Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 1

IBPS RRB CLERK MAINS-2025

MODEL TEST - 1
REASONING
Direction (1-5): Study the given information carefully to answer the given question:

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Eight people viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a straight line facing
north, but not necessarily in the same order. Three persons sit between B and H.
C sits to the immediate right of H. B doesn’t sit at any extreme end. As many
persons sit to the right of H as to the left of E. Two persons sit between E and F. G
and F are not immediate neighbours. D sits to the right of G but not to F.
1. Who sits second to the right of A?
1) D 2) H 3) C 4) F 5) G
2.
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What is the position of D from H?
1) Third to the left 2) Third to the right
3) Second to the right 4) Second to the left 5) Fourth to the right
3.
4.

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How many persons sit to the right of G?
1) Three 2) Four 3) Two 4) Five
As many persons sit to the right of D as to the left of ___________.
5) More than five
d
1) C 2) A 3) F 4) G 5) B
5. Which among the following sentence correct based on above arrangement?
1) B sits to the right of C 2) Two persons sit between A and B
3) F sits to the immediate right of A 4) E sits at extreme end of the line 5) Both 2 and 3
ee

Direction (6-8): Study the given information carefully to answer the given question:
Ten persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G H, I and J belong to the same family they all
are enjoying themselves in the garden. It is a three-generation family and three
C
married couples are present in the family and no other members in the family. C
is the sister of A. F is the brother of G. C is the mother of F. H is the spouse of J.
D is the father-in-law of B. J is the father of B. E is the mother of A. A is an
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unmarried male. B has no siblings. I is the only daughter of B.

6. How is G related to H?
1) Uncle 2) Nephew 3) Grandfather 4) Daughter 5) Grandson
7. Who is father-in-law of C?
1) D 2) G 3) J 4) H 5) E
8. Which among the following statement is correct?
1) A is the Uncle of J 2) D is the grandmother of I
3) G is the nephew of A 4) B is the son of E 5) Both 2 and 4
C
9. If it is possible to make only one meaningful four letter English word using the
first, the third, the fifth and the ninth letters (when counted from left to right) of
the word ‘FOLKSINGER, using each letter only once, which of the following will
be the second letter from the left end of the word thus formed? If no such word
can be formed mark Y as your answer. If more than one such words can be
formed mark Z as your answer.
1) E 2) F 3) L 4) Y 5) Z
Direction (10-14): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question:
Six people namely, A, B, C, D, E and F live on three different floors of a three
storeyed building where the lowermost floor is numbered one, the one above that
is numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered three. They all like
different countries viz. Austria, Oman, France, Brazil, Japan and Mexico.
i. On each floor there are two flats viz. Flat 1 and flat 2 such that flat 1 is exactly
to the west of flat 2.
ii. Flat 1 of floor numbered two is immediately above flat 1 of floor numbered one.
Similarly, flat 2 of floor numbered three is immediately above flat 2 of floor
numbered two and so on.

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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 1

iii. Area of each flat on each floor is same.

iv. Only two people live on each floor and only one person lives in each flat.
B lives on odd numbered floor and even numbered flat. One floor between B
and one who likes Mexico, both don’t live in the same flat. C and one who likes
Mexico lives in immediate floors and in the same flat. The one who likes Brazil
lives below C. E lives immediately above one who likes Austria in the same flat. B
likes either Oman or Japan. E lives west of one who likes Oman. F lives above A
but not in the same flat. D lives below the one who likes Japan in the same flat.
10. E likes which country?
1) Brazil 2) Japan 3) Mexico 4) Oman 5) France
11. D lives on which floor and flat ?
1) 1st floor, 2nd flat 2) 1st floor, 1st flat 3) 2nd floor, 1st flat
4) 2nd floor, 2nd flat 5) 3rd floor, 1st flat

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12. Who likes Brazil?
1) F 2)E 3) D 4) A 5) C
13. Which among the following pair is correct?
1) D – 2nd floor 2) B – Japan 3) Oman – 2nd flat 4) C – France 5) D - Mexico
14. As per the given arrangement, four of the following five are alike in a certain way
and thus form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?
1) A – Brazil 2) C – Japan 3) E – Oman 4) B – Mexico 5) F – Austria
ha
Directions (15): Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I
and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a strong argument and
which is a weak argument:

E
Statement: Is investment of money in insurance policies a wise step?
Argument I. Yes, it ensures security and covers risks.
Argument II. No, by the time the policy matures, the value of money falls down
d
considerably.
1) Only argument one is strong. 2) Only argument two is strong.
3) Arguments either one or two is strong.
4) Arguments neither one nor two is strong.
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5) Arguments both one and two are strong.

Direction (16-18): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question:
In a certain coding language-
C
“Money makes many things”is coded as “br vt jk mp”
“Family health makes happy”is coded as “dt br vc yr”
“Need health things change” is coded as “mp bn dt sf”
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“People need happy life” is coded as “yr kt pg bn”

(Notes:All the codes are two letter codes only).
16. What may be the code for the “money change”?
1) jk bn 2) vt sf 3) br dt 4) sf jk 5) either 2 or 4
17. Which word has the code “mp”?
1) need 2) many 3) makes 4) things 5) life
18. What may be the code for the “family problem”?
1) dt lr 2) vc kf 3) br sf 4) yr tg 5) either 2 or 3
C
Direction (19-23): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question:
Seven people- P, Q, R, S, T, U and V were born in seven different months viz.
January, February, March, April, May, June and July of the same year. Only one
person was born in each month. No other person was born in the given year. Each
one likes different authors viz. Jess Kidd, Helen Philip, Leo Tolstoy, Kiran Desai,
Amitav Ghosh, Prem Chand, and RK Narayan.
U was born in the month which has 30days. Two persons were born between
U and one who likes Kiran Desai. As many persons younger than the one who
likes Kiran Desai as elder than P. The one who likes Prem Chand was just elder
than P. Q was just elder than one who likes Jess Kidd. Q likes neither Kiran
Desai nor Prem Chand. One person was born between Q and V. V was younger
than one who likes Leo Tolstoy. Three persons were born between one who likes
Leo Tolstoy and one who likes Helen Philip. As many persons were born between
the one who likes Helen Philip and V as between P and one who likes Amitav
Ghosh. S was elder than R but not V.
19. T likes which author?
1) Leo Tolstoy 2) Jess Kidd 3) Kiran Desai 4) Helen Philip 5) Amitav Ghosh
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20. How many persons are elder than R?

1) Six 2) Five 3) Four 4) Three 5) Two
21. S was born in which month?
1) March 2) February 3) January 4) April 5) July
22. U likes which author?
1) Amitav Ghosh 2) Leo Tolstoy 3) Kiran Desai 4) RK Narayan 5) Helen Philip
23. Who likes Amitav Ghosh?
1) P 2) U 3) R 4) Q 5) T
Direction (24-26): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Point B is 7m East of point G. Point K is 8m North of point G. Point L is East
of point K. Point D is 9m West of point N, which is 5m South of point L. The

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distance between point K and point L is half of the distance between point G and
point K. Point H is North of point D and West of point K. Point C is 6m west of point
H. The distance between point B and point F is twice the distance between point
D and point H. Point F is North of point B.
24. Point C is in which direction with respect to point F?
1) West 2) South-East 3) North-West 4) North-East 5) South-West
25. If point P is 3m North of point B ,then point P is how far and in which direction
from point H?
ha
1) 15m, South-East 2) 12m, West 3) 13m, South-East
4) 15m, West 5) 13m, North-West
26.

E
Which of the following statement is/are TRUE as per the given arrangement ?
1) Point F is east of point H.
2) The distance between K and N is less than the distance between C and D.
d
3) Point G is South-East of point D.
4) Point B is North-East of point H. 5) Both 2 and 3 are true.
Direction (27-30): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
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question:
Six boxes -A, B, C, D, E and F were kept one above the other in a stack. Each
box was coated with six different colours viz. Blue, Green, Pink, purple, Maroon
and Brown, but not necessarily in the same order.
C
The box coated with Brown is kept immediately above the box C. Two boxes
are kept between Box C and box coated with Pink. One box is kept between box C
and box D. Box D is kept below Box C. The box coated with Brown is kept below the
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box coated with Maroon. Box A is kept immediately below the box coated with
Blue. One box is kept between box A and box E. Box E is kept above Purple box.
Box A is coated with either Blue or Green. Box B is kept above box F and less than
two boxes between these two boxes.
27. Box F coated with which colour?
1) Pink 2) Maroon 3) Blue 4) Brown 5) Green
28. How many boxes are kept below box B?
C
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) Five
29. which box was coated with Purple colour?
1) Box C 2) Box B 3) Box A 4) box D 5) box E
30. As per the given arrangement, four of the following five are alike in a certain way
and thus form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?
1) Box D – Blue 2) Box B – Brown 3) Box E – Pink
4) Box F – Maroon 5) Box C – purple
Direction (31-33): In the question three statements followed by two conclusions I
and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
31. Statements: No Diagram is a Picture Only a few Pictures are Photo’s
All Pictures are Videos.
Conclusions: I. Some Videos are not Diagram II. Some Pictures are not Photo’s
1) Only Conclusion I follows 2) Only Conclusion II follows
3) Either Conclusion I or II follows 4) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
5) Both Conclusion I and II follow
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32. Statements: All papers are Sheets No Sheet is Board

No Board is Banner.
Conclusions: I. Some papers are not board II. No Sheet is Banner.
1) Only Conclusion II follows 2) Either Conclusion I or II follows
3) Both Conclusion I and II follow 4) Only Conclusion I follows
5) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
33. Statements: Only a few Bottles are Glasses No Glass is Tumbler
All Tumblers are Flasks.
Conclusions: I. All bottles can be Tumbler II. All Glasses can be Flask.
1) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows 2) Both Conclusion I and II follow
3) Only Conclusion II follows 4) Either Conclusion I or II follows
5) Only Conclusion I follows

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Direction (34): In each of the following questions, the two statements numbered
I and II are given. These statements may be either independent causes or may be
effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may
be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which
of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between the two
statements. Mark your answer as.
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Statement (I): The state government has now decided to increase the stamp duty
on houses purchased with immediate effect.
Statement (II): The real estate prices have increased considerably during the
last few months.

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1) If statement I is the cause and statements II is its effect;
2) If statement II is the cause and statements I is its effect;
d
3) If both the statements I and II are independent causes;
4) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes;
5) If both the statements I and II are effects of same common causes.
Direction (35-39): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
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question:
Nine people- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X work on nine different posts viz.
software trainee (ST), Assistant Software Engineer (ASE), Software engineer (SE),
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Lead Software Programmer (LSP), System Administrator (SA), Software Project
Manager (SPM), Project head (PH),Chief Technical Officer (CTO) and Chief Executive
officer (CEO) in an organisation. The posts have been given in increasing order of
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hierarchy with ST being the junior most position and CEO being the senior most
position in the said organisation. It is assumed that only the given posts exist in
the said organisation.
Only three people are hierarchy between T and R. Only one person is
hierarchy between R and P. P is junior to Software Engineer. The number of
persons hierarchy between P and R is one less than the number of persons
hierarchy between T and S. X is immediate senior than V. Q is senior than SPM.
C
More than three people are hierarchy between V and U.
35. How many persons are senior than W?
1) Seven 2) Six 3) Eight 4) Five 5) Four
36. Who is CEO?
1) X 2) T 3) V 4) Q 5) W
37. V is working as __________.
1) CEO 2) SA 3) SPM 4) ST 5) ASE
38. As many persons are senior than W as junior than_______.
1) X 2) T 3) Q 4) V 5) W
39. Which among the following statement is correct?
1) X is senior to Q 2) R is working as LSP
3) Only two persons are junior to S 4) P is senior than ASE
5) Both 2 and 4
40. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘PUBLISHMENT’ each of
which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet
(in both forward and backward directions)?
1) Four 2) Five 3) Two 4) Three 5) One

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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 1

COMPUTER AWARENESS
41. __________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides
a means by which users can interact with the computer.
1) The Platform 2) The operating system
3) Application software 4) The Motherboard 5) System software
42. The _________ states that a foreign key must either match a primary key value in
another relation or it must be null.
1) Entity integrity rule 2) Referential integrity constraint
3) Action assertion
4) Composite attribute 5) None of these
43. A ____ sometimes called a boot sector virus executes when a computer boots up
because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a
hard disk.

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1) System Virus 2) Trojan horse virus 3) File virus
4) Macro virus 5) None of these
44. Select the INCORRECT match regarding the viruses with their examples.
1) Boot Sector Virus-Stoned 2) File Virus-Sunday
3) Multipartite Virus-Cascade
4) Macro Virus-Melissa 5) None of these
45.
1) Simply parity check
ha
Which error detection method uses one’s complement arithmetic?
2) Check sum 3) Two-dimensional parity check
4) CRC 5) None of these
46. The network interface card of LAN is related to following layer of OSI model
47.
1) Network

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2) Transport 3) Data link 4) Physical
Which of the following does not describe a data warehouse?
1) Subject-oriented 2) Integrated 3) Time-variant
5) All of these
d
4) Updateable 5) None of these
48. The software tools that enable a user to interact with a computer for specific
purposes are known as ___
1) Hardware 2) Networked software 3) Shareware
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4) Applications 5) None of these

49. Computer programs are written in a high level programming language; however
the human readable version of a program is called_________
1) Cache 2) Instruction set 3) Source code 4) Word size 5) None of these
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50. Which of the following is not a function of the control unit?
1) Read instructions 2) Execute instructions
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3) Interpret instructions 4) Direct operations 5) None of these

51. The physical arrangement of elements on a page is referred to as a documents __
1) Features 2) Format 3) Pagination 4) Grid 5) None of these
52. Which of the following storage media provides sequential access only?
1) Floppy disk 2) Magnetic disk 3) Magnetic tape
4) Optical disk 5) None of these
53. Microsoft's Messenger allows users to
1) Bypass a browser to surf the Web 2) Create a blog
3) Communicate via direct live communication
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4) Identify and eliminate spam 5) Make graphic presentation
54. When a file contains instructions that can be carried out by the computer, it is
often called a (n) ___________ file
1) Data 2) Information 3) Executable 4) Application 5) None of these
55. A (n) ___________ is a small, wireless handheld computer that scans items, tags
and pulls up the current price (and any special offer) as you shop.
1) PSS 2) POS 3) Inventory 4) Data mining 5) None of these
56. Buffering in printers is necessary
1) As computers are fast in generating data for printing then printer can print it.
2) As there is not enough memory provided with printers.
3) To make printers work for more years. 4) Both 1 and 2 5) None of these
57. Airlines reservation system is a typical example of
1) Batch processing 2) On­line processing
3) Real time processing 4) Both 1 and 2 5) Both 2 and 3
58. The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and
those without this access is known as the
1) Digital divide 2) Internet divide 3) Web divide
4) Broadband divide 5) None of these

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59. __________ is the study of molecules and structures whose size ranges from 1 to
100 Nanometers?
1) Nanoscience 2) Microelectrodes
3) Computer Forensics 4) Artificial intelligence 5) None of these
60. Which of the following statements best describes the batch method of input?
1) Data is processed as soon as it is input.
2) Data is input at the time it is collected.
3) Data is collected in the form of source documents, placed into groups, and then
input to the computer.
4) Source documents are not used. 5) None of these
61. _________ view shows that how will content on printed page, along with footer and
margin header appear.
1) Draft 2) Full screen reading 3) Outline
4) Page layout 5) Print Preview

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62. After slide-directed time, if you want to move ahead automatically, click in ______
check box in transition of this slide group in tab of animations
1) Transition timer 2) Automatically opter 3) Transition opter
4) Automatic timer 5) None of these
63. Which of the following is an example of an optical disk?
1) Digital versatile disks 2) Magnetic disks
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3) Memory disks
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To make a notebook act as a desktop model, the notebook can be connected to a
__________ which is connected to a monitor and other devices.
1) Bay 2) Docking station 3) Port
65.
4) Network

E 5) None of these
Which of the following views is present in Power Point?
1) Document view 2) Slide sorter view 3) Slide changer view
d
4) Play slide view 5) None of these
66. _____ makes available the commands to righten the software. Instructions are
translated step-by-step and executed by the processor so that some objective can
be achieved or some problem can be solved.
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1) Software patch 2) AI language 3) Presentation language

4) Programming language 5) None of these
67. Straight and uniform margins on both the slides indicate that there is ____ in the
document.
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1) Full justification 2) Full alignment 3) Left justification
4) Right justification 5) None of these
68. Among the typical computer programming languages used today, the following is
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not included in ___

1) C++ 2) JAVA 3) Visual [Link]
4) Machine language 5) None of these
69. A connection between two end points, either physical or logical, over which data
may travel in both directions simultaneously is called _______
1) Dump point 2) Data link 3) Duplex 4) Networks 5) None of these
70. Which one of the following is not a broadband communication medium?
1) Microwave 2) Fiber optic cable 3) Twisted pair
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4) Coaxial cable 5) None of these
71. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes:
1) Data redundancy 2) Information overload
3) Duplicate data 4) Data Inconsistency 5) None of these
72. _______ are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use
1) Control words 2) Reserved words 3) Control structures
4) Reserved keys 5) None of these
73. Granting an outside organization access to internet web pages is often implemented
using a (n) ______
1) Extranet 2) Intranet 3) Internet 4) Hacker 5) None of these
74. To what temporary area can you store text and other data, and later paste them
to another location?
1) The clipboard 2) ROM 3) CD­ROM 4) The hard disk 5) None of these
75. Press __________ to move the insertion point to the address box, or to highlight
the URL in the address box.
1) Alt+ D 2) Alt+ A 3) Shift+ Tab 4) Tab+ Ctrl 5) None of these
76. Which of the following is a popular programming language for developing multimedia
web pages, websites and web based applications?
1) COBOL 2) Java 3) BASIC 4) Assembler 5) None of these
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77. MICR technology used for clearance of cheques by banks refers to

1) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
2) Magnetic Intelligence Character Recognition
3) Magnetic Information Cable Recognition
4) Magnetic Insurance Cases Recognition 5) None of these
78. The capability of the operating system to enable two or more than two instructions
to execute simultaneously in a single computer system by using multiple CPUs is
1) Multitasking 2) Multiprogramming 3) Multiprocessing
4) Multi execution 5) None of these
79. DOS cannot retrieve any data from a disk if a computer virus corrupts the ________
of the computer.
1) Directory area 2) Data area 3) BAT files
4) File allocation table 5) Root directory area

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80. IEEE _______ is the standard for token bus.
1) 802.3 2) 802.4 3) 802.5 4) 802.2 5) 802.6
GENERAL AWARENESS
81. The Watershed Yatra outreach campaign, under the WDC-PMKSY 2.0 program,
aims to promote sustainable watershed management across India. According to
official government data, approximately how many Gram Panchayats (GPs) are
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targeted for inclusion in this initiative?
1) 10,500 GPs 2) 5,000 GPs 3) 8,673 GPs 4) 6,673 GPs 5) 7,850 GPs
82. The "Frontier Seed" program was launched by which international financial institution
to boost private sector growth and economic resilience in the Pacific region?
1) World Bank

E
3) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
2) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
4) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
d
5) European Investment Bank (EIB)
83. As per the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI),
what is the minimum paid-up capital required for registering a life, general, or
health insurance company in India?
ee

1) 100 crores 2) 125 crores 3) 200 crores 4) 250 crores 5) 300 crores
84. What is the name of the program launched by the Ministry of Skill Development
and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) to promote women entrepreneurship?
1) Shakti Udyam 2) Mahila Vikas Yojana
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3) Udyam Sakhi 4) Nari Shakti Abhiyan 5) Swavalambini
85. The usage of credit cards in India has grown significantly over the past few years.
Between December 2019 and December 2024, the number of credit cards in
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circulation more than doubled, and the annual growth rate of credit card usage
remained consistent. What has been the approximate year-on-year (YoY) growth
rate in credit card usage during this period?
1) 8% 2) 12% 3) 15% 4) 20% 5) 25%
86. The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) recently issued an alert against
illegal payment gateways created using mule bank accounts by transnational
organised cyber criminals facilitating money laundering as a service. I4C has
been established under which of the following Ministry?
C
1) Ministry of Defence 2) Ministry of Home Affairs
3) Ministry of Finance 4) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
5) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
87. In December, Indian cricket team spinner Ravichandran Ashwin announced his
retirement from international cricket, he is the second-highest wicket-taker for
India in Tests, who is the highest?
1) Anil Kumble 2) Kapil Dev 3) Harbhajan Singh
4) Javagal Srinath 5) Zaheer Khan
88. Consider the following statements regarding the Senior Citizen Savings Scheme (SCSS).
I) The scheme is available to Indian citizens aged 60 years and above.
II) Retirees aged 55-60 years can invest in SCSS within one month of receiving
retirement benefits.
III) Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) and Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs) are eligible
to invest in SCSS.
IV) The maximum deposit limit under SCSS is Rs.30 lakh.
V) The interest rate under SCSS is fixed at 8.2% for the entire 5-year tenure.
Which of the statements given above is/are Incorrect?
1) Only (II) and (III) 2) Only (II) and (V) 3) Only (V)
4) Only (II) 5) Only (III) and (V)

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89. Who has recently been chosen for the Malliyoor Shankar Smriti Award instituted
in memory of noted Sanskrit scholar and Bhagavatham exponent late Malliyoor
Sankaran Namboothiri.
1) Dr. V. Narayanan 2) Ritu Karidhal
3) Muthayya Vanitha 4) S Somanath 5) Shaktikanta Das
90. What is the name of SBI's newly launched collateral-free digital SME loan product
for women entrepreneurs?
1) SBI Stree Shakti 2) SBI Udyogini
3) SBI Asmita 4) SBI Mahila Vikas 5) SBI Shakti
91. According to the "Women and Men in India 2024" report, what percentage of females
aged 15-59 years participated in employment and related activities during 2024?
1) 21.8% 2) 25% 3) 30% 4) 35% 5) 40%
92. The International Buddhist Confederation (IBC) is set to launch the Lord Buddha

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Trination Triservices Expedition, a historic initiative uniting the armed forces of
India, Nepal, and which other country?
1) Sri Lanka 2) Bhutan 3) Maldives 4) China 5) Indonesia
93. In 2025, an Indian environmentalist became the first from the country to receive
the Ramsar Award in the ‘Wetland Wise Use’ category for their efforts in wetland
restoration and biodiversity conservation. Who is this recipient?
1) Ramesh Kumar 2) Jayshree Vencatesan 3) Sunita Narai
4) Rajendra Singh
ha 5) M.S. Swaminathan
94. Agricultural Infrastructure Fund (AIF) Scheme is a flagship program launched by
the Government of India in 2020 to provide financing for agricultural infrastructure
projects. What is the maximum loan amount provided under the AIF Scheme?

E
1) Rs.50 lakh 2) Rs.1 crore 3) Rs.2 crore 4) Rs.5 crore 5) Rs.10 crore
95. Which feature in BHIM 3.0 enables merchants to accept payments seamlessly within
their own platforms, eliminating the need for customers to switch to third-party apps?
d
1) BHIM Embedded Pay 2) BHIM Vega
3) BHIM DirectPay 4) BHIM Smart Checkout 5) BHIM Merchant Connect
96. Consider the following statements regarding the PM E-DRIVE Scheme.
I) PM Electric Drive Revolution in Innovative Vehicle Enhancement (PM E-DRIVE)
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scheme has an outlay of Rs 10,900 crore over a period of two years for promotion
of electric mobility in the country.
II) Under this scheme an adhaar-authenticated e-voucher will be issued to avail
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demand incentives.
III) The scheme allocates Rs 3,679 crore to incentivise the purchase of electric
two-wheelers (e-2Ws), three-wheelers (e-3Ws), electric ambulances, trucks, and
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other emerging EV categories.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1) (I) and (II) only 2) (II) only 3) (III) only
4) (I), (II) and (III) 5) (I) and (III) only
97. As per the Union Budget 2025-26, how many first-time women entrepreneurs
from SC/ST communities are targeted to receive financial support under the new
scheme over the next five years?
1) 10 lakh 2) 5 lakh 3) 2.5 lakh 4) 1 lakh 5) 50,000
98. Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA)
C
works under which ministry of India?
1) Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare
2) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting 3) Ministry of External Affairs
4) Ministry of Commerce and Industry 5) Ministry of Cooperation
99. According to the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI), India
was the second-largest arms importer during 2020-24. By what percentage did
its arms imports decrease compared to 2015-19?
1) 5.2% 2) 7.8% 3) 9.3% 4) 10.5% 5) 12.1%
100. The Reserve Bank of India’s Digital Payment Index (RBI-DPI) is a benchmark
index introduced to measure the growth and adoption of digital payments in India
over time. It tracks digital payment trends based on multiple parameters, providing
insights into the country's digital financial ecosystem. How frequently does the
RBI publish the Digital Payment Index (RBI-DPI) updates?
1) Quarterly 2) Annually 3) Biannually 4) Monthly 5) Once in Five Years
101. HDFC Bank has introduced the Embassy Fixed Deposit scheme for diplomatic
missions and staff. In which currency are deposits accepted under this scheme?
1) Only in Indian Rupees (INR) 2) Only in Euros (EUR)
3) Only in British Pounds (GBP) 4) Only in US Dollars (USD)
5) In multiple foreign currencies including USD, GBP, and EUR
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102. Which of the following is NOT a component of the Digital Agriculture Mission
(DAM) launched by the Union Cabinet under PM Narendra Modi?
1) Creation of an Agri Stack including Farmers Registry and Crop Sown Registry
2) Krishi Decision Support System leveraging geospatial and weather data
3) Genetic Improvement for Food and Fodder Crops under Crop Science Initiatives
4) Expansion of the Minimum Support Price (MSP) scheme for all crops
5) Strengthening of Krishi Vigyan Kendras for agricultural research and education
103. Recently, the Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises, in partnership
with the Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC), has announced the launch
of MSME Trade Enablement and Marketing (TEAM) initiative to enable small and
micro enterprises to join ONDC. With reference to MSME Trade Enablement and
Marketing (TEAM) Initiative, consider the following.
I) It has been launched under the "Raising and Accelerating MSME Productivity

r’s
(RAMP)" Programme.
II) It will focus on onboarding 3 lakh micro and small enterprises, with 60 per cent
of these being women-led businesses.
III) Over 150 workshops will be held across Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities, targeting key
MSME clusters, with special attention to women and SC/ST-led enterprises.
Which of the statements given above is/are Incorrect?
1) Only (II) and (III)
4) Only (III)
ha 2) Only (I) and (II)
5) All (I), (II) and (III)
3) Only (II)

104. In January 2025, India has signed five MoUs related to Health, Security, Cultural

E
Program and Digital Development with which country?
1) Denmark 2) Indonesia 3) Finland 4) Russia
105. Which Indian think tank launched the policy report "Expanding Quality Higher
5) Malaysia
d
Education through States and State Public Universities"?
1) Centre for Policy Research (CPR)
2) Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR)
ee

3) Observer Research Foundation (ORF) 4) NITI Aayog

5) National Institute of Public Finance and Policy (NIPFP)
106. Which of the following risks are covered under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima
Yojana (PMFBY)?
C
I) Loss due to natural calamities like drought, floods, and cyclones.
II) Post-harvest losses caused by cyclones and unseasonal rains.
III) Losses due to war and nuclear risks.
Sr

IV) Crop losses due to pest and disease attacks.

Select the correct option:
1) Only (I) and (II) 2) Only (I), (II), and (IV)
3) Only (III) and (IV) 4) Only (II) and (III) 5) All (I), (II), (III), and (IV)
107. Recently, which housing finance company has entered into a partnership with
the National Housing Bank (NHB) to advance the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana
(PMAY) vision of ‘Housing for All’?
C
1) Muthoot Homefin (India) Limited
2) Aditya Birla Housing Finance Limited 3) Bajaj Housing Finance Limited
4) Mahindra Rural Housing Finance Limited
5) Tata Capital Housing Finance Limited
108. Who launched the enhanced Certificate of Origin (eCoO 2.0) System to simplify
the certification process for exporters and enhance trade efficiency?
1) Directorate General of Foreign Trade
2) Federation of Indian Export Organisations 3) Ministry of External Affairs
4) Indian Trade Promotion Organisation 5) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
109. Recently, India hosted the International Institute of Administrative Sciences (IIAS)
and the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG)
India Conference 2025 in New Delhi. What was the theme of the IIAS-DARPG
India Conference 2025?
1) Public Administration and Governance
2) Next Generation Administrative Reforms Empowering Citizens and Reaching
the Last Mile
3) Innovations in Public Service Delivery
4) Digital Transformation in Government 5) Citizen-Centric Governance
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110. Which company has partnered with the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) under
the ‘Adopt a Heritage 2.0 Programme’ to restore and protect historic water bodies
at heritage sites across India?
1) Hindustan Unilever 2) Tata Group 3) PepsiCo
4) ITC Limited 5) Bisleri International
111. India recently joined the prestigious UN Committee of Experts on Big Data and
Data Science for Official Statistics (UN-CEBD). In which year was this committee
established?
1) 2010 2) 2012 3) 2014 4) 2016 5) 2018
112. Sovereign Gold Bonds are government securities denominated in grams of gold.
They are substitutes for holding physical gold. What is the maximum limit of gold
an individual can purchase?
1) 10kg 2) 5kg 3) 2kg 4) 4kg 5) 7.5kg

r’s
113. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India recently partnered with which
institute to enhance auditing using GIS and remote sensing technologies?
1) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
2) Bhaskaracharya National Institute of Space Application and Geo-informatics
(BISAG-N)
3) National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC)
4) Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
ha
5) Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Delhi
114. India has signed a $248 million deal with which Russian company to acquire
advanced 1,000 horsepower engines for its T-72 battle tanks?

E
1) United Engine Corporation 2) Uralvagonzavod
3) Rosoboronexport 4) Sukhoi Corporation 5) Rostec
115. As part of its development partnership, India sent machinery valued at USD 1
d
million to a South American country to enhance its passion fruit industry. Which
country received this support?
1) Suriname 2) Argentina 3) Brazil 4) Peru 5) Colombia
116. Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) General Anil Chauhan inaugurated Asia’s largest
ee

intercollegiate technology and entrepreneurship festival, Techkriti 2025, at which

institution on 28 March 2025?
1) Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Delhi
2) Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Mumbai
C
3) Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Kanpur
4) Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Chennai
5) Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Kharagpur
Sr

117. The Lok Sabha recently approved Demands for Grants for the financial year 2025-
26, allocating funds for various ministries and government programs. What is the
total amount sanctioned?
1) Rs.25 lakh crore 2) Rs.50 lakh crore
3) Rs.30 lakh crore 4) Rs.60 lakh crore 5) Rs.75 lakh crore
118. In the latest Global Financial Centers Index (GFCI 37), Gujarat International
Finance Tec-City (GIFT City) improved its ranking from 52nd to which position?
1) 40th 2) 42nd 3) 46th 4) 50th 5) 35th
C
119. On which date is World Theatre Day celebrated annually to honor theatre artists
and performing arts?
1) March 27 2) March 29 3) March 20 4) April 1 5) April 2
120. Who was appointed as the Chairman of the Board of the Global System for Mobile
Communications Association (GSMA) in March 2025?
1) Mukesh Ambani 2) Gopal Vittal
3) Sunil Bharti Mittal 4) N. Chandrasekaran 5) Satya Nadella
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (121- 124): In this question, words A, B, C and D are given in bold. If
two of these words are interchanged, the Sentence will be meaningful and
grammatically correct. Identify the pair of words. If all the words are appropriate,
then mark ‘All are Correct’ as your answer.
121. Despite (A) / significant about the long term (B) / driving of the Make in India
initiative, data shows (C) scepticism progress over the years and the production-
linked incentive scheme, introduced in 2020, has been a major (D) sustainability
force behind Make in India.
1) BADC 2) DACB 3) CADB 4) CABD 5) All are correct.
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122. The Indian Army is preparing for a (A) / combat evaluation of companies vying to
build the Future Ready (B) / Comprehensive Vehicle, a (C) / aimed programme
(D) / critical at replacing the aging T-72 Main Battle Tanks by 2030.
1) DACB 2) BADC 3) CABD 4) CADB 5) All are correct.
123. The advent of computing technology in India (A) / distinction a significant milestone
in the nation’s scientific and technological (B) / developed and the Tata Institute
of Fundamental Research Automatic Calculator holds the (C) / marked of being
the first computer (D) / advancement in India.
1) CADB 2) CABD 3) BADC 4) DACB 5) All are correct.
124. The government’s move of (A) / restrictions the ban on overseas shipments of
white rice is (B) / slump to help reopen 500 rice mills in West Bengal which had
been closed for the past one year due to a (C) / expected in demand in the wake

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of export (D) / removing.
1) BADC 2) DACB 3) CADB 4) CABD 5) All are correct.
Directions (125-130): In the passage given below, there are blanks, each preceded
by a word given in bold. Every blank has four alternative words given in options
(A), (B), (C) and (D). Find the word which best suits the place. If the given word
suits the blank, mark 'no correction required' as the answer.
ha
Gorelal was a famous sculptor. His sculptures looked original ______(125)
ones. One day he saw a dream that after fifteen days, the demon of Death would
come to take him. Gorelal prepared nine statues of himself and when on the 15th

E
day he heard the Demon of Death coming, he took his place among the statues.
The Demon could not identify him and was shocked ______(126) to see ten
Gorelals instead of one. He rushed back to the God of Death and told the matter.
d
The God of Death got annoyed _______(127) and set out to take Gorelal himself.
Gorelal was alert and stood motionless. The God of Death initially got planned
________(128) But he thought for a moment. He told Gorelal that those sculptures
ee

would have been perfect but for one mistake. Gorelal was unable to suffer the
least flaw _______(129) in his work. He came out and asked where the fault was.
God of Death engulfed _______(130) him and said that the fault was there. The
statues were faultless but Gorelal was caught because of his pride.
C
125. 1) real 2) true 3) exact 4) perfect 5) No correction is required.
126. 1) astonished 2)stunned 3) surprised 4) wondered 5) No correction is required.
Sr

127. 1) vexed 2) irritated 3) angered 4) frustrated 5) No correction is required.

128. 1) perplexed 2) puzzled 3) confused 4) concerted 5) No correction is required.
129. 1) blemish 2) fault 3) mistake 4) default 5) No correction is required.
130. 1) held 2) gripped 3) caught 4) embraced 5) No correction is required.
Direction (131-133): Which of the connectives (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) given below each
sentence should be used in the blank to make the sentence grammatically correct?
131. The Supreme Court takes into account traditional aspects and beliefs and is not
guided by logic alone because devotees worship their deities ……… their beliefs.
C
1) in contrast with 2) in accordance with 3) in addition to
4) for this reason 5) by dint of
132. Society does not understand that literature is …………………… a reconsideration
of life and if it did, it would try to reconsider the writing even if it did not like it.
1) more over 2) in this case 3) nothing but 4) to sum up 5) nothing than
133. A quarter of India’s households have no electricity and India’s literary level is at
74 per cent; India’s infant mortality rate is 43 per thousand; …………………………
our leaders say that India is shining in all the sectors.
1) whereas 2) however 3) in particular 4) for instance 5) on the whole
Direction (134-138): Select the phrase /connector from the given three options
which can be used to form a sentence from the statement given below, implying
the same meaning as expressed in the statement.
134. The fiscal 2022– 2023 has the highest GDP of 7.5% of all in this decade.
A) Very few fiscals ……………………………
B) No other fiscal in this decade ……………………………..
C) ……………………… higher GDP ………………….. any other ……………….
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (C) 4) Only (B) and (C) 5) None of these
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135. Had I been there with you at the time of assault, I could have saved you.
A)I was with you ………………………………….…………………
B) It all happened in my absence otherwise…………………………………………
C) I could not save you because …………………………………..……………….
1) (B) and (C) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (C) 4) Only (A) and (B) 5) None of these
136. As soon as she taught the lesson in the class-room, the teacher asked the
pupils questions on it.
A) Having taught the lesson, ………………………………………..……………………………
B) The pupils were ………………………………………………………………………………..
C) No sooner had the pupils ………………………………………………………………………
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (C) 4) Only (A) and (B) 5) None of these
137. After the completion of your degree course, you should have tried for a
government job.

r’s
A)You did not try for a government job ……………………………
B) You did not complete degree course and you did not try for a job.
C) You tried for a job but you did not complete the degree course.
1) (B) and (C) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (A) 2) Only (A) and (B) 5) None of these
138. Virat Kohli did not play so well in the second innings as he played in the first innings.
A) Virat Kohli played well in both the innings.
ha
B) Virat Kohli did not play well in both the innings.
C) Virat Kohli played the first innings better than the second innings.
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Only (C) 4) Only (B) and (C) 5) None of these
Directions (139 - 143): In each of these questions, two sentences (A) and (B) are

E
given. Each sentence has as blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are
suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in the context of each
sentence. Number of that word is the answer.
d
139. A. There is nothing new in his ideas; they are -----------------.
B. This is an ----------------- of the article published in the news-paper yesterday.
1) excellence 2) abstract 3) introduction 4) essence 5) order
ee

140. A. She wore many ------------------ which match her sari well.
B. These two are the ------------------ in the murder of the village headman.
1) abettors 2) accomplices 3) accessories 4) companions 5) acquaintances
141. A. All his friends congratulated him on his --------------- of winning the elections.
C
B. Painting pictures of scenery is one of his ---------------.
1) acquirements 2) allowances 3) achievements 4) advancements 5) sadvantages
142. A. I have withdrawn all the amount out of my ------------------ in the bank.
Sr

B. Your friend has given us a good ------------------ of your success in the career.
1) reason 2)ncredit 3)account 4) receipt 5) document
143. A. My neighbour, Mr. Ramana is an ------; we all respect him for his various skills.
B. He always succeeds because he has an ----------------- in his sleeve.
1) age 2) advice 3) ace 4) ache 5) Acne
Directions (144- 147): In the question given below some of the part has been
highlighted. You have to find the part which is not highlighted and is both
grammatically and contextually correct. Ensure that the meaning of the statement
C
remains unchanged.
144. Yesterday, the finance-minister began his pre-budget consultative meeting
process by separately meeting representatives of agriculture groups and trade
union groups and he said that there was a need to conserve water, incentive
agro processing and promote balanced use of fertilizers in order to ensuring
higher agriculture productivity.
1) Yesterday, the finance minister began
2) by separately meeting representatives of agriculture groups
3) and he said that there was a need to conserve water,
4) in order to ensure higher agriculture productivity. 5) No Error
145. The Federation of Indian Export Organization, the apex body for exporters in the
country suggested the government to extend incentives announced under Foreign
Trade Policy to all the goods export sectors and currently the incentives cover
about 8000 of the approximately 12000 tariff lines.
1) The Federation of Indian Export Organization,
2) suggested the government that it should extend incentives
3) announced under Foreign Trade Policy to all the goods export sectors
4) about 8000 of the approximately 5) No Error
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146. The ruling party has to give us a long account about its tall promises to abolish
poverty, uplifting downtrodden people, ensure fair wages, overcome
unemployment and ensure corruption-free government and India will not forgive
and forget the multitude of scams that happened under the both parties’ rule.
1) The ruling party has to give us a long account
2) uplifting drown-trodden people, 3) and ensure corruption-free government
4) that happened under both parties’ rule. 5) No Error
147. Studies in India about risk factors for major diseases have shown that 50% of
smoker fatality is on account of the habits of tobacco smoking and chewing and
this category has a short life expectancy when compared to a non-smoker; tobacco
smoking is a risk factor in developing cardiovascular disease, stroke, cancer
and lung diseases.

r’s
1) Studies in India about risk factors for major diseases have shown
2) is on account of the habits of tobacco
3) and this category has a short life expectancy
4) tobacco smoking is a risk factor in developing 5) No error
148. The centre has urged the Fifteenth Finance Commission to finalize its tax-
devolution formula after factoring in the impact on union fiscal situation, keeping
ha
in mind the continuing imperative of the national development programme
including with New India – 2022 and taken together with its need for resources
for essential spending in areas such as defence, security, infrastructure and
climate change, the centre seems to be seeking a roll back of the 42 % share for states.

E
1) after factoring in the impact on union fiscal situation,
2) including with New India – 2020 and
3) such as defence, security, infrastructure and climate change,
d
4) a roll back of the 42 % share for states. 5) No Error
Directions (149- 150): In the following questions a part of sentence is given bold,
it is then followed by three sentences which try to explain the meaning of the
ee

phrase given in bold. Choose the best set of alternatives from the five options
given below each question which explains the meaning of the phrase correctly
without altering the meaning of the sentence given as question.
C
149. Ex-President of America, Donald Trump seemed sure that foreign rulers realized he
was serious about putting America first and calculate the cost of defying him, they
would swallow their pride and obey and he was oddly incurious about foreign publics.
Sr

(1) Ex-President of America, Donald Trump seemed sure that foreign rulers realized
he was serious about putting America first and calculate the cost of defying him, they
would extend their support and obey and he was oddly incurious about foreign publics.
(2) Ex-President of America, Donald Trump seemed sure that foreign rulers realized
he was serious about putting America first and calculate the cost of defying him,
they would refrain from expressing their opinions and obey and he was oddly
incurious about foreign publics.
(3) Ex-President of America, Donald Trump seemed sure that foreign rulers realized
C
he was serious about putting America first and calculate the cost of defying him,
they would express their antipathy and obey and he was oddly incurious about
foreign publics.
1) only (1) is correct 2) only (2) is correct
3) both (1) and (2) are correct 4) both (2) and (3) are correct
5) all are correct
150. Ram Nath Kovind, a longtime devotee of a Hindu group allied with the party from
the bottom rung of the ladder and also a dalit in India’s caste system.
(1) Ram Nath Kovind, a longtime devotee of a Hindu group allied with the party
from the low level of the positions and also a dalit in India’s caste system.
(2) Ram Nath Kovind, a longtime devotee of a Hindu group allied with the party
from the official cadre of the government and also a dalit in India’s caste system.
(3) Ram Nath Kovind, a longtime devotee of a Hindu group allied with the party
from the coterie of the prime-minister and also a dalit in India’s caste system.
1) only (1) is correct 2) only (2) is correct
3) both (1) and (2) are correct 4) both (2) and (3) are correct
5) all are correct

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Directions (151-155): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
following questions based on the given passage.
Devices have been used to aid computation for thousands of years, probably
initially in the form of a tally stick. The Antikythera mechanism, dating from
about the beginning of the first century BC, is generally considered to be the
earliest known mechanical analog computer and the earliest known geared
mechanism. Comparable geared devices did not emerge in Europe until the 16th
century, and it was not until 1645 that the first mechanical calculator capable of
performing the four basic arithmetical operations was developed. Electronic
computers, using either relays or valves, began to appear in the early 1940s. The
electromechanical Zuse Z3, completed in 1941, was the world's first programmable
computer, and by modern standards one of the first machines that could be
considered a complete computing machine. Colossus, developed during the Second

r’s
World War to decrypt German messages, was the first electronic digital computer.
Although it was programmable, it was not general-purpose, being designed to
perform only a single task. It also lacked the ability to store its program in memory;
programming was carried out using plugs and switches to alter the internal wiring.
The first recognizably modern electronic digital stored-program computer was the
Manchester Baby, which ran its first program on 21 June 1948. The development
ha
of transistors in the late 1940s at Bell Laboratories allowed a new generation of
computers to be designed with greatly reduced power consumption. The first
commercially available stored-program computer, the Ferranti Mark I, contained
4050 valves and had a power consumption of 25 kilowatts. By comparison the first

E
transistorized computer, developed at the University of Manchester and operational
by November 1953, consumed only 150 watts in its final version. Several later
breakthroughs in semiconductor technology include the integrated circuit
d
invented by Jack Kilby at Texas Instruments and Robert Noyce at Fairchild
Semiconductor in 1959, the metal-oxide-semiconductor field-effect transistor
invented by Mohamed Atalla and Dawon Kahng at Bell Laboratories in 1959, and
ee

the microprocessor invented by Ted Hoff, Federico Faggin, Masatoshi Shima and
Stanley Mazor at Intel in 1971. These important inventions led to the development
of the personal computer in the 1970s and the emergence of information and
C
communications technology.
151. What was the purpose of developing ‘Colossus’?
I. to store a programme in memory II. to decrypt German messages
Sr

III. to develop information and communication technology

1) Only (I) 2) Only (II) 3) Only (III) 4) Both (I) and (II) 5) All (I),(II)and(III)
152. Which of the following fact or facts is / are correct as per the given passage?
I. There were many programmable computers before the electromechanical Zuse Z3.
II. Comparable geared devices emerged in Europe before 16th century.
III. The first mechanical calculator capable of performing the four basic arithmetic
operations was developed after 1645.
1) Only (III) 2) Only (II) 3) Both (II & III)
C
4) Both (I) and (III) 5) All (I),(II)and(III)
153. What were the important inventions led to the development of the personal computer?
I. Ted Hoff’s microprocessor II. Jack Kilby’s integrated circuit
III. Mohammad Atalla’s and Dawon Kahng’s metal-oxide semi-conductor field effect
transistor
1) Only (I) 2) Only ( I& II) 3) Only (III)
4) Both (II) and (III) 5) All (I)(II)and(III)
154. What was the result of the development of transistors?
[Link] allow a new generation of computers to be designed with greatly reduced
power consumption
[Link] develop the personal computer for the emergence of information and
communications technology
[Link] recognize modern electronic digital stored programme computer
1) Only (I) 2) Only ( I& II) 3) Only (III) 4) Both (II) and (III) 5) All (I)(II)and(III)
155. What was the first commercial stored programme computer?
I. Manchester Baby II. The Ferranti Mark I III. Colossus
1) Only (I) 2) Only ( I& II) 3) Only (III)
4) Both (II) and (III) 5) All (I)(II)and(III)
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Directions (156-160): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
following questions based on the given passage.
North-eastern India’s hilly areas have always suffered scarcity of drinking
water, as there is little water retention. Rain water run-off is rapid and many
springs and streams drying up when during dry seasons. North-eastern states
with large tribal populations living in scattered rural settlements have been
dependent on natural water sources for a long time. Water from natural sources
such as springs is usually clear. It also has health benefits as minerals get
dissolved in water and moves through underground rocks. Springs containing
significant amount of minerals are sometime known as ‘mineral springs’. Women
in these areas face significant challenges as they are forced to move downwards
from hilly areas in search of fresh water. In Mizoram, Meghalaya, Nagaland and

r’s
Tripura, people store and harvest rain water through traditional means. A method
known as ‘rooftop harvesting’ — in which rain water is collected in tanks — is
used. This water can be used for direct consumption and for recharging
groundwater through simple filtration devices. This stored water is used for
drinking, gardening, irrigation and many other purposes. Rain water harvesting
is one of the most effective methods of water management and water conservation.
ha
As rainfall is usually unevenly distributed throughout the year, rain water collection
methods serve as the only supplementary sources of household water. It is also
one of ……………A……………… alternatives for supplying freshwater in the face of
increasing water scarcity and escalating demand in rural and urban areas. It is a

E
sustainable form of utilisation of water without endangering the survival of future
generations. In states like Meghalaya, stream and spring water flows through
bamboo pipes. They are used to divert perennial springs on hilltops to lower reaches.
d
This system is used by tribal farmers in Meghalaya’s Khasi and Jaintia hills to
drip-irrigate their cultivation. Rooftop rain water harvesting is the most common
practice in state capital Shillong. The Meghalaya government’s focus lies on rain
ee

water harvesting as there is a shortage of potable water in the state. In Mizoram,

to solve the problem of water scarcity in hilly areas, the state government extends
help in constructing water tanks which can harvest rain water. Although Mizoram
C
receives annual rainfall of 250 centimetres, people in hilly areas usually suffer
from water scarcity as rain water runs off quickly down steep mountain slopes.
Mizoram and Nagaland use an indigenous system of conservation of rain water
Sr

known as the ‘Zabo’ or ‘Ruza’ system. In this system, rain water is collected and
stored in catchments along mountain slopes for irrigation and other purposes. The
system combines water conservation with forestry, agriculture and animal care.
156. Which of the following statements are true about rooftop harvesting?
I. It is a method in which rain water is collected in tanks.
II. The water collected through this method can be used for direct consumption.
III. People in Mizoram, Meghalaya, Nagaland and Tripura use this method to store
and harvest rain water.
C
1) Only (I) 2)Only (II) 3)Only (III)
4) Both (II) and (III) 5)All (I),(II)and(III)
157. Which of the following facts are correct as per the given passage?
I. Mizoram receives annual rainfall of 250 centimetres.
II. Rooftop rain water harvesting is the most common practice in state capital of Mizoram.
III. In states like Meghalaya, stream and spring water flows through bamboo pipes.
1) Only (I) 2) Only (II) 3) Only (III)
4) Both (I) and (III) 5) All (I),(II)and(III)
158. How the Mizoram state government extended help in solving the problem of water
scarcity in hilly areas?
1) The government provided a water pipeline to every household.
2) By constructing water tanks which can harvest rain water.
3) By digging wells which can store rain water.
4) Both (1) and (2) 5) Both (2) and (3)
159. Which of the following phrase is most suitable to fill the blank (A)?
1) the most performing 2) the most promising 3)the most intending
4) the most interesting 5) the most considering

15
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 1

160. What are the advantages/disadvantages of natural water resources?

1) Water from natural sources such as springs is usually unclear.
2) It also has health benefits as minerals get dissolved in water.
3)Women are forced to move downwards from hilly areas in search of natural water.
4) Both (2) and (3) 5) All (1), (2) and (3)
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Direction (161-165): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given question.
The following table shows the total number of students who appeared for the
examination from colleges P and Q and the percentage of failed students
among them in 5 different years. Some values are missing here.

r’s
Total appeared
Total appeared
students from
Year students from Fail Fail
college Q
college P

2018 - 16% 650 -

2019 750 - 520 15%
2020
2021
ha800
950
15%
12%
-
750
10%
-
2022 1050 - 980 20%

E
161. Find the average number of students who appeared for the examination from
college Q in all the given years together, if the number of passed students from
d
college Q in the year 2020 is 594.
1) 712 2) 722 3) 745 4) 756 5) 788
162. Find the difference between the number of students who passed the examination
ee

from college P in the year 2019, 2020 and 2021 together to that of the number of
students who passed the examination from college Q in the year 2018,2020 and
2022 together, if the percentage of passed students from college P and college Q
in the year 2019 and 2018 is 90% and 88% respectively and failed students from
C
college Q in the year 2020 is 76.
1) 133 2) 245 3) 151 4) 155 5) 256
163. Find the ratio of the total number of failed students from college P in the year
Sr

2021 to that of the total number of failed students from college Q in the year
2022.
1) 44:47 2) 57:98 3) 34:73 4) 11:47 5) 12:37
164. Find the difference between the total number of students who appeared for the
examination from college P in the year 2018 and 2020 together and the total
number of students appeared for the examination from college Q in the year 2019
and 2021 together, if the passed students from college P in the year 2018 is 630.
C
1) 280 2) 380 3) 480 4) 580 5) 680
165. The total number of passed students from college Q in the year 2021 is
approximately what percentage of the total number of passed students from
college P in the year 2022, if the percentage of failed students from college Q in
the year 2021 and that of college P in the year 2022 is 24% and 28% respectively?
(Two decimal value)
1) 75.39 2) 84.55 3) 43.67 4) 63.34 5) 92.56
Direction (166-170): Study the data carefully and answer the following questions.
Rakesh, Rahul and Raju enter into a partnership with initial investments of
Rs.14000, Rs.12000 and Rs.16000 respectively and after 6 months Ramesh join
them with an initial investment of Rs.20000. Further 6 months, both Rakesh and
Ramesh again invested Rs.4000 more into the business. Further, 6 months later
Ravi join them with an initial investment of Rs.25000.
166. If at the end of 2.5 years, the profit earned by Ramesh is what percent more or
less than the profit earned by Rahul?
1 1 1 1 1
1) 53 % more 2) 53 % less 3) 43 % more 4) 43 % less 5) 33 % more
3 3 3 3 3
16
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 1

167. If at the end of the two years, the total profit received by them is Rs.134500, then the
profit earned by Rakesh is how much more or less than the profit earned by Ravi?
1) 12300 2) 13300 3) 14400 4) 15600 5) 19500
168. If at the end of 2 years, the profit earned by Rahul is Rs.96000, then what is the
difference between the profit earned by Rakesh and Ramesh?
1) 5000 2) 6000 3) 7000 4) 8000 5) 9000
169. If at the end of 2 years, the difference between the profit earned by Ravi and
Rahul is Rs.5750, then what is the total profit earned by them?
1) 85640 2) 67250 3) 73890 4) 53440 5) 62110
170. If at the end of 2.5 years, 30% of profit earned by Rakesh from the total profit of
Rs.18200 gives to charity and the remaining spend on shopping and fuel in the
ratio of 3:7, then how much amount is spend on fuel?

r’s
1) 2009 2) 2100 3)2140 4) 2015 5) 2020
Direction (171-175): In the given question two quantities are given, one as
Quantity I and another as Quantity II. You have to determine relationship
between two Quantities and choose the appropriate option.
171. Qunaitty I: The difference between the ages of X and Y is 6 years. Three years
later, the sum of their ages will be 40 years, then how old was X, 5 years ago?
ha
Quantity II: Two years later, P’s age will be two third of Q’s age at that time. The
sum of their present ages is 26 years. What is the present age of P?
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II

E
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relation can’t be determined
172. Speed of a boat in still water is 15 km/h. The boat can cover a distance of 126 km
d
in a river and return to its initial position in 20 hrs.
Quantity I: The distance covered by the boat (in km) with the river current in 5
hrs when the speed of the boat in still water is increased by 24%.
ee

Quantity II: The distance covered by the boat (in km) against the river current in
14 hrs when the speed of the boat in still water is decreased by 10%.
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
C
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relation can’t be determined
173. Quantity I: In a rack, there are 10 science books, 5 social books and x English
Sr

books. One book is picked up randomly, the probability that is neither science
1
books nor English books is , then what is the value of x?
4
Quantity II: 5
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relation can’t be determined
C
16 th
174. There are three numbers P, Q and R such that sum of P and R is of the value
5
of Q. The ratio of twice the value of P and five times the value of Q is 7:10. If the
value of R is 360 more than the value of Q.
Quantity I: What is the value of (P-240)?
Quantity II: What is the value of R?
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relation can’t be determined
175. P, Q, R and S entered into a partnership with 12, 15, 16 and 20 candies. They
invested these candidates into a candy market for 5 months, 2 months, 5 months
and 3 months respectively, and the total profit at the end is 276 candies.
Quantity I: How many candies does Q get?
Quantity II: How many candies does R get?
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or the relation can’t be determined
17
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 1

176. P, Q and R alone can complete a piece of work in 18 days, 24 days and 36 days
respectively. R alone started the work and after 3 days P and Q joined him and 2
days before the completion of the whole work R left the work, then in how many
days the whole work gets completed?
7 5 2 4 1
1) 10 2) 10 3) 10 4) 10 5) 10
9 9 9 9 9
177. A sum is invested in a scheme ‘X’ for 5 years at 10% per annum simple interest.
The amount received from scheme X after 5 years is invested in scheme Y for 2
2
years at 16 % per annum compounded annually. Find the sum invested in
3
scheme X if the amount received from scheme Y after 2 years is Rs.29,400?

r’s
1) 12,200 2) 13,200 3) 14,400 4) 15,400 5) 16,400
178. Two trains 220 m and 140 m long run at the speed of (Y-4) m/sec and (Y+14) m/
sec respectively in opposite directions on parallel tracks. If the time which they
1
  5 
take to cross each other is  Z    min, then which of the following option is true
  3 
ha
for the numerical value of Y and Z?
Y Y
1) Z = 3Y 2) Z = 3) Z = Y 4) Z = 5) Z = 2Y
3

E 2
179. The circumference of a circle is 16 cm more than the 4 times of the perimeter of
the square. The ratio of the length and breadth of a rectangle is 4:3. The ratio of
d
the side of the square and breadth of the rectangle is 2:3. The perimeter of the
rectangle is 70 cm, then find the radius of the circle. (in cm)
1) 14 2) 28 3) 16 4) 18 5) 21
180. In a house, 40% of people live on the top floor and the rest live on the ground floor.
ee

Among those who live on the top floor, the ratio of male to female is 1:3 and those
who live on the ground floor ratio of male to female is 2:3. Males who live on the
top floor are what percent of the females who live on the ground floor?
C
2 2 1 7 1
1) 12 % 2) 17 % 3) 22 % 4) 27 % 5) 33 %
5 3 5 9 3
Sr

181. A man buys two types of rice the cost of 1st type of rice is Rs.26 per kg and 2nd
type of rice is Rs.27.5 per kg. If both are mixed in the ratio of 3:2, then marked
the mixed variety of rice is 30% above the cost price. If he sells the mixed variety
at a 20% discount on the marked price, then find the profit on 1 kg.
1) 1.064 2) 2.5 3) 1.24 4) 2.195 5) 3
182. The marked price of an article is 25.50% more than the cost price. When the
same article is sold at a discount of Rs.330 then the percentage of profit earned
is 20%. If he sold that article at a discount of Rs.50 on the same marked price,
C
then find the profit percent. (Approximately)
1) 10% 2) 15% 3) 20% 4) 25% 5) 30%
4
183. P alone can complete a work in 36 days. Time taken by P in completing 44 % of
9
8
the work is equal to the time taken by Q in completing 88 % of the work. How
9
many days will be taken in completing the work, if both P and Q start working
together?
1) 10 2) 12 3) 6 4) 18 5) 30
184. A bus starts at the bus stop and reaches its destination in 7 hrs. If it travels the
half of the distance at 30 km/h and remaining distance at 40 km/h, then the
distance (in km) between the bus stop and destination is:
1) 240 2) 252 3) 344 4) 232 5) 280
185. The ratio of the ages of Vishva and Shalini is 5:4 and the ratio of the ages of
Shamala and Shalini is 6:7. If Vishva is 44 years elder than Shamala, then find
the average age of Vishva, Shalini and Shamala together.
1) 92 2) 84 3) 116 4) 127 5) 132
18
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 1

Direction (186 – 190): In each of these questions a number series is given. In

each series one number is missing. Find out the missing number.
186. ?, 22, 12, 27, 7, 32
1) 12 2) 15 3) 17 4) 19 5) 21
187. 750, 300, 150, 60, 30, ?
1) 8 2) 10 3) 12 4) 16 5) 18
188. 700, 667, 601, 502, ?, 205
1) 250 2) 290 3) 320 4) 370 5) 350
189. 25, 26, 29, 38, 65, ?
1) 112 2) 134 3) 146 4) 167 5) 176
190. 616, 604, 580, 532, 436, ?
1) 210 2) 244 3) 202 4) 235 5) 246

r’s
Direction (191 – 193): In the following question, two equations I and II are given.
You have to solve both the equations and give answer.
191. I. 15x2+2x-1 = 0 II. 2y2-y-1 = 0
1) x > y 2) x < y 3) x  y 4) x  y
5) x = y or no relation can be established
192. I. 4x2-16x+15 = 0 II. 3y2-20y+33 = 0
1) x > y 2) x < y
ha 3) x  y 4) x  y
5) x = y or no relation can be established
193. I. x2-30x+161 = 0 II. 9y2-27y+14 = 0

194.
1) x > y 2) x < y

E3) x  y
5) x = y or no relation can be established
Equation I: (x-3)²=(2x²) +3² - 16x + P
4) x  y
d
One of the root of equation I is 7.
Second smallest two digit prime number is divided by smaller root of equation I gives,
2 1 1 2
ee

1) 3 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5 5) Other than those given options

3 3 3 3
195. In this question two equations, numbered I and II. You have to solve the both the
equation to answer the given question.
C
I. x2 - 15x + 44 = 0 II: y2 - 7y - 78 = 0
Which of the given options correctly represents the equations formed by the roots
of equation I and II
Sr

(Note: New equation (s) should consist (s) of one root from each equations I and II)
A) w2+24w+143=0 B) w2-9w-52=0 C) w2-24w+143=0
2
D) w +5w-66=0 E) All of these.
1) Only B and D 2) Only C and D 3) Only C 4) Only E 5) Only A and C
Direction (196-200): Study the data carefully and answer the questions.
The line graph shows the percentage of employees who participated in the annual
function from different departments in dancing and singing and the table shows
C
the average number of employees who participated in dancing and employees not
participating in any of the competition.

70
60 % of employees in
50 dancing, out of the
total in each
40 department
30 % of employees in
singing, out of the
20 total in each
10 department

0
P Q R S T

19
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS RRB CLERK MAINS-2025 MT - 1

Average of employees
participated in dancing and
Departments
employees not participating
in any of program
P 80
Q 37.5
R 160
S 50
T 55

r’s
196. Find the total number of female employees who participated in singing if the ratio
of the males to females in departments R, S and T is 3:2, 16:9 and 4:5 respectively.
1) 136 2) 138 3) 142 4) 148 5) 152
197. Find the average of employees not participated in any program from department
R, participated in dancing from department P and participated in singing from
department Q.
1) 64 2) 76
ha 3) 82 4) 85 5) 55
198. The employees who participated in dancing from department Q is what percent

department T?
1) 35% 2) 45%

E
more or less than the number of employees who participated in singing from

3) 50% 4) 55% 5) 60%

d
199. Find the total number of employees participated in singing from all the departments
together.
1) 420 2) 425 3) 455 4) 465 5) 435
ee

200. If at the annual function, 20% of employees from dancing and 10% of employees
from singing in department P was absent and the same number of employees
joined from non-participated employees to dancing and singing, and then find the
C
ratio of remaining non-participated employees in department P to employees of
dancing and singing together in same department.
Sr

1) 3 : 5 2) 2 : 3 3) 4 : 5 4) 1 : 1 5) 1 : 2

KEY
1.3 2.1 3.5 4.3 5.2 6.5 7.3 8.3 9.1 10.5
11.1 12.3 13.3 14.4 15.1 16.5 17.4 18.2 19.2 20.1
21.4 22.4 23.3 24.5 25.3 26.5 27.2 28.5 29.4 30.4
31.5 32.4 33.3 34.2 35.2 36.4 37.3 38.1 39.2 40.3
C
41.2 42.1 43.5 44.3 45.2 46.5 47.4 48.4 49.3 50.4
51.2 52.2 53.3 54.3 55.1 56.4 57.5 58.1 59.1 60.3 SCAN QR FOR
61.4 62.2 63.1 64.2 65.2 66.3 67.1 68.4 69.3 70.3 OUR RESULTS
71.4 72.2 73.1 74.1 75.1 76.2 77.1 78.3 79.4 80.2
81.4 82.3 83.1 84.5 85.3 86.2 87.1 88.5 89.4 90.3
91.2 92.1 93.2 94.3 95.2 96.4 97.2 98.4 99.3 100.3
101.4 102.4 103.3 104.2 105.4 106.2 107.2 108.1 109.2 110.5
111.3 112.4 113.2 114.3 115.1 116.3 117.2 118.3 119.1 120.2
121.4 122.2 123.1 124.2 125.1 126.3 127.5 128.4 129.2 130.4
131.2 132.3 133.2 134.4 135.1 136.4 137.3 138.3 139.2 140.3
141.3 142.3 143.3 144.4 145.2 146.2 147.5 148.2 149.1 150.1
151.2 152.1 153.5 154.2 155.1 156.5 157.4 158.2 159.2 160.4
161.1 162.3 163.2 164.1 165.1 166.1 167.5 168.4 169.2 170.1
171.5 172.1 173.5 174.5 175.2 176.1 177.3 178.2 179.2 180.4
181.1 182.4 183.2 184.1 185.3 186.3 187.3 188.4 189.3 190.2
191.5 192.2 193.1 194.3 195.3 196.1 197.4 198.3 199.5 200.5

20