Introduction to Biotechnology

Exercises

Q. 1. Each of the following statements is wrong. Rewrite them correctly by

changing either one or two words.

A. Simple squamous epithelium is present in respiratory tract.

B. Glandular epithelium is present in kidneys.
C. Chlorenchyma helps the plant to float in water.
D. Striated muscles are also called involuntary muscles.
E. Chloroplast is present in permanent tissue.

Answer :

A. Ciliated Epithelium is present in respiratory tract.

B. Cuboidal epithelium is present in tubules of kidneys.

C. Parenchyma (sub type : Aerenchyma) helps the plant to float in water.

D. Non-Striated muscles are also called involuntary muscles.

E. Chloroplast is present in Parenchyma

Q. 2. Identify the odd word and explain why it is odd.

A. Xylem, phloem, permanent tissue, meristematic tissue.

B. Epithelium, Muscle fibre, nerve fibre, epidermis.
C. Cartilage, bone, tendon, cardiac muscle.

Answer : A. Meristematic Tissue

Explanation: Xylem & phloem are types of complex permanent tissues whereas
meristematic tissues are different group of tissues which helps in growth of specific
parts of plants.

B. Epidermis

Explanation: Epidermis is odd one out because it’s a plant tissue whereas others are
animal tissues. Epidermis is a group of cells which form the outer layer of the plants.

C. Cardiac Muscle
Explanation: Heart is made up of Cardiac muscles whereas Cartilage, bone & tendon
are types of connective tissues.

Q. 3. Write the names of the following tissues.

A. Tissue lining inner surface of mouth.

B. Tissue joining muscles and bones.
C. Tissue responsible for increasing height of plants.
D. Tissue responsible for increasing growth of stem.

Answer : A. Squamous epithelium

B. Tendons

C. Meristematic tissue (Apical Meristem)

D. Meristematic tissue (Lateral Meristem)

Q. 4. Write the differences.

Simple tissue and complex tissues in plants.

Answer :

Q. 5 A. Write short notes.

Meristematic tissue:

Answer : As meristematic tissue is present in specific parts of a plant, growth occurs in

those parts only. Cells of meristematic tissue contain thick cytoplasm, a conspicuous
nucleus and a thin cell wall and are compactly packed together. Vacuoles are usually
absent in these cells. These cells are highly active. To bring about plant growth is the
main function of meristematic tissue. According to the location , meristematic tissue is of
three types:

a) Apical Meristem: It is present at the tip of roots & stem and increases the length of
roots and stem.

b) Intercalary meristem: It is present at the petiole of leaves & branches and helps in
growth of branches and formation of leaves

c) Lateral meristem: It is present at the lateral sides of stems & roots and help in growth
of them.

Q. 5 B. Write short notes.

Xylem :

Answer :

Xylem consists of thick walled dead cells. Mainly it is formed by tracheids , vessels &
xylem fibres which are dead cells and Xylem parenchyma which is living cell. Xylem are
interconnected tubes which conducts water & minerals only in upward direction that is
from soil to the plant.

Q. 5 C. Write short notes.

Striated muscles:

Answer :

Striated Muscles are the types of muscular tissues which consists of Muscle cells which
are long, cylindrical, multinucleate and have no branches. There are alternate dark and
light bands on these muscles at they are attached to bones, they are also called skeletal
muscles. They move as per our will, hence they are called voluntary muscles. These
muscles bring about movements of arms and legs, running, speaking, etc.

Q. 5 D. Write short notes.

Agro-complementary business:

Answer : It refers to a business which is done complementary with agriculture like

animal husbandry, poultry and sericulture.

Q. 5 E. Write short notes.

Genetic engineering:
Answer : It refers to the modification done to the genes in order to get different types of
fruits, crops etc.

In agriculture, genetically modified crops play a very crucial role. Genetically Modified
Crops are being produced by introducing changes in DNA of natural crops. Normally,
such varieties are not found in nature. Thus, new varieties are produced artificially.
Different useful characters are introduced in such varieties. Examples of genetically
modified crops are:

Maize : MON 810, MON 863. Potato : Amflora Rice : Golden Rice Soybean : Vistive
Gold Tomato : Vaishali Cotton : BT cotton

Q. 5 F. Write short notes.

Sericulture:

Answer : Sericulture refers to the rearing of silk worms in order to get silk.

i. Bombyx mori is the most commonly used variety for this purpose

ii. Thousands of eggs deposited by female moths are incubated artificially to shorten the
incubation period.

iii. Larvae hatching out of eggs are released on mulberry plants. Larvae are nourished
by feeding on mulberry leaves. After feeding for 3 – 4 days, larvae move to branches of
mulberry plant.

iv. The silk thread is formed from the secretion of their salivary glands. Larvae spin this
thread around themselves to form a cocoon.

v. Ten days before the pupa turns into an adult, all the cocoons are transferred into
boiling water. due to the boiling water, the pupa dies in the cocoon and silk fibres
become loose.

vi. These fibres are unwound, processed and reeled. Various kinds of fabric is woven
from silk threads.

Q. 6. Explain the meaning of biotechnology and its impact on agricultural

management with suitable examples.

Answer : Biotechnology refers to a technique in which artificial genetic modification and

hybridization is done to living organisms so that plants and animals get improved
characteristics in addition to their natural ones. Biotechnology had a great impact on
agricultural management which are as follows:

i. It includes tissue culture and genetic engineering.

ii. It is used to grow cash crops which are resistant to pests.

iii. It increases the ability of plants to withstand environmental stress.

iv. Genetically modified crops are grown with the help of biotechnology which have
greater nutritive value and there is decrese in loss of crops.

Q. 7. Which two main techniques are used in biotechnology? Why?

Answer : Tissue culture and Genetic engineering is used in biotechnology because:

i. With this technique endangered species of plants can be grown.

ii. Genetically modified crops are grown which are pest resistant, have more nutritive
value and there is decrease in loss of crops.

iii. Plants grown by these techniques are disease free and virus free.

Q. 8. Discuss ‘Agritourism’ in the class and write a project on an agrotourism

centre nearby. Present It inthe class in groups.

Answer : We recently visited Saiban Agro tourism centre in Ahmednagar ,

Maharashtra. Different species of plants are grown on a large scale with the help of
tissue culture. There are separate laboratories where tissue culture technique is being
practiced. The main attraction includes:

i. Mango, chikoo (sapota), guava, coconut, custard apple and some other regional fruit
trees.

ii. Shade giving local or exotic attractive plants.

iii. Ornamental and flowering plants.

iv. Butterfly garden.

v. Medicinal plant garden.

vi. Organic vegetables and fruits.

Q. 9. Define the term tissue and explain the concept of tissue culture.

Answer : A group of cells having same origin, same structure and same function is
called [Link] vivo growth of cells or tissues in an aseptic and nutrient-rich medium is
called tissue culture. In this technique, tissues from the source plants are taken and are
kept in artificial environment in which it can survive and grow. The cells grow and
multiply in this environment and after the hardening process the plants get ready to be
planted.

Q. 10. ‘Rearing of sheep is a livestock’. Justify this statement.

Answer : Livestock refers to the domesticated animals which are reared to produce
different commodities. Rearing of sheep is definitely a livestock as sheep are raised by
the people in order to get meat, milk & wool from them. It is a part of animal husbandry
and is practiced so that rare species can survive. Sheep are reared in a particular
climate and farmers have to build fences and take good care to produce good amount
of meat , milk and wool.

Q. 11. Obtain information about the diversity of butterflies. Collect detailed

information about what would have to be done to establish a butterfly garden in
your school.

Answer : Steps to be taken to establish butterfly garden in school are:

i. Select a place in school area where there is fertile land.

ii. Grow different types of flowering plants that would attract butterflies.

iii. Keep in mind that butterflies love Sunshine. So the area should get proper sunlight.

iv. Water the plants regularly so that plants and flowers are fresh.

v. Research about the butterflies in your area & what they love and accordingly plant
more colourful flowering plants.

vi. Make sure they get nectar from flowers.

Q. 12. Visit an apiculture centre and gather information about it.

Answer : Apiculture refers to artificial breeding of bees in man made hives. I recently
visited an apiculture centre in Pune where bees are kept in artificial bee hives and
honey and beeswax is being extracted from them. Moreover, these bees help in
pollination so that crops can be grown. Location where bees are kept is called apiary.
Trained beekeepers are always there to take care of bees and beehives. This is very
profitable business as on one side bees are kept from which honey and beeswax are
extracted and on other side these bees help in pollination. So a person can do both
apiculture as well as farming side by side.
 Life Processes in Living Organisms

Exercises

Q. 1. Match the pairs and explain.

Answer :

Q. 2. Complete the paragraph.

The milk was on the stove. Rasika was engrossed watching television. She
smelled something burning. She ran towards the kitchen. The milk was boiling
over. She held the vessel with her bare hands but, screaming, she let it go at
once. This activity was controlled by ...... cells. Special ends of .......... in these
cells collected the information, from where it was transferred to the ........ and then
towards the terminal end of the ........... The chemicals produced at the terminal
end passed through the minute space i.e. .......... . In this way, …....... were
conducted in the body and the process of ........... was completed by conducting
the impulses from.... ..... to ........
(Nerve, muscle cell, impulse, dendrite, synapse, axon, reflex action, cell body)

Answer :

The milk was on the stove. Rasika was engrossed watching television. She smelled
something burning. She ran towards the kitchen. The milk was boiling over. She held
the vessel with her bare hands but, screaming, she let it go at once. This activity was
controlled by ....nerve.. cells. Special ends of ... dendrite..... in these cells collected the
information, from where it was transferred to the ..cell body.... and then towards the
terminal end of the .....axon.... The chemicals produced at the terminal end passed
through the minute space i.e. .....synapse..... . In this way, impulse..... were conducted
in the body and the process of ........reflex action.... was completed by conducting the
impulses from....nerve cells ..... to ....muscle cells....

Q. 3. Write notes on-

Root pressure, Transpiration, Nerve cell, Human brain, Reflex action

Answer : Root pressure: After absorbing water from the soil root cell swells (turgid).
The turgid root cell put pressure on the adjacent root cell. This pressure is called root
pressure. Water and minerals reach to the water conducting (xylem) of the root due to
this pressure.

Transpiration: Removal of water in the form of vapours through pores (stomata)

present in the leaves is called transpiration. It occurs during day. Transpiration
promotes absorption and distribution of water and minerals. It gives cooling effect to the
plants.

Nerve cell: Nerve cell or neuron is the largest cell of the human body. It consist of a cell
body, dendrites and axon. Neurons are the structural and functional units of the nervous
system. They conduct impulses from one place to another in the body.

Human brain: Human brain is very delicate organ. An adult human brain weighs about
1.3 kg to 1.4 kg and has 100 billion of nerve cells. It is the main controlling part of the
nervous system and it is safely located in the cranial cavity. It is protected by three
layers called meninges. In the brain there are various cavities called ventricles. In the
ventricles the long tubular cavity of the spinal cord is called the ‘central canal’. The
ventricles, central canal and in the layers of meninges are filled with cerebro-spinal fluid.
This fluid supplies nutrients to the central nervous system and protects it from shock.

The human brain has the following parts:

i. Cerebrum: The largest part of the brain, occupies two-thirds of brain and consists of
two cerebral hemispheres. They are joined by nerve tracts. It control of voluntary
movements such as decision-making, memory, intelligence.
ii. Cerebellum: this part is smaller than the cerebrum, situated below the cerebrum at
the back of the cranial cavity. It maintains the body’s balance and co-ordinates of
voluntary movements.

iii. Medulla oblongata: The hind-most part of brain. The medulla oblongata continues
downwards as the spinal cord. It controls involuntary activities (activities which are not
our control) such as of the heart, blood circulation, breathing, sneezing, coughing, etc.

Reflex action: Reflex actions are sudden, automatic reactions of the body in response
to stimuli (The change which promotes a reaction in an organ or tissue in response to
that change). Reflex actions occur without the involvement of the brain, these actions
involved spinal cord.

For examples, contraction of the pupils of the eye when exposed to light, Withdrawal of
the hands when one touches a burning candle.

Q. 4. Name the hormones of the following endocrine glands and the function of
each.

Pituitary, Thyroid, Adrenal, Thymus, Testis, Ovary.

Answer :
Q. 5. Draw and label the diagrams.

Human endocrine glands, Human brain, Nephron, Nerve cell, Human excretory
system.

Answer : Human brain:

Human endocrine glands:

Nephron:

Nerve cell:

Human excretory system:

Q. 6. Answer the following.

A. Explain chemical co-ordination in humans and give the names and functions of
some hormones.
B. Explain the difference between the excretory system of humans and plants.
C. Explain co-ordination in plants with the help of suitable examples.

Answer : A. Human body is chemically coordinated by the complex chemical

compounds called hormones. They are secreted by endocrine glands, examples
thyroid, pituitary, adrenal glands. Hormones are released directly into blood circulation
and transport to the target organ for chemical co-ordination.

Some of the hormones are:

i. Growth hormone: It regulate height and growth of human body.

ii. Thyroxine: Stimulate tissue metabolism and maintains basic metabolic rate.

iii. Adrenaline: It is stress hormone, it controls behaviour during emergency and

emotional situations.

B.

•Removal of waste products from the body is called excretion. Excretion is carrued out
by the excretory system.

•The primary components of the excretory system are the kidneys, the ureter, the
urinary bladder, and the urethra.
•When blood reaches the kidneys, useful substances are absorbed back into blood,
while the waste materials are dissolved in water and removed from the body in the form
of urine.

•Plants remove waste materials by various processes as they do not have any excretory
system.

•Oxygen, a by-product of photosynthesis is removed through stomata.

•Most of the waste substances of plants are stored in vacuoles of leaf-cells and in
flowers, fruits and the bark of the stem.

•Some waste materials are stored in xylem the form of resin and gum. Some waste
materials excreted through roots into the surrounding soil.

C.

Nervous system and muscular system bring movement in animals. These systems are
absent in plants. It doesn't mean that plant do not show movement. Plants also show
movements, called growth movements. The plant hormones or growth regulators bring
about coordination in plants.

Examples:

•Auxin: it promotes growth in the stem and root.

•Gibberelin: it promotes seed germination.

•Cytokinin: it promotes cell division.

•Abscisic acid: it prevents seed germination.

Q. 7. Explain in your own words with suitable examples.

A. What is meant by co-ordination?

B. How does excretion occur in human beings?
C. How is excretion in plants useful to human beings?
D. Describe the transportation system in plants.

Answer : A.

The working together of various organs of the body of an organism in a proper manner
to produce an appropriate reaction to the changes in the environment is called
coordination. In humans, coordination is done by the nervous system and the endocrine
system. Neurons and hormones together bring growth and movements in humans.
In plants, plant hormones such as auxin, cytokinin bring coordination.

B.

The primary components of the excretory system are the kidneys. The kidney is made
of its units called nephron. When blood reaches the kidneys, nephrons filter blood. The
useful substances are absorbed back into the blood, while the waste materials are
dissolved in water and removed from the body in the form of urine. With the help of
ureter, urinary bladder, and urethra, the urine is discharged.

C.

The excretory products of plants such as Rubber, wax, gums, resins. All these products
are used by humans in their daily activities.

D.

The transport system in plants consists of xylem and phloem. Xylem transports water
and minerals from the soil to the roots and from roots to every part of the plant. Phloem
transports food from leaves to other parts of the plant.

Q. 8. Collect information about the evolution of the brain of vertebrates and

present it in the classroom.

Answer : The brain structure in all vertebrate (animals with backbone) is basically the
same. In the course of evolution, the vertebrate brain has undergone changes, and
become more effective. In lower animals frogs and lizards most of the brain structure is
transfer from one generation to other. Therefore, their behaviour is mostly without any
teaching. In mammals, and especially in humans, the brain is developed further during
life by learning. This has the benefit of helping them fit better into their environment.

Q. 9. Explain the functions of various endocrine glands by presenting an act like

‘Why I Am Important?’

Answer : Hello!! I am pituitary gland, I secrete many hormones, I am important because

I regulates growth and stimulate other glands to secrete their hormones.

Hello!! I am thyroid gland, I secrete thyroxine, I am important because I control growth

and metabolic activities.

Hello!! I am adrenal gland, I secrete adrenaline, I am important because I help in

bearing stress during emergency.
Hello!! I am thymus gland, I secrete thymosin, I am important because I protect your
body from diseases.

Q. 10. Collect the information to justify the statement ‘Human beings are
intelligent and different from other animals’ and present it in the classroom.

Answer : Human beings are intelligent and different from other animals due to the
following reasons:

I. Size of the brain: in enlarged brain in neuron connections more which increases IQ.
Whereas, the number of brain cells actually remains constant in other animals.

II. Development of large number of folds: a greater number of folds in the cerebral
cortex is a significant step in human brain evolution, it increases intelligence.

III. Division of cerebrum: Another unique feature of the human brain division of the
cerebrum into 2 halves. The left side of our brain controls the right side of our body and
right side of our brain controls left side of the body.
 Substances in Common Use

Exercises

Q. 1. Fill in the blanks.

A. The number of molecules of water of crystallization in washing soda is _____

B. The chemical name of baking soda is __________.
C. ________ is used in treatment of hyperthyroidism.
D. The chemical name of Teflon is ___________.

Answer : A. The number of molecules of water of crystallization in washing soda is One

(Formula of washing soda is Na2CO3.H2O which shows that it has 1 water of

crystallization.)

B. The chemical name of baking soda is Sodium Bicarbonate.

(Baking soda – NaHCO3 which stands for Sodium bicarbonate)

C. Iodine-123 is used in treatment of hyperthyroidism.

(Hyperthyroidism occurs due to overproduction of hormones by the thyroid gland.

Iodine-123 is used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism.)

D. The chemical name of Teflon is tetrafluoroethylene.

(Teflon is used for coating cooking utensils and industrial equipment to avoid sticking. It
is the polymer of tetrafluoroethylene)

Q. 2. Match the pairs

Answer :
Q. 3 A. Write answers to the following

What is meant by radioactivity?

Answer : Elements with a high atomic number such as uranium, thorium, radium have
a property of spontaneously emitting invisible, highly penetrating and high energy
radiation. This property is called radioactivity.

Q. 3 B. Write answers to the following

When is said to be the nucleus unstable?

Answer : Nucleus is said to be unstable when the element has the radioactive property
as the radiation occurs from the unstable nuclei only.

Example:

An unstable nucleus, like uranium, can stretch so far that the strong nuclear force is no
longer strong enough to hold the nucleus together-and the electric force breaks the
nucleus apart in a process called fission.
Q. 3 C. Write answers to the following

Which diseases are caused by artificial food colours?

Answer : ADHD (Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder) is caused by artificial food
colours.
(i) Tourette syndrome has been found to occur more commonly in the ADHD
population.
(ii) People with ADHD have an increased risk of persistent bed wetting.
(iii) Restless legs syndrome has been found to be more common in those with ADHD
and is often due to iron deficiency anaemia.

Q. 3 D. Write answers to the following

Where in the industrial field is radioactivity used?

Answer : (i) Use in Ceramic articles – Luminous colours are used to decorate ceramic
tiles, utensils, plates, etc. Earlier uranium oxide was used in these paints.

(ii) Measurement of thickness, density and level- It is necessary to maintain the required
thickness in the manufacture of aluminium, plastic, iron sheets of differing thickness. In
the manufacturing process, a radioactive substance is placed on one side and an
instrument to measure radiation on the other. The radiation read by the measuring
instrument varies with the thickness of the sheet. Material inside a packing can also be
examined by the same technique.

(iii) Luminescent paint and radio luminescence – The radioactive substances radium,
promethium, tritium with some phosphor are used to make certain objects visible in the
dark, for example, the hands of a clock, and certain other objects. Krypton-85 is used in
HID (High Intensity Discharge) lamps while promethium-147 is used in portable X-ray
units as the source of beta rays.

Q. 3 E. Write answers to the following

Write down properties of teflon.

Answer : Properties:-

(i) The atmosphere and chemical substances have no effect on Teflon.

(ii) Neither water nor oil will stick to Teflon coated articles.

(iii) High temperatures do not affect Teflon as its melting point is 327 ◦C.
(iv) Teflon coated articles are easy to clean.

Q. 3 F. Write answers to the following

What type of colours will you use to celebrate ecofriendly Rang Panchami? Why?

Answer : Natural colours should be used to celebrate ecofriendly rang panchami.

Natural colors we not only save our skins but also help save our environment and
conserve our biodiversity. When these colors percolate into the soil and water they do
not add toxicity to our blue planet and cause no harm to the myriad life forms that live in
the soil and water.

Q. 3 G. Write answers to the following

Why has the use of methods like Teflon coating become more common?

Answer : Teflon coating is more common because of the following reasons:

(i)Since it is a poor conductor of electricity it is preferred to be used in high technology

electronic instruments.

(ii) Because of its non-stick property it is generally seen in kitchen nowadays as

kitchenware.

Q. 4 A. Give scientific explanation

Bleaching powder has the odour of chlorine.

Answer : Bleaching powder undergoes slow decomposition due to the carbon dioxide
in air and chlorine gas is released. Bleaching powder gets its property because of this
release of chlorine gas and hence has the odour of chlorine.

Q. 4 B. Give scientific explanation

The hard water of a well becomes soft on adding washing soda to it.

Answer : Hard water contain calcium and magnesium sulphide .When we add washing
soda in hard water ,it form a precipitate of calcium and magnesium ion and hard water
become soft water.

Q. 4 C. Give scientific explanation

Soap forms a precipitate in hard water.

Answer : When soap is mixed with hard water calcium and magnesium salts of fatty
acids are formed. These being water insoluble they form a precipitate and that is why
lather is not formed.

Q. 4 D. Give scientific explanation

The particles of powder are given an electric charge while spraying themto form
the powder coating.

Answer : The particles of the powder are given an electrostatic charge due to which a
uniform layer of the powder sticks to the metal surface. Then the object is heated in the
over along with the coating. A chemical reaction occurs in the layer, resulting in the
formation of long cross-linked polymeric chains. This powder coating is highly durable,
hard and attractive.

Q. 4 E. Give scientific explanation

The aluminium article is used as an anode in the anodising process.

Answer : Dilute acid is taken in the electrolytic cell and the aluminium article is dipped
in it as the anode. When an electric current is passed hydrogen gas is released at the
cathode and oxygen gas at the anode. A reaction with oxygen occurs and a layer of
hydrated aluminium oxide is formed on the anode, i.e. the iron article..This layer can be
made attractive by adding colour in the cell during electrolysis.

Q. 4 F. Give scientific explanation

When the radiation coming out from certain radioactive substance is passed
through an electric field, marks are found at three places on the photographic
plate placed in its path.

Answer : the rays were allowed to pass through an electrical field and a photographic
plate was held in their path. It was found that the radiation was divided into three types.
One type of radiation deviated slightly towards the negatively charged plate,

while the second type of radiation deviated substantially towards the positively charged
plate. However, the third type of radiation did not deviate at all in the electrical field. The
rays which deviated slightly toward negatively charged plate are called alpha rays,
those which deviate substantially towards the positively charged plate are called beta
rays and those which do not deviate at all are called gamma rays.

Q. 4 G. Give scientific explanation

A certain type of ceramic tiles are fixed on the outer layer of a space shuttle.
Answer : Ceramics can withstand high temperatures without decomposing. Ceramic is
brittle, water resistant and an electrical insulator. Therefore, it is used in electrical
instruments, for coating the interior of a kiln, the outer surfaces of ships and blades of
jet engines. A certain type of ceramic tiles are fixed on the outer layer of a space
shuttle.

Q. 5 A. Write answers to the following

Write about artificial food colours, the substances used in them and their harmful
effects.

Answer : Food colours are mixed in most soft drinks and foodstuffs available in the
market. These food colours are in the form of powders, gels and pastes. Food colours
are used in domestic as well as commercial products. Certain colours and essences are
added to ice cream, ice candies, sauce, fruit juices, cold drinks, pickles, jams and jelly.
Food colors are often found to be added to packaged meat (chicken, mutton), chilli
powder, turmeric, sweets and other similar substances so as to give them a good
colour.

The food colours prepared from seeds, beetroot, flowers and fruit concentrate are
natural. Tetrazene, sunset yellow are artificial food colours used extensively.

Harmful effects:- (i) Food colours added to pickles, jam and sauce contain small
quantities of lead and mercury. These can be harmful for those who consume these
products on a regular basis.

(ii) Diseases like ADHD (Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder) can affect children due
to excessive consumption of foods with added food colours.

Q. 5 B. Write answers to the following

What is meant by water of crystallization? Give examples of salts with water of

crystallization, and their uses.

Answer : Examples: (i)Epsom salt (Magnesium sulphate MgSO4.7H2O)

Use:- Used to soften skin, soothe tired feet, and relieve muscle aches.

(ii) Barium chloride (BaCl2.2H2O)

Use:- Used in the purification of brine solution in caustic chlorine plants and also in the
manufacture of heat treatment salts, case hardening of steel.

Q. 5 C. Write answers to the following

Write briefly about the three methods of electrolysis of sodium chloride.

Answer :

(i) When an electric current is passed through a saturated solution of sodium chloride
(brine) it is electrolysed and hydrogen gas is released at the cathode while chlorine gas
is released at the anode. This method is used for production of chlorine gas. In this
method an important basic compound NaOH is formed in the cell.

(ii) When salt is heated to a high temperature (about

800◦C) it melts. This is called the fused state of the salt.

(iii) When fused salt is electrolysed, chlorine gas is released at the anode and liquid
sodium metal, at the cathode

Q. 6 A. Write the uses.

Anodizing

Answer : Uses:- (i) It gives the surface a more appealing look with multicolor effects.

(ii) Also provides a surface that is smooth and less prone to friction.

Q. 6 B. Write the uses.

Powder coating

Answer : Uses:- (i) Powder coatings can produce much thicker coatings than
conventional liquid coatings without running or sagging.

(ii) Powder coated items generally have fewer appearance differences between
horizontally coated surfaces and vertically coated surfaces than liquid coated items.

(iii) Used as applying a layer harder than paint on the surface of an iron object to
prevent rusting.

Q. 6 C. Write the uses.

Radioactive substances

Answer : Uses:- (i) Radioactive isotopes are used in various fields such as scientific
research, agriculture, industry, medicine, etc.

(ii) Radioactive substances are used in two ways.

a. By using the radiation alone.

b. By using the radioactive element itself.

(iii) Also used in making of atom bombs.

Q. 6 D. Write the uses.

Ceramic

Answer : Uses:- (i) It is used in electrical instruments, for coating the interior of a kiln,
the outer surfaces of ships and blades of jet engines.

(ii) They are used to make pottery, bricks, tiles, cements, and glass.

(iii) Ceramics are also used at many places in gas turbine engines.

Q. 7 A. Write the harmful effects

Artificial dye

Answer : Harmful effects

(i) Dyeing hair can have adverse effects like hair fall, damage to hair texture, burning of
skin, adverse effect on eyes, etc.

(ii) Lipstick contains a dye named carmine. It does not affect lips but causes stomach
disorders.

(iii) Excessive use of plants for making natural dyes results in deterioration of the
environment

Q. 7 B. Write the harmful effects

Artificial food colour

Answer : Harmful effects

(i) Food colours added to pickles, jam and sauce contain small quantities of lead and
mercury. These can be harmful for those who consume these products on a regular
basis.

(ii) Diseases like ADHD (Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder) can affect children due
to excessive consumption of foods with added food colours.
Q. 7 C. Write the harmful effects

Radioactive substances

Answer : Harmful effects

(i)The central nervous system is affected by radioactive radiations.

(ii)Hereditary defects are generated by bombardment of radiation on D.N.A in the body.

(iii)Radioactive radiation can penetrate the skin, and causes diseases like skin cancer,
leukemia.

(iv) The radiative pollutants created due to explosions enter the body through air and it
is difficult to control them.

(v) The radioactive pollutants released in the sea enter the bodies of fishes and through
them enter the human body.

Q. 7 D. Write the harmful effects

Deodorant

Answer : Harmful effects

(i) Aluminium–Zirconium compounds are the most harmful chemicals in the deodorant.
Disorders like headache, asthma, respiratory disorders, heart disease are likely to occur
without our knowledge.

(ii) There is a possibility of various skin disorders and also skin cancer due to the
aluminium chlorohydrates.

Q. 8. Write the chemical formula

Bleaching powder, common salt,baking soda, washing soda

Answer : (a) Bleaching powder:-CaOCl2

Uses:- It is used for disinfection of drinking water at the water works and the water in
the swimming pool.

(b) Common salt:-NaCl

Uses:- It gives a salty taste to food and is the most used of all salts.

(c) Baking soda:- NaHCO3

Uses:- Being basic in nature it is used to reduce acidity in the stomach.

(d) Washing soda:- Na2CO3.H2O

Uses:- It is used mainly for washing clothes.

Q. 9. Explain what you see in the following picture

Answer : The picture depicts of the powder coating i.e. powder is sprayed on the
polished metal surface by electrostatic spray deposition.

Powder coating is a type of coating that is applied as a free-flowing, dry powder. The
coating is typically applied electrostatically and is then cured under heat to allow it to
flow and form a "skin". The powder may be a thermoplastic or a thermoset polymer. It is
usually used to create a hard finish that is tougher than conventional paint. Powder
coating is mainly used for coating of metals, such as household appliances,
aluminum extrusions, drum hardware and automobile and bicycle parts.
 Carbon : An important element

Exercises

Q. 1. Select the proper option and complete the statements

(single, all, double, ionic, carbon, give and take, hydrogen, multiple, share, most,
covalent)

A. A carbon atom forms a …… bond with other atoms. In this bond the two atoms
…. electrons.

B. All the carbon bonds in a saturated hydrocarbon ....…. electrons.

C. At least one carbon bond in an unsaturated hydrocarbon is ….

D. …. is the essential element in all the organic compounds?

E. The element hydrogen is present in …. organic compound.

Answer : A. A carbon atom forms a covalent bond with other atoms. In this bond the
two atoms share electrons.

Explanation: A carbon atom forms a covalent bond with other atoms

because its outer shell is half full as shown in the figure below:

In the covalent bond, sharing of electrons takes place. For example:

CH4
B. All the carbon bonds in a saturated hydrocarbon share electrons.

Explanation: The hydrocarbons having only single bonds between carbon atoms are
called saturated hydrocarbons. Saturated form covalent bond (by sharing of electrons)

C. At least one carbon bond in an unsaturated hydrocarbon is double.

Explanation: Some hydrocarbons have a multiple bond between two carbon atoms. A
multiple bond can be a double bond or a triple bond. Hydrocarbons having at least one
multiple bond are called unsaturated hydrocarbons.

For example, ethene

D. Carbon is the essential element in all the organic compounds.

Explanation: A carbon atom exhibits a characteristic property. It can form a chain of

carbon atoms by forming covalent bonds with other carbon atoms. Hence, it is the most
essential element in the organic compounds.

E. The element hydrogen is present in most organic compounds.

Explanation: Along with carbon, the element hydrogen is also included in most organic
compounds.
Q. 2 A. Answer the following questions

Why are carbon and its compounds used as fuels?

Answer : A. Carbon and its compounds used as fuels due to the following reasons:

1. When most of the carbon and its compounds is burnt in air, it gives a lot of heat, light
and energy.

2. They have high calorific value. Thus, on burning in air, they give large amount of heat
and energy.

3. When saturated hydrocarbon (hydrocarbon having single bond) is burnt in air, less
smoke with a clean flame is produced.

Note: Calorific value is the amount of heat liberated in calories by the complete
combustion of a combustible material with oxygen.

Q. 2 B. Answer the following questions

In which compound forms does carbon occur?

Answer : Carbon occurs in crystalline forms, non-crystalline(amorphous) forms and in

hydrocarbons forms.

1. Carbon has three crystalline forms(allotropes) which are Diamond, Graphite and
Fullerene.

2. Coal, charcoal, coke are the non-crystalline forms of carbon.

3. The two types of hydrocarbons forms in which carbon occur are saturated
hydrocarbons and unsaturated hydrocarbons.

Q. 2 C. Answer the following questions

Write the uses of diamond.

Answer : Diamond is a crystalline form of carbon. Uses of diamond are the following:

1. Diamonds are used in making ornaments.

2. Diamonds are used in rock drilling and glass cutting machines.

3. To carry out eye surgery, diamond knives are used.

4. Diamond dust is used for polishing other diamonds.

5. Diamond is used to make windows giving protection from radiation in space and in
artificial satellites.

Q. 3. Explain the difference:

A. Diamond and graphite.

B. Crystalline and non-crystalline forms of carbon.

Answer : A. Difference between diamond and graphite:

B. Difference between crystalline and non-crystalline forms of carbon:

Q. 4. Write scientific reasons

A. Graphite is a conductor of electricity.

B. Graphite is not used in ornaments.
C. Limewater turns milky when CO2 is passed through it.
D. Biogas is an eco-friendly fuel.

Answer : A. Graphite is a good conductor of electricity due to the following reasons:

1. In graphite, carbon atoms are arranged in different layers.

2. In each layer, every carbon atom is linked to three neighboring carbon atoms.

3. Thus, the fourth electron of each carbon atom is free to move continuously within the
entire layer.

4. Because of the presence of these free electrons in different layers, graphite becomes
a god conductor of electricity.

B. Graphite is not used in ornaments due to the following facts:

1. For making ornaments, properties like transparency of substance, reflection of light

and hardness should be present.

2. But in graphite, all these properties are absent.

3. It is soft, brittle, black and slippery in nature.

4. Thus, it is not used in making ornaments.

C. When limewater (CaOH)2 is passed through CO2, the following reaction takes place:

(CaOH)2 + CO2→ CaCO3 + H2O

Limewater Calcium

Carbonate

1. In this reaction, when limewater comes in contact with the gas released in the form of
an effervescence, it turns milky. This is chemical test for carbon dioxide gas.

2. When limewater turns milky, it is confirmed that the effervescence is of carbon

dioxide.

D. Biogas is an ecofriendly fuel:

a. Animal dung, dry leaves, wet garbage get decomposed by anaerobic microbes in a
biogas plant.

b. This produces biogas (methane gas).

c. Biogas is a very cheap fuel option which is also used for cooking gas.

d. It is also used for production of an electricity.

e. Biogas contains about 55% to 60% methane and the rest is carbon dioxide.
f. Biogas is a very good manure and is convenient to use.

g. It is a very good manure.

Q. 5 A. Explain the following.

Diamond, graphite and fullerenes are crystalline forms of carbon.

Answer : A. Diamond, graphite and fullerene are the three crystalline forms of carbon.

1. A crystalline form has a definite and regular geometric pattern.

2. The structure of all the three crystalline forms has a definite shape, sharp edges and
plane surfaces.

Graphite Diamond Fullerene

3. Graphite has a hexagonal layered structure.

4. Diamond has a tetragonal three-dimensional structure.

5. Fullerene exists in the form of buckyballs and buckytubes.

Q. 5 B. Explain the following.

Methane is called marsh gas.

Answer : Methane gas is also called "marsh gas" because it is the product of decay in
swamps and marshes from organic material underwater and in the muck.
The main process for the production of methane is anaerobic digestion.

Q. 5 C. Explain the following.

Petrol, diesel, coal are fossil fuels.

Answer : Petrol, diesel, coal are fossil fuels because:

1. They are main source of heat and energy.

2. They release heat, light and energy when burnt in air.

3. They are formed from the decayed living organisms (plants and animals) that are
present in the earth’s crust.

Q. 5 D. Explain the following.

Uses of various allotropes of carbon.

Answer : Uses of various allotropes of carbon:

1. Diamond- It is used in making ornaments, rock drilling and glass cutting, artificial
satellites etc.

2. Graphite- It is used in pencils, paints, polish, for making carbon electrodes, lubricants
etc.

3. Fullerene- It is used as insulators, used as a catalyst in the water purification.

4. Coal- Coal is used in thermal power plants, used as fuel in factories and industries.

5. Coke- It is used as a reducing agent and a domestic fuel.

Note: Allotropes- Some elements occur in nature in more than one form. This property
of elements is called allotropy. The elements which show this property are called
allotropes.
Q. 5 E. Explain the following.

Use of CO2 in fire extinguisher

Answer : CO2 is used in fire extinguisher:

1. CO2 is filled under pressure in the fire extinguisher.

2. When we decrease that pressure, it becomes gaseous and comes out forcefully.

3. The carbon dioxide displaces the oxygen (a main cause of fire to burn)

4. By removing oxygen, we can put out a fire.

5. The reaction taking place:

Q. 5 F. Explain the following.

Practical uses of CO2.

Answer : Practical uses of CO2:

1. The most important use of CO2 is that plants use CO2 in the process of
photosynthesis.

2. Liquid CO2 is used as solvent in dry cleaning.

3. CO2 is used to make aerated drinks.

4. CO2 is used in fire extinguisher to remove oxygen.

5. Solid CO2 is used to keep milk and milk products cool while travelling.

Q. 6. Write two physical properties each.

A. Diamond
B. Charcoal
C. Fullerene

Answer : A. Two physical properties of diamond are:

1. Diamond is the hardest natural substance found in the earth and does not dissolve in
any solvent.
2. Diamond does not show any change when treated with acids/bases.

B. Two physical properties of Charcoal are:

1. Charcoal when burnt produces bad heat and energy. It is also a bad conductor of
electricity.

2. It is highly porous substance and has low density.

C. Two physical properties of Fullerene are:

1. Fullerenes dissolve in solvents like carbon disulphide (CS2) and chlorobenzene.

2. One molecule of fullerene contains around 30 to 900 carbon atom.

Q. 7. Complete the following Chemical reactions.

1. ........+.......→ CO2 + 2H2O + Heat

2. ...........+.........→ CH3Cl + HCl
3. 2 NaOH + CO2→........+........

Answer : 1. CH4 + 2O2→ CO2 + 2H2O + heat

Explanation:

When methane (CH4) is burnt in the presence of oxygen to form evolve a bluish flame.
In the above reaction, the methane burns completely.

2. CH4 + Cl2→ CH3Cl + HCl

Explanation:

Methane(CH4) and chlorine(Cl2) gases react with each other in presence of UV light and
form mainly methyl chloride (chloromethane – CH3Cl) and hydrogen chloride. This
reaction is called chlorination of methane.

3. 2NaOH + CO2→ Na2CO3 + H2O

Explanation: When aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide is passed through carbon

dioxide, it forms sodium carbonate (Na2CO3)

Q. 8 A. Write answers to the following in detail.

What are the different types of coal? What are their uses?

Answer : A. The different types of coal are peat, bituminous, anthracite and Lignite.
Peat- It is generally used as a fertilizer, as a packing material (due to its spongy nature).

Lignite- It is used in power generation (to generate electricity) and is used to create
fertilizer products like anhydrous ammonia and ammonium sulphate.

Bituminous- It is mainly used for the combustion for coke, tar, coal, chemical and coke-
oven gas. It is widely used for steam raising.

Anthracite- It is mostly used in metallurgical process and used in hand-fire furnaces.

Q. 8 B. Write answers to the following in detail.

How will you prove experimentally that graphite is good conductor of electricity?

Answer : Steps to prove that graphite conducts electricity:

Step 1: Take a pencil and sharp it from both sides.

Step 2: Now, take two clips and join each with their respective leads of the pencil.

Step 3: Also join a small bulb in the setup and connect it with a battery cell.

Step 4: Assemble the apparatus properly as shown in thee figure below.

Step 5: Start the electric current in the circuit.

Observations: You will observe that the bulb starts to glow as soon as the current is
applied. This proves that graphite is good conductor of electricity.

Q. 8 C. Write answers to the following in detail.

Explain the properties of carbon.

Answer : The properties of carbon are the following:

Carbon exists in two allotropic forms which are crystalline forms and another is non-
crystalline forms.

Q. 8 D. Write answers to the following in detail.

Classify carbon

Answer : In saturated hydrocarbons (having single bond), carbon can be classified into
primary carbon, secondary carbon, tertiary carbon and quarternary carbon.

Q. 9. How will you verify the properties of carbon dioxide?

Answer : Methods to verify the properties of carbon dioxide are:

1. By using limewater

Step 1: Take some limewater in a test tube.

Step 2: Take some baking soda in another test tube and add lemon juice to it. Fit the
bent tube over it.

Step 3: Insert its other end into the lime water.

Observations: We will observe that limewater turns milky as it comes in contact with
the released gas in the form of effervescence. When limewater turns milky, it is
confirmed that the effervescence released is of carbon dioxide gas.

The reaction taking place:

Ca(OH)2 + CO2→ CaCO3 + H2O

2. Sodium carbonate is formed when carbon dioxide is passed through an aqueous

solution of sodium hydroxide.

The reaction taking place:

2NaOH + CO2→ Na2CO3 + H2O

3. Sodium bicarbonate is formed on passing CO2 through an aqueous solution of

sodium carbonate.

The reaction taking place:

Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2→ 2NaHCO3

 Study of Sound

Exercises
Q. 1 A. Fill in the blanks and explain.

Sound does not travel through …………

Answer : Vacuum

Explanation: Sound is a mechanical wave. As all mechanical waves require a material

medium to travel, sound can also travel only in material media. As vacuum is not a
material medium, sound cannot travel in vacuum.

Q. 1 B. Fill in the blanks and explain.

The velocity of sound in steel is …............ than the velocity of sand in water.

Answer : greater

Explanation: Velocity of sound in solids>liquids>gases. Therefore, velocity of sound in

steel is greater than velocity of sound in water.

Q. 1 C. Fill in the blanks and explain.

The incidence of ……… in daily life shows that the velocity of sound is less than
the velocity of light

Answer : lightning during thunders

Explanation: During thundering, we observe lighting first and the sound is heard later.
This proves that velocity of light is greater than velocity of sound.

Q. 1 D. Fill in the blanks and explain.

To discover a sunken ship or objects deep inside the sea, .......................

technology is used.

Answer : SONAR(Sound Navigation and Ranging)

Explanation: SONAR is used to determine the direction, distance and speed of an

underwater object with the help of ultra sonic sound waves.
Q. 2. Explain giving scientific reasons.

A. The roof of a movie theatre and a conference hall is curved.

B. The intensity of reverberation is higher in a closed and empty house.
C. We cannot hear the echo produced in a classroom

Answer : A. Reason: Sound waves get reflected from the roof multiple times. This
causes a single sound to be heard continuously. This is called reverberation. The time
between successive reflections of a particular sound wave reaching us becomes
smaller and the reflected sounds get mixed up and produce a continuous sound of
increased loudness which cannot be deciphered clearly. To avoid this phenomenon, the
roof of a movie theatre and conference hall is curved.

B. Reason: In a closed room, there are many objects or obstructions acting as sound
absorbers. So the amount of sound getting reflected is very less. But in case of an
empty room there are no obstructions. So, sound gets reflected multiple times leading to
greater intensity of reverberation.

C. Reason: The dimensions of a classroom usually do not exceed 17.2m. If the

dimensions are greater than 17.2m , echo is produced. So echo is not produced in a
classroom.

Q. 3. Answer the following questions in your own words.

A. What is an echo? What factors are important to get a distinct echo?

B. Study the construction of the Golghumat at Vijapur and discuss the reasons
for the multiple echoes produced there.
C. What should be the dimensions and the shape of classrooms so that no echo
can be produced there?

Answer : A. Echo: An echo is the repetition of original sound because of reflection by a

surface.

Factors important to get a distinct echo:

The velocity of sound at 220C temperature is 344 m/s. Our brain retains a sound for 0.1
sec. So to hear a distinct echo, the time taken by the starting sound to get reflected
should be greater than 0.1 sec. So the distance between the listener and the reflecting
surface at this temperature should be

d=v×t

= 344 m/s × 0.1 s

= 34.4 m.
This is the distance required by the starting sound to reach the reflecting surface, get
reflected and reach the listener. So, the distance between the listener and reflecting
surface should be atleast half of the above calculated distance i.e. 17.2km.

B. In GolGumbaz and Vijaypur the reason for multiple echoes produced is due to
multiple reflections of sound by the tomb. The sound produced gets reflected several
times throughout the tomb which is responsible for echos.

C. A classroom should be rectangular in shape and its dimensions should be less than
17.2m for an echo to be not produced at normal room temperature.

Sound absorbing material like should be also used for soundproofing the room.

Q. 4. Where and why are sound absorbing materials used?

Answer : Sound absorbing materials are used in buildings and offices to prevent
transmission or reflection of sound. They prevent leakage of sound to other rooms.
Sound absorbing materials also prevent echoes.

Q. 5 A. Solve the following examples.

The speed of sound in air at 00C is 332 m/s. If it increases at the rate of 0.6 m/s per
degree, what will be the temperature when the velocity has increased to 344 m/s?

Answer : Given:

Speed of sound in air at 00C = 332m/s

Speed increases at a rate of 0.6m/s per degree

Temperature at 344 m/s = T0c

Difference in velocities = 344 m/s - 332 m/s

= 12 m/s

Increase in temperature corresponding to the increase in velocity =

12/0.6 = 200C

Therefore temperature at velocity 344m/s = 00C + 200C = 200C

Q. 5 B. Solve the following examples.

Nita heard the sound of lightning after 4 seconds of seeing it. What was the
distance of the lightning from her?
Answer : Given:

Velocity of sound in air (v) = 340 m/s2

Time taken for the sound to reach the receiver(t) = 4 sec

Distance of the source from receiver (d) = v × t

= 340 × 4

= 1360 m/s

Q. 5 C. Solve the following examples.

Sunil is standing between two walls. The wall closest to him is at a distance of
360 m. If he shouts, he hears the first echo after 4 s and another after another 2
seconds.

1. What is the velocity of sound in air?

2. What is the distance between the two walls?

Answer : Given:

Distance of nearest wall from the man (d) = 360m

Time after which the man hears the first echo (t1) = 4s

Time after which the man hears the second echo (t2) = 4s+2s = 6s

[Link] travelled by sound when man hears the first echo = 2d1 = 720m

Velocity of sound = Distance travelled by sound/Time taken

= 720/4

= 180 m/s

2. Let distance between two walls = x m

Distance between second wall and the man(d2) = (x-360)m

Time taken for the second echo to reach the man (t2) = 6s

Distance travelled by the sound = 2d2

Velocity of sound = Distance travelled by sound/Time taken

180 = (2(x-360))/6

x = 900 m

Therefore, distance between the two walls (x) = 900m

Q. 5 D. Solve the following examples.

Hydrogen gas is filled in two identical bottles, A and B, at the same temperature.
The mass of hydrogen in the two bottles is 12gm and 48 gm respectively. In
which bottle will sound travel faster? How many times as fast as the other?

Answer : Given:

Mass of hydrogen in bottle A (MA) = 12gm

Mass of hydrogen in bottle B (MB) = 48gm

We know that mass

So, vA = 2vB

So velocity in bottle B is two times the velocity in bottle A.

Q. 5 E. Solve the following examples.

Helium gas is filled in two identical bottles A and B. The mass of the gas in the
two bottles is 10 gm and 40 gm respectively. If the speed of sound is the same in
both bottles, what conclusions will you draw?

Answer : Given:

Mass of helium in bottle A = 10 gm

Mass of helium in bottle B = 40 gm

Velocity of helium in bottle A = Velocity of helium in bottle B

= > vA = vB = v

We know that

T = Temperature

So

Temperature in bottle A is less than temperature in bottle B.

 Study of Sound

Exercises
Q. 1 A. Fill in the blanks and explain.

Sound does not travel through …………

Answer : Vacuum

Explanation: Sound is a mechanical wave. As all mechanical waves require a material

medium to travel, sound can also travel only in material media. As vacuum is not a
material medium, sound cannot travel in vacuum.

Q. 1 B. Fill in the blanks and explain.

The velocity of sound in steel is …............ than the velocity of sand in water.

Answer : greater

Explanation: Velocity of sound in solids>liquids>gases. Therefore, velocity of sound in

steel is greater than velocity of sound in water.

Q. 1 C. Fill in the blanks and explain.

The incidence of ……… in daily life shows that the velocity of sound is less than
the velocity of light

Answer : lightning during thunders

Explanation: During thundering, we observe lighting first and the sound is heard later.
This proves that velocity of light is greater than velocity of sound.

Q. 1 D. Fill in the blanks and explain.

To discover a sunken ship or objects deep inside the sea, .......................

technology is used.

Answer : SONAR(Sound Navigation and Ranging)

Explanation: SONAR is used to determine the direction, distance and speed of an

underwater object with the help of ultra sonic sound waves.
Q. 2. Explain giving scientific reasons.

A. The roof of a movie theatre and a conference hall is curved.

B. The intensity of reverberation is higher in a closed and empty house.
C. We cannot hear the echo produced in a classroom

Answer : A. Reason: Sound waves get reflected from the roof multiple times. This
causes a single sound to be heard continuously. This is called reverberation. The time
between successive reflections of a particular sound wave reaching us becomes
smaller and the reflected sounds get mixed up and produce a continuous sound of
increased loudness which cannot be deciphered clearly. To avoid this phenomenon, the
roof of a movie theatre and conference hall is curved.

B. Reason: In a closed room, there are many objects or obstructions acting as sound
absorbers. So the amount of sound getting reflected is very less. But in case of an
empty room there are no obstructions. So, sound gets reflected multiple times leading to
greater intensity of reverberation.

C. Reason: The dimensions of a classroom usually do not exceed 17.2m. If the

dimensions are greater than 17.2m , echo is produced. So echo is not produced in a
classroom.

Q. 3. Answer the following questions in your own words.

A. What is an echo? What factors are important to get a distinct echo?

B. Study the construction of the Golghumat at Vijapur and discuss the reasons
for the multiple echoes produced there.
C. What should be the dimensions and the shape of classrooms so that no echo
can be produced there?

Answer : A. Echo: An echo is the repetition of original sound because of reflection by a

surface.

Factors important to get a distinct echo:

The velocity of sound at 220C temperature is 344 m/s. Our brain retains a sound for 0.1
sec. So to hear a distinct echo, the time taken by the starting sound to get reflected
should be greater than 0.1 sec. So the distance between the listener and the reflecting
surface at this temperature should be

d=v×t

= 344 m/s × 0.1 s

= 34.4 m.
This is the distance required by the starting sound to reach the reflecting surface, get
reflected and reach the listener. So, the distance between the listener and reflecting
surface should be atleast half of the above calculated distance i.e. 17.2km.

B. In GolGumbaz and Vijaypur the reason for multiple echoes produced is due to
multiple reflections of sound by the tomb. The sound produced gets reflected several
times throughout the tomb which is responsible for echos.

C. A classroom should be rectangular in shape and its dimensions should be less than
17.2m for an echo to be not produced at normal room temperature.

Sound absorbing material like should be also used for soundproofing the room.

Q. 4. Where and why are sound absorbing materials used?

Answer : Sound absorbing materials are used in buildings and offices to prevent
transmission or reflection of sound. They prevent leakage of sound to other rooms.
Sound absorbing materials also prevent echoes.

Q. 5 A. Solve the following examples.

The speed of sound in air at 00C is 332 m/s. If it increases at the rate of 0.6 m/s per
degree, what will be the temperature when the velocity has increased to 344 m/s?

Answer : Given:

Speed of sound in air at 00C = 332m/s

Speed increases at a rate of 0.6m/s per degree

Temperature at 344 m/s = T0c

Difference in velocities = 344 m/s - 332 m/s

= 12 m/s

Increase in temperature corresponding to the increase in velocity =

12/0.6 = 200C

Therefore temperature at velocity 344m/s = 00C + 200C = 200C

Q. 5 B. Solve the following examples.

Nita heard the sound of lightning after 4 seconds of seeing it. What was the
distance of the lightning from her?
Answer : Given:

Velocity of sound in air (v) = 340 m/s2

Time taken for the sound to reach the receiver(t) = 4 sec

Distance of the source from receiver (d) = v × t

= 340 × 4

= 1360 m/s

Q. 5 C. Solve the following examples.

Sunil is standing between two walls. The wall closest to him is at a distance of
360 m. If he shouts, he hears the first echo after 4 s and another after another 2
seconds.

1. What is the velocity of sound in air?

2. What is the distance between the two walls?

Answer : Given:

Distance of nearest wall from the man (d) = 360m

Time after which the man hears the first echo (t1) = 4s

Time after which the man hears the second echo (t2) = 4s+2s = 6s

[Link] travelled by sound when man hears the first echo = 2d1 = 720m

Velocity of sound = Distance travelled by sound/Time taken

= 720/4

= 180 m/s

2. Let distance between two walls = x m

Distance between second wall and the man(d2) = (x-360)m

Time taken for the second echo to reach the man (t2) = 6s

Distance travelled by the sound = 2d2

Velocity of sound = Distance travelled by sound/Time taken

180 = (2(x-360))/6

x = 900 m

Therefore, distance between the two walls (x) = 900m

Q. 5 D. Solve the following examples.

Hydrogen gas is filled in two identical bottles, A and B, at the same temperature.
The mass of hydrogen in the two bottles is 12gm and 48 gm respectively. In
which bottle will sound travel faster? How many times as fast as the other?

Answer : Given:

Mass of hydrogen in bottle A (MA) = 12gm

Mass of hydrogen in bottle B (MB) = 48gm

We know that mass

So, vA = 2vB

So velocity in bottle B is two times the velocity in bottle A.

Q. 5 E. Solve the following examples.

Helium gas is filled in two identical bottles A and B. The mass of the gas in the
two bottles is 10 gm and 40 gm respectively. If the speed of sound is the same in
both bottles, what conclusions will you draw?

Answer : Given:

Mass of helium in bottle A = 10 gm

Mass of helium in bottle B = 40 gm

Velocity of helium in bottle A = Velocity of helium in bottle B

= > vA = vB = v

We know that

T = Temperature

So

Temperature in bottle A is less than temperature in bottle B.

 Reflection of Light

Exercises

Q. 1 A. Answer the following questions.

Explain the difference between a plane mirror, a concave mirror and a convex
mirror with respect to the type and size of the images produced.

Answer : Plane Mirror: The image formed by plane mirror is Virtual (can’t be taken on
the screen), Upright. And size of image is same as the size of the object. Also distance
between object and mirror is same as the distance between mirror and image.

Concave Mirror: The image formed by concave mirror is both

real(can be taken on screen) and virtual. If image is real than it is

inverted and is found in front of mirror. If image is virtual than

image is upright and is formed behind the mirror. The size of

image can be smaller and larger than the object size depending on the position of the
object.

Convex Mirror: The image formed by convex mirror is always

virtual, upright and smaller than size of the object.

Q. 1 B. Answer the following questions.

Describe the positions of the source of light with respect to a concave mirror in

1. Torch light .
2. Projector lamp.
3. Floodlight.

Answer : 1.) Torch Light : The Source of light is placed at the Focus of the Concave
Mirror because in Concave Mirror if the object is placed at Focus than its image is
formed at the infinity hence we can get a light to longer distances .

2.) Projector Lamp: The source of light is placed at the Center Of Curvature because if
object is placed at the center of curvature than its image is same as the size of the
object, real. Hence image can be taken on the screen Like Whiteboard etc due to its
real nature and size will also be sufficient not too large and too small.

3.) Flood Light: The Source of light is placed Beyond The Centre Of Curvature
because the image formed is real and Magnified. hence we can get wider area of light.

Q. 1 C. Answer the following questions.

Why are concave mirrors used in solar devices?

Answer : Concave Mirrors are used in the solar devices like Solar Cooker, Solar
Furnace etc. because they are the only mirror which reflects the light towards the focus
(Plane mirrors don’t have focus, convex mirrors have imaginary focus behind the mirror
which reflects light away from the focus ).

The light collected at the Focus has lot of thermal energy which can be used in many
ways.

Q. 1 D. Answer the following questions.

Why are the mirrors fitted on the outside of cars convex?

Answer : Mirrors fitted outside of cars are convex because convex mirrors always
formed virtual and very diminished image. Hence we can see large traffic in a smaller
area of the mirror.

Q. 1 E. Answer the following questions.

Why does obtaining the image of the sun on a paper with the help of a concave
mirror burn the paper?

Answer : The paper is burnt because the rays of the sun which comes from infinite
distance forms the image at the focus of the concave mirror hence large amount of heat
is generated due to infinite rays of sun meeting at the focus which in turn burns the
paper.

Q. 1 F. Answer the following questions.

If a spherical mirror breaks, what type of mirrors are the individual pieces?

Answer : The individual pieces of the broken spherical mirror are the spherical mirror
itself. It may be of two types:

a.) Concave (reflecting surface curved inwards).

b.) Convex (reflecting surface curved outwards).

Q. 2. What sign conventions are used for reflection from a spherical mirror?

Answer : Pole (P) of the mirror is taken as the origin and the Principal axis is taken as
the horizontal X- axis. The sign conventions are as follows:

1. The object is always placed on the left side of the mirror.

2. All the distances measured to the right side of the origin are taken as positive, while
the distances measured to the left side of the origin are taken as negative.

3. All the distances parallel to the principal axis of the mirror are measured from the pole
of the mirror.

4. Distances measured vertically upwards from the principal axis of the mirror are taken
as positive.

5. Distances measured vertically downwards from the principal axis of the mirror are
taken as negative.

6. The focal length of Concave mirror is negative while that of convex mirror is positive.

Q. 3. Draw ray diagrams for the cases of images obtained in concave mirrors as
described in the table on page 122.

Answer : 1. When Object is between pole and focus.

Ø Position of Image => Behind the mirror.

Ø Nature of Image => Erect and Virtual.

Ø Size of Image => Magnified.

Ø Diagram =>

2. When Object is at focus.

Ø Position of Image => At Infinity

Ø Nature of Image => Real and Inverted.

Ø Size of Image => Very Large.

Ø Diagram =>

3. When Object is between focus and center of curvature.

Ø Position of Image =>Beyond the center of curvature.

Ø Nature of Image => Inverted and real.

Ø Size of Image => Magnified.

Ø Diagram =>
4. When Object is at center of curvature.

Ø Position of Image =>At center of curvature.

Ø Nature of Image => Inverted and real.

Ø Size of Image => Same as Object.

Ø Diagram =>

5. When Object is beyond center of curvature.

Ø Position of Image =>Between center of curvature and focus.

Ø Nature of Image => Inverted and real.

Ø Size of Image => Diminished.

Ø Diagram =>

6. When Object is at very large distance(Infinity).

Ø Position of Image => At focus.

Ø Nature of Image => Inverted and real.

Ø Size of Image => Point size.

Ø Diagram =>

Q. 4. Which type of mirrors are used in the following?

Periscope, floodlights, shaving mirror, kaleidoscope, street lights, head lamps of

a car.

Answer : 1.) Periscope: Simple Periscope uses Plane Mirrors because light just strikes
the mirror to reach viewer eye.

2.) Flood Lights: Concave Mirrors are used in the floodlights.

3.) Shaving Mirror: Concave Mirrors are used in shaving mirrors because when the
face is kept between the focus and pole of the mirror the magnified, erect and virtual
image is formed.

4.) Kaleidoscope: Plane Mirrors are used in the Kaleidoscope because only reflecting
surface is needed.

5.) Street Light: Convex Mirrors are used in the street light because it diverges the rays
of the light upto large distance .

6.) Head Lamp of car: Concave mirrors are used in the Head Lamp of car because if
the bulb is kept at focus of the mirror the rays from bulb will go to a larger distances (
infinity).

Q. 5 A. Solve the following examples

An object of height 7 cm is kept at a distance of 25 cm in front of a concave

mirror. The focal length of the mirror is 15 cm. At what distance from the mirror
should a screen be kept so as to get a clear image? What will be the size and
nature of the image?
Answer : sAccording to the question,

Object distance (u) = -25 cm;

Height of object (Ho) = + 7 cm;

Focal length (f) = -15 cm;

Image distance = v cm;

By Mirror Formula:

1/v + 1/u = 1/f.

Putting values we get,

Taking the lcm, we get,

⇒
⇒

⇒ v = -37.5 cm

∴ the image distance = 37.5 cm (The negative sign indicates that the image is formed
on the left side of the mirror)

Now, image distance (v) = -37.5 cm

Magnification =

Hi is the image height.

HO is the object height.

“v” is the image distance

“u” is the object distance

⇒ Hi = -10.5 cm.

Size of image is 10.5 cm which is negative hence image is real .

Q. 5 B. Solve the following examples

A convex mirror has a focal length of 18 cm. The image of an object kept in front
of the mirror is half the height of the object. What is the distance of the object
from the mirror?

Answer : According to the question;

Focal length (f) = + 18cm;

Height of Image = Hi ;

Height of object = Ho ;
Given That;

We Know that

Hence

By Mirror Formula;

Since

Hence distance of the object from mirror is 18 cm.

Q. 5 C. Solve the following examples

A 10 cm long stick is kept in front of a concave mirror having focal length of 10

cm in such a way that the end of the stick closest to the pole is at a distance of 20
cm. What will be the length of the image?

Answer : According to the question;

Focal length (f) = -10cm;

Length of stick (Lo) = 10cm;

Length of image = Li;

Object distance (u) = -20cm;

By mirror formula;

⇒ v = -20.
Since v = - 20 cm which is negative hence image is at left side of mirror.

Now

=-1

Negative sign means image is inverted.

Hence Li = Lo .

Hence length of image is 10 cm

Q. 6. Three mirrors are created from a single sphere. Which of the following -
pole, center of curvature, radius of curvature, principal axis - will be common to
them and which will not be common?

Answer : 1.) Radius of Curvature = It will be common because the radius of the sphere
of which the mirror is a part will be same for every part of the mirror.

2.) Principal Axis = It will not be common.

3.) Pole = It will not be common.

4.) Center of curvature = It will be common because the center of the sphere of which
the mirror is a part will be same for every part of the mirror.
 Environmental Management

Exercises

Q. 1. Match the items in column ‘A’ with the proper ones in coloum ‘B’ and
explain their impact on the environment.

Column ‘A’

1. Harmful waste
2. Domestic waste
3. Biomedical waste
4. Industrial waste
5. Urban waste

Column ‘B’

A. Glass, rubber, carry bags, etc.

B. Chemicals, pigments, ash, etc.
C. Radioactive material
D. Leftover food, vegetables, peelings of fruits.
E. Bandages, cotton, needles, etc.

Answer :

Q. 2. Complete the statements using the given options and justify those
statements.

(Geographic favourability, climate, weather, observatory)

A. Of the abiotic factors that affect biodiversity by far the most important is
.................. .
B. A description of the climatic conditions of short duration in a particular area is
.................. .
C. Irrespective of the progress of human beings, we have to think about
.................. .
D. Establishments where various climatic factors are recorded are called
.................. .

Answer :

A. Of the abiotic factors that affect biodiversity by far the most important is ...
Geographic favourability.... .

Explanation: The geographical location, the climate and the soil are the fundamental
non-living factors of the ecosystem.

B. A description of the climatic conditions of short duration in a particular area is

...weather... .

Explanation: The condition of the atmospheric at a particular time at a particular place

is referred as weather. It changes in a short span of time.

C. Irrespective of the progress of human beings, we have to think about

.......climate........ .

Explanation: The weather conditions observed for longer period of time, it is found to
be constant. The weather is related to a particular location and particular time whereas
climate is related to a longer duration and larger area.

D. Establishments where various climatic factors are recorded are called ......
observatory.... .

Explanation: Observatory place or building equipped with instruments which observe

and records climatic and weather conditions.

Q. 3. Answer the following questions.

A. How is first aid provided to victims of disasters who are injured?

B. State the scientific and eco-friendly methods of waste management.
C. Explain with suitable examples, the relationship between weather forecasting
and disaster management.
D. Why is e-waste harmful? Express your opinion about this.
E. How will you register individual your participation in solid waste management?
Answer : A. In case of injury, the wound should be covered with an antiseptic pad and
apply pressure it for 5 minutes with either thumb or palm. If any bone is fractured of the
injured it is necessary to restrict the movement of fractured part. It can be done with the
help of any available wooden rods or batons or rulers.

B. Scientific and eco–friendly methods of waste management are:

i. Separating of solid waste into dry waste and wet waste.

ii. Composting of kitchen waste such as peels of vegetables and fruits in the terrace
garden or in the garden.

iii. Vermicomposting is a process of converting vegetable waste or food waste into

fertilizer using earth worms.

iv. Generation of energy by burning waste very high temperature. This process is called
as Pyrolysis. Examples biogas, bioelectricity.

v. Dumping of industrial solid waste such as plastic, clay liners in the landfills to avoid
leaching of waste.

vi. Burning of biomedical waste in the incinerator.

C. By weather forecasting we get to know about climatic conditions for the coming few
days. Weather forecast predicts some unforeseen events which are going to happen
such as heavy rainfall, landslides, storms, etc. therefore, in such situations disaster
management can prepare for upcoming problems based on the weather forecasting
report. Example: disaster happened in Kedarnath due to heavy rain and landslides.

D. E-waste stands for electronic waste which includes parts of TV sets, cell phones,
music systems, computers, circuits and metals. These cannot be degraded. On burning
theses release some harmful gasses which can cause respiratory problems.

E. First of all you have to learn the techniques of solid waste management and then
register yourself to pollution control department.

Q. 4. Write notes.

Meteorology, Climatic factors, Monsoon model, Industrial waste, Plastic waste,

Principles of first aid.

Answer :

Meteorology: The science which studies the relationships between the atmosphere,
natural cycles, geological movements of the earth and climate. Its study includes the
study of storms, clouds, rainfall, thunder, lightning, etc.
Climatic factors:

The following are the climatic factors:

•Direction and speed of wind

•Temperature

•Atmospheric pressure

Monsoon model:

It is model of forecasting the monsoon season in India. Dr. Vasantrao Govarikar in the
decade of the 1990's proposed a monsoon model based upon 16 climatic parameters of
the world. This model was in use from 1990 to 2002.

Industrial waste:

Solid, semi-solid, liquid, or gaseous, unwanted materials released from the industries
into the environment is called industrial waste. Examples arechemicals, pigments,
sludge, metals, ash, paints, sandpapers, and other paper products.

Plastic waste:

Plastics play a great role in our daily lives. Plastics are used in all areas of making
things. Tons and tons of plastic products are made daily. Examples are water bottles,
plastic bags, plastic cards, plastic sheets, etc. Most plastics are not biodegradable and
creating environmental problems.

Principles of first aid:

•To check and provide help the victim in the right order of priority.

•To place victims in a comfortable position.

•To restrict the movement of injured parts.

•To relieve pain and restlessness if possible.

•To arrange evacuation if necessary in the correct priority.

Q. 5. Give examples of the importance of climate in the living world with

explanations, in your own words.
Answer : Climate is the average condition of the weather over several decades. The
conditions are temperature, wind velocity, and precipitation. These influence human life
style directly or indirectly. Land, water bodies, plants and animals collectively form the
natural environment on earth. This environment is responsible for the growth and
development different organisms.

The climate of a particular region influences the diet, clothing style, housing,
occupations and lifestyle of the people of that region. For example, the characteristics
lifestyle of Kashmiri people in cold climate and the lifestyle of the Rajasthan people in
hot climate.

Q. 6. Explain with suitable examples, the care to be taken when using the
methods of transporting patients.

Answer : The methods and procedures in used to transport patients depends on type of
injury.

Examples:

• Patients who are an unconscious are transported by carrying piggy back or by

pulling or lifting method.
• Patients who cannot use their hands are transported by carrying on two-hand
chair, while four-hand chair is used when support is needed for the part below
the waist.
• Stretcher: In an emergency a temporary stretcher can be made using bamboos,
blanket, to transport patients.

Q. 7. Explain the differences.

A. Weather and climate

B. Degradable and non-degradable waste

Answer : A.

B.
 \

Q. 8. Visit a nearby hospital and collect information about how waste is managed.

Answer : Bandages, dressings, gloves, needles, saline bottles, medicines, medicine

bottles, test tubes, body parts, blood, are the waste released from a [Link]
articles are very harmful. The hospital staff collect all the waste and dumped in a landfill
and covered it properly.

Q. 9. Establish a vermin-compost project in your school under the guidance

ofyour teachers.

Answer : Vermicomposting is the process in which worms to process organic food

waste into nutrient-rich soil. Worms eat decaying food waste and produce vermin-
compost. A small storage container is taken to demonstrate vermicomposting. To
process, food waste is put into the bin and then worms are added into the bin. The
worms decaying food waste and produce vermin-compost.
 Useful and Harmful Microbes

Exercises

Q. 1. Complete the statements using the proper option from those given below.
Explain the statements.

(Mycotoxins, budding, rhizobium)

A. Yeast reproduces asexually by the ............. method.
B. Toxins of fungal origin are called............. .
C. Leguminous plants can produce more proteins due to............. .

Answer : A. Yeast reproduces asexually by the ....budding..... method. In budding, a

small knob like structure bulge out from the parent yeast. This swollen structure is called
bud. The bud grows and gets detach from the parent and becomes new yeast.

B. Toxins of fungal origin are called....mycotoxins.....

Some species of fungi example Mucor, grow on food items such as bread pickles, jam,
sauce, chutney, etc. They use the nutrients of the food for their growth and
reproduction. They also produce some poisonous chemicals in the food items. These
chemicals are called mycotoxins

C. Leguminous plants can produce more proteins due to....rhizobium….

Rhizobium is a bacterium (plural bacteria) grows in the root nodules (bulb like
structures) of plants such as soybean, ground nut, gram, etc. Rhizobium provides
nitrates and amino acids to the plant and it takes carbohydrate from plants in exchange.

Q. 2. Write the names of microbes found in following food materials.

Yoghurt, bread, root nodules of leguminous plants, idli, dosa, spoiled potato
curry.

Answer :
Q. 3. Identify the odd word out and say why it is the odd one?

A. Pneumonia, diphtheria, chicken pox, cholera.

B. Lactobacilli, rhizobia, yeast, clostridia.
C. Root rot, rust (tambera), rubella, mozaic.

Answer : A. The odd one out is: Chicken pox.

Explanation: Chicken pox is a disease caused by virus. Pneumonia, diphtheria, and

cholera are caused by bacteria.

B. The odd one out is: Yeast.

Explanation: Yeast is a fungus. Lactobacilli, rhizobia, and clostridia are bacteria.

C. The odd one out is: Rubella.

Explanation: Rubella is a disease caused by bacteria that occurs in humans. Root rot,
rust (tambera), and mosaic are the plant diseases caused by fungi.

Q. 4. Give scientific reasons.

A. Foam accumulates on at the surface of ‘dal’ kept for a long time in summer.
B. Why are naphthalene balls kept with clothes to be put away?

Answer : A. Foam gets accumulated on the surface of the dal, this happens due to
denaturation of protein at high temperature in summer. Denaturation is a process in
which protein molecules loses its structure due to breaking of weak chemical bonds.

B. Naphthalene balls are organic compound which have the properties of sublimation.
Sublimation is a process in which a solid matter changes to gas without in between
liquid phase. The gas which releases from naphthalene balls keeps insect away from
the kept away clothes.

Q. 5. Write down the modes of infection and the preventive measures against
fungal diseases.

Answer :
Q. 6. Match the pairs.

Answer :

Q. 7. Answer the following questions.

A. Which vaccines are given to infants? Why?

B. How is a vaccine produced?

C. How do antibiotics cure disease?

D. Are the antibiotics given to humans and animals the same? Why?

E. Why is it necessary to safely store the pathogens of a disease against which

vaccines are to be produced?

Answer :

A. The following vaccines are given to infants which protects them the various diseases.
Infant’s body is weak, it cannot protect itself from the attacks of harmful
microorganisms. Hence, infants are given vaccines.
B. A vaccine is a biological preparation which protect against a particular disease. It is
made out of half killed or weakened disease-causing microorganism. For example, polio
vaccine is made from half killed or weekend polio virus. A particular vaccine is prepared
to protect against for particular disease.

C. Antibiotics are used to control harmful bacteria. Antibiotics control bacteria either by
killing them or by preventing them from growth.

D. Some antibiotics are only used by humans and some only used for animals.
Whereas some antibiotics such as Amoxicillin can be used by human and animals both
but in different doses. For example, Amoxicillin available in 250mg and 500mg for
humans and 5-10mg for dogs and cats.

E. In vaccine, the pathogen are half killed or weakened disease causing microorganism
Sometimes due to unsafe storage, it may get activated and may cause vaccine
associated disease.

Q. 8. Answer the following questions in brief.

A. What are ‘broad spectrum antibiotics’?

B. What is fermentation?
C. Define ‘Antibiotic’.

Answer : A. The antibiotics which are used to control variety of bacteria, not just
specific bacteria are called ‘broad spectrum antibiotics’. For examples ampicillin,
amoxicillin, tetracycline, etc.

B. Fermentation is a process in which microorganisms such as bacteria and yeast,

convert sugar (carbohydrate) into organic acid, alcohol etc.

Examples:
i. The lactobacilli bacteria convert lactose (milk sugar) into lactic acid.

ii. Yeast convert the carbohydrates into alcohol and carbon dioxide.

C. Antibiotics are carbon compounds which are obtained from some bacteria and fungi
and are used kill or stop the growth of harmful micro-organisms. For example: penicillin
is an antibiotics which is obtained from a fungus Penicilliumis used to kill bacteria.

Q. 9. Collect information about generic medicines and discuss them in the class.

Answer : Generic medicines are those medicines which are for sale in the
market without brand names. Generic medicines are generally less expensive. In safety,
purity and effectiveness are exactly the same as branded medicines. It can be
understood with an example, Calpol is a brand for paracetamol tablets. Generic
medicine do not have brand name but contains the same parcetamol medicine.
 Energy Flow in an Ecosystem

Exercises

Q. 1. Complete the following table (Carefully study the carbon, oxygen and
nitrogen cycles).

Answer :

Q. 2. Correct and rewrite the following statements and justify your corrections.

A. Carnivores occupy the second trophic level in the food chain.

B. The flow of nutrients in an ecosystem is considered to be a ‘one way’
transport.
C. Plants in an ecosystem are called primary consumers.

Answer : A. Correct Statement: Carnivores occupy the third or top trophic level. Its
depend on the nature of the food chain look at the examples:
In the above food, chain carnivore occupies top trophic level.

In the above food chain carnivores occupies third and top trophic levels.

B. Correct Statement: The flow of energy in an ecosystem is considered to be a ‘one

way’ transport.

Explanation:

Sun is the only source of energy in the ecosystem. The energy in the ecosystem is
flowed only in one direction. The energy from the sun is used by the plants to make food
through photosynthesis. The energy from plants is then passed on from one organism
to another in a food chain and it never returns to the sun. Thus, energy moves in one
way that is from Sun to the plants, then to herbivores and then to carnivores.

C. Correct Statement: Plants in an ecosystem are called producers.

Explanation: Using the sunlight, green plants make food for themselves. Other
organisms cannot make their food and depend on green plants for food. Therefore,
green plants are the producers of food.

Q. 3. Give reasons.

A. Energy flow through an ecosystem is ‘one way’.

B. Equilibrium is necessary in the various bio-geo-chemical cycles.
C. Flow of nutrients through an ecosystem is cyclic.

Answer : A. Sun is the only source of energy in the ecosystem. The energy in the
ecosystem flows only in one direction. The energy from the sun is used by the plants to
make food through photosynthesis. The energy from plants is then passed on from one
organism to another in a food chain and it never returns to the sun. Thus, energy moves
in one way that is from Sun to the plants, then to herbivores and then to carnivores.

B. A biogeochemical cycle is defined as cycling of materials (nutrients) through biotic

components (living organisms) and abiotic components (non-living things such as soil,
water). Most important biogeochemical cycles are the carbon cycle, nitrogen cycle,
oxygen cycle, and the water cycle.

The producers of an ecosystem take up inorganic nutrients from their non-living

environment. These nutrients changed into the biomass of the producers. Then the
biomass they are utilized by the different consumers and after death and decay of
producers and consumers, the nutrients are returned to the environment. Thus, there is
always a state of balance in the cycling of material in the ecosystem.

C. The green plants taking energy from the sun and inorganic nutrients such as water
and carbon dioxide, nitrogen from their non-living environment involving different cycles.
These nutrients changed into the biomass of the producers. Then the biomass of the
producers is utilized by the different consumers. After death producers and consumers,
decomposers such as bacteria and fungi break down dead body into nutrients. These
nutrients are returned to the non-living environment. Thus, movement of nutrients
(materials) in the ecosystem is in a cyclic manner.

Q. 4. Explain the following cycles in your own words with suitable diagrams.

A. Carbon cycle.
B. Nitrogen cycle.
C. Oxygen cycle.

Answer :

A. Carbon cycle:

i. A major part of the carbon dioxide from the atmosphere enters into the living
organisms through photosynthesis.

ii. The green plants make the organic compounds (carbohydrates).

iii. These compounds are passed from green plants to the consumers (herbivores and
carnivores).

iv. During respiration, plants and animals release carbon in the form of carbon dioxide
back to the atmosphere.

v. The dead bodies of plants and animals as well as the body wastes, which are also
rich in carbon compounds, are broken down by decomposers such as bacteria and
fungi to release carbon dioxide.

vi. Carbon is also recycled during the burning of fossil fuels such as coal, petroleum
products.
B. Nitrogen cycle:
i. Approximately 78% of air is nitrogen and it is a part of many molecules essential to life
like proteins, nucleic acids (DNA and RNA), ATP, and some vitamins.
ii. Neither plants nor animals can use atmospheric nitrogen. Plants or animals use
nitrogen when it is fixed by nitrogen-fixing bacteria present in the root nodules of pulses
plants.
iii. These organisms convert fixed nitrogen into ammonia. After that other bacteria
convert ammonia into nitrate, in a process called nitrification. It is two steps process. In
the first step, Nitrosomonas convert ammonia into nitrite. In the second
step, Nitrobacter converts nitrite into nitrate. This nitrate is then consumed by plants.
iv. Thus, nitrate is the usable form of nitrogen. Through the process of denitrification by
denitrifying bacteria converts nitrates nitrogen gas which is released into the
atmosphere. This complete the cycle.
C. Oxygen cycle:

i. Oxygen from the atmosphere is used up in three processes. These are combustion,
respiration and in the formation of oxides of nitrogen.

ii. Oxygen required for respiration in plants and animals enters the body directly from
the surrounding medium (air and water).

iii. Oxygen is returned to the atmosphere by photosynthesis.

During photosynthesis oxygen is released in the form of molecular oxygen as a by-

product. Thus, the cycle is completed.

Q. 5. What would you do to help maintain the equilibrium in the various bio-geo-
chemical cycles? Explain in brief.

Answer : i. Human activities on the large scale such as clearing forest or cutting of
trees on large scale (deforestation), burning of fossil fuels, more use of chemical
fertilizers, and pesticides.

ii. These activities disturb the biogeochemical processes, directly or indirectly.

iii. Some steps should be taken to maintain the biogeochemical equilibrium in the
ecosystem such as:

1. Plant more and more trees to maintain oxygen and carbon dioxide balance in nature.

2. Least use of chlorofluorocarbons.

3. Reduce vehicular pollution.

Q. 6. Explain in detail the inter-relationship between the food chain and food web.

Answer : A food chain is a series of organisms in which one organism eats another.
Through food chain nutrients and energy pass from one organism to another through
food. In a food chain, some organisms are producers and some are consumers. Each
organism in a food chain occupies a specific trophic level.

Food web is a network of many interconnected food chains. Food web is a more
realistic representation of food relationships in ecosystems.

Q. 7. State the different types of bio-geochemical cycles and explain the

importance of those cycles.

Answer : Most important biogeochemical cycles are the carbon cycle, nitrogen cycle,
oxygen cycle, and the water cycle.

Biogeochemical cycles do many functions at ecosystem level and is ensure survival of

various organisms including humans.

Some of the importance of biogeochemical cycles are given below:

I. Biogeochemical cycles change matter from one form to another. For example,
humans use water in liquid form. Through the water cycle, water vapour is condensed to
liquid and ice converted to liquid water.
II. Biogeochemical cycles transfer the molecules from one place to another. For
example, another, the percentage of nitrogen is high in the atmosphere, but some of the
atmospheric nitrogen is transferred to the soil through the nitrogen cycle.

III. Biogeochemical cycles link living organisms among themselves and with the non-
living organisms. All organisms depend on one another and most especially, the biotic
or living component and a biotic component of the ecosystem are linked by flow of
nutrients.

Q. 8. Explain the following with suitable examples.

A. What type of changes occurs in the amount of energy during its transfer from
plants to apex consumers?
B. What are the differences between flow of matter and of energy in an
ecosystem? Why?

Answer : A. Primary consumers (herbivores) eat green plants. They take energy into
their bodies. The herbivores use this energy for movement and reproduction. Some
parts of the plant which was eaten cannot be digested by the herbivore; the energy in
these parts of the plant passes out of the herbivore's body as waste. Some of the
energy is used for growth and remains as organic matter in the herbivore's body. It is
this energy which can be eaten by the secondary consumer. Only about 10% of the
energy which the plant used for growth is taken into the body of the secondary
consumers (carnivores).

As the energy is passed along the food chain much of the energy is either used or lost
and only 10% of the energy is transferred to the next level.

B. Energy flow in the ecosystem is directional and is only in one direction because Sun
is the ultimate source of energy. Sun energy is fixed into plants and from plants to the
different consumers. Thus, energy enters into an ecosystem as sunlight, part of the
energy is retuned as heat and part is fixed as food (chemical compound) with help of
inorganic materials. The chemical compounds are recycled in the ecosystem through
different biogeochemical cycles. Therefore, in any ecosystem, energy from in one
direction and materials are recycled.

Q. 9. Prepare a model based on any natural cycle and present it in a science

exhibition.

Answer : The water cycle is one of the important natural cycles. In the water cycle
water goes into the atmosphere in the form of vapours from the water bodies such as
ocean, rivers and comes on the earth as liquid water as rain.

Let’s try to make a model of water cycle which may useful in helping you to understand
the process.
Materials required:

A large zip-lock plastic bag, water, food colour, masking tape and a thermometer

Procedure:

i. Put about 250 ml of water into the bag. Add a drop or two of food colour.

ii. Now close the bag and fixed the bag on the window which is receiving sunlight.

iii. Hold the bulb of the thermometer against the bag for three minutes and then record
the temperature.

iv. Let the bag hang in the sun for 3-4 hours then observe the bag again.

v. Look for any changes in the bag. Small water droplets will appear on the side of the
bag and the level of water goes down.

vi. Hold the bulb of the thermometer against the bag again for three minutes. Record the
change in temperature.

Inference:

Small water droplets on the wall of the bag is due to evaporation and it will condensed
to water. Thus, shows water cycle.

Q. 10. Write a paragraph on ‘Balance in an Ecosystem’.

Answer : Ecosystem is the interaction between biotic (living) component such as

plants, animals and other organisms and abiotic (non-living) components such as soil,
water sunlight etc. An ecosystem is said to be balanced, when living and non -living
components are in peace.

For example:

In an ecosystem, all the organisms require food to live. The sun is the main source of
energy. Green plants use sun energy to make food through photosynthesis. Animals do
not get energy directly from the Sun. Many animals (herbivores) eat plants which use
sunlight to make food. Other animals such as tiger, lion eat herbivores to get energy.
Therefore, through food chain ecological balance is maintained. Disturbance in any
component of ecosystem leads to ecological imbalance.
 Classification of Plants

Exercises

Q. 1. Match the proper terms from columns A and C with the description in
column B.

Answer :
Q. 2. Complete the sentences by filling in the blanks and explain those
statements.

(angiosperms, gymnosperms, spore, bryophyta, thallophyta, zygote)

A. .................... plants have soft and fibre-like body.

B. .................... is called the ‘amphibian’ of the plant kingdom.
C. In pteridophytes, asexual reproduction occurs by .................... formation and
sexual reproduction occurs by ....................formation.
D. Male and female flowers of ....................are borne on different sporophylls of
the same plant.

Answer : [Link]

Explanation:

Thallophyta are found mostly in water some in fresh, saline water soft and fibre like
body due to absence of mechanical and conducting elements and presence of cellulose
cell wall.

B. Bryophyta

Explanation:

Bryophytes lack vascular tissue system ,true roots, leaves, stems.

Found on most places still they require water for transfer of sperms for fertilization
hence called amphibians of plant kingdom.

C. Spore, Zygote

Explanation:

Pteridophytes have well developed vascular tissues and leaves,

stems, roots but these plants produce neither flowers nor seeds also called seed less
vascular cryptograms. Sporophyll leaves have sporangia which produce spores.
Formation and fusion of male and female gamete forms zygote this

further produces well differentiated multicellular sporophyte.

D. Gymnosperms

Explanation:

Spores are produced within sporangia present on sporophyll,

which are leaves which form compact structures called cones these are male and
female. Few species of gymnosperms like pinus have both male and female on same
tree but located far apart this can be called dioecious and few species of cycas where
male and female are produced on different plant can be termed as monoecious.

Q. 3 A. Answer the following questions in your own words.

Write the characteristics of subkingdom Phanerogams.

Answer : (A) The characteristics of subkingdom phanerogamae.

1. Phanerogams means visible gametes. Flowering or seed bearing plants, most

developed plants with roots, stem, leaves.

2. These are divided into two main groups –

A) Gymnosperms –

1. Gymnos means naked and sperm means seed.

2. Seeds are naked therefore they do not bear true fruit.

3. Evergreen, perennial, woody found mainly on hills.

4. Some plants male and female cones (flowers) on same plant are called dioecious eg:
pinus whereas in some on different plants called monoecious eg: cycas.

B) Angiosperms –

1. Angios means cover and sperm means seed.

2. Seeds are covered as true ovary is found. Pollen Grains and ovules are developed in
specialized structures called flowers.

3. These are divided into two classes: dicotyledons and monocotyledons.

4. Dicotyledons are characterized by having two cotyledons in their seeds while the
monocotyledons have only one.

Q. 3 B. Answer the following questions in your own words.

Distinguish between monocots and dicots.

Answer : Difference between monocots and dicots-

Monocots differ from dicots in various categories leaves, stem, roots ,flowers.
Q. 3 C. Answer the following questions in your own words.

Write a paragraph in your own words about the ornamental plants called ferns.

Answer : Ornamental flowers ferns –

● Ornamental flowers ferns belong to division pteridophytes.

● Being a pteridophyta it have differentiated stem, root, leaves and well developed
vascular system.

● Leaves of Fern are large called microsporophyll.

● Ferns have wide variety of habitats mountains, dry deserts, water or open fields.

● Ferns are used in food, horticulture etc

● Fern includes pteris, adiantum, equistem, selaginella.

Q. 3 D. Answer the following questions in your own words.

Sketch, label and describe the Spirogyra.

Answer : SPIROGYRA
A green-coloured algae commonly found in stagnant freshwater bodies is known as
spirogyra. Mainly, spirogyra is slimy and has filament to touch in which the filaments are
present in the cylindrical cells placed one above the Also there is a single large vacuole
in each cell.

Q. 3 E. Answer the following questions in your own words.

Write the characteristics of the plants belonging to division Bryophyta.

Answer : Characteristics of bryophytes -

1. This group of plants is also called amphibians of plant kingdom.

2. These plants are thalloid, multicellular, autotrophic.

3. Bryophytes grow in moist soil but requires water for transfer of male gametes to
female.

[Link] have leaf like, stem like ,root like modification.

Q. 4. Sketch and label the figures of the following plants and explain them into
brief.

Marchantia, Funaria, Fern, Spirogyra.

Answer :
MARCHANTIA

1. Found mostly on silty clay or moist soil.

2. Marchantia show differentiation in two layers upper assimilatory region and lower
storage.

3. Thallus features has tiny cup like structures called gemma cups used for asexual
reproduction.

4. Antheridia and archegonia are born on special stalks antheridiophores and

archegoniophores. These are separate thalli therefore plant is dioecious.

5. Asexual reproduction occurs by gemmae discoid clumps of cells.

FUNARIA
1. Plant is small erect, small & branched.

2. Differentiated into rhizoids, axis, leaves (simple ,small, spirally arranged)

3. Asexual method takes place to give rise to primary protonema, secondary

protonema.

4. It consists of multicellular colourless branched rhizoids.

FERN

1. Fern belong to pteridophytes therefore they have vascular tissues well developed
roots, stem, leaves.

2. Fern stem is often referred to as rhizomes.

3. Green, photosynthetic part of plant is technically megaphylly.

4. Fern species can be found many habitats as remote mountains, dry dessert Some
species are lycopodium, selaginella, equisetum.

5. Fern are used as ornamentals, food etc.

SPIROGYRA
1. A green-colored algae commonly found in stagnant freshwater bodies is known as
spirogyra. Mainly, spirogyra is slimy and has filament to touch in which the filaments are
present in the cylindrical cells placed one above the Also there is a single large vacuole
in each cell.

Q. 5. Collect a monocot and dicot plant available in your area. Observe the plants
carefully and describe them in scientific language.

Answer : One can differentiate in monocot and dicot based on below observations-

Q. 6. Which criteria are used for the classification of plants? Explain with
reasons.

Answer : Criteria used for classification of plants are-

● Presence or absence of organs in different plant division (Thallophytic, ,bryophyte,
pteridophytes, gymnosperms, angiosperms) is the first criterion for classification of
plants.

● Presence or absence of several conducting tissues for conduction of water and food,
bryophytes do not possess whereas pteridophyta, gymnosperms, angiosperms
possess.

● Development of seed as pteridophytes do not have seed whereas gymnosperms and

angiosperms have seeds.

● Seeds are developed without seed coat in gymnosperms (naked)and or with seed
coat in angiosperms(covered).

● The number of Seed coats in monocot is one cotyledon and dicot have two.
 Acids, Bases and Salts

Exercises

Q. 1. Identify the odd one out and justify.

A. Chloride, nitrate, hydride, ammonium

B. Hydrogen chloride, sodium hydroxide, calcium oxide, ammonia
C. Acetic acid, carbonic acid, hydrochloric acid, nitric acid
D. Ammonium chloride, sodium chloride, potassium nitrate, sodium sulphate
E. Sodium nitrate, sodium carbonate, sodium sulphate, sodium chloride
F. Calcium oxide, magnesium oxide, zinc oxide, sodium oxide.
G. Crystalline blue vitriol, crystalline common salt, crystalline ferrous sulphate,
crystalline sodium carbonate.
H. Sodium chloride, potassium hydroxide, acetic acid, sodium acetate.

Answer : A. The odd one(s) – ammonium

Explanation: Ammonium(NH4+) is the odd one out because it is the only positively
charged ion (cation). While chloride (Cl-), nitrate (NO-) and hydride (H-) are the
negatively charged ion (anion)

B. The odd one(s) – Hydrogen chloride

Explanation: Hydrogen chloride is odd one out because it is the only acid among the
given compounds. While sodium hydroxide (NaOH), calcium oxide (CaO) and ammonia
(NH3) are the bases.

C. The odd one(s) – Acetic acid

Explanation: Acetic acid is odd one out because it is the only organic acid. While
carbonic acid, hydrochloric acid and nitric acid are inorganic acids.

D. The odd one(s) – Ammonium chloride

Explanation: Ammonium chloride is the odd one out out among the given compounds
because it is an acidic salt. While

sodium chloride, potassium nitrate, sodium sulphate are the neutral salts.

Note:
Acidic salts are formed by the neutralization reaction between a strong acid and a weak
base.

Neutral salts are formed by the neutralization of a strong acid and a strong base.

Salts are formed by the combination of acid and base. The reaction takes place is called
neutralization reaction.

E. The odd one(s) – Sodium chloride

Explanation: sodium chloride is the odd one out because it the only neutral salt
present.

F. The odd one(s) – ZnO

Explanation: ZnO is odd one out because it is the only amphoteric oxides among the
given oxides. While CaO, MgO and Na2O are basic oxides.

G. The odd one(s) – Crystalline common salt

Explanation: Crystalline common salt is the odd one out

because it does not lose its crystallization on heating.

H. The odd one(s) – Potassium hydroxide

Explanation: Potassium hydroxide is odd one out because it is not salt. While all others
are salts

Q. 2 A. Write down the changes that will be seen in each instance and explain the
reason behind it.

50ml water is added to 50ml solution of copper sulphate.

Answer : The changes observed when 50ml water is added to 50ml solution of copper
sulphate are:

i. A reversible reaction takes place.

ii. Colour of copper sulphate changes.

iii. Anhydrous copper sulphate changes to hydrated copper sulphate.

Explanation: The changes occur due to the following reaction

The water of crystallization is taking place in the above reaction. Thus, the colour
changes from white to blue

Q. 2 B. Write down the changes that will be seen in each instance and explain the
reason behind it.

Two drops of the indicator phenolphthalein were added to 10ml solution of

sodium hydroxide.

Answer : The change observed when two drops of the indicator phenolphthalein was
added to 10ml solution of sodium hydroxide is:

The solution changes from colorless to dark pink in colour.

Explanation: Phenolphthalein is a basic indicator.

i. When it is mixed with any acid, it remains colourless.

ii. When mixed with any base, its colour changes to pink. NaOH is a base.

Thus, the solution becomes dark pink in colour.

Q. 2 C. Write down the changes that will be seen in each instance and explain the
reason behind it.

Two or three filings of copper were added to 10ml dilute nitric acid and stirred.

Answer : The changes observed when two or three filings of copper were added to
10ml dilute nitric acid and stirred are:

i. The soltion changes to bluish red.

ii. A red toxic gas is evolved.

iii. Copper is completely consumed.

Explanation: The changes occur due to the following reaction

Cu + 4HNO3→ Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO2 + 2H2O

In the above reaction, the copper metal is oxidized by nitric acid. The nitrogen dioxide
(NO2) formed in the reaction is so dangerous and toxic.

Q. 2 D. Write down the changes that will be seen in each instance and explain the
reason behind it.

A litmus paper was dropped into 2ml dilute HCl. Then 2ml concentrated NaOH
was added to it and stirred.

Answer : The changes observed when a litmus paper was dropped into 2ml dilute HCl.
Then 2ml concentrated NaOH was added to it and stirred are:

i. With HCl, the litmus paper turns red.

ii. With NaOH, the litmus paper turns blue.

Explanation: HCl is an acid and has pH lesser than 7, thus its colour changes to red.

NaOH is a base and has pH greater than 7, thus its colour changes to blue.

Q. 2 E. Write down the changes that will be seen in each instance and explain the
reason behind it.

Magnesium oxide was added to dilute HCl and magnesium oxide was a added to
dilute NaOH.

Answer : The changes observe when magnesium oxide was added to dilute HCl and
magnesium oxide was added to dilute NaOH are:

i. With HCl, magnesium oxide forms salt and water.

ii. With NaOH, no reaction takes place.

Explanation: When magnesium oxide being a basic oxide reacts with HCl (an acid), it
forms a salt.

MgO + HCl → MgCl2 + H2O

The above reaction is an example of neutralization reaction.

On the other hand, when magnesium oxide being a basic oxide reacts with NaOH (a
base), no reaction takes place. Because to carry out a neutralization reaction, there
must be a combination of acid and base. But here both are bases, that’s why no
reaction takes place.

Q. 2 F. Write down the changes that will be seen in each instance and explain the
reason behind it.

Zinc oxide was added to dilute HCl and zinc oxide was added to dilute NaOH.

Answer : The changes observe when zinc oxide was added to dilute HCl and zinc
oxide was added to dilute NaOH are:

i. With HCl, zinc oxide forms salt and water which shows basic properties.

ii. With NaOH, zinc oxide forms salt and water which shows acidic properties.

Explanation: Zinc oxide is an amphoteric oxide which shows both the properties of an
acid as well as a base.

When zinc oxide reacts with HCl (acid), shows basic properties:

ZnO + HCl → ZnCl2 + H2O (basic nature)

When zinc oxide reacts with NaOH (base), shows basic properties:

ZnO +NaOH → Na2ZnO2 + H2O (acidic nature)

Q. 2 G. Write down the changes that will be seen in each instance and explain the
reason behind it.

Dilute HCl was added to limestone.

Answer : The changes observe when dilute HCl was added to limestone are:

i. Effervescence of carbon dioxide gas is formed.

ii. Bubbles are also produced.

Explanation: When dilute HCl was added to limestone (CaCO3), effervescence of

carbon dioxide is formed due to the following reaction:

CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2

Q. 2 H. Write down the changes that will be seen in each instance and explain the
reason behind it.
Pieces of blue vitriol were heated in a test tube. On cooling, water was added to it.

Answer : The changes observe when pieces of blue vitriol were heated in a test tube
and on cooling, water was added to it are:

i. On heating, the crystalline structure of blue vitriol broke down to form a colorless
powder.

ii. On adding water, the color changes back to blue color.

Explanation: When blue vitriol (hydrated CuSO4) is heated, it becomes anhydrous and
colorless (white).

CuSO4.5H2O → CuSO4 + 5H2O

(blue) (white)

Now, when water was added, it regained its blue colour and becomes hydrated again.

CuSO4 + H2O → CuSO4.5H2O

(white) (hydrated)

Q. 2 I. Write down the changes that will be seen in each instance and explain the
reason behind it.

Dilute H2SO4 was taken in an electrolytic cell and electric current was passed
through it.

Answer : The changes observe when dilute H2SO4 was taken in an electrolytic cell and
electric current was passed through it are:

i. Conduction of electricity becomes better.

ii. SO42- remains in the solution.

The acid makes the electrolytic cell a better conductor. The reaction takes place is:

H2SO4→ 2H+ + SO42-

Q. 3. Classify the following oxides into three types and name the types.

CaO, MgO, CO2, SO3, Na2O, ZnO, AI2O3, Fe2O3

Answer : There are three types of oxides:

i. Acidic oxides: Acidic oxides are the oxides of non-metals. When these oxides are
combined with water, they form acid and when combined with base, form salts.

CO2 and SO3 are the acidic oxides

ii. Basic oxides: Basic oxides are the oxides of metals. They combined with water to
rm hydroxides and when combined with acid, they form salts.

CaO, MgO and Na2O are the basic oxides

Q. 3. Classify the following oxides into three types and name the types.

CaO, MgO, CO2, SO3, Na2O, ZnO, AI2O3, Fe2O3

Answer : There are three types of oxides:

i. Acidic oxides: Acidic oxides are the oxides of non-metals. When these oxides are
combined with water, they form acid and when combined with base, form salts.

CO2 and SO3 are the acidic oxides

ii. Basic oxides: Basic oxides are the oxides of metals. They combined with water to
form hydroxides and when combined with acid, they form salts.

CaO, MgO and Na2O are the basic oxides

iii. Amphoteric oxides: These are metallic oxides and exhibit the property of both acid
and base.

When react with an acid , they form salt and water, this shows the basic properties.
When react with a base, they form salt and water, this shows the acidic properties.

ZnO, Al2O3 and Fe2O3 are the amphoteric oxides

. Amphoteric oxides: These are metallic oxides and exhibit the property of both acid and
base.

When react with an acid , they form salt and water, this shows the basic properties.
When react with a base, they form salt and water, this shows the acidic properties.

ZnO, Al2O3 and Fe2O3 are the amphoteric oxides

Q. 4 A. Explain by drawing a figure of the electronic configuration.

Formation of sodium chloride from sodium and chlorine.

Answer : [Link] atomic number of sodium(Na) = 11

The electronic configuration of 11Na = 2,8,1

The atomic number of chlorine(Cl) = 17

The electronic configuration of 17Cl = 2,8,7

Na transfer its one electron to Cl, so that it can achieve noble

gas configuration (2,8) whereas Cl accepts one electron from Na so that it can achieve
noble gas configuration (2,8,8) as shown below:

Q. 4 B. Explain by drawing a figure of the electronic configuration.

Formation of a magnesium chloride from magnesium and chlorine.

Answer : The atomic number of magnesium(Mg) = 12

The electronic configuration of 12Mg = 2,8,2

The atomic number of chlorine(Cl) = 17

The electronic configuration of 17Cl = 2,8,7

Mg transfer its two electrons to each Cl, so that it can

achieve noble gas configuration (2,8) whereas each Cl accepts one electron from Mg so
that both can achieve noble gas

configuration as shown below:

Q. 5 Show the dissociation of the following compounds on dissolving in water,
with the help of chemical equation and write whether the proportion of
dissociation is small or large.

Hydrochloric acid, Sodium chloride, Potassium hydroxide, Ammonia, Acetic acid,

Magnesium chloride, Copper sulphate.

Answer : 1. Dissociation of hydrochloric acid in water

HCl → H+ + Cl-

The proportion of dissociation is large as 100% of the HCl dissociates into ions.

2. Dissociation of sodium chloride in water

NaCl → Na+ + Cl-

The proportion of dissociation is large as it completely dissolves in water.

3. Dissociation of potassium hydroxide in water

OH → K+ + OH-

The proportion of dissociation is large as it completely dissolves in water.

4. Dissociation of ammonia in water

NH3 + H2O → NH4+ + OH-

The proportion of dissociation is large as it completely dissolves in water sue to
formation of hydrogen bonding.

5. Dissociation of acetic acid in water

CH3COOH → CH3COO- + H+

The proportion of dissociation is small.

6. Dissociation of magnesium chloride in water

MgCl2→ Mg2+ + Cl-

The proportion of dissociation is large as magnesium chloride is highly soluble in water.

7. Dissociation of copper sulphate in water

CuSO4→ Cu2+ + SO42-

The proportion of dissociation is medium.

Q. 6 A. Write down the concentration of each of the following solutions in g/L and
mol/L.

7.3g HCl in 100ml solution

Answer : Given:

Weight in grams= 7.3g

Volume in liters = 100 mL = 0.1L (1mL= 1/1000L)

Molecular mass of HCl = 1+ 35.4 = 36.4 g/mol

Concentration in g/L = 73g/L

Concentration in mol/L = 2 mol/L

Thus, concentration in g/L is 73g/L and concentration in mol/L is 2mol/L.

Q. 6 B. Write down the concentration of each of the following solutions in g/L and
mol/L.

2g NaOH in 50ml solution

Answer : Given:

Weight in grams= 2g

Volume in liters = 50 mL = 0.05L (1mL= 1/1000L)

Molecular mass of NaOH = 23+16+1 = 40 g/mol

Concentration in g/L = 40g/L

Concentration in mol/L = 1 mol/L

Thus, concentration in g/L is 40g/L and concentration in mol/L is 1mol/L.

Q. 6 C. Write down the concentration of each of the following solutions in g/L and
mol/L.

3g CH3COOH in 100ml solution

Answer : Given:

Weight in g= 3g

Volume in L = 100 mL = 0.1L (1mL= 1/1000L)

Molecular mass of CH3COOH = 12+3×1+12+16+16+1

= 60 g/mol

Concentration in g/L = 30g/L

Concentration in mol/L = 0.5 mol/L

Thus, concentration in g/L is 30g/L and concentration in mol/L is 0.5mol/L.

Q. 6 D. Write down the concentration of each of the following solutions in g/L and
mol/L.

4.9g H2SO4 in 200ml solution

Answer : Given:

Weight in grams= 4.9g

Volume in liters = 200 mL = 0.2L (1mL= 1/1000L)

Molecular mass of H2SO4 = 2×1+32+4×16 = 98 g/mol

Concentration in g/L = 24.5g/L

Concentration in mol/L = 0.25 mol/L

Thus, concentration in g/L is 24.5g/L and concentration in mol/L is 0.25mol/L.

Q. 7. Obtain a sample of rainwater. Add to it a few drops of universal indicator.

Meausre its pH. Describe the nature of the sample of rainwater and explain the
effect if it has on the living world.

Answer : If the pH of rainwater is less than 7, it means its nature is acidic.

If the pH of rainwater is above 7, it means its nature is basic.

If the pH of rainwater is 7, it means its nature is neutral.

Natural rainwater has a pH around 5.6 and is slightly acidic. If value of pH is below pH,
then it is considered as “acid rain”. Acid rain particularly damages:

i. Lakes, rivers, streams

ii. Forests

iii. Plants and animals

iv. Human beings (especially damages the skin)

Q. 8 A. nswer the following questions.

Classify the acids according to their basicity and give one example of each type.

Answer : Basicity of acids: The number of H+ ions obtainable by the dissociation of

one molecule of an acid is called its basicity.
Q. 8 B. Answer the following questions.

What is meant by neutralization? Give two examples from everyday life of the
neutralization reaction.

Answer : In the neutralization reaction, an acid reacts with a base to form a salt and
water.

Everyday examples:

i. Toothpastes help in neutralizing the effect of acid because they are alkaline in nature
and neutralize the effect of acid present in our mouth.

ii. Use of baking soda in cooking.

iii. To reduce acidity in the stomach, we take milk of magnesia (Mg(OH)2).

Q. 8 C. Answer the following questions.

Explain what is meant by electrolysis of water. Write the electrode reactions and
explain them.
Answer : Electrolysis of water: It is defined as the process of decomposition of water
into hydrogen and oxygen gas by the passage of electricity through its aqueous solution
(water).

i. At the cathode (negative electrode), reduction takes place and evolves hydrogen gas:

Reduction reaction: 2H+ + 2e-→ H2

ii. At the anode (positive electrode), osidation takes place and evolves oxygen gas:

Oxidation reaction: 2H2O → O2 + 4H+ + 4e-

iii. Overall cell reaction: 2H2O → 2H2 + O2

Q. 9. Give reason for the following.

A. Hydronium ions are always in the form H3O+

B. Buttermilk spoils if kept in a copper or brass container.

Answer : A. Dissociation of water molecule

H2O ↔ H+ + OH-

As soon as the H+ ions are formed, they make bond with water molecules in the solution
to form hydronium ion(H3O+). This is because hydrogen cannot exist
independently(alone) in the aqueous solutions, and hence take the form of the
hydronium ion.

H2O + H+↔ H3O+

Water has ability to attract H+ because it is a polar molecule

B. Buttermilk spoils if kept in a copper or brass container because

i. Butter milk contains lactic acid.

ii. The lactic acid present in the buttermilk reacts completely with copper or brass
container.

iii. Due to the chemical reaction taking place, the buttermilk becomes unfit for
consumption and spoils the buttermilk.

Q. 10. Write the chemical equations for the following activities.

A. NaOH solution was added to HCl solution.

B. Zinc dust was added to dilute
C. Dilute nitric acid was added to calcium oxide.
D. Carbon dioxide gas was passed through KOH solution.
E. Dilute HCl was poured on baking soda.

Answer : A. When NaOH solution was added to HCl solution, it forms sodium chloride
and liberated hydrogen gas.

HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2

B. When zinc dust was added to dilute H2SO4, it forms zinc sulphate and liberated
hydrogen gas.

H2SO4 + Zn → ZnSO4 + H2

C. When dilute nitric acid was added to calcium oxide, it forms calcium nitrate and
water.

2HNO3 + CaO → Ca(NO3)2 + H2O

D. When carbon dioxide gas was passed through KOH solution; it was completely
absorbed by KOH.

CO2 + KOH → KHCO3

E. When dilute HCl was poured on baking soda (NaHCO3), it forms a salt NaCl, water
and releases bubbles of carbon dioxide.

NaHCO3 + HCl → NaCl + H2O+ CO2

The above reaction is an example of neutralization reaction.

Q. 11 A. State the differences.

Acids and bases

Answer : Difference between acids and bases:

Q. 11 B. State the differences.

Cation and anion

Answer : Difference between cation and anion:

Representation of cation and anions

Q. 11 C. State the differences.

Negative electrode and positive electrode.

Answer : Difference between Negative electrode and positive electrode:

Representation of anode and cathode

Q. 12. Classify aqueous solutions of the following substances according to their
pH into three groups : 7, more than 7, less than 7.

Common salt, sodium acetate, hydrochloric acid, carbon dioxide, potassium

bromide, calcium hydoxide, ammonium chloride, vinegar, sodium carbonate,
ammonia, sulphur dioxide.

Answer :

Q. 13. Collect information about electroplating. Make a list of articles in day-to-

day life, where this technique is used.

Answer : Electroplating: In this process, electric current is passed through

electrolyte.

i. Two electrodes are dipped in the solution.

ii. Connecting with a circuit and a battery.

iii. The electrodes and electrolyte are made from chosen elements.

iv. On passing electric current, splitting of electrolyte takes place and some of its parts
deposits to one of the electrode at the top

v. As a result, one of the electrode becomes electroplated.

Basically, the electroplating is the coating one metals with another metal.
Electroplating of silver onto spoon

List of articles in day to day life where electroplating is used:

i. Gold and silver coating is done in ornaments.

ii. Iron is coated with tin to make fresh containers.

iii. In machine parts, zinc coating is done.

iv. In cars, nickel coating is done.

v. In handle of cycles and wheels, chromium coating is done to give an extra shine.
 Measurement of Matter

Exercises

Q. 1. Give examples.

A. Positive radicals
B. Basic radicals
C. Composite radicals
D. Metals with variable valency
E. Bivalent acidic radicals
F. Trivalent basic radicals

Answer : A. Positive radicals

Positively charged ions are called cations.

Examples:- NH4 + ,K + ,Fe + 2,Al + 3

B. Basic radicals

The cationic radicals are called basic radicals. Basic radicals are formed by removal of
electrons from the atoms of metals.

Example: Na + , Cu2 + ,Ag + ,Mg + 2,Au + 3

C. Composite radicals

When a radical is a group of atoms carrying a charge, it is called composite radical.

Examples:-

NO3-, ClO3- , SO42-, NH4 + , MnO4-

D. Metals with variable valency

Under different conditions, the atoms of some elements give away or take up different
numbers of electrons. In such cases, those elements exhibit more than one valency.
This property of elements is called variable valency.

Examples:-

Iron (Fe) exhibits the variable valencies 2 and 3: Fe2 + and Fe3 +
Gold(Au) exhibits the variable valencies 1 and 3: Au + and Au3 +

Copper(Cu) exhibits the variable valencies 1 and 2: Cu + and Cu2 +

Mercury(Hg) exhibits the variable valencies 1 and 2: Hg + and Hg2 +

E. Bivalent acidic radicals

Bivalent refers to an element whose atom can replace 2 atoms of hydrogen or another
univalent element. It also refers to a radical that has the same valence as a bivalent
atom.

Examples: SO42-, CO32-, C2O42-

F. Trivalent basic radicals

A trivalent basic radical is a cation that has a valency of three. Examples of

trivalence basic radicals are Al3 + ,Cr3 + , Bi3 + and Fe + 2

Q. 2. Write symbols of the following elements and the radicals obtained from
them, and indicate the charge on the radicals.

Mercury, potassium, nitrogen, copper, sulphur, carbon, chlorine, oxygen

Answer :

Q. 3 A. Write the steps in deducing the chemical formulae of the following

compounds.

Sodium sulphate

Answer : Sodium Sulphate-

Formula: Na2SO4

Steps to obtain the chemical formula:

Step 1: To write the symbols of the radicals. (Basic radical on the left.)

Na SO4

Step 2: To write the valency below the respective radical. Na SO4

12

Step 3: To cross-multiply as shown by the arrows the number of the radicals.

Step 4: To write down the chemical formula of the compound.

Na2SO4

Q. 3 B. Write the steps in deducing the chemical formulae of the following

compounds.

potassium nitrate

Answer : Potassium Nitrate-

Formula: KNO3

Step 1: To write the symbols of the radicals. (Basic radical on the left.)

K NO3

Step 2: To write the valency below the respective radical. K NO3

11

Step 3: To cross-multiply as shown by the arrows the number of the radicals.

Step 4: To write down the chemical formula of the compound.

KNO3

Q. 3 C. Write the steps in deducing the chemical formulae of the following

compounds.

Ferric phosphate

Answer : Ferric Phosphate-

Formula:- FePO4

Step 1: To write the symbols of the radicals.(Basic radical on the left.)

Fe PO4

Step 2: To write the valency below the respective radical. Fe PO4

33

Step 3: To cross-multiply as shown by the arrows the number of the radicals.

Fe PO4

33

Step4: To write down the chemical formula of the compound.

FePO4

Q. 3 D. Write the steps in deducing the chemical formulae of the following

compounds.

calcium oxide

Answer : Calcium Oxide-

Formula:- CaO

Step 1 :

To write the symbols of the radicals. (Basic radical on the left.)

Ca O

Step 2: To write the valency below the respective radical.

Ca O

+ 2 -2

Step 3: To cross-multiply as shown by the arrows the number of the radicals.

Ca O

+ 2 -2

Step4: To write down the chemical formula of the compound in the simplest form.

CaO

formula of the compound. Al(OH)3

Q. 3 E. Write the steps in deducing the chemical formulae of the following

compounds.

Aluminium hydroxide

Answer : Aluminum Hydroxide-

Formula: -Al(OH)3

Step 1:

To write the symbols of the radicals. (Basic radical on the left.)

Al OH

Step 2: To write the valency below the respective radical.

Al OH

31

Step 3: To cross-multiply as shown by the arrows the number of the radicals.

Step 4 To write down the chemical formula of the compound. Al(OH)3

Q. 4 A. Write answers to the following questions and explain your answers.

Explain how the element sodium is monovalent.

Answer :

A. The atomic number of Sodium is 11. Sodium has 1 electron in its outermost shell and
to acquire noble gas configuration it will lose one electron or it needs to gain 7
electrons. However, the former is possible. Hence it will loose 1 electron and so the
element sodium is monovalent.

Q. 4 B. Write answers to the following questions and explain your answers.

M is a bivalent metal. Write down the steps to find the chemical formulae of its
compounds formed with the radicals, sulphate and phosphate

Answer : M is bivalent which means it has a valency of 2.

(i) For sulphate

Step 1: To write the symbols of the radicals. (Basic radical on the left.)

M SO4

Step 2: To write the valency below the respective radical.

M SO4

+ 2 -2

Step 3: To cross-multiply as shown by the arrows the number of the radicals.

Step4: To write down the chemical formula of the compound in the simplest form.

MSO4

(ii) for phosphate

Step 1: To write the symbols of the radicals. (Basic radical on the left.)

M PO4
Step 2: To write the valency below the respective radical.

M PO4

+ 2 -3

Step 3: To cross-multiply as shown by the arrows the number of the radicals.

Step4: To write down the chemical formula of the compound in the simplest form.

M3(PO4)2

Q. 4 C. Write answers to the following questions and explain your answers.

Explain the need for a reference atom for atomic mass. Give some information
about two reference atoms.

Answer : It was not possible for scientists of the 19th century to measure atomic mass
accurately. Therefore, the concept of ‘relative mass of an atom’ was put forth. A
reference atom was required for expressing the relative mass of an atom. The hydrogen
atom is the lightest was initially chosen as the reference atom. The relative mass of a
hydrogen atom which has only one proton in its nucleus was accepted as one (1).

Therefore, the magnitude of the relative atomic masses of various atoms became equal
to their atomic mass number (p + n).

In the course of time, different atoms were chosen as reference

atoms. Finally in 1961, the carbon atom was selected as the reference atom. In this
scale, the relative mass a carbon atom was accepted as 12. The relative atomic mass
of one hydrogen

atom compared to the carbon atom becomes 12 x 1/12, that is 1. The mass of one
proton and of one neutron on the scale of relative atomic masses is approximately one.

Q. 4 D. Write answers to the following questions and explain your answers.

What is meant by Unified Atomic Mass.'

Answer : The unified atomic mass unit or Dalton is a standard unit of mass that
quantifies mass on an atomic or molecular scale. One unified atomic mass unit is
approximately the mass of one nucleon and is numerically equivalent to 1 g/mol.
Q. 4 E. Write answers to the following questions and explain your answers.

Explain with examples what is meant by a 'mole' of a substance.

Answer : 1 mole of a compound is the mass of that substance in grams equal in

magnitude to its molecular mass. The SI unit is mol.

Number of moles of a substance (n) =

(Mass of substance in grams)/(Molecular mass of substance)

the molecular mass of oxygen is 32u, and therefore 32g oxygen is 1mole of oxygen.
The molecular mass of water is 18u. Therefore, 18g of water make 1 mole of water.

Q. 5. Write the names of the following compounds and deduce their molecular
masses.

Na2SO4, K2CO3, CO2, NaOH, MgCl2, AlPO4, NaHCO3

Answer : i. Na2SO4 : Sodium Sulphate

Steps for finding the molecular mass:

Molecular mass of Na2SO4 = 2(Atomic mass of Na) + 1(Atomic mass of S) + 4(Atomic

mass of O)

⇒ Molecular Mass = 2(23) + 1(32) + 4(16)

= 46 + 32 + 64

= 142 g/mol

ii.K2CO3: Potassium Carbonate

Steps for finding the molecular mass:

Molecular mass of K2CO3 = 2× (Atomic mass of K) + 1× (Atomic mass of C) + 3×

(Atomic mass of O)

Molecular Mass = 2× (39) + 1× (12) + 3× (16)

= 78 + 12 + 48

= 138 g/mol

ii.CO2:- Carbondioxide
Molecular mass of CO2 = 1× (Atomic mass of C) + 2× (Atomic mass of O)

Molecular Mass = 1× (12) + 2× (16)

= 12 + 32

= 44 g/mol

iv. NaOH:Sodium Hydroxide

Molecular mass of NaOH = 1× (Atomic mass of Na) + 1× (Atomic mass of O) + 1×

(Atomic mass of H)

Molecular Mass = 1× (23) + 1× (16) + 1× (1)

= 23 + 16 + 1

= 40 g/mol

v.MgCl2:Magnesium Chloride

Molecular mass of MgCl2 = 1× (Atomic mass of Mg) + 2× (Atomic mass of Cl)

Molecular Mass = 1× (24) + 2× (35.5)

= 24 + 70

= 94 g/mol

vi.AlPO4:-Aluminium Phosphate

Molecular mass of AlPO4 = 1× (Atomic mass of Al) + 1× (Atomic mass of P) + 4×

(Atomic mass of O)

Molecular Mass = 1× (27) + 1× (31) + 4× (16)

= 27 + 31 + 64

= 122 g/mol

vii.NaHCO3: Sodium Bicarbonate

Molecular mass of NaHCO3 = 1× (Atomic mass of Na) + 1× (Atomic mass of H) + 1×

(Atomic mass of C) + 3× (Atomic mass of O)

Molecular Mass = 1× (23) + 1× (1) + 1× (12) + 3× (16)

= 23 + 1 + 12 + 48

= 84 g/mol

Q. 6. Two samples ‘m’ and ‘n’ of slaked lime were obtained from two different
reactions. The details about their composition are as follows:

‘sample m’ mass: 7g
Mass of constituent oxygen: 2g
Mass of constituent calcium: 5g
‘sample n’ mass: 1.4g
Mass of constituent oxygen: 0.4g
Mass of constituent calcium: 1.0g
Which law of chemical combination does this prove? Explain.

Answer : Slaked lime = calcium hydroxide {Ca(OH)2}

The law of constant proportions states that “The proportion by weight of the constituent
elements in the various samples of a compound is fixed,”

The proportion by weight of oxygen and calcium in slaked lime(in sample m) is 2:5 i.e.
0.4:1

The proportion by weight of oxygen and calcium in slaked lime(in sample n) is 0.4:1.0

Since the proportions of constituent elements remain fixed it follows the law of constant
proportion.

Q. 7. Deduce the number of molecules of the following compounds in the given

quantities.

32g oxygen, 90g water, 8.8g carbon dioxide, 7.1g chlorine.

Answer : (a) 32g of oxygen

Moles = Mass of subtance in grams/Molecular mass

Molecular mass of oxygen = 16

Mass of a substance = 32g

Moles(n) = 32/16 = 2

n = 2 mol

2 mol of oxygen contains 6.022 x 1023 molecules.

2 mol oxygen contains 2x6.022x1023 molecules = 12.046 x 1023 molecules.

(b) 90g water

Moles = Mass of subtance in grams/Molecular mass

Molecular mass of water = 18

Mass of a substance = 90g

Moles(n) = 90/18 = 5

n = 5 mol

5 mol of oxygen contains 6.022 x 1023 molecules.

5 mol oxygen contains 5x6.022x1023 molecules = 30.115× 1023 molecules.

(c) 8.8g carbon dioxide

Moles = Mass of subtance in grams/Molecular mass

Molecular mass of CO2 = 44

Mass of a substance = 8.8g

Moles(n) = 8.8/44 = 0.2

n = 0.2 mol

0.2 mol of oxygen contains 6.022 x 1023 molecules.

0.2 mol oxygen contains 0.2x6.022x1023 molecules = 1.2046 x 1023 molecules.

(d) 7.1g chlorine.

Moles = Mass of subtance in grams/Molecular mass

Molecular mass of chlorine = 35.5

Mass of a substance = 7.1g

Moles(n) = 7.1/35.5 = 0.2

n = 0.2 mol
0.2 mol of oxygen contains 6.022 x 1023 molecules.

0.2 mol oxygen contains 0.2x6.022x1023 molecules = 1.2046 x 1023 molecules.

Q. 8. If 0.2 mol of the following substances are required how many grams of those
substances should be taken?

Sodium chloride, magnesium oxide,calcium carbonate

Answer : (a) Sodium Chloride

Moles = Mass of subtance in grams /Molecular Mass(in g/mol)

Molecular mass of NaCl = 1× (Atomic mass of Na) + 1× (Atomics mass of Cl)

= 1× (23) + 1× (35.5)

= 55.5

Mole = 0.2 mol(given)

0.2 = given mass/55.5

Given mass = 0.2× 55.5

= 11.1g

(b) Magnesium Oxide

Moles = Mass of subtance in grams /Molecular Mass(in g/mol)

Molecular mass of MgO = 1× (Atomic mass of Mg) + 1× (Atomics mass of O)

= 1× (24) + 1× (16)

= 40

Mole = 0.2 mol(given)

0.2 = given mass/40

Given mass = 0.2× 40

= 8g

(c) Calcium Carbonate

Moles = Mass of subtance in grams /Molecular Mass(in g/mol)

Molecular mass of CaCO3 = 1× (Atomic mass of Ca) + 1× (Atomics mass of C) + 3×

(atomic mass of O)

= 1× (40) + 1× (12) + 3× (16)

= 100

Mole = 0.2 mol(given)

0.2 = given mass/100

Given mass = 0.2× 100

= 20g
 Current Electricity

Exercises

Q. 1. The accompanying figure shows some electrical appliances connected in a

circuit in a house. Answer the following questions.

A. By which method are the appliances connected?

B. What must be the potential difference across individual appliances?
C. Will the current passing through each appliance be the same? Justify your
answer.
D. Why are the domestic appliances connected in this way?
E. If the T.V. stops working, will the other appliances also stop working? Explain
your answer.

Answer : A) The appliances are connected parallel to each other.

B) As the appliances are connected in parallel, the potential difference across individual
appliances should be same. In India voltage ratings of all home appliances are constant
i.e. 230V.

C) The current passing through each appliance won't be the same as the resistance of
each appliance is different. (Current depends on both potential difference and
resistance, I = V/R)

D) The domestic appliances are connected in this way as in a parallel circuit even if one
of the appliance stops working, the rest would still be working but in case of series
connection all the appliances stop working if one of them stops working.
E) If the TV stops working, the other appliances do not stop working as they are
connected in parallel. In parallel connection, the potential difference between the loads
is the same and the total current in the circuit is the sum of current flowing through each
path in the circuit.

Q. 2. The following figure shows the symbols for components used in the
accompanying electrical circuit. Place them at proper places and complete the
circuit.

Which law can you prove with the help of the above circuit?

Answer : The circuit with attached symbols is given below:

Ohm’s law can be proved with the help of the above circuit.

Q. 3. Umesh has two bulbs having resistances of and He wants to

connect them in a circuit, but if he connects them one at a time the filament gets
burnt. Answer the following.

A. Which method should he use to connect the bulbs?

B. What are the characteristics of this way of connecting the bulbs depending on
the answer of A above?
C. What will be the effective resistance in the above circuit?

Answer : Here we are assuming current to be constant and voltage to be varying.

A. The burning of filament is due to excessive heating when current passes through it.
More the resistance of the wire, more is the heating. Therefore, the resistance of the
circuit should be decreased which can be done if both the bulbs are connected in
parallel.

We know that equivalent resistance in case of parallel combination of two resistances

R1 and R2 is

In the above case, Ω which is less than the individual resistances

of both the wires.

Therefore, both the bulbs should be connected in parallel.

B. Characteristics of a parallel circuit:

1) A parallel circuit has two or more paths for current to flow through and the total
current is equal to sum of currents flowing through these paths.

Q. 3. Umesh has two bulbs having resistances of and He wants to

connect them in a circuit, but if he connects them one at a time the filament gets
burnt. Answer the following.

A. Which method should he use to connect the bulbs?

B. What are the characteristics of this way of connecting the bulbs depending on
the answer of A above?
C. What will be the effective resistance in the above circuit?

Answer : Here we are assuming current to be constant and voltage to be varying.

A. The burning of filament is due to excessive heating when current passes through it.
More the resistance of the wire, more is the heating. Therefore, the resistance of the
circuit should be decreased which can be done if both the bulbs are connected in
parallel.

We know that equivalent resistance in case of parallel combination of two resistances

R1 and R2 is
In the above case, Ω which is less than the individual resistances
of both the wires.

Therefore, both the bulbs should be connected in parallel.

B. Characteristics of a parallel circuit:

1) A parallel circuit has two or more paths for current to flow through and the total
current is equal to sum of currents flowing through these paths.

2) Voltage is same across each component of parallel circuit.

3) The current in all the branches is same. As shown in the figure:

C. The effective resistance in the above circuit is given as:

Where R1 and R2 are the resistances connected in parallel.

or

Voltage is same across each component of parallel circuit.

3) The current in all the branches is same. As shown in the figure:

C. The effective resistance in the above circuit is given as:

Where R1 and R2 are the resistances connected in parallel.

or

Q. 4. The following table shows current in Amperes and potential difference in

Volts.

A. Find the average resistance.

B. What will be the nature of the graph between the current and potential
difference? (Do not draw a graph.)
C. Which law will the graph prove?

Answer : A. According to the equation V = IR

R = V/I
Resistance in the 1st case R1 = V1/I1

= 4/9

= 0.444 Ω

Resistance in the 2nd case R2 = V2/I2

= 5/11.25

= 0.444 Ω

Resistance in the 3rd case R3 = V3/I3

= 6/13.5

= 0.444 Ω

= (0.444 + 0.444 + 0444)/3

=0.444 Ω

B. In this case as R is constant, we can observe the increase in I as V increases.

We know that V = IR .

It represents a straight line starting from origin with a slope R. Therefore, the nature of
graph between current and potential difference will be a straight line.

The graph is given below:

C. The graph proves Ohm's law.

According to Ohm's law the current passing through a conductor between two points is
directly proportional to the voltage across the two points.

I∝V

I = V/R

Q. 5. Match the pairs

Answer :

Q. 6. The resistance of a conductor of length x is r. If its area of cross section is a,

what is its resistivity? What is its unit?
Answer : We know that Resistivity ρ = RA/L

where R = Resistance of the conductor

A = Cross sectional area of the conductor

L = Length of the conductor

Here A = a and L = x

Therefore, Resistivity ρ = Ra/x

It's units are ohm.m2/m = Ωm

Q. 7.

Answer : A. When both S1 and S2 are closed, R4 is short circuited.

R3 and (R1||R2) are in series

B. When both S1 and S2 are open, R3 , R1 and R4 are in series.

The effective resistance of the circuit,

Reffective = R3 + R1 + R4

Let the applied voltage be V.

Current in the circuit I = V/Reffective

C. When S1 is closedbut S2 is open, R3, (R1||R2) and R4 are in series.

As S1 is closed, R1 and R2 are parallel to each other.

The effective resistance of the circuit is

Q. 8. Three resistances x1, x2 and x3 are connected in a circuit in different ways. X
is the effective resistance. The properties observed for these different ways of
connecting x1, x2 and x3 are given below. Write the way in which they are
connected in each case. (I-current, V-potential difference, x-effective resistance)

Answer : A. The same current flows through all the three conductors x1, x2 and x3. So,
all the three must be connected in series.

Because in series connection, the current in all the wires is same.

B. Effective resistance X is larger than x1, x2 and x3 individually.

The only way in which this can be possible is if all the three conductors are connected in
series.

In series combination of resistances,

Reffective = R1 + R2 + R3

Therefore, the effective resistance is greater than the resistances taken individually.

C. Effective resistance X is smaller than x1 , x2 and x3 taken individually. This can

happen only when the three resistances are connected in parallel.

In parallel combination of resistances,

Therefore, the effective resistance reduces when resistances are connected parallel to
each other.

D. The potential across the conductors is same when they are connected in parallel.

E.

is the formula for calculating effective resistance of a circuit when conductors are
connected in series

F.

is the formula for calculating effective resistance of a circuit when conductors are
connected in parallel.

Q. 9 A. Solve the following problems.

The resistance of a 1m long nichrome wire is 6 W. If we reduce the length of the

wire to 70 cm. what will its resistance be?

Answer : Given:

Resistance of a 1m(100cm) long(L1) nichrome wire = 6 Ω (R1)

We know that resistance is directly proportional to length of the conductor.

Therefore R1/R2 = L1/L2

6/R2 = 100/70

R2 = 4.2 Ω

Q. 9 B. Solve the following problems.

When two resistors are connected in series, their effective resistance is 80 Ω.
When they are connected in parallel, their effective resistance is 20 Ω. What are
the values of the two resistances?

Answer : Given:

Effective resistance when two resistors are connected in series =80 Ω

Let us consider the resistances as R1 and R2 in series combination,

V = V1 + V2 and V=IR

As we know that in series connection current is constant, we getR= R1 + R2 = 80 Ω --

-(1)

Effective resistance when two resistors are connected in parallel combination = 20Ω

We get

........(2)

putting the value of equation(1) in equation(2)

R1R2 = 1600

(R1-R2)2 = (R1 + R2)2 - 4R1R2

= 802 - (4×1600)

=0

R1-R2 = 0 ---(3)

adding (1) and (3)

R1=40

Subtracting (1) and(3)R2=40Ω

we get R1 = R2 = 40Ω
Q. 9 C. Solve the following problems.

If a charge of 420 C flows through a conducting wire in 5 minutes what is the

value of the current?

Answer : Given:

Charge (q) = 420C

Time for which the charge flows (t) = 5 min = 300 s

We know that current I = q/t

= 420/300

= 1.4 A

Therefore current flowing through the conductor is 1.4 A.

 Work and Energy

Exercises

Q. 1 A. Write detailed answers?

Explain the difference between potential energy and kinetic energy.

Answer : Kinetic energy and Potential energy are the two forms of energy which any
object or body have, they are different from each other in following ways
Q. 1 B. Write detailed answers?

Derive the formula for the kinetic energy of an object of mass m, moving with
velocity v.

Answer : Let us say an object of mass m is moving with speed v, so energy which the
object has because of its motion or speed is its kinetic energy.

Now, let us assume object was initially at rest, some work was done on it to increase its
speed to v and it gained kinetic energy.

Now from law of conservation of energy, we know kinetic energy will be equal to work
done on the object.

Suppose F force was applied on an body of mass m , initially at rest to increase its
speed to v in time t, in this time object also covered distance S.
We know work done W on a body of mass m, which moved a distance S due a force F
applied on it is given as

W=F×s

Also, Force applied on the object of mass m moving with acceleration a is given as

F = ma

So, work done will be

W = ma× s

We have Newton’s second equation of motion which related displacement S covered by

object in time t, having initial velocity u, with its acceleration a, equation is

Initially object is at rest so, initial velocity is

u = 0 m/s

so, equation becomes

So, putting value of displacement s, we get Work done as

This can be further simplified as

Using newton first equation of motion which relates final velocity v gained by object in
time t, moving initially with initial velocity u, with acceleration of the object as

v = u + at

Initially object is at rest so, initial velocity is

u = 0 m/s

So, equation becomes

v = 0 + at = at

now, replacing the value of v in above equation to find the work done we get

Now this work done is equal to kinetic energy of the object of mass m moving with
velocity v, i.e. Kinetic energy of the object is

Q. 1 C. Write detailed answers?

Prove that the kinetic energy of a freely falling object on reaching the ground is
nothing but the transformation of its initial potential energy.

Answer : Let us assume an object of mass m, is kept at rest initially at a height h above
the ground, and object is suddenly released , so it will gain speed , and let the Velocity
of object just before hitting the ground be v

The situation has been shown in figure

Initially object of mass m was at a height h above the ground so potential energy of the
object is

P.E. = mgh

g is acceleration due to gravity

now when object approaches ground, just before hitting the ground let the velocity of
object be v, so its kinetic energy will be

Now , applying newton’s third equation of motion for motion of object

v2 – u2 = 2aS

Here v is final velocity of object,

u is the initial velocity of the object,

S is the displacement covered by object and

a is its acceleration during motion

Now initially object was at rest, so its initial velocity

u = 0 m/s

the object is coming downwards due to gravitational force applied by earth, so it’s
acceleration is g, i.e. acceleration due to gravity i.e.

a=g

due to acceleration final velocity of object changed to v, in moving from height h to

ground, so its displacement is

S=h

And putting the values in the equation we get

V2 – 02 = 2gh

Or we get value of square of final velocity as

v2 = 2gh
Now, putting the value of v2 in equation of final kinetic energy of the object we get

Solving we get final kinetic energy of the object as

K.E. = mgh

Initial potential energy of the object is

P.E. = mgh

Now we can see final kinetic energy of the object is same as the initial potential energy
of the object

And since initially object was at rest, so its initial kinetic energy was zero, and finally
object was just near the ground i.e. its height from surface of earth is zero, so its final
potential energy is also zero

This conveys that all the kinetic energy of a freely falling object on reaching the ground
is nothing but the transformation of its initial potential energy

Q. 1 D. Write detailed answers?

Determine the amount of work done when an object is displaced at an angle of

300 with respect to the direction of the applied force.

Answer : Suppose an object is displaced from its original position due to application of
a force which is not in the direction of force, force is making an angle of 30 0 with the
direction of displacement

Situation has been shown in figure

Now we know work done on an object due to a force is given by relation

W = FSCos𝜽

Where W is the work done due to force F in displacing object by S , 𝜽 is the angle
between force and displacement.

Here let the force applied be F, and displacement be S, angle between force and
displacemnt is

𝜽 = 300

So, work done will be

W = FSCos300

From trigonometry we know value of Cos300 as

So, putting the value we get work done as

So, amount of work done when an object is displaced at an angle of 300 with respect to

the direction of the applied force is

Where F is magnitude of applied force and S is the displacement of the object.

Q. 1 E. Write detailed answers?

If an object has 0 momentum, does it have kinetic energy? Explain your answer.

Answer : If an object has 0 momentum then its kinetic energy is also 0, i.e. it does not
have kinetic energy

We know momentum of an object is given as

P = mv

Where P is the momentum of object of mass m moving with speed v

Now, P = 0
i.e. mv = 0

So, either mass of object is 0, or its velocity is 0, i.e. it is at rest.

Now object will have some mass let it be m, so its velocity is 0

v=0

now kinetic energy of any object is given as

Where m is the mass of the object moving with velocity v

Putting v = 0 in the above equation we get kinetic energy as

So, we get kinetic energy of the object as 0 J , so it does not have kinetic energy if
momentum of the object is 0

Q. 1 F. Write detailed answers?

Why is the work done on an object moving with uniform circular motion zero?

Answer : In uniform circular motion work done on an object is zero, because force
acting on the object is always perpendicular to its velocity and displacement.

In uniform circular motion,

i. The speed of the object is same throughout but the velocity is changing because the
direction of motion of object is continuously changing.

ii. The object is accelerating, and acceleration is towards the center of circular path in
which object is moving do force is also acting towards the center of the circular path i.e.
perpendicular to the direction of motion.

The Path of circular motion of the object, direction of its velocity, displacement,
acceleration and Force at any instant has been shown in the figure :
As we can see direction of Velocity and displacement at any instant is along the tangent
of circle and is perpendicular to direction of acceleration and force i.e. angle between
force and displacement at any instant is 900.

Now we know work done on an object due to a force is given by relation:

W = F× s × cos𝜽

Where W is the work done due to force F in displacing object by S , 𝜽 is the angle
between force and displacement.

Here let the force applied be F, and very dmall displacement at any instant be S, angle
between force and displacemnt is

𝜽 = 900

So, work done will be

W = FSCos900

From trigonometry we know value of Cos900 as

Cos 900 = 0

So, putting the value we get work done as

W = FS × 0 = 0

Work done on an object moving with uniform circular motion is zero

Q. 2 A. Choose one or more correct alternatives.

For work to be performed, energy must be ….

i transferred from one place to another
ii concentrated
iii transformed from one type to another
iv destroyed

Answer : Option (iii) transformed from one type to another

Explanation: For work to be performed, energy must be transformed from one type to
another though total energy remain same during this transformation.

Example, if we have to fill an tank overhead at some height with water, we will use
electrical energy which will run motor and transfer it into mechanical energy of motor,
which will push water towards tank i.e. work is done in displacing water from one place
to another and this work is further converted to potential energy of water at some height
above the ground , so energy transforms from one type to another in order to perform
work.

Q. 2 B. Choose one or more correct alternatives.

Joule is the unit of …

i. force
ii. work
iii. power
iv. energy

Answer : Option(ii) Work , (iv) Energy

Explanation:

We know work done W on a body, which moved a distance S due a force F applied on it
is given as

W = FS

SI unit of work done is Joules (J) so 1 J work is said to be done when 1N force is
applied on a body and moves it by 1m

i.e. 1 J = 1N × 1m
now work and energy can be interconverted and as we know work done on a body
against some external force to change position of body is Potential energy , and work
done to increase the speed of the body is called kinetic energy. So energy of a body is
equivalent to some type of work done, i.e. work and energy have same unit Joule

Unit of force is Newton (N) and unit of power is watt (W)

Q. 2 C. Choose one or more correct alternatives.

Which of the forces involved in dragging a heavy object on a smooth, horizontal

surface, have the same magnitude?

i. the horizontal applied force

ii. gravitational force
iii. reaction force in vertical direction
iv. force of friction

Answer : Option(ii) gravitational force, Option(iii) reaction force in vertical direction

Explanation:

When an object is dragged on any surface it experiences four forces, the Horizontal
applied force, frictional force in direction opposite to the applied force, Gravitational
force in vertically downward direction due to earth’s gravity and Reaction force due to
surface in vertically upward direction.

All the forces have been shown in figure

Gravitational force and reaction due to Surface are cancelling each other as there is no
displacement in vertical direction, i.e. forces are balanced in vertical direction, so their
magnitude should be same and direction should be opposite as is the case. Frictional
force should be less than applied force for the box to move or start motion.

Q. 2 D. Choose one or more correct alternatives.

Power is a measure of the ...….

i. the rapidity with which work is done

ii. amount of energy required to perform the work
iii. The slowness with which work is performed
iv. length of time

Answer : Option (i) the rapidity with which work is done, Option(iii) The slowness with
which work is performed

Explanation:-

Power is define as the rate of doing work or it is the work done per unit time,
mathematically power is given as

P = W/t

Here, P is the power when W amount of work is done in time t. so it tells how fast or
slow work is being done.

Q. 2 E. Choose one or more correct alternatives.

While dragging or lifting an object, negative work is done by

i. the applied force

ii. gravitational force
iii. frictional force
iv. reaction force

Answer : Option (ii) gravitational force and (iii) Frictional Force

Explanation:

Work done by a force on an object is negative when direction of force acting on object
and displacement of object are in exactly opposite direction, or direction of displacement
makes 1800 with direction of applied force because we know work done on an object
due to a force is given by relation

W = F× s × cos𝜽

Where W is the work done due to force F in displacing object by S , 𝜽 is the angle
between force and displacement.

angle between force and displacemnt is

𝜽 = 1800
So, work done will be

W = F× s × cos1800

From trigonometry we know, cos1800 = -1

So putting the value we get work done as

W = -FS

i.e. work done is negative when direction of displacement and applied force are
opposite

Now when an object is lifted from ground, gravitational force due to earth in acting in
downward direction and displacement is in upward direction due to applied force

as Shown in figure

Since Gravitational force and direction of displacement are in opposite direction work
done by gravitational force is negative

Now when an object is dragged Frictional force is trying to oppose the motion and
hence acts in direction of applied force and displacement
As shown in figure

As displacement of object and applied frictional force are in opposite direction work
done by frictional force is negative.

Q. 3 A. Rewrite the following sentences using proper alternative.

The potential energy of your body is least when you are …..

i. sitting on a chair
ii. sitting on the ground
iii. sleeping on the ground
iv. standing on the ground

Answer : Option(iii) sleeping on the ground

Explanation: Potential energy of any object depends upon its height from the surface of
earth, We know the Relation for Potential energy of an object of mass m due to earth’s
gravity(g is acceleration due to gravity) held at an height h above ground is

P.E. = mgh

So more is the height of body from ground more is the potential energy and less is the
height of body from ground less is the potential energy

Now in case of human body height of body from ground is measured from center of
mass of the body which is the point where all mass of the body is assumed to be
concentrated , the position of which is near the stomach in human body , so potential
energy of body will be least in case of a person sleeping because in that situation height
of centre of mass of the body will be minimum from ground.

Q. 3 B. Rewrite the following sentences using proper alternative.

The total energy of an object falling freely towards the ground …

i. decreases
ii. remains unchanged
iii. increases
iv. increases in the beginning and then decreases

Answer : Option (ii) remains unchanged

Explanation: Total energy of a body is sum of kinetic energy and potential energy,
kinetic energy depends upon velocity of body, potential energy depends upon position
of body(height from surface of earth in gravitational potential energy), they keep varying
but their sum i.e. total energy always remains constant, potential energy and kinetic
energy keeps on interconverting into each other but the total energy is conserved or
unchanged as in accordance with law of conservation of energy, so in case of a freely
falling body, speed of body keeps on increasing i.e. kinetic energy is increasing but
height of body from ground is decreasing i.e. its potential energy keeps on decreasing ,
increase in kinetic energy is equal to decrease in potential energy , i.e. the net sum ,
Total energy of the object remains Same.

Q. 3 C. Rewrite the following sentences using proper alternative.

If we increase the velocity of a car moving on a flat surface to four times its
original speed, its potential energy….

i. will be twice its original energy

ii. will not change
iii. will be 4 times its original energy
iv. will be 16 times its original energy.

Answer : Option(ii) will not change

Explanation: Potential energy of an object does not depend upon its speed but rather
its depends on height of object of earth’s surface,its mass and , acceleration due to
gravity g , which are constant i.e. does not change during motion of a car on a smooth
road as We know the Relation for Potential energy of an object of mass m due to earth’s
gravity(g is acceleration due to gravity) held at an height h above ground is

P.E. = mgh

i.e. more is the height of body from ground more is the potential energy and less is the
height of body from ground less is the potential energy

now here height of car from ground is constant so potential energy is also same or will
not change.
Q. 3 D. Rewrite the following sentences using proper alternative.

The work done on an object does not depend on ….

i. displacement
ii. applied force
iii. initial velocity of the object
iv. the angle between force and displacement.

Answer : Option(iii) initial velocity of the object

Explanation:

we know work done on an object due to a force is given by relation

W = FSCos𝜽

Where W is the work done due to force F in displacing object by S in the direction of
force, 𝜽 is the angle between force and displacement

Now we can see here work done is independent of initial velocity of the object , so if a
body is moving with any velocity or even if is at rest if , same amount of displacement is
caused with same amount of applied force, same amount of work will be done.

Q. 4 A. Study the following activity and answer the questions.

1. Take two aluminium channels of different lengths.

2. Place the lower ends of the channels on the floor and hold their upper ends at
the same height.
3. Now take two balls of the same size and weight and release them from the top
end of the channels. They will roll down and cover the same distance.
Questions

At the moment of releasing the balls, which energy do the balls have?

Answer : now suppose two aluminium channels of different height are placed and
inclined on a floor such that top of both is that same height, as shown in the figure

Now initially both balls are at rest so they do not have any kinetic energy, and both are
at some height above the floor, i.e. earth’s surface, so they will have gravitational
potential energy as we know the Relation for Potential energy of an object of mass m
due to earth’s gravity (g is acceleration due to gravity) held at an height h above ground
is

P.E. = mgh

Q. 4 C. Study the following activity and answer the questions.

1. Take two aluminium channels of different lengths.

2. Place the lower ends of the channels on the floor and hold their upper ends at
the same height.
3. Now take two balls of the same size and weight and release them from the top
end of the channels. They will roll down and cover the same distance.
Why do the balls cover the same distance on rolling down?

Answer : Now since balls have same initial potential energy as both are at same height
above the ground, and all the potential energy is converted into kinetic energy in both
the balls, so kinetic energy of both the balls on just reaching the floor will be same , now
kinetic energy depends upon velocity of the ball , since kinetic energy of both the balls is
same , so both will have same velocity on the floor, with which they are moving forward.
Now both ball will stop after covering some distance due to friction, but since their initial
velocity on floor is same they will cover equal distances before stopping.

Q. 4 D. Study the following activity and answer the questions.

1. Take two aluminium channels of different lengths.

2. Place the lower ends of the channels on the floor and hold their upper ends at
the same height.
3. Now take two balls of the same size and weight and release them from the top
end of the channels. They will roll down and cover the same distance.
What is the form of the eventual total energy of the balls?

Answer : Total energy of the ball is sum of kinetic energy and potential energy, kinetic
energy depends upon velocity of body, potential energy depends upon position of ball
(height from surface of earth in gravitational potential energy), they keep varying but
their sum i.e. total energy always remains constant.

Now eventually initially ball was at rest at a height h above the surface of earth so form
of energy was potential energy now as we know the Relation for Potential energy of an
object of mass m due to earth’s gravity (g is acceleration due to gravity) held at an
height h above ground is

P.E. = mgh

Q. 4 E. Study the following activity and answer the questions.

1. Take two aluminium channels of different lengths.

2. Place the lower ends of the channels on the floor and hold their upper ends at
the same height.
3. Now take two balls of the same size and weight and release them from the top
end of the channels. They will roll down and cover the same distance.
Which law related to energy does the above activity demonstrate? Explain.

Answer : i. The above experiment law explains law of conservation of energy which
states ‘Energy can neither be created nor destroyed. It can be converted from one form
into another.

ii. Thus, the total amount of energy in the universe remains constant’.

iii. As we can see here potential energy of both the ball have transferred into kinetic
energy and also , kinetic energy of both the balls upon reaching ground was same since
their speed was same as they travelled equal distances, this indicates in both cases the
initial potential Energy (Same for both as both were at same height) have been
converted to kinetic energy and amount of total energy is same for both the balls , and
energy has been interconverted from potential to kinetic in both the cases by same
amount i.e. it can be generalized that total energy remained constant throughout.

Q. 5 A. Solve the following examples.

An electric pump has 2 kW power. How much water will the pump lift every
minute to a height of 10 m?
Answer : Note: Here, electric pump will consume electrical energy , convert it to
mechanical energy which will do work on water in raising its height and increasing
potential energy of water, i.e. finally all energy is converted to potential energy of water.

Power of the pump is 2 kW i.e. 2000 W of Electrical energy is being consumed every
second by motor, we have to find water lifted each minute i.e. energy consumed by
motor in 1 minute will be equal to potential energy gained by water in raising to a height
of 10 m

We know energy consumed is given as

E=P×t

Where E is the energy consumed by Pump in J, P is the power of Pump in Watt (W), t is
the time for which Pump is operated in seconds (s)

Here power of the pump is

P = 2000 W

We want to obtain energy consumed in one 1 minute, so time is

t = 1 min = 60 s

so the energy consumed is

E = 2000 W × 60 s = 120000 J

Now this much energy will be transferred as potential energy of some amount of water

We know the Relation for Potential energy of an object of mass m due to earth’s
gravity(g is acceleration due to gravity) held at an height h above ground is

P.E. = mgh

Value of acceleration due to gravity,

g = 9.8 m/s2

Suppose mass of water transferred is m

Height to which water is transferred is

h = 10m

so potential energy of transferred water is

P.E. = m × 9.8 m/s2 × 10m = 98m J

Now equating potential energy of water of mass m equal to energy supplied by pump

P.E. = E

98m = 120000

Solving we get mass of water transferred as

m = 120000/98 Kg = 1224.489 Kg

i.e. around 1224.5 Kg of water is being lifted to height of 10 m by the pump.

Q. 5 . Solve the following examples.

If a 1200 W electric iron is used daily for 30 minutes, how much total electricity is
consumed in the month of April?

Answer : Unit or kilowatt hour kWh is commercial unit of Energy, measured mainly in
case of electrical appliances, if an appliance of 1 kW or 1000 W(Spending 1000 J of
energy per second) is operated for 1 hour then 1kWh of energy or 1 unit of energy is
used

So energy consumed in unit is given as

E=P×t

Where E is the energy consumed by appliance, P is the power of appliance in Kilo Watt
(kW), t is the time for which appliance is operated in hours

Here power of the appliance is

P = 1200 W

Converting it to kW

1 kW = 1000 W

i.e. 1 W = 1/1000 kW, so power is

P = 1200 × 1/1000 kW = 1.2 kW

Time for which appliance is used daily is 30 min

1 hour = 60 min
i.e. 1 min = 1/60 hour

i.e. appliance is used daily for

30 × 1/60 hour = 0.5 hour

Appliance is used daily in month of April i.e. for 30 Days

So time for which appliance is used is

t = 0.5 hour × 30 = 15 hours

putting value of P in t in equation to find energy consumed

E = 1.2 kW × 15 hours = 18 kWh

i.e. 18 kWh or 18 Unit of energy in form of electricity has been used in month of April

Q. 5 C. Solve the following examples.

If the energy of a ball falling from a height of 10 metres is reduced by 40%, how
high will it rebound?

Answer : when a ball is kept at some height it gains potential energy, which is its total
energy and when it is released just before hitting the ground all its potential energy is
converted to kinetic energy, now when it collides with ground if no loss of energy is
there , kinetic energy of ball remains same as of before collision but direction of velocity
is reversed , now ball goes upward and its magnitude of velocity keeps on decreasing
due to gravitational force in downward direction and finally ball stops attaining original
height, where again all the kinetic energy is converted to potential energy but if energy
is lost during collision , the initial speed with which ball starts moving upward is reduced
as kinetic energy is reduced and ball attains less height than before

Ball is initially at a height , h = 10 m above the ground

After collision let the height of ball above the ground be x

Situation has been shown in the figure

Let the mass of ball be m now we know ,The Relation for Potential energy of an object
of mass m due to earth’s gravity(g is acceleration due to gravity) held at an height h
above ground is

P.E. = mgh

Let initial potential energy of object be Pi, so putting value of h we get initial potential
object of ball as

Pi = mg × 10m = 10mg

Now all the potential energy is converted to kinetic energy so kinetic energy of ball just
before collision is

Ki = 10mg

After collision kinetic energy or total energy is reduced by 40% , i.e. the kinetic energy
just after collision Kf is 60% of the initial energy i.e.

Kf = 60/100 × 10mg = 6mg

Now ball will move up with this kinetic energy upto a height x till all its kinetic energy is
converted to potential energy and comes to rest momentarily before again falling
downwards

Now final potential energy of the ball at a height x above the groung will be

Pf = mgx

Now, equating final potential energy equal to the kinetic energy of the ball just after
collision i.e.

Pf = Kf

i.e. mgx = 6mg

solving we get

x = 6m

So the ball rebounds upto a height of 6m above the ground

Q. 5 D. Solve the following examples.

The velocity of a car increase from 54 km/hr to 72 km/hr. How much is the work
done if the mass of the car is 1500 kg ?

Answer : Now here velocity of a car is increased i.e. car is accelerated which means
some force is applied on the car and since car is in motion and accelerating so it also
travelled some displacement from original position

Situation has been depicted in the figure

Now we know force on a body is given as

F = ma

Where F force is applied on a body of mass m, to move it with acceleration a

we know work done on an object due to a force is given by relation

W = FS

Where W is the work done due to force F in displacing object by S in the direction of
force

So putting the value of force in above equation we get the magnitude of work done as

W = FS = maS

Mass of car is given

m = 1500 kg

Now, finding the value of (aS)

We know newton’s third equation of motion which is

v2 – u2 = 2aS

Here v is final velocity of object, u is the initial velocity of the object, S is the
displacement covered by object and a is its acceleration during motion

here velocities are given in Km/hr , converting them to SI i.e. m/s

we know , 1 Km = 1000 m

1 hour=60 minute,1 minute = 60 sec

So, 1 hour = 60 × 60 = 3600 sec

So we get,

1 km/hr = 1000 m/3600 s

=10/36 = 5/18 m/s

Now here initial velocity of the car is

u = 54 km/hr = 54 × 5/18 = 15 m/s

final velocity of the Car is

v = 72 km/hr = 72 × 5/18 = 20 m/s

putting values of v and u in above equation we get

(20ms-1)2 - (15ms-1)2 = 2×aS

i.e.

so putting the value of mass of car and value of aS in equation of work done we get
work done as

W = maS = 1500kg × 87.5 m2s-2 = 131250 J

So the amount of work done is 131250 J

Q. 5 E. Solve the following examples.

Ravi applied a force of 10 N and moved a book 30 cm in the direction of the force.
How much was the work done by Ravi?

Answer : Here a book is displaced by 30 cm due to 10 N force, as depicted in the figure

we know work done on an object due to a force is given by relation

W = FS

Where W is the work done due to force F in displacing object by S in the direction of
force.

Here the force applied is

F = 10 N

The displacement of book in the direction of force

S = 30 cm

All units should be in SI so converting cm to m

1 cm = 1/100 m

So we get displacement as

S = 30 × 1/100 = 30/100 m = 0.3 m

So work done on the book is

W = 10 N × 0.3 m = 3 N

i.e. Ravi did 3 J work to move the book

Q. 6. Study the various instances of transformation of energy you see around you
and discuss them in class.

Answer : Now everything around us is working on energy and transforming it from one
form to another, for e.g. an electric kettle consumes electrical energy from current and
convert it into heat energy, which heats contents inside it

An electric cell has ions of different metals inside it, having certain chemical energy
which is converted to electrical energy , when we use the cell and suppose we put it any
toy or watch then that energy in converted to mechanical energy of the toy or watch and
various examples of transformation of energy can be found in the surroundings.
 Laws of Motion

Exercises

Q. 1. Match the first column with appropriate entries in the second and third
columns and remake the table.

Answer :

The velocity-time graphs are given below:

Q. 2 A. Clarify the differences

Distance and displacement

Answer : i. Distance refers to "how much length an object has covered" during its
motion. And, displacement refers to "how far out of place an object is"; It is the object's
overall change in position.

ii. It depends only on magnitude not on direction. Displacement depends on both

magnitude as well as direction.

iii. The diagram is given below:

In the above diagram,

AB is the distance

ACDB is the distance travelled by the object.

iv) Distance is a scalar quantity as it has only magnitude whereas Displacement is a

vector quantity as it has both magnitude and displacement.
Q. 2 B. Clarify the differences

Uniform and non-uniform motion

Answer : (i) The difference between uniform and non-uniform motion relies on,
whether the velocity of the moving body is changing or not. If the velocity of the object
changes to particular rate, then the motion is uniform, but if it increases or decreases at
different points of time, then this movement is called as non-uniform motion.

(ii) In uniform motion, the object covers equal distance in equal time interval. In non-
uniform motion, object covers equal distances in unequal time-intervals.

(iii)
Q. 3. Complete the following table.

Answer :

From the first equation of motion,

v=u+at

here,

v = final velocity

u = initial velocity

a is the acceleration

t is the time

In the first table,

From Ist row, v = ?

⇒ v =2m/s + 4ms-2 × 3s
⇒ v = 2m/s + 12 m/s

⇒ v = 14 m/s

from 2nd row, u = ?

v = u + at

⇒ 20 m/s = u + 5ms-2 × 2s

⇒ 20 m/s – 10m/s = u

⇒ u = 10 m/s

Now,

In the second table,

From the equation of motion,

S=ut + 1/2 at2

Where, s is the distance

“u” is the initial velocity.

“v” is the final velocity.

“t” is the time.

“a” is the acceleration

From Ist row, s = ?

⇒ S=ut + 1/2 at2

⇒ S = 5ms-1 × 3s + 1/2 × 12ms-2 × 3s × 3s

⇒ S=15m+ 54m

⇒ S = 69 m

From 2nd row, a = ?

⇒ S=ut + 1/2 at2

⇒ 92m = 7ms-1 × 4s + 1/2 × a × 4s ×4s

⇒ 92 m = 28 m + a × 8s2

⇒ a × 8s2 = 92 – 28 m

⇒ a × 8s2 = 64 m

⇒ a= 8 m/s2

Now, for the third table,

From second equation of motion,

v2 = u2+2as

From Ist row ⇒ 8 = 4 × 4 + 2 × 3 × S

⇒ 8 = 16 + 6 × S

⇒ -8 = 6 × S

⇒ -8/6= S

⇒ S= -3/2 =-1.5 m

From 2nd row ⇒ 10= u2+ 2× 5× 8.4

⇒ 10=u2+84

⇒ -74=u2
⇒ u=-8.6m/s

Q. 4. Complete the sentences and explain them.

A. The minimum distance between the start and finish points of the motion of an
object is called the ______ of the object.
B. Deceleration is ______ acceleration
C. When an object is in uniform circular motion, its ______changes at every point.
D. During collision ______remains constant.
E. The working of a rocket depends on Newton’s ______ law of motion.

Answer : A. The minimum distance between the start and finish points of the motion of
an object is called the displacement of the object.

Explanation:

As seen in the given figure,

The distance is not same as displacement. In fact, the displacement is the shortest
distance between two given points.

B. Deceleration is negative acceleration.

Explanation:

Acceleration means increase in velocity. And, for decrease in velocity we have another
term called “negative acceleration or deceleration”.

The figure shows the velocity time graph of an object:

C. When an object is in uniform circular motion, its velocity changes at every point.

Explanation:

In uniform circular motion, the speed of the object is same. Since, it direction is
changing at every instant, hence its velocity changes. Because, velocity is speed with
direction.

The object in uniform circular motion is shown here:

Here, the magnitude of both velocities is same.

D. During collision total momentum remains constant.

Explanation:

During collision the total momentum, remains the same.

The figure shows two objects here before & after collision:

E. The working of a rocket depends on Newton’s third law of motion.

Explanation: According to Newton’s third law of motion, every action has an equal and
opposite reaction.

In a rocket, the burnt fuel releases gases, which push the rocket upwards. The direction
of forces is given in the figure below:

Q. 5 A. Give scientific reasons.

When an object falls freely to the ground, its acceleration is uniform.

Answer : As we know that

Where , G'= new gravitational acceleration

G = gravitational acceleration initial (9.8 m/sec2)
H = Height from the surface of Earth Re = Radius of Earth
The height from which the body will be H<<Re

This means

We get

Hence , the acceleration of free falling body is uniform on the surface of Earth and
Decreases with the height of the body.

Q. 5 B. Give scientific reasons.

Even though the magnitudes of action force and reaction force are equal and
their directions are opposite, their effects do not get cancelled.

Answer : i. When the point of action of the two equal and opposite forces is the same,
then these do cancel out.

ii. But when the point of action of the two equal and opposite forces is different Though
it located on the same body but separated by some distance between a the points of
action of the two forces, then these forces don’t cancel out, but rather produce a couple.
Example, closing a tap.

iii. But, if they are acting on different bodies, they cannot cancel out but rather produce
motion.

For example, the downward weight is cancelled by the normal force while the force of
the sun on the earth and its reaction, the force of the earth on the sun, do not cancel
each other. We can see from diagram also.
Q. 5 C. Give scientific reasons.

It is easier to stop a tennis ball as compared to a cricket ball, when both are
travelling with the same velocity.

Answer : Cricket ball is heavier than the tennis ball. Hence, the force required to stop a
cricket ball is more as compared to tennis ball with the same velocity.

As we know, Force = Mass × acceleration

Here, force is directly proportional to mass.

So even if the velocity is same, the mass of leather ball is greater than that of tennis
ball and the momentum (which is mass multiplied by velocity) and hence has more
momentum and it is not easier to stop cricket ball.

Q. 5 D. Give scientific reasons.

The velocity of an object at rest is considered to be uniform.

Answer : In a uniform motion, the object travels equal distances in equal interval of
time. Also, in uniform motion, the speed of the object is constant. The graph is given
below:
Now, for an object at rest, the speed of the object is zero. As the time passes by, the
speed is still zero. Hence, the object at rest is also considered as object in uniform
motion.

Q. 6. Take 5 examples from your surroundings and give explanation based on

Newtons laws of motion.

Answer : 1) Newton’s law of motion : Explanation with examples

According to the first law: If an object at rest will remain in rest ,in motion will remain in
motion unless an external unbalanced force act on it.

Example 1: Pushing a big rock, the rock will stay in place until you push it.

Example 2. When sends rocket up in space, there is almost a perfect amount of earth
gravity for ship to not come crashing down.

Example 3. When we shot the bullet in a space, it would be keep in straight line until it
either reached gravity of another planet.

2) Newton’s law of motion : Explanation with examples

According to 2nd law: The force is directly proportional to rate of change of momentum.

Example 1: If a truck and bicycle did a short race at the same speed, then bicycle will
win the race.

Example 2: For a long race truck will win the race because F=ma and a(acceleration) is
more.
Example 3: If a dog is pulling a rock then acceleration is fully dependent on force of dog
because mass of rock will not change.

3) Newton’s law of motion : Explanation with examples

According to the 3rd law of motion, for every action there is an equal and opposite
reaction.

Example 1. When we push the floor, the floor pushes back.

Example 2. Cars wheel produce friction trying to push and ground exerts an opposite
force to push it.

Example 3. Rockets use fuel to push on ground ,which lifts them up. Rockets also rely
on friction with air so that the fuel still works.

Q. 7 A. Solve the following examples.

An object moves 18 m in the first 3 s, 22 m in the next 3 s and 14 m in the last 3 s.

What is its average speed?

Answer : We know,

= 6m/s

∴ the average speed is 6 m/sec.

Q. 7 B. Solve the following examples.

An object of mass 16 kg is moving with an acceleration of 3 m/s2. Calculate the

applied force. If the same force is applied on an object of mass 24 kg, how much
will be the acceleration?

Answer :
F= ma

Where m=16kg

a=3m/s2

F=16× 3= 48 N

If F= 48 N

m= 24kg

F= ma

48=24× a

a= 2 m/s2

Q. 7 C. Solve the following examples.

A bullet having a mass of 10 g and moving with a speed of 1.5 m/s, penetrates a
thick wooden plank of mass 90 g. The plank was initially at rest. The bullet gets
embedded in the plank and both move together. Determine their velocity.

Answer : Given:

Mass of bullet, m1 = 10g = 0.01 kg

Speed of bullet, v1 = 1.5 m/sec

Mass of wooden plank, m2 = 90 g = 0.09 kg

Velocity of plank + bullet system = ?

Here, we will apply the law of conservation of momentum,

i.e. Final momentum = initial momentum

If we take bullet and thick wooden plank as a system then, initially only bullet is moving
with speed of 1.5 m/s and plank is in rest.

∴ initial Momentum (pi) = mass of bullet × velocity

= 0.01 kg ×1.5 m/sec

= 0.015 kgms-1

⇒ pi = 0.015 kgms-1 ….(1)

Now, when the bullet hits the plank, then both the objects are attached.

So, new mass(M) = mass of bullet + mass of plank

= 0.01 kg + 0.09 kg

= 0.1kg

Then,

Final momentum, pf = New mass (M) × (velocity of plank & bullet system)

⇒ pf = 0.1kg × v….(2)

Now, from equation (1) & (2), we get,

Pi = p f

⇒ 0.015 kgms-1 = 0.1kg × v

⇒ v = 0.15 m/s

Q. 7 D. Solve the following examples.

A person swims 100 m in the first 40 s, 80 m in the next 40 s and 45 m in the last
20 s. What is the average speed?

Answer : 2.25 m/s

The average speed is given as:

⇒
⇒

Therefore, the average speed is 2.25 m/sec