07/04/2025, 10:29 CCNA Examination Paper

CCNA Examination Paper

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* Indicates required question

Answer the All Quesions

1. Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two) *

A. anycast

B. broadcast

C. multicast

D. podcast

E. allcast

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2. Given an IP address [Link] with a subnet mask of [Link], what *

is the correct network address?

A. [Link]

B. [Link]

C. [Link]

D. [Link]

3. Which command helps a network administrator to manage memory by *

displaying flash memory and NVRAM utilization?

A. show version

B. show ram

C. show flash:

D. show file systems

4. Which pairing reflects a correct protocol-and-metric relationship? *

A. EIGRP and link cost

B. OSPF and number of hops and reliability

C. RIPv2 and number of hops

D. IS-IS and delay and reliability

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5. A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. *

For anyone viewing theconfiguration and issuing the show run command, the
password for Telnet access should be encrypted.

Which set of commands will accomplish this task?

A. B.

C. D.

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6. Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the *

access layer?

A. B.

C. D.

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7. Which two statements are characteristics of a distance vector routing *

protocol? (Choose two.)

A. Each router has its own view of the topology.

B. Updates are periodic and include the entire routing table.

C. Routing updates are sent only after topology changes.

D. Convergence is usually faster than with link state protocols.

E. RIP is an example of distance vector routing protocols.

F. The protocol can be useful in hub-and-spoke and hierarchical networks.

8. What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol? *

A. 90

B. 100

C. 110

D. 120

E. 130

F. 170

9. What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0? *

A. network [Link] [Link] area 0

B. network [Link] [Link] area 0

C. network [Link] [Link] area 0

D. network all-interfaces area 0

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10. Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the *
availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources
exist for that communication?

A. transport

B. network

D. session

E. application

11. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose *
three.)

A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.

B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.

C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.

D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.

E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.

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12. A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host *

by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of
the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?

A. application

B. presentation

C. session

D. transport

E. internet

F. data link

13. A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled *
on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the
network interface port?

A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.

B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.

C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.

D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.

E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.

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14. Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? *

(Choose three.)

A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.

B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.

C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on
both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.

D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.

E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched

segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All
other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.

F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the
address.

15. For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? *
(Choose two.)

A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2

B. to allow communication with devices on a different network

C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet

D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first

E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network

F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown

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16. What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port *
on each non root switch in a spanning-tree topology?

A. path cost

B. lowest port MAC address

C. VTP revision number

D. highest port priority number

E. port priority number and MAC address

17. Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in *
a layer 2 network? (Choose two.)

A. 802.1d

B. VTP

C. 802.1q

D. STP

E. SAP

18. Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection *
process?

A. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66

B. 32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77

C. 32769: 11-22-33-44-55-65

D. 32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78

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19. Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.) *

A. They increase the size of collision domains.

B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.

C. They can enhance network security.

D. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of
collision domains.

E. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the
broadcast domains.

20. Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose *
two.)

A. discarding

B. listening

C. learning

D. forwarding

E. disabled

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21. When upgrading the IOS image, the network administrator receives the *
exhibited error message.

What could be the cause of this error?

A. The new IOS image is too large for the router flash memory.

B. The TFTP server is unreachable from the router.

C. The new IOS image is not correct for this router platform.

D. The IOS image on the TFTP server is corrupt.

E. There is not enough disk space on the TFTP server for the IOS image.

22. Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing? *

A. Automatic summarization at classful boundries can cause problems on

discontinuous subnets

B. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default

C. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols

D. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates

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23. Refer to the exhibit. Why does the telnet connecting fail when a host attempts *
to connect a remote router?

A. No password was set for tty lines

B. No password was set for aux lines

C. No password was set for vty lines

D. No password was set for cty lines

24. How are VTP advertisements delivered to switches across the network? *

A. anycast frames

B. multicast frames

C. broadcast frames

D. unicast frames

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25. Refer to the exhibit. What could be possible causes for the "Serial0/0 is down" *
interface status? (Choose two.)

A. A Layer 1 problem exists.

B. The bandwidth is set too low.

C. A protocol mismatch exists.

D. An incorrect cable is being used.

E. There is an incorrect IP address on the Serial 0/0 interface.

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26. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback *
address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)

A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.

B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.

C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be [Link].

D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.

E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.

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27. A network administrator is explaining VTP configuration to a new technician. *

What should the network administrator tell the new technician about VTP
configuration? (Choose three.)

A. A switch in the VTP client mode cannot update its local VLAN database.

B. A trunk link must be configured between the switches to forward VTP updates.

C. A switch in the VTP server mode can update a switch in the VTP transparent
mode.

D. A switch in the VTP transparent mode will forward updates that it receives to
other switches.

E. A switch in the VTP server mode only updates switches in the VTP client mode
that have a higher VTP revision number.

F. A switch in the VTP server mode will update switches in the VTP client mode
regardless of the configured VTP domain membership.

28. What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.) *

A. to verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices

B. to determine the status of network services on a remote device

C. to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches

D. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails

E. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device

F. to determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected router

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29. What are two benefits of using VTP in a switching environment? (Choose *
two.)

A. It allows switches to read frame tags.

B. It allows ports to be assigned to VLANs automatically.

C. It maintains VLAN consistency across a switched network.

D. It allows frames from multiple VLANs to use a single interface.

E. It allows VLAN information to be automatically propagated throughout the

switching environment.

30. Which two statements are true about the command ip route [Link] *
[Link] [Link]? (Choose two.)

A. It establishes a static route to the [Link] network.

B. It establishes a static route to the [Link] network.

C. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the
[Link] network.

D. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the
interface with the address [Link].

E. It uses the default administrative distance.

F. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist.

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31. What are two advantages of Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs? (Choose *
two.)

A. decreasing the number of collision domains

B. filtering frames based on MAC addresses

C. allowing simultaneous frame transmissions

D. increasing the size of broadcast domains

E. increasing the maximum length of UTP cabling between devices

32. Refer to the exhibit. The networks connected to router R2 have been *
summarized as a [Link]/21 route and sent to R1. Which two packet
destination addresses will R1 forward to R2? (Choose two.)

A. [Link]

B. [Link]

C. [Link]

D. [Link]

E. [Link]

F. [Link]

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33. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements correctly describe Network *
Device A? (Choose three.)

A. With a network wide mask of [Link], each interface does not require an
IP address.

B. With a network wide mask of [Link], each interface does require an IP

address on a unique IP subnet.

C. With a network wide mask of [Link], must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs
to communicate with each other.

D. With a network wide mask of [Link], must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs
to communicate with each other.

E. With a network wide mask of [Link], each interface does not require an IP
address.

34. What are two characteristics of Telnet? (Choose two.) *

A. It sends data in clear text format.

B. It is no longer supported on Cisco network devices.

C. It is more secure than SSH.

D. It requires an enterprise license in order to be implemented.

E. It requires that the destination device be configured to support Telnet

connections.

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35. Assuming a subnet mask of [Link], three of the following addresses *

are valid host addresses. Which are these addresses? (Choose three.)

A. [Link]

B. [Link]

C. [Link]

D. [Link]

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36. Hotspot Question *

Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with
three other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links.

You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues
between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.

An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R4
in the Branchl office. What is causing the problem?

A. There is an area ID mismatch.

B. There is a Layer 2 issue; an encapsulation mismatch on serial links.

C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.

D. The R3 router ID is configured on R4.

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37. Hotspot Question *

Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with
three other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links.

You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues
between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.

An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R5
in the Branch2 office. What is causing the problem?

A. There is an area ID mismatch.

B. There is a PPP authentication issue; a password mismatch.

C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.

D. There is a missing network command in the OSPF process on R5.

38. Which of the following IP addresses fall into the CIDR block of [Link]/22? *
(Choose three.)

A. [Link]

B. [Link]

C. [Link]

D. [Link]

E. [Link]

F. [Link]

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39. A network administrator wants to add a line to an access list that will block *
only Telnet access by the hosts on subnet [Link]/28 to the server at
[Link]. What command should be issued to accomplish this task?

A. access-list 101 deny tcp [Link] [Link] [Link] [Link] eq 23

access-list 101 permit ip any any

B. access-list 101 deny tcp [Link] [Link] [Link] [Link] eq 23

access-list 101 permit ip any any

C. access-list 1 deny tcp [Link] [Link] [Link] [Link] eq 21 access-

list 1 permit ip any any

D. access-list 1 deny tcp [Link] [Link] host [Link] eq 23 access-list 1

permit ip any any

40. As a network administrator, you have been instructed to prevent all traffic *
originating on the LAN from entering the R2 router.

Which the following command would implement the access list on the interface
of the R2 router?

A. access-list 101 in

B. access-list 101 out

C. ip access-group 101 in

D. ip access-group 101 out

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41. The following configuration line was added to router R1 Access-list 101 *
permit IP [Link] [Link] any. What is the effect of this access list
configuration?

A. Permit all packets matching the first three octets of the source address to all
destinations

B. Permit all packet matching the last octet of the destination address and accept all
source addresses

C. Permit all packet matching the host bits in the source address to all destinations

D. Permit all packet from the third subnet of the network address to all destinations

42. As a CCNA candidate, you must have a firm understanding of the IPv6 *
address structure. Refer to IPv6 address, could you tell me how many bits are
included in each filed?

A. 24

B. 4

C. 3

D. 16

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43. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains exist in the exhibited *
topology?

A. one

B. two

C. three

D. four

E. five

F. six

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44. A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a *
destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of
20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from
RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the
routing table?

A. the OSPF route

B. the EIGRP route

C. the RIPv2 route

D. all three routes

E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes

45. A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. *
For anyone viewing the configuration and issuing the show run command, the
password for Telnet access should be encrypted. Which set of commands will
accomplish this task?

A. service password-encryption access-list 1 permit [Link] [Link] line vty 0

4 login password cisco access-class 1

B. enable password secret line vty 0 login password cisco

C. service password-encryption line vty 1 login password cisco

D. service password-encryption line vty 0 4 login password cisco

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46. What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command? *

A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.

B. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.

C. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be
encrypted.

D. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from
the configuration.

E. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.

47. Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? *
(Choose two.)

A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and
broadcast.

B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.

C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.

D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.

E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.

48. What is known as "one-to-nearest" addressing in IPv6? *

A. global unicast

B. anycast

C. multicast

D. unspecified address

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49. What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called? *

A. NIC

B. BIA

C. OUI

D. VAI

50. Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router? *

A. ipv6 local

B. ipv6 host

C. ipv6 unicast-routing

D. ipv6 neighbor

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51. A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established *

OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the
routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial
configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem?

Router(config)# router ospf 1

Router(config-router)# network [Link] [Link] area 0

A. The process id is configured improperly.

B. The OSPF area is configured improperly.

C. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.

D. The network number is configured improperly.

E. The AS is configured improperly.

F. The network subnet mask is configured improperly.

52. When you are troubleshooting an ACL issue on a router, which command *
would you use to verify which interfaces are affected by the ACL?

A. show ip access-lists

B. show access-lists

C. show interface

D. show ip interface

E. list ip interface

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53. Which command shows your active Telnet connections? *

A. show cdp neigbors

B. show session

C. show users

D. show vty logins

54. Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for *
VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)

A. one physical interface for each subinterface

B. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface

C. a management domain for each subinterface

D. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags

E. one subinterface per VLAN

F. subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags

55. You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three *
web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of
subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?

A. [Link] [Link]

B. [Link] [Link]

C. [Link] [Link]

D. [Link] [Link]

E. [Link] [Link]

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56. When are packets processed by an inbound access list? *

A. before they are routed to an outbound interface

B. after they are routed to an outbound interface

C. before and after they are routed to an outbound interface

D. after they are routed to an outbound interface but before being placed in the
outbound queue

57. Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? *

(Choose two.)

A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3.

B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12.

C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.

D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.

E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable

address for the interface

58. Which option describes a difference between EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6? *

A. Only EIGRP for IPv6 advertises all connected networks.

B. Only EIGRP for IPv6 requires a router ID to be configured under the routing
process-

C. AS numbers are configured in EIGRP but not in EIGRPv3.

D. Only EIGRP for IPv6 is enabled in the global configuration mode.

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59. What is the best way to verify that a host has a path to other hosts in different *
networks?

A. Ping the loopback address.

B. Ping the default gateway.

C. Ping the local interface address.

D. Ping the remote network.

60. A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the *
frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this
happen?

A. session

B. transport

C. network

D. data link

E. physical

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