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JEE Sample Paper: Physics, Chemistry, Math

This document is a sample paper for the JEE (Main & Advanced) exam, covering topics in Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. The test consists of 90 objective questions, with a total duration of 3 hours and a maximum score of 360 marks. Each subject has equal weightage, and there are specific instructions regarding marking and penalties for incorrect answers.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
5 views11 pages

JEE Sample Paper: Physics, Chemistry, Math

This document is a sample paper for the JEE (Main & Advanced) exam, covering topics in Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. The test consists of 90 objective questions, with a total duration of 3 hours and a maximum score of 360 marks. Each subject has equal weightage, and there are specific instructions regarding marking and penalties for incorrect answers.

Uploaded by

mks
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

Regd.

Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005


Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 360 Sample Paper for Power Step Time : 3 Hrs.


[JEE(Main & Advanced)]
Test - 1 (Objective)
Topics covered :
Physics : Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane, Laws of Motion
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements and
Periodicity in Properties
Mathematics : Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations, Permutations and Combinations

Instructions :
(i) Duration of Test is 3 hrs.
(ii) The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
(iii) There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having
30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct response.
(iv) From total score one fourth (¼) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No
deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.

[ PART - A : PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. A ball is dropped from the apex of a tower so that 4. A particle is thrown horizontally from the top of a
distance travelled during the last second of its fall is tower with a speed 10 ms–1 and it lands on the
half the height of the tower. The time of free fall is ground with double its initial speed. The time after
which the speed of the ball is average of the two
(1) 2  2 s (2) 2  2 s
speeds (g = 10 m/s2)
(3) 1  6 s (4) 1  6 s
5
2. A ball is thrown vertically upward with the speed (1) 5s (2) s
2
of 70 ms–1. The change in velocity during the
interval t1 = 6 s to t2 = 10 s is (g = 10 ms–2, take
2 5 3 5
upward direction as positive direction) (3) s (4) s
3 4
(1) 40 ms–1 (2) –10 ms–1
5. The position of a particle is given by y = (t + 1)
(3) –40 ms–1 (4) –30 ms–1 (t + 2)(t – 3), where t is time in second and y is
3. A particle is projected from the ground with the in metre. The particle comes to stop at
speed 35 ms–1 at angle of 53° with the vertical. The
minimum speed of particle during its motion will be 7
(1) 2s (2) s
(1) 21 ms–1 (2) 28 ms–1 3
(3) 0 (4) 14 ms–1 (3) 3 s (4) 2 s

(1)
6. In the position-time graph for a particle moving 9. A swimmer crosses a river in minimum time but
along x-axis reaches a point which is equal to the (x) time the
Position width of the river from the point which is directly
A C opposite to the starting point. The magnitude of
velocity of swimmer with respect to river is double
the speed of river, then the value of x is equal to
B
(1) 1 (2) 2

1 1
Time (3) (4)
2 3
(1) Velocity at A, B and C is horizontal
10. In the f igure shown, two balls are thrown
(2) Velocity at A, B and C is vertical horizontally with the speeds as shown. The
(3) Velocity at A, B and C is zero separation between the buildings is 60 m. The
(4) Velocity at A, B and C is maximum minimum speed u required for the two balls to
collide in mid air is (g = 10 m/s2)
7. A pendulum bob is given a sharp impulse so that
it acquires 2gl speed horizontally in its lowest u 10 ms–1
position, where l is the length of string. The
maximum centripetal acceleration of the bob during
its motion will be

3g
(1) g (2) 45 m
4
5
(3) 2g (4)
4g
8. If a particle moves along a path as shown in the
figure. It is given that the speed of the particle
60 m
along circular path is v0 and that along the
(1) 20 ms–1 (2) 10 ms–1
straight path is v0, then the ratio of average speed
of the particle to its speed on the straight path is (3) 30 ms–1 (4) 15 ms–1
equal to
A 11. A ball is thrown up the inclined plane and the same
ball is thrown down with same speed from an
elevated point of the inclined plane. It is found that
O C the both projectiles attain maximum possible
B
ranges and are in ratio of 1 : 2. Then the angle of
inclination ‘’ of inclined plane is given by
D
3 2 1 1
(1) (2) (1) sin   (2) tan  
2 3 2 3

3  1 1
(3) (4) (3) sin   (4) tan  
2 2 3 2
(Space for Rough Work)

(2)
12. A boy is moving horizontally in an open trolley with (1) Increases by a factor of 2
some retardation. He throws a ball vertically up (2) Gets doubled
with respect to himself. During the course of
motion the ball (3) Decreases by a factor of 
(1) Will reach the boy 2
(4) Increases by a factor of
(2) Will fall down ahead of the boy 2
(3) Will fall down behind the boy 16. Three particles lying at the vertices of an equilateral
triangle move such that each one approaches the
(4) It depends on the magnitude of retardation other (next one) with constant speed 20 m/s, and
13. In a rotor, two blocks P and Q are at rest as seen consequently the size of triangle side decreases
in the frame of rotor, then incorrect statement is continuously. The rate of decrement of triangle side
length with time is

(1) 10 ms–1 (2) 20 ms–1
(3) 15 ms–1 (4) 30 ms–1
17. A block of mass m is moving with constant
P Q g
acceleration under the action of a horizontal
2
force equal to its weight on a rough horizontal
surface. Find the coefficient of friction between the
block and the surface.
(1) P is not at rest with respect to Q
1 1
(2) Q is not at rest with respect to P (1) (2)
2 3
(3) Angular speed of P with respect to Q is double
the angular speed of cylinder 1 2
(3) (4)
(4) Acceleration of P with respect to Q is non-zero 4 3
14. A particle is moving along a parabola y2 = 4x with 18. The velocity-time (v-t) graph of a particle moving in
constant speed 2 m/s. The radius of curvature of a straight line is as shown in the figure. The
the particles trajectory at the instant it passes av erage v elocity of the particle during first
through the origin. 6 seconds of its motion will be
y v (m/s)

15
x
O 10
5
t (s)
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
(1) 1 m (2) 2 m –5
(3) 3 m (4) 4 m – 10
15. A particle is moving in a circular orbit with the – 15
angular speed . If the period of revolution is
increased by a factor of  i.e. T = T and also
circumference of the orbit is also doubled, then, the (1) 5.0 ms–1 (2) 2.5 ms–1
centripetal acceleration. (3) 7.5 ms–1 (4) Zero

(Space for Rough Work)

(3)
19. A particle of mass m is moving along x-axis with 22. In a conical pendulum, bob of mass m attached to
initial velocity u iˆ and it is acted upon by a force, the string revolves with constant angular speed ,
 such that the radius of circular motion is half the
(F  gt iˆ) , where g is a constant. The time after string length. Tension in the string is
which particle changes its direction of motion will be

4mu 
(1)
g

2mu
(2)
g
m
8mu
(3) mg
g (1) mg (2)
2
(4) Will not change its direction of motion
20. A particle moving along curve whose equation is 2 mg
unknown and at an instant its velocity and (3) (4) 2 mg
3

acceleration are v  3i  4 j (ms –1 ) and 23. A body of mass 8 kg is hanging from another body
 of mass 12 kg. The combination is being pulley by
a  2i  j (ms–2). The radius of curvature of the a string with an acceleration of 2.2 m/s2. The tension
trajectory of the particle at this instant (in m) T1 and T2 will respectively (Use g = 9.8 m/s2)
11
(1) 5 (2) T1
10
125 11 12 kg a
(3) (4)
11 5
T2
21. A chain containing 4 identical links as shown is
pulled vertically up by applying a constant force 8 kg
equal to 12 N. The interaction force between 2nd
and 3rd link is (g = 10 m/s2) (1) 200 N, 80 N (2) 220 N, 90 N
12 N (3) 240 N, 96 N (4) 260 N, 96 N
24. A block of mass 25 kg is fastened from the rigid
support on the inclined plane with the ideal string.
1 The tension in the string will be (g = 10 m/s2)
Mass of each link is 200 g
2

3 Rough, = 0.8

4
 = 37º
(1) 3 N (2) 6 N (1) Zero (2) 32 N
(3) 8 N (4) 4 N (3) 30 N (4) 20 N
(Space for Rough Work)

(4)
25. For the system of two blocks shown in the figure,
the horizontal force to be applied on the m2, so
that two blocks can move together with maximum 2k
acceleration (g = 10 m/s2)
m
 = 0.2
m1 m1 = 2 kg
k
F m2 = 6 kg
smooth
3m
(1) 4 N (2) 8 N (1) 2g, 2g (2) 3g, g
(3) 12 N (4) 16 N (3) 3g, 0 (4) g, g
26. In the system shown, when the acceleration of two 29. If the whole system shown is in equilibrium, then
blocks is same, the spring force is equal to the ratio of normal contact force by the vertical
walls on the spheres 1 and 2 is (all surfaces are
m = 2 kg
k
m = 3 kg smooth)
20 N

k = 200 Nm–1 smooth (1)


surface

(1) 2 N (2) 4 N R
(2)
M
(3) 6 N (4) 8 N
r
27. Wedge is restricted to move along the inclined m
plane with an acceleration of 4 m/s2. Normal
contact force between the block and the wedge will
be (g = 10 m/s2) M
(1) 1 : 1 (2)
m
5 kg
R M
(3) (4)
wedge r M m
a = 4 m/s 2 30. A block of mass m is in equilibrium on a rough
inclined plane making an angle  <  where  is
the angle of repose. The contact force acting on
30º
the block will be

(1) 50 N (2) 40 N
(3) 30 N (4) 20 N
 = coefficient
28. In the system shown, there are two blocks of friction
interconnected with an ideal spring and the whole
system is suspended from a ceiling through another 
ideal spring. Spring constants are indicated in the
diagram. Due to some defect the lower spring (1) mg (2) mg cos
breaks, the acceleration of m and 3m are (3) mg sin (4) mg sec
(Space for Rough Work)

(5)
[ PART - B : CHEMISTRY]
31. Among the following, 1st ionisation energy is 38. Among the following elements, which one has
maximum for highest group number?
(1) Li (2) Mg (1) Ag (2) Ge
(3) Ne (4) F (3) Ba (4) Kr
32. Electron in H-atom is present in fourth excited 39. What is the magnetic behaviour and number of
state. In which orbit, electron will reside after unpaired electrons in Co3+ ion?
emitting a photon of energy 2.86 eV? (1) Diamagnetic, 0 (2) Paramagnetic, 4
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) Paramagnetic, 3 (4) Paramagnetic, 5
(3) 3 (4) 1 40. In what volume ratio should 1.2 M NaOH be mixed
33. If an element with atomic number 120 is with 0.8 M H2SO4 to obtain neutral solution?
discovered, then what would be its IUPAC symbol (1) 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 1
and location?
(3) 4 : 3 (4) 1 : 2
(1) Ubu, p-block (2) Ubn, s-block
41. Electron affinity depends on
(3) Uub, d-block (4) Ubb, p-block
(1) Size
34. Some elements undergo different processes that
are given below. Which of the following process (2) Zeff (Effective nuclear charge)
would result in formation of species having (3) Half-filled and full-filled electronic configuration
maximum radius? (4) All of these

e
(1) F 
 e
(2) K   42. Which of the following elements is most metallic?

(1) Rb (2) Cr
 e  e
(3) Cl 
 (4) Na 
 (3) Sn (4) Sr
35. 100 ml of 0.5 M Cd(NO3)2 is mixed with 150 ml of 43. W hat is the frequency of the spectral line
0.2 M AgNO3. The molarity of NO3– ion in resulting corresponding to transition 5  3 in H-atom?
solution is
(R = 1.1 × 107 m–1)
(1) 0.40 M (2) 0.26 M
(1) 1.46 × 1015 Hz (2) 2.86 × 1013 Hz
(3) 0.52 M (4) 0.47 M
(3) 2.3 × 1014 Hz (4) 12.78 × 1012 Hz
36. Select the incorrect statement.
44. A metal hydride contains 10% hydrogen by mass.
(1) Electronegativity of S is less than that of N The equivalent weight of metal is
(2) Al2O3 is amphoteric oxide whereas MgO is (1) 12 (2) 15
basic oxide
(3) 20 (4) 9
(3) Electron affinity of N is more than that of C
45. Which of the following has maximum number of
(4) Ionisation energy of P is more than that of S both angular and radial nodes?
37. 9 g of Al reacts with 20 g NaOH in excess water. (1) 5d (2) 4p
The volume of H2 gas released at STP is
(3) 3p (4) 3s
2 Al  2NaOH  2H2O  2NaAlO2  3H2 46. Variable oxidation state is shown by
(1) 7.46 L (2) 5.6 L (1) F (2) Ca
(3) 16.8 L (4) 11.2 L (3) Cl (4) Li
(Space for Rough Work)

(6)
47. Sodium nitrate (NaNO3) decomposes on heating into 54. The ratio of velocity of electron in 3rd orbit of He+
sodium nitrite (NaNO2) and oxygen gas. 21.25 g of ion to that of 2nd orbit of Li2+ ion is
sodium nitrate produces 3 g oxygen gas. What is (1) 3 : 2 (2) 27 : 8
the percentage purity of sample?
(3) 4 : 9 (4) 81 : 16
(1) 100% (2) 75%
55. A compound contains 23.8% C, 5.9% H and 70.3%
(3) 90% (4) 55% Cl (Chlorine) by mass. What is the empirical
48. Electronegativity is minimum for formula of compound?
(1) Cl (2) N (1) CH2Cl2 (2) CHCl3

(3) O (4) Si (3) C2H3Cl (4) CH3Cl


56. Argon has two isotopes 39Ar and 41Ar and their
49. A sample of H-atoms is present in n2 energy level.
relative abundance is 55% and 45% respectively.
It makes transition to another energy level n1 and
What is the average atomic mass of Ar?
10 different spectral lines were observed. What is
the maximum difference in orbit angular momentum (1) 39.9 u (2) 40.2 u
among these transition? (3) 39.4 u (4) 40.6 u
h 2h 57. The graph between KE of photoelectron and
(1) (2) frequency of light () is plotted
 
3h 5h KE
(3) (4)
2 2
50. What is the de Broglie’s wavelength associated
with particle moving with velocity 0.66 × 108 m/s?
(Take m = 6 × 10–31 kg, h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js)
(1) 0.16 Å (2) 2 Å
3.2 ( × 1010 Hz)
(3) 1.1 Å (4) 1.6 Å
51. Which of the following contains maximum number Using above data, which of the following radiation
of P-atoms? can emit photoelectron?

(1) 0.2 moles of Ca3(PO4)2 (1) 3 × 109 Hz (2) 4 × 109 Hz


(3) 4.5 × 1010 Hz (4) 2.5 × 1010 Hz
(2) 3.01 × 1023 molecules of P2S4
58. Arrange 3d, 5s, 6s, 4f orbitals in increasing order
(3) 10 mL of 0.1 M H3PO2
of energy.
(4) 0.5 moles of PS2 (1) 3d < 5s < 6s < 4f (2) 3d < 4f < 5s < 6s
52. What is the percentage by mass of solute in (3) 5s = 3d < 4f < 6s (4) 5s = 6s < 3d < 4f
2 molal H3PO4 solution?
59. What is the n-factor of KClO3?
(1) 16.38% (2) 24.12%
(1) 6 (2) 4
(3) 43.01% (4) 50%
(3) 3 (4) 1
53. Which of the following radiation has minimum 60. 50 g of Li2CO3 gave 29.7 g of CO2. The amount of
energy? Li2O formed is (Atomic weight of Li = 7)
(1) Yellow (2) Green (1) 16.7 g (2) 20.3 g
(3) Orange (4) Blue (3) 27 g (4) 31.4 g
(Space for Rough Work)

(7)
[ PART - C : MATHEMATICS]
z3 67. If  is non-real and   2017 1, then the value of
61. If w  and |w| = 1, then z lies on
2z  i 2
 3  .....  2015 |
3|1     is
(1) A straight line (2) A circle 1
(1) 3 (2)
(3) A parabola (4) An ellipse 3
1
3 (3) 9 (4)
62. For z   4 if m 1 and m 2 be the least and 9
z
68. If z1 = cos + i sin and 1, z1, z12, z13, ....., z1n – 1
greatest value of |z|, then the value of m2 – m1 is are vertices of a regular polygon such that
equal to
Im( z12 ) 3 1
 , then the least possible value of
(1) 2 7 (2) 4 Re( z1) 2
n is
(3) 2 5 (4) 10
(1) 12 (2) 24
63. Let  and  be real and z be a complex number. (3) 36 (4) 48
If z2 + z +  = 0 has two distinct roots lying on
69. If the roots of the quadratic equation
the line Re(z) = 4, then the exhaustive range of x 2 + px + q = 0 are tan 60º and tan 15º
 is respectively, then the value of p2 – q2 – 6q – 1 is
(1) (–, 4) (2) (4, ) equal to

(3) (16, ) (4) (–, 16) (1) 0 (2) 1


(3) 2 (4) –1
ei 
64. The modulus of e is equal to 70. If  and  are the roots of equation x2 + 7x + 4 = 0,
3 3
(1) sin (2) cos    1    1
then the value of expression     is
(3) esin (4) ecos    1    1
equal to
65. The curve represented by Re(z2 – 2z) = 15, is
1 3
(1) A straight line (1) (2)
8 8
(2) A circle
5 7
(3) An ellipse (3) (4)
8 8
(4) A hyperbola 71. If one root of f(x) = 0 is less than 1 and the other
is greater than 2, where f(x) = x2 – ax + 4, then a
66. Let ABCDEF be a regular hexagon whose centre
cannot be
is at the origin. (A, B, C, D, E and F are in
anticlockwise direction). If the coordinates of A be 9 11
(1) (2)
1 + i then C lies in 2 2
(1) First quadrant (2) Second quadrant 13 15
(3) (4)
(3) Third quadrant (4) Fourth quadrant 2 2
(Space for Rough Work)

(8)
72. Let a, b, c  R and a  0 be such that 78. Six boys are to be seated in a row. The number of
(a + 4c) 2 < 4b 2, then the quadratic equation ways in which any 3 boys are not seated in the
ax2 + bx + c = 0, has places specified to them, is
(1) No real root (1) 10 (2) 20
 1 1 (3) 40 (4) 60
(2) Exactly one real root lying in   , 
 2 2
79. Consider N = 33  4 3  6 3, then the number of
 1 1 divisors of N, which are perfect cubes, is
(3) Exactly two real roots lying in   , 
 2 2 (1) 10 (2) 12
1 (3) 16 (4) 6
(4) One root is less than  and the other root
2 80. A rectangle with sides of lengths 15 and 13 units
1 is divided into squares of sides of unit length. Then
is greater than
2 number of rectangles which can be formed with the
73. The suitable interval of  for which equation sides of odd length, is
x4 + 2(a + 1)x2 + 9a – 5 = 0 has exactly two real
(1) 553 (2) 1258
roots, is
(1) (–, 1] (2) [6, ) (3) 3136 (4) 4270
81. If 4 digit numbers are to be formed with the digits
5   5
1, 2, 2, 3. Then the sum of all such numbers, is
(3)  ,   (4)  , 
 9   9
(1) 26664 (2) 16664
74. If one root of the equation (l – m)x2 + lx + 1 = 0
(l  m, l, m  R), is three times of other then m (3) 36664 (4) 25664
may be 82. The number of ways in which a composite number
(1) 4 (2) 3 N = 22  32  42  52  62  72 can be resolved into two
(3) 2 (4) 1 factors which are prime to each other is
75. If  is the smallest real root of the equation (1) 27 (2) 26
2x3 – 9x2 + 21 = 0, then the value of [], where [.] (3) 25 (4) 23
denotes the greatest integer function, is
83. The letters of the word MIRACLE are written in all
(1) –3 (2) –2
possible orders and these words are written out as
(3) –1 (4) 0 in a dictionary. Then the rank of the word
76. If  R–and ( – 2)x2 + 8x +  + 4 < 0,  x  R, MIRACLE, is
then  cannot be
(1) 4058 (2) 4034
(1) –12 (2) –10
(3) 3938 (4) 3338
(3) –8 (4) –6
84. The number of different quadrilaterals that can be
77. The number of words that can be formed using the
letters of the word ‘PRASANNA’ by taking all the formed by using the vertices of a regular decagon,
letters, so that neither two A’s nor two N’s are such that quadrilaterals has no side common with
together, is the given decagon, is
(1) 1400 (2) 1200 (1) 210 (2) 105
(3) 1060 (4) 960 (3) 72 (4) 25
(Space for Rough Work)

(9)
85. The number of all the four element subsets of the 88. The number of different words that can be formed
set {a1, a2, a3, ....., an} which contain a3 but do out of the letters of the word PREPARATION taken
not contain an – 3, (n  6) is four at a time, is

(1) n – 2C (2) n – 2C (1) 1680 (2) 2454


2 3

(3) n – 2C (4) nC –2 (3) 3024 (4) 4126


4 4
89. The number of positive integral solutions satisfying
86. The number of ways in which three different rings
the equation (x1 + x2 + x3)(y1 + y2) = 55, is
can be worn in four fingers with atmost one ring in
each finger is (1) 180 (2) 200

(1) 64 (2) 81 (3) 240 (4) 220

(3) 4 (4) 24 90. A has 4 cards and B has 12 cards. All the
16 cards being distinct. Then the number of ways
87. The number of positive integral solutions of in which they can exchange their cards, if each
abcd = 210, is keeps his initial number of cards, is
(1) 16 (2) 64 (1) 1819 (2) 1920
(3) 256 (4) 1028 (3) 2021 (4) 2122



(Space for Rough Work)

(10)
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 360 Sample Paper for Power Step Time : 3 Hrs.


[JEE(Main & Advanced)]
Test - 1 (Objective)

ANSWERS
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
1. (1) 31. (3) 61. (2)
2. (3) 32. (2) 62. (2)
3. (2) 33. (2) 63. (3)
4. (2) 34. (3) 64. (4)
5. (2) 35. (3) 65. (4)
6. (3) 36. (3) 66. (2)
7. (3) 37. (4) 67. (1)
8. (2) 38. (4) 68. (2)
9. (3) 39. (2) 69. (1)
10. (2) 40. (3) 70. (2)
11. (3) 41. (4) 71. (1)
12. (2) 42. (1) 72. (2)
13. (3) 43. (3) 73. (4)
14. (2) 44. (4) 74. (4)
15. (4) 45. (1) 75. (2)
16. (4) 46. (3) 76. (4)
17. (1) 47. (2) 77. (4)
18. (2) 48. (4) 78. (3)
19. (2) 49. (2) 79. (2)
20. (3) 50. (1) 80. (3)
21. (2) 51. (2) 81. (1)
22. (3) 52. (1) 82. (4)
23. (3) 53. (3) 83. (1)
24. (1) 54. (3) 84. (4)
25. (4) 55. (4) 85. (2)
26. (4) 56. (1) 86. (4)
27. (2) 57. (3) 87. (3)
28. (2) 58. (1) 88. (2)
29. (1) 59. (4) 89. (3)
30. (1) 60. (2) 90. (1)

–1–

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