1) If an ATSU issues a clearance to cl i1nb to FL 150 to the pilot of an aircraft ZS-ABC, a typical radio

transmission would be:

1. "ABC, climb as cleared in current flight plan. Report commencing climb."
2. ' ABC, climb approved to flight level 150. Report established in the climb."
3. "ABC, climb to and maintain level 150."
4. ' ABC cleared to climb level 150. Report maintaining

2) An ALERFA phase is:

1. A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
2. A situation wherein uncertainty exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
3. A situation wherein there is reasonable certainty that an aircraft and its occupants are threatened by
grave and imminent danger or require immediate assistance.

3) You are the PIC of an aircraft taking off from FAOR (OR Tambo International Airport, Johannesburg).

You have been instructed by the controller to expedite your climb.

While still on the upwind leg, you notice a light aeroplane flying in your direction at about 500 ft above you.

Which of the following actions would be most correct?

1. level off and advise ATC as soon as possible

2. Alter heading to the left to avoid a coll ision
3. Continue the climb, for now, and advise the ATC immediately
4. Descend and keep a lookout for the aeroplane

4) In which of the following FI R♦s should IATA AFI regional IFPB be applied:
1. Atlantico
2. Madagascar
3. Kinshasa
4. Melbourne

5) Choose the correct readback option in response to the following ATC Instruction.

"ABC, King Shaka Ground, Start-up approved, time 51, information Juliet is current QNH 1017, runway 03 left"

1. "Start-up approved runway 03 left, ABC"

2. "Start-up approved, time 51, runway 03 left, ABC"

3. Start-up approved, information Juliet, QNH 1017, runway 03 left, ABC

6) With regard to the 5 golden rules to an emergency ,the reason for climbing is:
1. confess your predicament to any ATSU to enable the organisation to assist while there is still time
2. comply with instruct ions and advice given and assist t he ATSU to cont rol communication on the
frequency in use.
3. for improved direction-finding and radar coverage
4. slow down and select power for maximum endurance
7) Select both correct options to obtain the allocated mark.

When should the radio phraseology report "long final" be made

1. On a straighl-in approach at 7KM from touchdown if the aircraft is configured for landing.
2. At a distance of 15 NM ii the runway is in sight.
3. 13 NM from touch down.
4. On a straight in approach 8 NM from touch down.
5. When an aircraft turns onto final approach at a distance greater than 4 NM from touch down.

8) Select both correct option to obtain the correct allocated [Link] south Africa an ATS flight plan
may ordinarlly be filled
1. In flight, on the radio frequency of the responsible ATSU.
2. By fax or telephone.,
3. By submitting a scanned copy via email.
4. via the A TNS Internet " File 2fly" system,
5. Via the ATNS smart phone app.

9) The term used to describe the require1nent for a receiving station to confi rm correct receipt of a radio
message by repeating it is?
1. ACKNOWLEDGE
2. AGAIN or REPEAT
3. BROADCAST
4. GO AHEAD
5. READBACK

10) An airway is always classified as:

1. Advisory airspace.
2. Controlled airspace.
3. Class "F" airspace.
4. Class "A" airspace.
5. Information airspace.

11) A Traffic Information Broadcast by Aircraft (TIBA) should

1. Only be made in the Lowveld Military Airspace Area (LASS) and the Johannesburg Special Rules Area.
2. Not be made if the height of an aircraft is referenced to flight levels (1013.25hPa).
3. Be made at regular intervals to help avoid a collision between aircraft outside of controlled airspace.
4. Only be made on 124.4 Mhz or the applicable ATSU frequency

12) A hand-held aircraft microphone:

1. should be held close enough to the speaker's mouth that it touches or almost touches the upper lip.
2. is a compulsory element of an airborne radio installation.
3. generates a double-sideband signal that is transmitted via a half-length dipole antenna.
4. can only be used in conjunct ion with a speaker installation.
13) If an ATSU provides a pilot with information about another aircraft and he has the traffic in sight, the

pilot acknowledge this in his radio transmission by using the phrase:

1. I have a visual
2. Traffic in sight
3. Visual contact
4. Request permission to engage
5. Roger. Identified

14) An ATC request an aircraft to pass a radio 1nessage to another aircraft ids out of the reception range

of the ATSU trans1nitter the term used to describe this is:

1. Moving.
2. Passing.
3. Relay.
4. Please tell him ....

15) When a pilot aborts a take-off after being instructed by an Air Traffic Controller, the pilot's radio response
will contain the phrase:
1. Roger
2. Stopping
3. Aborting

16) Select the most correct options from the list.

Which of the following frequency bands are not used in aeronautical radiotelephony?

1. VHF
2. HF
3. MF
4. LF

17) Select both correct o ptions from the list Which of the following frequency bands are not used in
aeronautical radiotelephony?
1. LF
2. HF
3. VLF
4. VHF
5. SHF

18) An aircraft that experiences actual or suspected radio communication failure must always squawk:
1. 7500
2. 7600
3. 7700
4. the last assigned t ransponder code unless the situation dictates otherwise
19) The readback procedure may be suspended in the following circumstances:
1. When an emergency has occurred
2. Airspace congestion
3. When an aircraft has landed

20) Confirm the following statement is True or False:

Day-light fluorescent wands, table tennis bats or gloves shall be used for all signaling by all participating
ground staff during daylight hours. Illuminating wands shall be used at night of low

visibility.

1. TRUE
2. FALSE

21) If you are a pilot in command of an aircraft that is inbound to a large international airport, which of the

ATS units would you contact to obtain your parking bay number?

1. Ground control
2. Apron control
3. Surface control
4. Movement cont rol

22) he term STANDBY means:

1. Reduce your rate of speech
2. Stop transmitting for 10 minutes
3. Wait and I will call you
4. Slow down and say again

23) An intercepted aircraft shall attempt to 1nake radio contact with the intercepting aircra ft on which

frequency?

1. 124.4 Mhz
2. 123.45 MHz
3. 126.9 MHz
4. 124.8 MHz
5. 121.5 MHz

24) Which radio beacon is identified by the following morse code sequence:

1. VOR

2. GVR
3. GRM

4. GRV

25) The radiotelephony phraseology "break break" indicates

1. The separation between messages transmitted to different aircraft.
2. The interruption between portions of a message transmitted to the same aircraft.
3. An interruption to clarify a radio message.
4. A repetition for clarity.

26) Choose the most correct answer.

If an aircraft with radio communication failure is inbound to an unmanned airfield in VMC, the pilot should:

1. divert to t he closest suitable aerodrome.

2. fly as slow as safely poss ible to allow more time for proper lookout.
3. execute a precautionary landing in a safe area is unsure of the exact position of other aircraft.
4. switch on landing lights and join overhead the airfield

27) What is the function of ATIS?

1. To provide Automatic Traffic Indications

2. To provide automated radio information services

3. To provide flight information services at unmanned airfields

4. To coordinate the flow of traffic at an airfield

28) What are the electromagnetic waves propagating along the surface of the earth?

1. Sky wave

2. Direct wave

3. Ground wave

29) Select both correct answers to obtain the allocated mark.

When a pi lot suspects radio communications failure , the actions to be taken include:

1. Fly parallel with and to the right of the route before attending to the communication problem.
2. Transmit a blind distress or urgency call.
3. Attempt to establish communications with another aircraft or ATSU .
4. First attempt to establish contact with the relevant ATSU on another appropriate frequency

30) When compared to VHF radio transmissions, HF communications

1. require less attention from the radio operator.

2. are not useful in modern aviation radiotelephony.

3. are unlikely to be successful at night.

4. are less predictable and reliable.

31) The signal to remove chocks is?

1. arms down, palms outwards, move hands outwards .

2. raise arm , with fist clenched , horizontally in front of face, then extend fingers .

3. hands crossed in front of face , palms outwards, move arms outwards.

32) The radiotelephony code to indicate the magnetic bearing from a station is

1. QDR

2. QNE

3. QOM

4. QTF

5. Radial outbound

33) Select both correct options to obtain the allocated mark.

When there is an emergency on board an aircraft, the pilot should always exercise the following principles:

1. Aviate, navigate and communicate

2. Speak slowly and clearly in radiotelephony transmissions

3. Continue on the present flight path and obtain directional guidance

4. Climb for improved reception and confess your predicament to an ATSU

5. Make a "PAN"call to ATC and then talk to passengers to promote a calm environment

34) The condition that does not require the emmidiate assistance , but concerns with the safety of aircraft or
person on board is classified as:

1. Urgency

2. Mayday

3. Distress

4. Pan Pan
35) Select the most correct option from the list .

South African airspace is primarily divided into :

1. More than one sector containing various FIRs.

2. One FIR containing various sectors.

3. Three FIRs

4. Controlled, Prohibited , Danger and Restricted airspace.

36) Complete the sentence .

Select both correct options to obtain the allocated mark.

If a pilot lands at an unmanned aerodrome after a flight for which SAR notification was requested, the arrival
report to ATC should include the

1. alternate aerodrome.

2. time of arrival.

3. remaining fuel endurance .

4. aircraft colour and markings .

5. departure aerodrome.

37) Select both correct options to obtain the allocated mark.

When reading back information obtained by ATIS, the pilot's transmission shall include the

1. RVR.
2. phonetic information identifier.
3. transition level.
4. transponder squawk code.
5. inbound clearance

38) The term used to describe an airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial waters of
a state, within which the flight of aircraft is restricted in accordance with certain specified conditions is:

1. FAP

2. FAR

3. FIR

4. FAD

39) As soon that you are the pilot of the aircract ZS XYZ waiting for take off clearance the controller ask you
“ XYZ confirm you are ready for immidiate dispature “ .if you agree your response should be .
1. Affirmative, ZS-XYZ

2. Yes, ZS-XYZ

3. Confirm, ZS-XYZ

4. Affirm, ZS-XYZ

Notes other question not completed…..

40) When two wave form start from and cross zero axis at the same time , the are said to be ;

ANS: INPHASE

41) the duties of a pilot in SA in respect of a TIBA procedures are to ,

ANS: Maintain a listening watch and breadcast regular position reports on the appropriate frequency

42) .the reply to a test transmission should be as follow.

ANS: Identificstion of a/c , identification of aeronautical station replying and information regarding readability
of a/c

43) . The IATA IFBP promotes TCAS equipped aircraft operatingin the AFI region to select TA/RA mode

ANS: At maximum range

44) when transmitting blind

ANS: The message should always stansmitted twice

45) . As good operating principle

ANS : Switch of all the radios before starting the engine or shutting it down

46) An aircraft intercepted another aircraft which is equipped with SSR transponder. Which code the
intercepted aircraft will use
1. 7700
2. 7600
3. 7500

47) ATSU needs to be informed if there is a change in the filed Flight plan. For a uncontrolled VFR flight, the
changes need to be informed
1. No need for any information
2. If there is a change in pilot in command
3. If there is a change in endurance and person on board
48) IFBP airspace is a
1. FIR
2. Class A
3. Airways
i am not sure
4. AFI reason