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Key Concepts in Genetic Engineering and Immunology

The document consists of a series of multiple-choice questions related to biotechnology, genetic engineering, immunology, and microbial fermentation. It covers topics such as vectors, DNA manipulation techniques, antibody types, vaccine production, and methods of enzyme immobilization. The questions test knowledge on various biological concepts and their applications in pharmaceutical sciences.

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dkr974177
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
6 views15 pages

Key Concepts in Genetic Engineering and Immunology

The document consists of a series of multiple-choice questions related to biotechnology, genetic engineering, immunology, and microbial fermentation. It covers topics such as vectors, DNA manipulation techniques, antibody types, vaccine production, and methods of enzyme immobilization. The questions test knowledge on various biological concepts and their applications in pharmaceutical sciences.

Uploaded by

dkr974177
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

(1) Which is the following statement is true?

(BL1)
a) A vector should have an origin of replication
b) A vector should have selected markers
c) A vector should have unique restriction sites
d) All of the above
(2) Expression vectors differ from a cloning vector in having
(BL1)
a) An origin of replication
b) Suitable marker genes
c) Control elements
d) Unique restriction sites
(3) Combining the DNA’s of two species into a single DNA molecule is called:
(BL1)
a) Genetic recombination
b) Crossing over
c) Recombinant DNA technique
d) Gene amplification
(4) CODONS are the combinations of any _____ number of bases.
(BL1)
(5) Which of the following enzyme is responsible for making a DNA copy from RNA?
(BL1)
a) Reverse transcriptase
b) RNA poll
c) DNA polymerase
d) DNA poll
(6) E. Coli can mask its bases by _________ to protect itself from Bacteriophages.
(BL1)
(7) Generally, a plasmid vector contains how many elements?
(BL1)
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
(8) To make the recombinant plasmid permeable DNA molecules, which of the chemicals
is added? (BL1)
a) CaCl2
b) HCl
c) NaCl
d) NaOH
(9) PBR 322 is the combination of _______________________. (BL1)
(10) In which stage of genetic engineering is a probe used? (BL1)
a) Cleaving DNA
b) Recombining DNA
c) Cloning
d) Screening
(11) Which of the following enzymes are required for end to end joining of DNA?
(BL1)
a) DNA ligase
b) RNA polymerase
c) Restriction endonuclease
d) DNA polymerase
(12) In recombinant DNA technology, the process of joining DNA fragments from
different sources is called _________.
(BL1)
(13) A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called (BL1)
a) Vector
b) Plasmid
c) Selectable marker
d) Probe
(14) The usual source of restriction endonuclease used in gene cloning is:
(BL1)
a) Fungi
b) Bacteria
c) Viruses
d) Plants
(15) In genetic engineering, antibiotics are used (BL1)
a) As selectable markers
b) to select healthy vectors
c) as sequences from where replication starts
d) to keep the cultures free if infection
(16) Plasmids are often used as __________ cloning vectors due to their ability to
replicate independently in host cells.
(BL2)
(17) Which of the following is a plasmid?
(BL1)
a) PBR322
b) Bam HI
c) SaI I
d) Eco RI
(18) Vaccines produced using recombinant DNA technology are often safer and more
effective than traditional vaccines.
(BL1)
a) True
b) False
(19) Polymerase chain reaction technology (PCR) is used for DNA amplification
(BL1)
a) True
b) False
(20) Which of the following is not the cloning vector?
(BL1)
a) Agrobacterium
b) Yeast
c) Neurospora
d) Bacteriophages
(21) Humoral immunity is mediated by:
(BL1)
a) B cells

b) Both a and b

c) Macrophages

d) Phagocytes

(22) Humoral immunity is also called as:


(BL1)

a) Antigen mediated immunity

b) Antibody mediated immunity

c) Non-specific immune response

d) All of the above

(23) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding plasma


cells (BL1)

a) Plasma cells are the effector cells

b) Plasma cells secrets antibodies

c) The precursor of plasma cell is B cell

d) Plasma cell surface receptor

(24) Generally, antibodies produced against pathogen is:


(BL1)

a) Monoclonal

b) Polyclonal

c) Homogenous

d) All of them

(25) Mabs are:


(BL1)

a) Specific towards a paratope

b) Specific towards an epitope

c) Specific towards an antigen

d) None

(26) Mabs are used in


(BL1)

a) The screening of recombinants


b) Diagnostic kits

c) The treatment of many cancers

d) All of them

(27) Mabs are produced by


(BL1)

a) in vivo method

b) suspended cell culture in fermenters

c) Immobilized cell reactors

d) All of these

(28) What is the name of MHC in humans?


(BL1)

a) HLA

b) H2

c) Adjuvants

d) Haplotype

(29) Name of the cell which receives antigen presented by MHC


molecule (BL1)

a) Nk cells

b) T-cells

c) B-cells

d) Macrophages

(30) Name the class of MHC which is recognized by CD4 TH cells.


(BL1)

a) MHC I

b) MHC II

c) MHC III

d) MHC cannot recognize T cells

(31) Allergy to penicillin is an example of


(BL1)

a) Type I hypersensitivity

b) Type II hypersensitivity
c) Type III hypersensitivity

d) Type IV hypersensitivity

(32) Type IV hypersensitivity


(BL1)

a) Immediate hypersensitivity

b) Delayed hypersensitivity

c) Cytolic reaction

d) Immune complex hypersensitivity

(33) The most common class of antibody involved in type II


hypersensitivity is____(BL1)

a) IgG

b) IgM

c) IgE

d) Both a and b

(34) Type III hypersensitivity is triggered by_______


(BL1)

a) mast cells and IgE

b) K cells and IgG

c) Th cells

d) deposition of antigen antibody complex

(35) The first vaccine was developed by_____


(BL1)

a) Louis Pasteur

b) Edward Jenner

c) Carl Landsteiner

d) Joseph Meister

(36) The process of weakening a pathogen is called


(BL1)

a) Vaccination

b) Immunization

c) Attenuation
d) Virulence reduction

(37) Which of the following statements are true regarding polio


vaccines (BL1)

a) Salk and Sabin are polio vaccines

b) Sabin is live attenuated polio vaccines

c) Salk is a inactivated polio vaccines

d) All of them

(38) What is the ideal temperature for storage of vaccines?


(BL1)

a) 1-10’C

b) 2-8’C

c) 5-10’C

d) 1-5’C

(39) Who is responsible for the cold chain management


(BL1)

a) The owner of the business

b) The nursing staffs

c) The medical staff

d) All of the above

(40) What is the life of the effector cells of the immune system?
(BL1)

a) A few days

b) A few weeks

c) A few months

(41) Western blotting is the technique for the detection of


(BL1)

a) Specific DNA in a sample

b) Specific RNA in a sample

c) Specific protein in a sample

d) Specific glycolipid in a sample


(42) Which of the following techniques is used in DNA finger
printing (BL1)

a) Western blotting

b) Northern blotting

c) Southern blotting

d) Eastern blotting

(43) Complete the following in correct order


(BL2)

Sothern _______

Northern _________

Western __________

(44) Which of the following techniques is most suitable for


detecting the presence of a gene product
(BL1)

a) Dot blotting

b) Southern blotting

c) Plaque blotting

d) Western blotting

(45) Aminobenzylmethyl filter paper is commonly used for the


transfer in (BL1)

a) Western blotting

b) Northern blotting

c) Southern blotting

d) Dot blotting

(46) Vertical gene transfer is the process of genes being passed


down from parent to offspring
(BL1)

a) True

b) False

(47) When bacteria take up naked genetic material from the


surrounding environment, this is called
(BL1)
a) Transformation

b) Transduction

c) Conjugation

d) Replication

(48) When one bacterium transfers a copy of its plasmid to another


bacterium, this is called
(BL1)

a) Transformation

b) Transduction

c) Conjugation

d) Replication

(49) Transposons were first discovered in


(BL1)

a) Rice

b) Bacteria

c) Mice

d) Maize

(50) What should be the minimum weight of DNA is required for a


successful transformation
(BL1)

a) 1000 daltons

b) 100, 000 daltons

c) 300, 000 daltons

d) 8 million daltons

(51) Karyotes means ______________


(BL1)

(52) Deletion kind of mutation occurs when ____________________


(BL1)

(53) Duplication kind of mutation occurs when ____________________


(BL1)

(54) Point mutation occurs when ____________________


(55) Mutation that changes gene frame is known as _______________
(BL1)

(56) _____________ is used for Transduction.


(BL1)

(57) Transposons are ____________________


(BL1)

(58) Full for of ELISA is ____________________________ (BL1)

(59) Plasmids are _____________________ (BL1)

(60) Biotransformation can be defined as __________________

(61) Which of the following is the most common method for Griseofulvin
production? (BL1)
a) Solid state fermentation
b) Surface fermentation
c) Submerged fermentation
d) Surface adhesion fermentation
(62) Griseofulvin is a secondary, metabolite produced by penicillium griseofulvin
(BL1)
a) True
b) False
c) Non-specific immune response
d) All of the above
(63) Which of the following raw material are important for the production of
glutamic acid?
(BL1)
a) Biotin
b) Tryptone
c) Corn steep liquor
d) Glycerol
(64) Which of the following is the most common method for citric acid production?
(BL1)
a) Solid state fermentation
b) Submerged fermentation
c) Surface fermentation
d) Surface adhesion fermentation
(65) Which of the following species is used for vitamin B12 production by
fermentation process?
(BL1)
a) Streptomyces griseus
b) Streptomyces olivaceus
c) Bacillus megaterium
d) All of these
(66) Who observed citric acid as a by-product of calcium oxalate produced
Penicillium glacum?
(BL1)
a) Thomas Edison
b) Carl Wihelm
c) Wehmer
d) Adam
(67) Who first isolated citric acid?
(BL1)
a) Homas Edison
b) Carl Wihelm
c) Charles Darwin
d) Francis Crick
(68) pH required for the production of penicillin will be
(BL1)
a) 8.0
b) 6.5
c) 7.5
d) 5.0
(69) Penicillium chrysogesonum produce penicillin
(BL1)
a) True
b) False
(70) Antifoam probe is a type of off-line sensor. (BL1)
a) True
b) False
(71) What is the basic function of the fermenter? (BL1)
a) To sterilize the medium
b) To recover the product
c) To provide optimum growth conditions to organisms and obtained the desired
product.
d) To purify the product
(72) While constructing the fermenter, which of the following is not required? (BL1)
a) High-speed agitation and aeration system
b) Temperature control system
c) pH control system
d) Sample facilities
(73) Which of the following material is preferable for the construction of small-
scale fermenter? (BL1)
a) Quartz
b) Glass
c) Iron steel
d) Wood
(74) Which of the following is not the technique of preservation? (BL1)
a) Storage on agar slants
b) Storage under liquid nitrogen
c) Dried cultures
d) Storage in water
(75) The preservation by liquid Nitrogen is called as: (BL1)
a) Cryopreservation
b) Lyophilization
c) Freeze-drying
d) Desiccation
(76) Which of the following is not a cryoprotective agent? (BL1)
a) DMSO (Dimethyl sulfoxide)
b) Glycerol
c) Ethylene Glycol
d) Paraffin wax
(77) Which of the following is/are used in in the culture preservation? (BL1)
a) Sand
b) Soil
c) Both a and b
d) Slits
(78) During the preservation of microbial cell culture (BL1)
a) Metabolism stops
b) Metabolism continues
c) Metabolism changes
d) Physiology changes
(79) Which of the following methods of preservation is more suitable and used
widely? (BL1)
a) Dried cultures
b) Lyophilization
c) Salts Storage
d) Storage in liquid Nitrogen
(80) Which of the following is not the replacement in serum free media? (BL1)
a) Insulin
b) Albumin
c) Antibody
d) Transferrin
(81) Which of the following best defines Biotechnology in
pharmaceutical sciences?
A. Study of animal behavior
B. Use of biological systems to develop pharmaceutical products
C. Chemical analysis of drugs
D. Study of physics in medicine

(82) Which method is commonly used for enzyme


immobilization?
A. Gel electrophoresis
B. Adsorption
C. Dialysis
D. Precipitation

(83) Which of the following is not a method of enzyme


immobilization?
A. Covalent bonding
B. Entrapment
C. Solubilization
D. Encapsulation

(84) Biosensors typically consist of a biological element and


a ________.
A. Heater
B. Transducer
C. Battery
D. Light source

(85) Which enzyme is widely used in biosensors for blood


glucose monitoring?
A. Amylase
B. Urease
C. Glucose oxidase
D. Catalase

(86) Which field involves the design and construction of


new proteins?
A. Genetic engineering
B. Protein engineering
C. Bioinformatics
D. Immunology

(87) Which of the following is an industrial application of


Amylase?
A. Blood clot dissolution
B. Paper processing
C. Starch hydrolysis
D. DNA replication

(88) Lipase is industrially used in the production of:


A. Detergents
B. Antibiotics
C. Plastics
D. Hormones

(89) Catalase decomposes which of the following?


A. Glucose
B. Water
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Oxygen

(90) Penicillinase is used to:


A. Synthesize penicillin
B. Increase antibiotic resistance
C. Degrade penicillin
D. Reduce toxicity of antibiotics

(91) Which of the following is not a cloning vector?


A. Plasmid
B. Bacteriophage
C. mRNA
D. Cosmid

(92) Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that:


A. Synthesize DNA
B. Ligate DNA strands
C. Cut DNA at specific sequences
D. Replicate RNA

(93) The function of DNA ligase is to:


A. Cut DNA
B. Remove introns
C. Join DNA fragments
D. Methylate DNA

(94) Recombinant DNA technology is also known as:


A. PCR
B. Cloning
C. Genetic recombination
D. Gene splicing

(95) Interferons produced via rDNA technology are primarily


used to treat:
A. Bacterial infections
B. Parasitic diseases
C. Viral infections
D. Diabetes

(96) Hepatitis B vaccine is an example of a:


A. Toxoid vaccine
B. Live attenuated vaccine
C. DNA vaccine
D. Recombinant vaccine

(97) Insulin produced by rDNA technology is classified as:


A. Animal-derived
B. Plant-based
C. Recombinant human insulin
D. Microbial toxin
(98) Which technique amplifies DNA sequences in vitro?
A. ELISA
B. Western blotting
C. PCR
D. FISH

(99) PCR involves repeated cycles of:


A. Heating and freezing
B. Cutting and joining
C. Denaturation, annealing, and extension
D. Transcription and translation

(100) Which enzyme is essential for PCR?


A. Ligase
B. Taq polymerase
C. Helicase
D. RNA polymerase

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