IELTS ACADEMIC

ADVANCE
COURSE

4 WEEK CURRICULUM
IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE
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First Edi on 2024

CIN no.: U80301GJ2008PTC053685

ISBN : 978-93-930931-3-4

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 INDEX
1. WEEK 1 MONDAY (READING 1 PASSAGE) 1
2. WEEK 1 TUESDAY (WRITING TASK 1) 4
3. WEEK 1 TUESDAY (LISTENING) 5
4. WEEK 1 WEDNESDAY (WRITING TASK 1 & 2) 10
5. WEEK 1 THURSDAY (LISTENING) 12
6. WEEK 1 THURSDAY (WRITING TASK 2) 18
7. WEEK 1 FRIDAY (WRITING TASK 1 & 2) 19
8. WEEK 1 FRIDAY (READING 3 PASSAGE) 21
9. WEEK 2 MONDAY (READING 1 PASSAGE) 33
10. WEEK 2 TUESDAY (WRITING TASK 1) 37
11. WEEK 2 TUESDAY (LISTENING) 38
12. WEEK 2 WEDNESDAY (WRITING TASK 1 & 2) 45
13. WEEK 2 THURSDAY (LISTENING) 47
14. WEEK 2 THURSDAY (WRITING TASK 2) 53
15. WEEK 2 FRIDAY (WRITING TASK 1 & 2) 54
16. WEEK 2 FRIDAY (READING 3 PASSAGE) 56
17. WEEK 3 MONDAY (READING 1 PASSAGE) 68
18. WEEK 3 TUESDAY (WRITING TASK 1) 72
19. WEEK 3 TUESDAY (LISTENING) 73
20. WEEK 3 WEDNESDAY (WRITING TASK 1 & 2) 81
 INDEX
21. WEEK 3 THURSDAY (LISTENING) 83
22. WEEK 3 THURSDAY (WRITING TASK 2) 90
23. WEEK 3 FRIDAY (WRITING TASK 1 & 2) 91
24. WEEK 3 FRIDAY (READING 3 PASSAGE) 93
25. WEEK 4 MONDAY (READING 1 PASSAGE) 104
26. WEEK 4 TUESDAY (WRITING TASK 1) 108
27. WEEK 4 TUESDAY (LISTENING) 109
28. WEEK 4 WEDNESDAY (WRITING TASK 1 & 2) 117
29. WEEK 4 THURSDAY (LISTENING) 119
30. WEEK 4 THURSDAY (WRITING TASK 2) 126
31. WEEK 4 FRIDAY (WRITING TASK 1 & 2) 127
32. WEEK 4 FRIDAY (READING 3 PASSAGE) 129
 WEEK 1 MONDAY (READING)
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-15, which are based on Reading Passage 1
below.

The Secret Lives of Bees

From the meadows to our backyards, bees buzz with activity, playing pivotal roles in the
ecosystem and the human food chain. Beyond their hum and dance, there lies an intricate world
filled with societal structures, specialised tasks, communication nuances, and remarkable skills
that highlight the intelligence and importance of these tiny creatures.
At the epicentre of every bee colony is the queen bee, the only female bee capable of laying eggs.
While all may believe she governs with an iron wing, her primary function is reproduction. A
healthy queen, depending on the species, can lay anywhere from 1,500 to 2,000 eggs daily,
ensuring the hive's continuity. Her longevity is also exceptional, with a lifespan that can stretch
to five years, a stark contrast to her hive counterparts.
Surrounding the queen in this labyrinth of wax are the worker bees. Despite their generic title,
these females are the backbone of the colony, shouldering multiple responsibilities from the
moment they emerge as adults. They commence their life as cleaners, graduate to nursing young
larvae, progress to building the intricate hexagonal honeycomb structures, later shift to guarding
the hive entrance, and finally, in the twilight of their life, become foragers, searching for nectar
and pollen.
Meanwhile, the male bees, known as drones, lead a more singularly purposed life. Born from
unfertilised eggs, their sole mission is to mate with a virgin queen, after which they meet a rather
untimely end or are evicted from the hive, especially as resources become scarce or winter
approaches.
Arguably, one of the most enchanting revelations about bees is their sophisticated method of
communication: the dance. The ‘waggle dance’ is particularly famed. A forager bee, upon
discovering a prolific food source, returns to the hive and performs this figure-eight dance. The
nuances of this dance are vital. The angle of the dance relative to the sun signifies the direction of
the food source, the duration of the waggle portion conveys the distance, and the vigour or
speed with which the dance is performed hints at the abundance of the source. This
mesmerising form of communication ensures that other bees can triangulate the exact location
of rich nectar and pollen sources, optimising the colony's collective efforts.

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Beyond pollination, bees are revered for producing honey, a sweet elixir that has enthralled
humans for millennia. The journey of honey begins when bees collect nectar from flowers. This
nectar, stored in a bee's 'honey stomach,' undergoes a transformation. Mixing with enzymes, the
nectar is then regurgitated and evaporated, eventually settling as the viscous, golden honey we
know. Stored in honeycomb cells and sealed with wax, this honey is an essential food reserve for
bees, especially during the unforgiving winter months when flowers are scarce. For humans,
beyond its culinary uses, honey has long been recognised for its medicinal properties, from
wound healing to its antimicrobial attributes.
The importance of bees transcends their hive activities. They are pivotal pollinators, ensuring
the propagation of a majority of the world's food crops. Disturbingly, global bee populations
have been plummeting, attributed to a blend of habitat destruction, excessive pesticide use,
diseases, and climate change repercussions.
Recognising this alarming decline, conservationists and researchers worldwide have been
tirelessly working to reverse the trend. Initiatives span creating bee-friendly habitats and
gardens, championing the reduction and more informed use of pesticides, and even the
scientific breeding of bees that can withstand prevalent bee diseases.
To truly grasp the dynamics of a bee colony, it's beneficial to view it as a 'superorganism.' In this
perspective, while each bee operates individually, the entire hive or colony functions cohesively
as a single entity with harmonised objectives. This means that every bee, through its specialised
tasks, contributes to the larger mission of the colony, ensuring survival, growth, and continuity.
The buzz of bees encompasses far more than just fleeting flights around flowers. These
remarkable insects, with their societal structures, complex behaviours, and undeniable
importance to the environment, are marvels of nature. As the mysteries of their secret lives
continue unfolding, one thing remains clear: bees, in all their intricate glory, necessitate our
profound respect and concerted conservation efforts.

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Questions 1 - 5
Complete the sentences. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage in each gap.
1 The queen bee’s main role is ____________.
2 ____________ serve the main purpose of mating with the queen bee.
3 The ‘waggle dance’ communicates the ______ of a food source relative to the sun.
4 In the extremely cold seasons, bees rely on honey as an important _____________.
5 Environmentalists and scientists around the world have been working hard to _____________
the current situation.

Questions 6 - 11
Reading Passage 2 has ten paragraphs (A - J). Which paragraph contains the following
information?
6 A description of the roles undertaken by worker bees throughout their life.
7 Reasons for the significant decline in global bee populations.
8 Details on how bees communicate the location and quality of a food source.
9 Safeguarding and necessity of preservation
10 Explanation of the concept that views the bee colony as a unified organism.
11 The process through which nectar is transformed into honey.

Questions 12 - 15
Complete the summary. Write ONE WORD ONLY from the passage in each gap.
Bees are not just known for their 12 ____________ among flowers or their creation of honey.
Amidst their buzzing and movement, there's a complex world of social structures, distinct roles,
communication, and skills showing the 13 ___________ and significance of these small beings.
Viewing the hive as a 'superorganism' indicates that while individual bees operate separately,
they function 14 ______________ towards common goals. However, bee populations are in
danger due to factors like loss of habitat and extensive 15 _____________ usage. Conservation
efforts are crucial for their survival.

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 WEEK 1 TUESDAY (WRITING TASK 1 )
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

The bar graph below shows the number of Olympic medals won by China, USA and
Russia from 2004 to 2016.

Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.

Write at least 150 words.

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 WEEK 1 TUESDAY (LISTENING)

Part 1
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-7
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Wayne wants to reserve: Two rooms
Number of people: Four (Parents and two 1 _____________________)
Number of rooms: Two
Length of stay: 2 ______________________ days
Day and date of arrival : 3 _____________________ 4 ____________________
Check out date: 16 , Sunday morning
th

Facilities required: 5 ____________________

Tea bags
Wake-up call at 6 ____________________
7 ____________________ breakfast at 7:00
Questions 8-10
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

GUEST ACTIVITIES
Mr. Carl Parsons 8________________, badminton, swimming
Mr. Carl Parsons 9 ____________________, aerobics, swimming
Ms. Gayle smith and Ms. Zoey Follet Volleyball, swimming
Wayne Used to play Taekwondo
Plays 10 ___________________ frequently

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 Part 2
Questions 11-20

Questions 11-16

Write the correct letter, A-K, next to questions 11-16.

Example: Campus clock H

11 Post Office
12 Rag Shop
13 Radio Station
14 Computer Store
15 Sports stadium
16 Internet cafe

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Questions 17-20
Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
17 Students need to bring their ___________ to avail bargains.
18 On the first day, _________ outnumbered plasma TV sets in sales.
19 In spite of _____________ facility, overseas newspapers are on sale daily.
20 Women can choose from thirty ____________ periodicals every week.

Part 3
Questions 21-30
Questions 21-24
Choose FOUR letters, A-G.
Which FOUR things does Bella mention about the National Palace Museum?
A It's a must visit after refurbishment.
B Reach there on time to reserve a ticket.
C There is an entry fee.
D There is a 50% reduction on student ID card.
E Audio tours are available in English.
F It's good to buy an audio player.
G Opening hours of the museum

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Questions 25 and 26
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO things does Bella mention about her past tour?
A She went there with some locals.
B She took a tour for no charge.
C She visited a Chinese garden.
D She saw a world heritage monument.
E She enjoyed some music and refreshments.
Questions 27-30
Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
27 Prior to renovation, the Museum had a collection of over ___________ artefacts.
28 The Main Exhibition area was _____________ square metres.
29 Before the renovation, the proportion of ___________ on show was 6.4 %.
30 Prior to recent renovations, the proportion of ________ on display was less than 0.07%.

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 Part 4
Questions 31-40
Match the expressions with the related description.
Write the appropriate letters A-H at the end of sentences in the box below.
A Culture shock
B Culture vulture
C Culture snappy
D Culture fatigue
E an obsession
F enthusiastic and eager
G highs and lows
H opinionated

The expression used first by Dr Oberg 31 _____________

An expression used by other researchers 32 _____________
An experience in a new culture 33 _____________
Initial reaction 34 _____________
Food from home 35 _____________
Some people’s response 36 _____________

Questions 37-40
Complete the summary below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Dealing with Culture shock

People who have experience of travelling and making adjustments are more likely to
37 __________ culture shock. Knowledge of the new language and locality helps to settle faster.
Adapting well to the new environment helps to avoid 38 _____________.Cultural adjustment
could be avoided for reasons such as disagreement with prevailing ways or fear of losing ethnic
39 ___________. However, such an attitude may lead to a 40 __________ of isolation.

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 WEEK 1 WEDNESDAY (WRITING TASK 1 )
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

The graph below shows the Gross Value Added of Taiwan in two different industries
from the year 2005 to 2009 in percentage.

Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.

Write at least 150 words.

16
14
12
Percent(%)

10
Services
8
Manufacturing
6
4
2
0
2005 2006 2007 2008 2009
Year

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 WEEK 1 WEDNESDAY (WRITING TASK 2 )
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Write about the following topic:

Instead of revealing the truth, the mass media very often misguides people. What are
the reasons behind this and the visible effects on the society at large?

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your knowledge
or experience.

Write at least 250 words.

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 WEEK 1 THURSDAY (LISTENING)

Part 1
Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Task 2
● Minimum word length: 250
● Should be an 1 _____________________ piece of writing.
● Need to keep it formal.
● Spend 40 minutes.

Teacher's suggestions
● 2 ________________ the question.
● Brainstorm for ideas.
● Make a 3 _____________________.
● Proofread and make final corrections such as spelling, 4 ____________________ or
punctuation.

How to write
● State your opinion and justify it with 5 __________ and _____________.

Types of essay
● Agree/Disagree
● Advantages and disadvantages
● Solve a 6 _______________________

Format
● Number of paragraphs: Four to five paragraphs
● Introduction: should be 7 ______________________ and relevant should contain a
general comment, purpose of the essay and the writer's 8 ____________________ if
desired.
● Main paragraphs: Write a 9 _____________________ and supporting points.
● Conclusion: Do not write any 10 ___________________ information.

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 Part 2
Questions 11-20
Questions 11-16
Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
11 TED is an abbreviation for Technology, Entertainment and
________________________.
12 The organisation was founded in _______________________, but talks became
available online in 2006.
13 Speakers have the habit of delivering long talks but an eighteen minute speech
compels them to be more ________________________ and concise.
14 All of the talks have English subtitles and many are subtitled in
________________________.
15 Tapescripts are also available that people can follow by clicking the
____________________.
16 Talks are popular due to public demand for ___________________________ content,
and their optimistic nature.

Questions 17-20
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

TED's Most Popular Talks

Rank Speaker Topic
1st Ken Robinson, viewed Necessary 18 ________________ in schools
17 ___________ times
Insights gained into brain functions after she
2nd Jill Bolte Taylor
survived a 19 _______________
Innovative and increasingly 20 ____________
3rd Pranav Mistry
computer technologies

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 Part 3
Questions 21-30
Questions 21-24
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
21 Mr Ludwig has been residing
A away from Tasmania.
B in Tasmania for three years now.
C in three different places.
22 Why does Mr. Ludwig want to leave his current job?
A The company he is working in is very small.
B He wants a quick promotion.
C He wants to handle more duties.
23 Why does Mr Ludwig want to give a month's notice to his present employer?
A to guide a substitute for his current position
B This is the norm of his current company.
C He wants to take a break before he joins the new role.
24 Which of the following is a fixed travel destination in the new job?
A Sydney and Auckland
B Hawaii
C London

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Questions 25-27
Choose THREE letters, A-E.
Which THREE according to Mr. Ludwig, are his strengths and weaknesses?
A honesty
B behaviour with workmates
C hardworking
D gets irritated easily
E does not like it when work is not done properly

Questions 28-30
Choose THREE letters, A-E.
What THREE things does Mr Ludwig mention about his family?
A His wife works for a Canadian company.
B He has a couple of children.
C His children go to preschool.
D His children are not naughty.
E His wife manages household affairs.

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 Part 4
Questions 31-40
Questions 31-37
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Elephant attacks
An incident in South Africa
● Three tourists and their 31 ____________________ were on a sightseeing drive through a
game reserve.
● They encountered a herd of elephants.
● One of the elephants overturned the vehicle using her 32 _______and________.
● This shows that people underestimate how dangerous elephants can be.
Why Elephants Attack
● African elephants are considered the world's largest land animal.
● They stay in tightly-knit 33 __________________ , led by a matriarch.
● They are social and closely related.
● Elephants are protective of each other, especially when a 34 ____________________ is
present.
● They are more aggressive when under stress and when their 35 _________________ is
invaded.
● They require more room when juveniles are present.
● Elephant 36 ____________________ can be extremely dangerous when in musth.
● During musth, testosterone 37__________________ are very high, and they become
extremely aggressive.

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Questions 38-40
Choose THREE letters, A-F.
Which THREE factors were involved in the elephant attack mentioned in the talk?
A an overpopulated herd
B the presence of a calf
C stress
D bulls competing for the matriarch
E violation of personal space
F Musth

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 WEEK 1 THURSDAY (WRITING TASK 2 )
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Write about the following topic:

It is wrongly believed that films only corrupt us but the fact is that they can also
educate us. Do you agree or disagree?

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your knowledge or
experience.

Write at least 250 words.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 18

 WEEK 1 FRIDAY (WRITING TASK 1 )
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

The pie chart shows the user base of various dating websites in America and the table
shows the reasons for not using such sites.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.

Write at least 150 words.

Why wouldn't use a dating website (in percentage)

Prefer meeting in-person 35
Not interested 55
Possibility of fake identity 10

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 WEEK 1 FRIDAY (WRITING TASK 2 )
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Write about the following topic:

Many countries raise fuel prices to deal successfully with problems of traffic and
pollution. What effects do you think this move can have? What other measures do
you think can be taken to reduce traffic and pollution?

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your knowledge or
experience.
Write at least 250 words.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 20

 WEEK 1 FRIDAY (READING)
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-14, which are based on Reading Passage 1
below.

THYROID DISORDER
Thyroid disorder is becoming a serious cause of concern for many, with undiagnosed patients at
risk of developing other grave health conditions such as cardiovascular diseases, osteoporosis
and even infertility, and the statistics say that such cases are around 60%. Another interesting
fact is that men stand at a 5 to 8% lesser likelihood of having thyroid problems. The thyroid is a
large and broad ductless gland in the frontal section of the neck just below the Adam's apple. It
releases hormones responsible for controlling the growth and development of the body parts
affecting the rate of metabolism. It is complex to understand because the causes of thyroid
disorder are largely unknown.
Diagnosis and treatment also become difficult when the cause of a medical condition is not clear.
Jean Wilson, a regular housewife, was busy with her two children, somewhat a super mom, but
things drastically changed after she experienced severe exhaustion and collapsed on the floor
due to high adrenaline rushes. She was unable to get up. But blood reports suggested no
abnormalities. The same was observed with Christine Dunker, a former reporter who thought
that the bouts of fatigue were due to her stressful job. Abnormal weight gain became a cause of
worry. Medical examination, however, did not reveal any abnormality. She was prescribed
antidepressants and beta blockers for relief. In these cases, both Jean and Christine felt that
something was wrong, which was still in disguise.
Another case points to the possibility of the genetic factor. Geneticist Daniel Kastler of the
National Human Genome Research Institute in Bethesda, Maryland cites an example of a
Belgium family where several members of the family faced grievous medical disorders starting
from body and muscle aches, bouts of fever, accompanied by skin irritation and ulcers. He
further adds, "It was difficult to track the source of the disorder, but research later established
that previously undetected genetic disorder could be accountable for unleashing the proteins
that are self-destructive in nature", she adds. "Similar metamorphosis was detected in three
other families belonging to Lebanon, France and the United Kingdom."
To explain the condition, there are two kinds of thyroid disorder. Hypothyroidism is the absence
of adequate thyroid hormones or underactive thyroid glands. Hormone deficiency induces
nausea and lethargy, and the patient feels cold and also gains weight.

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As a result, there is a decreased heart rate. Hyperthyroidism is a state of excessive hormone
production by the overactive thyroid gland, which makes the patient feel nervous, warm and
irascible. The patient experiences sleep disturbance and weight-loss, accompanied by an
accelerating heart rate.
The thyroid disorder is linked to the imbalance of chemical reactions in the body due to
inadequate hormone secretions. Apart from this, the source of thyroid can be related to
autoimmune disease, treatment for hyperthyroidism, radiation therapy, and medications.
Autoimmune disease or a particular inflammatory disorder known as Hashimoto's thyroiditis is a
common cause of hypothyroidism. It arises when the immune system generates antibodies
which adversely strike its very own tissues. In some cases, it affects the ability of the thyroid
gland to produce hormones. Scientists are still perplexed about the release of these antibodies.
However, they believe that genetic discrepancies could also be one of the driving factors.
Furthermore, the mechanism of changeover or transformation from hyperthyroidism to
hypothyroidism is unfamiliar, but it has been recorded. The case of this conversion was first
recorded in 1959 by Joplin and Fraser and later by Doniach in 1960, where patients were
detected with symptoms of hypothyroidism while they were treated for hyperthyroidism.
Radiation therapy for cancer treatment and medications such as lithium recommended for
psychiatric patients can act as a catalyst for the development of hypothyroidism.
Estimations prove that over a million people in Britain suffer from poor thyroid function.
Researchers have suggested that patients suffering from hypothyroidism are majorly women.
Some experts also suggest some alternate form of treatment when mainstream and over the
counter medications fail. Laura Donnelly, a health correspondent, stated in her report that
Prince Charles was coercive with the idea of alternative medicines. She also urged the
government to get official practitioners of Chinese and herbal medicines which would prove
worthwhile in regulating the therapists besides other healthcare subsidiaries. A source further
confirms that the Prince personally feels that an alternative form of treatment should not be
neglected and should be on par with mainstream medicine. He was interested in the evidence of
complementary treatments taking a proper integrated perspective that would enable people to
make choices and that regulations would build confidence while making choices.
Although thyroid disorder is a ubiquitous worry, relief can still be provided by altering the
treatment perspective and philosophies. New development of treatment modalities should be
well monitored. With an understanding of the nature of the disorder, medicines and treatments
have to be tailored as per individual needs. To gain success, the treatments should have a mass-
appeal. To nip it in the bud, diagnostic tests have to be conducted on a regular basis.

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Questions 1-9
Complete the notes below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Thyroid Disorder
Thyroid gland: Broad and bulky, 1 _________________________, placed below the Adam's
Apple in the throat
Function: Hormone release
Hormonal balance is the key factor in regulating 2 _________________________ and
development of body parts that impact 3 __________________________.
Risks: can lead to 4 __________________________, reproduction issues and heart ailments
Two types of thyroid disorders:
● Hypothyroidism - inadequate hormone release rendering the gland 5 _________
______________
● Symptoms: Nausea, feeling cold, laziness and unhealthy heart because the patient

6 _________________________.
● Hyperthyroidism - Overactive gland, 7 ____________________________ production

● Symptoms: anxiety, 8 ________________________ temperament, irregular sleep and

9 _______________________ heart rate as body weight reduces

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Questions 10-14
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
Write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
10 Men could be less prone to a thyroid disorder.
11 The Belgium family reported health problems as part of a study in Bethesda.
12 At least two confirmations of the shift from hyperthyroidism to hypothyroidism are
available.
13 The Royal authority in Britain has expressed faith in alternative treatment, but with
reservations.
14 Experts are on the threshold of developing a universal remedy for thyroid.

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 WEEK 1 FRIDAY (READING)

READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15-26, which are based on Reading Passage 2
below.
LESSONS FROM NUCLEAR DISASTERS
A Nuclear disasters are potentially far more damaging when compared with natural disasters.
The radiation released into the atmosphere after a nuclear disaster poses major risks, both
acute and chronic, affecting not only the immediate area but a wide geographic region.
What makes the radioactive contamination deadly is that it is air-borne, water-borne, soil-
borne, food-borne, and the contamination is guaranteed for hundreds of years. Nuclear
reactors, especially the ones used for generation of electric power, transportation of nuclear
waste, nuclear plants and the fear of terrorists targeting radiation sources for creating terror
weapons have become a cause for concern, especially after the 2001 terrorist strike on the
twin towers in New York.
B While there have always been concerns about nuclear disasters, they became a reality when
a catastrophe of gigantic proportions struck the civil nuclear plant on April 25, 1986, at
Chernobyl, Soviet Union (present-day Ukraine) killing more than 30 people almost instantly.
The disaster resulted in the release of radiation that was almost 40 times more than that
from the atomic bombs dropped on Nagasaki, Japan during World War 2. Almost all of
Europe and Asia Minor were encompassed in the spread of the deadly radiation.
C Studies by the Ministry of Health of Belarus, which is situated around eighty miles south of
Chernobyl, state that after four years of the radiation, rates of thyroid cancer saw an
astronomical rise in 1990. According to health officials in Turkey, which is located 930 miles
south of the site, there have been twelve times higher incidences of leukaemia than before
the Chernobyl disaster.
D Another nuclear disaster that made headlines was the Fukushima Daiichi Nuclear Power
Plant which exploded in March 2011 after a tsunami when the four reactors suffered
catastrophic cooling failures. Japan grappled with the disaster as the world watched in
horror. While the disaster brought back memories of the Chernobyl disaster, for Japan, it
was the most severe crisis …since World War 2. Currently, Japan is still struggling with the
after-effects. The area within 10 km radius surrounding the plant is a dead-zone, totally
uninhabitable.

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E Dr Jim Smith of the University of Portsmouth talks of a 2006 study by Dr Elisabeth Cardis of
the International Agency for Research on Cancer. According to the report, by the year 2065,
about 16,000 cases of thyroid cancer and 25,000 cases of other cancers can be expected as a
result of the Chernobyl disaster. As far as the Chernobyl disaster impact is concerned,
Professor Richard Wakeford of the University of Manchester asserts that getting reliable
statistics of radiation dose vital for predicted cancer cases among people living nearby is
difficult.
F There is no doubt that the Fukushima Daiichi disaster has taught us some lessons. Some
observations were made in a report from MIT's Department of Nuclear Science and
Engineering [NSE] after analyzing the series of events that unfolded during the weeks
following the catastrophic earthquake and tsunami on March 13. According to this report,
emergency generators need to be protected better from extreme natural events such as
flooding. Increasing space between reactors situated on the same site would prevent one
reactor from damaging others nearby.
G 'During the initial stages of the accident at Fukushima', says Jacopo Buongiorno, the Carl
Richard Soderberg Associate Professor of Power Engineering and lead author of the new
report from MIT, 'critical delays took place that have not been explained yet, though there is
no evidence as of now to point at human errors as a contributing factor to the disaster'.
There is a question about the delays regarding the operation of the safety-critical valves that
inject water into reactor cores. 'It's not clear what the cause of the delay was,' Buongiorno
says. 'There was disruption and confusion around the site during the crucial early hours.'
The report specifically suggested that emergency backup generators are required to keep
systems running. One generator should be situated on high ground to protect from flooding
and another at a lower level to protect against chances of an air crash. The generators
should be placed in watertight rooms. Another point to note is the evacuation. 'Ironically,
the biggest consequences on health may be from the prolonged evacuation,' While
planning future plant sites, it's best to 'choose sites away from highly seismic areas and
coasts,' reducing earthquake and tsunami risks.
H As Buongiorno says, 'If you have an accident in your car, you don't stop driving a car, you
learn from it.' Taking lessons from the Fukushima and Chernobyl disasters the focus should
be on better planning and intense monitoring if we want a better and safer tomorrow.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 26

Questions 15-17
Complete the table below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer.

Year/ Impact
Event(s) Location
Period

World War 2 the dropping of Nagasaki, Japan ● Significant radiation released

atomic bombs

25 April 1986 nuclear disaster Civil Nuclear Plant, ● 30 deaths on the spot
Chernobyl ● Radiation 15 ____________
higher
● Affected geographical area
included 16___________
and __________

March 2011 17_____________, Fukushima Daiichi ● Radiation released

Nuclear explosion Nuclear Power ● Most dreadful crisis after
Plant, Japan the World War 2 catastrophe
● Land within 10 Kilometer
radius is completely non
occupiable

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 27

Questions 18-23
Reading Passage 2 has eight paragraphs, A-H.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
NB You may use any option more than once.
18 forms of radioactive impurities
19 documented suggestions for ideal location
20 the likelihood of intentional misuse
21 reference to expected health hazards after a few decades
22 a way to stop the spread of destruction on site
23 tragedy following a natural calamity
Questions 24-26
Look at the following statements (Questions 24-26) and the list of people below.
Match each statement with the correct person, A, B or C.
NB You may use any option more than once.
24 Altering behaviour with experience is better than giving up on available options.
25 There is unaunthentic information on doses for cancer patients exposed to radiation
from the Chernobyl disaster.
26 Delayed shifting of people possibly led to health issues.

List of People

A Jacopo Buongiorno
B Dr Jim Smith
C Professor Richard Wakeford

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 28

 WEEK 1 FRIDAY (READING)

READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading Passage 3
below.
Questions 27-32
Reading Passage 3 has seven paragraphs, A-G.
Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-F from the list of headings below.

List of headings
i Evidence found in geographical features
ii Preservation of fire in Stone Age
iii An unlikely artefact to find
iv Not an immediate finding
v A matter of survival
vi Physical examination of remains yet to confirm one possibility
vii Created to be utilised or a natural occurrence?
viii Archaeologists and anthropologists working together

27 Paragraph A
28 Paragraph B
29 Paragraph C
30 Paragraph D
31 Paragraph E
32 Paragraph F

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 29

 THE HISTORY OF FIRE
According to Darwin, the greatest discovery of humankind, apart from language, is fire. While
there are a number of animal species that respond when faced with the phenomenon of fire,
the art of controlling and making it is restricted only to humans.
A When natural fires occur, mostly due to lightning, hawks and other predators have been
known to take advantage of the situation by catching animals on the run. Similarly, such
benefits might have been the cause of the first human involvement with fire. The discovery
of fire was the result of stages in a process that occurred over a long period.
B While archaeological records show thousands of events of hominin activity, there are few
chances of fire being preserved. Stone tools, in contrast, have endured better through the
ages and give an insight into sampling.
C A wider evolutionary perspective will obviously have to consider three separate but inter-
grading forms of the use of fire: the domestic or social fire hearth, use of fire as a
technological tool as in firing pottery and fire foraging for resources. As mentioned by
Darwin, fire foraging would inescapably lead to consumption of food that had been 'cooked'
unintentionally, making foods like roots digestible. British primatologist Richard Wrangham
and his colleagues based their cooking hypothesis on the fact that hominins who resided in
open environments would find it difficult to survive on fruits and herbs throughout the year
the way the apes were able to, in tropical forests, especially during the dry season.
D The path of human evolution morphed due to fire control that permitted the early man to
cook food, stay warm, and ward off dangerous predators. Fire also had social and behavioral
implications as groups of people were encouraged not only to gather but to stay up late. It is,
however, a subject of intense debate, where and when humans learned how to kindle fire.
The oldest explicit evidence that dates back 300,000 to 400,000 years, found at Qesem Cave
in Israel associates the earliest control of fire with Neanderthals and Homo sapiens.
However, more recent finds by an international team of archaeologists have discovered
what seem to be the traces of campfires that glowed some 1 million years ago in South
Africa's Wonderwerk Cave where charred animal bones and ashed plant remains were
found at a site of early hominin habitation. "The evidence from Wonderwerk Cave suggests
that Homo erectus had some familiarity with fire," said Francesco Berna, an archaeology
professor at Boston University and the lead author of a paper on the findings by the team.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 30

E Armed with remains from Asia, Europe and Africa, some groups of researchers have also
claimed that human control of fire originated some 1.5 million years ago. However,
according to Berna, this evidence could very well stem from open-air sites where wildfires
could have blazed. Also, he added that while the objects that had been scorched were
analyzed, the surrounding deposits were not, which meant that the burning could well have
taken place elsewhere. Wonderwerk cave, on the other hand, was a protected
environment, and thus spontaneous fires were unlikely. Furthermore, sediments clinging to
the charred items suggested that fires were kindled there, underlining the fact that
Wonderwerk was indeed "the earliest secure evidence for burning in an archaeological
context."
F Excavation work is being conducted in Wonderwerk by Berna and his colleagues since 2004.
The researchers are also planning to investigate whether the inhabitants of the cave, the
Homo erectus, cooked food by checking on the remains of bones and their cut marks. Berna
explained, "More work needs to be done to exclude that meat was consumed raw and
bones were disposed of in the fire after that." Though archaeologists and anthropologists
have by and large considered fire to be a technological invention, because of the high
visibility of natural fires the early man's awareness to fire must inevitably go to very early
times.
G Over the ages, there has been an intensification of the use of fire following early encounters
and this has had a deep impact not only on human culture but also on biology. Fire has
succeeded in transforming human diet and has become entrenched in society to the extent
that it has significance in rituals and religious practices. The profound importance of fire and
the age-old nature of human connections with it in the past are unquestionable.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 31

Questions 33-38
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading passage 3?
Write
YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
33 No other discovery in human evolution is as great as that of fire.
34 Humans have learnt hunting techniques by watching animal behaviour.
35 A living being may expose itself to attack in case of natural disasters.
36 Richard Wrangham and his team had proof that the seasonal availability of food led
primitive humans to cook.
37 Experts tend to look for contradictory evidence while tracing the discovery of fire.
38 Knowledge of fire is strongly related to some natural phenomena in the early human
habitat.
Questions 39 and 40
Answer the questions below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer.
39 When did the team begin excavation at Wonderwerk?
40 Apart from the influence on human biology, what area of human life is impacted by fire?

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 32

 WEEK 2 MONDAY (READING)
READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 16 - 28, which are based on Reading Passage 2
below.

The Wonders of Coral Reefs

Amidst the vast expanse of the world’s oceans lies a dazzling spectacle of nature, subtly hidden
beneath the azure waves - the coral reefs. Often referred to as the “rainforests of the sea,” coral
reefs are enchanting ecosystems that burst with a kaleidoscopic display of colours, shapes, and
movement. These vibrant underwater worlds harbour a myriad of organisms, rendering them
not only aesthetically striking but also biologically significant.
The foundation of these remarkable ecosystems is built by tiny creatures known as corals. These
are actually colonies of polyps, minuscule invertebrates that secrete a hard, calcium carbonate
exoskeleton. Over countless generations, the skeletal structures accumulate, forming the vast,
complex reef structures that become habitats for an impressive array of marine life. An
interesting note is that while the coral structures are complex and seemingly inert, the living part
of the coral is a soft, delicate organism susceptible to environmental changes.
Coral reefs occupy a mere fraction of the ocean floor but are bastions of biodiversity, providing
refuge and sustenance to approximately 25% of all known marine species. The coral structures,
with their countless nooks, crannies, and caverns, present a sanctuary for a spectacular variety
of organisms, including fish, mollusks, echinoderms, and an assortment of algae and sea grasses.
This prodigious diversity is not merely a feast for the eyes but is also of paramount importance to
the ecological balance and resilience of our global seas.
The economic and ecological importance of coral reefs transcends their immediate
environment. They serve as crucial sources of sustenance and income for millions of people,
particularly in developing countries. Fisheries centred around coral reefs generate substantial
employment and food, with the diverse species of fish and other seafood being vital
components of global diets and international trade. Furthermore, the intricate web of coral reef
ecosystems also supports tourism, which, when managed sustainably, can provide significant
income to local communities while also instigating an admiration and understanding of marine
environments among visitors.
Coral reefs also function as natural buffers, mitigating the impact of storms and surges, thereby
protecting coastal communities and ecosystems from erosion and damage. This is a vital service,
particularly in light of the intensifying weather events induced by climate change. The
labyrinthine structure of the reefs disperses the energy of incoming waves, reducing their
impact as they reach the shoreline. In essence, these coral communities act as guardians of the
coastlines, shielding them from the wrath of the seas.
IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 33
However, these splendid marine ecosystems are confronted with existential threats. Climate
change, overfishing, and pollution are potent drivers of coral reef degradation. Rising sea
temperatures induce coral bleaching, a phenomenon where corals expel the symbiotic algae
living within their tissues, resulting in a loss of vibrant colours and a significant decrease in the
energy available to the corals. In a bleached state, corals are under stress and are more
susceptible to disease and mortality.
Moreover, harmful fishing practices, such as blast fishing and the harvesting of coral for the
aquarium trade, directly damage these fragile ecosystems. Pollution emanating from terrestrial
sources like agricultural runoff and untreated sewage further exacerbates the perils faced by
coral reefs, introducing toxic substances and fostering the proliferation of harmful algal blooms.
The conservation and restoration of coral reefs demand global attention and coordinated
actions, which entail the establishment and effective management of marine protected areas,
the promotion of sustainable fishing practices, and the rigorous implementation of pollution
control measures. Science and technology also play a crucial role in coral conservation, with
innovations in coral breeding and transplantation presenting new hope for the restoration and
recovery of degraded reefs.
Educational endeavours are equally pivotal in safeguarding the future of coral reefs. By
embedding an appreciation and understanding of these ecosystems within societal
consciousness, a robust foundation for their preservation can be cultivated. Engaging
communities, especially those directly interacting with coral reef ecosystems, in conservation
efforts is imperative to engender stewardship and facilitate the development of practices that
are ecologically sound and socioeconomically viable.
Coral reefs, with their enchanting beauty and ecological significance, stand as one of the planet’s
most spectacular and vital natural wonders. The protection and restoration of these underwater
marvels is not merely an environmental imperative but also a socioeconomic necessity,
safeguarding biodiversity and securing the livelihoods of millions of people. It is an endeavour
that necessitates global collaboration, bridging the realms of science, policy, and community
engagement, to ensure that the wonders of coral reefs persist for generations to come.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 34

Questions 16 - 20
Choose TRUE if the statement agrees with the information given in the passage, choose FALSE if
the statement contradicts the information, or choose NOT GIVEN if there is no information on
this.
16. Coral reefs are sometimes described as the jungles of the ocean.
17. Clusters of polyps form the hard, calcium carbonate exoskeleton of coral reefs.
18. The coral structures are smooth and offer little space for other organisms.
19. Fisheries mainly serve as a source of income and food by contributing to the
pharmaceutical industry and technology sector.
20. Corals when bleached, are in a robust and healthy condition, making them more resistant
to diseases and environmental challenges.

Questions 21 - 24
Answer the questions. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage in each gap.
21. What industry, besides fisheries, does the coral reef ecosystem significantly support?
22. Which process causes corals to expel symbiotic algae?
23. Which fishing method utilises explosives and is harmful to coral reefs?
24. What kind of fishing practices should be promoted to protect coral reefs?

Questions 25 - 28
Choose the correct answer.
25. What is emphasised about coral reefs in relation to marine species?
They are home to a quarter of all known marine species.
They are home to nearly half of all known marine species.
They are slowly losing all their marine species.
They are inhabited mainly by migratory marine species.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 35

26. What role do coral reefs play concerning coastal communities?
They erode the coastal areas.
They attract more storms towards the coast.
They lessen the impact of storms and surges, protecting coastlines.
They have no significant impact on coastal areas.

27. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a threat to coral reefs, in the passage?
Overfishing
Sustainable tourism
Climate change
Pollution

28. What is the key to ensuring the future safety of coral reefs?
Strictly enforcing international trade laws
Limiting scientific research on coral reefs
Educating and engaging communities
Completely banning fishing in coral areas

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 36

 WEEK 2 TUESDAY (WRITING TASK 1)
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

The diagram below shows how the online food delivery applications work.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.

Write at least 150 words .

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 37

 WEEK 2 TUESDAY LISTENING

Part 1
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-5
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Flirting is Fun
Speed dating
• Began in 1 _____________________
• Maximum duration of a date: 2 ___________________
• 3 _________________ information: not exchanged
• Avoid: dressing to attract
flirting in excess
talking about past 4 _________________ that did not work
putting up a 5 ____________________

Questions 6-10
Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Name James Thorson

Popular name 6 ________________
Address 17B
Woodpecker Lane
Ledbury
Occupation 7 _____________
Nationality English
Phone number 8 ________________
Day(s) of joining in 9 ______________
About me Pretty cool, well built and 10 ___________________
IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 38
 Part 2
Questions 11-20
Questions 11-13
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
11 The talk is dedicated to
A a person who interviews someone.
B a person who is interviewed.
C general public.
12 Interviewee should have an idea about
A the company's features.
B the company's major competitors.
C future ad campaigns.
13 Candidates should
A ask questions about their own company.
B note down all answers and their goals.
C assume questions they would be asked.
Questions 14 and 15
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
What TWO things did Dr. Tackett mention about preparing the CV?
A taking professional help
B revising it
C adding references
D writing references
E update professionals

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 39

Questions 16-20
What does the expert say about each of the following behaviour?
Write the correct letter, A or B, next to questions 16-20.

A Do not
B Do

16 Follow a dress code.

17 Shake hands briefly.
18 Use your mother tongue.
19 Inquire about leave types.
20 Express gratitude.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 40

 Part 3
Questions 21-30
Questions 21-26
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Overview of the draft Suggestions by the tutor

● Challenges the company faced: ● Remove the conclusion, add data and

- during installation 24 _________ opinions.

- acquiring potential 21 _________ ● Include a 25 _________ of factual reports.

- expanding the business ● Study of a 26 ____________will not be

useful for new students.
- 22 ___________
● Solutions
● 23 ___________ about IT
● A conclusion

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 41

Questions 27-30
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
27 What did Sullivan mention about using the internet?
A It was very helpful initially.
B They couldn't find considerable information.
C They found a list of the biggest IT companies.
28 What reference material did the students use?
A library resources
B a magazine
C November journal
29 What, apart from the Forbes, did the students keep a check on?
A fastest growing it company
B global trends
C latest gadgets in the market
30 Why did the students include the experts' opinions?
A to strengthen the report
B to strengthen the foundation of a company
C to make people aware of the leaders in the field

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 42

 Part 4
Questions 31-40
Questions 31-36
Complete the notes below.
Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

BRIDGING THE BERING STRAIT

● Plans to build a tunnel between Siberia and Alaska under the Bering Strait
● The narrowest point of Bering Strait: 31 _____________ kilometres
● Will transport oil, 32 _______________ and electricity to the U.S
● The tunnel would have a road and electrified railway.
● Russian government is coordinating project with the U.S. and 33 __________.
● Funding from public funds as well as 34 ____________
● It would be the world’s longest tunnel, 103 kilometres, 35 ___________ the length
of the Channel Tunnel.
● The tunnel would surface on 36 _________ in the strait.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 43

Questions 37-40
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
37 The earliest plans for a link across the Bering Strait were made
A in the 19th century.
B after 1905.
C after World War One.
38 The waters of the Bering Strait
A are not deep.
B at least 55 m deep.
C have bad currents.
39 The most expensive part of the project would be
A the tunnel section.
B above-ground sections.
C the Russian side.
40 How long is the construction expected to take?
A over fifteen years
B fifty years
C fifteen years

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 44

 WEEK 2 WEDNESDAY (WRITING TASK 1)
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

The table below identifies the six foods people from selected European countries
demand more often.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.

Write at least 150 words.

European Food Cravings (in percentage)

Chinese American Mexican Indian Local Japanese
United Kingdom 28 24 19 19 10 5
France 22 21 5 2 25 23
Germany 21 22 18 4 21 5
Spain 11 19 22 10 28 15

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 45

 WEEK 2 WEDNESDAY (WRITING TASK 2)
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Write about the following topic:

Sports deserve a great deal of importance in our life. Discuss.

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your knowledge or
experience.
Write at least 250 words.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 46

 WEEK 2 THURSDAY LISTENING

Part 1
Question 1-10
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Pet Care Centre
Breed: Bullmastiff
Given Name: 1 __________
Age: About 2 __________
General comments about pet's nature:
● 3 __________
● docile and trainable
● loving
● 4 __________, hardly barks
Special Requests:
● food - sufficient 5 __________and essential 6 ____________
● for washing (shampoo) - 7 ___________ : Hygiene Daily
Outing:
Cousin will visit
● on Thursdays and 8 __________
● Visit time (approximately): 9 __________ in the morning
● Emergency number: 10 __________

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 47

 Part 2
Questions 11-20
Question 11-16
Label the diagram below.
Choose the correct letters, A-H.

A mythology books E keys

B donation box F classics
C magazines G chemistry
D history books H physics

11 __________ 14 __________
12 __________ 15 __________
13 __________ 16 __________

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 48

Questions 17-18
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO of the following activities are allowed in the library?

A help others to read

B carry their mobile phones
C consume snacks inside the library
D consume certain drinks inside the library
E eat or drink outside the reading area

Questions 19-20
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
What TWO actions can the trainees take if they find a visitor disturbing others?

A Wait for the supervisor.

B Take direct action as soon as possible.
C Tell the supervisor.
D Try to handle the angry and misbehaving visitor.
E Avoid any argument with the visitor.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 49

 Part 3
Questions 21-30
Questions 21-26
Choose the correct letters, A-G.
Match the name of the student with the respective duty.

A Phil
B Suzan
C Chris
D Diana
E Nathan
F Tina
G Ray

21 anchoring
22 stage setup
23 recite the poem
24 deliver greeting speech
25 perform miscellaneous duties
26 post-lunch presentation
Questions 27 and 28
Choose TWO letters, A-D.
Which TWO does Professor Malcolm advise Jane about her article?
A Improve the introduction.
B Remove the conclusion.
C Add examples in a particular paragraph.
D Rewrite the entire article for clarity.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 50

Questions 29 and 30
Choose TWO letters, A-D.
Which TWO of the following does Professor Malcolm advise Nathan for his article?
A Get a printout from the internet.
B Download an illustration from the internet.
C Replace the illustration.
D Delete a particular piece of the text.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 51

 Part 4
Questions 31-40
Questions 31-34
Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
31 Development must be primarily for the __________ of people.
32 Community development boosts __________ to deal with problems.
33 The nature of different programs depends on the situation of the country, state and
__________.
34 Members are motivated towards active participation, __________ and cooperation for
a healthy environment.
Questions 35-36
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO domains benefit from community development?
A social
B environmental
C psychological
D communal
E economic
Questions 37-40
Choose FOUR letters, A-G.
Which FOUR attributes of community development does the speaker mention?
A It is an empowering tool for upliftment.
B It forces its influence on the people.
C It is an effective problem solving tool.
D It is a systematic activity.
E It aims to rule out domination.
F Community members help only each other.
G Alienation of members is possible.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 52

 WEEK 2 THURSDAY (WRITING TASK 2)
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Write about the following topic:

As we have become more advanced technologically, we have done more harm to the
environment, knowingly or unknowingly. What are the problems faced due to this
development? How do you think we can solve these issues?

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your knowledge or
experience.
Write at least 250 words.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 53

 WEEK 2 FRIDAY (WRITING TASK 1)
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

The graph below shows the fast food advertisements seen by American children every
year.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.

Write at least 150 words.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 54

 WEEK 2 FRIDAY (WRITING TASK 2)
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Write about the following topic:

At present, education has been significantly commercialised in many parts of the

world. Is this a positive or a negative development?

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your knowledge or
experience.
Write at least 250 words.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 55

 WEEK 2 FRIDAY (READING)

READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage
1 below.

STREET ART VS GRAFFITI

The struggle between street art and graffiti is ubiquitous. To most people, it is easy to conflate
graffiti and street art. Even in artistic circles, both concepts are used interchangeably. However,
Stavsky says, "Graffiti predates street art and street art draws inspiration from graffiti." Graffiti is
word-based where writers are mostly self-taught, whereas street art is image-based where
artists often undergo formal training. Graffiti is illegal, which gives it a counter-cultural edge.
Graffiti dates back to the ancient civilisations of Egypt, Greece and Rome. In ancient Rome,
graffiti was seen carved on walls and monuments; the same was observed in ancient Egypt.
Ancient graffiti displayed phrases of love declarations, political rhetoric as compared to today's
popular messages of social and political ideals. In modern times, spray paint and marker pens
have become the tools of graffiti. Tagging the name of the artist is also important, as every graffiti
artist likes to be identified by his name.
On the other hand, street art has travelled a long way right from the 20th century in Latin
America. A significant point was considered in the history of street art when young people
initiated a protest against the socio-political environment and started a meaningful agitation
undertaking the "battle of meaning".
Over a period, it took the form of true artistic expression. In the era of capturing moments
through photography, street art became the new form of displaying different contexts.
Gradually, it paved its way through art galleries and global art markets. Artists like Banksy, Vhils
or BLU transformed views of this art form making it a ground for experimenting with various
methodologies, but never compromising with its rebellious position. Thus, street art gave birth
to astounding murals created by various artists.
Are Graffiti and Street art crime or sublime? There are many ongoing arguments, as some think
that such type of art can be offensive or objectionable if done without permission. It should not
support vandalism. As per the Los Angeles Police Department, Graffiti can indicate the presence
of growing gang members which can be a threat to the community, work on terrorist lines,
intimidate rivals and may prove responsible for social activism and civil disobedience.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 56

According to Professor Clay of the University of Warwick, "Street art attracts more people to the
nearby cafes and restaurants as a crowd puller. Graffiti also affects real estate prices. Street art is
either an indicator of a vibrant street or a run-down which needs policing." He further states, "It
depends upon an individual's perspective to visualise an open space, but it is clear to me that
more and more people are accepting the art as a positive phenomenon."
In spite of the controversial views on graffiti and street art, they are important cultural
expressions. Graffiti is inspirational to designers who revolve their clothing lines around it.
Advertising campaigns, traditional artwork, computer graphics use graffiti as a way of
expression. Street art has gained cult followings, media and art world attention; they have
grabbed commercial recognition by their art and the work done by them on streets.
The terms "urban art", "guerrilla art", "post-graffiti" and "neo-graffiti" are also sometimes used
when referring to artwork created in these contexts. Journalists like Jonathan Jones consider
graffiti as ugly, stupid and vaguely threatening, but this form of art is gaining popularity and
increasing amount of respect. There will always be discussions surrounding the legitimacy of
street art and whether or not it has a place in the community. In the present scenario, it can be
compared to social networking sites like Twitter which has always been found in the midst of
controversy. It will not come as a surprise if Graffiti and Street art get into the mainstream arena
for the public display of views and opinions.
Questions 1-5
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 1?
Write
YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
1 The creators of graffiti and street art evolve through self-learning.
2 Graffiti is considered to be against the established ways of life.
3 Social messages were expressed more vigorously through Street art only after the
20th century.
4 Teaching graffiti in universities is considered by the authorities.
5 Graffiti and Street art are already in the mainstream for public display.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 57

Questions 6-8
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

6 Earlier the youth used street art

A as a means of protest.
B the most popular pastime for budding artists.
C instead of words to express their emotions.
D as it was more popular than graffiti.

7 According to the LA police, Graffiti is considered illegal as

A it does not support vandalism.
B it is always done without permission.
C it encourages gang wars and civil unrest.
D it is a wasteful activity in the present date.

8 According to the writer, graffiti and street art

A are disputable yet relevant to culture.
B are easily accepted by experts across the world.
C are just a form of revolutionary images.
D can be used to beautify the walls of the street.
Questions 9-13
Complete the summary using the list of words, A-H, below.
Graffiti is said to be an 9 ________ mode of expression than street art. People displayed their
opinions on social and political issues through graffiti images and also announced emotions such
as love. Modern graffiti artists use 10 _______ such as spray paints and markers and make sure to
leave their 11 _______ on the drawing.
Street art has evolved gradually as an artistic expression. Some artists have raised this form to a
higher level with the scope to 12 _______ different techniques, but the 13 _______ of protest is
kept alive.

A Modernise B older C revise D explore

E essence F instruments G impression H name

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 WEEK 2 FRIDAY (READING)

READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading Passage
2 below.

PSYCHOKINESIS
When we discuss psychokinesis, a familiar image that floats into our mind is that of Professor
Charles Xavier, leader of a fictional superhero group commonly known as the 'X-men'. His talent,
or as the franchise likes to call it a "mutation", is that of controlling a physical system without
exerting any physical force. This ability of individuals has been recognised since ancient times,
making it a topic of heated discussion amongst the spiritual circle. Back in the 1800s, when this
ability was first documented, people were intrigued by the power of the mind.
Due to the lack of studies and technology, people felt that this ability was very abstract and could
not be defined comprehensively. But, over time, studies were conducted; science 'stepped-up'
and new technologies were ushered in, resulting in better comprehension of the concept. But
one question remains: Is psychokinesis real? There are numerous studies to prove to us that
people can use their mind (or perhaps, some unexplained mind-like structure) to bend spoons
which are made up of metal, moving objects from sealed boxes and ambit of other amazing
feats. The US Air Force has conducted a significant number of studies, and one such paper,
authored by Dr Eric W. Davies shows to the world that there are ways to teleport or kinetically
move oneself. One point that should, however, be noted psychokinesis refers to the ability to
affect objects using one's mind, while teleportation is a type of psychokinesis in which objects
can be moved across a particular distance in a matter of seconds.
Collaboration between science and the ability of psychokinesis led to the birth of Psychokinesis
and Quantum Field Theory. This theory states that spoons are made of atoms and that these
atoms can be manipulated by a substantial force. Further, the quantum field theory elicits that
the interactions between particles are sufficient to bring about changes in the nature and shape
of a particle, given there is enough energy generated. Another study which provides proof of the
existence of this power is an experiment conducted by the National Defense Science
Commission in China. According to this experiment, children managed to successfully move
small objects over short distances through physical barriers without laying a finger on them! The
result of the first round of this experiment was published in 1981, in Ziran Zazhi (Nature Journal).

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 59

The benefits have been studied too, and it was found that psychokinesis requires high levels of
concentration. Developing the ability to concentrate at will lead to peace of mind, self-
confidence, inner strength and focus. Psychokinesis allows individuals to strike out thoughts
which are disturbing, useless or unproductive, allowing them to tap the complete power of their
mind.
Many people are sceptical about the existence of these powers- there have been numerous
voices against the use and application of psychokinesis, with the first contention being the
"fictitious" nature of these powers. However, the non-believers have been silenced by the likes
of people such as Dr Polgar, a former lieutenant in the Hungarian army, who can read thoughts.
He was the victim of a grenade explosion, after which he was rendered unconscious. Once he
came out of this comatose state, he discovered his new powers. While he was in hospital, he was
able to understand the thoughts of the doctors and nurses. Following this, he was subjected to
numerous psychological procedures, during which the authenticity of his ability was proved
successfully. The most famous instance of his psychic prowess was when he discovered that the
details of a murder case given to him were false. Later, it was disclosed to him that it was an
improvised test.
Dr Robert Jahn, the dean of the School of Engineering at Princeton University, has conducted a
gamut of experiments to show that mind does affect matter. He went on to prove through his
experiments that human psyche can affect material objects. After thousands of similar studies
and lab tests on hundreds of different men and women, it was found that around five people
were able to manipulate a pendulum placed under a transparent plastic cap.
The real world applications of psychokinesis are still in the developmental phase, as the field is
yet to be studied completely. Some nations feel that promoting the growth of this ability will be
detrimental to society in the long run, while others believe that developing this will lead human
beings to their reservoir of mental calibre. With knowledge of the composition of objects, the
potential of psychic powers to influence them is gradually being embraced as a harbinger of
change in the future.

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Questions 14-16
Choose THREE letters, A-F.
Which THREE of the following statements are true about psychokinesis?
NB Your answers may be given in any order.
A It refers to the mental ability of an individual to impact an object without using any form
of bodily exertion.
B Psychokinesis can be used by people to bring about changes in physical systems such as
weather and climate.
C Psychokinesis was known to intrigue and unsettle people in the eighteenth century.
D Psychokinesis cannot be used to read the minds of people.
E Teleportation and psychokinesis are not one and the same thing.
F Psychokinesis requires complete engrossment.
Questions 17-20
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.
17 X-men, as a group
A has the ability to control people's mind.
B is physically powerful due to alteration in genes.
C is a virtual creation.
D is talented because of mutations.
18 Quantum field theory has proven that
A substances and objects can be modified, reshaped or moved if a sufficient
amount of internal energy is produced.
B spoons are made up of atoms which can be manipulated through the exertion
of physical power.
C psychokinesis is a sister discipline.
D even in the presence of an inadequate amount of energy, particles interact
with each other.

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19 A lieutenant from Hungary proved the legitimacy of his powers by
A reading the minds of doctors and nurses in a hospital.
B providing insights about psychokinesis.
C revealing that the case details were bogus.
D subjecting himself to rigorous psychological experiments.
20 After conducting numerous experiments on a wide variety of people, it was
concluded that
A only five people knew how to move a pendulum which is under a plastic
barrier.
B only five people out of hundreds knew how to channel their mental abilities
and manipulate objects.
C it is possible to move an object through mind power.
D around five people were able to actually manipulate objects which are located
beyond barriers.
Questions 21 and 22
Answer the questions below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
21 Which factor can disturb the arrangement of atoms in a spoon?
22 What made Dr Polgar fall into a coma?

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Questions 23-26
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage?
Write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
23 Discussion of psychokinesis in spiritual circles attracted the public.
24 The U. S. defence practises teleportation.
25 According to a study, it was found that children could make objects travel without any
physical contact if the distance is small.
26 Countries are in agreement about the application of psychokinesis in the real world.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 63

 WEEK 2 FRIDAY (READING)

READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading Passage
3 below.
Questions 27-32
Reading passage 3 has six paragraphs, A-F.
Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-F from the list of headings below.

List of Headings
I Retirement homes can be counterproductive
ii Safety concerns favour nursing homes
iii Reasons to opt for retirement homes
iv Nothing can replace family
v Dependence on long-term care services
vi Exchange of duties gives rise to trouble
vii An unavoidable situation
viii Increasing popularity leads to added benefits
ix Factors favouring retirement homes
x A change in behaviour

27 Paragraph A
28 Paragraph B
29 Paragraph C
30 Paragraph D
31 Paragraph E
32 Paragraph F

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 RETIREMENT HOMES
A Financial restraints, lack of time and family commitments often make it difficult to give aged
parents the necessary care, particularly when their health is declining. This is especially true
with ailments such as dementia. Under such circumstances, it is unfeasible to retain the
invalid at home. Coping with time issues and stress can also pose a dilemma. In cases where
the parent is not mobile, the caregiver may not be physically equipped to offer required
care. Safety of the patient is another factor. The home may not be a suitable place for their
particular needs. According to data obtained from the Congressional Budget Office in 2013,
individuals may receive long-term care services in a variety of settings, namely, adult day
services centre, a home health agency, hospice, other residential settings, for instance in an
assisted living or similar residential care community.
B While caring for ageing parents, role reversal comes into play. This can not only lead to
tension but can bring about changes in the attitude of the parent, who might not be entirely
comfortable with the concept of being taken care of by their offspring. There will be
elements of resentment or even anger. They may even harbour feelings of guilt as they
perceive themselves as a burden. Feelings of inadequacy can further aggravate the
problem. All of these harboured feelings can result in a constrained and unhappy
relationship. Under stress, the parent may become uncooperative and misbehave. They
may feign illness or make you feel guilty every time you go out, and even get abusive. The
festering tension affects not only you but the rest of the family as well.
C Broaching the subject of a retirement home under these extenuating circumstances has its
hurdles. While the parent may experience feelings of rejection, they may also harbour the
sense that they are a burden on their offspring. They are aware that staying in a retirement
home is the only feasible alternative.
D Retirement homes and communities with a wealth of benefits have mushroomed in recent
years. Depending on the financial resources, a facility tailor-made for your elderly parent is
not difficult to come by. The elderly who are mobile and financially sound can avail of
specially designed communities with recreational facilities such as swimming pool and
clubhouse. Gaining in popularity, these age-segregated communities are legally protected.
Nursing homes, on the other hand, are financially viable. However, the homes may have an
oppressive atmosphere. The bedrooms in these facilities resemble hospital rooms.
Irrespective of the kind of retirement facility, around the clock supervision and in-house
medical care from experts in the field, is guaranteed. In 2014, there were about 67,000 paid,
regulated long-term care service providers serving about nine million people in the United
States. More than 1.5 million nursing employee full-time equivalents (FTEs)—including
registered nurses (RNs), licensed practical nurses (LPNs) or licensed vocational nurses
(LVNs), and aides— and about 35,200 social work employee FTEs worked in such set-ups.

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E Elderly residents spend most of their time with health care workers and fellow residents.
Consequently, they often suffer from depression. The entailing feelings of sadness and
hopelessness are often confused with dementia and are neglected. Finding a retirement
home that provides top quality care with qualified and trained employees is often difficult.
Any concerns that a client's family may have regarding the care of the parent are often
unresolved due to lack of efficient staff. Also, cultural differences and language issues can
pose a problem. Many older people who are strong-willed find it challenging to adapt to the
environment of a retirement home. They feel a total disconnect not only from their
neighbours but the society at large.
F It is often difficult to comprehend the feeling of vulnerability a person experiences when
they become incapable of fending for themselves. In the structured environment of a
retirement home, the elderly face their biggest fear, the loss of independence. While
situations, where the person has dementia or restricted mobility, does not allow for the
luxury of home care, for a parent who is by and large mobile, spending the remaining years
of their life with a loving family is the ideal option.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 66

Questions 33-39
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?
Write
YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
33 Poor time management restricts people from looking after their parents.
34 Parents often suffer from deteriorating health.
35 Parents may get the bitter feeling of indignation when it comes to role reversals.
36 It is challenging to care for elders without hurting their self-respect.
37 Retirement homes and communties have proliferated in the past few years.
38 Residential care communities provide better healthcare services to older people than

nursing homes.
39 The mental condition or emotional distress of the parents is well understood by the staff
at retirement homes.
Question 40
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.
What is the main purpose of Reading Passage 3?
A to point out the initial hurdles for parents
B to point out that retirement homes are always counterproductive
C to point out the difficulty in finding the best homes
D to point out the issues surrounding care for the elderly

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 67

 WEEK 3 MONDAY (READING)

READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 29 - 40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.
Questions 29 – 34
Reading passage three has seven paragraphs. Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A
– F and move it into the gap.

List of Headings
i. Social Media as a Connector in Today's World
ii. The Duality of Social Media's Impact
iii. The Intrinsic Need to Compare in the Digital Era
iv. Tackling the Adversities of Online Promotions
v. Virtual World's Impact on Self-Esteem and Mental Health
vi. The Impact of Online Communities on Offline Behavior
vii. Shaping a Healthy Social Media Future
viii. The Benefits of Online Social Comparison
ix. Virtual Refuge for Interaction and Identity

29 Paragraph A
30 Paragraph B
31 Paragraph C
32 Paragraph D
33 Paragraph E
34 Paragraph F

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 THE IMPACT OF SOCIAL MEDIA ON MENTAL HEALTH
A In the evolving landscape of the modern digital age, social media stands out as a prominent
entity, interlacing itself deeply into our day-to-day lives. Its inception has not only
revolutionised the way we communicate, interact, and access information but also the very
fabric of our interpersonal relationships. As we increasingly rely on platforms like
Instagram, Twitter, Facebook, and TikTok, concerns about the profound effects these
networks might have on our mental health gain prominence. The relationship between
social media and our psychological state is complex, encompassing an array of uplifting and
deleterious influences.
B Undoubtedly, the merits of social media are manifold. They serve as bridges, connecting us
to friends, family, and even strangers across the globe, irrespective of geographical barriers.
For many, these platforms act as lifelines, especially in times of physical separation or during
unprecedented global events like pandemics. The rapid dissemination of information has
always been challenging, enabling users to stay updated about global occurrences, voice
their perspectives, and partake in enriching discussions that span myriad topics, from pop
culture to academic discourses.
C On a deeper psychological level, these digital realms can be a sanctuary for those who find
real-world interactions daunting or inadequate. Online communities, formed around
shared interests, hobbies, or experiences, provide solace and a tangible sense of belonging.
People can find their "tribe", seek counsel affirmation, and even narrate personal
anecdotes without the fear of immediate backlash or judgment. This virtual companionship
can be a beacon of hope for many, particularly those feeling marginalised or isolated in
offline settings.
D Nevertheless, this rosy picture is sometimes overshadowed by the looming concerns
associated with excessive immersion in the virtual world. One of the primary
apprehensions revolves around self-perception distortion and the resultant hit on self-
esteem. The relentless barrage of curated life snapshots, exotic vacations, personal
achievements, or perfect physical appearances creates an environment ripe for
unfavourable self-comparisons. In trying to measure up to these seemingly impeccable
standards, individuals might end up feeling inadequate or disillusioned, leading to a spiral of
emotional distress, self-doubt, and even depressive tendencies. Further darkening this
digital panorama is the menace of cyberbullying. The inherent anonymity of the internet
emboldens specific individuals to indulge in harmful behaviours, unbridled by the
consequences that might ensue in real-world confrontations. The repercussions for victims
can be harrowing, with many grappling with severe anxiety, depression, and debilitating
feelings of isolation. The virtual scars can, and often do, manifest in tangible psychological
traumas.

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E Another nuanced concern is the latent addictiveness of social media. At a glance, the instant
gratification from likes, comments, and shares seems harmless. However, beneath the
surface, these interactions can stimulate a dopamine-driven reward mechanism in our
brains. This cycle, seeking constant validation and pleasure, can burgeon into an addiction.
The implications are manifold: disrupted sleep patterns, reduced real-world productivity,
and even eroding face-to-face social skills.
The psychology of social comparison further magnifies the intricate web of social media's
effects on mental health. While comparing oneself to peers is a natural human tendency,
the digital space amplifies this manifold. Platforms showcase the highlights of individuals'
lives, and in an attempt to gauge personal success or happiness, users might unconsciously
pit themselves against these digital mirages. Feelings of envy, resentment, and a perceived
sense of failure can emerge, further exacerbating mental health challenges. Moreover, it is
crucial to acknowledge that the primary focus of such comparisons on social media is often
the superficial aspects of existence—physical beauty, material acquisitions, or perceived
societal successes. This skewed perspective can divert attention from more profound,
intrinsic sources of contentment and personal growth.

F Social media is a double-edged sword with its vast potential and pitfalls. While it brings
unprecedented opportunities for connectivity and information exchange, it concurrently
presents psychological challenges that cannot be ignored. However, as users become more
discerning and aware, strategies to counterbalance the adverse effects of social media are
emerging. Establishing stringent boundaries, both in terms of time spent online and the
nature of content consumed, is a step forward. Purposely disconnecting from accounts or
content that perpetuates negativity or unrealistic standards can pave the way for a
healthier digital experience. Navigating this intricate digital terrain requires awareness,
balance, and proactive measures, ensuring that we derive the benefits of social media while
safeguarding our mental equilibrium.

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Questions 35 – 37
Choose THREE correct answers.
Which of the following are discussed as potential negative impacts of social media on mental
health?

NB Your answers may be given in any order.

A Facilitation of global connectivity
B Distortion of self-perception and self-esteem
C Formation of supportive online communities
D Encouragement of unhealthy social comparisons
E Opportunities for communication and knowledge sharing
F Proliferation of cyberbullying incidents

Questions 38 – 40
Choose THREE correct answers.
What strategies are suggested to mitigate the adverse psychological effects of social media?

NB Your answers may be given in any order.

A Increased engagement with digital platforms
B Restricting time spent on social media
C Disconnection from negative online influences
D Amplification of superficial content consumption
E Development of awareness and proactive measures
F Expansion of virtual social circles

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 71

 WEEK 3 TUESDAY (WRITING TASK 1)
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

The graphs show the exchange rate of a Sterling Pound and Euro against the Indian
rupees in 2014.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.

Write at least 150 words.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 72

 WEEK 3 TUESDAY LISTENING

Part 1
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-6
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

DETAILS

The girl wants to learn 1 ____________________

Duration of the beginner's class 2 ____________________
Cost with discount: 3 $ ____________________
Required equipment 4 __________ amount of $ 25 5 ________
Yearly membership fee 6 $ ____________________

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Questions 7-10
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
7 Where does the girl live?
A in the new town
B in the outskirts
C in the main city centre
8 How can the girl reach the centre?
A by cycle
B by private transport
C by bus
9 When can the girl start the course?
A 13th March
B 12th March
C 14th March
10 Which mode of payment is NOT acceptable?
A Cheque
B Cash
C Credit cards

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 Part 2
Questions 11-20
Questions 11 and 12
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
11 Who can join the camp?
A only children
B only adults
C both children and adults
12 What does the speaker say about the campsite?
A It will be inside the forest.
B It will have a separate tent for children.
C It will be close to the forest.
Questions 13-15
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Campers must bring:

– comfortable footwear
– protection (clothes and repellent) against 13 _______________________
– Towels/napkins
– sleeping bag and rucksack

Recommend to carry:
– cap, sunglasses, flashlight,14 _____________________

Must carry: their 15 _____________________ (if any)

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 75

Questions 16-20
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Schedule

● Day 1- putting up tents (with help from the 16_________ )

● Lunch, followed by adventure activities

● Evening: 17 _______ and________

● Day 2 - trek, cook 18 _______ in the break

● Day 3 - 19 _____________, clean the forest

● Final activity - 20 ____________- unique experience of the forest

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 76

 Part 3
Questions 21-30
Questions 21-23
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
21 Braille is named after
A an institute.
B the theory on which it is based.
C a French inventor.
22 According to the speaker, what conditions prompted Braille to create a writing
system?
A poor eyesight
B painful working conditions at his father's workshop
C the difficulties of being blind
23 Which of the following facts is mentioned by the speaker?
A Louis Braille first introduced the concept of the Braille.
B The concept of the Braille had been introduced earlier.
C Louis's writing system was tedious work.
Questions 24 and 25
Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
24 Louis was inspired by the war-time communication system - __________.
25 Using 12 dots, this system was invented by an officer in the __________ army.

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Question 26-30
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
• Dots from numbers one to six
• Arrangement - equally divided in 26 __________ , descending order
• Based on theory of touch and feel
• Raised dots represent a single 27 _________ or frequently used words, such as BUT or
HAVE
• Acceptance of the system in 28 ___________
• Tools to write Braille manually - 29 ___________ and stylus
• Direction - from left to right
• Application of Braille - mathematics, scientific and 30 ___________ notation

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 78

 Part 4
Questions 31-40
Questions 31-37
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
31 People do not challenge popular choice in a group because
A they experience peer pressure.
B they are introverted.
C they dislike sharing their perspective.
32 People put up a false personality to
A accept a group.
B avoid being isolated.
C form a group.
33 Peer pressure
A is always counterproductive.
B has more positive effects than drawbacks.
C can be positive or negative.
34 It is evident that
A peer pressure and peer teaching are similar phenomena.
B people suffering from peer pressure have restricted knowledge.
C peer pressure and peer teaching are different.
35 Who are vulnerable to peer pressure?
A preteens
B teenagers
C only adults

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36 Higher activity in a part of the brain
A makes people win in a group.
B makes teenagers rebellious.
C makes people do things they usually avoid.
37 Peer pressure can be noticed in
A humans only.
B humans and animals.
C some age groups only.
Questions 38-40
Choose THREE letters, A-F.
Which THREE of the following actions can overcome peer pressure?
A saying no to everyone
B finding a compatible companion
C smoking and drinking
D overpowering others
E understanding oneself
F consulting parents or a counselor

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 80

 WEEK 3 WEDNESDAY (WRITING TASK 1)
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

The diagrams below show the development of a small coastal village and its
surrounding area into a tourist destination.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make
comparisons where relevant.

Write at least 150 words.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 81

 WEEK 3 WEDNESDAY (WRITING TASK 2)
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Write about the following topic:

Any art of a nation is its property and its cultural mouthpiece. Therefore it has to be not
only preserved but also popularised across the globe. In what ways do you think art can be
popularised globally? How this will influence the home country and other countries?

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your knowledge or
experience.
Write at least 250 words.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 82

 WEEK 3 THURSDAY LISTENING

Part 1
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-5
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

24/7 Helpline Services

Caller's Details:
Name: 1 _______________
Number of family members: 2 ___________
Address: 14, Arcade Street, Behind 3 ___________ Road
Inquiry: needs to see the doctor for her 4 ___________
Contact number for the doctor 5 ___________

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Questions 6-10
Choose the correct letters, A-F.
Match the facilities with the clubs listed below.

A Alive club

B The university library

C The rhythm club

D Common interest club

E Reading treasure

F Feet on beat

6 library for an institute __

7 private library __
8 dance __
9 music __
10 sports activities __

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 Part 2
Questions 11-20
Questions 11-13
Choose the letters A, B or C.
11 What is NOT displayed in the exhibition?
A flowers
B vegetables and fruits
C artificial flowers
12 According to the speaker, which type of food do people consume today?
A freshly cooked
B preserved food
C junk food
13 When is the exhibition organized?
A only in summer
B only in winter
C in both seasons
Questions 14-16
Answer the questions below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
14 Which TWO distinctive features of handpicked fruits and vegetables are mentioned?
15 Who will conduct the tutorials?
16 What activity is related to two popular fruits?

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Questions 17-20
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
● Visitors can learn to prepare organic fertilizer using 17 ___________ on their own.
● The food stalls use freshly picked organic 18 ___________.
● Grilled mushrooms or baked squash are some mouthwatering dishes.
● Visitors can purchase seeds, manure or farming equipment at 19 __________.
● The exhibition is open between 11 am and 20 ___________.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 86

 Part 3
Question 21-30
Question 21-23
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
21 What is the topic of Joseph's presentation?
A paintings to relax
B paintings as a hobby
C paintings for peace of mind
22 Joseph found that painting classes are gaining popularity
A among leisurely people.
B among the youth.
C among professional painters.
23 Which reason is NOT mentioned by Joseph for the growing interest of people towards
painting?
A It has healing power.
B It helps in displaying emotions.
C It is a necessary skill for certain professionals.
Question 24-26
Choose THREE letters, A-E.
Which THREE of the following are important knowledge in painting?
A about the painters
B forms of paintings
C types of brushes
D types of color
E familiar paintings

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 87

Questions 27 and 28
Complete the table below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Types of paints Advantage Disadvantage

Acrylics dry quickly

Water colours They are harmless for can be washed off easily
27 ___________

Oil paint can be preserved for a needs 28_______________

long period to dry out

Questions 29 and 30
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
● There are various styles of paintings.
● Youngsters like abstract paintings.
● 29 ___________ blends with art to create digital painting.
● Sand painting involves coloured sand and 30 __________ to create design.
● Joseph will conclude his presentation by showing printout of masterpieces such as
Mona Lisa.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 88

 Part 4
Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

THE MARIANA TRENCH

● Situated on the 31 _______________ of the Pacific Ocean, to the east of the
Philippines.
● like a Crescent-shaped scar on the surface of the earth
● approximately 2,550 km long, 69 km 32 _______________ and 10,994 m deep at the
lowest point
● The 33 _______________- the sunken most area of the trench
● The trench is also 180 million years old, one of the oldest sea beds.
● Hostile conditions such as pressure over 34 _______________ that of the standard
atmospheric pressure and freezing 35 _______________

EXOTIC MARINE LIFE

● Not all creatures are known to humans.
● Unique adaptation to the extreme 36 _______________ of dark ocean depths.
Inhabitants of the trench:
● The Dumbo octopus: resembles 37_______________, swallows its food whole
instead of chopping or grinding
● The Dragonfish: resembles an eel, bioluminescent body emits glow in the 38
________________ waters that it inhabits
● The Barreleye: has a 39 _______________ , internal structure clearly visible.
● Other predators in the Trench: Anglerfish, 40 _______________ like the Frilled shark
and the Goblin shark
Debates over the extent to which humans should explore the amazing ecosystems are likely
to continue.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 89

 WEEK 3 THURSDAY WRITING TASK 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Write about the following topic:

Education provided by government institutions is invariably better than that offered by

private institutes. How far do you agree with this statement?

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your knowledge or
experience.
Write at least 250 words.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 90

 WEEK 3 FRIDAY WRITING TASK 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

The graph below shows the percentage of obese men and women in four different
countries according to a report in 2013.

Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.

Write at lest 150 words.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 91

 WEEK 3 FRIDAY WRITING TASK 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Write about the following topic:

Which do you think is the best source of learning-books or other means? discuss.

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your knowledge or
experience.

Write at least 250 words.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 92

 WEEK 3 FRIDAY (READING)

READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-11, which are based on Reading Passage 1
below.

HOW BUSINESSES CAN LEARN FROM CUSTOMER COMPLAINTS

Customer complaints are common, and most organizations encounter them regularly.
Sometimes it is easy to focus on how many satisfied customers say nothing at all and lose track of
the complaints, forgetting how valuable a customer complaint is for an organization. Though
being the recipient of a complaint can be distressing, it's best to embrace the opportunity and
address it with commitment and honesty. The very complaints that are disturbing can become
valuable assets when handled correctly. An indicator that measures the satisfaction of
customers across the U.S. economy is the American Customer Satisfaction Index (ACSI) which
interviews about 80,000 Americans yearly and gauges how satisfied they are with the goods and
services they consume.
It is important to understand here, that a vast majority of customers who come over with a
complaint are more often than not your loyal customers and are trying to convey to you where in
your process, your communication or your product, you have erred. By fixing the problem of the
customer whose expectations have not been met, you will be in a position to help many other
customers who have not bothered to complain to you.
The quest for perfection is unrealistic as is the quest for customer satisfaction. With changing
requirements of customers and unpredictable market regulations, the environment of your
business changes too. According to the 2014 customer service barometer in the United States, a
little more than six in ten (62%) were of the opinion that companies met their customer service
expectations (59%, 2012; 61%, 2011). In 2014, only 5% of consumers were more than satisfied
with the customer service experiences they have with companies usually 'exceeding their
expectations' (down from 7% in 2012 and 6% in 2011) and 29% said that companies usually 'miss
their expectations' for customer service (down from 31% in 2012 and the same as 29% in 2011).
For any business to function to the satisfaction of customers, processes should be put in place
that can identify customer satisfaction, deliver superior services and products and build
relationships that are better. Recognizing the returns in relation to accepting the needs of the
customers, the potential of positive word of mouth publicity and free warning of potential
problems in service is of utmost importance.

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Opinions from consumers and a variety of other businesses were gathered by the National
Complaints Culture Survey. According to the survey, 44% of the people said that they would
henceforth make it a point to complain every time they had a problem with some purchased
goods or a certain service. In comparison to the consumer services, the incidence of complaining
in a business to business setting is greater. While it was found that 56% of consumers will not
make an effort to complain, on an average, only 25-30% business customers do not bother to
pursue a problem with a complaint. It is also interesting to note that there is a greater tendency
amongst consumers to escalate the complaint to the managerial level. When a complaint is
addressed to the front line, most information about a product or service goes unrecorded. This is
an interesting fact when you consider that only 45% of consumers said they complained to the
front line in comparison to the 75% of business to business customer complaints that did not
make it past the front line.
Complaints, handled promptly can become an asset. Late Sir Colin Marshall, British businessman
and member of the House of Lords, asserts, 'The customer doesn't expect everything will go
right all the time; the big test is what you do when things go wrong.' When the complaint is first
brought to your notice, your priority is communicating with the customer and trying to
understand the personal impact of the problem. As a result of the original problem, the
customer may feel misled and betrayed by the organization. Gauging the underlying message of
the complaint will help identify the problem, and you will be able to address the specific needs of
the customer. Having understood the cause of the problem, you will be in a position to
implement changes to avoid the problem from recurring.
Customer complaints, whether directed at a business or an organization should hold value
because a lack of response from the management regarding the complaint will only succeed in
driving the dissatisfied customer away. There is also the possibility that they will narrate the bad
experience to others. In contrast, a complaint that is handled well will eventually increase
customer loyalty. There are more chances of the customer using your services again and
probably singing your praise to friends. A Warwick Business School study revealed that 53%
incidents of service that were outstanding were noted from complaints that were handled well
by a business. If changes implemented as a result of customer complaints are successful, it's best
to promote them as it indicates your genuineness.
According to Bill Gates, 'Your most unhappy customers are your greatest source of learning.'
Customer complaints are your biggest asset as they give you the opportunity to improve
business using methods you wouldn't normally have thought of on your own. So it is best to
make the most of the customer complaints.

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Questions 1-5
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
1 Customer satisfaction
A is a straightforward affair.
B is all about the positive rating.
C is at once necessary and tedious.
D is measured more often in the US.
2 Responding to a complaint
A is valuable feedback for further production and marketing.
B promotes other customers to share their experience.
C directly benefits all other buyers.
D is proof of loyalty to the product.
3 Meeting customer demands perfectly is not viable
A due to unreasonable customer expectations.
B because of fluctuating market trends and buying behaviour.
C because a fixed process to identify problems is not possible.
D as only 5% to 7% customers express satisfaction with services.
4 According to paragraph 4,
A the proportion of customer complaints is higher.
B the proportion of business to business complaints is lower.
C customers will continue to avoid making complaints.
D complaints are not registered at the first level of the process itself.

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5 The author mentions Warwick Business School study
A to advocate improved communication with service providers.
B as evidence of genuine customers.
C as an example of effective handling of customer service.
D as an illustration of honesty as the only asset in business handling.
Questions 6-11
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-J, below.
6 Companies tend to concentrate greatly on
7 The data gathered in 2014 in the US shows that
8 Acknowledging customer requirements is important as
9 The National Complaints Culture Survey
10 According to Sir Colin Marshall,
11 Bill Gates emphasises on customer feedback

A positive feedback only.

B there is at least some expectation of customers when they buy products.
C customers are aware that there could be problems with the purchase.
D concluded that people are likely to demand immediate customer service.
E the numbers that show unresponsive customers.
F it spreads goodwill of the business.
G because it offers the best understanding.
H considered both customers and business owners attitudes towards consumer
satisfaction.
I most numbers show that the service was good.
J few felt that the service was exceptional.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 96

 WEEK 3 FRIDAY (READING)

READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading Passage 2
below.

OCEANS AND SEAS- A MOTHERLODE OF RESOURCES

Around 50% of the world's population lives in coastal areas or coastal zones, and ocean-based
businesses contribute a staggering $500 billion to the world economy. However, we have put to
risk the very ecosystems on which we depend for survival.
A Water is the most precious resource on this planet. Seas and oceans flow over nearly three-
quarters of our planet, holding 97% of the water. Producing more than half of the Earth's
oxygen present in the atmosphere, these also absorb a major portion of the carbon dioxide.
Oceans have other far-ranging impacts on people in different areas, irrespective of
geographical distance.
B As resources, oceans and seas are natural fisheries, thus becoming an important food source.
Many fish species and also Shellfish are much in demand in various communities across the
world. Fuel, plastics, man-made fibres, chemicals for painkillers, and other crude oil products
are derived from seas. Materials required for central heating and cooking are extracted from
oceans. A wide variety of minerals are mined from the deep sea, such as nickel, gold, copper,
manganese and zinc. Further, deep-sea mining has also been proven to be of great
importance to various economies.
C A large number of marine aggregates are used mainly in the construction industry, and also
for the manufacture of concrete. The United Kingdom uses 13 million tonnes of sand and
gravel for construction industries. Further, oceans can act as an excellent source of
renewable energy in the form of hydropower. One-third of the United Kingdom's energy
needs are met using hydropower! It also serves a means for leisure in different ways, being
used for scuba diving, whale watching, surfing, sailing, jet-skiing and fishing. Waste
absorption and detoxification are important functions as marine organisms store, bury and
transform these waste materials through assimilation and chemical transformation.
D There are a number of marine habitats, such as coral reefs, which support biodiversity. We are
dependent on these habitats for food, medicines and tourism. Nutrients are an essential
element in our lives. Plants would not grow in their absence, and ultimately, we would not
exist. Organisms from the seas and oceans have a significant role to play in nutrient cycling,
without which life on the Earth will collapse. Water circulation is another vital aspect which is
regulated by oceans. Oxygen-rich water from deep ocean surfaces up and contributes to the
high productivity of fisheries.

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E However, all the uses and resources of the seas and oceans have undergone an adverse
change over the past few generations. An ever-increasing world population has caused
overcrowding in landlocked and coastal regions, which has led to excessive dependence on
oceans. It has lead to added pressure on seas. Pollution levels have gone up drastically,
blocking sources of ventilation for fish, causing the death of a large number of marine
creatures. The effect of this is eventually spreading across all the ecosystems present on the
Earth, acting like slow poison.
F It has been found through a survey that death and disease caused by polluted coastal waters
have taken a toll of US$12.8 billion a year. The economic impact of hepatitis from corrupted
seafood itself is US$7.2 billion. To ensure a profitable and sustainable life for our future
generations, we have to ensure that oceans survive. The way things are going, seas and
oceans will very soon disappear from the face of the Earth, wiping out humans in the process.
G Humans have claimed inefficiency in fathoming the ocean depths, but, ironically, they have
managed to render noticeable damage. Before it is too late, policymakers and
environmentalists must work hand in hand to revive what is being lost and prevent further
damage.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 98

Questions 14-22
Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each
answer.
Water from oceans and seas produces over 14 ___________ the oxygen necessary to live. With
its wide variety of consumable marine creatures across the globe, oceans are essential as a 15
___________ . Oceans provide abundant raw materials such as sand and gravel for construction,
crude oil and minerals to manufacture a gamut of products, etc. In fact, 16 ___________ have
benefited greatly from deep-sea mining. Renewable energy is another important advantage of
natural water bodies. Apart from this, beaches and coastal areas have become hotspots for 17
___________ with different adventurous water activities. Various marine habitats 18
___________. The productivity of fisheries is also high due to self-regulated water circulation by
the oceans.
With world population soaring rapidly, over-dependence on oceans and dangerously rising 19
___________ have adversely affected the oceans and seas. Creatures of the marine ecosystems
are disappearing, and this is 20 ___________ all other ecosystems as well. In spite of the fact that
humans do not fully know what lies in the ocean depths, they have done visible 21 ___________
to the most precious water sources. The state and environmentalists must act in urgency to not
only 22 ___________ depleting wealth from the resources but also to prevent destruction in
future.
Questions 23-26
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the reading passage?
Write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information in the passage
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information in the passage
NOT GIVEN if there is no information in the passage
23 Ocean-based economies across the world are earning hugely.
24 The benefits from oceans are restricted to the coastal population.
25 The UK obtains a third of its energy requirements from hydro-power.
26 Humans are fully aware of their careless handling of resources and water bodies.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 99

 WEEK 3 FRIDAY (READING)

READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40 which are based on Reading Passage
3 below.

ENTREPRENEURSHIP AND TEAMWORK

Entrepreneurs may like to believe that they are unique individuals specially suited to take risks,
create and imagine new products and that they possess extraordinary problem-solving skills.
However, successful business owners understand that if they want to succeed in tapping new
markets and develop new solutions and products, they require a team of people who can pool
their unique skills together to achieve success.
When there is growth in a business, individual control over projects, finances and other
administrative responsibilities is not a viable option. Projects must create the scope for team-
based input. However, for an individual to relinquish control to a team can be a tricky transition
in spite of the acknowledged positives of teamwork. Especially when the task is enormous and
complex, working alone can lead to mounting stress and feelings of isolation. In a team-based
scenario, however, the members are aware of the specifics of the task at hand and act as stress
outlets. The situation is further diffused as the team shares responsibility.
A good example of teamwork is Barack Obama's presidential campaign in 2008. Obama's
campaign and ultimate triumph were lauded for its disciplined, organized and fired-up
campaigning. Many political pundits feel that the campaign may well become the standard-
bearer for future campaigns by political candidates. A closely aligned senior management team
empowered and fired-up the people, leading to the ultimate victory for Obama. Obama's
campaign centred around innovation. The argument is equally compelling in the case of
businesses as well. However, where business is concerned, innovation is often misunderstood.
There is a belief among many businessmen that innovation is not only the prerogative of leaders
but a rare gift that they exclusively possess. Sadly, this attitude tends to overlook many sources
of innovation. Obama's campaign, on the other hand, recognized the fact that for innovation to
work, it has to be led by a team of talented supporters.
The reason many organizations fall short at innovation is that leaders fail to understand the four-
step process: creating, advancing, refining and executing. The know-how at each stage of the
process varies, and it is highly unlikely that one person will have the capacity to handle all four
steps. A team-based approach is imperative to successful innovation. However, it is not
necessary that all teams will have members that have the talents required.

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Chief of Evangelist for Canva, Guy Kawasaki, currently one of the most followed entrepreneurs
and marketers, says, 'Success is a team process, not an individual event.' When asked what kind
of value he placed on teamwork, Guy said, 'Very high. I think the concept of the lone-wolf genius
is overrated.' Neil Patel, an entrepreneur and co-founder of Crazy Egg, Hello Bar and Kissmetrics
who has come to the aid of innumerable businesses and websites, agrees with Guy. 'Surround
yourself with a team that is smarter than you,' he said. On the question of the value of teamwork,
Neil says, 'A founder doesn't make a startup succeed, it's the team.' That a great team matters is
obvious. So, cultivating a team will result in higher rates of success as opposed to a selection of
individual contributors.
However, it has been seen that investors and board members spend little time in coming up with
ways to produce the best team dynamics. It is not uncommon for companies to have opposing
interests and warring factions. Founders fighting amongst themselves is not an uncommon
occurrence. Good leaders, however, tend to obsess about their teams. There is a constant effort
on, to see that they recruit the best talent at senior ranks. Their agenda is to see that every
objective of the team is fused to the same core.
Without a good team, the chance of stumbling business are high, and in all possibility, the
endeavour will not take off as envisioned by the entrepreneur. For the enterprise to succeed, the
entrepreneur must be capable of identifying and rightly tapping the team's potential.

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Questions 27-29
Choose THREE letters, A-F.
Which THREE attributes of individual entrepreneurs have been quoted in the text?
NB Your answers may be given in any order.
A They run the business alone.
B They can devise innovative solutions.
C They have a positive self- image of being a sole fighter.
D They may find it difficult to transfer responsibilities.
E They always work under stress.
F It is impractical for them to take charge of all sections of the business.
Questions 30-32
Choose THREE letters, A-F.
Which THREE statements about teamwork are quoted by the writer of the passage?
NB Your answers may be given in any order.
A A team is readily acceptable in the market.
B People competent in different fields come together.
C Team members acknowledge each other.
D There is a scope of venting out stress.
E A specific task is handled at a time.
F Responsibility is shared.

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Questions 33-35
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-F, below.
33 Barack Obama's presidential campaign was a success
34 Corporate leaders miss prospective means of innovation
35 Many enterprises fail to create new products or ideas

A because they cannot recognize the significance of particular expertise needed at each
phase.
B because it was led by a team of senior managers.
C because they are overconfident about their innovative capabilities.
D because it propagated the message of innovation through a well-formed team.
E because they believe it can hardly be achieved.
F because they misinterpret the various phases of the process.

Questions 36-40
Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
36 In a thriving business, it is necessary that single-handed administration is replaced by
_________.
37 The political campaign of Obama may emerge as a paradigm for _________.
38 According to an illustrious entrepreneur, the notion of _________ intelligence is
exaggerated.
39 A good leader ensures that each team _________ is aligned with the central motto.
40 A venture may not run as _________ in the absence of a skilled team.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 103

 WEEK 4 MONDAY (READING)

READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 - 14, which are based on Reading Passage 1
below.

CIVIC AGRICULTURE REVOLUTION

In the heart of Rome, metropolitan cultivators are pioneering a groundbreaking initiative,
adopting a groundless method for farming. This innovative approach merges traditional
agricultural wisdom with modern technology and consumes less area and resources. But the
question arises: Can this solution provide a blueprint for cities globally to confront the looming
challenges to our food provisions?
The biggest metropolitan terrace garden has begun producing on the roof of a modern art
gallery in southern Rome. Small, potent, vivid red strawberries emerge plentifully from sizable
synthetic containers. A glimpse inside and the hollow nature of these tubes becomes evident,
with strawberry plant roots hanging freely within. Adjacent to these are vertical containers
overflowing with lettuces, and fragrant herbs like oregano, rosemary, and mint flourish close by.
On the opposite side, in elongated trays filled with coconut fibres instead of soil, one can find
glistening bell peppers, gleaming zucchinis, and vibrant kale.
Lorenzo Bianchi, an innovator and advocate for sustainable growth, initiated his experiments
with vertical gardens and aeroponic towers - as the groundless synthetic tubes are identified -
atop his Roman apartment five years earlier. The metropolitan terrace above the art gallery is
significantly expansive, encompassing 14,000 square metres, equivalent to two soccer fields. In
a single day, the dedicated group of city cultivators who manage it harvested 3,000 lettuces and
150 baskets of strawberries. Once the remaining vast space becomes productive, around 20
personnel will collect up to 1,000 kg of approximately 35 diverse fruit and vegetable types daily.
"Clearly, we're not going to sustain an entire metropolis in this manner," Bianchi points out.
"Urban settings present significant logistical challenges. Yet, if underutilised spaces can be
converted in this manner, achieving about 5% to 10% of total consumption isn't outlandish.”
This initiative notably serves as a practical demonstration for Bianchi’s booming city agriculture
venture, TerraCity. Presently, they're receiving global inquiries to create, construct, and supply
this innovative form of urban garden. Bianchi emphasises the multiple benefits. He expresses
discontent that most of the produce we consume encounters numerous pesticides and
contributes significantly to greenhouse gas emissions. The distance these foods travel and the
compromised quality due to their selected resilience for lengthy transportation is also
concerning. Moreover, most of the expense is not for the growers but for the intermediaries.

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In contrast, the groundless cultivation method uses minimal water, fortified with natural
nutrients, flowing within a sealed system of conduits and containers. Products are cultivated and
retailed locally, minimising transit. “We can prioritise taste over transport endurance, and
harvest at peak freshness,” notes Bianchi. This method conserves soil and recycles water,
utilising 90% less water than conventional farms for an equivalent output.
In ancient Rome, ornate fish ponds, termed "piscinae," were a symbol of luxury, predominantly
seen in villas during the late Republic and early Empire periods. These were home to favoured
species like mullet and eel, often featured in recipes by gourmet aficionados like Apicius. Fast
forward to contemporary Rome, and aquaculture has transformed from a symbol of luxury to a
beacon of sustainability. Modern urban aquaponic systems, a harmonious blend of fish farming
and hydroponics, have found their niche in repurposed spaces like warehouses and rooftops.
Fish such as tilapia and carp thrive in these systems, with their waste-nourishing plants that, in
turn, purify the water. Additionally, Rome's proximity to the Mediterranean has spurred marine
aquaculture initiatives, emphasising sustainable cultivation of sea bass and mussels, aiming to
boost local seafood supply while relieving pressure on wild fish stocks.
While city farming isn't novel, its popularity surges from Beijing to Los Angeles and Seoul to Kuala
Lumpur. This aeroponic technique is commendable. It's lightweight, versatile, and cost-effective
both in setup and operation. Products cultivated in this manner are priced between
conventional and organic farming. Some limitations persist, like the unsuitability of root crops or
fruit trees. Yet, this urban cultivation trend in Rome symbolises a broader shift, positioning food
growth nearer our daily lives.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 105

Questions 1 - 3
Answer the following below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer.
1 Where in southern Rome is the biggest urban rooftop park located?
2 What is typically utilised in place of soil in lengthy trays for crop growth in the groundless
agriculture technique?
3 When the rooftop garden is fully productive, how many different varieties will be harvested on
a daily basis?

Questions 4 - 8
Complete the table below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes.

Feature/Aspect Intensive Farming Aeroponic Urban Farming

Limitations like 4
Fewer due to large-scale and
Crop Limitations _________ for root crops
open environment
and fruit trees

Prioritise crops that with Prioritise crops for their

Crop Selection
stand long transportation flavour and freshness

5____________ method
Method/Approach Soil-based
using synthetic containers

6 ______________ and
Economic Greater share likely for
transport companies get most
Distribution producers
of the cost

7 __________________,
Infrastructure Varies, but high due to land
economical setup and
Cost and equipment
Operations

Uses 90% less water;

Environmental Technique 8 _____________
minimal environmental
Impact to greenhouse gas emissions
footprint

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Questions 9 - 14
Choose TRUE if the statement agrees with the information given in the passage, choose FALSE if
the statement contradicts the information, or choose NOT GIVEN if there is no information on
this.

9. Sealed tubes and pots are used in groundless agriculture.

10. As weighed against conventional agriculture, groundless farming technology provides for a
ninety percent decrease in water consumption.
11. Rome’s closeness to the Mediterranean Sea had no role in boosting its aquaculture
endeavours.
12. In medieval Rome, pools with fish, referred to as "piscinae," were found on all private
properties.
13. Comparing aeroponic agriculture to conventional farming, the latter is flexible and more
economical.
14. The aeroponic technique requires specific temperatures for optimal growth of produce.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 107

 WEEK 4 TUESDAY (WRITING TASK 1)
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task

The diagram below shows how RO (reverse osmosis) works to get clean drinking water.
Write a report for a university lecturer describing the functioning of RO.

Write at least 150 words.

Reverse osmosis - Water Treatment Process

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 108

 WEEK 4 TUESDAY LISTENING

Questions 1-10
Questions 1-5
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Wilbur Acting Academy

Name of the Play: Merchant of Venice
Venue: 1 ______________
Date: 24th June
Play timing: 11.30 (actors must report 2 __________ ahead)
Auditions Timing: 9.00 am to 6.00 pm
Character(s): Antonio, Portia (selected)
Shylock, Bassanio (to be selected)
Type of Event: fundraising to provide 3 ____________
Actors' participation will be 4 ____________
Ticket money will be given to 5 ____________

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 109

Questions 6-8
Complete the form below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Participant Details

Name: Drew 6 ____________

Phone number: 7 ____________
Address: Room No. 8 ____________ , Block C
Boys Hostel, Redmayne Institute
of Engineering
Age: 22

Questions 9 and 10
Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
9 Results will be declared by ____________ at the end of auditions.
10 Actors will not ____________ for their costumes.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 110

 Part 2
Questions 11-20
Questions 11 and 12
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Apart from the aesthetic appeal of Georgia, which TWO of the following factors attract
tourists?
A style
B diversity
C biodiversity
D places of food
E history
Questions 13 and 14
Choose TWO letters, A-F.
In which TWO facilities can a guide be helpful?
A communication
B food and accommodation
C transport
D clicking picture for memory
E exploring the culture
F financial management

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 111

Questions 15-20
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Ways to find a guide

go through websites, 15 ____________ by email or phone

16 ____________ - in advance
Internet
tip - not mandatory
suggested website - Georgian Association

Will arrange travel, stay and a guide prior to 17________________

Tour operator
Make sure you contact 18 ____________ operators only.

Try this if you are unaware of the 19 ____________.

Georgian Streets
Check their 20 ____________ for validity.

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 Part 3
Questions 21-30
Questions 21 and 22
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
21 Why did the students choose the topic?
A It was easy to prepare.
B They understood the severity of the disorder.
C They had a good collection of data from the survey.
22 How did Paul explain his point?
A by comparing students with others
B by proving that insomnia affects women the most
C by providing an example
Questions 23-25
Choose THREE letters, A-F.
Which THREE facts about insomnia does Emily mention?
A There are various types of insomnia.
B Types of insomnia depend on hours and pattern of sleep.
C Insomnia can persist only for a short period.
D Anxiety before an important event leads to temporary insomnia.
E Patients with chronic insomnia need therapy.
F Acute insomnia is severe.

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Questions 26 and 27
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO of the following activities did Emily and Paul find useful in their preparation?
A searching online
B similar information
C distributing a questionnaire
D discussion with students
E agreeing on the topic
Questions 28-30
Choose THREE letters, A-E.
Which THREE features, according to the tutor, were disappointing about the presentation?
A length of the presentation
B cluster of information
C the natural style used in the presentation
D the appreciation effort
E handouts prepared by Emily and Paul

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 Part 4
Questions 31-40
Questions 31-37
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer

Scuba diving

An activity to explore the unseen marine world

Scuba diving apparatus :
● Scuba to supply breathing gas underwater
● Gas is stored in 31 ____________ which the divers carry.
Scuba diving is different from other modes of diving.

Advantages:
● Divers are independent as they move underwater.
● No airline or diver's umbilical cord, allowing greater 32 ____________ of movement
to the diver
● Produces 33 ____________ bubbles
● Useful for military divers as they cannot be 34 ____________
● Researchers and wild-life reporters could explore without 35 ____________ of
bubbles

What scuba divers need:

● diving suit, 36 ____________
● a pair of fins for movement
● basic level of 37 ____________ and required skills

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Questions 38-40
Complete the summary below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Scuba divers could encounter some unexpected risks as they explore the water world. The life-
threatening condition called Bends occurs when a diver surfaces 38 ____________. Bends can
cause damaged to the diver's vital organs, or even 39 ____________. Although bends are a rare
occurrence, divers can minimise the chances with adequate 40 ____________.

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 WEEK 4 WEDNESDAY (WRITING TASK 1)
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

The charts represent the proportion of various language users in the years 2000 and
2015.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.

Write at least 150 words.

Percentage of users of languages

2000 2015

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 117

 WEEK 4 WEDNESDAY (WRITING TASK 2)
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.

The idea of intellectual property rights is impractical as useful ideas are ultimately for
service of humanity. Do you agree or disagree?

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your knowledge or experience.

Write at least 250 words.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 118

 WEEK 4 THURSDAY LISTENING

Part 1
Questions 1-6
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

RENT AN ACCOMMODATION

House for rent: 2 bedrooms, Living room and kitchen

1 _______________ , with a study
Owners have been away since 2 ____________ years
Condition of the house: 3 ______________ , freshly painted
Neighbourhood : 4 ____________ , pleasant to stay
Asking price: 5 $ ____________
Appointment: within the current week
Address: 6 ____________ Mapal Green Street, Greywood
House specification: a garden and a pink porch

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Questions 7-10
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
7 Why does Simon want to change his present accommodation?
A It is closer to the university.
B It is expensive and far.
C It is inexpensive but far.
8 Jennifer wants to shift to a new house because
A she would save both time and money.
B she wants to take the bus.
C her workplace will be within walking distance.
9 Jennifer suggests to reach the house
A by the next bus.
B on foot.
C on her bike.
10 What does Simon suggest?
A to give her company
B to move to a place closer to the university
C to share the rent

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 Part 2
Questions 11-20
Questions 11-16
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Sea Watching Excursion

● Departure at 11 ____________
● Duration of 12 ____________: approximately three and half hours
● Alternate arrangement: 13 ____________named 'Sea Wings', old ferry without
14 ____________
● Services: Complimentary 15 ____________ and 16 ____________ provided on the boat

Questions 17-20
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Refund / Compensation

● Compensation amount for every booking: 17 $ ____________

● Separate refund against cabin booking: on 18 ____________ , 10 am to 12 noon at
the booking office
● Refund by Sea Excursion Insurance - $ 12.5 per hour 19 ____________ to account or
in cash
● Passengers need to show tickets as 20 ____________

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 Part 3
Questions 21-30
Questions 21-26
Answer the questions below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
21 What does Maggie dislike about the instructor?
22 For what compulsory activity has the coach listed some students?
23 What can students do better in academics with physical fitness?
24 Which two things are most of the students NOT able to manage simultaneously?
25 How did the students eventually find the sports classes?
26 Which non-competitive class does Bill suggest?
Questions 27-30
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
27 Maggie is unhappy because
A she is not in proper shape.
B she has a sedentary lifestyle.
C she disapproves of interference in her fitness matters.
28 Bill thinks students benefit from PE class because
A it brings fame and identity to fit students.
B the new stadium and the equipment are very popular.
C it improves their fitness.
29 Maggie wishes the PE class should be
A optional.
B strictly implemented.
C ruled out.

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30 Maggie would be eager about
A receiving some news.
B more books for voracious readers.
C a spacious bookshop with more facilities.

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 Part 4
Questions 31-40
Questions 31-33
Choose THREE letters, A-F.
Which THREE of the following does the speaker mention about 'Pet Sematary'?
A It has won many awards.
B Stephen King did not publish the book.
C It has showcased features of native American Literature.
D It played a vital role in the progress of American literature.
E The author was not eager to bring it out initially.
F It is a novel by Stephen King.
Questions 34-40
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
34 The speaker mentions the two injuries to the children
A to illustrate the frightening coincidence.
B to illustrate the location of the house.
C to describe their neighbour.
35 What happens to Church?
A She runs away.
B She meets with an accident.
C She is killed by a beast.
36 What did Louis notice about Church when she returned?
A Her body was not functional.
B She was not the same cat that he had buried.
C Her behaviour was awkward.

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37 What did Crandall say about the burial ground?

A It influences everything that is buried there.

B Everything is buried there.

C It is present to bury the corrupt.

38 What is the central idea of the story?

A Loss is a primary theme of life.

B People react differently to loss.

C Denial and grief are the same reaction.

39 How did King create such a realistic piece of writing?

A He had lost a cat.

B He could personally relate with the feelings of his characters.

C He is good at writing horror stories.

40 What emotions do the readers of the 'Pet Sematary' experience?

A They are frightened by the story.

B They connect emotionally with the characters.

C They get engaged because the story is short and interesting.

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 WEEK 4 THURSDAY (WRITING TASK 2)
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Write about the following topic:

We are living in a consumerist culture, where people are buying more and more things.
Some people say that this is a positive development, whereas others believe that it has
many drawbacks. Do you think the disadvantages of consumerism outweigh its
advantages?

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your knowledge
or experience.

Write at least 250 words.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 126

 WEEK 4 FRIDAY (WRITING TASK 1)
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

The bar graph and the pie chart below show the number of ice-creams sold by two
vendors and the contribution to total sales made by different ice-cream flavours in
2015.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.

Write at least 150 words.

Ice cream sales by Vendor A and Vendor B in 2015

300

250
Number of ice creams sold

200

150

100

50

0
Vendor Vendor Vendor Vendor Vendor Vendor Vendor Vendor
A B A B A B A B
January April August December

Sales contribution of 5 most popular flavours in 2015

Others
5%

Chocolate
22%

Strawberry
36%

Butterscotch
11%

Vanilla
26%

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 127

 WEEK 4 FRIDAY (WRITING TASK 2)
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Write about the following topic:

Some people often say that they work better under pressure while others believe that
this is just an excuse given by people who have a tendency to procrastinate or delay
work. Discuss both the views and give your opinion.

Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your knowledge or
experience.
Write at least 250 words.

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 128

 WEEK 4 FRIDAY (READING)
READING PASSAGE 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage 1
below.

ARE WE PREPARED FOR GLOBAL SCALE DISASTERS?

With urbanisation and climate change picking up the pace at an alarming rate, one of the
greatest threats to human life is natural disasters. World population is increasing, and more
people are moving to urban areas for survival, leading to cities becoming larger and more
congested. As per the estimation of the United Nations, it is projected that a vast majority of the
world’s population growth in the coming decades will be in countries with cities inhabited by low
and middle-income groups. Located in low-lying coastal zones, some of these cities are
vulnerable to extreme changes in climate, and flooding. Landslides and flooding are common in
cities with slum settlements in hilly regions.

Our environment is changing drastically. Glaciers are melting, sea levels are rising, and other
natural disasters such as storms and hurricanes are becoming more and more frequent and
increasing in severity. Millions of people would be displaced, as many cities will become
uninhabitable. With more people living near fault lines, geophysical disasters such as
earthquakes are having detrimental effects on human beings. Three times as many natural
disasters are reported today than two decades ago. Tom Parsons, a research geophysicist with
the United States Geological Survey, states that there have been a greater number of
earthquakes in the United States. He also speaks about how the recent period has been critical
to study earthquakes, as the seismic activity has been high.

With climate change fuelling catastrophic floods and droughts, it will have unimagined
consequences leading to a humanitarian crisis, the UN’s Head of Disaster planning has warned.
Earthquakes, heatwaves, floods and landslides result in millions of deaths each year apart from
the unaccountable economic damage. In spite of this, it is surprising that less than one percent of
the global aid budget is spent by the international community on measures to alleviate the
problems. Special representative for disaster risk reduction at the United Nations, Robert
Glasser, said that with climate change adding to the pressure, the world is already ‘falling short’
in responding to humanitarian emergencies. He added, “If you see that we’re already spending

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huge amounts of money and are unable to meet the humanitarian need - and then you overlay that
with not just population growth,... but you put climate change on top of that, where we’re seeing an
increase in the frequency and severity of natural disasters, and the knock-on effect swith respect to
food security and conflict and new viruses like the Zika virus or whatever- you realize that the only
way we’re going to be able to deal with these trends is by getting out ahead of them and focusing on
reducing disaster risk.” Between 1994and 2013, EM-DAT, the international disaster database, there
have been 6,873 natural disasters globally, which have claimed around 1.35 million lives. The average
boils this statistic down to 68,000 lives in a year while 218 million people have been affected.

Improper planning, without taking into account the effects of climate change, Glasser added, would
steeply raise the vulnerability of the people who are already exposed to natural hazards. A rise in the
number of simultaneous disasters is also a possibility, he predicted. However, before sounding the
alarm, it is important to step back and take stock of the situation. The rapidly growing cities have
started responding to natural disasters with an evaluation of risks. Evaluations include community
surveys, mapping geographic vulnerability and gauging the location of the vulnerable populations.
Resources the city has at hand are also evaluated. Water supply, location of the hospital sand their
infrastructure, and the quality of the power grid come next. The World Bank, international NGOs and
slum-dweller organizations have joined city leaders to assess risk factors. With new mapping
techniques, spatial data of cities at risk is created to plan and improve disaster response, based on
which a sound infrastructure can be built.

Scientific director of the World Risk Report, Dr Matthias Garschagen, feels that major disasters such
as the earthquakes in Haiti and Nepal are bitter reminders of fundamental development problems.
‘Nepal, in a deplorable fashion, reminded us of the importance of infrastructure for humanitarian
assistance,’ he said, ‘Nepal is a country challenged by its geography and has limited road and rail
networks; there wasn’t any helicopter infrastructure in place to distribute humanitarian assistance in
a sufficient manner.’According to the United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction, over the
course of the past year, there have been 3,455 floods globally, with 2,689 storms and 470 droughts
being reported at the same time.

In this bleak scenario, we have to remember that human beings are a resilient species. We have the
inherent capacity to plan and prepare, and if circumstances require, change too. We must remember
that, not only do we have to be prepared to with stand punishment but we must plan and prepare for
any contingency by building systems and technologies that can deal with the catastrophes which we
may face in the future.

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Questions 1-5
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 1?
Write
YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
1 Natural calamities are the biggest threat to human survival.
2 More people are living in cities than in rural areas.
3 It is now clear that people with average and lower earnings constitute the majority of the

world's population.
4 Some cities are at risk from natural calamities because of their geographical location.
5 The urban areas are using various tools to analyse the potential risks due to natural
disasters.
Questions 6-10
Look at the following statements (Questions 6-10) and the list of people below.
Match each statement with the correct person, A-C.
NB You may use any letter more than once.
6 Certain countries have experienced such massive earthquakes that recalling them is an
unpleasant experience.
7 Increased activity has rendered an appropriate time to explore a natural phenomenon.
8 Inappropriate measures will make people more susceptible to natural disasters.
9 Conducting relief and rescue operations in a country after the disaster was a difficult task
to accomplish.
10 Food scarcity and disputes among the population are indirect consequences of altered
weather conditions.

List of People
A Tom Parsons
B Robert Glasser
C Matthias Garschagen

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Questions 11-13
Choose THREE letters, A-G.
Which THREE of the following statements are true according to the writer?
NB Your answers may be given in any order.
A Urbanization is inextricably linked with climate change.
B Floods and droughts are the consequences of global change in the climate.
C Some natural disasters keep the economy intact but cause many deaths.
D The allocated budget to reduce the effect of calamity is not enough.
E Climate change is a bigger problem than population growth.
F Zika virus spreads as a result of natural disasters only.
G We have the ability to recover from difficult conditions.

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 WEEK 4 FRIDAY (READING)
READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-27, which are based on Reading Passage 2
below.

EL NIÑO

El Niño is not just the unusual warming of coastal surface waters in the eastern tropical Pacific
Ocean but is now used to describe non-uniform and extreme climate changes occurring
approximately every two to seven years. Dating back to the 1800s and initially recognised by
fishermen off the coast of Peru, a country on the Pacific coast of South America, the appearance
of a warm current was noticed every few years resulting in diminishing fish catches. We have no
knowledge of what native Peruvians called the phenomenon, but migrants from Spain named it
El Niño, which means “the little boy” in Spanish. It was used this way as this phenomenon often
arrived around the time of Christmas. El Niño has disrupted global weather patterns, brought
droughts and heavy rains in different regions across the globe. So, is El Niño linked with rising
temperatures?

2015 has had the highest temperature ever in record till now, as declared by the United Nations,
and it is a point of consensus among most scientists that this warming is due to greenhouse gases
accumulated in the atmosphere due to anthropogenic activities. But, according to the National
Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, the annual temperature record (global) has been
broken by the biggest margin in this year due to the existence of a Strong El Niño also. It has been
the worst Super El Niño in 1.5 decades. 1982-1983 and 1987-1988 also witnessed super El Niños.
According to the estimate given by Gavin Schmidt, director of the NASA Goddard Institute for
Space Studies, El Niño accounted for 0.07˚C of the above average temperature of 2015.

El Niño is the warm counterpart of a bigger phenomenon known as the El Niño- Southern
Oscillation (ENSO). It also influences the wind shear. Trade winds weaken or break down
completely in an El Niño year. Hurricanes form because of weakened wind shears which are the
variation in wind velocity of the air currents at a lower altitude. These air currents flow along a
direction at right angles to the wind direction higher in the atmosphere and tend to exert a
turning force, and this explains why the Pacific witnessed a record season in 2015, with 24
tropical storms and 15 hurricanes. Patricia, with winds of 200 mph (325 km/h), which was the
strongest hurricane ever measured (in terms of sustained wind speed), happened in this year.
The October storm killed 12 and caused destruction as far as Mexico to Texas.
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Temperatures are also affected by El Niño. The warm water tends to raise global air
temperatures by at least 0.1°C, as per meteorologist Jeff Masters who writes for the Weather
Underground. Global temperatures rise as warmer ocean waters release excess energy (heat)
into the atmosphere. Impacts of El Niño are felt most strongly near the equatorial Pacific region,
but it can also affect the weather globally by influencing high and low pressure systems, winds
and precipitation. Weather conditions from Australia to South America and beyond are all
affected by El Niño resulting in an adverse impact on agriculture, the well-being of coastal
fisheries, energy requirements and air quality, and increases the risk of wildfires.
By now, scientists are aware that El Niño contributes to a boost in global temperatures. But is El
Niño, in turn, intensified by the increasing global and ocean temperatures? The science here is
yet unconfirmed. One suggestion of a 2014 study is that super El Niño events are likely to
increase by twofold in the future owing to climate change. In this study, 20 climate models were
used to investigate the probable changes in El Niño over the next 100 years and, it was projected
by scientists that drastic El Niño events can occur approximately every 10 years instead of every
20.
Although she finds it interesting, the conclusions of this study are questioned by Lisa Goddard,
director of the International Research Institute for Climate and Society, since observational
evidence of El Niño can only be traced back to a few decades, whereas it is in the knowledge of
scientists that there is a great deal of natural discrepancy in El Niño events over long periods of
time. Moreover, said Goddard, "The models have limitations in their representation of El Niño
and its variability."
There is a continuous increase in the ocean heat content but with variation and nobody yet
knows in what way it might impact El Niño. The upcoming El Niño events will occur against the
backdrop of global warming, and hence this research is critical. According to a warning by
Michael Jarraud, former secretary-general of the World Meteorological Organization, "El Niño
could be playing out in uncharted territory. This naturally occurring El Niño event and human-
induced climate change may interact and modify each other in ways we have never before
experienced."
“We have to think climate change will influence El Niño in some way and will impact its impacts,"
said Goddard. "But how do El Niño events themselves change because of global warming? It's
hard to say, and harder to observe because there is considerable variation in El Niño by itself
from decade to decade. It's a tough question to answer."

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Questions 14-16
Choose THREE letters, A-F.
Which THREE facts about El Niño are mentioned in the passage?
NB Your answers may be given in any order.
A Its name relates to its time of advent.
B It affected the Peruvian people who earned from the sea.
C It brings drought everywhere across the world.
D It breaks the temperature records whenever it comes.
E It alters wind velocity resulting in hurricanes.
F Its effects are confined to the Pacific region.
Questions 17-22
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?
Write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

17 Human beings were solely to blame for the unmatched heat of 2015.
18 2015 was unparalleled both in intensity as well as in the number of storms.
19 The sea water gets warm as it absorbs additional heat from the environment.
20 Majority of forest fires occur due to El Niño.
21 Researchers claim the likelihood of increased frequency of El Niño in the coming years due
to changing weather patterns.
22 The experts at the World Meteorological Department are trying to identify the unexplored
areas that are affected by El Niño.

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Questions 23-27
Look at the following facts (Questions 23-27) and the list of people below.
Match each fact with the correct person, A, B, C or D.
23 doubts the reliability of the method used in a study
24 mentions the minimum temperature increase in the atmosphere that is bound to happen
due to the warm ocean current
25 refers to the possibility of mutual interaction between El Niño and altering climate patterns
in unprecedented ways
26 approximates the share of El Niño in the above average temperature rise in 2015
27 underlines the complexity in studying the influence of one phenomenon on the other

List of People
A Gavin Schmidt
B Jeff Masters
C Lisa Goddard
D Michael Jarraud

IELTS ACADEMIC ADVANCE COURSE PAGE 136

 WEEK 4 FRIDAY (READING)
READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40, which are based on Reading Passage 3
below.

THE FUTURE OF THE BANANA

The banana has always been an intrinsic part of our lives. The fruit is sturdy enough to survive
journeys that span thousands of miles, and yet costs less than a dollar. What puts its existence at
stake?

Around the mid-1900s, the Gros Michel variety of banana, known for its sweet and creamy
flavour almost disappeared from the globe. Grown in Latin America, it was the only banana in
the world that was suitable for export. However, a deadly fungus, Panama disease, which made
its first appearance in Australia in the later part of the 1800s made that impossible after it spread
across continents. The fruit-bearing plants were debilitated as a result of the disease. Due to the
virulent form of the fungus, untold damage was caused to the crop, and in a few decades, the
Gros Michel went extinct.

Today, almost half a century down the line, a new strain of the disease has reared its head again,
threatening the very survival of the Cavendish breed, the world’s top banana export after Gros
Michel. Randy Ploetz from the University of Florida says, ‘Consumers are kind of addicted to the
Cavendish banana. That’s what they see the banana as.’ A variety of other bananas consumed
locally across the globe may also be affected.

That the Panama disease can spread the fungus easily is not the only problem. More worrying is
the fact that pesticides are ineffective for treatment. Regions such as Southeast Asia have been
rendered barren as a result of the fungus. It is only a matter of time, feel experts, before the
fungus, strains of which are also known as Fusarium Wilt and Tropical Race 4, will make an
appearance in Latin America, the chief exporter of bananas to the U.S. Due to concerns about
the spread of soil contaminated by the fungus to other parts of the world, the International
Banana Congress that was stated to be held in Costa Rica was shifted to Miami.

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A video of a Queensland farmer shows Bevan Robson looks on desolately at the fields that are
now barren after the Australian biosecurity officials killed thousands of his plants by lethal
injection. Says the Queensland farmer, ‘They reckon Panama disease would wipe us out within
two years. It is very hard for the family to take.’ However, it is a fact that at the centre of the global
banana related plague is the 400 acres of land in Tully owned by Robson. The UN warns about the
effect of the disease on a vital food source as well as on a $36 billion industry. The Tropical Race 4
strain of the Panama disease infected the plantation a year ago and soon became the scourge
spreading rapidly across Asia. Says UN Food and Agriculture expert Fazil Dusunceli, ‘TR4 is
considered a major risk since global banana production depends heavily on Cavendish bananas
that are susceptible to the disease.’

Tr4 was first detected in Taiwan in 1990. The pestilence spread swiftly annihilating banana
plantations in places like the Philippines, Malaysia, Indonesia and the Northern Territory of
Australia. Lately, farms in Africa, the Middle East, and Queensland have been infected, pushing
the UN to chalk out a global fight against the epidemic, which is estimated to cost nearly $50
million.

We may ask what the banana of the future will look like or whether the banana will be confined
to a place in textbooks or on the internet. One approach researchers are working on is creating a
somaclonal version of the Cavendish banana that has similar but not identical traits. And while
we cannot be sure that it will be entirely immune to the plague of Fusarium wilt, it just may well
succeed in keeping the industry breathing. Making use of the emerging CRISPR gene-editing
technology, modifying the banana and rewriting the genetic code of the Cavendish banana,
making it resistant to pests and diseases is another option. Efforts are also on by scientists at UC
Davis and in the Netherlands to examine the genetic code of the fungus so that it would be
possible to stop its progress.

Discovery of an entirely new species of the banana is not as far-fetched as it seems. Bananas
were first domesticated in Southeast Asia. With hundreds of varieties in existence in that area, in
all probability, the day will come when one of the species in existence will take the place of the
Cavendish just the way it had found favour after the extinction of the Gros Michel.

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Questions 28-32
Complete the flowchart below.
Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer

The Deadly Disease

Late 1800s: 28 ____________ makes its first appearance

↓
Affects areas in different 29 ______________

↓
Around 1900s: Gros Michel almost 30 ___________

↓
1990s : identification of 31 ___________

↓
Plans to battle the virus projected at 32 ___________

Questions 33-36
Answer the questions below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each
answer.
33 Which is the most traded banana variety?
34 Apart from an easy transmission, what other problem is typical of the Panama
disease?
35 What is the maximum duration predicted for the survival of banana plantations in
Queensland?
36 What trait are professionals attempting to investigate to restrict a deadly expansion?

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Questions 37-40
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.
37 The UN has alerted about
A the production rate of banana crop.
B the revenue generation from the banana.
C the impact of a disease on consumption and trade of banana.
D the susceptibility of a variety of banana.
38 Cavendish bananas are
A a risk to global banana production.
B dependent on other varieties.
C highly resistant to TR4.
D highly impacted by TR4.
39 The somaclonal version of the Cavendish banana
A will not be a replica.
B will be a replica.
C will be entirely resistant to disease.
D will help the industry to prosper.
40 The writer believes that in future
A finding a new banana species is unlikely.
B Cavendish banana will be secure.
C one of the Southeast banana varieties will be prominent.
D Gros Michel will replace Cavendish.

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