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Countdown Mock 03 (CLAT) 2025

English Language
Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 1

"I believe in management's right to manage - and I also believe in the trade unions' right to stop them."
This combative adage has always been attributed in my experience to Hugh Scanlon, who went from
being one of the last of the overmighty trade union barons in the turbulent Britain of the 1970s to
spending his later years as an actual baron of the realm before his death in 2004.

The words certainly represent Scanlon's generally irreconcilable view of industrial relations under
capitalism, as I can confirm from an expensive lunch I once had with this deeply interesting man in the
1980s. Many on the Marxist left of Scanlon's era would have agreed with his words, the miners' leader
Arthur Scargill among them. And there are some union activists who still subscribe to them today.

Keir Starmer's Labour government is emphatically not in the business of encouraging this approach.
Quite the contrary. The watchword of the industrial relations section of Labour's election manifesto this
year was not conflict but it's very opposite: partnership. The emphasis on partnership is central to the
agreement that Labour and the unions crafted before the election, in its "new deal for working people".

Look inside the new deal document and you will find a menu of strengthened employment rights on
issues such as zero-hours contracts, parental leave and unfair dismissal protections. Each one of
them has strong public support and strong union support. But you will also find a commitment to "a
new partnership with business and trade unions" to achieve them, as well as the promise of "a new
era of partnership" to put an end to the wave of strikes that marked the Sunak government's final
months.

Labour has pledged to turn all this into an employment rights bill within its first 100 days in
government. This is pretty rapid stuff, even for a new government. It is all wrapped in multiple pledges
of consultation, which will not make the legislative process simpler. But if there is one thing you can
say about the Starmer government already, it is that it appears pretty well prepared. It also has a huge
Commons majority.
Q 1. 12061577 What does the phrase "management's right to manage" most likely imply in the
context of the passage?

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a) The belief that trade unions should control business decisions.

b) The acceptance of business leaders' authority to make decisions.

c) The notion that only government should manage industrial relations.

d) The idea that management should always consult trade unions before any decision.

Q 2. 12061577 Which of the following best represents the author's perspective on the Labour
government's approach to industrial relations?

a) The Labour government is following an outdated conflict-driven approach.

b) The Labour government aims to encourage partnership over conflict.

c) The Labour government is indifferent to the demands of trade unions.

d) The Labour government is solely focused on the interests of businesses.

Q 3. 12061577 What is the significance of the term "new era of partnership" as used in the passage?

a) It signifies a complete overhaul of the UK's industrial relations system.

b) It denotes the government's intention to dissolve trade unions.

c) It represents a shift from adversarial industrial relations to cooperative practices.

d) It implies that businesses will now have complete control over employment rights.

Q 4. 12061577 How does the author describe the preparation level of the Starmer government for
implementing its employment rights bill?

a) The author suggests the government is ill-prepared for the legislative process.
b) The author indicates that the government is rushing the bill without proper consultation.

c) The author states that the government appears well-prepared and ready.

d) The author implies that the government lacks the majority needed to pass the bill.

Q 5. 12061577 Which of the following can be inferred about the relationship between Labour's
election manifesto and trade unions?

a) The manifesto largely ignores the concerns of trade unions.

b) The manifesto is heavily influenced by union demands.

c) The manifesto focuses only on business interests.

d) The manifesto balances both union demands and business interests.

Q 6. 12061577 What can be inferred about the potential challenges in passing the employment rights
bill mentioned in the passage?

a) The bill will likely face no opposition due to Labour's majority.

b) The consultation process may complicate the bill's passage.

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c) The bill will be delayed because of lack of support from trade unions.

d) The bill will be blocked by the business community.

Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 2

While Wayanad in Kerala limps back to normal life after the devastating landslide last month, a
landslide on Tuesday (August 20, 2024) in Sikkim caused damage to six houses and a building of the
National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC) at its Teesta-5 hydropower station in Gangtok.
There is no comparison of the impact of the event in both places, as there was no loss of lives or
injuries reported in Sikkim. However, the cause for concern is that this is the second natural-disaster-
led assault on a hydropower project along the Teesta. A deluge from the South Lhonak glacier in North
Sikkim last October washed away the Chungthang dam that was critical to the Teesta-3 power station
(which is not operated by the NHPC). The Teesta-3 (1,200 MW) power project was the largest
hydroelectric power project in the State until it was effectively grounded after the outburst. Only a tenth
of the power originally being supplied by the project is now available. The Teesta-5 project, at 510
MW, has also been made non-functional since the glacial lake outburst.

The disaster shines a new light on an old, but never quiescent, conundrum posed by hydropower
projects. From initial proposals nearly three decades ago to have 47 power projects along the run of
the Teesta in Sikkim and West Bengal, only five projects exist and about 16 are in various stages of
consideration. A tributary of the Brahmaputra, the Teesta River originates from the Tso Lhamo Lake at
an elevation of about 5,280 metres in north Sikkim. The river travels for about 150 km in Sikkim and
123 km in West Bengal, before entering Bangladesh from Mekhligunj in Cooch Behar district; it flows
another 140 km in Bangladesh and joins the Bay of Bengal. In theory, the river's course through
undulating terrain is what tempts governments to extract as much benefit as possible for power
projects. Through the decades, several companies have bid for projects auctioned out by State
governments but the process has rarely been without complications. It has been a complicated
exercise in balancing the environmental risks, costs of properly insuring for those risks, public
perception and aiming for profit. In the case of the Teesta-3 project, reports have emerged that the
developers, in order to save on costs, built a concretefaced rock fill dam as opposed to a concrete
gravity dam - one reason why it was completely washed away. Environmental impact assessments of
hydropower projects in the region must give a clear estimate of the actual costs involved. This will not
only bolster public faith in these projects but also be environmentally sustainable.
Q 7. 12061577 Which of the following best captures the central concern regarding hydropower
projects as discussed in the passage?

a) The limited financial returns from hydropower projects in Sikkim.

b) The environmental and safety risks posed by hydropower projects.

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c) The lack of government support for hydropower initiatives.

d) The inefficiency of hydropower projects in generating electricity.

Q 8. 12061577 What is implied by the statement, "In the case of the Teesta-3 project, reports have
emerged that the developers, in order to save on costs, built a concrete-faced rock fill dam as
opposed to a concrete gravity dam - one reason why it was completely washed away"?

a)
The developers focused on reducing costs rather than ensuring the safety and durability of the project.
b) Hydropower construction in Sikkim is generally of low quality.

c) Concrete-faced rock fill dams are inherently less effective than concrete gravity dams.

d) The location of the Teesta-3 project made its failure inevitable.

Q 9. 12061577 Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage?

a) b) c) d)
alarmist and pessimistic analytical and cautious optimistic and detached and indifferent
encouraging

Q 10. 12061577 What conclusion can be drawn from the passage regarding the future of hydropower
projects in Sikkim?

a) Hydropower projects in Sikkim will likely be abandoned due to environmental concerns.

b)
Future hydropower projects' success will depend on balancing economic benefits with environmental
and public concerns.
c) The government will prioritize economic gains over environmental sustainability in future projects.

d)
The failure of current projects will lead to a complete re-evaluation of all hydropower initiatives in India.

Q 11. 12061577 Which of the following best captures the reason why environmental assessments are
crucial for hydropower projects?

a) They are a legal requirement that must be fulfilled before any construction.

b) They help ensure the long-term sustainability and public acceptance of the projects.
c) They provide data for scientific research on river ecosystems in the hilly regions of the north-east.

d) They are used to assess the financial viability of hydropower projects.

Q 12. 12061577 How does the passage describe the role of the Teesta River in the context of
hydropower projects?

a) As a minor river with limited potential for power generation

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b) As a river that is already fully utilized for hydropower projects

c) As a river whose course makes it unsuitable for hydropower development

d) As a river with significant untapped potential for hydropower

Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 3

Interruptions, nothing but interruptions! The different parts of my somewhat complicated life refuse,
with a wholly unreasonable obstinacy, to stay neatly in their separate compartments. Voices spill out of
their clocktower to invade the circus-ring, which is supposed to be Evie's domain… and now, at the
very moment when I should be describing the fabulous children of ticktock, I'm being whisked away by
Frontier Mail-spirited off to the decaying world of my grandparents, so that Aadam Aziz is getting in the
way of the natural unfolding of my tale. Ah well. What can't be cured must be endured.

That January, during my convalescence from the severe concussion I received in my bicycling
accident, my parents took us off to Agra for a family reunion that turned out worse than the notorious
(and arguably fictional) Black Hole of Calcutta. For two weeks we were obliged to listen to Emerald
and Zulfikar .... And we were obliged to watch in silent horror .... beat and bludgeoned their litter of
nameless, genderless brats into utter anonymity;....and worse, and worse, and worse.

One night I awoke on the stroke of twelve to find my grandfather's dream inside my head, and was
therefore unable to avoid seeing him as he saw himself-as a crumbling old man in whose centre, when
the light was right, it was possible to discern a gigantic shadow. As the convictions which had given
strength to his youth withered away under the combined influence of old age ....

But there was one achievement. I was befriended by Rashid the rickshaw-wallah (the same fellow who
had, in his youth, screamed silently in a cornfield and helped Nadir Khan into Aadam Aziz's toilet):
taking me under his wingand without telling my parents, who would have forbidden it so soon after my
accident-he taught me how to ride a bicycle. By the time we left, I had this secret tucked away with all
my others: only I didn't intend this one to stay secret for very long.

… And on the train home, there were voices hanging on to the outside of the compartment: 'Ohe,
maharaj! Open up, great sir!'-fare-dodgers' voices fighting with the ones I wanted to listen to, the new
ones inside my head-and then back to Bombay Central Station, and the drive home past racecourse
and temple, and now Evelyn Lilith Burns is demanding that I finish her part first before concentrating
on higher things.

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'Home again!' the Monkey shouts. 'Hurray… Back-to-Bom!' (She is in disgrace. In Agra, she
incinerated the General's boots.)
Q 13. 12061577 The narrator says "what can't be cured must be endured" in order to:

a) express resignation in the face of unavoidable difficulties.

b) suggest that the narrator is giving up on resolving the complexities of their life.

c) highlight the inevitability of certain challenges in life.

d) encourage the reader to accept challenges as part of life.

Q 14. 12061577 "As the convictions which had given strength to his youth withered away under the
combined influence of old age" What does the narrator intend to say in the above line?

a)
The narrator is implying that old age has caused the grandfather to question and abandon the
principles that once guided him.
b)
The narrator is indicating that the grandfather's physical and mental deterioration has led to the loss of
his youthful energy and convictions.
c)
The narrator is suggesting that the grandfather's once-strong beliefs and ideals have weakened as he
has grown older.
d) The narrator is observing the slow decline of the grandfather's vitality and resolve.

Q 15. 12061577 Each of the following is a secret of the narrator except:

a) b)
Learning to ride a bicycle from Rashid the The dream of the grandfather that the narrator
rickshaw-wallah. experienced.
c) The identity of the new voices in his mind. d) The mention of Evelyn Lilith Burns.

Q 16. 12061577 Which of the following applies to the narrator, as depicted in the passage?

a) Feels a deep connection to their family's historical roots and traditions.

b) Struggles to maintain order in a life filled with chaos and interruptions.

c) Experiences vivid and symbolic dreams that influence their perspective.

d) Maintains a carefree and detached attitude towards life's challenges.

Q 17. 12061577 All the words are related in meaning, except:

a) Interruption b) Compartment c) Disgrace d) Disarray

Q 18. 12061577 What does "circus-ring" mean in the passage?

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a) A literal circus arena where performances take place.

b) A metaphor for a chaotic and unpredictable environment.

c) A symbol of childhood innocence and playfulness.

d) A representation of the narrator's organised and controlled domain.

Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 4

The sheer amount of gold in Fort Knox was so vast that Auric Goldfinger, the villain of the 1964 James
Bond film Goldfinger, couldn't simply steal it. Instead, he planned to use a nuclear device to irradiate it,
rendering it worthless and boosting his own reserves. Today's equivalent fortresses are hyperscale
data centres operated by Amazon, Google, Meta, and Microsoft. These facilities are heavily fortified
with layers of protection including fences, airlocks, and biometric scanners.

The cloud's significance continues to grow, with data storage and analysis becoming increasingly
centralised. Hospitals use cloud services for patient records and test results, governments for
elections and disaster alerts, and the global financial system for transactions and trades. As the
internet becomes integral to daily life, securing its infrastructure is vital. Global spending on
cybersecurity is expected to exceed $200 billion in 2024, covering both physical security and
protection from hackers.

The internet's origins are rooted in the Pentagon's ARPANET, which aimed to create a resilient
network for military research, not a secure one. ARPANET's successor, the early internet, was
designed for openness and accessibility. It wasn't until the mid-1990s that protocols for data
encryption and server authentication were introduced, and these continue to evolve.

Hackers not only attempt to steal data but also to disrupt systems. On October 10, 2023, Amazon Web
Services, Google Cloud, Microsoft, and CloudFlare revealed they had been targeted by a massive
distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack in August and September. Their resilience highlights the
trend towards an integrated internet business model, with companies managing every level of
infrastructure from cables to servers to applications.

As cloud infrastructure expands, dominant tech firms are investing heavily in distributing computing
power, advancing from electronics to photonics, and securing reliable renewable energy sources. This
scale allows them to withstand and respond to attacks more effectively. The physical and operational
demands of moving and processing data are growing, pushing companies to ever-greater sizes.

While it's conceivable that future advancements might balance economic activity with reduced energy

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use, such a day is likely decades away. Until then, the demand for computational power will continue
to drive significant investment and innovation in the cloud infrastructure that underpins our increasingly
digital world.
Q 19. 12061577 Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

a) The security for data centres is greater than that of Fort Knox.

b) The Pentagon is the creator of the most secure data centre in the world.

c) The integrated internet business model contributes to its high resilience and security.
d) Internet security has a correlation with energy use and economic activity.

Q 20. 12061577 Which of the following best explains the underlined sentence in the passage ?

a)
Advancements in energy-efficient technology are unable to cope with the current demand for
computational power
b) Cloud infrastructure is likely to become outdated as new technologies emerge.

c)
Economic activity will be directly tied to increased energy use, sidelining technological advancements
d)
The current trend of increasing computational power and investment in cloud infrastructure will
continue for the foreseeable future.

Q 21. 12061577 What is the function of the opening paragraph of the passage?

a) It gives an unrelated but interesting anecdote to capture the attention of the readers.
b) It makes a literal comparison between the security of two invaluable global assets

c) It presents an analogy to emphasise the scale of modern data centres

d) It compares the security at Fort Knox to the security at data centres

Q 22. 12061577 All of the following are truisms except?

a) Securing its(internet's) infrastructure is vital.

b) Pentagon's ARPANET was built to create a resilient network for military research.

c) The cloud's significance continues to grow.

d) The demand for computational continues to drive significant investment

Q 23. 12061577 The author is most likely to agree with which of the following statements?

a) Investment in security and infrastructure is crucial to cloud computing

b) There is a coevolution of cloud computing and threats to digital security and infrastructure

c) Security has been an integral part of the internet since its origin

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d) Investment in cloud infrastructure could stagnate due to lack of demand

Q 24. 12061577 The passage can be categorised under which of the following styles ?

a) Argumentative b) Narrative c) Analytical d) Persuasive

Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

Passage – 1

Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change Shri Bhupender Yadav said on the eve of
Independence Day 2024 that India has increased its tally of Ramsar sites (Wetlands of International
Importance) to 85 from existing 82 by designating three more wetlands as Ramsar Sites. In a post on
X, Shri Yadav expressed happiness on addition of three Ramsar sites on the eve of Independence
Day. Shri Yadav said that the achievement reflects the emphasis Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi ji
has laid on establishing harmony with nature, calling our wetlands Amrit Dharohars, and working
relentlessly for their conservation.

Union Minister congratulated the states of [1] and [2] whose wetlands have been added to the Ramsar
sites. Sh. Yadav also said that India needs to pledge that Viksit Bharat is a Green Bharat. With this
addition, the area of Ramsar sites touched to 1358067.757 ha in the country. The three new sites
included are Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary and Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary in [1] and Tawa Reservoir in
[2]. These new designated sites are a testament to the significant policy push from the Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change for wetlands conservation and management in the country.

India is one of the Contracting Parties to Ramsar Convention, signed in Ramsar, Iran, in 1971. India
became a signatory to the convention on [3]. During 1982 to 2013, a total of 26 sites were added to
the list of Ramsar sites, however, during 2014 to 2024, the country has added 59 new wetlands to the
list of Ramsar sites.
Q 25. 12061577 Which of the following states have been redacted with [1] and [2] in the passage
above?

a) Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh b) Tamil Nadu and Madhya Pradesh

c) Kerala and Himachal Pradesh d) Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh

Q 26. 12061577 Which of the following states has the maximum number of Ramsar Sites?

a) Kerala b) Uttar Pradesh c) Maharashtra d) Tamil Nadu

Q 27. 12061577 The Nagi and Nakti bird sanctuaries have been added to the global list of wetlands of
international importance under the Ramsar Convention. The both sanctuaries are located in which of
the following states?

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a) Tamil Nadu b) Karnataka c) Odisha d) Bihar

Q 28. 12061577 Which of the following countries has the maximum number of Ramsar Sites?

a) United Kingdom b) USA c) China d) Mexico

Q 29. 12061577 When did India become a signatory to the Ramsar Convention which has been
redacted with [3] in the passage above?

a) 1st February 1980 b) 1st February 1982 c) 1st February 1984 d) 1st February 1990

Q 30. 12061577 What was the theme for World Wetlands Day 2024?

a) b) c) d)
Wetlands and Wetlands and Water Wetlands and Human Wetlands and Climate
Biodiversity Management Wellbeing Change

Passage – 2

Tension in Venezuela is running high after a government-controlled electoral authority declared [1] the
winner of the presidential election and handed him a third consecutive term in office. Not only has the
election been described as "undemocratic" by independent observers, but the result announced by the
National Electoral Council (CNE) has also been dismissed as fraudulent by the opposition. The
European Union, the United States and a number of Latin American nations have refused to recognise
the result, calling instead on the CNE to release detailed data from polling stations which the
opposition says proves that its candidate, [2], won by a wide margin.

Anti-government protests have flared up and hundreds of people have been arrested by the security
forces, which remain loyal to President [1]. Those taking to the streets say they voted for change after
a quarter of a century in which Venezuela has been governed by the socialist PSUV party - first under
the leadership of Hugo Chavez, then after his death in 2013 by his right-hand man, [1]. During this
time, their party has gained control of key institutions, including the CNE, the Supreme Court and
much of the judiciary.

As a result, the role of the president has become much more powerful and the system of checks and
balances has been severely weakened. Not long after [1] was elected for the first time in 2011, global
oil prices plummeted and Venezuela - which relies almost entirely on oil revenue for its income - went
into a seven-year recession. Inflation skyrocketed and shortages of basic goods became widespread.
Waves of anti-government protests in 2014 and 2017 fizzled out after a police crackdown. Millions of
Venezuelans left the country to escape economic hardship and political repression. Amid growing
discontent, [1] was re-elected in 2018 in a presidential election widely dismissed as neither free nor
fair.
Q 31. 12061577 Who was declared the winner of the presidential election in Venezuela, securing a
third consecutive term whose name has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
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a) Omar Barboza b) Hugo Chavez c) Dinorah Figuera d) Nicolas Maduro

Q 32. 12061577 Who was the opposition candidate that the National Electoral Council allegedly
dismissed as the winner whose name has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?

a) b) Juan Pablo Guanipa c) Edmundo Gonzalez d) Tareck El Aissami

María Corina Machado

Q 33. 12061577 Who among the following declared himself "interim president" of Venezuela in
January 2019 with the backing of the National Assembly?

a) Nicolas Maduro b) Hugo Chavez c) Juan Guaido d) Edmundo Gonzalez

Q 34. 12061577 What has been the response to the election result in Venezuela?

a) Nationwide celebrations b) General indifference

c) Anti-government protests d) Immediate international intervention

Q 35. 12061577 What was the reaction of the European Union and the United States to the election
result in Venezuela?

a) They recognized Maduro's victory b) They remained neutral

c) They refused to recognize the result d) They supported the CNE's decision

Q 36. 12061577 The official currency of Venezuela is___________.

a) Real b) Peso c) Guarani d) Bolivar

Passage – 3

Unified Payments Interface, commonly known as UPI, has been a game changer for digital payments
in India. From getting groceries to buying your favourite gadget, one can quickly make a UPI payment
with no additional charges. UPI is no longer limited to India and the number of countries accepting it
keeps growing. UPI is a mobile-first payment system developed in India by the [1]. It makes it easy to
send and receive by just scanning a QR code or using a user's phone number. Unlike most digital
payment systems, the amount gets directly debited to the linked bank account. UPI can be used on
BHIM, a first-party app. It can also be accessed via third-party platforms such as Google Pay, Amazon
Pay, PhonePe, BharatPe, and a lot more. Most banks that officially operate in India support UPI
payment, and unlike a credit or debit card payment, there is no charge involved in UPI payment. To
prevent fraudulent activities, [1] has thought of various features like how the account is directly linked
to the phone number, and if the SIM card is removed, UPI ceases to work, and at times, one might
also face downtime due to service issues.
Q 37. 12061577 Which of the following has developed the UPI system in India which has been
redacted with [1] in the passage above?

a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

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b) c) State Bank of India (SBI)

National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) d) Ministry of Finance

Q 38. 12061577 Which of the following is NOT a platform that supports UPI?

a) Google Pay b) Amazon Pay c) PayPal d) PhonePe

Q 39. 12061577 What is the main advantage of using UPI for payments?

a) Requires a credit card b) No additional charges

c) Unlimited to high-value transactions d) Only available in India

Q 40. 12061577 What is UPI Lite?

a) b) A UPI feature for high-value transactions

A version of UPI that works without a bank c)
account A UPI feature that works without a PIN or internet

d)
A UPI feature available only on specific platforms

Q 41. 12061577 What is the maximum limit per transaction for UPI Lite?

a) Rs 100 b) Rs 500 c) Rs 1000 d) Rs 2000

Passage – 3

Unified Payments Interface, commonly known as UPI, has been a game changer for digital payments
in India. From getting groceries to buying your favourite gadget, one can quickly make a UPI payment
with no additional charges. UPI is no longer limited to India and the number of countries accepting it
keeps growing. UPI is a mobile-first payment system developed in India by the [1]. It makes it easy to
send and receive by just scanning a QR code or using a user's phone number. Unlike most digital
payment systems, the amount gets directly debited to the linked bank account. UPI can be used on
BHIM, a first-party app. It can also be accessed via third-party platforms such as Google Pay, Amazon
Pay, PhonePe, BharatPe, and a lot more. Most banks that officially operate in India support UPI
payment, and unlike a credit or debit card payment, there is no charge involved in UPI payment. To
prevent fraudulent activities, [1] has thought of various features like how the account is directly linked
to the phone number, and if the SIM card is removed, UPI ceases to work, and at times, one might
also face downtime due to service issues.
Q 42. 12061577 Which of the following countries was the first to adopt India's UPI standards for its
QR code system?

a) Singapore b) Nepal c) Bhutan d) France

Passage – 4

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After having introduced changes to Prime Minister Narendra Modi's Council of Ministers after the
general elections, the National Democratic Alliance-led (NDA) government on July 16 reconstituted the
government think tank NITI Aayog. The Aayog now introduces four full-time members and 15 Union
Ministers from the BJP and allies of the NDA as ex-officio members or as special invitees. In a
Facebook post announcing the move, the government think-tank wrote, "Embracing a vision for
holistic development and innovation, NITI Aayog is on a journey of transformative initiatives that
promise to redefine India's future."

Prime Minister [1] will continue as the chairperson of NITI Aayog while economist Suman K. Berry
continues his tenure as the vice-chairperson. Mr Berry succeeded erstwhile vice chairperson Rajiv
Kumar to the post in 2022. Prior to this, the NITI Aayog Vice President had served as a member on
both the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister and the National Statistical Commission.
Other than Mr Berry, scientist V.K. Saraswat, agricultural economist Ramesh Chand, paediatrician V.K.
Paul and macro-economist Arvind Virmani will continue being full-time members of NITI Aayog.

The reconstitution sees the inclusion of Union Minister of Heavy Industries and Steel H.D.
Kumaraswamy, Union Minister for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Jitan Ram Manjhi, Minister
for Civil Aviation Kinjarapu Rammohan Naidu, Minister for Food Processing Chirag Paswan and
Minister for Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying Rajiv Ranjan Singh alias Lalan Singh. Mr
Kumaraswamy belongs to NDA ally Janata Dal (Secular) while Mr Manjhi is from Hindustani Awam
Morcha (HAM), Mr Naidu from Telugu Desam Party (TDP), Mr Paswan from Lok Janshakti Party (Ram
Vilas) and Mr Singh from Janta Dal (United). Other than this, Union Minister for Defence Rajnath
Singh, Minister for Home Affairs Amit Shah, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman and Minister for
Agriculture and former Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister Shivraj Singh Chauhan are part of the think-
tank.
Q 43. 12061577 Who among the following continues as the chairperson of NITI Aayog after the
recent rearrangement whose name has been replaced with [1] in the passage above?

a) Rajiv Kumar b) Suman K. Berry c) Narendra Modi d) Amit Shah

Q 44. 12061577 What is one of the primary roles of NITI Aayog?

a) Implementing foreign policy b) Fostering cooperative federalism

c) Regulating financial markets d) Conducting national elections

Q 45. 12061577 Which of the following is NOT one of the main activities of NITI Aayog?

a) Policy and programme framework

b) Monitoring and evaluation

c) Implementation of public sector investments

d) Think-tank activities, knowledge creation, and innovation hub

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Q 46. 12061577 The Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) India Index is prepared by___________.

a) b) NITI Aayog
Ministry of Statistics and Programme c) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Implementation (MoSPI)
d) Ministry of External Affairs

Q 47. 12061577 The Niti Aayog replaced the_____________.

a) b) c) d)
National Development Planning Commission National Integration Economic Advisory
Council Council Council

Q 48. 12061577 What approach does NITI Aayog utilize to achieve its goals?

a) Top-down approach b) Bottom-up approach c) Horizontal approach d) Vertical approach

Passage – 5

The RBI's Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) has for a ninth straight meeting chosen to keep
benchmark interest rates unchanged as it continues to battle retail inflation that has stubbornly stayed
above its medium-term target of 4% for 57 months and is beginning to undermine consumer
confidence. Laying out the rationale, RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das was emphatic that there was no
room for complacency given the risks that persistently elevated food price pressures posed to
households' inflation expectations and broader monetary policy credibility. Elevated food prices, he
stressed, had not only slowed disinflation in the April-June quarter but had also extended their
momentum into July with high frequency food price data pointing to sizeable month-on-month
increases in key vegetable prices. Citing Department of Consumer Affairs data, he said tomato prices
had surged 62% sequentially, while onion had become almost 23% costlier than in June and potato
prices had increased 18%. Food prices, with a weight of about 46% in the overall Consumer Price
Index, could not afford to be overlooked, not just for their impact on headline inflation but far more
significantly because consumers related the most to the impact food prices had on monthly household
budgets. He indicated, without explicitly referencing it, that a suggestion in the Economic Survey
urging policymakers to consider delinking food prices from the inflation targeting framework made little
sense in the circumstances.

The MPC, which voted by a 4-2 majority to hold interest rates and keep the policy stance focused on
the withdrawal of accommodation to ensure that inflation aligns to the target, also raised its projection
for headline retail inflation in the July-September quarter to 4.4%, 60 basis points higher than the 3.8%
pace projected in June. The rate panel also posited slightly faster inflation in the third fiscal quarter
than it had forecast previously, lifting the projection by 10 basis points to 4.7%, in a clear sign that the
near-term inflation outlook appears less reassuring than it did just two months ago. And while Mr. Das
noted that, in June, vegetable prices had contributed about 35% to headline inflation, the Centre for
Monitoring Indian Economy, in an analysis, forecast price pressures in vegetables to 'sustain well into

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the festive season through till early November', adding pressure on retail headline inflation. Core
inflation may also have bottomed out according to the MPC, which flagged the risks of spillover from
food prices, as well as the impact mobile tariff revisions may have on broader non-food inflation.
Policymakers hearteningly reiterated the truism that without ensuring enduring price stability, growth
may at best be tenuous.
Q 49. 12061577 An increase in Repo Rate can______________.

a) Decrease the cost of lending to the banks b) Increase the cost of borrowing
c) Encourage the public to borrow money d) Both a and b are correct

Q 50. 12061577 What happens when CRR is increased?

a) b) It will increase the money supply

It will discourage borrowers from applying for c)
loans. It will encourage borrowers from applying for
loans

d) All of the above

Q 51. 12061577 Which of the following statements is Not true regarding the Monetary Policy
Committee?

a)
The committee is answerable to the Government of India if the inflation exceeds the range prescribed
for three consecutive quarters.
b)
The current mandate of the committee is to maintain 3% annual inflation until 31 March 2025 with an
upper tolerance of 6% and a lower tolerance of 2%.
c) Decisions are taken by majority with the Governor having the casting vote in case of a tie.

d)
The committee comprises six members - three officials of the Reserve Bank of India and three
external members nominated by the Government of India.

Q 52. 12061577 The instruments of monetary policy which directly affect the quantity of money supply
are

a) b) c) Rationing of credit d) Moral Suasion

Quantitative instruments Qualitative instruments

Legal Reasoning
Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from

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the passage.

Passage – 1

Habeas Corpus, a Latin term meaning "you may have the body," is one of the fundamental rights
enshrined in the Indian Constitution under Articles 32 and 226. It is a writ that can be issued by the
Supreme Court or High Courts of India to safeguard individual freedom against arbitrary detention.
This writ serves as a crucial mechanism in ensuring the protection of personal liberty and preventing
the misuse of power by the state.

In the landmark case of A.D.M. Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (1976), popularly known as the Habeas
Corpus case, the Supreme Court faced the question of whether a person's right to seek the writ of
habeas corpus could be suspended during an emergency. The majority judgment held that during an
emergency, even the right to life and liberty could be suspended, sparking widespread criticism.
However, this decision was effectively overturned by subsequent constitutional amendments and
judgments, reinforcing the right to habeas corpus even during crises.

The writ of habeas corpus has been invoked in various instances in India to challenge illegal
detention, including cases where authorities have detained individuals without proper legal authority or
under the guise of preventive detention. It remains a powerful tool to protect citizens against unlawful
confinement and uphold the rule of law.
Q 53. 12061577 Suresh was detained by the police during a late-night raid in his neighborhood. His
family was not informed of his arrest, and no charges were officially filed against him. Concerned
about his sudden disappearance, his wife decided to approach the High [Link] legal remedy
should Suresh's wife seek to challenge his detention?

a)
File a writ of Habeas Corpus to demand Suresh's immediate release and ensure he is produced
before the court.

b) File a regular criminal appeal challenging Suresh's arrest.

c) File a civil suit against the police for illegal detention.

d) Approach the local police station to request information about Suresh's whereabouts.

Q 54. 12061577 Anil was picked up by the police without any formal charge, and his whereabouts
were unknown for several days. His brother filed a habeas corpus petition in the High Court. During
the hearing, the police produced a vague, unsubstantiated report justifying the [Link] is likely
to happen if the court finds the police report inadequate?

a) The court may dismiss the petition and accept the police's explanation.

b) The court may order the immediate release of Anil if the detention is found unlawful.

c) The court may ask the police to detain Anil for further investigation.

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d) The court may refer the matter to a lower court for detailed inquiry.

Q 55. 12061577 Neeta was detained under a preventive detention law during a protest, but the
authorities failed to produce her before a magistrate within the required time frame. Her lawyer filed a
writ of habeas corpus. What is the primary question the court will consider in Neeta's habeas corpus
petition?

a) Whether the protest Neeta was part of was lawful.

b) Whether the detention was carried out according to proper legal procedures.
c) Whether Neeta had prior criminal records.

d) Whether the preventive detention law itself is constitutional.

Q 56. 12061577 A student leader, Rajiv, was arrested during a university protest. His parents were not
informed, and Rajiv was held in custody without being presented before a magistrate within 24 hours.
His parents approached the High Court with a writ petition. Which of the following outcomes is most
likely if the court finds that Rajiv's detention was unlawful?

a) The court will impose a fine on the police but allow them to continue detaining Rajiv.

b)
The court will order Rajiv's immediate release and possibly issue further directions against the police.

c) The court will dismiss the habeas corpus petition and suggest filing a different writ.
d) The court will refer the case to a criminal court for trial.

Q 57. 12061577 Maya was detained under suspicion of involvement in a criminal conspiracy, but no
formal charges were filed. She was held without communication for more than 48 hours. Her family
filed a writ of habeas corpus, and the court found procedural lapses in her detention.
Question: What remedy can the court provide in response to the habeas corpus petition?

a) The court can grant Maya bail.

b) The court can order Maya's immediate release.

c) The court can ask for a re-investigation into Maya's activities.

d) The court can direct Maya's detention to be regularized.

Q 58. 12061577 During a statewide crackdown on suspected insurgents, Arun was detained without
any formal charges and held incommunicado. His wife filed a habeas corpus petition. The government
argued that national security concerns justified his detention. How should the court balance Arun's
individual rights against the government's national security concerns in a habeas corpus petition?

a)
The court should automatically defer to the government's national security argument and dismiss the
petition.

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b)
The court should independently examine the legality of Arun's detention, even in the context of
national security.
c) The court should suggest Arun's wife file a different type of petition.

d) The court should ask the government to regularize the detention without questioning its basis.

Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.

Passage – 2

Cyber crime, a rapidly growing threat in the digital age, encompasses a wide range of illegal activities
carried out using computers, the internet, or other digital devices. In India, the legal framework to
combat cyber crime is primarily governed by the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000, and its
subsequent amendments. This Act addresses various cyber offenses, including hacking, phishing,
identity theft, online fraud, and cyber terrorism.

Key sections of the IT Act include:

• Section 66: Addresses computer-related offenses, such as hacking and unauthorized access to
computer systems.
• Section 66C: Pertains to identity theft, where someone fraudulently uses another person's identity.
• Section 66D: Deals with cheating by personation through the use of computer resources, commonly
seen in phishing scams and online fraud.
• Section 66F: Covers cyber terrorism, including severe attacks on critical infrastructure and
government systems.

A landmark judgment in the realm of cyber law in India is Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015),
where the Supreme Court struck down Section 66A of the IT Act, which had criminalized sending
"offensive" messages through communication services. The court ruled that the section was vague
and could be misused, thereby violating the fundamental right to free speech. This case highlighted
the delicate balance between regulating cyber activities and protecting individual freedoms.

Despite the legal framework, the battle against cyber crime remains complex due to the anonymous
nature of the internet and the technical challenges in tracing perpetrators. Law enforcement agencies
in India have established dedicated cyber crime cells to tackle these issues, but jurisdictional
challenges and evolving technology continue to pose significant obstacles
Q 59. 12061577 Kavita received a series of emails from an unknown sender threatening to release
her personal photos unless she paid a large sum of money. The emails were traced back to a foreign
server, making it difficult for local authorities to take immediate action. Kavita approached the cyber

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crime cell, which started an investigation under the IT Act. Given the cross-border nature of this crime,
what legal challenges might the authorities face, and what provisions of the IT Act are most relevant?

a)
Authorities may face jurisdictional challenges and may invoke Section 66 (Computer-related offenses)
for initial investigation but will struggle with enforcement.

b)
The police can immediately arrest the sender using Section 66F (Cyber terrorism) since the threats
qualify as a terrorist act.

c)
Authorities can bypass jurisdictional issues by applying Section 66D (Cheating by personation using a
computer resource) and seek international cooperation.

d)
The investigation will primarily focus on Section 66C (Identity theft) and should result in swift action by
Indian courts.

Q 60. 12061577 Ravi, a tech entrepreneur, discovered that his company's confidential client data had
been stolen and was being sold on the dark web. The cyber crime cell traced the breach to an insider
who had unauthorized access to the system. The data breach caused significant financial loss and
reputational damage to the company. What should be the immediate legal step under the IT Act to
address this data breach, and what challenges might arise during prosecution?

a)
File a complaint under Section 66 (Computer-related offenses) to prosecute the insider, but proving
intent and securing digital evidence may be challenging.
b)
Invoke Section 66C (Identity theft) since the insider used credentials to access the data, but
establishing a direct link to the insider could be difficult.
c)
The company should seek remedies under Section 66D (Cheating by personation) to hold the insider
accountable, though this may not cover all aspects of the breach.
d)
Use Section 66F (Cyber terrorism) to charge the insider, although this might be difficult to justify as the
act does not meet the definition of terrorism.

Q 61. 12061577 An NGO's website, which advocated for environmental causes, was hacked and
defaced with inflammatory content. The attack was traced to a group that opposed the NGO's
activities. The cyber crime cell launched an investigation under the IT Act. What section of the IT Act is
most applicable to prosecute the hackers, and what defenses might the hackers use in court?

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a)
Section 66 (Computer-related offenses) is applicable, but the hackers might argue that the
defacement was an act of protest rather than a criminal offense.
b)
Section 66F (Cyber terrorism) could be used, but the defense could argue that the act does not meet
the legal definition of terrorism.
c)
The prosecution might use Section 66C (Identity theft), but the hackers could claim that they did not
steal any personal identities.
d)
Section 66D (Cheating by personation) could be applied, though the defense might argue that no
personation was involved.

Q 62. 12061577 A multinational company based in India experienced a ransomware attack, where its
critical business data was encrypted, and a ransom was demanded for its release. The cyber crime
cell began investigating the incident under the IT Act. What are the potential legal implications for the
company if it decides to pay the ransom, and how might the IT Act apply in this situation?

a)
The company could face legal scrutiny under Section 66 for engaging with the hackers, as paying the
ransom might be seen as complicit behavior.
b)
The authorities could apply Section 66F (Cyber terrorism) to the hackers, but paying the ransom might
undermine the company's legal standing.

c)
Section 66C (Identity theft) might be relevant if the hackers used stolen identities, though the focus
would primarily be on the act of encryption.

d)
The company could be investigated under Section 66D (Cheating by personation), but this section
might not fully apply to the situation.

Q 63. 12061577 An individual named Vinay was accused of creating a fake online profile of a
celebrity to promote his own business, using the celebrity's identity without permission. The celebrity
filed a complaint, and the case was taken up under the IT Act. What section of the IT Act is most
relevant to this case, and what arguments might Vinay's defense use?

a)
Section 66C (Identity theft) is most relevant, but the defense might argue that the profile was a parody
and not intended to deceive.

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b)
Section 66D (Cheating by personation) applies, though the defense could claim that no direct harm
was caused by the profile.
c)
The case could be prosecuted under Section 66 (Computer-related offenses), but the defense might
argue that no hacking occurred.
d)
Section 66F (Cyber terrorism) could be considered, though the defense would likely argue that the act
does not meet the criteria for terrorism.

Q 64. 12061577 During an election campaign, a political party's official website was hacked, and false
information was posted to mislead voters. The cyber crime cell was tasked with investigating the
incident. Considering the nature of the crime, what legal challenges might arise in prosecuting the
hackers under the IT Act?

a)
Section 66F (Cyber terrorism) might be considered due to the impact on national security, but the
hackers might argue it was merely political rivalry.
b)
Section 66 (Computer-related offenses) could be applied, but the challenge would be proving the
hackers' intent to influence the election.
c)
The prosecution might use Section 66C (Identity theft) if the hackers used stolen identities, though this
might not fully address the crime's impact.

d)
Section 66D (Cheating by personation) might apply, but the defense could argue that no individuals
were directly deceived.

Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.

Passage – 3

Data privacy has become a critical issue in India, particularly in the digital age where personal data is
constantly collected, processed, and stored by various entities. The importance of data privacy was
underscored by the landmark Supreme Court judgment in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of
India (2017), which recognized the right to privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the
Constitution. This judgment laid the foundation for the protection of personal data, leading to the
drafting of the Personal Data Protection (PDP) Bill, 2019.

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The PDP Bill, which is yet to become law, aims to regulate the processing of personal data by both
government and private entities. Key provisions include obtaining explicit consent from individuals
before processing their data, ensuring transparency in data handling practices, and imposing stringent
penalties for data breaches. The Bill also introduces the concept of "data fiduciaries," entities that
determine the purpose and means of processing personal data and are responsible for safeguarding
it.

One of the most debated aspects of the PDP Bill is the provision that allows the government to exempt
any agency from the law on grounds of national security, public order, or sovereignty. Critics argue that
this could lead to potential misuse and undermine the privacy rights of individuals. Additionally, the Bill
mandates the localization of certain types of data, requiring companies to store and process data
within India, which has raised concerns among global tech companies about increased compliance
costs and operational challenges.

In the absence of a comprehensive data protection law, data privacy in India is currently governed by
the Information Technology (Reasonable Security Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Personal
Data or Information) Rules, 2011, under the IT Act, 2000. These rules, however, are considered
inadequate in addressing the complexities of modern data privacy challenges, leading to growing calls
for a robust legal framework.
Q 65. 12061577 Priya signed up for an online service that required her to provide personal
information, including her phone number and email address. Months later, she began receiving
unsolicited marketing calls and emails from third parties. Upon investigating, Priya discovered that the
online service had shared her data without her consent. Under the proposed Personal Data Protection
Bill, 2019, what legal obligation did the online service likely violate, and what recourse does Priya
have?

a)
The service violated the requirement for data localization, and Priya can demand her data be stored
within India.
b)
The service failed to obtain explicit consent for data sharing, and Priya can seek compensation for the
unauthorized use of her data.
c)
The service breached the provision for ensuring data accuracy, and Priya can request the correction of
her data.
d)
The service did not adhere to data minimization principles, and Priya can challenge the excessive
collection of her data.

Q 66. 12061577 A government agency collected biometric data from citizens for a national security
database. Later, it was revealed that the data was accessed by unauthorized personnel, leading to

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public outcry. The government defended the breach by invoking national security exemptions under
the proposed PDP Bill. What potential legal and ethical issues arise from this situation, and how might
the PDP Bill address such concerns?

a)
The exemption could undermine individual privacy rights, and the Bill may lack sufficient safeguards
against misuse by government agencies.
b)
The breach highlights the need for stricter penalties, and the Bill should mandate higher fines for
government entities.
c)
The situation suggests that biometric data should be excluded from national security databases, and
the Bill should prohibit such collection.
d)
The exemption is legally sound, but the Bill should require regular audits of government databases to
prevent breaches.

Q 67. 12061577 A multinational corporation operating in India processes the personal data of millions
of Indian users on servers located in multiple countries. The proposed PDP Bill mandates that certain
types of data be localized within India, but the corporation argues that this requirement is burdensome
and costly. What challenges might the corporation face under the data localization requirement of the
PDP Bill, and how does the Bill address these concerns?

a)
The corporation may face increased operational costs, and the Bill should allow flexibility in data
localization requirements based on business size.
b)
The company might struggle with cross-border data transfer restrictions, and the Bill permits data
transfers only under strict conditions.
c)
The corporation could encounter issues with data security, and the Bill mandates that all data be
encrypted before being transferred.
d)
The company might argue that data localization is unnecessary, and the Bill should allow exemptions
for multinational companies.

Q 68. 12061577 A social media platform operating in India faced criticism for not being transparent
about how it uses user data for targeted advertising. The platform did not provide clear information
about its data processing practices in its terms and conditions. How does the proposed PDP Bill
address transparency in data processing, and what obligations does the platform have under this
framework?

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a)
The platform must disclose all third-party partnerships, and the Bill requires a public register of
datasharing agreements.
b)
The platform is required to provide a privacy notice in clear and simple language, detailing data usage,
and the Bill mandates penalties for non-compliance.

c)
The platform must allow users to opt out of targeted advertising, and the Bill prohibits the use of
personal data for advertising without consent.
d)
The platform should encrypt user data, and the Bill enforces strict encryption standards for all persona
data.

Q 69. 12061577 During an investigation, it was found that a tech company retained personal data of
its users long after the purpose for which the data was collected had been fulfilled. The company
argued that the data retention was necessary for improving its services. What principles under the
proposed PDP Bill would apply in this situation, and what are the company's legal obligations?

a)
The principle of data minimization requires that only necessary data be retained, and the Bill
mandates the deletion of data once the purpose is fulfilled.
b)
The principle of purpose limitation prohibits retention beyond the initial purpose, and the Bill requires
regular audits to ensure compliance.
c)
The principle of storage limitation limits how long data can be retained, and the Bill imposes fines for
unnecessary data retention.
d)
The principle of accuracy mandates that retained data be regularly updated, and the Bill allows
retention only if the data remains accurate.

Q 70. 12061577 A data analytics firm used personal data obtained from various sources to create
detailed profiles of individuals without their consent. These profiles were then sold to marketers for
targeted advertising. When the practice was exposed, there was public outrage and demands for legal
action. How does the proposed PDP Bill address the unauthorized use of personal data for profiling,
and what recourse do individuals have?

a)
The Bill prohibits profiling without explicit consent, and individuals can demand the deletion of their
data from the firm's records.

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b)
The Bill allows profiling if it is anonymized, but individuals can sue the firm for damages if their data is
misused.
c)
The Bill mandates that all profiling activities be publicly disclosed, and individuals can opt out of
profiling services.
d)
The Bill requires that all data used for profiling be encrypted, and individuals can request access to
their profiles for review.

Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.

Passage – 4

Creating a safe and inclusive workplace environment for women is not only a legal obligation but also
a moral imperative. The Indian legal framework provides comprehensive protections for women in the
workplace through various laws and regulations, most notably the Sexual Harassment of Women at
Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act, 2013. This Act was enacted in response to
the landmark Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan (1997) case, where the Supreme Court laid down
guidelines for preventing sexual harassment in the workplace. These guidelines form the basis for the
2013 Act, which mandates that every organization with more than ten employees must establish an
Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) to address grievances related to sexual harassment.

The Act defines sexual harassment broadly, including physical contact, advances, demands or
requests for sexual favors, sexually colored remarks, and any other unwelcome physical, verbal, or
non-verbal conduct of a sexual nature. It also recognizes that harassment can occur not only within
the physical confines of the workplace but also in any location related to work, including work-related
social functions, travel, and even virtual workspaces.

Despite these legal safeguards, many women continue to face significant challenges in reporting
harassment due to fear of retaliation, lack of awareness, or inadequate support systems within
organizations. Moreover, safety concerns for women in the workplace extend beyond harassment and
include issues like unequal pay, lack of access to proper facilities, and safety during commute,
especially for those working late hours.

To foster a truly safe and equitable workplace, it is essential for organizations to go beyond legal
compliance and cultivate a culture of respect, accountability, and zero tolerance for any form of

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discrimination or harassment. Regular training, clear communication channels, and a supportive

environment are crucial in ensuring that women feel safe and valued at work.
Q 71. 12061577 Nisha, an employee at a large corporation, received repeated unsolicited messages
from a senior colleague, making her uncomfortable. She is aware of the Internal Complaints
Committee (ICC) but is hesitant to report the issue, fearing backlash from her superiors.
What protections does the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013, provide to Nisha,
and what should be her course of action?

a)
The Act protects Nisha from retaliation, and she can file a complaint with the ICC, which is obligated to
maintain confidentiality.
b) The Act only covers physical harassment, so Nisha should seek legal advice before proceeding.

c)
The Act requires Nisha to first inform her superior before approaching the ICC, ensuring the issue is
addressed internally.
d)
The Act allows Nisha to report anonymously, but she must provide concrete evidence to proceed with
her complaint.

Q 72. 12061577 During a work-related conference, Kavita was subjected to inappropriate comments
by a client in the presence of her colleagues. Feeling uncomfortable, she considered raising the issue
with her employer but was unsure if the incident fell under workplace harassment since it occurred
outside the office. How does the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013, address
incidents that occur outside the traditional workplace, and what should Kavita do?

a)
The Act covers harassment at work-related events outside the office, and Kavita should report the
incident to her ICC.

b)
The Act only applies to harassment within the physical office premises, so Kavita should not report the
incident.
c)
The Act requires Kavita to first discuss the issue with her colleagues before filing a complaint with the
ICC.
d) The Act covers only formal work meetings, not social events, so Kavita should ignore the incident.

Q 73. 12061577 Anjali, a junior employee, noticed that her company had not conducted any training
or awareness programs on workplace harassment since she joined. Concerned about the lack of
proactive measures, she wants to ensure that her workplace complies with the Sexual Harassment
Act. What are the legal obligations of Anjali's company under the Sexual Harassment of Women at
Workplace Act, 2013, regarding employee training and awareness?

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a)
The company is required to conduct regular training sessions on workplace harassment and inform
employees about their rights under the Act.
b)
The company only needs to display a notice about the Sexual Harassment Act in the office, without
conducting any formal training.
c)
The company is not legally obligated to provide training but should distribute written materials on
harassment prevention.
d) The company must offer training only to female employees, as the Act primarily protects women.

Q 74. 12061577 Sunita works late hours at a tech company and often has to commute home by
herself. She has raised concerns about her safety during these late-night commutes, but her employer
has not taken any steps to address her concerns. What responsibilities does Sunita's employer have
under the law to ensure her safety during late-night commutes, and what actions can she take?

a)
The employer should provide safe transportation options for late-working employees, and Sunita can
file a complaint if her concerns are not addressed.
b)
The employer is only responsible for safety within the workplace, so Sunita should arrange her own
transportation.
c) The employer must provide a security escort for Sunita, but only if she works past midnight.

d)
The employer has no legal obligation regarding transportation, so Sunita should consider changing her
work hours.

Q 75. 12061577 What legal or ethical obligations does the company have regarding facilities for
female employees, and what steps can Ritu take?

a)
The company is required to provide separate and adequate facilities for female employees, and Ritu
can file a formal complaint with the company's management.
b)
The company is not legally required to provide separate facilities, so Ritu should adapt to the existing
conditions.
c)
The company must provide separate facilities only if the workforce exceeds a certain number of
female employees.

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d)
Ritu should request a transfer to a different department where the facilities are better, as the company
has no obligation to make changes.

Q 76. 12061577 Meena, an employee at a financial firm, was denied a promotion despite being more
qualified than her male counterparts. She believes that gender bias played a role in the decision.
Meena wants to challenge the decision but is uncertain about her legal standing. What recourse does
Meena have under Indian law, and how can she address the issue of gender discrimination in her
workplace?

a)
Meena can file a complaint under the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976, challenging gender
discrimination in promotion decisions.
b)
Meena should accept the decision as the company's discretion, as promotions are not covered under
gender discrimination laws.
c)
Meena can request an internal review but has no legal standing to challenge the promotion decision
under existing laws.
d)
Meena should seek legal advice, as there are no specific provisions for gender discrimination in
promotion under Indian law.

Q 77. 12061577 A start-up company with ten employees has recently hired its first female employee,
Shalini. The company has not yet established an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC), believing it is
unnecessary due to its small size. Shalini is concerned about this and wants to ensure the company
complies with the law. Is Shalini's concern valid under the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace
Act, 2013, and what should the company do?

a)
Shalini's concern is valid, as the law mandates that even small companies with ten or more employees
must establish an ICC.

b) The company is exempt from establishing an ICC due to its small size, so Shalini need not worry.
c)
The company should establish an ICC only if more female employees are hired, as the current
requirement is not strict.
d)
Shalini should suggest an external committee instead, as small companies are not required to have an
ICC.

Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by questions

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based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.

Passage – 5

Sedition and treason are serious offenses that challenge the sovereignty and integrity of a nation. In
India, these offenses are addressed under various sections of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) and other
legal frameworks. Sedition, as defined under Section 124A of the IPC, refers to any act, speech, or
writing that incites hatred, contempt, or disaffection towards the government established by law. This
provision has been a subject of considerable debate, particularly regarding its implications for free
speech and the right to dissent. Critics argue that the sedition law is often misused to stifle legitimate
criticism of the government, thereby undermining democratic values.

Treason, on the other hand, is a more severe offense that involves acts aimed at overthrowing the
government, aiding enemies during wartime, or waging war against the nation. Treason is covered
under various provisions of the IPC, including Section 121, which deals with waging or attempting to
wage war against the government of India. The punishment for treason is severe, often including the
death penalty or life imprisonment.

The line between sedition and free speech is often blurred, leading to complex legal challenges. For
instance, in the landmark Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar (1962) case, the Supreme Court upheld
the constitutionality of the sedition law but limited its application to acts that involve incitement to
violence or intention to disrupt public order. This ruling sought to balance the state's interest in
maintaining public order with the individual's right to freedom of expression.

Despite these legal safeguards, the application of sedition laws remains controversial, with many
arguing for their repeal or reform. Meanwhile, treason, though rare, is treated with utmost severity,
reflecting the gravity of acts that threaten the nation's existence. Both offenses underscore the tension
between national security and individual rights, a balance that continues to evolve in India's legal
landscape.
Q 78. 12061577 A political activist, Ramesh, delivered a speech criticizing the government's policies
and called for peaceful protests across the country. However, during one such protest, violence broke
out, leading to property damage and injuries. The government charged Ramesh with sedition under
Section 124A of the IPC. What is the most critical factor the court will consider in determining whether
Ramesh's speech constitutes sedition?

a) Whether Ramesh's speech was critical of the government.

b) Whether the speech directly incited violence or intended to disrupt public order.

c) Whether the speech was delivered in a public or private forum.

d) Whether Ramesh is affiliated with any political party.

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Q 79. 12061577 A journalist published an article alleging corruption within the government, leading to
public outrage and protests. The government responded by charging the journalist with sedition,
claiming the article incited disaffection against the state. What legal defense could the journalist use to
counter the sedition charges, based on existing legal precedents?

a) Argue that the article was intended to incite rebellion against the government.

b) Claim that the article was based on factual information and aimed at promoting transparency.

c) State that the article was a personal opinion and not intended for public consumption.

d) Defend that the article was published anonymously, so the author cannot be charged.

Q 80. 12061577 During a time of political unrest, a group of individuals was found distributing
pamphlets calling for an armed uprising against the government. They were arrested and charged with
treason under Section 121 of the IPC. What key element must the prosecution prove to establish the
crime of treason in this case?

a) That the individuals were critical of the government's policies.

b) That the pamphlets explicitly advocated for the use of violence against the state.

c) That the individuals were members of a recognized terrorist organization.

d) That the pamphlets were distributed in a public space.

Q 81. 12061577 An NGO released a report highlighting human rights abuses by the government
during a counter-insurgency operation. The report led to widespread criticism of the government, and
the NGO was subsequently charged with sedition. How does the Supreme Court's interpretation of
sedition in the Kedar Nath Singh case apply to the NGO's situation?

a) The charge is valid because the report criticized the government's actions.

b) The charge is invalid unless the report incited violence or disrupted public order.

c) The NGO can be charged with sedition if it received foreign funding.

d) The charge is valid because the report was published during a time of national crisis.

Q 82. 12061577 A public figure made statements supporting an enemy nation during a conflict with
India. The statements were widely broadcasted and were perceived as undermining the morale of
Indian troops. The public figure was subsequently charged with treason under the IPC. What factors
will the court consider in determining whether the public figure's statements constitute treason?

a) Whether the statements were made during a time of war or conflict.

b) Whether the public figure has a history of anti-government rhetoric.

c) Whether the statements directly aided the enemy nation's war efforts.

d) Whether the statements were made in a public or private setting.

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Q 83. 12061577 According to the passage, what was the significance of the Supreme Court's ruling in
the Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar (1962) case regarding sedition?

a)
It upheld the constitutionality of the sedition law and expanded its scope to include all forms of
government criticism.

b) It struck down the sedition law as unconstitutional and incompatible with free speech rights.

c)
It limited the application of the sedition law to acts that involve incitement to violence or disruption of
public order.
d)
It allowed the government to charge individuals with sedition without the need to prove intent or
consequence.

Q 84. 12061577 The passage suggests that treason and sedition differ primarily in terms of:

a) The severity of punishment prescribed by law.

b) The level of threat posed to national security and government stability.

c) The involvement of foreign entities in the commission of the crime.

d) The intent behind the actions, with sedition being more about speech and treason about actions.

Logical Reasoning
Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 1

Gender discrimination in economics has been increasingly documented, revealing significant barriers
for women and racial minorities. Research highlights that women are less likely than men to be hired,
promoted, or published in top economic journals. This issue is particularly pronounced in economics,
where gender and racial disparities are more pronounced and have narrowed less over time
compared to many other fields.

A 2019 survey by the American Economic Association (AEA), involving over 9,000 members,
underscored several troubling issues. It reported high levels of harassment and sexual assault, along
with widespread subtle biases. Only 20% of women felt satisfied with the field's climate, nearly 30%
believed they had faced discrimination, and nearly 50% had avoided speaking at conferences or
seminars due to fears of harassment or disrespect.

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Women are notably underrepresented in economic research presentations, accounting for fewer than
25% of talks in recent years. Racial minorities, particularly Black and Hispanic economists, are even
more marginalized, with less than 1% of speakers from these groups. This lack of representation
affects career progression, as seminars are crucial for sharing research, receiving feedback, and
building professional reputations.

Economics seminars are notoriously combative, often resembling gladiatorial contests rather than
collegial discussions. While some argue this intensity helps refine research, many acknowledge that
the environment can be particularly discouraging and harsh, especially for women and minority
economists. The aggressive nature of these seminars contributes to a hostile atmosphere that
exacerbates existing biases and deters underrepresented individuals from entering or remaining in the
field.

Recent reforms, such as restricting questions at the start of seminars, aim to improve the situation.
However, Judith Chevalier, chair of the AEA's Committee on the Status of Women in the Economics
Profession, argues that these measures address only superficial aspects. She calls for a
comprehensive re-evaluation of biases in hiring, mentoring, and promotion practices. Chevalier
advocates for a fundamental cultural shift to address systemic issues and create a more inclusive and
equitable environment for all economists.
Q 85. 12061577 Which of the following, if true, most strengthens Judith Chevalier's views on the
effectiveness of fixing seminars?

a) Studies demonstrated significant gender bias in hiring in the field of economics.

b)
Some male economists have also shared stories of discrimination and aggression by mentors in the
field.
c)
There are fewer professors and heads of department in the field of economics than there are in
humanities.
d) Economists are on their best behaviour in seminars as these are public events.

Q 86. 12061577 Which of the following presents the most forceful challenge to the author's
arguments?

a)
Women have made significant gains in hiring and promotion rates within economics departments over
the past decade.
b) Women who face harassment are more likely to leave academia than men.

c)
Some women do not mind the aggressiveness in seminars stating that it motivates them to work
harder.

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d) Seminar formats in other fields are also experiencing similar issues of bias and hostility.

Q 87. 12061577 Which of the following conclusions does not follow the passage?

a) Gender and racial discrimination are documented in the field of economics.

b)
Disparities in economics are pronounced and have improved less over time compared to many other
fields.
c) Women in economics are dissatisfied with the field's climate
d) Racial minorities are even more marginalized and discriminated against than women

Q 88. 12061577 Which of the following supports the author's arguments about racial discrimination in
economics?

a) There are few studies on the representation of women in seminars.

b) Data reveals that Black and latino economists were not treated differently than women.

c)
Researchers could not study the representation of minorities in seminars as there were too few
examples in their data to analyze.
d) There is no systematic research or data on gender discrimination or racial discrimination.

Q 89. 12061577 What is the method of argumentation followed by the author?

a)
The author uses anecdotal evidence from individual experiences to argue that discrimination is a
significant issue.
b)
The author uses evidence-based argumentation, presenting data and observations to support claims
about systemic discrimination.
c)
The author uses the method of generalization from specific cases to make broad claims about the
field.
d)
he passage uses a rhetorical approach, relying on emotional appeals to argue for change in the field
of economics.

Q 90. 12061577 An assumption implicit in the author's main argument is that…

a) The nature of economics results in it being an aggressive patriarchal field of study

b) Economics has its unique form of discrimination different from other fields
c) In the absence of discrimination, all economists would be subject to identical levels of scrutiny

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d) Discrimination in a field of study can have different repercussions on the victims

Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 2

The rupee is facing renewed pressure as the dollar strengthens following the Federal Reserve's
significant 75 basis points interest rate increase and its clear focus on combating inflation. On Friday,
the Indian currency fell past the 81- mark against the dollar for the first time ever during intraday
trading, ending the week at a new record closing low. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) intervened to
mitigate volatility, but its efforts have significantly depleted its foreign exchange reserves, which have
dropped by nearly $94 billion to $545.65 billion over the past 12 months.

Indian companies reliant on imported raw materials or services are grappling with rising costs,
exacerbating challenges in a domestic market that has yet to stabilize post-pandemic. The increased
import bill adds to inflationary pressures in an economy already struggling with high inflation,
complicating the RBI's efforts to manage price stability.

The rupee's more than 8% depreciation against the dollar in 2022-accelerated by Russia's invasion of
Ukraine on February 24-has counteracted any benefits from the retreat in crude oil prices, which are
nearing pre-war levels. Additionally, foreign portfolio investors have become net sellers of Indian
stocks and debt in recent sessions, reversing their previous purchases in August and early September.
As of now, foreign portfolio investors (FPIs) have withdrawn $20.6 billion from Indian equity and debt
markets this year, following three consecutive years of net investments. The Fed's indication of further
monetary tightening, with at least another 125 basis points expected, is likely to prompt additional
outflows in the last quarter of the year.

The rupee's real effective exchange rate (REER), which measures the currency's value against a
trade-weighted average, indicates that the rupee remains overvalued. As the RBI's rate-setting panel
prepares for its upcoming meeting, it faces the difficult task of balancing the need to restore price
stability without stifling economic growth and preventing a sharp depreciation of the rupee.
Q 91. 12061577 Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?

a)
The Reserve Bank of India's intervention is aimed at increasing the foreign exchange reserves
immediately.
b) The rupee's depreciation in 2022 has been largely due to the drop in crude oil prices.

c)
The Reserve Bank of India is facing the challenges of fluctuating prices, depreciation, high inflation
and foreign exchange reserve depletion.

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d)
Foreign portfolio investors have increased their investments in Indian equity and debt markets this
year

Q 92. 12061577 Which of the following, if true, would check the depreciation of the rupee?

a)
There have been further supply chain disruptions and increased raw material costs experienced by the
Indian industry.
b)
The Federal Reserve has paused further interest rate hikes, leading to a decrease in the dollar's
strength relative to other currencies.
c) The Reserve Bank of India has announced further foreign exchange interventions.

d)
Foreign portfolio investors continue to withdraw significant amounts from Indian equity and debt
markets.

Q 93. 12061577 Which of the following, if true, would weaken the author's argument most?

a)
The Federal Reserve has signalled further interest rate hikes and maintains its aggressive stance on
inflation.
b)
There have been further interventions by the RBI to stabilize the rupee and the predicted
consequences.

c)
The inflation rate in India continues to rise, driven by higher import costs exacerbating the situation for
the RBI.
d)
The Indian economy has become more resilient and self-sufficient, making the rupee less susceptible
to external shocks.

Q 94. 12061577 Based on the information given in the passage, which of the following statements
can be inferred?

a) Any change in the Federal Reserve's policies will lead to an improvement in the Indian economy.

b)
The Reserve Bank of India has failed in its efforts to manage the rupee's exchange rate and control
inflation.
c)
The depreciation of the rupee will lead to a significant increase in India's exports, boosting economic
growth.
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d)
The Reserve Bank of India is likely to continue intervening in the foreign exchange market to mitigate
the rupee's volatility.

Q 95. 12061577 Which of the following is the author least likely to agree with?

a) The RBI should stop all interventions and let the economy take its own course.

b)
The Reserve Bank of India will have to ensure price stability and prevent further weakening of the
rupee.

c)
The rupee's depreciation against the dollar is a matter of concern for the wellness of the Indian
economy.
d) The rupee's depreciation has offset any gains from the crude oil prices

Q 96. 12061577 Read the following sentence- "The rupee's real effective exchange rate (REER),
which measures the currency's value against a trade-weighted average, indicates that the rupee
remains overvalued." The author makes all of the following assumptions except?

a) The REER is a valid and reliable metric for assessing the rupee's value.

b)
The trade-weighted average used in calculating REER is an appropriate and meaningful benchmark
for assessing the rupee's value.
c) An undervalue rupee has positive economic implications on the overall economic performance.

d)
Comparing the rupee's current REER with historical values or with other currencies provides useful
insights into its relative valuation.

Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 3

What is truth?
Some things are true whether you believe in them or not. Water boils at 100°C. Smoking kills. Other
things have the potential to be true, if we believe in them. Our belief becomes what sociologists dub a
self-fulfilling prophecy.

Or take the placebo effect. If your doctor gives you a fake pill and says it will cure what ails you,
chances are you will feel better. The more dramatic the placebo, the bigger that chance. And the
ultimate placebo? Surgery! Don a white coat, administer an anaesthetic, and then kick back and pour

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yourself a cup of coffee. When the patient revives tell them the operation was a success.

But it also works the other way around.

Take a fake pill thinking it will make you sick, and chances are it will. For obvious reasons, the nocebo
effect, as it's called, hasn't been widely tested, given the touchy ethics of convincing healthy people
they're ill.

Nevertheless, all the evidence suggests nocebos can be very powerful. If you believe something
enough, it can become real. If there's one lesson to be drawn from the nocebo effect, it's that ideas
are never merely ideas. Our grim view of humanity is also a nocebo.

If we believe most people can't be trusted, that's how we'll treat each other, to everyone's detriment.
Few ideas have as much power to shape the world as our view of other people. Because ultimately,
you get what you expect to get. If we want to tackle the greatest challenges of our times - from the
climate crisis to our growing distrust of one another - then I think the place we need to start is our view
of human nature.
Q 97. 12061577 Which of the following, if true, most weakens the author's arguments?

a)
The placebo effect is significantly less potent than previously believed and is only effective in limited
circumstances.

b)
Individuals and societies thrive and cooperate despite holding pessimistic views about human nature.
c)
The nocebo effect is exceedingly rare and has a minimal impact on individuals' overall health and
wellbeing.
d)
Holding positive beliefs about human nature does not result in increased cooperation or trust within
individuals or societies.

Q 98. 12061577 Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?

a)
Our beliefs about human nature significantly influence our interactions, and cultivating a more positive
outlook can foster greater cooperation and trust.
b)
The placebo effect highlights the powerful connection between mind and body, offering potential
benefits in certain health contexts.
c)
While negative beliefs about human nature are common, actively questioning and transforming them
is crucial for societal progress.

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d)
The nocebo effect, though less prevalent, underscores the subtle yet impactful ways our beliefs can
shape our experiences.

Q 99. 12061577 Based only on the author's statement that "Our belief becomes what sociologists dub
a self-fulfilling prophecy." and the author's argument about the nature of truth as humans see it, which
of the following would the author be most likely to agree with?

a)
A student's low self-esteem causes them to perform poorly despite a teacher's high expectations,
proving that external beliefs have no impact.
b)
An athlete's consistent visualization of success guarantees victory, regardless of their actual skill or
the competition's circumstances.
c)
Stereotypes about a group's abilities are always accurate and reflect inherent limitations, regardless of
individual effort.

d)
A person's fear of abandonment in a relationship leads them to act clingy and insecure, potentially
driving their partner away and confirming their initial fear.

Q 100. 12061577 The author's statement about nocebos, if true, provides the most support for which
of the following conclusions?

a)
Patient expectations play a crucial role in the efficacy of medical treatments, potentially undermining
their effectiveness if negative.

b)
While both the placebo and nocebo effects highlight the power of belief, the latter demonstrates the
potential for self-inflicted harm.
c)
The mind's influence on the body can extend to producing detrimental effects, even when there's no
objective basis for harm.
d)
The impact of positive thinking on health may be overstated, as the nocebo effect reveals the potent
influence of negative expectations.

Q 101. 12061577 Which of the following would be the most effective way of countering the effects of
what the author describes as a self-fulfilling prophecy?

a)
Encouraging a questioning mindset to analyze and evaluate beliefs before they translate into actions.

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b)
Consciously fostering positive beliefs and expectations to shape behaviours and outcomes in a
desired direction.
c)
Focusing on the present moment, detaching from future predictions to minimize the influence of
expectations.
d)
Establishing objective criteria and external checks to guide decision-making, reducing reliance on
personal beliefs.

Q 102. 12061577 The author says that "If we want to tackle the greatest challenges of our times -
from the climate crisis to our growing distrust of one another - then I think the place we need to start is
our view of human nature." The conclusion the author draws in this argument follows logically if which
of the following is assumed?

a)
Our views on human nature are the most crucial factor determining our capacity to confront and
overcome global challenges.

b)
The current global issues stem predominantly from negative beliefs about humanity, making a change
in perspective essential for resolution.
c)
A shift in our perception of human nature will directly translate into increased collaboration and
effectiveness in addressing global challenges.
d)
Addressing global challenges without tackling the underlying beliefs about human nature will yield
limited or unsustainable results.

Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 4

In political conversations, wealth creation is conflated with wealth accumulation, preservation, and
aggrandizement. These are not the same, nor are they all of the above virtues. Most wealth
accumulation is good for the accumulator, but its benefits to society depend on its use. All wealthy
people are not wealth creators, nor is all wealth socially desirable. Wealth creation occurs when
wealth works as a force multiplier in a positive manner, thus creating wealth for others. It is created by
innovation, entrepreneurship and invention.

If wealth is earned and invested in stocks and other instruments, it is at best a case of wealth being
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used as savings, which is the lifeline of investment. If it is kept in immoveable properties, it is being
primed without allowing it to contribute even to investment. Payment of tax is the de minimis of
compliance for the activity to be legal. If ethical practices are not followed or workmen are not treated
fairly/well, the impact of wealth is sub-optimal. The nature of the beast of the so-called Indian wealthy
is not different from the wealthy elsewhere, except for accessing easier loan from the banks and
reluctance to share their wealth as evidenced by low contribution to charities.

Most 'bollygarchs' (to borrow the term from James Crabtree) have not created their wealth by
innovation, entrepreneurship, better risk-taking ability or better production methods; understandably,
they hardly leave a benign impact on society. Of course, technology based-industries are departures;
and there are many ethically wealthy people and firms out there too.
Q 103. 12061577 Which of the following can be inferred from the last paragraph?

a) All wealthy individuals have accumulated their wealth unethically.

b) Technology-based industries are exceptions.

c) The term "bollygarchs" refers to all wealthy individuals in India.

d) Wealth creation in technology-based industries has no impact on society.

Q 104. 12061577 Which of the following portrays the main idea of the passage?

a) The ethical implications of wealth accumulation and its impact on society.

b) Most wealthy individuals accumulate wealth through unethical means.

c) Wealth creation is distinct from wealth accumulation, and not all wealth benefits society.

d) Technology-based industries are the only source of ethical wealth creation.

Q 105. 12061577 Which of the following is implied in the given sentence "If ethical practices are not
followed or workmen are not treated fairly/well, the impact of wealth is sub-optimal."?

a) Ethical practices are the only factor in ensuring wealth's positive impact.

b) Wealth can have a negative impact if ethics and fair treatment are ignored.
c) The treatment of workmen has no significant effect on the impact of wealth.

d) Sub-optimal wealth impacts occur regardless of ethical considerations.

Q 106. 12061577 Which of the following weakens the author's argument regarding wealth creation?

a)
Wealth creation in technology-based industries often leads to rapid innovation and societal benefits.
b) Most modern wealth comes from financial investments, not involving ethics or worker treatment.

c)
Ethical practices in wealth creation are more likely to enhance the long-term sustainability of
businesses.

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d) Wealth accumulation through entrepreneurship often leads to job creation and economic growth.

Q 107. 12061577 Which of the following analogies is correct as per the given argument in the
passage?

a)
A gardener who plants a variety of flowers but never waters them is like a wealth accumulator who
invests in assets without considering long-term societal benefits.
b)
A builder who constructs houses using the cheapest materials is like a wealth creator who prioritizes
innovation over ethics.
c)
A teacher who inspires students to think creatively is like a wealth creator who fosters innovation and
societal growth.
d)
A mechanic who repairs cars efficiently but overcharges for services is like a wealth creator who uses
unethical practices to maximize profits.

Q 108. 12061577 Which of the following can be inferred from "The nature of the beast of the so-called
Indian wealthy is not different from the wealthy elsewhere, except for accessing easier loan from the
banks and reluctance to share their wealth as evidenced by low contribution to charities."?

a) Indian wealthy are similar to global wealthy but contribute less to charity.
b)
The wealthy in India are more privileged than those elsewhere due to their easier access to bank
loans.
c)
Indian wealthy individuals are significantly different from the global wealthy in their reluctance to invest
in business ventures.
d)
The global wealthy are more ethical than the Indian wealthy because they contribute more to charities.

Quantitative Techniques
Directions for questions 109 to 112: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

After Cyclone Michaung made landfall on the coast of Tamil Nadu, the government made provisions to
distribute food packets by helicopter in the areas severely affected by the storm. The four districts that
received help were Chennai, Thiruvallur, Chengalpattu, and Kanchipuram. The ratio of food packets

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received by Chennai and Thiruvallur was 4 : 3 whereas the ratio for Chengalpattu and Kanchipuram
was 7 : 10 respectively. Chennai received double the number of food packets compared to
Kanchipuram. Some of these food packets were damaged or wasted while air dropping them.
Wastage is defined as the total number of food packets minus those that were consumed by the
people of these districts. The percentage of food packets consumed by Chennai and Thiruvallur were
75% and 80% respectively whereas there was 20% wastage in Kanchipuram. The number of food
packets wasted in Kanchipuram and Chengalpattu were equal.
Q 109. 12061577 The number of packets consumed by people in Thiruvallur district was what
percentage of the total number of packets consumed?

a) 24% b) 30% c) 40% d) 45%

Q 110. 12061577 What is the ratio of the total food packets consumed in Chengalpattu and those
wasted in Chennai respectively?

a) 3 : 1 b) 15 : 2 c) 1 : 1 d) 5 : 3

Q 111. 12061577 If 480 packets were wasted in Kanchipuram, then how many food packets were
consumed in Chengalpattu?

a) 2400 b) 1320 c) 1500 d) 1200

Q 112. 12061577 If 4500 food packets were consumed by the people of Chennai, then what was the
total number of food packets that were airdropped in these four districts?

a) 15600 b) 14800 c) 12400 d) 13200

Directions for questions 113 to 116: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

A survey was conducted among 2150 households living in five residential complexes - A, B, C, D and
E - in a town and it was found that A and B had 250 and 400 households respectively out of which
70% and 30% had 4 wheelers. The total number of households in D and E together was 1000 out of
which 720 had 4 wheelers. In C there were 400 households who had 4 wheelers, 100 who did not
have 4 wheelers and 80 had two or more 4 wheelers. Out of those households that had 4 wheelers in
A only 40% had more than one 4 wheeler. The ratio of the number of households that had more than
two 4 wheelers to those having a single 4 wheeler in B was 5 : 7 respectively. In E, 80% of the
households had 4 wheelers whereas in D the number of households having a single 4 wheeler and
those with two or more 4 wheelers were equal. In E the households with a single 4 wheeler was 80%
of those having 4 wheelers whereas those with two or more 4 wheelers were 80 in number.
Q 113. 12061577 The total number of households having two or more 4 wheelers is approximately
what percentage of the total number of households having 4 wheelers?

a) 28% b) 33% c) 31% d) 42%

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Q 114. 12061577 What is the total number of households in A, B and C that do not have 4 wheelers?

a) 445 b) 540 c) 555 d) 455

Q 115. 12061577 If the average number of 4 wheelers with the households having 2 or more 4
wheelers is 3, then find the total number of 4 wheelers in the five residential complexes?

a) 2295 b) 2465 c) 2575 d) 2345

Q 116. 12061577 If there are a total of 2500 four wheelers in these five residential complexes and
only one covered car park is provided for a household having four wheelers, then what percentage of
4 wheelers are parked in the open?

a) 41.8% b) 43.4% c) 45% d) 47%

Directions for questions 117 to 120: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

A company has a sales team of five members: Aditi, Raj, Simran, Anil, and Priya. The team is
responsible for selling three products: X, Y, and Z. The performance of the sales team is evaluated
based on the total sales (in units) of these three products over the first quarter of the year. The total
number of units sold by all five members together is 6,192. The ratio of the total units sold by Aditi to
Raj to Simran is 4 : 3 : 5. Anil sold 25% more units than Raj. Priya sold 10% fewer units than Aditi.

Of the total products sold by Aditi, 50% were product X and of the remaining 30% sold were products
Y. Raj sold 40% more product X then Aditi and equal number of product Y and Z. Simran sold 60% of
her total units as Product X, 20% as Product Y, and the remaining as Product Z. The number of
Product X sold by Anil is 200 less than the average number of Product X sold by Aditi, Raj and Simran.
Anil sold 25% more Y products than Priya. Priya sold products X, Y and Z in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2.
Q 117. 12061577 What is the total number of products sold by Anil?

a) 1420 b) 1350 c) 1200 d) 1360

Q 118. 12061577 For Product X, which of the following order of units sold by the team members is
accurate?

a) b) c) d)
Priya < Anil < Aditi < Raj Aditi < Priya < Anil < Raj Priya < Raj < Simran < Priya < Aditi < Raj < Anil
Anil

Q 119. 12061577 What is the average number of units of product Y sold by 5 salesmen?

a) 216.5 b) 281.6 c) 256.2 d) 264.33

Q 120. 12061577 The total number of units of Product Z sold by Aditi and Raj together was
approximately what percentage more or less than the total number of units of Product Z sold by

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Simran, Anil and Priya together?

a) 25 b) 27.7% c) 26.2 d) 24.6%

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