ESAS OBJECTIVE TYPE FROM RECENT PRE BOARD EXAM SEPTEMBER 2022 SET 1

1. Management is:
A. An art
B. Both science and art
C. A science
D. Neither art nor science

2. Engineering is:
A. An art
B. Both science and art
C. A science
D. Neither art nor science

3. Engineers can become good managers only through __________.

A. Experience
B. Taking master degree in management
C. Effective career planning
D. Trainings

4. If you are an engineer wanting to become a manager, what will you do?
A. Develop new talents
B. Acquire new values
C. Broaden your point of view
D. All of the above

5. When engineer enters management, what is the most likely problem he finds difficult to acquire?
A. Learning to trust others
B. Learning how to work through others
C. Learning how to take satisfaction in the work of others
D. All of the above

6. What management functions refers to the process of anticipating problems, analyzing them,
estimating their likely impact and determining actions that will lead to the desired outcomes and goals?
A. Planning
B. Leading
C. Controlling
D. Organizing

7. What refers to the establishing interrelationships between people and things in such a way that
human and materials resources are effectively focused toward achieving the goal of the company?
A. Planning
B. Leading
C. Controlling
D. Organizing

8. What management function involves selecting candidates and training personnel?

A. Organizing
B. Staffing
C. Motivating
D. Controlling

9. What management function involves orienting personnel in the most effective way and channeling
resources?
A. Directing
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Leading

10. Actual performance normally is the same as the original plan and therefore it is necessary to check
for deviation and to take corrective action. This action refers to what management function?
A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Controlling
D. Staffing
:
11. What refers to management function which is to encourage others to follow the example set for
them, with great commitment and conviction?
A. Staffing
B. Motivating
C. Controlling
D. Leading

12. What refers to a principal function of lower management which is to instill in the workforce a
commitment and enthusiasm for pursuing the goals of the organization?
A. Directing
B. Motivating
C. Staffing
D. Controlling

13. What refers to the collection of the tolls and techniques that are used on a predefined set of inputs
to produce a predefined set of outputs?
A. Project Management
B. Engineering Management
C. Management
D. Planning

14. Which is NOT an element of project management process?

A. Data and information
B. Research and development
C. Decision making
D. Implementation and action

15. What is the most essential attribute of a project manager?

A. Leadership
B. Charisma
C. Communication skill
D. Knowledge

16. In project management, what provides a simple yet effective means of monitoring and controlling a
project at each stage of its development?
A. R & D model
B. Project feasibility
C. Life cycle model
D. All of the above

17. What project life cycle model is the most relevant for information technology project?
A. Morris model
B. Waterfall model
C. Incremental release model
D. Prototype model

18. In project management, “R & D” stands for:

A. Retail Distribution
B. Research and Development
C. Repair and Develop
D. Reduce and Deduce

19. In project management O & M stands for:

A. Operation and Manpower
B. Operation and Maintenance
C. Operation and Management
D. Operation and Mission

20. A project management must be very good in which of the following skills?
A. Communication skills
B. Human relationship skills
C. Leadership skills
D. All of the above

21. Project integration management involves which of the following processes?

A. Project plan development
B. Project plan execution
C. Integrated change control
D. Quality planning

22. Project quality management involves all of the following processes except:
A. Quality planning
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality Control
D. Quality feature

23. What is defined as an organized method of providing past, present, and projected information on
internal operations and external intelligence for use in decision-making?
A. Electronic Data Processing Systems
B. Management Information System
C. Central Processing System
D. Data Management System

24. Middle management level undertakes what planning activity?

A. Intermediate planning
B. Strategic planning
C. Operational planning
D. Direct planning
:
25. Strategic planning is undertaken in which management level?
A. Lower management level
B. Middle management level
C. Top management level
D. Lowest management level

26. What is the advantage of free-rein style of leadership?

A. Little managerial control and high degree of risk
B. Time consuming and cost ineffective
C. Little ideas from subordinate in decision- making
D. All of the above

27. If you are appointed as a division manager, your first task is most likely to
A. Set goals
B. Determine the resources needed
C. Set a standard
D. Develop strategies and tactics

28. What is defined as the process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objective
efficiently and effectively?
A. General Management
B. Engineering Management
C. Production Management
D. Operations Management

29. For a project manager to achieve his given set of goals through other people, he must have a good
__________.
A. Interpersonal skills
B. Communication skills
C. Leadership
D. Decision- making skills

30. What type of conflict do managers encounter when there is disagreement on issues of territorial
power or hidden agenda?
A. Technical opinion conflict
B. Politics
C. Ambiguous roles
D. Managerial procedure conflict

31. The process of partitioning an organization into subunits to improve efficiency is known as
__________.
A. Division of labor
B. Segmentation
C. Departmentalization
D. Territorialization

32. By departmentalization of an organization, it decentralizes __________?

A. Authority
B. Responsibility
C. Accountability
D. All of the above

33. What type of committee companies or corporations created for a short term purpose only?
A. Interim committee
B. Temporary committee
C. Standing committee
D. Ad hoc committee

34. What refers to a description of whether the objectives are accomplished?

A. Efficiency
B. Effectiveness
C. Ability to manage
D. Decision- making ability
:
35. An engineering is required to finish a certain engineering job in 20 days. He is said to be __________
if he finished the job within the required period of 20 days
A. Efficient
B. Effective
C. Reliable
D. Qualified

36. If an engineer provides less input (labor and materials) to his project and still come out with the
same output, he is said to be more __________.
A. Managerial skill
B. Economical
C. Effective
D. Efficient

37. To determine a qualified applicant, the engineer manager will subject the applicant to a test that is
used to measure a person’s current knowledge of a subject?
A. Interest test
B. Aptitude test
C. Performance test
D. Personality test

38. What type of training is a combination of on-the-job training and experience with classroom
instruction in particular subject?
A. On-the-job training
B. Vestibule school
C. Apprenticeship program
D. In-basket

39. What type of authority refers to a specialist’s right to oversee lower level personnel involved in the
project regardless of the personnel’s assignment in the organization?
A. Top authority
B. Line authority
C. Staff authority
D. Functional authority

40. When a consultant or specialist gives advice to his superior, he is using what type of authority?
A. Top authority
B. Line authority
C. Staff authority
D. Functional authority

41. When structuring an organization, the engineer manager must be concerned with the determining
the scope of words and how it is combined in a job. This refers to __________.
A. Division of labor
B. Delegation of authority
C. Departmentation
D. Span of control

42. When structuring an organization, the engineer must be concerned with the grouping of related
jobs, activities, or processes into major organizational subunits. This refers to:
A. Division of labor
B. Delegation of authority
C. Departmentation
D. Span of control

43. Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternative using qualitative evaluation?
A. Comparison technique
B. Intuition and subjective judgment
C. Rational technique
D. Analytical technique

44. Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternative using quantitative evaluation?
A. Rational and analytical techniques
B. Intuition and subjective judgment
C. Comparison in number technique
D. Cost analysis

45. What refers to the strategic statement that identifies why an organization exists, its philosophy of
management, and its purpose as distinguished from other similar organizations in terms of products,
services and markets?
A. Corporate mission
B. Corporate vision
C. Corporate character
D. Corporate identity

46. What refers to a process of influencing and supporting others to work enthusiastically toward
achieving objectives?
A. Power
B. Leadership
C. Teamwork
D. Charisma

47. What describes how to determine the number of service units that will minimize both customer’s
waiting time and cost of service?
A. Queuing theory
B. Network model
C. Sampling theory
D. Simulation

48. What refers to the rational way to conceptualize, analyze and solve problems in situations
involving limited or partial information about the decision environment?
A. Sampling theory
B. Linear programming
C. Decision theory
D. Simulation
49. What is quantitative technique where samples of populations are statistically determined to be used
for a number of processes, such as quality control and marketing research?
A. Sampling theory
B. Linear programming
C. Statistical decision theory
D. Simulation

50. The engineer manager must be concern with the needs of his human resources. What refers to the
need of the employees for food, drinks, and rest?
A. Physiological need
B. Security need
C. Esteem need
D. Self – actualization need
ESAS OBJECTIVE TYPE FROM RECENT PRE BOARD EXAM SEPTEMBER 2022 SET 2

51. What refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present job?
A. Training
B. Development
C. Vestibule
D. Specialized courses

52. What technique is best suited for projects that contain many repetitions of some standard activities?
A. Benchmark job technique
B. Parametric technique
C. Modular technique
D. Non- modular technique

53. What organizational structure is based on the assumption that each unit should specialize in a
specific functional area and perform all of the tasks that require its expertise?
A. Functional organization
B. Territorial organization
C. Process organization
D. Product organization

54. What type of organization structure in which each project is assigned to a single organizational unit
and the various functions are performed by personnel within the unit?
A. Functional organization
B. Territorial organization
C. Process organization
D. Product organization

55. What organizational structure provides a sound basis for balancing the use of human resources and
skills?
A. Functional organization
B. Matrix organization
C. Process organization
D. Product organization

56. In which type of organization where the structure can lead to a “dual boss” phenomenon?
A. Functional organization
B. Matrix organization
C. Process organization
D. Product organization

57. Which one is an advantage of a matrix organization?

A. Rapid reaction organization
B. Adaptation to changing environment
C. State-of-the-art technology
D. Better utilization of resources

58. Which one is a disadvantage of a matrix organization?

A. Dual accountability of personnel
B. Conflicts between project and functional managers
C. Profit-and-loss accountability difficult
D. Inefficient use of specialist

59. Which one is an advantage projectized organization?

A. Efficient use of technical personnel
B. Good project schedule and cost control
C. Single point for customer contact
D. Rapid reaction time possible

60. Which one is a disadvantage of a projectized organization?

A. Uncertain technical direction
B. Inefficient use of specialist
C. Insecurity regarding future job assignments
D. Slower work flow

61. Which one is an advantage of a functional organization?

A. Efficient use of technical personnel
B. Rapid reaction time possible
C. Career continuity and growth of technical personnel
D. Good technology transfer between projects

62. Which one is disadvantage of a functional organization?

A. Weak customer interface
B. Weak project authority
C. Inefficient use of specialist
D. Slower work flow

63. In what type of organization where a project manager is held responsible for completion of the
project and is often assigned a budget?
A. Functional organization
B. Matrix organization
C. Projectized organization
D. Project coordinated organization

64. In selecting an organizational structure, which of the following is not a criterion?

A. Finance and accounting
B. Customer relation
C. Location
D. Technology

65. What is NOT a factor to be taken into consideration when selecting an organizational structure for
managing projects?
A. Overhead cost
B. Type of technology used
C. Location of the project
D. Level of uncertainty in projects

66. If a project have multidimensional goals, the project manager often use his __________ to reach a
compromise solution.
A. Leadership
B. Tradeoff analysis skill
C. Authority
D. Decision-making skill

67. Who is responsible for ensuring that the project is completed successfully as measured by time, cost,
performance and stakeholder satisfaction?
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Chief engineer
D. Department supervisor

68. Who is responsible for running a department so that all his customers are served efficiently and
effectively?

A. Area manager
B. Sales manager
C. Functional manager
D. Project manager

69. What is the major activity of the project support office?

A. Administrative support for projects
B. Support for tools and techniques
C. Overall project management support
D. Project management via the internet

70. What is the major activity of the project office?

A. Administrative support for projects
B. Support for tools and techniques
C. Overall project management support
D. Project management via internet

71. What is an important tool for the design and implementation of the project’s work content?
A. Linear responsibility chart
B. Gantt chart
C. Life cycle model
D. Project design chart

72. What chart summarizes the relationships between project stakeholders and their responsibilities in
each project element?
A. Linear responsibility chart
B. Matrix responsibility chart
C. Responsibility interface matrix
D. All of the above

73. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and
complex projects by using only one time factor per activity?
A. Forecasting
B. Critical path method
C. Program evaluation review technique
D. Simulation

74. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and
complex projects by employing three time estimate for each activity?
A. Forecasting
B. Critical path method
C. Program evaluation review technique
D. Simulation

75. For a project manager to have an effective means of identifying and communicating the planned
activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques
is commonly known as CPM. What does CPM stands for?
A. Critical plan method
B. Critical path method
C. Critical project method
D. Coordinated plan method

76. For a project manager to have an efficient means of identifying and communicating the planned
activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques
is commonly known as PERT. What does Pert stands for?
A. Project evaluation review technique
B. Program evaluation review technique
C. Path evaluation review technique
D. Program execution review technique

77. What is the benefit of using PERT/CPM network as integral component of project management?
A. They furnish a consistent framework for planning, scheduling, monitoring and controlling project.
B. They illustrate the inter-dependencies of all tasks
C. They can be used to estimate the expected project completion dares as well as the probability that
the project will be completed by a specific date
D. All of the above

78. The CPM was developed by Rand and Walker in what year?
A. 1957
B. 1958
C. 1959
D. 1960

79. In what year was PERT developed?

A. 1957
B. 1958
C. 1959
D. 1960

80. In Morris life cycle model, a project is divided into how many stages to be performed in sequence?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

81. What is the first stage in the life cycle of a project using Morris model?
A. Planning and design
B. Feasibility
C. Production
D. Turnover and startup

82. Risk management is:

A. Risk avoidance
B. Controlling risk
C. To gain opportunities
D. All of the above

83. What technique a manager must use if he decides to absorb the risk in the project?
A. Create buffer in the form of management reserve or extra time in schedule
B. Use a different technology
C. Use a different supplier
D. Buying insurance

84. Buying insurance is a form of:

A. Risk elimination
B. Risk reduction
C. Risk sharing
D. Risk absorption

85. What refers to any technique used either to minimize the probability of an accident or to mitigate its
consequences?
A. Reliability management
B. Risk management
C. Quality assurance management
D. Project assurance management
86. What refers to the techniques that encompass risk assignment and the inclusive evaluation of risk,
costs and benefits of alternative projects or policies?
A. Risk management
B. Risk-benefit analysis
C. Benefit management
D. Uncertainty analysis

87. What is measured by the amount of resources that a manager can allocate without the need to get
an approval from his or her manager?
A. Responsibility
B. Leadership
C. Authority
D. Tradeoff skill

88. What is defined as a course of action aimed at ensuring that the organization will achieve its
objectives?
A. Goal
B. Strategy
C. Program
D. Plan

89. When there is a degradation of service provided by the company to clients, it is a sign that the
engineer manager in-charge:
A. Lacks leadership skill
B. Has inadequate control
C. Has poor organization
D. Has no proper planning

90. What principal element of uncertainty refers to a measure of the relevance of available information
to the problem at hand?
A. Statistical confidence
B. Tolerance
C. Incompleteness of the data
D. Ambiguity in modeling the problem

91. One of the mnemonic management tool used is the SMEAC. What does the acronym SMEAC stands
for?
A. Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Coordination
B. Situation, Mission, Execution, Application, Communication
C. Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication
D. Strategy, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication

92. In the management tools, SMEAC, where A stands for administration, which is the appropriate
question will the manager ask?
A. What do we need to get it done?
B. What are we aiming to do?
C. How are we going to do it?
D. What is the operation environment?

93. In project management, what is usually the first step underlying in the process of performing a
project?
A. Select appropriate performance measures
B. Define the goals of the project and their relative importance
C. Identify a need for a product or service
D. Develop a technological concept

94. In the process of performing a project, after the need for a product or service is identified, what is
usually the next step?
A. Define the goals of the project and their relative importance
B. Develop a budget
C. Develop a schedule
D. Develop the technological concept
95. What is usually the last step in the process of performing a project?
A. Select appropriate performance measures
B. Implement a plan
C. Monitor and control the project
D. Evaluate project success

96. To consider the consequence of uncertainly on project management, laws on project management
are developed. One of which is “A careless planned project will take __________ times longer to
complete than expected”.
A. Three
B. Four
C. Two
D. Two and a half

97. In the typical functional organization hierarchy, the chief engineer is under the __________.A.
Finance manager
B. Manufacturing manager
C. General manager
D. Marketing manager

98. What is a diagram of the organization’s official positions and formal lines of authority called?
A. Organization chart
B. Authority chart
C. Policy chart
D. Control chart

99. What is defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner
appropriate to the demands of the situations?
A. Sampling theory
B. Alternative-analysis
C. Problem-solving
D. Decision-making

100. What refers to the activity of incorporating the technical know how with the ability to organize and
coordinate workforce, materials, equipment and all other resources including money?
A. Engineering management
B. Engineering technology
C. Technical manger
D. General management
 ESAS OBJECTIVE TYPE FROM RECENT PRE BOARD EXAM SEPTEMBER 2022 SET 3

101. Defined as the creative problem solving process of planning, organizing, leading, and controlling an
organization’s resources to achieve its mission and objectives
A. Management
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Supervision
:
102. Refers to the activity combining “technical knowledge with the ability to organize and coordinate
worker power, materials, machinery, and money.”
A. Engineering Management
B. Engineering Materials
C. Engineering Organization
D. Engineering Club
:
103. The following are considered as functions of an engineer except
A. Testing
B. Construction
C. Sales
D. Physical Education
:
104. A function of an engineer where the engineer is engaged in the process of learning about nature
and codifying this knowledge into usable theories.
A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing
105. A function of an engineer where the engineer undertakes the activity of turning a product concept
to a finished physical term.
A. Research
B. Manufacturing
C. Testing
D. Design and Development

106. A function of an engineer where the engineer works in a unit where new products or parts are
tested for workability.
A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing
:
107. A function of an engineer where the engineer is directly in charge of production personnel or
assumes responsibility for the product.
A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing

108. A function of an engineer where the engineer is either directly in charge of the construction
personnel or may have responsibility for the quality of the construction process.
A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Consulting
D. Government

109. A function of an engineer where the engineer assists the company’s customers to meet their needs,
especially those that require technical expertise.
A. Construction
B. Government
C. Consulting
D. Sales

110. A function of an engineer where the engineer works as consultant of any individual or organization
requiring his services.
A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Consulting
D. Government

111. A function of an engineer where the engineer may find employment in the government performing
any of the various tasks in regulating, monitoring, and controlling the activities of various institutions,
public or private.
A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Government
D. Consulting

112. A function of an engineer where the engineer gets employment in a school and is assigned as a
teacher of engineering courses.
A. Teaching
B. Government
C. Management
D. Consulting

113. A function of an engineer where the engineer is assigned to manage groups of people performing
specific tasks.
A. Teaching
B. Government
C. Management
D. Consulting
114. Defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner
appropriate to the demands of the situation.
A. Decision Making
B. Engineering Management
C. Initiative
D. Problem solving

115. The first step in Decision making process is to

A. Analyze environment
B. Diagnose problem
C. Make a choice
D. Articulate problem or opportunity

116. The last step in decision making process is to

A. Analyze environment
B. Make a choice
C. Diagnose problem
D. Evaluate and adapt decision results

117. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using intuition and subjective judgment.

A. Quantitative evaluation
B. Qualitative evaluation
C. Relative evaluation
D. Subjective evaluation

118. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using any technique in a group classified as rational and
analytical.
A. Quantitative evaluation
B. Qualitative evaluation
C. Relative evaluation
D. Subjective evaluation

119. Refers to the management function that involves anticipating future trends and determining the
best strategies and tactics to achieve organizational objectives.
A. Management
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Supervision

120. Refers to the process of determining the major goals of the organization and the policies and
strategies for obtaining and using resources to achieve those goals.
A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

121. The top management of any firm is involved in this type of planning.
A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

122. Refers to the process of determining the contributions that subunits can make with allocated
resources.
A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

123. This type of planning is undertaken by middle management.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning
124. Refers to the process of determining how specific tasks can best be accomplished on time with
available resources.
A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

125. This type of planning is a responsibility of lower management.

A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

126. This is the written document or blueprint for implementing and controlling an organization’s
marketing activities related to particular marketing strategy.
A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

127. This is a written document that states the quantity of output a company must produce in broad
terms and by product family.
A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

128. It is a document that summarizes the current financial situation of the firm, analyzes financial
needs, and recommends a direction for financial activities.
A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

129. It is a document that indicates the human resource needs of a company detailed in terms of
quantity and quality and based on the requirements of the company’s strategic plan.
A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Human Resource Management Plan

130. These are plans intended to cover a period of less than one year. First-line supervisors are mostly
concerned with these planes.
A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

131. These are plans covering a time span of more than one year. These are mostly undertaken by
middle and top management.
A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

132. Plans that are used again and again and they focus on managerial situations that recur repeatedly.
A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans
133. These are broad guidelines to aid managers at every level in making decisions about recurring
situations or function.
A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules

134. These are plans that describe the exact series of actions to be taken in a given situation.
A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules

135. These are statements that either require or forbid a certain action.
A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules

136. Specifically developed to implement courses of action that are relatively unique and are unlikely to
be repeated.
A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

137. A plan which sets forth the projected expenditure for a certain activity and explains where the
required funds will come from.
A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement

138. A plan designed to coordinate a large set of activities.

A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement

139. A plan that is usually more limited in scope than a program and is sometimes prepared to support a
program.
A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement

140. A management function which refers to the structuring of resources and activities to accomplish
objectives in an efficient and effective manner.
A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Supervising
D. Structure

141. The arrangement or relationship of positions within an organization.

A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Supervising
D. Structure

142. This is a form of departmentalization in which everyone engaged in one functional activity, such as
engineering or marketing, is grouped into one unit.
A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

143. This type of organization is very effective in similar firms especially “single business firms where key
activities revolve around well-defined skills and areas of specialization”.
A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

144. This refers to the organization of a company by a division that brings together all those involved
with a certain type of product or customer.
A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

145. This is appropriate for a large corporation with many product lines in several related industries.
A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

146. An organizational structure in which each employee reports both a functional or division manager
and to a project or group manager.
A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

147. Refers to a manager’s right to tell subordinates what to do and then see that they do it.
A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority

148. A staff specialist’s right to give advice to a superior.

A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority

149. A specialist’s right to oversee lower level personnel involved in that specialty, regardless of where
the personnel are in the organization.
A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority

150. A committee created for a short-term purpose and have a limited life.
A. Ad hoc committee
B. Standing committee
C. Sinking committee
D. Midget committee