TAS constant and
decreasing density.

376. The flight Mach number is 0.8 and the TAS is 400 kts. The speed of sound is:
a. 500 kts.
b. 320 kts.
c. 480 kts.
d. 600 kts.

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377. The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on:

a. TAS.
b. Weight.
c. Load factor.
d. Wind.

378. The stall speed increases, when: (all other factors of importance being constant):
a. Spoilers are selected from OUT to IN.
b. Pulling up from a dive.
c. Weight decreases.
d. Minor altitude changes occur e.g. 0-10.000 ft.

379. After take-off the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the flaps.
Why?
a. Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.
b. Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.
c. Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the cockpit than FLAPS
EXTENDED.
d. Because VMCA with SLATS EXTENDED is more favourable compared to the FLAPS
EXTENDED situation.

380. At higher altitudes, the stall speed (IAS):

a. Increases.
b. Decreases.
c. Remains the same.
d. Decreases until the Tropopause.

381. Why is Vmcg determined with the nose wheel steering disconnected?
a. Because nose wheel steering has no effect on the value of Vmcg.
b. Because the value of Vmcg must also be applicable on wet and/or slippery runways.
c. Because the nose wheel steering could become inoperative after an engine has failed.
d. Because it must be possible to abort the take-off even after the nose wheel has already been
lifted off the ground.

382. The stall speed:

a. Does not depend on weight.
b. Increases with the length of the wingspan.
c. Increases with an increased weight.
d. Decreases with an increased weight.

383. The following factors increase stall speed:

a. A lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flap setting.
b. An increase in load factor, a forward C.G. shift, decrease in thrust.
c. A higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a forward C.G. shift.
d. Increasing bank angle, increasing thrust, slat extension.

384. A jet aeroplane is rolled into a turn, while maintaining airspeed and holding
altitude. In such a case, the pilot has to:
a. Increase angle of attack and keep thrust unchanged.
b. Increase thrust and angle of attack.
c. Increase thrust and keep angle of attack unchanged.
d. Increase thrust and decrease angle of attack.

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385. The centre of gravity moving aft will:

a. Increase the elevator up effectiveness.
b. Decrease the elevator up effectiveness.
c. Not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness.
d. Increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness, depending on wing location.

386. Mcrit is the free stream Mach number at which:

a. Shock stall occurs.
b. The critical angle of attack is reached.
c. Somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally.
d. Mach buffet occurs.

387. When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back wing of the same wing area
and wing loading, the swept back wing has the advantage of:
a. Increased longitudinal stability.
b. Lower stalling speed.
c. Higher critical Mach number.
d. Greater strength.

388. What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least sensitive to turbulence?
a. Winglets.
b. Swept wings.
c. Straight wings.
d. Wing dihedral.

389. One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it's stalling characteristics. At the stall:
a. Wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment.
b. Tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment.
c. Leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nose down moment.
d. Tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment.

390. Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land will occur:
a. When a higher than normal angle of attack is used.
b. At a speed approaching the stall.
c. When the height is less than half of the length of the wingspan above the surface.
d. When the height is less than twice the length of the wingspan above the surface.

391. What will happen in ground effect?

a. A significant increase in thrust required.
b. The induced angle of attack and induced drag decreases.
c. The wing downwash on the tail surfaces increases.
d. An increase in strength of the wing tip vortices.

392. If an aeroplane flies in the ground effect:

a. The lift is increased and the drag is decreased.
b. The effective angle of attack is decreased.
c. The induced angle of attack is increased.
d. Drag and lift are reduced.

393. Ground effect has the following influence on the landing distance:
a. Decreases.
b. Does not change.
c. Increases, only if the landing flaps are fully extended.
d. Increases.

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394. Which moments or motions interact in a Dutch roll?

a. Pitching and adverse yaw.
b. Rolling and yawing.
c. Pitching and yawing.
d. Pitching and rolling.

395. Rotation about the lateral axis is called:

a. Yawing.
b. Slipping.
c. Pitching.
d. Rolling.

FLIGHT PLANNING
396. On an ATC flight plan, an aircraft indicated as "H" for "Heavy"
a. Has a certified landing mass greater than or equal to 136,000 kg.
b. Has a certified take-off mass greater than or equal to 140,000 kg.
c. Requires a runway length of at least 2,000m at maximum certified take-off mass.
d. Is of the highest wake turbulence category.

397. The maximum permissible take-off mass of an aircraft for the L wake turbulence
category on a flight plan is:
a. 7,000 kg.
b. 2,700 kg.
c. 5,700 kg.
d. 10,000 kg.

398. From which of the following would you expect to find the dates and times when
temporary danger areas are active:
a. SIGMET.
b. RAD/NAV charts.
c. NOTAM and AIP (Air Information Publication).
d. Only AIP (Air Information Publication).

399. On an instrument approach chart, a minimum sector altitude (MSA) is defined in

relation to a radio navigation facility. Without any particular specification on distance,
this altitude is valid to:
a. 10 nm.
b. 25 nm.
c. 20 nm.
d. 15 nm.

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HUMAN FACTORS
400. Which component(s) is/are transporting the oxygen in the blood?
a. Haemoglobin in the red blood cells.
b. White blood cells.
c. Plasma.
d. Blood fat.

401. The rate and depth of breathing is primary regulated by the concentration of:
a. Water vapour in the alveoli.
b. Oxygen in the cells.
c. Carbon dioxide in the blood.
d. Nitrogen in the air.

402. Early symptoms of hypoxia could be:

1. Euphoria
2. Decreased rate and depth of breathing
3. Lack of concentration
4. Visual disturbances
a. 1,2 and 4 are correct.
b. 1,3 and 4 are correct.
c. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct.
d. 1,2 and 3 are correct.

403. Having a serious cold, you are going to fly. What can you expect:
a. Bends.
b. Chokes.
c. Hypoxia.
d. Pain in the sinuses.

404. In the following list you find some symptoms for hypoxia and cardon monoxide
poisoning. Please mark those indicating hypoxia:
a. Dull headache and bends.
b. Dizziness, hypothermia.
c. Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria.
d. Nausea and barotitis.

405. The time berween inadequate oxygen supply and icapacitation is called TUC (Time
of Useful Consciousness). It
a. Varies individually and depends on cabin pressure altitude.
b. Is the same amount of time for every person.
c. Is not dependent on physical or psychological pressure.
d. Varies individually and does not depend on altitude.

406. The semi-circular canals form part of the:

a. Inner ear.
b. Middle ear.
c. Ear drum.
d. External ear.

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407. What are the main effects of a lack of sleep loss on performance?
a. It causes muscular spasms.
b. It reduces concentration and fatigue only with sleep loss greater than 48 hours.
c. It increases fatigue, concentration and attention difficulties, the risk of sensory illusions and
mood disorders.
d. It increases fatigue and concentration difficulties, but facilitates stress management by
muscular relaxation.

408. A good method to treat hyperventilation is to:

a. Execute the valsalva manoeuvre.
b. Close the eyes and relax.
c. Talk oneself through the relevant procedure aloud to emotionally calm down and reduce the
rate of breathing simultaneously.
d. Don an oxygen mask.

409. Hyperventilation causes:

a. Acidosis.
b. Hypochondria.
c. A lack of carbon dioxide in the blood.
d. An excess of carbon dioxide in the blood.

410. Hyperventilation is:

a. An accelerated heart frequency caused by a decreasing blood-pressure.
b. A reduction of partial oxygen pressure in the brain.
c. A normal compensatory physiological reaction to a drop in partial oxygen pressure (i.e. when
climbing a high mountain).
d. An accelerated heart frequency caused by an increasing blood pressure.

411. Which of the following symptoms can mark a beginning hyperventilation?

a. Slow heart beat.
b. Slow rate of breathing.
c. Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger nails).
d. Dizzy Keeling.

412. The symptoms of hyperventilation are caused by a:

a. Shortage of CO2 in the blood.
b. Surplus of CO2 in the blood.
c. Surplus of O2 in the blood.
d. Shortage of CO in the blood.

413. Flying immediately after SCUBA diving involves the risk of getting:
a. Hyperventilation.
b. Hypoxia.
c. Stress.
d. Decompression sickness without having a decompression.

414. Which of the following could a pilot experience when he is hyperventilating?

1. Dizziness,
2. Muscular spasms,
3. Visual disturbances,
4. Cyanosis.
a. 1,2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false.
b. 1 is false, all others are correct.
c. 2 and 4 are false.
d. 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false.

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415. After decompression at high altitude:

a. Automatically oxygen is deployed into the cabin.
b. Temperature in the cockpit will increase.
c. Pressure differentials will suck air into the cabin.
d. Nitrogen gas bubbles can be released in the body fluids causing gas embolism, bends and
chokes.

416. Symptoms caused by gas bubbles in the lungs, following decompression are called:
a. Creeps.
b. Leans.
c. Chokes.
d. Bends.

417. Pain in the joints caused by gas bubbles following a decompression is called:
a. Chokes.
b. Creeps.
c. Leans.
d. Bends.

418. The symptoms caused by gas bubbles under the skin following decompression are
called:
a. Bends.
b. Chokes.
c. Leans.
d. Creeps.

419. After SCUBA diving (more than 30 feet of depth) you have to wait a period of time
before flying again. This period is at least:
a. 24 hours.
b. 6 hours.
c. 12 hours.
d. 48 hours.

420. Flights immediately after SCUBA-diving (compressed gas mixtures, bottles) (>10
m depth):
a. Are allowed, if 38000 FT are not exceeded.
b. Should be avoided because hypoxia may develop.
c. Are forbidden.
d. Can be performed without any danger.

421. Flying immediately following a dive with SCUBA diving equipment (>10 m depth):
a. Has no influence on altitude flights.
b. Is forbidden for the flight crew, because it leads to hypoxia.
c. Can cause decompression sickness even when flying at pressure altitudes below 18,000 ft.
d. Prevents any dangers caused by aeroembolism (decompression sickness) when climbing to
altitudes not exceeding 30 000 ft.

422. Which statement is correct?

a. There is no relation between inadequate communication and incidents or accidents.
b. Inconsistent communication behaviour improves flight safety.
c. Problems in the personal relation between crewmembers hardly hamper their communication
process.
d. Problems in the personal relation between crew members very likely hamper their
communication process.

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423. After a rapid decompression at 35 000 feet, the time of useful consciousness is
about:
a. 10 minutes.
b. 30 to 60 seconds.
c. 15 seconds or less.
d. 5 minutes.

424. Following a rapid decompression at 30.000 feet, the time of useful consciousness
would be about:
a. 5 to 10 minutes.
b. 10 to 12 minutes.
c. 1 to 2 minutes.
d. 3 to 5 minutes.

425. What is the "Time of Useful Consciousness" for a rapid decompression at 25,000
ft.?
a. Between 25 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds.
b. About 30 seconds.
c. Between 3 and 5 minutes depending on the physical activities of the subjected pilot.
d. About 18 seconds.

426. What is the average Time of Useful Consciousness after a rapid decompression at
40,000 ft.?
a. More than 1 minute.
b. About 12 seconds.
c. Between 20 seconds and 1 minute.
d. About 40 seconds.

AIR LAW
427. An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from
the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must:
a. Not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.
b. Not land because the airport is not available for landing.
c. Give way to another aircraft.
d. Return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course.

428. At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting
be set?
a. When passing 3000 ft AMSL or 1000 ft AGL.
b. When passing the transition level.
c. When passing the transition altitude.
d. Within the transition layer.

429. The criterion, which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by
an aircraft, shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller
criterion):
a. +/- 150 ft.
b. +/- 250 ft.
c. +/- 300 ft.
d. +/- 200 ft.

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430. When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, ATC
has to be informed in case:
a. It is a deviation from the track.
b. The TAS varies by + or - 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan.
c. Of an emergency.
d. The estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.

431. A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:

a. Dangerous airfield. Do not land.
b. Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
c. Come back and land.
d. Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.

432. We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the
initial departure track is within:
a. 5° of the alignment of the runway centre-line.
b. 10° of the alignment of the runway centre-line.
c. 25° of the alignment of the runway centre-line.
d. 15° of the alignment of the runway centre-line.

433. The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the

localizer course shall be:
a. 2.0 nm between aircraft on the same localizer course.
b. 5.0 nm between aircraft on the same localizer course.
c. 3.0 nm between aircraft on the same localizer course.
d. 3.0 nm between aircraft on adjacent localizer course.

434. An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility
is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio
communications. The procedure to be followed is:
a. Adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination.
b. Continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight
plan.
c. Descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations.
d. Land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing.

435. In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the

departure end of runway equals:
a. 0 ft.
b. 3.3 % gradient.
c. 35 ft.
d. 0.8 % gradient.

436. Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in- VOR approach continue
it’s descend below the OCA?
a. When seems possible to land.
b. When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight.
c. When the aircraft has the control tower in sight.
d. When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet.

437. The runway edge lights shall be:

a. White.
b. Blue.
c. Green.
d. Red.

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438. When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence
at:
a. 450 m from threshold.
b. 600 m from threshold.
c. 300 m from threshold.
d. 150 m from threshold.

439. Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal
radar separation minimum shall be:
a. 3.5 nm.
b. 5.0 nm.
c. 3.0 nm.
d. 10.0 nm.

440. "ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:

a. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided).
b. The length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided).
c. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if provided).
d. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway.

441. Runway threshold lights shall be:

a. Fixed lights showing green or white colours.
b. Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.
c. Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.
d. Fixed lights green colours.

442. For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than:
a. 150 ft.
b. 100 ft.
c. 200 ft.
d. 250 ft.

443. Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two-way
communication failure?
a. Return to the aerodrome of departure.
b. Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable.
c. Continue the flight at the assigned level and route; start approach at your ETA.
d. Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome that has VMC
conditions.

444. Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:
a. Fixed lights showing blue.
b. Fixed lights showing yellow.
c. Fixed lights showing white.
d. Fixed lights showing green.

445. While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency, which causes a deviation from an
ATC clearance. What action must be taken?
a. Squawk 7700.
b. The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances
permit.
c. Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan.
d. Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours.

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446. Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green
flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
a. Must give way to another aircraft.
b. Must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.
c. Is cleared to land.
d. Must land immediately and clear the landing area.

447. In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar
lights shall be:
a. Flashing lights showing variable green.
b. Fixed lights showing variable white.
c. Flashing lights showing variable white.
d. Fixed lights showing variable green.

448. What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft
preceding a 'Light' aircraft?
a. 6 nm.
b. 3 nm.
c. 2 km.
d. 10 km.

449. "TODA" take-off distance available is:

a. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).
b. The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).
c. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if
provided).
d. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the Stopway.

450. A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are established
inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is,
when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
a. 1.0 nm.
b. 2.0 nm.
c. 3.0 nm.
d. 5.0 nm.

451. Above flight level FL 290 the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the
same direction is:
a. 3,000 ft.
b. 1,500 ft.
c. 4,000 ft.
d. 2,000 ft.

452. A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
a. The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling.
b. Give way to other aircraft in emergency.
c. Continue circling and wait for further instructions.
d. The airport is unsafe, do not land.

453. An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR
mode C derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required
direction by:
a. +/- 300 ft.
b. More than 200 ft.
c. More than 300 ft.
d. 300 ft.

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454. A precision approach runway CAT II is an instrument runway served by ILS and
visual aids intended for operations down to:
a. A RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
b. A RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
c. A RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
d. A RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.

455. What is a "barrette"?

a. A CAT II or III holding position.
b. A frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed.
c. Three or more ground lights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights.
d. A heighted obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway.

456. In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be
applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using
the same runway?
a. 2 minutes.
b. 3 minutes.
c. 4 minutes.
d. 1 minute.

457. What action should be taken if contact is lost with the aerodrome on the down
wind leg?
a. Request an amended clearance.
b. Initiate a missed approach.
c. Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is better at a lower altitude.
d. Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the Aerodrome.

458. Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates
from the track?
a. Inform the ATC unit immediately.
b. If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions.
c. Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions.
d. Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as Practicable.

459. Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an
aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be
for an IFR flight:
a. At least 2000 ft within 8 km of the estimated position.
b. At least 1000 ft within 5 km of the estimated position.
c. At least 1000 ft within 8 km of the estimated position.
d. At least 2000 ft within 5 km of the estimated position.

460. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL140?

a. 2 minutes 30 seconds.
b. 1 minute 30 seconds.
c. 1 minute.
d. 2 minutes.

461. What does the abbreviation DER mean?

a. Distance end of route.
b. Departure end of route.
c. Distance end of runway.
d. Departure end of runway.

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462. Taxiway edge lights shall be:

a. Fixed showing blue.
b. Fixed showing green.
c. Fixed showing yellow.
d. Flashing showing blue.

463. While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light
signal: a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
a. Must return to its point of departure.
b. Is cleared for take-off.
c. May continue to taxy towards the take-off area.
d. Must stop.

464. The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off
run available prepared as a suitable area where:
a. An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.
b. An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.
c. A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.
d. A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.

465. In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot
does not normally deviate from the centreline, after being established on track, more
than:
a. Half a scale deflection.
b. One scale deflection.
c. A quarter of scale deflection.
d. One and a half of scale deflection.

466. Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome,
experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties, which compel it to land without
requiring immediate assistance?
a. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights.
b. Switching on and off three times the landing lights.
c. Switching on and off four times the landing lights.
d. Switching on and off four times the navigation lights.

467. Runway-lead-in lighting should consist:

a. Always of a straight row of lights towards the runway.
b. Of flashing lights only;
c. Of an arbitrary amount of green lights;
d. Of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway.

468. Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach
climb gradient of:
a. 0.8%.
b. 3.3%.
c. 5%.
d. 2.5%.

469. What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway

CATII?
a. 900 m.
b. 150 m.
c. 300 m.
d. 600 m.

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470. Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes
is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should
be the length of this approach light system?
a. 420 metres.
b. 1000 metres.
c. 1200 metres.
d. 900 metres.

471. A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level
is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on
track" waypoint. This minimum is:
a. 60 nm.
b. 50 nm.
c. 20 nm.
d. 80 nm.

472. The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below:
a. 3.0 nm.
b. 5.0 nm.
c. 2.0 nm.
d. 1.5 nm.

473. While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower:
series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
a. Must vacate the landing area in use.
b. Must stop.
c. Must return to its point of departure.
d. May continue to taxi to the take-off area.

474. What are the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is
taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway?
a. 3 minutes.
b. 1 minute.
c. 5 minutes.
d. 2 minutes.

475. Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the
maximum speed?
a. 230 kt IAS.
b. 230 kt TAS.
c. 240 kt IAS.
d. 240 kt TAS.

476. You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding
procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052°. You are
approaching the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available entry
procedure.
a. Either "offset" or "parallel".
b. Offset.
c. Parallel.
d. Direct.

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477. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish

radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
a. 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz.
b. 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz.
c. 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz.
d. 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz.

478. Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach
segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is:
a. 8%.
b. 6,5%.
c. 5%.
d. 7%.

479. The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a
change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information
is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress
or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or
is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is:
a. ORANGE.
b. RED.
c. YELLOW.
d. GREEN.

480. "Clearway" is defined rectangular area established to:

a. Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway.
b. Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations.
c. Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.
d. Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.

481. Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:

a. Flashing white.
b. Fixed green.
c. Flashing green.
d. Fixed white.

482. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent
for landing are made is called:
a. Initial approach segment.
b. Intermediate approach segment.
c. Arrival segment.
d. Final approach segment.

483. Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by
an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?
a. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 km of course.
b. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 n.m. of course.
c. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 n.m. of course.
d. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 km of the estimated position of the Aircraft.

484. A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is:

a. Good.
b. Medium/poor.
c. Medium.
d. Poor.

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485. An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR
mode C derived level information indicated that it is within:
a. +/- 250 ft. of the assigned level.
b. +/- 500 ft. of the assigned level.
c. +/- 300 ft. of the assigned level.
d. +/- 200 ft. of the assigned level.

486. Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:
a. Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.
b. Flashing white.
c. Fixed lights showing variable white.
d. Fixed lights, white or yellow colour.

487. In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:
a. IF.
b. FAP.
c. FAF.
d. MAP.

488. During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way
radio communication failure. You will:
a. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC.
b. Select A7600 and continue according current flight plan to destination.
c. Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight.
d. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC.

489. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
a. Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
b. Crossing arms extended above his head.
c. Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground.
d. Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist.

490. In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the
runway centre line within:
a. 45°.
b. 12.5°.
c. 15°.
d. 30°.

491. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?

a. 2 minutes.
b. 1,5 minutes.
c. 30 seconds.
d. 1 minute.

492. What is meant when departure control instruct you to "resume own navigation"
after you have been vectored to an airway?
a. Radar Service is terminated.
b. Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.
c. You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
d. You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.

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493. Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided

that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least:
a. 500 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar
display.
b. 710 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar
display.
c. 600 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar
display.
d. 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar
display.

494. The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled
airspace above FL 290 is:
a. 500 feet (150m).
b. 4000 feet (1200m).
c. 2000 feet (600m).
d. 1000 feet (300m).

495. If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is
expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:
a. Landing runway.
b. MAP.
c. FAF.
d. Final missed approach track

496. Standard airway holding pattern below 14,000 ft.?

a. Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound.
b. Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound.
c. Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound.
d. Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound.

497. The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting
from QNH to standard setting 1013.25 hPa when passing:
a. Transition level.
b. The level specified by ATC.
c. Transition altitude.
d. Transition layer.

498. Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:

a. At transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent.
b. Only at transition altitude.
c. Only at transition level.
d. At transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.

499. Runway end lights shall be:

a. Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.
b. Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway.
c. Fixed lights showing variable red.
d. Fixed lights showing variable White.

500. Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC
charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of:
a. 5%.
b. 3.3%.
c. 2.5%.
d. 2%.

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501. If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre,
what actions should be taken?
a. Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling altitude.
b. Initiate a missed approach.
c. Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual contact.
d. If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contact.

502. A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and
a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the
heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing
an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is:
a. 2 minutes.
b. 5 minutes.
c. 3 minutes.
d. 1 minute.

MASS
503. An additional baggage container is loaded into the aft cargo compartment but is
not entered into the load and trim sheet. The aeroplane will be heavier than expected
and calculated take-off safety speeds:
a. Will give reduced safety margins. *
b. Will not be achieved.
c. Will be greater than required.
d. Are unaffected but V1 will be increased.

504. With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of the following is to be
expected?
a. A decrease in the landing speed.
b. A decrease of the stalling speed.
c. A tendency to yaw to the right on take-off.
d. A decrease in range. *

505. The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when it is loaded with a:
a. Low gross mass and forward centre of gravity.
b. Low gross mass and aft centre of gravity.
c. High gross mass and aft centre of gravity.
d. High gross mass and forward centre of gravity. *

506. The actual “Take-off Mass” is equivalent to:

a. Actual Zero Fuel Mass plus the traffic load.
b. Dry operating Mass plus the take-off fuel.
c. Actual landing Mass plus the take-off fuel.
d. Dry Operating Mass plus take-off fuel and the traffic load. *

507. The actual “Zero Fuel Mass” is equal to the:

a. Basic Empty Mass plus the fuel loaded.
b. Actual landing Mass plus trip fuel.
c. Dry Operating Mass plus the traffic load. *
d. Operating Mass plus all the traffic load.

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508. If an aeroplane is at a higher mass than anticipated, for a given airspeed the angle
of attack will
a. Remain constant, dreg will decrease and endurance will decrease.
b. Remain constant, drag will increase and endurance will increase.
c. Be greater, drag will increase and endurance will decrease. *
d. Be decreased, drag will decrease and endurance will increase.

509. If the centre of gravity is near the forward limit the aeroplane will:
a. Require elevator trim which will result in an increase in fuel consumption. *
b. Benefit from reduced drag due to the decrease in angle of attack.
c. Require less power for a given airspeed.
d. Tend to over rotate during take-off.

510. During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates
much more rapidly than expected. This is an indication that:
a. The centre of pressure is aft of the centre of gravity.
b. The centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit. *
c. The aeroplane is overloaded.
d. The centre of gravity is too far forward.

511. If the centre of gravity of an aeroplane moves forward during flight the elevator
control will:
a. Become heavier making the aeroplane more difficult to manoeuvre in pitch. *
b. Become lighter making the aeroplane more difficult manoeuvre in pitch.
c. Become heavier making the aeroplane more easy to manoeuvre in pitch.
d. Become lighter making the aeroplane more easy to manoeuvre in pitch.

512. When considering the effects of increased mass on an aeroplane, which of the
following is true?
a. Stalling speeds will be higher. *
b. Stalling speeds will be lower.
c. Gradient of climb for a given power setting will be higher.
d. Flight endurance will be increased.

513. A flight benefits from a strong tail wind which was not forecast. On arrival at
destination a straight in approach and immediate landing clearance is given. The
landing mass will be higher than planned and
a. The landing distance will be unaffected.
b. The approach path will be steeper.
c. The approach path will be steeper and threshold speed higher.
d. The landing distance required will be longer. *

514. The Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane includes:

a. Fuel and passengers, baggage and cargo.
b. Passengers baggage and cargo.
c. Crew and crew baggage, catering, removable passenger service equipment, potable water and
lavatory chemicals. *
d. Unusable fuel and reserve fuel.

515. The maximum certificated take-off mass is:

a. A take-off limiting mass which is governed by the gradient of climb after reaching V2.
b. Limited by the runway take-off distance available. It is tabulated in the Flight Manual.
c. A structural limit which may not be exceeded for any take-off. *
d. A take-off limiting mass which is affected by the aerodrome altitude and temperature.

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516. The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 117000 kg. Comprising a traffic load of 18000
kg and fuel of 46000 kg. What is the dry operating mass?
a. 71000 kg.
b. 99000 kg
c. 53000 kg. *
d. 64000 kg.

517. Assuming gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged, movement of the
centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit will cause:
a. Higher stall speed.
b. Lower optimum cruising speed.
c. Reduced maximum cruise range.
d. Increased cruise range. *

518. The centre of gravity is the:

a. Centre of thrust along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line.
b. Focus along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line.
c. Neutral point along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line.
d. Point where all the aircraft mass is considered to be Concentrated.*

519. In cruise flight, an aft centre of gravity location will:

a. Decrease longitudinal static stability. *
b. Increase longitudinal static stability.
c. Does not influence longitudinal static stability.
d. Not change the static curve of stability into longitudinal.

520. The centre of gravity location of the aeroplane is normally computed along the:
a. Horizontal axis.
b. Longitudinal axis. *
c. Lateral axis.
d. Vertical axis.

521. The centre of gravity of a body is that point

a. Through which the sum of the forces of all masses of the body is considered to act. *
b. Where the sum of the moments from the external forces acting on the body is equal to zero.
c. Where the sum of the external forces is equal to zero.
d. Which is always used as datum when computing moments.

522. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. The Maximum Take-off Mass is equal to the maximum mass when leaving the ramp.
b. The Basic Empty Mass is equal to the mass of the aeroplane excluding traffic load and useable
fuel but including the crew.
c. The Maximum Landing Mass of an aeroplane is restricted by structural limitations,
performance limitations and the strength of the runway. *
d. The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass ensures that the centre of gravity remains within limits after
the uplift of fuel.

523. The High-speed buffet is induced by:

a. Boundary layer separation due to shock waves. *
b. Boundary layer control.
c. Expansion waves on the wing upper side.
d. A shift of the centre of gravity.

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524. What factors determine the distance travelled over the ground of an aeroplane in a
glide?
a. The wind and the aeroplane’s mass.
b. The wind and CLmax.
c. The wind and weight together with power loading which is the ratio of power output to the
weight.
d. The wind and the lift/drag ratio, which changes with angle of attack. *

525. When the trailing edge flaps are deflected in level flight, the change in pitch
moment will be:
a. Nose up.
b. Zero.
c. Dependent on C.G. location.
d. Nose down. *

526. Which statement with respect to the climb is correct?

a. At constant Mach number the IAS increases.
b. At constant TAS the Mach number decreases.
c. At constant IAS the Mach number increases. *
d. At constant IAS the TAS decreases.

527. The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
a. Will increase during turn, increased mass and an aft C.G. location.
b. Will decrease with a forward C.G. location, lower altitude and due to the slip stream from a
propeller on an engine located forward of the wing.
c. Will increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and more flaps.
d. May increase during turbulence and will always increase when banking in a turn. *

528. A jet transport aeroplane is in a straight climb at a constant IAS and constant
weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is:
a. MD.
b. MMO. *
c. VMO.
d. VA.

529. What increases the stalling angle of attack? Use of:

a. Flaps.
b. Spoilers.
c. Fuselage mounted speed-brakes.
d. Slats. *

530. The trailing edge flaps when extended:

a. Significantly increase the angle of attack for maximum lift.
b. Significantly lower the drag.
c. Worsen the best angle of glide. *
d. Increase the zero lift angle of attack.

531. A light twin is in a turn at 20 degrees bank and 150 kt TAS. A more heavy jet
aeroplane at the same bank and the same speed will:
a. Turn at a higher turn rate.
b. Turn at the same turn radius. *
c. Turn at a bigger turn radius.
d. Turn at a smaller turn radius.

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532. A commercial jet aeroplane is performing a straight descent at a constant Mach

number with constant weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is:
a. VNE.
b. VD.
c. MMO.
d. VMO. *

533. Climbing at a constant Mach number up to FL 350 the TAS will:

a. Remain constant.
b. Decrease. *
c. First increase, then decrease.
d. Increase.

534. Winglets
a. Decrease the induced drag. *
b. Decrease the static lateral stability.
c. Increase the manoeuvrability.
d. Create an elliptical lift distribution.

535. The boundary layer of a wing is caused by:

a. A layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower than the free stream velocity. *
b. The normal shock wave at transonic speeds.
c. A turbulent stream pattern around the wing.
d. Suction at the upper wing side.

536. Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive angle of attack. At which
location will the highest flow velocities occur?
a. In the stagnation point.
b. Upper side. *
c. Lower side.
d. In front of the stagnation point.

537. The buffet margin:

a. Is always greatest after a step climb has been executed.
b. Decreases during a descent with a constant Mach number.
c. Is always positive at Mach numbers below MMO.
d. Increases during a descent with a constant IAS. *

538. Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a
glide?
a. Decrease of aeroplane weight.
b. Tailwind. *
c. Headwind.
d. Faster descent speed.

539. Rolling is the rotation of the aeroplane about the

a. Wing axis.
b. Longitudinal axis. *
c. Vertical axis.
d. Lateral axis.

540. The difference between IAS and TAS will:

a. Increase at decreasing temperature.
b. Increase at increasing air density.
c. Decrease at increasing speed.
d. Decrease at decreasing altitude. *

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541. In a twin-engine jet powered aeroplane (engines mounted below the low wings) the
thrust is suddenly increased. Which elevator deflection will be required to maintain the
pitching moment to zero?
a. No elevator movement will required because the thrust line of the engines remains unchanged.
b. It depends on the position of the centre of gravity.
c. Down. *
d. Up.

542. The lift force acting on an aerofoil:

a. Is mainly caused by overpressure at the underside of the aerofoil.
b. Is maximum at an angle of attack of 2 degrees.
c. Is mainly caused by suction on the upper side of the aerofoil. *
d. Increases, proportional to the angle of attack until 40 degrees.

543. During initiation of a turn with speedbrakes extended, the roll spoiler function
induces a spoiler deflection:
a. Downward on the up going wing and upward on the down going wing. *
b. Upward on the up going wing and downward on the down going wing.
c. On the up going wing only.
d. On the down going wing only.

544. The stall speed:

a. Does not depend on weight.
b. Increases with the length of the wingspan.
c. Increases with an increased weight. *
d. Decreases with an increased weight.

545. Increase of wing loading will:

a. Increase the stall speeds. *
b. Decrease the minimum gliding angle.
c. Increase CL max.
d. Decrease take off speeds.

546. The speed of sound is affected by the:

a. Temperature of the air. *
b. Density of the air.
c. Pressure of the air.
d. Humidity of the air.

547. The Bank angle in a rate one turn depends on:

a. TAS. *
b. Weight.
c. Load factor.
d. Wind.

548. Which code shall be used on Mode “A” to provide recognition of an aircraft
subjected to unlawful interference?
a. Code 7600.
b. Code 2000.
c. Code 7500. *
d. Code 7700.

549. For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary

safeguards are to be observed such as:
a. The boarding will be at the pilot in command discretion.
b. The boarding has to be done at the state discretion.
c. Boarding prior to all passengers. *
d. Boarding after to all other passengers.

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550. An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if:

a. The pilot is following the published approach procedure.
b. All mentioned answers are correct. *
c. The pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight.
d. The aircraft gets radar vectors.

551. An aircraft is flying under instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is
unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio
communications. The procedure to be followed is:
a. Adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination.
b. Continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight
plan.
c. Descend to Enroute Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations.
d. Land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advice Air Traffic Services of landing. *

552. In a standard holding pattern turns are made:

a. To the left.
b. In a direction depending on the entry.
c. In a direction depending on the wind direction.
d. To the right.*

553. The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder to
mode A Code:
a. 7700.
b. 7600. *
c. 2000.
d. 7500.

554. What will be your action if you cannot comply with a standard holding pattern?
a. Follow the radio communication failure procedure.
b. Inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance. *
c. A non-standard holding pattern is permitted.
d. It is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilots discretion.

555. A circling approach is:

a. A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring.
b. A contact flight manoeuvre.
c. A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight. *
d. A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.

556. During a circling approach, what action should be taken if contact is lost with the
aerodrome on the downwind leg?
a. Request an amended clearance.
b. Initiate a missed approach. *
c. Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is better at a lower altitude.
d. Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the aerodrome.

557. Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed
as:
a. The weather permits.
b. Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC. *
c. Decided on pilot’s discretion.
d. Prescribed by the aircraft operations.

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558. In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be
amended of cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is:
a. 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks. *
b. 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.
c. 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
d. 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.

559. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in
conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?
a. Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communication failure 7500.
b. Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.
c. Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700
d. Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600. *

560. The air traffic control unit has reported “radar contact”, what does that mean to
the pilot?
a. The radar identity of the aircraft has been established. *
b. The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft.
c. The aircraft is subject to positive control.
d. Position reports may be omitted.

561. Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land?
a. VIP (Head of state) aircraft.
b. Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention.
c. Emergency aircraft. *
d. Military aircraft.

562. Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight
level (FL)
a. When QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa.
b. Only in airspace class A.
c. If the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet.
d. Above the transition altitude when applicable. *

563. Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?
a. The ATC.
b. The air traffic service reporting office when accepting the flight plan.
c. The pilot in command. *
d. The aircraft operator.

564. Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to
communicate to the intercepted aircraft “YOU MAY PROCEED”?
a. Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clack-wise pattern.
b. Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights.
c. Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees of more without crossing the line of flight of the
intercepted aircraft. *
d. Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft.

565. In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a:

a. Maximum bank angle of 250
b. Rate of 30 per second of at a bank angle of 200, which ever requires the lesser bank.
c. Rate of 30 per second or at a bank angle of 250 , which ever requires the lesser bank. *
d. Rate of 30 per second.

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566. If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft:

a. The pilot should propose another clearance to the ATC concerned.
b. He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance. *
c. He may request another clearance and the ATC concerned has to accept the pilot request.
d. The pilot has to accept the ATC clearance because it has been based on the flight plan filed
with ATC.

567. If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane

is published, the pilot is expected
a. To request from ATC different heading for wind correction.
b. To ignore the wind and proceed on an heading equal to the track.
c. To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction.
d. To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace. *

568. ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should
include cloud cover, when the clouds are:
a. Below 900m (3000 ft.) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the
greater.
b. Below 2000m (600ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater.
c. Cumulonimbus.
d. Below 1500m (500ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater*

569. The MSA which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general
valid within a sector of:
a. 15 NM.
b. 30 NM.
c. 25 NM. *
d. 10 NM.

570. During an instrument approach followed by a missed approach, the minimum

obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is:
a. 120 m (384 ft.).
b. 30 m (98 ft.). *
c. 50 m (164 ft.).
d. 92 m (295 ft.).

571. The person who has the final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during
flight time is:
a. The aircraft owner.
b. The airline operator.
c. The commander. *
d. The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled.

572. Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on
the airway and to “resume own navigation”. This phrase means that:
a. You are to contact the centre at the next reporting point.
b. You are to assume responsibility for your own navigation. *
c. You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
d. Radar services are terminated and you will be responsible for position reports.

573. During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft
should be expressed as:
a. Altitude above mean sea level during climb.
b. Flight level during descent.
c. Either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during climb. *
d. Altitude above mean sea level during descent.

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