08-06-2025

6001CMD30302225001J MD

PHYSICS

1) A cylindrical conductor is placed near another positively charged conductor. The net charge
acquired by the cylindrical conductor will be:-

(1) Positive only

(2) Negative only
(3) Zero
(4) Either positive or negative

2) Find the value of x for large metallic plates :-

(1) –Q
(2) 2Q

(3)

(4) 3Q

3) A and B are two identical spheres charge on them is 7μC and 1μC Now both are connected by a

wire. Calculate flow of charge from A to B

(1) 8μC
(2) 4μC
(3) 3μC
(4) 1.5μC

4) Three +ve charges of equal magnitude 'q' are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of
side 'ℓ'. How can the system of charges be placed in equilibrium ?

(1) By placing a charge at the centroid of the triangle

(2) By placing a charge at the centroid of the triangle
(3) By placing a charge Q = q at a distance ℓ from all the three charges
By placing a charge Q = –q above the plane of the triangle at a distance ℓ from all the three
(4)
charges
5) Two infinite linear charges are placed parallel to each other at a distance 0.3 m from each other.
If the linear charge density on each is 5 μC/m, then the force acting on a unit length of each linear
charge will be :-

(1) 1.5 N/m

(2) 3.25 N/m
(3) 4.5 N/m
(4) 7.5 N/m

6) A total charge Q is broken in two parts Q1 and Q2 and they are placed at a distance R from each
other. The maximum force of repulsion between them will occur, when :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A small ball of mass m having charge +q is suspended by a string in a region of uniform

horizontal electric field E. The tension in the string will be :-

(1) mg
(2) qE
(3) mg + qE

(4)

8) Electric charges q, q, -2q are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle ABC of side . The
magnitude of electric dipole moment of the system is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) In the electric field of charge Q, another charge is carried from A to B, A to C, A to D and A to E,

then work done will be
(1) Minimum along the path AB
(2) Minimum along the path AD
(3) Minimum along the path AE
(4) Zero along each path

10) A regular hexagon of side 20 cm has a charge 10 μC at each of its vertices. Calculate the
potential at the centre of the hexagon.

(1) 2.7 × 106 V

(2) 5.4 × 106 V
(3) 1.35 × 106 V
(4) 5.4 × 105 V

11) A square surface of side L meters in the plane of the paper is placed in uniform electric field E
(volts/m) acting along the same plane at an angle with the horizontal side of the square as shown
in figure. The electric flux linked to the surface in units of volt-m, is :-

(1) Zero
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) Electric field at the centre 'O' of a semicircle of radius 'a' having linear charge density is given
as :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Two point charges +3µC and +8µC repel each other with a force of 40 N. If a charge of –5µC is
added to each of them, then the force between them will become :-

(1) 15N
(2) 10 N
(3) 20 N
(4) 25 N

14) Vector form of coulomb's force :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Eight point charges having magnitude q are fixed at vertices of a cube. The electric flux through

square surface ABCD of the cube is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

16) The electric potential at point P distance r from the centre of an electric dipole is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) n conducting small drops of the same size are charged to V volt each. If they coalesce to form a
single large drop, then its potential will be :-

(1) (V/n)
(2) Vn
(3) Vn1/3
(4) Vn2/3

18) If potential at centre of charged ring is V0 then electric field at its centre will be (assume radius
= R)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

19)

When a 2µC charge is carried from point A point B the amount of workdone is 50 µJ. What is the
potential difference (VA – VB)

(1) –25 V
(2) 50 V
(3) –50 V
(4) 250 V

20) Find the electric potential at center of a square from given below :-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Variation of potential with distance from centre of uniformly charged non conducting sphere:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
22) The potential at a distance R/2 from the centre of a conducting sphere will be :-

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4)

23)

If then flux through the shaded area of a cube is :-

2
(1) E0a
(2) Zero
3
(3) E0a
3
(4) – E0a

24)

The electric field in a region of space is given by . The electric flux due to this field
through an area 2m2 lying in the YZ plane, in S.I. units is :

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3)
(4)

25) Electric field at center will be:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

26) Which one of the following pattern of electrostatic line of force can't possible :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Three large parallel planes have uniform surface charge densities as shown in the figure. What is

the electric field at P ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) If an insulated non-conducting sphere of radius R has uniform charge density ρ. The electric field
at a distance r from the centre of sphere (r < R) will be :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) The electric field due to a uniformly charged non-conducting sphere of radius R as a function of
the distance from its centre is represented graphically by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A circle of radius R is drawn in a uniform electric field E as shown in the fig. VA, VB, VC and VD are

respectively the potentials of points A, B, C and D on the circle then :-

(1) VA > VC, VB = VD

(2) VA < VC, VB = VD
(3) VA = VC, VB < VD
(4) VA = VC, VB > VD

31) A thin spherical shell of radius R has a charge Q spread uniformly over its surface. Which of the
following graphs most closely represents the electric field E(r) produced by the shell in the range
, where r is the distance from the centre of the shell?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A Gaussian surface in the Fig. is shown by dotted line. The electric field on the surface will be :-

(1) Due to q1 and q2 only

(2) Due to q2 only
(3) zero
(4) Due to all

33) Electric field strength due to a dipole at a point r on the axial position from the centre of the
dipole having dipole moment p is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
34) A dipole of dipole moment 'p' is placed in a non-uniform electric field along x-axis. Electric field
is increasing at the rate of 1 V/m2 then the force on dipole is :-

(1) 0
(2) 2p
(3) p/2
(4) p

35) The electric potential and field at a point due to an electric dipole are proportional to :-

(1) r, r–1
(2) r–1, r–2
(3) r–2, r–3
(4) r–2, r–2

36) Two concentric conducting spheres are of radii r1 and r2 . The outer sphere is given a charge q.

The charge q' on the inner sphere will be (inner sphere is grounded)

(1) q
(2) -q

(3)

(4) zero

37) Figure shows a closed surface which intersects a conducting sphere. If a positive charge is
placed at the point P, the net flux of the electric field through the closed surface

(1) will remain zero

(2) will become positive
(3) will become negative
(4) will become undefined

38) Some equipotential surfaces are shown in the figure below. What can you say about the
magnitude of the electric field?

(1) 200 V/m

(2) 100 V/m
(3) 50 V/m
(4) 400 V/m

39) An electric dipole of dipole moment is lying along a uniform electric field . The work done in
rotating the dipole by 90° is :-

(1) 2pE
(2) pE
(3)

(4)

40) Assertion :- If more electric field lines leave a Gaussian surface than those which enter into it,
then the net charge enclosed by that surface will be positive.
Reason :- If the net flux passing through a Gaussian surface is zero, then the net charge enclosed by
that surface will be zero.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

41) A Body moves 6 m north. 8 m east and 10m vertically upwards, what is its resultant
displacement from initial position:-

(1)
(2) 10m

(3)
m
(4) 10 × 2m

42)

If a particle is moving with uniform velocity then :-

I. Average speed = |average velocity|
II. Instantenous speed = |Instantenous velocity|

III. Instantenous speed = Average speed

(1) Only I is correct
(2) Only II is correct
(3) I and III are correct
(4) All are correct

43) If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance with v1 speed and 3/5th distance with v2 speed, then
average speed is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) A stone dropped from the top of the tower touches ground in 4 sec. The height of tower is
about:-

(1) 80 m
(2) 40 m
(3) 20 m
(4) 160 m

45) A body is released from the top of a tower of height h. It takes t sec to reach the ground. Where
will be the ball after time t/2 second.

(1) At h/2 from the ground

(2) At h/4 from the ground
(3) Depends upon mass and volume of the body
(4) At 3h/4 from the ground

CHEMISTRY

1) Although +3 is the characteristic oxidation state for lanthanoids but cerium also shows +4
oxidation state because_______.
A. it has variable ionisation enthalpy
B. it has a tendency to attain noble gas configuration
C. it has a tendency to attain ƒ configuration
0

D. it resembles Pb4+
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) B and D only

(2) C and D only
(3) B and C only
(4) A and D only
2) Assertion : Sepration of Zr and Hf is difficult.
Reason : Because Zr and Hf lie in the same group of the periodic table.

(1) Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true and Reason is flase
(4) Assertion and Reason are flase

3) The transition elements have a general electronic configuration

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) Which of the following element is transition metal ?

(1) Pt
(2) Zn
(3) Hg
(4) Cd

5) Statement-1 : The spin only magnetic moment of Sc3+ is 1.73 BM.

Statement-2 : The spin only magnetic moment (in BM) of an ion is equal to where, n is
the number of unpaired electrons present in the ion.

(1) If both statement are true and the statement-2 is a correct explanation of statement-1.
(2) If both statement are true and the statement-2 is not a correct explanation of statement-1.
(3) If statement-1 is true but the statement-2 is false.
(4) If statement-1 is false but the statement-2 is true.

6) Which of the following Lanthanoid ion is paramagnetic ?

(1) Yb2+
(2) Lu3+
(3) Ce4+
(4) Gd3+

7) Which of the following belong to actinoids series :-

(1) Y
(2) Ta
(3) U
(4) Pm

8) Name the gas that can readily decolourise acidified solution

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) Because of lanthanoid contraction, which of the following pairs of elements have nearly same
atomic radii ? (Numbers in the parenthesis are atomic numbers)

(1) Zr (40) and Hf (72)

(2) Zr (40) and Ta (73)
(3) Ti (22) and Zr (40)
(4) Zr (40) and Nb (41)

10) On addition of small amount of KMnO4 to concentrated H2SO4, a green oily compound is obtained
which is highly explosive in nature the compound is.

(1) Mn2O7
(2) MnO2
(3) MnSO4
(4) Mn2O3

11) Interstitial compounds are formed when small atoms are trapped inside the crystal lattice of
metals. Which of the following is not the characteristic property of interstitial compounds?

(1) They have high melting points in comparison to pure metals.

(2) They are very hard
(3) They retain metallic conductivity
(4) They are chemically very reactive

12) Which of the following is incorrectly match?

Catalyst Process

(1) V2O5 Contact process

(2) CuCl2 deacon process

(3) Finely divided Fe Vegetable oil to ghee

(4) TiCl4 + Al(CH3)3 Zieglar Natta Catalyst

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) Which element do you expect to have the highest melting point ?

(1) La
(2) W
(3) Os
(4) Pt

14) In general, the transition elements exhibit their highest oxidation states in their compounds with
elements like–

(1) C
(2) S
(3) S and P
(4) F and O

15)
pH values x and y can be

(1) 4 and 5
(2) 4 and 8
(3) 8 and 4
(4) 8 and 9

16) In acidic medium H2O2 changes K2Cr2O7 to CrO5 (deep violet solution in ether) having two peroxy
linkage. Oxidation number of Cr in CrO5 is

(1) +10
(2) –10
(3) +4
(4) +6

17) Which of the following statements is not true ?

(1) On passing H2S through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution, a milky colour is observed.
(2) Na2Cr2O7 is preferred over K2Cr2O7 in volumetric analysis.
(3) K2Cr2O7 solution in acidic medium is orange.
(4) K2Cr2O7 solution becomes yellow on increasing the pH beyond 7

18) The most stable oxidation state of Cr in aq. medium is –

(1) Cr2+
(2) Cr3+
(3) Cr4+
(4) Cr6+

19) Lanthanoid contraction is caused due to :

(1) The same effective nuclear charge from Ce to Lu

(2) The imperfect shielding on outer electrons by 4f electrons from the nuclear charge
(3) The appreciable shielding on outer electrons by 4f electrons from the nuclear charge
(4) The appreciable shielding on outer electrons by 5d electrons from the nuclear charge

20) Highest oxidation state +7 shown by which actinoids?

(1) Np, Pu
(2) Pa, U
(3) Am, Cm
(4) Cf, Es

21) Match the following column I and II

Column I Column II

P Azeotropic mixtures a (BP)th > (BP)Exp

Q +ve deviation non-ideal solution b ΔHmix = 0

R -ve deviation non-ideal solution c Constant boiling points

S Ideal solutions d H2O and HCl

(1) P-c; Q-d; R-a; S-b
(2) P-c; Q-a; R-d; S-b
(3) P-a; Q-b; R-c; S-d
(4) P-c; Q-b; R-a; S-d

22) Which among the following solution shows positive deviation from raoult's law?

(1) Nitric acid + water

(2) Chloroform + acetone
(3) Phenol + aniline
(4) Ethanol + water

23) At 40°C the vapour pressure of pure benzene and toluene are 160 mmHg and 60 mmHg
respectively. If equimolar above liquids are mixed at same temperature to form an ideal solution.
Then vapour pressure of solution will be

(1) 140 mm of Hg
(2) 110 mm of Hg
(3) 220 mm of Hg
(4) 100 mm of Hg

24) Assertion(A): Aquatic species are more comfortable in warm waters than cold waters.
Reason(R): KH values for both N2 and O2 decrease with increase of temperature.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

25) The solubility of gases in liquid is maximum at :-

(1) Low temperature and low pressure

(2) Low temperature and high pressure
(3) High temperature and high pressure
(4) High temperature and low pressure

26)

Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) 1 M H3PO4 = 3 N H3PO4

(2) 1 M H3PO3 = 3 N H3PO3
(3) 1 M H3BO3 = 1 N H3BO3
(4) 1 M Na2SO4 = 2 N Na2SO4

27) 100 mL of 0.1 M solution of H2SO4 is used to prepare 0.05N solution of H2SO4. What is the
volume of water added to prepare the desired solution :-

(1) 300 mL
(2) 400 mL
(3) 100 mL
(4) 200 mL

28) Dissolving 120 g of urea (mol. wt. 60) in 1000 g of water gave a solution of density 1.15 g/mL.
The molarity of the solution is :-

(1) 1.78 M
(2) 2.00 M
(3) 2.05 M
(4) 12.22 M

29)

In which mode of expression the concentration of a solution remains independent of temperature

(1) Molarity
(2) Normality
(3) Formality
(4) Molality

30) Assertion: Solubility of NaCl increases with temperature.

Reason: Dissolution of NaCl is an endothermic process.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.

31) The mole fraction of a solvent in aqueous solution of a solute is 0.8. The molality (in mol kg–1) of
the aqueous solution is

(1) 13.88 × 10–2

(2) 13.88 × 10–1
(3) 13.88
(4) 13.88 × 10–3

32) The molarity of pure water is :

(1) 50 M
(2) 18 M
(3) 55.5 M
(4) 100 M

33) V. P. of pure A pºA = 100 mmHg

V. P. of pure B pºB = 150 mmHg
A solution containing 2 moles A and 3 moles B will have total vapour pressure, approximately, on
condensation

(1) 135 mm
(2) 130 mm
(3) 140 mm
(4) 145 mm

34) Which among following salts shows decrease in solubility with increase in temperature?

(1) Na2SO4
(2) KNO3
(3) NaNO3
(4) KBr

35) Which among the following statement is correct.

A solution containing a non-volatile solute has a lower vapour pressure than pure solvent at
(1)
contant temperature
A solution containing a non-volatile solute has a higher vapour pressure than pure solvent at
(2)
contant temperature
A solution containing a non-volatile solute has equal vapour pressure than pure solvent at
(3)
contant temperature
 A solution containing a non-volatile solute has vapour pressure higher than pure solute at
(4)
contant temperature

36) Select the correct relationship for a solution of 2 liquids A & B.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All are correct

37) Mixture of volatile components A and B has total vapour pressure (in Torr) p = 254 – 119 xA
where xA is mole fraction of A in mixture. Hence and are (in Torr)

(1) 254, 119

(2) 119, 254
(3) 135, 254
(4) 119, 373

38) If C2H5OH and H2O solution is example of non-ideal solution then which graphical representation
is correct ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

39) One mole of non volatile solute is dissolved in two moles of water. The vapour pressure of the
solution relative to that of water is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) The value of Henry’s constant KH is : -

(1) Greater for gases with higher solubility.

(2) Greater for gases with lower solubility.
(3) Constant for all gases.
(4) Not related to the solubility of gases.

41)

Which of the following expressions for the radii of Bohr orbit is correct?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42)

What is the ratio of the de-Broglie wavelengths for electrons accelerated through 200 volts and 50
volts:

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 10
(4) 10 : 3
43) In which of the following transition will the wavelength be minimum.

(1) n = 6 to n = 4
(2) n = 4 to n = 2
(3) n = 3 to n = 1
(4) n = 2 to n =1

44) The number of angular nodes and radial nodes in 3s orbital are

(1) 0 and 2, respectively

(2) 1 and 0, respectively
(3) 3 and 0, respectively
(4) 0 and 1, respectively

45) For cathode rays, e/m (charge to mass ratio)

(1) is constant
(2) is variable
(3) depends upon nature of gas
(4) none of these

BIOLOGY

1) A typical angiospermic anther is

(1) Bilobed, Monothecous, Tetrasporangiate.

(2) Bilobed, Bisporangiate, Dithecous.
(3) Bilobed, Dithecous, Tetrasporangiate.
(4) Unilobed, Dithecous, Tetransporangiate.

2) Identify A to D from the given figure.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

 (1) Anther Petiole Pollen sac Megaspore

(2) Filament Petiole Megasporangium Pollen grains

(3) Pollen sac Pedicel Megasporangium Pollen grains

(4) Anther Filament Pollen sac Pollen grains

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Which one of the following statements is wrong?

(1) When pollen is shed at two-celled stage, double fertilization does not take place.
(2) Vegetative cell is larger than generative cell.
(3) Pollen grains in some plants remain viable for months.
(4) Intine is made up of cellulose and pectin.

4) An orthrotropous ovule is one, in which micropyle and chalaza are

(1) at right angles to funicle

(2) parallel to the funicle
(3) in straight line of funicle
(4) parallel along with ovule

5) The normal or Polygonum type of embryo sac is

(1) monosporic and eight nucleate

(2) tetrasporic and six nucleate
(3) monosporic and four nucleate
(4) bisporic and eight nucleate

6) The given figure shows a typical anatropous ovule. What do A, B, C and D represent ?

(1) A - Hilum, B - Funicle, C - Nucellus, D - Micropyle

(2) A - Hilum, B - Outer integument, C - Nucellus, D - Micropyle
(3) A - Hilum, B - Outer integument, C - Embryo sac, D - Micropyle
(4) None of these

7) How many mitotic divisions are required for the formation of Polygonum type of embryo sac from
functional megaspore?

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 3

8) The gynoecium consists of many free pistils in flowers of

(1) Aloe
(2) Tomato
(3) Papaver
(4) Michelia

9) Which of the following prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy?

(1) monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers

(2) dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers
(3) monoecious plant with bisexual flowers
(4) dioecious plant with bisexual flowers.

10) Given below the following statements.

(I) In western countries, pollen consumption has been claimed to increase the performance of
athletes and race horses.
(II) The viability of pollen grains in some members of Rosaceae, Leguminosae and Solanaceae is few
years.
(III) The longest pollen is of zostera.
(IV) In pollen banks, the pollen grains of large no. of species can be stored in liquid nitrogen
at –196°C.
(V) Micropyle represent the basal part of ovule.
Pick the correct options.

(1) III, IV, V

(2) I, II, V
(3) I, III, IV
(4) II, III, V

11) Dichogamy favouring cross pollination is type of floral mechanism where

(1) Anthers and stigma are placed at different levels

(2) Stamens and stigma mature at different times
(3) Structure of anther and stigma act as barrier
(4) Pollen is unable to germinate on its own stigma
12) Geitonogamy involves

(1) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from another flower of the same plant
(2) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from same flower.
(3) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant in the same population
Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant belonging to a distant
(4)
population.

13)

Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A): Cleistogamous flowers produce an assured seed set.
Reason (R): Cleistogamous flowers have a well-exposed anther and stigma.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
(2) (A) is True but (R) is False.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
(4) (A) is False but (R) is True.

14) There is a characteristic distribution of the cells within the embryo sac.
(a) Three cells are grouped together at the chalazal end and constitute the egg apparatus.
(b) The egg apparatus, in turn, consists of one synergid and two egg cells.
(c) The synergids have special cellular thickenings at the chalazal tip called filiform apparatus.

(1) Only b is correct

(2) Only c is correct
(3) Only a and c are correct
(4) a, b and c are incorrect

15) Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A): Each cell of the sporogenous tissue in a microsporangium is a potential pollen or
microspore mother cell.
Reason (R): Each cell of the sporogenous tissue in a microsporangium is capable of giving rise to a
microspore tetrad.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not explain (A)
(3) (A) is True but (R) is False
(4) (A) is False but (R) is True

16) How many of the following are incorrect

(A) Flowers are morphological and embryological marvels and the sites of sexual reproduction.
(B) Much before the actual flower is seen on a plant, the decision that the plant is going to flower
has taken place.
(C) Flowers have always been used as symbols for conveying important human feelings.
(D) Human beings have had a intimate relationship with flowers since time immemorial.
(E) Several hormonal and structural changes are initiated which lead to the differentiation and
further development of floral primordium.
(F) Flowers are objects of aesthetic, ornamental, social, religious and cultural values.

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

17) Select the correct statements w.r.t. pollen grain

(a) Its sporoderm consists of exine and intine
(b) Has exine which helps in fossilization
(c) Generally spherical shaped with about 25-50µm in diameter
(d) It can be stored in liquid Nitrogen for years
(e) Its viability does not depend on temperature and humidity.

(1) a, b, d, e
(2) b, c, d,e
(3) a, b, c, d
(4) b, c, a, e

18) What is the most common and primitive type of ovule, respectively?

(1) Circinotropous and campylotropous ovule

(2) Amphitrophous and orthotropous ovule
(3) Orthotropous and anatropous ovule
(4) Anatropous and orthotropous ovule

19)

Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(A) The anther is a tetragonal structure consisting of four microsporangia.
(B) Anthers are attached to proximal end of the filament of stamen.
(C) Androecium and gynoecium represent the non essential parts of flower.
(D) The number and length of stamens are variable in flower of different species.
How many of the above statements are correct:-

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

20) Few events of development of megaspore from megaspore mother cell is shown in figure below.
Arrange the diagram in progressive order of their occurrence and select the correct order from
options given below.

(1) iii, ii, i

(2) i, ii, iii
(3) ii, iii, i
(4) None of the above

21) Choose the correct set of statements from the option given below:
(A) Hilum represents the junction between ovule and funicle.
(B) Chalaza, represents the tip of the of the ovule.
(C) Cells of the nucellus have abundant reserve food materials.
(D) Micropyle is surrounded by integuments.

(1) A, B and C
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) All of the above

22) Read the following 4 statements (A-D) with respect to flowering plants :
(A) Vegetative cell of pollen grain is smaller than generative cell.
(B) Exine is made up of sporopollenin that can be degraded.
(C) The period for which pollen grains remain viable is highly variable.
(D) Parthenium or carrot grass, causes pollen allergy.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four
23) What will be the ploidy of the cells of the nucellus, MMC, the functional megaspore and female
gametophyte?

(1) Diploid, haploid, diploid and haploid.

(2) Diploid, diploid, haploid and haploid.
(3) Haploid, haploid, diploid and diploid.
(4) Haploid, diploid, diploid and haploid.

24) Which layer helps in the protection of anther?

(1) Epidermis, endothecium and tapetum.

(2) Endothecium, tapetum and middle layer.
(3) Epidermis, endothecium and middle layer.
(4) Epidermis, middle layer and tapetum.

25) Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) Egg apparatus includes 2 egg cell and 2 synergid.

(2) Antipodal cells are situated at chalazal end.
(3) Typical embryo sac is 7 celled and 9 nucleate.
(4) Egg cell is present in the smaller central cell.

26) How many meiosis are required for the formation of 100 functional megaspores and 80
functional microspores respectively.

(1) 100 and 20

(2) 80 and 70
(3) 50 and 70
(4) 80 and 100

27)

If a synergid have 28 chromosomes then what will be the number of chromosomes in the cells of
nucellus and integuments respectively ?

(1) 56, 28
(2) 28, 56
(3) 56, 56
(4) 84, 56

28)

In angiosperms, pollen grains may have A or B cells at the time of pollination :

A B

(1) Two Three

 (2) Three Four

(3) One Two

(4) Two Four

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) The main role of endothecium is ?

(1) Nourishment
(2) Formation of male gametes
(3) Dehiscence
(4) Secretion

30) Pollen kitt is generally absent in :-

(1) Anemophilous flowers

(2) Entomophilous flowers
(3) Malacophilous flowers
(4) Ornithophilous flowers

31)

Which of the following plants, flowers do not provide safe place for egg laying to insects ?

(1) Yucca
(2) Amorphophallus
(3) Ophrys
(4) Fig

32) Chasmogamous as well as cleistogamous flowers are seen in

(1) Commelina, Papaver, Oxalis

(2) Commelina, Viola, Oxalis
(3) Viola, Oxalis, Michelia
(4) Oxalis, Michelia, Commelina

33) Stages of a microspore maturing into a pollen grain are given in the diagrams. Identify labelled
cells [A] and [B] of given diagram :-

(1) [A] Generative cell, [B] Vegetative cell

(2) [A] Generative cell, [B] Tube cell
(3) [A] Vegetative cell, [B] Tube cell
(4) [A] Vegetative cell, [B] Generative cell

34) Arrange the following wall layers of anther in correct sequence :

(A) Endothecium (B) Epidermis
(C) Middle layers (D) Tapetum

(1) B, C, D, A
(2) B, A, D, C
(3) B, A, C, D
(4) A, B, C, D

35) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D and select the
right option about them:-
 A B C D

Central Antipodal
1 Synergids Egg
cell cell

Antipodal Central
2 Synergids Egg
cell cell

Antipodal Central
3 Synergids Obturators
cell cell

Antipodal
Polar Egg
4 cell Synergids
nuclei apparatus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36)

The given diagram shows two plants of the same species. Identify the types of pollination indicated
at P1, P2 and P3.

P1 P2 P3

Genetically self
Genetically,
pollination,
1 Self pollination ecologically
ecologically
cross pollination
cross pollination

Genetically
Genetically,
self pollination,
2 Self pollination ecologically
ecologically cross
cross pollination
pollination

Genetically self
Genetically,
pollination,
3 ecologically self Self pollination
ecologically
pollination
cross pollination
 Genetically self
Genetically,
pollination,
4 ecologically cross Self pollination
ecologically cross
pollination
pollination
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) Tetrad of megaspore is generally ............... in angiosperms

(1) Tetrahedral
(2) Isobilateral
(3) Linear
(4) (1) & (2) both

38) The role of tapetum in the formation of pollen grain wall includes all except :-

(1) Formation of aril.

(2) Secretion of ubisch bodies which produces sporopollenin for exine formation.
(3) Secretion of pollen kitt for entomophilous pollen grains.
(4) Secretion of callase enzyme for dissolving callose around microspore tetrad.

39) In angiosperms, regarding development of gametogenesis, each PMC undergoes :-

(1) Mitosis to produce two haploid microspores

(2) Two successive mitosis to form four haploid microspores
(3) Two successive meiotic divisions to form four diploid microspores
(4) Meiosis to produce four haploid microspores

40) Which of the following statements about sporopollenin is false ?

(1) No enzyme that degrades sporopollenin so far is known.

(2) Sporopollenin is one of the resistant organic material.
(3) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperature and strong acids.
(4) Germ pores are the areas with high sporopollenin content.

41)

Column I Column II

a Sporopollenin i Formed by generative cell

b Intine ii Becomes pollen sacs

c Germ pore iii Forms exine

d Microsporangia iv Thin, elastic and delicate

 v Absence of intine

vi Absence of sporopollenin
Match the column and choose correct option :-
(1) a–v, b–ii, c–iv, d–i
(2) a–iii, b–iv, c–vi, d–ii
(3) a–ii, b–iv, c–i, d–iii
(4) a–iii, b–iv, c–v, d–vi

42) In which type, whole of the megaspore mother cell takes part in the formation of complete
female gametophyte :-

(1) Tetrasporic
(2) Bisporic
(3) Monosporic 8-Nucleated
(4) Monosporic 4-Nucleated

43) If cell of root contain 2n = 40 chromosome then what will be chromosome number present in
each polar nucleus :

(1) 40
(2) 20
(3) 80
(4) 60

44) Select the incorrect statement :

(1) Stamen is modified microsporophyll

When the anther is young, a group of compatly arranged homogenous cells called the
(2)
sporogenous tissue occupies the centre of each microsporangium.
(3) The distal end of the filament is attached to the thalamus or the petal of the flower.
(4) In over 60 percent of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at 2-celled stage.

45) Statement-I: Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants and is limited to about 3
genera, mostly dicotyledons.
Statement-II: In Vallisneria, at maturity due to uncoiling of long stalk, female flower reach the
water surface.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

46) Which one is not considered as a secondary sex organ in male ?

(1) Vas deferens

(2) Epididymis
(3) Penis
(4) Seminiferous tubule

47) How many seminiferous tubules are present in each testicular lobule ?

(1) 250
(2) 750 - 1000
(3) 1 - 3
(4) 100

48) Which sequence is correct regarding male genital tract ?

(1) Tubuli recti → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens → Urethra
(2) Rete testis → Vas deferens → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Urethra
(3) Tubuli recti → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens → Epididymis → Urethra
(4) Tubuli recti → Rete testis → Vas deferens → Vasa efferentia → Seminal vesicle → Urethra

49) In male, Glans penis is covered by a loose fold of skin called as :-

(1) Foreskin
(2) Urethral meatus
(3) External genitalia
(4) Fimbriae

50) The scrotum helps in maintaining a temperature ________ lower than the internal body
temperature.

(1) 1 to 1.5°C
(2) 2 to 2.5°C
(3) 2 to 2.5°F
(4) 4 to 4.5°C

51) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the
ejaculatory duct.
Statement II: The cavity of the cervix is called cervical canal which along with vagina forms birth
canal.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(3) Statement I incorrect but Statement II is true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

52) The functional unit of testis is :-

(1) Uriniferous tubules
(2) Malpighian tubules
(3) Seminiferous tubules
(4) Acini or lobules

53) Statement-1 : Urethra in human male acts as urinogenital tract.

Statement-2 : Urethra carries only urine but not sperms.

(1) Both statements1 and 2 are wrong

(2) Only Statement 1 is correct
(3) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
(4) Only Statement 2 correct

54) It is a diagrammatic view of male reproductive system, choose the correct option about A, B, C

and D :-

A B C D

Vasa
(1) Vasdeferens Prostate Foreskin
efferentia

Bulbourethral
(2) Epididymis Vasdeferens Foreskin
gland

Bulbourethral Glans
(3) Rete testis Ureter
gland penis

Seminal
(4) Epididymis Vasdeferens Foreskin
vesicle
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

55) Correct sequence of different layers of uterine wall is (respectively from outside to inside):-

(1) Perimetrium Endometrium Myometrium

(2) Myometrium Perimetrium Endometrium
(3) Perimetrium Myometrium Endometrium
(4) Endometrium Myometrium Perimetrium

56) Which of the following is incorrectly paired with its function?

(1) Ovary → Synthesis and secretion of steroid hormones.
(2) Fimbriae → Collection of the ovum after ovulation
(3) Seminal vesicle → Produces a sugar containing fluid to nourish sperm.
(4) Bartholin's glands → Secrete alkaline fluid to destroys the acidity of the urethra.

57) The mammary glands of female undergo differentiation during pregnancy and starts producing
milk towards the end of pregnancy by the process called :-

(1) Lactation
(2) Parturition
(3) Morulation
(4) Gestation

58) Match the columns :-

Column-I Column-II
(A) Oviduct (i) Narrow lumen
(B) Isthmus (ii) Womb
(C) Uterus (iii) Fallopian tube
(D) Infundibulum (iv) Funnel shaped
(1) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)
(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(3) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)

59) Match the Column-A with Column-B :-

Column-A Column-B

(A) Mons pubis (i) Fleshy folds of tissue

(B) Labia majora (ii) Paired folds of tissue

(C) Labia minora (iii) Finger-like structure

(D) Clitoris (iv) Cushion of fatty tissue

(1) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(2) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

60) Match the following structures of the female reproductive system with their respective functions
and select correct option :

(A) Ovaries (i) Production of eggs (ova)

Fallopian
(B) (ii) Site of fertilization
Tubes
 Implantation and
(C) Uterus (iii)
development of the embryo

Passage for menstrual blood

(D) Cervix (iv)
and childbirth

Sexual intercourse and

(E) Vagina (v)
childbirth
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv, E-v
(2) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-v, E-ii
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv, E-v
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-v, D-iv, E-iii

61) Assertion: Ovaries produce gamete as well as steroid hormones.

Reason: The oviducts, ovaries and cervix constitute the female accessory ducts.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, but reason is incorrect
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect

62) Secretion of the male accessory glands constitutes the seminal plasma which is rich in

(1) Fructose and calcium

(2) Glucose and sodium
(3) Enzymes and glycogen
(4) Glucose and hormones

63) In the given diagram Identify A,B,C,D :-

A B C D
Uterine
(1) Vagina Fimbriae Isthmus
fundus
Uterine
(2) Vagina Isthmus Fimbriae
fundus
Uterine
(3) Vagina Isthmus Fimbriae
fundus
 Uterine
(4) Vagina Fimbriae Isthmus
fundus
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

64) Arrange the components of mammary gland (from proximal to distal) and find out the correct
sequence from the following
a. Mammary duct
b. Lactiferous duct
c. Alveoli
d. Mammary ampulla
e. Mammary tubules

(1) c,a,d,e,b
(2) b,c,e,d,a
(3) c,e,a,d,b
(4) e,c,d,b,a

65) If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the male reproductive system get blocked, the gametes
will not be transported from

(1) Testes to epididymis

(2) Epididymis to vas deferens
(3) Ovary to uterus
(4) Vagina to uterus

66) In adult, each testis is oval in shape with a length of about .......A.......... and a width of about
........B......

(1) 4 to 5 cm, 4 to 5 cm
(2) 2 to 3 cm, 2 to 3 cm
(3) 4 to 5 cm, 2 to 3 cm
(4) 2 to 3 cm, 4 to 5 cm

67) Clitoris is present at the upper junction of :-

(1) Labia majora

(2) Mons pubis
(3) Perineum
(4) Labia Minora

68) How many testicular lobules are present in each testis ?

(1) 250
(2) 350
(3) 750
(4) 400

69) The male accessory ducts include

(1) Penis, Testis and Ureter

(2) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens
(3) Ureter, urinary bladder and urethra
(4) Ureter, urethra and Penis

70) It is a diagrammatic sectional view of male reproductive system, Identify the common path for

the semen and urine :

(1) A
(2) B
(3) D
(4) C

71) Which of the following is a medical term for reduced motility of sperms in semen ?

(1) Azoospermia
(2) Asthenospermia
(3) Spermiogenesis
(4) Spermiation

72) Testosterone (androgen) is secreted by

(1) Sertoli cells

(2) Seminal vesicle
(3) Interstitial cells
(4) Epididymis

73) Secretion of bulbourethral gland works as :-

(1) Nutrition of sperms

(2) Erection of penis
(3) Lubrication during coitus
(4) All of the above

74) The only correct statement about hymen is :

(1) It is an opening of cervix.

(2) It is a reliable indicator of virginity.
(3) It is always torn after first coitus.
(4) It can be broken by a sudden fall or jolt, insertion of vaginal tampon, cycling, etc.

75) Which of the following is not the function of epididymis in human male reproductive system?

(1) Nourishment and maturation of spermatozoa takes place.

(2) Spermatozoa gain motility.
(3) Conduct unejaculated sperms to seminiferous tubules where they get reabsorbed.
(4) Sperm get stored for few days.

76) Assertion (A): The bulbourethral gland is a male accessory gland.

Reason (R): Its secretion helps in the lubrication of the penis, thereby facilitating reproduction.

(1) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion
(2)
(A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.

77) Match the following table :

Column - I Column - II Column - III

(i) Homologous to
(A) Seminal (a) Located below the
bulbourethral gland of
vesicle urinary bladder
males

(B) Prostate (b) Present Dorsolateral (ii) Destroy the acidity of

gland side of urinary bladder urethra

(c) Found around the

(C) Cowper's (iii) Alkaline, Ca++,
external female genital
gland Profibrinolysin
organ

(D)Bartholin's (d) Lateral side of (iv) Fructose, Fibrinogen,

gland urethra Prostaglandin
(1) A-b-iv, B-a-iii, C-d-ii, D-c-i
(2) A-d-i, B-c-ii, C-b-iii, D-a-iv
(3) A-c-iv, B-b-iii, C-a-ii, D-d-i
(4) A-a-ii, B-d-iv, C-b-iii, D-c-i

78) Each fallopian tube is about ............... long and extends .............
(1) 10-12 cm, from periphery of each ovary to uterus
(2) 2-4 cm, from uterus to vagina
(3) 10-12 cm, from isthmus to ampulla
(4) 12-14 cm, from ovary to vagina

79) See the diagram carefully and choose the incorrect option :-

(1) 'A' help in collection of the ovum after ovulation

(2) The canal of B communicate with C to form birth canal
(3) ‘C’ have a alkaline pH
(4) ‘D’ has chances of implantation and growth of baby during pregnancy.

80) Read the following statements regarding mammary glands in human female.
(A) Milk is stored in mammary alveoli cavity in mammary glands.
(B) Milk synthesis occur in them throughout the pregnancy.
(C) Total 15 – 20 mammary lobes are present in both breasts
(D) Mother milk contains antibodies
Which of the above statements are incorrect ?

(1) A, B and C
(2) A, B and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) B and C

81)

The reproductive events of human include the following stages -

(1) Gametogenesis → Gestation → Insemination → Fertilisation → Implantation → parturition

(2) Gestation → Gametogenesis → Insemination → Implantation → Fertilisation → parturition
(3) Gametogenesis Insemination Gestation Fertilisation Implantation Parturition
(4) Gametogenesis →Insemination→ Fertilisation → Implantation → Gestation → parturition

82) Read the given sentences carefully and answer accordingly :

(a) 'A' is single
(b) The shape of 'A' is like an inverted pear
(c) 'A' opens into vagina
(d) The wall of the 'A' has three layers of tissue
Here 'A' is :

(1) Ovary
(2) Uterus
(3) Urethra
(4) Fallopian tube

83)

Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks :

A B C
(1) I.C.S.H. Sertoli cells Testosterone
(2) I.C.S.H. Muller cells Progestrone
(3) L.H. Sertoli cells Estrogen
(4) L.H. Spermatogonia Testosterone
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

84) Which of the following structures are not included in external genitalia of female ?
(a) Mons pubis
(b) Labia majora
(c) Hymen
(d) Labia minora
(e) Cervix
(f) Fallopian tube

(1) a, e and f
(2) Only e and f
(3) Only d and f
(4) a, d, e and f

85) Assertion (A): The shape of the uterus is like an inverted pear.
Reason (R): The inner glandular layer that lines the uterine cavity is called as Myometrium.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
86) ‘Birth canal = A + B’
Identify A and B and select the correct option

A B

(1) Vagina Uterus

(2) Womb Oviduct

(3) Cervical canal Vagina

(4) Oviduct Vagina

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

87) Read the following statements and select the incorrect option

(1) Ovary is connected to the pelvic wall and uterus by ligaments

(2) Fundus is the part of fallopian tube
(3) Edges of the infundibulum possess fimbriae
(4) Ampulla is the widest part of oviduct

88) The fluid which is rich in calcium, profibrinolysin and contributes about 30% of the total volume
of semen is released by

(1) Seminal vesicle

(2) Prostate gland
(3) Cowpers gland
(4) Epididymis

89) Choose the odd one w.r.t. the female external genitalia.

(1) Hystera
(2) Labia minora
(3) Mons pubis
(4) Clitoris

90) How many of the following structures are paired in human ?

Ovary, Oviduct, Prostate gland, Uterus, Cervix, Vagina, Hymen,

Bulbourethral gland, Seminal vesicle
(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Seven
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 3 3 1 1 4 4 3 4 1 1 3 2 1 3 1 4 4 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 1 1 1 3 3 3 2 3 1 4 1 4 3 3 3 1 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 4 1 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 3 1 4 4 3 1 1 1 4 3 2 4 3 4 2 2 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 2 4 2 2 1 3 4 1 3 3 2 1 1 2 3 2 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 3 1 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 1 3 1 1 4 4 2 3 2 1 2 4 1 1 3 4 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 2 3 2 1 3 1 3 2 3 2 4 3 2 2 3 1 4 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 1 2 3 3 4 3 1 1 2 4 3 2 2 3 4 1 3 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 1 3 1 3 4 1 2 4 2 3 3 4 3 1 1 1 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 1 2 3 3 2 2 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Zero

2)

3)

3μC

4)

By placing a charge at the centroid of the triangle

5) Force between two line charges =

On a unit length = = 1.5 N/m

Hence [1].

6)

7)

8)

9)
10)

2.7 × 106 V

11)

Explanation:

To find electric flux linked with given surface.

Concept:

Electric flux through surface.

Formula:

Visual diagram:

Calculation:

It can be run that electric field lines do not passes through the surface so the flux linked with
the surface will be zero.

12) Asking about : A semicircular wise of radius a carries a uniform linear charge density λ.
We held to determine. Electric field at O.
Concept : Electric field due to a continuous charge distribution.

Formula : (Uniformly charged semi circular ring)

Soln :
Final Answer: Option 3

13) In second case, charges will be –2µC and +3µC

Since F ∝ Q1Q2 i.e. =

∴ = 10 N (Attractive)
14)

15)

By symmetry ϕ due to charge at E, F, G & H from face ABCD are equal

ϕ due to charge at

ϕ due to charge at E, F, G, H = 4 ×
ϕ due to charge at A, B, C & D = 0
field lines are perpendicular to area vector

16)

17) Asking about: The potential of a large drop formed by the coalescence of n identical
charged small drops.
Concept: Conservation of charge, capacitance of a spherical conductor, electric potential.
Formula:
Charge on a capacitor:
Capacitance of a sphere:

Potential of a sphere: V =

Volume of a sphere:

Explanation: Let the radius of each small drop be r and charge be q. Then , so q =
4πε0rV
Total charge on n small drops = nq = n(4πε0rV)
Let the radius of the large drop be R. Its volume is n times the volume of a small drops:

⇒
The total charge on the large drop is the same as the total charge on the small drops: Q =
n(4πε0rV)
The potential of the large drop V' is:

= = n1–1/3 V = n2/3V
Final answer: Vn2/3
Correct option: (4)
18)

Zero

19)

Concept:

The work done in moving a charge between two points is related to the potential difference by
the formula:
W = q(VB – VA)
Formula:
To find the potential difference, we rearrange the formula:

VB – VA =

Calculation:
Given:
• W = 50 μJ = 50 × 10–6 J,
• q = 2 μC = 2 × 10–6 C.

Now substitute into the formula:

Since VB – VA = 25V, the potential difference (VA – VB) will be:

VA – VB = 25 V
Thus, the correct answer is: Option 1: —25 V.

20)

21)
22)

23)

24)

Conceptual

25)

26)

27)

E=
28) Concept:
Based on Gaus's law

Formula Used:

qen = σ (Volume enclosed)

Calculation:

qen = σ

E × 4πr2 = σ

E=

Final Answer:
Option (3)

29)

30) VD > VA = VC > VB

Along the direction of E.F., potential decreases.

31)

32)

Due to all

33)

34)

35)

r–2, r–3

36)

37)

will become negative

38) where dr is perpendicular distance between two equipotential surfaces

= 200 V/m

39)

pE
 40)

Conceptual

41) Question Explanation: To find the net displacement of body.

Concept: Distance and displacement.

Formula: &
Solution:

Net displacement

or
S=

42)

(I) Average speed = |average velocity|

(II) Instantaneous speed = |Instantaneous velocity|
(III) Instantaneous speed = Average speed
All three statements are correct.

43)

44)

80 m

45)

At 3h/4 from the ground

CHEMISTRY

46)

B and C only

47)
Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion

48)

49) Group 12 elements (Zn, Cd, Hg) are d-block elements but not transition element due to
their full filled (n-1)d10ns2 electronic configuration.

50)

Sc3+ = 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p6

21

Number of unpaired electrons (n) = 0

Hence, spin only magnetic moment, i.e.

51) The Lanthanoid ions other than the f° type (La3+ and Ce4+) and the f14 type (Yb2+ and Lu3+)
are paramagnetic.

52)

Conceptual.

53) readily decolourises pink violet colour of acidified solution.

54) Zr and Hf have nearly same radii due to lanthanoid contraction.

55) The reaction is :

2KMnO4 + 2H2SO4 → Mn2O7 + H2O + 2KHSO4

(Green oily compound and highly explosive)

56) They are chemically very reactive

57) Finely divided Fe is used in manufacture of Ammonia using Haber’s process.

58) Tungsten is having the highest melting point in the entire 5d series.

59)

F and O
60) Cr2O72– + 2OH¯ → 2CrO42– + H2O
pH > 7 (x > 7)
2CrO42– + 2H+ → Cr2O72– + H2O
pH < 7 (y < 7)

61)
Oxidation number of oxygen in peroxide = –1
Cr(O2)2O

62) Being hygroscopic or deliquescent sodium dichromate, Na2Cr2O7 cannot be used in

volumetric analysis. So, other statements are true.

63)

Cr3+

64)

Lanthanide contraction = due to poor shielding of 4f e–.

65)

Np, Pu

66)

P-c; Q-a; R-d; S-b

67)

Ethanol + water

68)

110 mm of Hg

69)

Both Assertion & Reason are False.

70)
Low temperature and high pressure

71)

1 M H3PO3 = 3 N H3PO3

72)

Conceptual.

73)

Conceptual.

74)

Molality

75) For ideal solution,

76)

XSolvent = 0.8 (Given)

It means that nsolvent (n1) = 0.8
nsolute (n2) = 0.2

Using formula m = n2 ×

= 0.2 × = 13.88 mol kg–1

77)

Conceptual.

78)

130 mm

79)

Dissolution of Na2SO4 in water is an exothermic process. When a substance dissolves in water

by an exothermic process, its solubility decreases with an increase in temperature. Hence,
solubility of Na2SO4 in water decreases with increase in temperature.
 80)

A solution containing a non-volatile solute has a lower vapour pressure than pure solvent at
contant temperature

81)

82)

Conceptual.

83)

C2H5OH and H2O solution is non-ideal solution with positive deviation.

PS > PA° XA + PB°XB
PA > PA° XA
PB > PB°XB

84)

Conceptual.

85)

Higher the value of KH at a given pressure, lower is the solubility of the gas in liquid.

86)

87)

Conceptual.

88) A Question: In which of the following transition will the wavelength be minimum?
B Given data:

A. Transition options: n = 6 to n = 4, n = 4 to n = 2, n = 3 to n = 1, n = 2 to n = 1

C Concept:
 A. Energy of a photon: E =
B. Energy difference between energy levels: ΔE = E2 − E1
C. Higher energy difference, shorter wavelength.

D Mathematical Calculation:

A. We don't need to calculate exact wavelengths. We can compare energy differences.

B. Higher energy difference corresponds to shorter wavelength.
C. The energy difference is maximum when the transition is from a higher energy level to a lower
energy level.

D Final Answer: 3. n = 3 to n = 1

89) A Question Explanation:

The number of angular nodes and radial nodes in a 3s orbital are asked.
B Given data:

A. Orbital: 3s

C Concept:

A. Angular nodes: These are planar nodes that pass through the nucleus. Their number is equal
to the azimuthal quantum number (l).
B. Radial nodes: These are spherical nodes that occur at specific distances from the nucleus.
Their number is given by n − l − 1, where n is the principal quantum number and l is the
azimuthal quantum number.

D Mathematical Calculation:
• For a 3s orbital:

A. n = 3 principal quantum number)

B. l = 0 (azimuthal quantum number for s orbitals)

• Number of angular nodes = l = 0

• Number of radial nodes = n − l − 1 = 3 − 0 − 1 = 2
D Final Answer:
0 and 2, respectively

90)

is constant

BIOLOGY

91)

Bilobed, Dithecous, Tetrasporangiate.

92)

Conceptual
93)

When pollen is shed at two-celled stage, double fertilization does not take place.

94)

in straight line of funicle

95)

monosporic and eight nucleate

96)

A - Hilum, B - Funicle, C - Nucellus, D - Micropyle

97)

Conceptual.

98) Michelia

99)

dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers

100)

I, III, IV

101)

Stamens and stigma mature at different times

102)

Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from another flower of the same plant

103)

(A) is True but (R) is False.

104)

a, b and c are incorrect

105)

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A)

106)

NCERT Page # 19, 20

107)

a, b, c, d

108)

Anatropous and orthotropous ovule

109) Explaining the Question : Question asking about the select correct statements
regarding the structure of flower and stamen.
Concept : Flower is a fascinating organ of angiosperms
Solution :
(A) Flowers are the morphological and embryological marvels and the site of sexual
reproduction. -correct
(B) Anthers are attached to proximal end of the filament of stamen. Incorrect.
Correct is : The proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the thalamus or the petal
of the flower.
(C) Androecium and gynoecium represent the non essential parts of flower. Incorrect.
Correct is - Androecium and gynoecium are the essential parts/ reproductive part/whorls of
flower.
(D) The number and length of stamens are variable in flower of different species.-correct

110)

According to NCERT figures the correct sequence of megasporogenesis are- ii,iii,i

The correct answer is-(3)

111)

(A) Hilum represents the junction between ovule and funicle. This is correct.

(B) Chalaza represents the tip of the [Link] is incorrect

(C) Cells of the nucellus have abundant reserve food [Link] is correct.
(D) Micropyle is surrounded by [Link] is incorrect

The correct answer is- (3) A and C

112)

(A) Vegetative cell of pollen grain is smaller than generative cell. - Incorrect.

(B) Exine is made up of sporopollenin that can be degraded. - Incorrect..

(C) The period for which pollen grains remain viable is highly variable. - Correct.

(D) Parthenium or carrot grass causes pollen allergy. - Correct.

The correct answer is-(1)

113)

Solution-

Nucellus-2n ,MMC-2n ,the functional megaspore-n , female gametophyte-n

The correct answer is -(2)

114)

The outer three wall layers(epidermis, endothecium, middle layers ) perform the function of
protection and help in dehiscence of anther to release the pollen.

The correct answer is-(3)

115)

The correct statement is that Antipodal cells are situated at the chalazal end.

The correct answer is -(2)

116)

A. In the ovule, one megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis to produce 4 megaspores.

B. Out of these 4 megaspores, only 1 is functional, while the other 3 degenerate.

Formation of 100 functional megaspores– 100 meiosis divisions requried.

In the anther, one microsporocyte undergoes one meiosis to produce 4 microspores.

All 4 microspores are functional and develop into pollen grains.

Formation of 80 microspores = 80/4=20 , 20 meiosis divisions required.

The correct answer is-(1)

117)

Conceptual.

118)

XII NCERT - Pg. 39

119)

Dehiscence

120)

Entomophilous flowers

121) Ophrys

122) Commelina, Viola, Oxalis

123) NCERT-XII Pg. # 7(E), 24(H) figure 1.5(A)

124) NCERT - Pg. # 22 figure 2.3

125) NCERT XII, Page # 26

126) P1 is a self pollination, P2 is genetically self pollination but ecologically cross pollination,
P3 is Genetically and ecologically cross pollination

127)

Linear

128) Module-4 Pg. # 128

129)

Meiosis to produce four haploid microspores

130)

Germ pores are the areas with high sporopollenin content.

131)

NCERT Page # 07

132) Module-04 Pg # 140

133)

Conceptual.

134)

The distal end of the filament is attached to the thalamus or the petal of the flower.

135) NCERT Pg.#14

136)

Seminiferous tubule

137)

The correct answer is 3. 1-3.

Each testicular lobule in the human testes contains 1-3 seminiferous tubules. These tubules
are highly coiled structures where spermatogenesis (sperm production) takes place.

138)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 43

139)

Foreskin

140)

Conceptual.

141) The correct answer is Option 4: Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Statement I is true.
 Statement I is true.
The ejaculatory ducts are formed by the union of the vas deferens with the duct from the
seminal vesicle. These ejaculatory ducts then open into the urethra, the final passageway for
semen and urine.

Statement II is also true.

The cervix is the lower, narrow part of the uterus that connects to the vagina. The cavity
within the cervix is called the cervical canal. During childbirth, the baby passes through the
cervical canal and the vagina.

142)

Seminiferous tubules

143)

Only Statement 1 is correct

144)

Bulbourethral
Epididymis Vasdeferens Foreskin
gland

145)

Perimetrium Myometrium Endometrium

146)

Seminal vesicle → Produces a sugar containing fluid to nourish sperm.

147) XIIth NCERT Pg. No. 54

148)

A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)

149)

A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

150)

A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv, E-v

151) NCERT PG 44
152)

Fructose and calcium

153) Option 1: A - Vagina, B - Fimbriae, C - Isthmus, D - Uterine Fundus is the correct

sequence for the diagram.

154)

Module

155)

The correct answer is 1: Testes to epididymis.

The vasa efferentia are thin tubules that connect the rete testis to the epididymis. If these
tubules are blocked, sperm cannot be transported from the testes to the epididymis, where
they are stored and mature.

156)

4 to 5 cm, 2 to 3 cm

157)

Labia Minora

158)

Conceptual.

159)

NCERT XII - Page no 43

160)

NCERT XII - Page no 43

161)

Asthenospermia

162) NCERT XII, Pg # 43, 2nd para

163)

NCERT XII Page no 44

164)

NCERT XII - Page no 46

165)

Conduct unejaculated sperms to seminiferous tubules where they get reabsorbed.

166) NCERT Page No. 44

167)

A-b-iv, B-a-iii, C-d-ii, D-c-i

168)

NCERT Pg 29, Line 4

169)

NCERT XII - Page no 45 + 46

170)

NCERT XII - Page 47 + Module

171)

NCERT XII - Page no 42

172)

Uterus

173)

Conceptual.

174)

Only e and f
175) [NCERT Pg 30, Line 4, 91

176) NCERT Reference: Biology-XII, Page No.- 46

177) NCERT Reference: Biology-XII, Page No.- 45

178) NCERT XII Pg # 29(E), 31(H)

179) NCERT, Page No.- 30

180)

Four