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Countdown Mock 04 (CLAT) 2025

English Language
Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 1

Little is known about North Korea, a country of about 20 million people, beside the military dictatorship
of Kim Jong Un, censorship, ballistic missiles, and nuclear threats to neighbouring countries like South
Korea and Japan.

But what has gone unnoticed is the performance of North Korea in the Paris Olympics. A 14-member
North Korean contingent has turned heads with their extraordinary performance at the Olympics.

North Korea secured an impressive haul of six medals - two silvers and four bronzes - placing them
68th on the overall medal tally.

Doesn't sound exciting, right?

Here comes the surprise.

North Korea's 14 athletes secured 0.429 medals per athlete, a figure that dwarfs the efficiency of
larger delegations. The United States sent 592 athletes, achieving 0.213 medals per athlete, while
China's 388-strong team managed 0.234 medals per athlete.

The United States topped the medal table with a total of 126 medals (40 gold, 44 silver, 42 bronze)
and China secured 91 medals (40 gold, 27 silver, 24 bronze).

North Korea has a better medal-to-athlete ratio than the sporting superpowers of the US and China,
who usually come first and second in most Olympics medals tally.

North Korea's medals came from a variety of disciplines. In table tennis, Ri Jong-sik and Kim Kum-
yong clinched silver in the mixed doubles event. The diving duo of Kim Mi-rae and Jo Jin-mi secured
another silver in the women's synchronized 10m platform. Bronze medal winners were Pang Chol-mi
in women's 54 kg boxing, Kim Mi-rae in the women's 10m platform diving, Ri Se-ung in men's Greco-
Roman 60kg wrestling, and Choe Hyo-gyong in women's freestyle 53 kg wrestling.

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The country did not participate in the 2020 Tokyo Games due to COVID-19 concerns. Their last
Olympic appearance in Rio 2016 saw a larger contingent of 31 athletes bringing home seven medals,
including two gold medals. A smaller team in Paris that nearly matched this medal count underscores
the efficiency of their 2024 performance.

And here comes the performance of India.

India stands 71st on the medal tally as against North Korea, who rank 68th in the medals tally.

India, with its population of 1.4 billion, secured six medals (1 silver and 5 bronze). Despite sending 117
athletes, India's medal-to-athlete ratio stood at 0.051, much lower than North Korea's 0.429.
Q 1. 12061577 The main idea of the passage is that:

a)
North Korea's performance in the Paris Olympics demonstrated a surprisingly high efficiency in
winning medals.
b)
North Korea managed to secure a high medal count at the Paris Olympics despite its small contingent.
c)
North Korea's participation in the Paris Olympics highlighted its superior medals per athlete ratio
compared to larger nations.
d) North Korea's Olympic performance in Paris was overshadowed by its geopolitical issues.

Q 2. 12061577 Which of the following can be concluded from the statement, "North Korea's 14
athletes secured 0.429 medals per athlete, a figure that dwarfs the efficiency of larger delegations."

a)
North Korea's athletes were more successful per individual compared to athletes from larger
countries.
b) North Korea's smaller delegation outperformed all other nations in terms of total medals won.

c)
Larger delegations from countries like the US and China were less efficient in winning medals per
athlete than North Korea.
d) North Korea won more medals overall than most larger countries despite having fewer athletes.

Q 3. 12061577 Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

a)
North Korea's success at the Paris Olympics was largely due to the strength of their athletes in a few
specific sports.

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b)
The United States and China, despite winning more medals overall, were less efficient in terms of
medals won per athlete compared to North Korea.
c)
North Korea's decision to skip the 2020 Tokyo Olympics had a negative impact on their athletes'
performance in Paris.
d)
Countries with smaller delegations may achieve higher efficiency in winning medals per athlete
compared to larger teams.

Q 4. 12061577 Why does the passage mention India's medal haul?

a)
To highlight the underperformance of India compared to North Korea in terms of medals per athlete.
b) To show that India's population size does not guarantee success in the Olympics.

c) To compare India's Olympic performance with that of North Korea in terms of medal efficiency.
d) To emphasize that North Korea outperformed India in the overall medal tally.

Q 5. 12061577 In the concluding paragraph of the given passage, the writer's tone can be best
described as:

a) Critical, highlighting the shortcomings of India's Olympic performance.

b) Analytical, focusing on comparing the efficiency of different countries in the Olympics.

c) Disappointed, lamenting India's position in the Olympic medal tally.

d) Neutral, presenting the facts without expressing any strong opinions.

Q 6. 12061577 In the sentence 'North Korea has a better medal-to-athlete ratio than the sporting
superpowers of the US and China, who usually come first and second in most Olympics medals
tally.'the author has:

a)
Emphasized the significance of North Korea's achievement by comparing it to traditionally dominant
countries.
b) Criticized the US and China for failing to maintain their dominance in the Olympics.

c) Highlighted the unexpected nature of North Korea's success in the Paris Olympics.

d) Suggested that North Korea's success challenges the established order in international sports.

Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 2

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Around a third of the world's people live in countries that can be called democratic, although all of
them are flawed in one way or another. What is striking is that every autocratic regime also claims to
be democratic. In principle (not in practice), it is the default political system.

We are talking about the nature of 'human nature' here, and the key point is that it has a history. It
changes over time in response to changing circumstances, but there is a detectable theme running
through it for thousands of years. Human beings belong to the primate family, most of whose members
live in smallish groups (rarely more than a hundred). They have strongly graded hierarchies like those
in our nearest relatives, the chimpanzees. There is a boss who rules by force but also by making
alliances, and there is constant turmoil as other would-be bosses rise and fall.

Any diligent reader can find exceptions to the above statements, but by and large that is the primate
condition. It was presumably once the human condition too - but all the ancestral human groups we
know about lived in absolute equality.

We know this because the last hunter-gatherer bands survived long enough to be studied by the first
anthropologists. They were all dedicated to equality, to the extent that they automatically banded
together to bring down any individual who tried to set himself above the others. How did that come to
pass?

Early human beings were still living in small groups, but they were already intelligent enough to realise
that the monkey-king model served nobody's interests except the king's. They also had language, so
they could conspire together. The revolution may have happened once and spread, or it may have
happened a thousand times in different bands, but the human default mode became egalitarian. It
must have remained that way for generations, because equality and fairness have become universal
human aspirations.
Q 7. 12061577 The author is most likely to agree with which of the following statements:

a) Autocratic regimes are inherently superior because they often claim to be democratic.
b) Human nature has always been hierarchical, and this has remained unchanged throughout history.

c)
The aspiration for equality and fairness is deeply rooted in human nature and has evolved over time.
d) Democracies today are perfect examples of equality and fairness in practice.

Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 3

These early Muslim rulers of Bengal, as historian Richard Eaton writes in The Rise of Islam and the

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Q 8. 12061577 Based on the passage, what is the tone of the author towards hierarchy?

a) Supportive, viewing hierarchy as a necessary structure for societal organization.

b) Critical, suggesting that hierarchical structures are not in the best interest of the majority.

c) Neutral, presenting hierarchy as a natural part of human and primate societies without judgment.

d) Indifferent, showing no particular interest in the concept of hierarchy.

Q 9. 12061577 The author would agree that egalitarianism in human beings is:

a) A concept that was introduced by modern civilizations.

b) An inherent quality that developed as a response to hierarchical primate structures.

c) A temporary phase in human history that has largely been abandoned.

d) An ideal that remains largely unattainable in today's world.

Q 10. 12061577 The division in human conditions can be understood by:

a) Recognizing that all societies eventually adopt hierarchical structures.

b) Understanding the shift from primate-like hierarchies to egalitarian human societies.

c) Observing that some human groups have always lived in complete equality.

d) Analyzing the persistence of inequality in both past and present societies.

Q 11. 12061577 What is the contemporary stance of dictatorial political systems?

a) They openly reject democratic principles in favor of authoritarian rule.

b) They claim to uphold democratic values despite not practicing them.

c) They emphasize their efficiency over the perceived chaos of democracies.

d) They seek to evolve towards more egalitarian practices.

Q 12. 12061577 Which one of the following is the least likely to be used to describe the 'monkey-
king'?

a) A figure who maintains power through a combination of force and alliances.

b) A leader whose actions primarily benefit themselves over the collective.

c) A ruler who is both respected and feared within the group.

d) A dominant individual who encourages cooperation and shared decision-making.

Bengal Frontier 1204-1760, did not bother to adopt the culture of their subjects. Instead, their
language and architecture looked toward distant Muslim power centres in Baghdad, Iran, and Delhi,
leaving the countryside to be ruled by Hindu Kayasthas and the descendants of older Hindu and
Buddhist lords. Over the next hundred years, Iranian and Central Asian Sufis-and their Indian
disciples-spread through Bengal, converting frontier peoples, translating Sanskrit texts, and insisting

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on the legitimacy of Islamic kingship. Their support was desperately needed: as an isolated class of
foreign rulers, the Bengal Sultans were always vulnerable to courtly intrigues and coups.

Such a coup was conducted by Hindu landlords in the early 1400s. One of their sons was placed on
the throne of Bengal. In a compromise with urban Muslim warriors, the boy converted to Islam and
was placed under Sufi tutelage. When he became Sultan Jalaluddin Muhammad (r. 1418-1433), he
reoriented the Bengal Sultanate from its obsession with distant Iran, toward Bengal's own rich culture.
He patronised Brahmins, issued coins with motifs of the goddess Durga's lion, and constructed
mosques in Bengal's traditional brick architecture. The Bengal Sultanate, rejuvenated, fended off an
invasion from the neighbouring Jaunpur Sultanate and expanded toward Tripura and Odisha. But its
subjects, like those of other Sultanates, remained primarily Hindu. Yet great geopolitical changes were
on the horizon.

Throughout the 1500s, Bengal drew the attention of a new set of outsiders: the Mughals. The Bengal
Sultanate had been established through military innovations in cavalry warfare but it was conquered
by the Mughals' military innovations in gunpowder. The Mughals made it clear that they would rule
justly-if sternly. Villages that didn't pay revenues were brutalised, but those that did could expect fair
rates and even redress against corrupt collectors. According to Eaton, the Mughal ruling class,
composed of large numbers of Rajputs, upper-caste North Indians, and immigrants from Central and
West Asia, adopted a hands-off religious policy. There are records showing that zealous officials were
punished for forcing Bengali rebels to convert to Islam. And when the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb
Alamgir ordered temple destruction in the late 1600s, officers in Bengal and neighbouring Odisha
generally ignored him.
Q 13. 12061577 The central theme of the passage is that:

a)
The early Muslim rulers of Bengal were detached from local culture, but later rulers integrated more
with Bengal's traditions.
b)
The Mughal conquest of Bengal was marked by military innovations and a strict yet fair approach to
governance.
c) Sufis played a crucial role in legitimizing Islamic rule in Bengal and influencing the local culture.
d)
The Bengal Sultanate experienced significant cultural shifts due to both internal and external
pressures over centuries.

Q 14. 12061577 Which of the following can be assumed from the statement, "The Mughals made it
clear that they would rule justly-if sternly."?

a) The Mughals were known for their brutal tactics and unfair treatment of their subjects.

b) The Mughals emphasized fairness in governance but maintained strict control over their territories.

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c) The Mughals had little interest in the well-being of their subjects and ruled with an iron fist.

d) The Mughals were lenient rulers who avoided harsh measures in their administration.

Q 15. 12061577 Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

a)
The early Muslim rulers of Bengal maintained cultural ties with distant Islamic centers rather than
integrating with local traditions.
b)
Sufis played a role in legitimizing Islamic rule in Bengal and influenced the cultural landscape by
converting people and translating texts.
c)
The Mughal rulers in Bengal were tolerant of religious diversity and sometimes ignored orders to
destroy temples.
d)
The Bengal Sultanate maintained complete autonomy and independence from outside influences
throughout its history.

Q 16. 12061577 What is the meaning of the word "coup" occurring in the passage?

a) A sudden, violent, and illegal seizure of power from a government.

b) A strategic alliance formed to support a ruling authority.

c) A peaceful negotiation leading to a change in leadership.

d) A formal agreement between conflicting parties to share power.

Q 17. 12061577 From the passage one can conclude that:

a) The Bengal Sultanate's rulers gradually integrated more with local traditions over time.
b) The Mughals strictly enforced their religious policies without exception in Bengal.

c) The Sufis were the main reason for the Bengal Sultanate's success in expanding its territory.

d) The early Muslim rulers of Bengal were completely isolated from the local population.

Q 18. 12061577 Which of the following does best describe the attitude of the author towards the
various invasive forces in medieval Bengal?

a) Neutral, providing a balanced account of the different forces without showing bias.
b) Critical, focusing on the negative impact these forces had on Bengal's native culture.

c) Appreciative, highlighting how these forces contributed to Bengal's cultural richness.

d) Skeptical, questioning the legitimacy and impact of these invasive forces.

Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that

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follow.

Passage – 4

Before 2000, when as many film magazines as fingers on one hand existed, celebrities sportingly
faced inconvenient questions and the media was free to break real stories.

However, the rise of an entertainment section in daily newspapers that had hitherto looked down on
reporting on the film industry, the 24/7 bytes-hungry TV channels and a monstrous Internet led to the
cremation of film magazines. The vast reach of social media through which the rich and the famous
could speak directly to their audience was the last nail in the coffin.

Nobody's mourning their death but gone unnoticed is that, along with the magazines, traditional press
meets have also been buried. It began with the media being told at trailer launches and other
celebrations to stick to questions related to the film. A fair request to prevent unnecessary derailment
of an event. But when did it translate into, only carefully curated questions, please?

For instance, take Nana Patekar at the trailer launch of The Vaccine War who remarked that he was
not even offered Welcome 3, probably because the makers thought he was too old for it. But could we
ask Nana if he was being seen in a Hindi film after ages because of the #MeToo movement?
Tanushree Datta's misdirected charges of 2018 may have died a natural death and, today, few may
even remember it. But hadn't it played its unfortunate part in handbraking Nana's career until Vivek
Agnihotri cast him in the important role of Dr Balram Bhargava, the director-general of the Indian
Council of Medical Research?

But since his rude replies to a couple of innocuous questions had endorsed Nana's reputation as a
cantankerous actor, a don't-rock-the-boat atmosphere prevailed. What could've been a lively, wide-
ranging Q&A session became a tame affair.

The death knell has unfortunately been sounded by Shah Rukh Khan. A five-star hotel banquet hall
was crammed with fans who thumped, jumped, blew kisses and danced to all the numbers from
Pathaan for two hours before a fawning RJ-turned-emcee, too thrilled to have got the job, exhorted the
media to applaud like admirers for every star entry and for every "blockbuster" word that was uttered
on stage. But it worked for SRK and Team Pathaan, who got reams of Insta reels from fans and
celebrity-starved media sites. It was topped off with an #Ask SRK on X, another fan interaction. Sad
because, once upon a time, SRK's wit and quick thinking made him a delightful interviewee.
Q 19. 12061577 What was the notion regarding celebrity culture before the rise of entertainment
sections?

a) Celebrities were always open to answering any questions, no matter how inconvenient.
b) The media avoided reporting on the film industry as it was considered low-brow.

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c) Celebrities had direct access to their audience through social media platforms.

d) Press meets were carefully curated events with limited media interaction.

Q 20. 12061577 "It began with the media being told at trailer launches and other celebrations to stick
to questions related to the film" - in elaboration of this sentence, which of these options follows?

a) This led to the media becoming more respectful of the celebrities' privacy at public events.

b) Over time, this restriction evolved into a practice where only pre-approved questions were allowed.

c) As a result, the media started focusing on the personal lives of celebrities instead of their work.
d)
Consequently, trailer launches became more about promoting films than about engaging with the
press.

Q 21. 12061577 Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above passage?

a)
The rise of social media has led to more open and transparent interactions between celebrities and
the press.
b)
Celebrities have become more cautious in their interactions with the media to avoid controversial
questions.
c) The traditional press has gained more influence in shaping public perception of celebrities.

d) Celebrities now prefer live interviews over controlled media events to connect with their audience.

Q 22. 12061577 All the following statements are 'truisms', except:

a) Celebrities now have more control over their public image than ever before.

b) Social media has become a primary platform for celebrities to communicate with their fans.
c) The rise of entertainment sections in newspapers has led to increased scrutiny of celebrities.

d) The press continues to enjoy unrestricted access to celebrities during public events.

Q 23. 12061577 Which of the following categories best describes this piece of writing?

a) b) Opinion piece c) Historical analysis d) Editorial

Investigative journalism

Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

Passage – 1

Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi embarked on a visit to war-torn Ukraine, becoming the first Indian

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Q 24. 12061577 Which of the following is an appropriate title for the passage?

a) "The Rise and Fall of Film Magazines in the Age of Social Media"
b) "The Changing Face of Celebrity Culture: From Open Press to Controlled Narratives"

c) "Social Media: The New Frontier for Celebrity-Fan Interactions"

d) "Entertainment News: A New Era of Unfiltered Access"

Prime Minister to visit the country since its independence in [1]. Amid escalating global tensions and
an ongoing conflict between Russia and Ukraine, Modi's visit signalled India's evolving role on the
world stage, as various international media outlets highlighted. The trip saw the signing of key
agreements and the delivery of critical humanitarian aid. PM Modi also highlighted India's commitment
to peace, balanced diplomacy, and global cooperation.

PM Modi and Ukrainian President Volodymyr Zelenskyy finalised multiple agreements during their
meeting, which covered areas such as agriculture, food industry, medical product regulation, and
cultural cooperation. Amid war sirens, Modi arrived in Kyiv on a special train from Poland. He was
greeted by Ukraine's First Deputy Prime Minister.

During his meeting with President Zelenskyy, Modi emphasised India's firm stance on peace regarding
the ongoing conflict between Ukraine and Russia. He stated that India had not been neutral from the
start and had chosen to stand firmly for peace. The Indian Prime Minister also paid tribute to the
children who have lost their lives in the Russia-Ukraine war. He silently offered prayers and placed a
doll at a memorial, alongside President Zelenskyy, who laid a teddy bear at the site.
Q 25. 12061577 Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi embarked on a visit to war-torn Ukraine,
becoming the first Indian Prime Minister to visit the country since its independence in [1]. Which of the
following years has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?

a) 1981 b) 1989 c) 1991 d) 1995

Q 26. 12061577 What was the original purpose of the 'Rail Force One' train used by Prime Minister
Narendra Modi during his visit to Ukraine?

a) Transporting soldiers b) Carrying goods to Crimea

c) Accommodating tourists visiting Crimea d) Evacuating civilians

Q 27. 12061577 What did Prime Minister Narendra Modi emphasize during his meeting with
Ukrainian President Volodymyr Zelenskyy?

a) Military support for Ukraine b) India's firm stance on peace

c) Economic sanctions against Russia d) Establishing a new trade route

Q 28. 12061577 What initiative did Prime Minister Narendra Modi present to Ukraine that is part of the
Bharat Health Initiative for Sahyog Hita and Maitri (BHISHM)?

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a) Vaccination program b) c) BHISHM cubes d) Portable hospitals

Medical aid helicopters

Q 29. 12061577 Which key agreements were signed between India and Ukraine during Prime
Minister Narendra Modi's visit?

a) Defense and cyber security

b) Agriculture, food industry, medical product regulation, and cultural cooperation

c) Defense, Energy and infrastructure

d) Defense Technology and education

Q 30. 12061577 What did Prime Minister Narendra Modi highlight during his visit to the 'Oasis of
Peace' park in Kyiv?

a) India's military strength b) Mahatma Gandhi's message of peace

c) India's economic ties with Ukraine d) India's technological advancements

Passage – 2

India celebrates its first National Space Day, marking the successful landing of the Vikram Lander
from the Chandrayaan-3 mission. This mission was a follow-up to Chandrayaan-2 and aimed to
demonstrate the ability to safely land and roam on the lunar surface. The Indian government officially
designated [1] as National Space Day in recognition of this significant accomplishment, reflecting
India's expanding capabilities in space exploration and highlighting the vital role of space science and
technology in national development.

The Chandrayaan-3 mission, launched from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, Andhra
Pradesh, achieved a safe and soft landing of the Vikram Lander on the Moon's surface. This
achievement signifies a historic milestone for the nation, as India became only the fourth country
globally to successfully land a rover on the Moon and the first to do so in the southern polar region.
Accompanied by the Pragyaan Rover, the Vikram Lander touched down at a site designated as 'Shiv
Shakti.' Following the successful landing, the Pragyaan Rover was deployed, further advancing India's
exploration efforts on the lunar surface.
Q 31. 12061577 The Indian government officially designated [1] as National Space Day in recognition
of successful landing of the Vikram Lander from the Chandrayaan-3 mission. Which of the following
has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?

a) August 20, 2023 b) August 21, 2023 c) August 22, 2023 d) August 23, 2023

Q 32. 12061577 What is the primary objective of India's Chandrayaan-3 mission?

a) To orbit the moon b) To study Mars' atmosphere

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c) d) To establish a lunar base

To demonstrate safe and soft landing on the lunar
surface

Q 33. 12061577 What is the theme for the first National Space Day (NSpD-2024) celebrated on
August 23, 2024?

a) Exploring the Universe: India's Journey b)

Touching Lives while Touching the Moon: India's
Space Saga

c) Beyond the Stars: India's Space Achievements d) India's Space Odyssey: Past, Present, Future

Q 34. 12061577 What are the three components of the Chandrayaan-3 mission?

a) Orbiter, Lander, and Rover b)

Propulsion Module, Lander Module, and Rover
Module
c) Command Module, Lander, and Rover d)
Propulsion System, Orbiting System, and Landing
System

Q 35. 12061577 What is the primary goal of the Pragyan rover on Chandrayaan-3?

a) To collect lunar soil samples b)

To conduct experiments and send data and
images
c) To search for signs of extraterrestrial life d) To explore the Moon's far side

Q 36. 12061577 Which of the following countries had achieved a soft-landing on the moon before
India?

a) United States, Soviet Union, China b) United States, Japan, Russia

c) Soviet Union, Japan, China d) United States, Israel, China

Passage – 3

Shri Narendra Modi was sworn-in as India's Prime Minister for the third time on 9th June 2024,
following another decisive victory in the 2024 Parliamentary elections. This victory marked the third
consecutive term for Shri Modi, further solidifying his leadership. The 2024 elections saw a remarkable
voter turnout, with a significant portion of the electorate showing continued confidence in Shri Modi's
leadership and vision for the country. His campaign focused on a blend of economic development,
national security, and social welfare programs, which resonated widely with the populace.

Shri Modi's third term is expected to build on the foundations laid during his previous tenures, with a
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renewed emphasis on technological innovation, infrastructure development, and international

diplomacy, further positioning India as a global powerhouse. The unprecedented third term
underscores Shri Modi's enduring appeal and the trust placed in him by millions of Indians to lead the
nation towards greater prosperity and stability.

The first ever Prime Minister to be born after Independence, Shri Modi has previously served as the
Prime Minister of India from 2014 to 2019, and from 2019 to 2024. He also has the distinction of being
the longest serving Chief Minister of Gujarat with his term spanning from October 2001 to May 2014.
In the 2014 and 2019 Parliamentary elections, Shri Modi led the Bharatiya Janata Party to record
wins, securing absolute majority on both occasions. The last time that a political party secured such an
absolute majority was in the elections of 1984.
Q 37. 12061577 When were the first general elections in independent India held?

a) 1947-1948 b) 1948-1949 c) 1951-1952 d) 1954-1955

Q 38. 12061577 How many seats were up for election in the first Lok Sabha?

a) 450 b) 489 c) 500 d) 550

Q 39. 12061577 Which of the following electoral systems was primarily used in the first general
elections?

a) b) First-past-the-post c) d)
Proportional Single transferable vote Mixed-member
representation proportional

Q 40. 12061577 What was the voter eligibility criterion for the first general elections in India?

a) All citizens over the age of 18 b) All citizens over the age of 21

c) All male citizens over the age of 21 d) All citizens over the age of 25

Q 41. 12061577 Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers had the longest tenure in office?

a) Indira Gandhi b) Narendra Modi c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Q 42. 12061577 Who among the following was the second-longest-serving Prime Minister of India?

a) Indira Gandhi b) Lal Bahadur Shastri c) Narendra Modi d) Rajiv Gandhi

Passage – 4

The Himachal Pradesh Police has arrested one of the masterminds of a Rs. 2,500-crore
cryptocurrency scam, which was unearthed in the state in 2022, from Kolkata, officials said on
Thursday. Accused Milan Garg (35), a resident of Meerut in Uttar Pradesh, was arrested on
Wednesday night from the Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose International Airport, Kolkata while he was
trying to flee to Bangkok in Thailand, they said.

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Garg, who was allegedly involved in designing and marketing of a fake cryptocurrency, was later
brought to Shimla, Deputy Inspector General of Police (DIG), Northern Range, Abhishek Dhullar told
PTI. Garg, who earlier fled to Dubai after the scam came to light, had returned to India in June and
was again leaving the country when he was detained at Kolkata airport. The accused has been
arrested and brought to Shimla, said Dhullar, who is heading an SIT probing the case. The accused,
the main associate of kingpin Subash Sharma who is still at large, was involved in designing of the
cryptocurrency, software development and marketing, Dhullar said, adding that he would also
convince prospective investors.

The cryptocurrency scam, which has duped thousands of people, started in 2018 but came to light in
2022 as the perpetrators of the fraud had threatened the investors to keep their mouth shut or lose
money. The investors smelled something fishy when they did not get money in return, but the victims
did not come out openly against the fraudsters. However, later hundreds of victims came forward and
uncovered the modus operandi of scammers and so far over 300 complaints have been received in
this regard.
Q 43. 12061577 Samuel Bankman-Fried was the founder of which cryptocurrency exchange?

a) Binance b) Coinbase c) Kraken d) FTX

Q 44. 12061577 At the peak of his net worth, where was Samuel Bankman-Fried ranked among the
richest Americans in the Forbes 400?

a) 10th b) 25th c) 41st d) 50th

Q 45. 12061577 What is a Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC)?

a) A private cryptocurrency b)
A legal tender issued by a central bank in digital
form
c) A digital token issued by private companies d) A type of commodity-backed currency

Q 46. 12061577 Which of the following countries was the first to launch a nationwide Central Bank
Digital Currency (CBDC)?

a) Nigeria b) China c) Bahamas d) UAE

Q 47. 12061577 What is the primary objective of introducing a Central Bank Digital Currency
(CBDC)?

a) To increase the value of the national currency b)

To reduce the use of physical currency and
associated costs
c) To replace all existing cryptocurrencies d) To peg the national currency to gold

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Q 48. 12061577 How is a CBDC different from cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin?

a) b)
It is backed by a central bank and has legal It is decentralized and not regulated by any
tender status authority
c) It is primarily used for online purchases d) It is mined using computational power

Passage – 5

Sri Lanka's recent economic crisis and recovery efforts present a complex narrative marked by internal
challenges and external shocks. The crisis, which began in 2019, was exacerbated by ill-advised tax
cuts, a poorly managed shift to organic farming, and a series of devastating events such as the 2019
Easter bombings, the COVID-19 pandemic, and the Ukraine-Russia war. These factors severely
impacted key economic sectors like agriculture and tourism, further straining the country's depleted
foreign exchange reserves. The country's heavy reliance on foreign debt, particularly high-interest
commercial loans, increased its vulnerability to external pressures. As the country transitioned to
middle-income status, access to concessional funding declined, leading to a rise in International
Sovereign Bonds (ISBs) with short repayment periods. By 2019, commercial loans comprised 56
percent of Sri Lanka's foreign debt, up from 2.5 per cent in 2007.

In June 2022, the United Nations warned of a potential "full-blown humanitarian emergency" in Sri
Lanka, calling for USD 47 million in aid for the most vulnerable populations. Although the Sri Lankan
economy is forecasted to grow moderately by 2.2 per cent in 2024, the country continues to grapple
with high poverty rates, income disparity, and labour market issues. The World Bank's latest biannual
Sri Lanka Development Update highlights improvements in inflation, revenues, and a current account
surplus driven by remittances and tourism. However, poverty remains high, with 25.9 per cent of the
population below the poverty line in 2023. Labour force participation has also witnessed a decline,
especially among women and in urban areas, due to the collapse of Micro, Small and Medium
Enterprises (MSMEs).
Q 49. 12061577 What is the name of the current President of Sri Lanka?

a) b) c) Mahinda Rajapaksa d) None of the above

Ranil Wickremesinghe Dinesh Gunawardena

Q 50. 12061577 Which of the following countries are major creditors involved in Sri Lanka's debt
restructuring negotiations?

a) b) c) d)
India, USA and China USA, India and Japan China, Japan and India India, China and Russia

Q 51. 12061577 Why is India concerned about the Sri Lanka crisis?

a) b) The potential influx of refugees from Sri Lanka

Due to the decline in tea production in Sri Lanka c) A decrease in Indian exports to Sri Lanka

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d)
The rise in foreign exchange reserves in Sri
Lanka

Q 52. 12061577 Why is India's assistance to Sri Lanka seen as a positive development in bilateral
relations?

a) It strengthens India's ties with China.

b) It helps address Sri Lanka's debt to India.

c) It supports Sri Lanka's efforts to become an organic farming nation.

d) It helps India counterbalance China's influence in the region.

Legal Reasoning
Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.

Passage – 1

In the case of Mr. R.S. Madireddy, the Supreme Court of India dismissed the writ petitions
challenging the bidding process for Air India. Mr. R.S. Madireddy filed petitions against the sale of Air
India to Talace India Pvt. Ltd., a subsidiary of Tata Sons, citing procedural irregularities and potential
losses to the public exchequer.

The petitions raised concerns over the valuation process, the fairness of the bidding, and the potential
monopolistic impact of the Tata Group acquiring Air India. The petitioner argued that the government
failed to consider alternative proposals that could have been more beneficial to the public and alleged
that the process lacked transparency and proper assessment.

The Supreme Court, after reviewing the submissions, found no merit in the petitions. The Court
observed that the bidding process was conducted in accordance with the set guidelines and
procedures. It emphasized that the government's decision to sell Air India was a policy matter, and
judicial interference in such economic policies is limited. The Court also noted that the petitioner's
claims were speculative and did not provide sufficient evidence to prove any illegality or arbitrariness
in the process.

The ruling reinforced the Court's stance on the non-interference in government policies unless there is
a clear violation of constitutional or statutory provisions. The dismissal of the petitions paved the way
for the completion of the Air India sale to Talace India Pvt. Ltd., marking a significant step in the Indian

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government's efforts to privatize state-owned enterprises.

This case highlights the judiciary's approach to balancing public interest with the government's policy
decisions, particularly in matters involving economic and strategic considerations.
Q 53. 12061577 Ramesh is a businessman who feels that a recent government policy on privatization
was not handled transparently. He decides to file a writ petition challenging the policy in the Supreme
Court, alleging procedural flaws similar to those in Mr. Madireddy's case. Based on the Supreme
Court's approach in Mr. Madireddy's case, what is the likely outcome of Ramesh's petition?

a) The petition will be dismissed as policy matters have limited judicial interference.

b) The petition will be accepted, and the policy will be reviewed.

c) The Court will suspend the policy until further investigation.

d) The Court will demand a public referendum on the policy.

Q 54. 12061577 Anita is a social activist concerned about the sale of a public transportation company
to a large conglomerate. She believes the sale process lacked transparency and could lead to a
monopoly in the industry, similar to the concerns raised in the Air India case. Given the Court's
decision in Mr. Madireddy's case, what should Anita expect if she files a similar petition?

a)
The Court will likely dismiss her petition, emphasizing that the bidding process was conducted
according to guidelines.
b) The Court will halt the sale and order a new bidding process.

c) The Court will take her concerns seriously and open a detailed investigation.

d) The Court will order the government to consider alternative bids.

Q 55. 12061577 Rajesh is a lawyer representing a group of employees who are concerned about job
security after their company is sold to a private entity. He plans to argue that the sale process was
unfair and should be reviewed by the judiciary, much like the Air India sale was contested. How is the
Supreme Court likely to respond to Rajesh's petition based on its stance in the Air India case?

a) The Court will dismiss the petition, stating that the sale is a policy matter.

b) The Court will demand a review of the sale process.

c) The Court will freeze the sale until employee concerns are addressed.

d) The Court will order compensation for the employees.

Q 56. 12061577 Sunita believes that the government's recent decision to privatize a state-owned
enterprise was not in the public interest. She files a petition, citing concerns about the impact on the
public and comparing it to the Air India sale. What lesson from Mr. Madireddy's case should Sunita be
aware of regarding the likely outcome of her petition?

a) The Court may dismiss the petition if it finds the claims speculative and lacking evidence.
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b) The Court will halt the privatization process for further review.

c) The Court will likely side with public interest and stop the sale.

d) The Court will force the government to open the process to public scrutiny.

Q 57. 12061577 Meena is concerned that the sale of a government-owned bank to a private entity
could harm consumers and result in a monopoly. She files a petition challenging the sale, pointing to
the potential monopolistic impact as her main argument. Based on the Supreme Court's ruling in the
Air India case, how might the Court view Meena's concerns?

a)
The Court may dismiss the petition, noting that monopoly concerns alone are not sufficient to overturn
a policy decision.
b) The Court will likely block the sale until anti-monopoly measures are introduced.

c) The Court will demand a detailed market analysis before the sale proceeds.
d) The Court will order the sale to be conducted under new guidelines.

Q 58. 12061577 A coalition of NGOs files a petition challenging the sale of a national airline to a
private company, arguing that the government did not adequately consider other proposals that could
have been more beneficial to the public. Considering the Supreme Court's decision in the Air India
case, what is the most probable outcome?

a)
The petition will be dismissed, with the Court stating that alternative proposals were not mandatory to
consider.
b) The petition will result in a new round of bidding.

c) The Court will order an independent review of all proposals.

d) The government will be required to renegotiate the terms of the sale.

Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.

Passage – 2

In the case of Shilpa Sailesh v. Varun Sreenivasan (2023), the Supreme Court of India dealt with a
contentious matrimonial dispute that brought into focus issues of consent, marital obligations, and the
interpretation of legal provisions regarding divorce. Shilpa Sailesh had filed a petition seeking a decree
of divorce from her husband, Varun Sreenivasan, on the grounds of cruelty and desertion. Varun
contested the petition, arguing that the allegations were baseless and that he was willing to reconcile.

The key issues in the case revolved around the interpretation of cruelty and whether the conduct of
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the spouse was sufficient to justify the dissolution of marriage. Shilpa claimed that Varun's behavior
had caused her severe mental and emotional trauma, which amounted to cruelty under the Hindu
Marriage Act. Varun, on the other hand, argued that the instances cited by Shilpa were exaggerated
and did not meet the threshold of cruelty as defined by law.

The Court examined the evidence presented by both parties, including testimonies, written
communications, and the circumstances of their marital life. It noted that while minor disputes and
disagreements are common in any marriage, they do not necessarily constitute cruelty. However, the
Court found that in this case, the cumulative effect of Varun's behavior, including neglect, lack of
support, and public humiliation, did amount to cruelty, making it impossible for Shilpa to continue in the
marriage.

Another significant aspect of the case was the issue of desertion. The Court scrutinized whether
Varun's prolonged absence from the marital home was without reasonable cause and with the
intention to permanently desert Shilpa. After reviewing the facts, the Court concluded that Varun had
indeed deserted Shilpa, as his actions demonstrated a clear intent to end the marital relationship.

Ultimately, the Supreme Court granted the divorce, recognizing that the marriage had irretrievably
broken down. The judgment highlighted the importance of considering the overall context of a
marriage and the cumulative impact of a spouse's behavior when determining cases of cruelty and
desertion.
Q 59. 12061577 Rina files for divorce, claiming her husband publicly humiliated her and neglected her
emotional needs. He counters that these incidents are minor disagreements common in any marriage.
Based on the Court's reasoning in Shilpa Sailesh v. Varun Sreenivasan, what is the most likely
outcome?

a) The Court dismisses the divorce petition, stating that minor disagreements are not cruelty.
b)
The Court grants the divorce, emphasizing the cumulative effect of the husband's behavior as cruelty.
c) The Court orders marriage counseling, believing the issues can be resolved.

d)
The Court denies the divorce, ruling that public humiliation alone does not meet the legal threshold for
cruelty.

Q 60. 12061577 Vikram leaves the marital home without any explanation and doesn't return for two
years. His wife, Meera, files for divorce, claiming desertion. How would the Court likely assess
Vikram's behavior based on the precedent set in Shilpa Sailesh v. Varun Sreenivasan?

a)
The Court will likely find Vikram guilty of desertion as his absence was prolonged and without
reasonable cause.

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b) The Court will deny the divorce, ruling that Meera must first attempt reconciliation.

c)
The Court will dismiss the desertion claim if Vikram returns and offers a valid reason for his absence.

d) The Court will consider Vikram's intent but require Meera to prove her efforts to reach out to him.

Q 61. 12061577 Aditi seeks divorce from her husband for mental cruelty, citing his persistent neglect
and lack of emotional support over the years. Her husband argues these are minor issues. What
would be the Court's likely stance on Aditi's claim in light of Shilpa Sailesh v. Varun Sreenivasan?

a) The Court might deny the claim, arguing that emotional neglect is too subjective.

b) The Court could accept the claim if it believes the neglect has caused significant mental trauma.

c) The Court may require Aditi to provide evidence of physical abuse for the claim to succeed.
d) The Court could reject the claim, noting that Aditi must first prove attempts at reconciliation.

Q 62. 12061577 Sameer has not lived with his wife for over a year and has cut off all communication.
When his wife files for divorce, he argues that they were simply taking a break. How would the Court
likely interpret Sameer's actions under the precedent set by Shilpa Sailesh v. Varun Sreenivasan?

a)
The Court may find Sameer guilty of desertion due to the prolonged separation and lack of
communication.
b)
The Court could dismiss the divorce petition, stating that a temporary break does not equate to
desertion.
c) The Court might delay proceedings to allow for possible reconciliation.

d) The Court would require the wife to prove that Sameer had no intention of returning.

Q 63. 12061577 Priya claims her marriage has irretrievably broken down due to continuous mental
and emotional cruelty by her husband. He argues that the incidents she mentions are exaggerated.
How would the Court likely decide Priya's case, considering the Shilpa Sailesh v. Varun Sreenivasan
judgment?

a)
The Court could grant a divorce if it finds the cumulative effect of the husband's actions constitutes
cruelty.
b) The Court may dismiss the case if Priya cannot provide concrete evidence of physical abuse.

c) The Court might require both parties to undergo counseling before ruling.

d) The Court could reject Priya's claim if the husband's actions are deemed exaggerated.

Q 64. 12061577 Arjun has been away from home for over a year, and his wife files for divorce, citing
desertion. Arjun claims he was working abroad and had every intention of returning. How would the

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Court likely assess Arjun's defense in light of Shilpa Sailesh v. Varun Sreenivasan?

a) The Court might accept Arjun's defense if there is evidence supporting his intention to return.
b) The Court may still find desertion if Arjun failed to communicate with his wife during his absence.

c)
The Court could reject the divorce petition, ruling that working abroad does not constitute desertion.

d) The Court might delay the decision until Arjun returns home to assess his intent.

Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.

Passage – 3

Article 20(3) of the Indian Constitution provides protection against self-incrimination. It states that
no person accused of any offense shall be compelled to be a witness against themselves. This
principle forms a crucial part of the broader right to a fair trial and is rooted in the idea that the state
must prove the guilt of the accused without forcing the accused to provide evidence against
themselves. The underlying rule is that the burden of proof rests on the prosecution, and an accused
person cannot be compelled to make statements or confess to a crime under duress or coercion.

This protection applies only to persons accused of an offense and extends to any form of testimony,
whether oral or written, which could incriminate the individual. The principle also covers any
compulsion by physical or psychological means. However, this protection does not extend to obtaining
material evidence, such as fingerprints, blood samples, or voice recordings, which are not considered
testimonial in nature.

Changes to this rule could significantly impact its application. For instance, if the protection under
Article 20(3) were expanded to include material evidence, it would shield the accused from having to
provide any form of evidence, complicating the prosecution's ability to prove guilt. Conversely,
narrowing the protection to exclude certain types of testimonial evidence could lead to situations
where accused individuals are compelled to provide incriminating information, potentially
compromising the fairness of the trial process.
Q 65. 12061577 Rakesh is accused of theft and is asked by the police to provide a confession under
threat of imprisonment. Based on Article 20(3), what should Rakesh's legal position be?

a) Rakesh can be compelled to confess under threat since it is part of the investigation.
b) Rakesh cannot be compelled to confess as it violates Article 20(3).

c) Rakesh must provide a confession but can later retract it in court.

d) Rakesh's confession is admissible only if it is given voluntarily.

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Q 66. 12061577 The police request a blood sample from Sunita, who is accused of driving under the
influence, to determine her blood alcohol level. Is this request a violation of Sunita's rights under
Article 20(3)?

a) Yes, because any evidence obtained from her body violates Article 20(3).
b) No, because material evidence like blood samples is not covered under Article 20(3).

c) Yes, because Sunita is being compelled to provide incriminating evidence.

d) No, because the police can obtain physical evidence without violating Article 20(3).

Q 67. 12061577 A new law proposes that an accused person must provide a written statement about
their involvement in a crime. How would this law stand against Article 20(3) as currently interpreted?

a) The law would be unconstitutional as it compels self-incrimination.

b) The law would be constitutional if the accused agrees to provide the statement voluntarily.

c) The law would be unconstitutional only if the statement is obtained under duress.

d) The law would be valid if it only applies to certain types of crimes.

Q 68. 12061577 Suppose Article 20(3) is amended to include protection against providing fingerprints.
How would this amendment alter the application of Article 20(3) to criminal investigations?

a) It would make it harder for the prosecution to gather physical evidence from the accused.

b) It would have no impact since fingerprints are not considered testimonial evidence.

c) It would only affect cases where the accused refuses to provide fingerprints voluntarily.
d) It would eliminate the need for any other forms of evidence in criminal cases.

Q 69. 12061577 A court compels an accused to testify about their involvement in a crime, but the
accused remains silent. What would be the most likely legal outcome under Article 20(3)?

a) The accused would be held in contempt of court for refusing to testify.

b) The accused's silence would be protected under Article 20(3) as a right against self-incrimination.
c) The accused must testify, but the testimony cannot be used against them.

d) The court could infer guilt from the accused's refusal to testify.

Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.

Passage – 4

The regulation of Over-the-Top (OTT) platforms in India has become a contentious issue, especially
concerning content that may be deemed obscene. OTT platforms, which include streaming services

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like Netflix, Amazon Prime Video, and others, have enjoyed relatively unregulated freedom compared
to traditional media. However, with the growing popularity of these platforms, there have been
increasing concerns over the nature of content available, particularly its potential to offend public
morals and decency.

The legal framework in India to address obscenity primarily revolves around the Indian Penal Code
(IPC), 1860, specifically Section 292, which criminalizes the sale, distribution, and public exhibition of
obscene material. Obscenity, though not precisely defined in the statute, is generally interpreted based
on community standards and the dominant effect of the material in question. The Supreme Court of
India, in cases like Ranjit Udeshi v. State of Maharashtra (1965), has held that material is obscene if it
tends to deprave and corrupt those likely to be exposed to it.

OTT platforms operate in a legal grey area because the existing legal framework was not designed
with digital media in mind. Recent discussions have centered on whether OTT content should be
subjected to the same regulations as traditional media. Proponents of regulation argue that some OTT
content crosses the line into obscenity, thus necessitating stricter oversight. On the other hand,
opponents believe that imposing traditional media regulations on OTT platforms would stifle creativity
and limit freedom of expression.

The potential changes to the regulatory framework could include defining clear guidelines for what
constitutes obscene content on OTT platforms. If OTT content were to be regulated under the same
standards as traditional media, content creators might need to self-censor or alter their content to
comply with these guidelines. Conversely, if the regulations are relaxed, there could be greater
freedom for creators, but this might lead to more content that challenges societal norms around
obscenity.
Q 70. 12061577 Arjun, a filmmaker, releases a series on an OTT platform featuring explicit scenes
that push the boundaries of acceptable content. Critics claim it violates public morals and should be
regulated. Based on the current legal framework and the perspective in the passage, how might the
content of Arjun's series be evaluated?

a)
The content could be deemed obscene if it tends to deprave and corrupt viewers according to
community standards.
b) The content would likely be protected under freedom of expression and face no legal challenges.

c) The content would automatically be considered obscene due to its explicit nature.
d) The content would be acceptable if it adheres to self-regulation guidelines set by the OTT platform.

Q 71. 12061577 Meera is concerned about the impact of violent and sexually explicit content on OTT
platforms on her teenage children. She petitions the government to impose stricter regulations on OTT
platforms similar to those on traditional media. What is a likely outcome if the government imposes
traditional media regulations on OTT platforms as suggested by Meera?

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a) OTT platforms may need to self-censor content to comply with stricter guidelines.

b)
Content on OTT platforms would remain unchanged, as these platforms operate under different
standards.
c)
The government would reject the petition, arguing that such content falls under freedom of expression.
d)
The OTT platforms would appeal the decision, citing their unique nature compared to traditional
media.

Q 72. 12061577 Ravi creates a documentary on an OTT platform that includes controversial footage,
which some viewers claim is obscene. He argues that the content is educational and serves the public
interest. How might the Court evaluate the documentary's content under the obscenity laws discussed
in the passage?

a)
The documentary could be considered non-obscene if its primary purpose is educational and it does
not tend to deprave or corrupt viewers.

b) The documentary would be automatically classified as obscene due to the controversial footage.
c) The documentary would likely be banned, as all controversial content is considered obscene.

d) The documentary would only be allowed if it receives a certification from the censor board.

Q 73. 12061577 A new law is proposed that would require OTT platforms to obtain certification for all
content before streaming it, similar to traditional cinema. Content creators worry this will limit their
creative freedom. How might this proposed law affect OTT content, according to the principles
discussed in the passage?

a)
It could stifle creativity as content creators may have to alter or censor their content to obtain
certification.

b) It would have no significant impact since OTT platforms already adhere to similar standards.
c) It could increase the diversity of content as creators strive to meet certification standards.

d) It would likely be struck down as unconstitutional because it infringes on freedom of expression.

Q 74. 12061577 An OTT platform releases a series with explicit content, claiming it is intended for
mature audiences and should not be subject to traditional obscenity laws. However, a group argues it
still violates public decency. What could be the legal reasoning if this series were challenged under the
current legal framework as described in the passage?

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a)
The series could be considered obscene if it tends to deprave or corrupt viewers, despite its intended
audience.
b) The series would be protected as long as it is clearly labeled for mature audiences.
c) The series would automatically be exempt from scrutiny due to its intended mature audience.

d) The series could only be challenged if it receives a high viewership among underage viewers.

Q 75. 12061577 If OTT platforms are subjected to the same regulations as traditional media, content
creators will likely have to self-censor or alter their content to avoid violating obscenity laws. Which of
the following most accurately explains why this might happen, based on the passage?

a)
Traditional media regulations are stricter and more clearly defined, making it necessary for OTT
content creators to modify their content to avoid legal issues.
b)
Traditional media regulations have no impact on digital content, so OTT content creators can continue
without changes.
c)
OTT content creators have already been complying with traditional media standards, so no significant
changes will be needed.
d)
The existing legal framework for traditional media is outdated and does not apply to modern digital
content, hence no changes will be necessary.

Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.

Passage – 5

Strict liability and absolute liability are two important doctrines in tort law that deal with liability for harm
caused by inherently dangerous activities or substances. Under the doctrine of strict liability, a party
can be held liable for damages without the need for the injured party to prove negligence or intent.
This principle was famously established in the case of Rylands v. Fletcher (1868), where the
defendant was held liable for the escape of water from a reservoir onto the plaintiff's land, even though
there was no fault on the defendant's part. The essence of strict liability is that certain activities, by
their very nature, pose such significant risks that those engaging in them are held liable for any
resulting harm, regardless of the precautions taken.

Absolute liability, on the other hand, is a stricter form of liability with no exceptions or defenses. This

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doctrine was established by the Indian Supreme Court in the case of M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
(1987), concerning the leakage of toxic gas from the Shriram Food and Fertilizer Industries. Unlike
strict liability, absolute liability applies to any harm caused by hazardous or inherently dangerous
activities, without considering any defenses such as an act of God or the plaintiff's own fault. The
principle behind absolute liability is that the enterprise engaged in such dangerous activities must bear
the full cost of any damage caused, as it profits from activities that pose potential risks to the public.

A key difference between the two doctrines is that strict liability allows for certain defenses, such as
the plaintiff's consent or an unforeseeable third-party intervention, whereas absolute liability imposes
an unequivocal responsibility on the party engaged in hazardous activities, irrespective of any fault or
external factors. Changes to these doctrines, such as expanding absolute liability to more industries,
could significantly increase the burden on companies involved in potentially harmful activities.
Q 76. 12061577 A chemical factory is located near a residential area. Despite taking all possible
safety measures, a gas leak occurs, causing harm to the residents. The factory argues that an
unforeseeable earthquake caused the leak. Under which liability doctrine is the factory most likely to
be held liable, and why?

a)
Strict liability, because the factory engaged in a hazardous activity and the earthquake is not a valid
defense.
b)
Absolute liability, because no defenses are allowed, even in the case of an unforeseeable earthquake.
c) The factory will not be held liable under either doctrine due to the natural disaster.

d) Strict liability, because the factory took all possible safety measures, reducing its liability.

Q 77. 12061577 A company manufacturing fireworks operates under strict safety regulations. Despite
adhering to these regulations, an explosion occurs, causing damage to nearby properties. The
company claims that it followed all required safety procedures. How would the company's liability be
assessed under the doctrine of strict liability?

a) The company would still be liable, as strict liability applies regardless of the precautions taken.

b) The company would not be liable, as it adhered to all safety regulations.

c) The company would be liable only if negligence could be proven by the plaintiffs.

d) The company could argue that adherence to safety regulations exempts it from liability.

Q 78. 12061577 An oil company is drilling in a region known for its environmental sensitivity. An oil
spill occurs due to a freak storm, causing extensive ecological damage. The company claims that the
storm was an act of God and that it had no control over the situation. How does the doctrine of
absolute liability apply to this scenario?

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a)
The company would be held liable because absolute liability does not allow for defenses such as an
act of God.
b)
The company would not be liable, as the storm was an unforeseeable natural event beyond its control.

c) The company would be liable only if it can be proven that the spill was caused by its negligence.

d) The company could avoid liability by showing that it complied with all environmental regulations.

Q 79. 12061577 A pharmaceutical company releases a new drug after extensive testing. However,
unforeseen side effects cause harm to patients. The company argues that it followed all testing
protocols and was unaware of the potential side effects. Under strict liability, what would be the
company's liability for the harm caused by the drug?

a) The company would be liable because strict liability applies even if the harm was unforeseeable.
b) The company would not be liable, as it followed all testing protocols in good faith.

c) The company would be liable only if it can be shown that it ignored known risks.

d)
The company could avoid liability by arguing that the side effects were unknown and unforeseeable.

Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.

Passage – 6

In the case of Charan Singh @ Charanjit Singh vs The State Of Uttarakhand (2023), the appellant,
Charan Singh, challenged his conviction and sentence under Sections 304B (dowry death), 498A
(cruelty), and 201 (causing disappearance of evidence) of the Indian Penal Code (IPC). The Trial
Court had sentenced him to rigorous imprisonment of ten years under Section 304B, two years under
Section 498A, and two years under Section 201 IPC. The High Court of Uttarakhand upheld the
conviction but reduced the sentence under Section 304B from ten years to seven years.

The case arose from the death of Charan Singh's wife, Chhilo Kaur, two years after their marriage.
Her father, Pratap Singh, filed a complaint alleging that the appellant and his family had been
harassing Chhilo Kaur for dowry, specifically demanding a motorcycle and land. The complaint also
alleged that Charan Singh, along with his brother and mother, murdered Chhilo Kaur due to the non-
fulfillment of these demands and cremated her body without informing her parents.

The prosecution relied on the testimonies of six witnesses, including the deceased's father and other
relatives. However, the defense argued that there was no evidence of harassment or cruelty

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immediately before the death, as required to prove dowry death under Section 304B IPC. The defense
also pointed out inconsistencies in the prosecution's case, including the absence of Jagir Singh, a key
witness who had allegedly informed the deceased's father about the death.

The Court noted that none of the witnesses provided evidence of cruelty or harassment immediately
before the death, and the demand for dowry was not recent. It also found that the presumption of
dowry death under Section 304B IPC and Section 113B of the Indian Evidence Act could not be
invoked based solely on the unnatural death of the deceased within seven years of marriage.

As a result, the Court set aside the conviction and sentence of Charan Singh, concluding that the
prosecution failed to meet the necessary legal standards to prove the charges beyond a reasonable
doubt.
Q 80. 12061577 A woman dies under suspicious circumstances within two years of her marriage. The
prosecution alleges dowry harassment based on complaints made by the woman's father about
demands for a motorcycle and land. However, there is no evidence of harassment immediately before
her death. How would the Court likely assess the charge under Section 304B IPC based on the
principles in Charan Singh's case.

a) The Court would uphold the charge as the death occurred within seven years of marriage.

b)
The Court would dismiss the charge if there is no evidence of harassment or cruelty immediately
before the death.
c) The Court would require proof of physical abuse to uphold the charge.

d)
The Court would only consider the charge if the dowry demands were made at the time of marriage.

Q 81. 12061577 A man is accused of causing his wife's death for dowry, but the key witness who
informed the woman's father about her death is not presented in court. The defense argues this
weakens the prosecution's case. How would the Court likely view the absence of this key witness,
considering Charan Singh's case

a) The Court would automatically acquit the accused due to the missing witness.
b)
The Court might question the credibility of the prosecution's case due to the absence of a key witness.
c) The Court would overlook the absence if there is other strong evidence.
d) The Court would convict based on the testimonies of other witnesses.

Q 82. 12061577 In a case of alleged dowry death, the prosecution argues that the deceased's
husband should be presumed guilty under Section 304B IPC because the death was unnatural and
occurred within seven years of marriage. How does Charan Singh's case guide the Court's decision
regarding this presumption?

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a) The Court must automatically presume guilt under Section 304B IPC.

b)
The Court will only presume guilt if there is evidence of cruelty or harassment related to dowry
demands soon before the death.
c) The Court will ignore the presumption if the husband denies the allegations.

d) The Court will require corroborative evidence of dowry demands to uphold the presumption.

Q 83. 12061577 If a woman dies under unnatural circumstances within seven years of marriage, the
husband is automatically presumed guilty under Section 304B IPC, and this presumption cannot be
challenged. Which of the following is the most logical inference based on the passage?

a)
The statement is entirely accurate because the presumption under Section 304B IPC is absolute and
unchallengeable.
b)
The statement is incorrect because the presumption under Section 304B IPC can be challenged if
there is no evidence of cruelty or harassment soon before the death.
c)
The statement is partially correct, but it requires evidence of dowry demands at the time of marriage
for the presumption to apply.
d)
The statement is correct only if the prosecution presents direct evidence of the husband's involvement
in the death.

Q 84. 12061577 In a case where a woman died within five years of marriage under suspicious
circumstances, her husband was accused of dowry death. The prosecution provided evidence that the
husband had demanded dowry during the first year of marriage, but no evidence of harassment or
cruelty was presented for the period immediately before her death.

Which of the following is the most logical conclusion that the Court might reach based on the
reasoning in Charan Singh case.

a)
The Court will convict the husband under Section 304B IPC due to the unnatural death within seven
years of marriage.
b)
The Court will acquit the husband under Section 304B IPC because there is no evidence of
harassment or cruelty immediately before the death.
c)
The Court will convict the husband if there is any evidence of dowry demand, regardless of the timing.

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d)
The Court will convict the husband under Section 498A IPC instead, as it requires less stringent
evidence of harassment.

Logical Reasoning
Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 1

Anita had been working as a Marketing Specialist at QuickCart, a leading ecommerce platform, for the
past four years. Graduating from a prestigious business school, she quickly rose through the ranks
due to her innovative campaigns and strong work ethic. Impressed by her performance, Rajiv, the
Head of Marketing, promoted her to Senior Marketing Manager, hinting at a future role as Vice
President.

Anita decided to enhance her career further by pursuing an executive programme at a top global
business school. She was accepted into the programme, which would begin in six months.
QuickCart's policy required a two month notice for resignations. Anita chose to continue working,
aiming to deepen her marketing expertise while still contributing to the company's success, keeping
her plans confidential for the time being.
Q 85. 12061577 QuickCart, a leading ecommerce platform, was planning to launch a new marketing
campaign to revitalise its brand and attract a younger audience. Rajiv, the Head of Marketing,
anticipated that the campaign would take about five months to develop and execute fully. Rajiv wanted
Anita to spearhead this initiative, as her creative vision and leadership were considered essential to
the campaign's success. However, Anita knew that she would be leaving for an executive programme
in three months, and she was uncertain about whether to accept this responsibility.

Which of the following information, if true, will BEST assist Anita in accepting the role of leading the
campaign?

a) Anita's team had successfully handled critical aspects of previous campaigns during her absence.

b)
Anita's executive programme allowed for remote work on weekends, enabling her to stay involved in
the campaign.
c)
Anita could bring on additional marketing specialists to ensure the campaign's momentum over the
next three months.

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d)
Rajiv had mentioned that the campaign could be postponed if necessary, depending on Anita's
availability.

Q 86. 12061577 Anita resigned from QuickCart to pursue her executive programme, leaving Rajiv
surprised and disappointed. Their relationship became strained after a tense conversation, and they
agreed to part ways. Now, Anita needs verification of her work experience for her upcoming internship.

Which of the following actions is the MOST appropriate for Anita to obtain her verification?

a)
Anita should write a professional apology letter to Rajiv, expressing regret for the way things ended.

b) Anita should contact the HR department to facilitate the verification of her work experience.

c)
Anita should reconnect with Rajiv on LinkedIn and politely request his help in verifying her
responsibilities.
d) Anita should email Rajiv, detailing her roles and accomplishments, and request his approval.

Q 87. 12061577 Anita received a verification letter from QuickCart outlining her basic job
responsibilities during her time there. However, she needed a document to substantiate the additional
initiatives she undertook, going beyond her standard duties. Unfortunately, Anita didn't have any
formal documentation of these extra efforts.

Which of the following options will BEST help substantiate the additional initiatives Anita undertook?

a)
Anita should collect testimonials on her additional initiatives from her former colleagues at QuickCart.
b)
Anita should write a public post on social media, appealing to Rajiv, mentioning the challenges she
faced while taking on extra initiatives, and how she succeeded.

c)
Anita should reach out to the newly appointed Head of Marketing at QuickCart to highlight the extra
work she did to support the department.
d)
Anita should create a detailed document with quantifiable metrics and outcomes of her additional
work, based on her recollection.

Q 88. 12061577 After Anita resigned from QuickCart, she realized that she had left behind some
important documents that could support her application for a scholarship at her executive programme.
These documents were stored on her office computer, to which she no longer had access.

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Which of the following options would be the MOST appropriate for Anita to retrieve the documents?

a)
Anita should ask a trusted former colleague to access her office computer and send her the
documents.
b)
Anita should contact the IT department at QuickCart to request temporary access to her computer
files.
c)
Anita should email Rajiv, explaining the situation and requesting his help in retrieving the documents.
d) Anita should attempt to remotely access her office computer using her personal credentials.

Q 89. 12061577 Anita was asked by her executive programme's admissions committee to provide a
letter of recommendation from her most recent supervisor. Given the strained relationship with Rajiv,
she was unsure how to proceed.

Which of the following actions is the MOST appropriate for Anita to obtain the letter of
recommendation?

a)
Anita should request a letter of recommendation from another senior colleague at QuickCart who is
familiar with her work.

b)
Anita should contact Rajiv, sincerely explain the importance of the recommendation, and ask if he
would consider writing it.
c)
Anita should draft a letter of recommendation herself and send it to Rajiv for approval and signature.
d)
Anita should reach out to the HR department to see if they can provide a general recommendation
letter on her behalf.

Q 90. 12061577 Anita was applying for a leadership role in a startup and needed to demonstrate her
ability to lead and manage large projects. However, she lacked formal documentation of her
leadership on specific initiatives at QuickCart.

Which of the following actions is the BEST way for Anita to substantiate her leadership experience?

a)
Anita should compile a detailed portfolio, including any available emails, presentations, and reports
that reflect her leadership roles.

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b)
Anita should request her former team members at QuickCart to write endorsements on her LinkedIn
profile, highlighting her leadership skills.
c) Anita should contact Rajiv and ask him to endorse her leadership experience in an official letter.
d)
Anita should refer to the general job responsibilities listed in her verification letter and emphasize her
leadership in interviews without specific documentation.

Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 2

The "mist and veil of words," as the Irish philosopher George Berkeley (1685-1753) described it, is a
traditional theme in the history of philosophy. Confucius (551-479 bc), for example, held that, when
words go wrong, there is no limit to what else may go wrong with them; for this reason, "the civilized
person is anything but casual in what he says." This view is often associated with pessimism about the
usefulness of natural language as a tool for acquiring and formulating knowledge; it has also inspired
efforts by some philosophers and linguists to construct an "ideal" language-i.e., one that would be
semantically or logically "transparent." The most celebrated of these projects was undertaken by the
great German polymath Gottfried Wilhelm Leibniz (1646-1716), who envisioned a "universal
characteristic" that would enable people to settle their disputes through a process of pure calculation,
analogous to the factoring of numbers. In the early 20th century, the rapid development of modern
mathematical logic similarly inspired the idea of a language in which grammatical form would be a
sure guide to meaning, so that the inferences that could legitimately be drawn from propositions would
be clearly visible on their surface.
Q 91. 12061577 What is the central theme of the passage?

a) The historical perspective on the limitations of natural language in conveying knowledge.

b) The evolution of linguistic theories in the early 20th century.

c) The comparison between natural language and mathematical logic.

d) The impact of Confucius's teachings on modern linguistic philosophy.

Q 92. 12061577 According to the passage, what does a 'universal characteristic' symbolize?

a) A philosophical concept developed by Confucius.

b) A universal language that could be understood by everyone.

c) A logical method for resolving disputes through calculations.

d) A metaphor for the complexities of natural language.

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Q 93. 12061577 "The civilized person is anything but casual in what he says." Which of the following
conclusions can be drawn from the above statement?

a) b)
Philosophers advocate for a strict formal Casual language is a sign of uncivilized
language. behaviour.
c) d)
The use of natural language is inherently flawed. Precision in language is essential for a civilized
person.

Q 94. 12061577 Which of the following strengthens the author's idea that "when words go wrong,
there is no limit to what else may go wrong with them."

a) Natural language is inherently ambiguous and prone to errors.

b) Miscommunication can lead to misunderstandings and conflicts.

c) The development of mathematical logic has provided a solution to linguistic issues.

d) Philosophers have always been concerned with the clarity of language.

Q 95. 12061577 In the context of the passage, what is the significance of the "mist and veil of
words"?

a) It is a metaphor for the philosophical debate on language transparency.

b) It symbolizes the beauty and complexity of linguistic expression.

c) It represents the confusion and lack of clarity in natural language.

d) It highlights the importance of precise grammar in communication.

Q 96. 12061577 How does the passage describe "an ideal language"?

a) A language where grammatical form directly corresponds to meaning.

b) A language that is simple and easy to learn for everyone.

c) A language with a rich vocabulary for precise expression.

d) A language that preserves the beauty of natural speech.

Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 3

In 2024, traditional magazines-both print and digital-are struggling as platforms for serious journalism.
Legacy outlets now chase short-form content and have lost confidence in quality writing. Ironically,
readers are craving the longer, more thoughtful pieces that these magazines refuse to publish, leading
them to bypass magazines in favor of direct engagement with individual writers.

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The magazine is becoming increasingly irrelevant. While some venerable names like The New Yorker,
The Atlantic, and Harper's continue to maintain high standards and a loyal readership, their survival is
uncertain. These publications still value quality writing and haven't succumbed to short-form, TikTok-
driven trends, which might offer them a chance to endure.

However, even established titles aren't immune. The New Republic, founded in 1914, once held
significant influence but saw its print circulation halve due to the Internet's impact before ceasing to
report numbers. Online magazines face similar difficulties, marking a broader decline in the traditional
magazine model.

This decline isn't the end of journalism, though. Journalism might be poised for a resurgence as more
readers shift their subscriptions to platforms like Substack. This shift creates a vicious cycle: as
magazines lose circulation, they cut costs and squeeze writers, driving popular writers to independent
ventures. This further erodes subscriptions, leading magazines to cut costs again, perpetuating the
cycle. Breaking this spiral would require new strategies that don't resemble traditional magazines.

Alternative approaches could involve innovative ways of hiring and showcasing talent, similar to how
sports teams and movie studios manage star performers. These businesses have learned to leverage
talent effectively, keeping their enterprises healthy.

In contrast, traditional publishers continue to shrink page counts, reduce issue frequency, cut staff,
and lower pay for writers and editors. This approach only accelerates the decline. Unlike airlines or
tech monopolies, magazines lack the monopoly power to force inferior quality on readers. Each cost-
cutting measure deepens their decline.

So, if you see a newsstand filled with magazines, enjoy it while you can. Future generations might only
encounter such sights in media museums. While their passing is regrettable, it's vital for those in
journalism to focus on building new, sustainable models.
Q 97. 12061577 Which of the following best sums up the author's main argument in the passage?

a)
The New Yorker, The Atlantic, and Harper's will continue to thrive because they haven't succumbed to
TikTok-driven trends.

b)
The Internet has caused a significant drop in print circulation for many magazines, but this has little
impact on the future of journalism as a whole.
c)
Journalism may rebound through new models despite the decline of traditional magazines, due to their
focus on short-form content and diminished quality.

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d)
Traditional magazines are struggling because they haven't innovated in managing talent, unlike sports
teams and movie studios.

Q 98. 12061577 Which of the following does the author suggest for traditional magazines to survive?

a) Magazines should emulate sports teams and movie studios and manage their star performers.

b)
Magazines should focus more on short-form content and social media trends to attract a larger
audience.

c)
Traditional magazines should increase their page counts and issue frequency to appeal to a broader
readership.
d) Magazines should develop new innovative models to showcase talent and content.

Q 99. 12061577 We can infer that the main reason why journalism will survive is that …

a)
Traditional magazines are struggling due to their focus on short-form content, cost-cutting measures,
and diminishing quality.

b)
New models and platforms are emerging leading to quality journalism catering to current reader
preferences
c) New content platforms have changed how journalism is delivered.

d) Journalists are poaching readers from magazines by interacting directly with readers.

Q 100. 12061577 Which of the following parallels the author's reasoning about 'vicious cycle that is
prevalent in the magazine business?

a)
As a restaurant receives negative reviews, it reduces its prices to attract more customers, but this
leads to lower revenue and further negative reviews, which eventually force the restaurant to close.
b)
As a city experiences a rise in crime, it invests more in law enforcement, which deters crime and
improves safety, leading to increased property values and a growing economy.
c)
As a tech company loses market share, it reduces investment in innovation, leading to less appealing
products, which drives customers to competitors. This decreases revenue further, more cuts in
innovation, and the cycle continues.

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d)
As a student struggles with low grades, they receive less support from teachers and parents, leading
to further poor performance, which reduces their motivation and exacerbates their academic
difficulties.

Q 101. 12061577 Which of the following, if true, most weakens the author's argument on how
magazines can survive?

a) Many magazines are shifting to digital-only formats, increasing their reach and subscriber base.
b) Some magazines still have a substantial following of loyal readers.

c) Prominent magazines have shown a significant increase in revenue from advertising partnerships.

d) Publishing houses have announced that they would invest in high quality content.

Q 102. 12061577 Which of the following is NOT an assumption made by the author in the passage?

a) Cost-cutting measures are detrimental to the quality of content and readership.

b) All magazines are affected by the decline and cost-cutting cycle.

c) Magazines with good content can overcome competition from new media platforms.

d)
Readers and writers will remain loyal to high-quality content and will move towards platforms that
maintain these standards.

Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 4

The world is on fire. At no time since the Cuban missile crisis of 1962 has the world looked so
dangerous, nor has an end to its 56 conflicts - the highest number since the second world war -
seemed so distant and so difficult to achieve.

Distracted by domestic election campaigns, preoccupied by internal divisions and blindsided by the
seismic geopolitical shifts happening beneath our feet, the world is sleepwalking into a "one world, two
systems", "China v America" future. And the cooperation needed to firefight is proving so elusive that
even now, an international agreement to prepare for and prevent global pandemics remains beyond
our grasp. Nor, even up against the existential problem of climate change (the planet is on course for a
temperature increase of 2.7C above pre-industrial levels), can many hold out hopes that Cop29 in
Azerbaijan will be equal to the challenge. At a time when global problems urgently need global
solutions, the gap between what we need to do and our capacity - or, more accurately, our willingness
- to do so is widening by the minute.

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We are at a global turning point, not just because crises are multiplying far beyond the very public
tragedies of the Ukraine and Israel-Gaza wars, but because in a year when nearly half the world has
gone to the polls, few political candidates have been prepared to acknowledge the altered geopolitical
landscape. For three seismic shifts that are bringing to an end the unipolar, neoliberal hyperglobalised
world of the last 30 years make a total rethink essential.

First, we are moving from a unipolar world to a multipolar world, not a world where the big powers are
of equal status - the US will dominate militarily and economically for decades to come - but a world of
multiple, competing centres of power. As US hegemony has come under challenge, countries released
from the unipolar straitjacket have become fence-sitters, hedgers and swing states, many entering
opportunistic and potentially dangerous liaisons. A few, such as India and Indonesia, play the big
powers off against each other. As worrying, the global south - now facing a lost decade of
development without a global financial safety net to fall back on and angry at how little has been done
to support it on vaccines, climate change and humanitarian crises - is turning away from western
leadership.

But a second seismic shift has moved the world from neoliberal or free-trade economics to neo-
mercantilist protectionist economics, with not just rising tariffs (and more to come, if Donald Trump
imposes a 10% tariff worldwide) but trade bans, investment bans and technology. Once, free trade
was seen as the key to higher standards of living; now, trade restrictions are seen as the key to
protecting them. A zero-sum view of the world - "I can only succeed if you fail" - explains the outbreak
of anti-trade, anti-immigrant, anti-globalisation sentiment as not only the US but 15 other countries
plan to construct or consolidate border walls.
Q 103. 12061577 Which of the following best captures the author's perspective on the state of global
conflict as discussed in the passage?

a) The author is optimistic that global conflicts will be resolved with increased cooperation.
b)
The author is concerned about the growing number of global conflicts and the lack of effective
international cooperation.
c) The author believes that domestic politics will overshadow international conflict resolution efforts.

d) The author suggests that technological advancements will eventually reduce global conflicts.

Q 104. 12061577 What does the author imply about the "one world, two systems" future?

a) It represents an inevitable and harmonious global division between China and America.

b) It suggests a grim future with more division and rivalry between global powers.
c) It indicates a balanced partnership between China and America to address global issues.

d) It shows the author's approval of a future where global powers share leadership roles.

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Q 105. 12061577 Which of the following can be inferred from the author's discussion on climate
change in the passage?

a) The author is hopeful that international cooperation will successfully address climate change.

b)
The author thinks that technological innovations will solve climate change without the need for
international agreements.
c) The author argues that economic considerations should take precedence over climate action.
d) The author believes that current international efforts to combat climate change are insufficient.

Q 106. 12061577 Which of the following can be inferred from the last sentence of the passage, "A
zero-sum view of the world - 'I can only succeed if you fail' - explains the outbreak of anti-trade, anti-
immigrant, anti-globalisation sentiment as not only the US but 15 other countries plan to construct or
consolidate border walls."?

a)
The rise in protectionist policies reflects a growing belief that international cooperation is no longer
beneficial.
b) The construction of border walls is driven more by economic concerns than political ones.

c) The zero-sum mentality is shared by many countries beyond the US.

d) The trend towards isolationism will likely reduce international cooperation and trade.

Q 107. 12061577 Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author's argument about the
geopolitical shifts described in the passage?

a) Evidence that global cooperation has actually increased significantly in recent years.

b)
Reports showing that climate change agreements have led to significant global reductions in
emissions.
c) Data indicating that the majority of nations are still committed to a unipolar global order.

d) Findings that suggest that the global south is becoming more aligned with Western leadership.

Q 108. 12061577 The author's reference to the Cuban missile crisis most likely serves to:

a)
Draw a parallel between the current global situation and a past event where diplomacy prevented
disaster.
b) Suggest that current global conflicts are less severe than those in the past.

c) Highlight the success of past American leadership in managing global crises.

d) Imply that the world is now more stable than during the Cuban missile crisis.

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Quantitative Techniques
Directions for questions 109 to 114: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

There are four malls in a town - A, B, C, and D - which are visited by a total of 4200 people during the
weekend, that is Friday, Saturday, and Sunday. The ratio of people visiting Malls B, C and D on
Sunday was 8 : 9 : 10 respectively whereas the footfall at Mall A on Sunday was 25% less than that at
Mall D.

The total footfall at all the malls together was equal on Saturday and Sunday. A total of 1020 people
visited Mall D on all three days. Also the ratio of footfall at Mall D on Saturday and Sunday was 3 : 4
respectively whereas the footfall on Friday was 20% less than Sunday.

On Friday the footfall at Malls A and C was respectively 12.5% and 50% more than that at Mall D. The
average footfall in all four malls on Friday was the same as that at Mall A.

In Mall C, the footfall on Sunday was 10% less than that on Saturday. On Saturday at Malls A and B
the footfall was respectively 5% more and 35% less than that at Mall C.

Q 109. 12061577 If the footfall at Mall A on Monday and Tuesday is 25% and less than that at
Mall A on Friday and Saturday, respectively, then what is the total number of people who visited Mall A
on Monday and Tuesday together?

a) 640 b) 560 c) 600 d) 630

Q 110. 12061577 What is the ratio of the footfall at Mall B on Friday and the footfall at Mall D on
Saturday?

a) 11 : 12 b) 14 : 15 c) 13 : 14 d) 10 : 11

Q 111. 12061577 If the average footfall per day at Mall C from Thursday to Sunday is 385, then what
was the footfall at Mall C on Thursday?

a) 420 b) 340 c) 300 d) 360

Q 112. 12061577 What is the difference between the total footfall at Mall D and Mall B during the
weekend?

a) 160 b) 200 c) 180 d) 140

Q 113. 12061577 If the average expenditure per person at any mall during the weekend is Rs.450,
then what was the total revenue generated by the footfall at malls B and C during the weekend?

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a) Rs.8.65 lakh b) Rs.10.5 lakh c) Rs.9.45 lakh d) Rs.9.75 lakh

Q 114. 12061577 If 25% of the footfall at Mall D is for the cinema, 35% for the food court, 15% for
shopping and the remaining come without any purpose, then how many people visit Mall D during the
weekend without any purpose?

a) 175 b) 225 c) 305 d) 255

Directions for questions 115 to 120: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

The production data for three branches - A, B, and C - of a mobile production company, from Monday
to Friday in a week is listed below. On Monday and Tuesday Branch A produced 20% and 25%
respectively of the total production done by it on all five days. The ratio of production by A on Thursday
and Friday is 1 : 2 respectively. On Wednesday A produced 60 less than Friday. The average
production of A for the week was 600 units.

Branch B produced a total of 2400 units on all five days and Branch C produced two-thirds of the total
units produced by B on all five days. Out of the total production of B, 15% each was done on Thursday
and Friday. B produced 960 units on Wednesday whereas on Monday and Tuesday, the production of
B was in the ratio of 1 : 2. Out of the total production of C, 12% each was done on Tuesday and
Wednesday. The sum of production of C on Thursday and Friday is 816 and the ratio of production of
C on Thursday and Friday is 1 : 2.
Q 115. 12061577 Find the total production of Branch A on Wednesday and Branch C on Friday.

a) 1450 b) 1524 c) 1642 d) 1168

Q 116. 12061577 What is the maximum average production per day in these three branches?

a) 592 b) 612 c) 574 d) 608

Q 117. 12061577 What is the difference between the number of units produced by A and C on
Friday?

a) 162 b) 124 c) 140 d) 108

Q 118. 12061577 What is the ratio of the units produced by B on Monday and Friday together and
that produced by C on Wednesday and Thursday together?

a) 76 : 55 b) 75 : 58 c) 95 : 97 d) 21: 37

Q 119. 12061577 What was the average production per day of the three branches together from
Tuesday to Friday?

a) 370 b) 480 c) 414 d) 422

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Q 120. 12061577 The total production by the three branches on Monday and Tuesday is what
percentage of their total production on Wednesday and Thursday?

a) 94.4% b) 95% c) 88% d) 96.8%

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