MODULE 3

1. (BEQ) A reaction to a drug that is noxious and unintended, which occurs 15. Continuous use of steroids leads to

typeE-hypoaldosleronin -[Link]
in doses normally used in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis, and therapy. A. Addison’s disease
[Link] interaction B. Cushing’s syndrome
[Link] drug reaction '
C. Graves’ disease type C
[Link] drug events w/ v10 causality or
D. Reye’s syndrome
-

[Link]

2.(BEQ) What type of prescription is shown below? 16. Which of the ff is incorrectly paired?
I. Captopril - renal dysgenesis
[Link] I > II. Lithium - aplasia cutis
[Link]
[Link] III. Methimazole - ebstein anomaly
[Link] IV. Phenytoin - fetal hydantoin syndrome
A. I,II
3. (BEQ) It is the science and activities relating to the detection, B. I,III
assessment, understanding and prevention of adverse effects or any other C. I,IV to oxidation
medicine/vaccine related problem susceptible
D. II,III (
[Link] how genetics affect effects of drugs OA
pot (
-

[Link]
17. The combination of glycerin + KMnO4 results in which
[Link] drug utilization in a given population
-

of the ff?
- -

[Link] cost effect analysis of drug use

-
-

A. Turbidity
*
oat reducing sugar violent REDOX __

4. (BEQ) What laxative should be recommended to pregnant patients? B. Explosion

= C. Salting out non
reducing ; sucrose trehalose
-

[Link] irritant tax ✗ stimulant / laxatives D. Salting in sugars

,

[Link] oil ] irritant

[Link] .

[Link] oil lubricant-

18. The combination of aromatic water + ammonium salt

-

[Link] bulk forming tax results in which of the ff?

-
-

lmetamueil) to
-
inhibit renal dehydrogenase A. Salting out [Link] salted owthincewatw wants
-

5. (BEQ) Probenecid ______ the _____ of Penicillin B. Eutexia dissolve the salt
[Link], absorption C. Precipitation
[Link], absorption D. Turbidity
[Link], excretion
[Link], excretion
( Valium) ;P0 19. A patient was prescribed clarithromycin and
/ rnabdomyo
simvastatin. What could be the problem with this?
6. (BEQ) which of the ff are true about diazepam? -

I. It is only available in parenteral dosage form

-
liver
toxicity A. Clarithromycin is an enzyme inducer. It will decrease
II. It is an anesthetic the concentration of simvastatin in the blood and
III. It is an anxiolytic decrease the risk of rhabdomyolysis
B. Clarithromycin is an enzyme inducer. It will decrease
A. I,II the concentration of simvastatin in the blood and increase
B. II,III the risk of rhabdomyolysis
C. I,III C. Clarithromycin is an enzyme inhibitor. It will increase
D. I,II,III the concentration of simvastatin in the blood and increase
the risk of rhabdomyolysis
7. Drug interaction that may occur but needs more data D. Clarithromycin is an enzyme inhibitor . It will decrease
A. Probable very likely
the concentration of simvastatin in the blood and
-

B. Suspected may occur -

decrease the risk of rhabdomyolysis

C. Possible could occur
-

D. Unlikely doubtful
-

ddropsbotnear
SS :
'
/2 20. Tetracycline plus calcium
sxlday
①
8. (BEQ) ii gtt au tid A. Decrease absorption
B. Results to chelation
- -

[Link] two drops after meals three times a day

B. Put two drops right ear three times a day C. Both A&B
C. Instill two drops both eyes three times a day D. NOTA absorbed in acidic
env 't
better
D. Instill two drops both ears three times a day /
r smoking ,
St John 's wor t
-

21. Antacid plus ketoconazole

[Link]#,butamiae
-
9. Enzyme inducer A. Decrease absorption
A. St. John’s Wort
B. Valproic acid
Tomeproizoie B. Results to chelation griseofulvin
for deermatomycohs -

*
anticonvulsants
C. Alter gastric pH
C. Grapefruit juice most are enzyme inducers

D. Isoniazid except valpwic acid D. A&C

mnemonic MEDVICK
22. (BEQ) what type of immunity is conferred by the
:
-
10. Enzyme inhibitor Metro

Erythrolmacrolides except Azithromycin) administration of an immunoglobulin?

A. Rifampicin Diltiazem
B. Phenytoin Valproate A. Artificially acquired active immunity vaccines -

C. Cimetidine Isoniazid
cimetidine
B. Naturally acquired active immunity infection -

D. Griseofulvin ketoconazole C. Artificially acquired passive immunity

D. Naturally acquired passive immunity mother to child -

①
11. (BEQ) which of the ff opioids do/es not require S2 license? vertical transfer )
A. Methadone narcotic -

sleep
-

inducing 23. (BEQ) Torsades des pointes affects which organ?

B. Morphine A. Brain 1-
C. Tramadol fatal arrhythmia
B. Heart
D. Both A & B
C. Liver
12.(BEQ) any preventable event that may cause or lead to inappropriate D. Kidney
medication use or patient harm
A. Medication error 24. (BEQ) it is an infusion of horse or rabbit-derived
B. ADR antibodies which is used in the prevention and treatment
C. Wrong drug of acute rejection in organ transplantation and therapy of
D. ADE aplastic anemia
A. Anti-thymocyte globulin
13. Special patient population include: B. Rituximab
_- ]
A. Pregnant and lactating against a particular disease state
C. Adalimumab
B. Geriatrics D. Mycophenolate
C. Pediatrics
D. All of the above
25. (BEQ) if an RT-PCR test detected SARS-CoV2 in a
14. Error hazards in prescription or medication order include: person who is not infected with COVID-19, this is called
I. Dangerous abbreviation A. I,III,IV a/ an ________ result
negative) A. False negative
RAT / rapid antigen test) :F^specitieityHw
II. Lack of trailing zero B. I, II, III, IV false
III. Other abbreviations C. I, II, IV B. False positive
IV. Symbols D. I, II, III, IV,V C. Accurate
V. Presence of leading zero D. Inconclusive
- ex .
•

100£
n­
27. (BEQ) patient XYZ’s arterial blood gas findings 26. (BEQ) what is the route of
administration of Enoxaparin? 38. Which of the ff parenteral routes of administration is not considered
A. IV suitable for heparin sodium injection?
B. IM A. IV infusion
C. SQ B. Subcutaneous
D. SL C. IV bolus
D. Intramuscular hematoma
-

39. Stenosis refers to

A. Hardening of tissues with a loss elasticity sclerosis
-

B. Narrowing or stricture of a duct or canal

Patient XYZ could be in what condition? C. Inflammation of vertebrae spondylitis
-

A. Metabolic acidosis D. Stoppage of blood flow to an area of the body stasis -

B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis 40. What happens when a patient who is a chronic smoker is taking a
D. Respiratory alkalosis drug?
I. Increase t1/2 of the drug
28. What is the primary extracellular cation? II. Decrease the t1/2 of the drug
A. Potassium cations :
Anions : III. Induces the metabolism of the drug
B. Sodium PISO Phiclo A. I only
C. Magnesium MICO sulk Bio B. II & III
D. Calcium C. III
D. I and III
29. What is the primary intracellular anion?
A. Chloride 41. Which of the ff laboratory test results correct signifies renal disease?
B. Sulfate A. Increased creatinine clearance, decreased serum creatinine,
C. Phosphate increased BUN
D. Bicarbonate B. Decreased creatinine clearance, increased serum creatinine,
increased BUN
30. What is the second most abundant C. Increased creatinine clearance, increased serum creatinine,
intracellular anion? decreased BUN
A. Chloride D. Decreased creatinine clearance, decreased serum creatinine,
B. Sulfate decreased BUN
C. Phosphate
D. Bicarbonate 42. Which of the ff tests is used to evaluate absorption of vitamin B12?
A. Van den Bergh test
31. (BEQ) increase serum creatinine = increase B. Coomb’s test autoimmune hemolytic anemia lmethyldopaifalset)
-

creatinine clearance C. Schilling test

Decrease serum creatinine = increase creatinine D. Serum AST, ALT
clearance pernicious : 1*13121*11
:

A. Only the first statement is correct

B. Only the second statement is correct
C. Both statements are correct
ever .

"%YYY¥Yg!Y- Wasif
female )
43. This drug characteristically produces throbbing headache
A. Procainamide
B. Propranolol
D. Both statements are incorrect C. Verapamil
D. Glyceryltrinitrate / Monday sickness Hype E)
32. (BEQ) insulin that can be administered
intravenously 44. Which of the ff electrolyte imbalance does not predispose a patient
A. Insulin glargine taking digoxin to toxicity?
-

B. Insulin glulisine A. Hypokalemia

C. Regular insulin
-
site rotation :X lipodystrophy
B. Hypocalcemia [Link]
D. Insulin NPH C. Hypomagnesemia
D. Hyponatremia
33. A patient to be in an anaphylactic reaction is
rushed to the ER. The ff may be given to the 45. The blood clotting mechanism requires this metallic ion as a co-
patient, except factor
A. Epinephrine adrenergic A. Sodium
B. Dobutamine B B. Calcium
C. Hydrocortisone steroid :fP6 C. Magnesium
D. Diphenhydramine santi -141 D. Potassium

34. A patient accidentally overdosed with 46. The ff are diuretics, except
acetaminophen. To prevent further liver damage, he A. Mannitol
was given with: B. Acetazolamide
A. Vitamin C C. Spironolactone
B. Vitamin K D. Desmopressin
C. Acetylcysteine
D. Protamine sulfate 47. The vitamin used for hyperlipidemia
A. Ascorbic acid
35. Vital signs include the ff except B. Thiamine
A. Heart rate C. Niacin
B. Respiratory rate D. Cyanocobalamin
C. Cardiac output
D. Temperature 48. The 2017 ACC/AHA guidelines on hypertension define stage 1
hypertension as
36. Potassium supplements are administered in all A. <120/80 mmHg
of the ff manners except B. SBP 120-229 and DBP <80 mmHg
A. IV infusion
C. SBP 130-139 or DBP 80-89 mmHg
B. IV bolus
D. SBP >140 or DBP >90 mmHg
C. Elixir, PO
D. Slow-release tablets, PO papa bf co
mnemonic
: tarana
49. Glossitis
1 Thiamine A. Glossy appearance of the cornea
upper conjunctivitis
37. What should be [aired with isoniazid to help g. Riboflavin
B. Inflammation of the tongue
:

prevent peripheral neuropathy? 3 Niacin

C. Inflammation of the eye
2- middle uveitis :

A. Pyrazinammide \
B. Mesna
5 Panto
D. Inflammation of the windpipe eyelid : blepharitis
6 Pyr '
C. Pyridoxine H tracheitis
7- Biotin /
D. NOTA q
Folic
12C cobalamin
 63. Which of the following COVID-19 vaccines cannot be stored in
50. NYHA classification for heart failure that shows slight limitation in ordinary activity temperatures of 2 to 8 degrees C for long periods?
A. Class I A. Pfizer-BioNTech
B. Class II B. Oxford AstraZeneca
C. Class III C. Janssen
D. Class IV D. NOTA

51. NYHA classification for heart failure that shows marked limitation in activity, even 64. Fat soluble vitamins: ADER
during less-than-ordinary activity I. Retinoid
A. Class I II. Tocopherol
B. Class II III. Thiamine
IV. Niacin
C. Class III
A. I only
D. Class IV B. I, II only
C. III, IV only
52. (BEQ) pregnancy kits assay for the presence of this hormone in the urine D. I,II,III,IV
A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen 65. Serves as the secretary of the committee that prepares the
C. Testosterone hospital formulary
D. Human chorionic gonadotropin A. Physician
B. Chief pharmacist
53. Hypocalcemia with hyperphosphatemia ca Poy C. Head nurse
the blast D. Head surgeon
A. Hypoparathyroidism calcitonin fwm .

B. Hyperparathyroidism PTH Am ¥7k Hast

fmm 66. When drugs in the main list are known to be ineffective or
C. Hypovitaminosis D Vit D foe
inappropriate for a given individual, one must refer to this list in the
D. Hypervitaminosis D PNF
A. Core list
54. Which of the following act on potassium channels? B. Substitute list
A. Digoxin C. Complementary list
B. Glimepiride Stu
-

D. Alternative list
C. Sotalol class 111 anti arrhythmic ;D blocker
-

D. All of the above 67. Vioxx was withdrawn from the market due to
A. TEN
55. (BEQ) a 32-year old forklift operator with a history of cardiac arrhythmias is B. Hemolytic anemia
suffering from seasonal rhinitis. Which of the ff choices is the best recommendation C. SJS
D. Cardiovascular events
for this patient?
A. Diphenhydramine
blocker 68. Which of the following are indications for intravenous therapy?
B. Fexofenadine non sedating H ,
-
-

A. Replacement of fluids and electrolytes

C. Meclizine B. Administration of drugs requiring a rapid increase in blood
D. Famotidine concentration
C. Emergency situation like cardiac arrest
56. (BEQ) An 80-year old woman with a history of congestive heart failure develops D. All of the above
angina pectoris, her medications are adjusted to include furosemide, digoxin,
nitroglycerin, propranolol, and potassium supplements. Shortly thereafter, she develops 69. Insulin preparations are usually administered by
intermittent frontal throbbing headaches. What should be the adjustment to her A. Intramuscular injection
medications? B. Intravenous injection
A. Increase the dose of furosemide C. Intravenous bolus
B. Decrease the dose of digoxin D. Subcutaneous injection
C. Discontinue potassium supplements
D. Discontinue nitroglycerin 70. The expiration date on pharmaceutical container states
“expires January 2020”. This statement means that by the
expiration date, the product may have lost
57. Drug of choice in the prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism in
A. Up to 5% of its activity
pregnant women: B. Up to 15% of its activity
C. Up to 20% of its activity
A. UFH D. Sufficient activity to be outside USP monograph requirements
B. LMWH tho monitoring , )
# HIT

C. Warfarin 71. Cost analysis method that compares clinical outcomes:

D. Aspirin A. Cost effectiveness analysis clinical
-

B. Cost utility analysis happiness

-

58. (BEQ) An ebola outbreak occurred. An interdisciplinary team was formed as a [Link] benefit analysis economic
-

response to the threat. The following are the roles of a pharmacist: D. Cost minimization analysis
I. Requisition of Ebola vaccines
II. Ensure availability of antibiotics for Ebola 72. Which salt of erythromycin has been linked to the occurrence
III. Help in managing signs and symptoms of Ebola of reversible cholestatic jaundice?
A. I & II A. Gluceptate
B. II & III B. Stearate
C. III only C. Ethylsuccinate
D. I, II, & III D. Estolate

59. (BEQ) Which of the following is included in the emergency kit for stroke? 73. A patient developed angioedema while taking captopril for her
[Link] Alteplase hypertension. What should be done?
[Link] cilostatol A. Lower the dose
[Link] Aspirin B. Stop for a week then start again but with a lower dose
[Link] warfarin C. Switch to another class of drugs
D. Nothing since it will resolve on its own
60. (BEQ) The following COVID-19 vaccines were granted EUA by the Philippine FDA,
except? [Link] drug distribution system
A. Pfizer-BioNTech A. Unit dose drug distribution system
B. Oxford AstraZeneca B. Individual prescription order system
C. Janssen C. Floor stock system
D. NOTA D. The systems are the same in terms of safety

61. Which of the following COVID-19 vaccines is approved for use in those 12 y/o and 75. Most serious blood disorder
above? A. Hemolytic anemia
A. Pfizer-BioNTech B. Leukopenia
B. Oxford AstraZeneca C. Thrombocytopenia
C. Janssen D. Aplastic anemia
D. NOTA

62. Which of the following COVID-19 vaccines is only given as one dose?
A. Pfizer-BioNTech
B. Oxford AstraZeneca C. Janssen D. NOTA
76. Which of the following are correct counseling points to a patient taking
alendronate? 89. (BEQ) What is the percentage of penicillins in the list from the
I. Lie down for 30 mins after taking a dose. ✗ previous question?
II. Take each dose with food to decrease abdominal pain.× A.14.6
III. Take each dose in the morning. B. 16.2
A. I only C. 11
B. I and II only D.8.1
C. III only
D. II and III only
90. Using Young’s Rule, compute for the child dose of
acetaminophen in a day.
77. This ensures that drug orders are not inappropriately continued:
A. DNR
Adult dose: 500 mg q4h
Child’s weight: 45 lb.
young 's mire =

%g÷yY
AD

B. ASO automatic stop order

-

Child’s age: 8 years old

C. HPI
A. 200 mg
D. SH
B. 900 mg
C. 1125 mg
78. Where should an order from the cancer ward for an antineoplastic drug infusion
D. 1200 mg
bottle be prepared?
A. Outside the hospital premises
91. Using Clark’s Rule, what is the child’s daily dose from the
B. In a horizontal LAF flood
previous question?
C. In a vertical LAF hood
A. 200 mg
w,tg÷
Clark 's
✗ AD
=
D. On a countertop to avoid contamination of the LAF hoods
B. 900 mg
C. 1125 mg
79. (BEQ) Unit used for the internal diameter of catheters:
D. 1200 mg
A. French FM French FM diameter
B. Gauge needles
-

92. Using Cowling’s Rule, what is the child’s daily dose from the
C. Radius
previous question?
D. Stokes
Ageg
A. 200 mg cowlings : ✗ AD
B. 900 mg
80. (BEQ) DLIX
C. 1125 mg
A. 409
D. 1200 mg
B. 559
C. 659
93. How many grams of sodium chloride are required to make
D. 569
250mL of 1% boric acid (E = 0.52) solution isotonic?
A. 250 mg
81. (BEQ) Mr. B smokes 20 sticks per day for 40 years. Calculate the pack year history.
B. 325 mg
A. 80 pack years
C. 950 mg
B. 40 pack years
D. 1221 mg
C. 20 pack years
D. 60 pack years
94. How much Lidocaine is required to prepare 1:1000, 30 mL
solution of lidocaine?
82. (BEQ) The doctor prescribed 2.46gr of aspirin to be taken once a day for 10 days.
A.10 mg
The available aspirin in the pharmacy is 80 mg per tablet. How many tablets should be
B.0.03 mg
dispensed?
C. 30 mg
D. 300 mg
A. 15 tablets
B. 20 tablets
95. (BEQ) An 85-year old female weighing 100 lb. has a serum
C. 25 tablets
creatinine of 1.1 mg/dL. Compute for the creatinine clearance of
D. 30 tablets
this patient.
A. 22 mL/min
83. (BEQ) A patient weighing 220lbs was given 3g of drug that was dosed at 25mg/kg.
B. 27 mL/min
What can you say about the dose given?
C. 35 mL/min
A. Underdose
D. 45mL/min
B. Overdose
C. Data incomplete
96. (BEQ) How many 1-fluidounce bottles of Lagundi syrup can
D. NOTA
be prepared from 5 gallons of the syrup?
A. 740
84. What is the correct dose to be given in the previous question?
B. 460
A. 2000 mg
C. 470
B. 2250 mg
D. 640
C. 2500 mg
D. 3000 mg
97. How much mL are there in 16 fl oz?
A. 444 mL
85. (BEQ) A prescription calls for 2 tbsp. of cough syrup to be taken by the patient after
B. 450 mL
meals for 7 days. The only available preparation in the market is a 60ml bottle. How
C. 473 mL
many bottles should be dispensed?
D. 495 mL
A. 4 bottles
B. 8 bottles
98. How much volume of water must be added to 1.5 L of 95%
C. 11 bottles
alcohol to make it 70%?
D. 12 bottles
A. 400 mL
B. 436 mL
86. (BEQ) An in-patient in a hospital was given a medication order to take levodopa/
C. 500 mL
carbidopa 250mg/25mg. The dosing schedule was ½ tablet at 7 am, ¼ + 1/8 tablet at
D. 536 mL
11 am, ¼ + ½ tablet at 3 pm, ½ tablet at 7pm, and ¼ + 1/8 at 11 pm
What is the total dose of levodopa/carbidopa to be administered to the patient per day?
99. What will be the total volume of the 70% alcohol made in
A. 593.75 mg/59.375 mg
#98?
B. 625 mg/62.5 mg
A. 2000 mL
C. 587.5 mg/50 mg
B. 2036 mL
D. 656.26 mg/68.75 mg
C. 1900 mL
D. 1936 mL
87. How many tablets per day will be used to compound the order in the previous
question?
100. Calculate the infusion rate needed given 750 mg of a drug
A. 3
intended to be given for 4 hours via infusion. The IV infusion has
B. 5
a concentration of 1 g/500 mL and the infusion set to be used
C. 2
gives 15 drops/mL.
D. 4
A. 13 drops/min
B. 23 drops/min
88. What is the percentage of cephalosporins in the list?
C. 33 drops/min
A. 54.5
D. 43 drops/min
B. 62.6
C. 49.7
D. 60.7
MODULE 1 14. Generic term referring to vitreous material
1. The ________ of any liquid is the temperature at which the liquid phase and the solid A. Plastic
phase are in equilibrium under a pressure of one atmosphere: B. Tin
A. Vapor pressure sublimation point -546 at Vitreous/glassy - transparent/translucent,
eq
*
.

C. Vitriol amorphous/non-crystalline solid (shatters

B. Freezing point triple point
*
S L
46 co-exist fyareineq D. Glass easily)
-

,
, .

C. Evaporating point
E. NOTA
D. Boiling point Lg 6 at eq
-

15. They are chemical compounds containing elements of high

2. Index of protective power of colloids:
atomic numbers which will stop the passage of x-rays
A. Zsigmondy / Gold # properties of colloids 4-BAD A. Roentgen rays
B. Nuggets Tyndall effect aight scattering) B. Radiopaque contrast medias
-

C. Dolomite collisions)
Brownian motion Crandon particle
-

C. Radiopharmaceuticals
D. NOTA Adsorption
-

Charge electrically Lteta/

-

4 verst/ electrodynamic potential)

electrokinetic D. Isotopes
3. The shrinkage occurring between the mixture of alcohol and purified water is primarily
16. Radioisotopes can be produced from the following EXCEPT:
due to:
A. Van der Waals forces
out A. Nuclear pile
fonts created
B. Covalent bonding N ,X) attractive by molecules '
B. Cyclotron
fit + EN atoms 15,0 (
,
polarizability
✓ C. X-ray machine
C. Hydrogen bonding IFA strength :H bond > Vander Waals keesom > Debye > London :

D. Ionic bonding D. Radioisotope cow

D- D D- ID ID ID -

E. Temperature changes
17. Primary HCO3- excess
4. A locus of points in an atom in which the electron density is zero. A. Metabolic acidosis Doc : NAHW }
-

CA Clz
A. Lode B. Metabolic alkalosis DOC : -

's e- cloud / Quantum mechanical / you , C. Respiratory acidosis

B. Node described in Erwin Schrodinger
-

C. Black space D. Respiratory alkalosis

D. Orbital where e- can be found
-

18. Designed for the visualization of the gallbladder

5. The number of adjacent atoms to which an atom is directly bonded A. Iopanoic acid USP
A. Coordination number B. Barium hydroxide
B. Coordination sphere C. Barium sulfate
C. Atom number D. AOTA
D. Covalent number
19. Devarda’s alloy is composed of Copper, Aluminum and:
6. It gives the spatial orientation of the electron cloud with respect to the three areas in A. Iron
space. (BEQ) B. Sodium
A. Spin quantum number magnetic moment / rotation
-
C. Zinc
B. Magnetic quantum number D. Bismuth
C. Principal quantum number size overall energy
-

!
D. Azimuthal quantum number e- shape 4 angular momentum 20. Reverse of hydration
A. Deliquescence, efflorescent
substances : crystal / salt 1- Hit

B. Efflorescence loss of water

- of hydration / crystallization
7. He developed a table of atomic weights and introduced letters to symbolize elements.
A. Berzelius C. Hygroscopy
B. Dobereiner triads -

modern periodic table

D. Drying
C. Lavoisier Mrs NM Uist of 33 elements
-

lcreator:
D. Moseley atomic # ( periodic law) Mosely 21. Calcium absorption and distribution are under a complex hormonal
[
-

E. Mendeleev atomic mass- father Mendeleev .

control of:
A. Parathyroid hormone
8. A solution made up of a weak base and its salt which resist changes in pH is called: B. Calcitonin
A. Buffer solution -
C. Thyrocalcitonin
B. Isotonic solution D. AOTA
C. Neutral solution
D. Normal solution 22. Type of bottle for dispensing milk of magnesia
[Link] colored
B. Light resistant ]
tk

9. Going across a period from left to right and from bottom to top a group in the periodic
table, which of the following periodic laws decreases? C. Blue bottle
A. Electron affinity Cs most electropositive -
D. Clear bottle
B. Electronegativity He highest
ionization
-

C. Atomic size energy 23. What element is also known as dephlogisticated air?
D. Ionization energy A. Nitrogen phlogisticatedair ( priestly) mephitic air
-

B. Oxygen empyreal air lscheele) ; acid former ( Lavoisier) yne

-

E. NOTA
-

C. Hydrogen inflammable air C Cavendish)

-

10. Different nuclides having the same number of neutrons but different number of D. Sulfur
protons: E. Helium asoge
-

A. Isobars
B. Isotopes 24. What condition results from the deficiency of iodine?
C. Isotones A. Hepatitis
D. Isomer B. Goiter
C. Infection
11. Refers to the amount of energy required to remove an electron from a neutral atom to D. Scurvy
convert it to a positively charged particle: E. Peripheral neuropathy
A. Electronegativity
B. Atomic radius 25. What is the antidote for zinc poisoning?
C. Ionization energy [Link] sulfate
D. Electron affinity [Link] hydroxide
E. Metallic property [Link] bicarbonate
[Link] carbonate
12. Law stating that elements combine in different ratios of small whole numbers to form E. Sodium chloride
compounds
A. Law of multiple proportions / 26. The ff are elements which form basic anhydrides EXCEPT
A. Ca -1
B. Proust’s law
C. Law of definite proportions ] elemental composition
metals
fixed ratio -

B. Na
-
non metals basic oxides
-
-

D. Dalton’s law r C. Mg
E. Two of the above D. S
E. NOTA
13. What happens to the oxidizing agent in a redox reaction? r Aethrop
's mineral tried / black sulfide)
A. Is oxidized D. Valence is increased 27. Cinnabar is chemically known as:
B. Lose electrons E. Not affected A. Li2CO3 d. HgS
C. Is reduced B. Zn
C. ZnSO4
 40. Which of the ff is the strongest bronsted base?
28. What is the color of the cylinder that is used to contain oxygen?
A.H2PO4- Hzpoy F Acid / base strength to CBICA strength
A. Black N , ; azote ;wlo life
-_
T
B. HSO4- H~S04
-

most abundant
B. Green
element on earth C. NO3- HN 03
C. Gray coz
D. CH3COO- LH } WOHL weakest acid)
-

H most abundant * -

D. Brown He element in the

universe
-

E. Yellow Cl -

41. The formation of dental caries is distributed to

the action of acids, mostly _____, obtained from oral
29. Among the halogens, which element is the most metallic?
bacterial metabolism of dietary carbohydrates:
A. Chlorine
A. Narcotic acid
B. Bromine
B. Citric acid
C. Fluorine
C. Lactic acid
D. Iodine non metal w/ metallic sheen
- -

D. Malic acid
E. Astatine only metallic radioactive synthetic halogen
-

, ,

42. Orthohydroxybenzoic acid is

30. The reagent that will precipitate out Group 1 cations:
A. Acetic acid
A. Hydrogen sulfide
B. Salicylic acid
B. Dilute hydrochloric acid
C. Oxalic acid
C. Ammonium sulfide
D. Citric acid
D. Sodium biphosphate
E. Sodium hydroxide
43. Which is the weakest acid? (BEQ)
A. Lactic acid pKa -3.86
-

31. Decrease the coefficient of expansion of glass

B. Benzoic acid pka -4.20
-
Fka FWA strength = = # pka
A. Rare earths
C. Trichloroacetic acid pKa 0.77
=

B. Potassium
3 Cl LEW 6=1*0 acidity)
'
'
D. Acetic acid
[Link]
D. MnO2 v1 cis
44. Trans-2-alkene: (BEQ) -

alkenes
E. Lead
.

I. Asymmetrical ✗
II. Non-polar
32. Increase refractive index of glass III. Higher melting point
A. Rare earths absorb light of certain wavelengths
-

IV. Lower boiling point

B. Potassium amber -

A.I,II,III stable
C. Borate [Link],III,IV
D. MnO2 C.I,III,IV
E. Lead D.I,II,III,IV

33. 100 volume H2O2 45. Which of the following compounds would have
A. 3% 10 V01
= the highest boiling point?
B. 6% A. CH3CHCH2CH3
C. 10% B. CH3NH2
D. 30% C. CH3OH
E. 100% D. CH2F2

34. Native hydrate aluminum silicate is also known as 46. Alcohol undergoing dehydration yields
-
[Link]
A. Kaolin
- -
[Link]
B. Talc native hydrated Mg Al silicate
-

-
[Link]
C. Pumice complex silicate of Al Na { K
-

, ,
[Link]
D. Siloxane polymeric Rzsio
-

[Link]
E. Bentonite native colloidal Al silicate Csi Ben ay Colony)
-

Bentonite

m-a g-in-a [Link]/m1p-dimethylbentehe

47. Secondary alcohol + K2Cr2O7 will yield
35. Howe’s solution A. Carboxylic acid
A. Mercury bichloride B. Aldehyde
B. Mercurous chloride C. Ketone
C. Ammoniated mercury D. Ester
D. Ammoniated silver nitrate E. NOTA
E. Lead acetate
48. When a carbonyl group reacts with a secondary
36. Corrosive sublimate amine, what will be the resulting product?
A. Mercury bichloride A. Imine
B. Mercurous chloride B. Amide
C. Ammoniated mercury C. Tertiary amine
D. Enamine
D. Ammoniated silver nitrate
E. Secondary amine
E. Lead acetate
49. The addition of a hydrogen molecule to an alkene
37. Slaked lime is is catalyzed by what metal?
A. CaO A. Silver
B. CaSO4.2H2O B. Palladium
C. Ca(OH)2 C. Beryllium
D.CaCO3 D. Gallium
E. NOTA E. Osmium

38. Antidote for copper poisoning 50. Methoxybenzene is also known as

A. Iodine A. Anisole
B. Penicillamine B. Toluene
C. Dimercaprol C. Aniline
[Link]’s paint D. Xylene
E. NOTA
39. Organic chemistry is the study of carbon and its compounds
51. Identify the reaction that took place:
except carbonates, bicarbonates, cyanides and oxides. The
properties of those below are related to inorganic compounds,
EXCEPT:
A. Water soluble A. Halogenation
B. Good conductor of electricity B. Hydrogenation
C. High melting and boiling point C. Hydration
D. Catenation bond to other C atoms
-
D. Hydrohalogenation
E. Not capable of hybridization E. NOTA ( alcohol synthesis

Fixing of 2 or more non -

equivalent atomic orbitals ,

)
Lsp spa , Sp
52. Formaldehyde, when acted upon by Grignard’s
reagent, will yield:
-
-

A. Primary alcohol c. Tertiary alcohol

B. Secondary alcohol d. NOTA
53. Which of the following is/ are characteristics of an ideal antiseptic? 63. Drug of choice for absence seizures (BEQ)
I. Rapid and sustained lethal action against microorganisms A. Carbamazepine
II. Retain activity in the presence of body fluids B. Thioridazine
1 Grandma 1 seizures)
III. High surface tension C. Valproic acid Doc generalized tonic clonic
-

D. Phenytoin [ CAR accident /disgrasia

A. I,II, & III E. Ethosuximide AE : blood
dyscrasia )
AE gingival hyperplasia , hirsutism
:
-
DOC partial seizures
B. I & III only releasing hominy [Link]#in-
C. II & III only 64. Hypothalamic and pituitary hormones EXCEPT: (BEQ)
D. I & II only -

I. Corticotropin 9T€ 1
E. I only
"

II. Thyroid stimulating hormoneltnyrotro stimulating hormone the pins

- -
"

pin
III. Growth hormone lsomatotropin
54. A dye used in vital nerve staining IV. Prolactin I Lactotwpin
A. Malachite green A. I only
B. Gentian violet B. I & IV
C. Methylene blue C. II & III
D. Basic fuchsin *
gonadotropins FSH guy ADHI Vasopre

Postngrimwmesy
D. AOTA
- -

pituitary
ssin
l exclusive to
E. NOTA women)
oxytocin
55. Extrachromosomals which are self-replicative and transferable by 65. Alcohol with not less than 70% ethanol and employed as astringent,
conjugation that is responsible for the transfer of resistance from one rubefacient, refrigerant, mild anesthetic, and counterirritant:
bacterium to another. A. Rubbing alcohol
A. R factors plasmid
-

B. Alcohol USP
B. F factors C. Denatured alcohol
C. S factors D. Dehydrated alcohol
D. M factors
E. X factors 66. Organism used in Ames test
-
test for mutagen i
city
A. Salmonella typhimurium
56. These are the major antigenic determinants that are formed when B. Bacillus subtilis
penicillins or its rearrangement products in vivo react with lysine-ɛ- C. Staphylococcus aureus
amino groups of proteins resulting to allergic reactions. Phenol coefficient
¥phi
-

D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
A. Penicillenic acid product of acid hydrolysis of penicillin
-

B. Penicilloyl proteins act as hapten l non antigenic → antigenic)

Doc
-
- :
chloramphenicol
67. A polyene antifungal antibiotic
C. Penicillanic proteins A. Nystatin Natamycin , Amphotericin B
D. Penicillanic acids nucleus of penicillin
-
,

[Link]
E. Penams (
Doc thread worm
yloidian's)
strong C. Salicylic acid
✓ D. Econazole
57. Mechanism of action of thiabendazole azole antifungal : Mebehdazole
-
-
A. Irreversibly blocks glucose uptake in susceptible helminths
B. Inhibits the helminths-specific enzyme fumarate reductase lpoc - Ascariasis 68. A fourth generation cephalosporin
Enthobiasislpinwom) A. Cefalexin
-

C. Prevention of the conversion of inosine monophosphate to

xanthine monophosphate ✗
tnchuriasis
B. Cefepime
C. Cefamandole
D. Irreversibly inactivates ornithine decarboxylase Ahoy to stoma 1h00 KWON D. Cefuroxime
E. Exerts anticholinergic effect causing paralysis and expulsion by
peristalsis 69. MOA of quinolones
A. Injury to plasma membrane
58. For patients allergic to penicillin, this drug is used as alternative: B. Protein synthesis inhibition
(BEQ) T [Link] of DNA gyrase
A. Erythromycin Doc :
gt coccus D. Production of toxic free radicals
B. Spectinomycin
C. Aureomycin 70. Methylated erythromycin
D. Lincomycin A. Clarithromycin 6- methyl ether of erythromycin
E. NOTA B. Azithromycin
C. Lincomycin
59. Despite the broad spectrum of activity of ribavirin, the drug has D. Ilotycin
been approved for only one therapeutic indication, namely E. NOTA
A. Herpes simplex keratitis
B. Severe lower respiratory infection caused by respiratory synctial 71. Active form of sulfonamides (BEQ)
virus 1 infant bronchitis A. Non-ionized
C. Herpes simplex encephalitis HSVI 1 above waist)
-

B. Ionized
D. Genital herpes HSV 2 LSTD ; below waist
-

[Link]
E. AIDS D. Oxo ring
E. NOTA
60. Interferons are secreted by cells in response to viral infections or 't lotion
-110
.

other chemical or biologic inducers. The major classes of interferons 72. Use of crotamiton
are: A. Pediculide
I. Alpha B. Anthelmintic
II. Beta C. Antibacterial
III. Lambda D. Scabicide
IV. Gamma E. NOTA
A. I & II
B. II & III 73. A metabolite of chloral hydrate (BEQ)
C. I-III
D. III & IV
E. II & IV
[Link] acid
B. Acetaldehyde Tato hot dehydrogenase

ethanol)
C. Carbapenem ring TCE ltñ chloro
aldehyde dehydrogenase
0
D. Phenacetone f

7
61. Which of the following is the mode of action of amantadine?
TCA
A. Inhibition of the uncoating of the RNA virus, thereby blocking the 74. Presence of electron withdrawing groups attached to the alpha
transfer of viral RNA into the host cell carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins render:
B. Inhibition of the viral DNA synthesis and producing the synthesis of [Link] stability
DNA that contains the iodinated pyrimidine B. Activity against pseudomonas carboxy / ureidepenicillins
-

C. Conversion by viral enzymes to the triphosphate, which is potent C. Activity against g- organisms Lt) hydrophilic groups
-

inhibitor of ribonucleotide reductases and DNA polymerases D. Penicillinase resistance'

'
amino /
D. Prevention of the capping of viral messenger RNA by inhibiting carboxy / ureido penicillins
attachment of
bulky grps 1 para di maki tani
guanyl methyltransferase
E. Prevention of the capping of viral messenger RNA by inhibiting
75. The functional group in pyridoxine is
A. Amine
penicillin a se si penicillin
guanyl methyltransferase B. Carboxylic acid
C. Ketone
62. Carcinogenic substances obtained from paper products: D. Alcohol
A. Polychlorinated biphenyls endometrial { breast CA
progestins 1-✗
-

÷
B. Acesulfame For influenza A/B:
Amantadine (Symmetrel)/Rimantadine - inhibits viral uncoating; 76. A progesterone derivative which is used for the treatment of
C. Butylatedhydroxyanisole prophylaxis endometrial cancer (BEQ) breast CA
D. NOTA Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)/Zanamivir - neuraminidase inhibitor; treatment (e.g.
AH1N1, etc)
A. Tamoxifen SERM ; tx estrogen 4)
-

anti androgen ; 1- ✗ Prostate

CA
B. Flutamide -
-

GnRH agonist it breast 4 prostate CA

C. Goserelin [Link]-provera ( Medroxyprogesterone acetate)
 88. Which is true about drug absorption?
77. Sulfonamides are metabolized by humans principally by I. For a weakly acidic drug, it must be in its unionized form
A. Acetylation II. For a weakly acidic drug, it must be in its ionized form
B. Oxidation III. For a weakly basic drug, it must be in its unionized form
C. Deamination IV. For a weakly basic drug, it must be in its ionized form
D. Conjugation A. I,II,III
LUNA
E. Methylation B.I,II HIPE
[Link],IV
[Link],IV
78. Streptomycin and other aminoglycoside antibiotics are:
E.I,III
A. Ototoxic NAIL neomycin amikacin kanamycih
-

B. Carcinogenic nephrotic NGT neomycin

* -

89. This compound is derived from the pyrolysis of castor oil and
C. Hyperglycemic gentamyinn is used as a keratolytic:
D. Hepatotoxic tobramyuin A. Salicylic acid
E. Goitrogenic B. Undecylenic acid
/ sinemetitidomet C. Azelaic acid
79. Levodopa is used in the treatment of
-
D. Chrysarobin
A. Leukemia E. Propionic acid
B. Parkinson’s disease Tagamet cimetidine
-

C. Alzheimer’s disease 90. Sulfonamides are synthetic analogs of

D. Tay sach’s disease A. Gamma aminobutyric acid
E. NOTA B. Para aminobenzoic acid
C. Tricarboxylic acid
80. Effective routes of administration of nitroglycerin for angina D. Sulfonic acid
pectoris include the following:
I. Oral 91. Chloramphenicol
II. Intravenous A. Streptomyces orientalis
III. Transdermal B. Streptomyces natalensis
IV. Sublingual C. Penicillum griseofulvum
D. Streptomyces griseus
A. I,II E. Streptomyces venezuelae
B. II,III
C. II,III,IV 92. Streptomycin
D. I,II,III,IV A. Streptomyces orientalis
B. Streptomyces natalensis
81. Which of the following agents IS NOT used for local C. Penicillum griseofulvum
candidiasis? D. Streptomyces griseus
A. Nystatin E. Streptomyces venezuelae
B. Gentian violet
C. Griseofulvin only effective for dermatophyte ( MET)
-
93. Vancomycin
C. Miconazole Micwspornm A. Streptomyces orientalis
E. Clotrimazole Epidermophyton B. Streptomyces natalensis
Trichophyton C. Penicillum griseofulvum
82. Acetaminophen is preferred in the following conditions D. Streptomyces griseus
EXCEPT: E. Streptomyces venezuelae
A. Rheumatic disease
B. Peptic ulcer 94.
[Link] asthma
D. Influenza ASA/Aspirin - Cx peptic ulcer, NSAID-induced asthma, and
E. Chicken pox may precipitate Reye’s syndrome in children w/ viral
infections A. Oxazole nitrogen
83. Which of the ff antineoplastics IS NOT considered an B. Furan mustard
-
antimetabolite? mimic purine / pyr base C. Pyrazine
-

A. Methotrexate D. Benzimidazole
B. Thioguanine E. Pyridine
C. Etoposide topoisomerase I inh
-

98.
D. Fluorouracil 95.
E. NOTA
cyclophosphamide
84. Which of the following bases is most susceptible to
alkylating agents? (BEQ) [Link]
[Link] B. Antibacterial
[Link] A. Oxazole
B. Furan C. Antitubercular
[Link] D. Antineoplastic
[Link] C. Pyrazine
D. Benzimidazole E. Antipsychotic
[Link]
E. Pyridine
99.
85. The least stable of all vitamins
A. Ascorbic acid 96.
B. Folic acid
C. Thiamine
D. Retinoic acid
E. Menadione Benzyl penicillin cPen6)
A. Oxazole
B. Furan [Link]
86. Functionalization reactions include:
C. Pyrazine B. Antibacterial
I. Redox
D. Benzimidazole C. Antitubercular
II. Hydrolysis
E. Pyridine D. Antineoplastic
III. Acetylation
E. Antipsychotic
IV. Sulfation
97.
Propranolol
100.
A. I,II,III (
B. II,III,IV
[Link],III
D. I,II
E. I,II,III,IV

87. Preservatives like parabens increase their preservative

[Link]
B. Antibacterial ¥÷÷÷÷
property by:
C. Antitubercular [Link]
A. Reducing the parent compound
D. Antineoplastic B. Antibacterial
B. Decreasing molecular weight
E. Antipsychotic C. Antitubercular
C. Attaching a halogen to the parent compound
D. Antineoplastic
D. Substituting the parent compound with a lipophilic group
E. Antipsychotic
E. Increasing the molecular weight
MODULE 5 11. Also known as compressed lozenges
1. Formation of paste by addition of non-solvent liquid (Mineral oil in water-soluble A. Candies
substances) B. Troches compression
-

A. Trituration mortar b. pestle

-

C. Pastilles molding -

B. Levigation e. g. camphor crystals D. Lollipops lozenge on a stick

-

more stable
-
C. Pulverization by intervention It) volatile substance -

,
D. Sifting passed through sifters
-

12. Type A hydrolysis of gelatin Type

B

A. Acid
-

base hydrolysis
2. Addition of an equal volume of diluent to a potent substance placed in a mortar from pork skin from bones
B. Base
-

A. Spatulation mix using spatula

-

C. Salt echoic
point :p Hq
-

isoelectric point ; pH 4.7

B. Trituration mortar 4 bestie
-

D. Partial
C. Geometric dilution Only method recommended for potent substances
-

D. Tumbling large vessel then

-

13. Preservative used in hard gelatin capsules

rotated
A. Parabens preservative in soft gelatin capsules
-

3. A type of powder paper that is transparent and water-proof, suitable for deliquescent B. Benzyl benzoate
and hygroscopic drugs =
absorbs moisture C. Sulfur dioxide nmt 0.151 -
,

→
A. Bond paper absorbs moisture but does not dissolve
L 4 dissolves D. Titanium dioxide -0 pacifying agent
opaque
B. Glassine gluten
- paper w/ no moisture
resistance
transparent moisture resistant
, -

C. Vegetable parchment semi -

,

14. Largest capsule size for human

opaque moisture resistant
-

,
D. Wax paper A. 0000
*
waterproof -

stronger protection against moisture than moisture water-resistant

or
B. 000
-

4. Too much of this excipient in the formulation of effervescent granules causes a sticky C. 1
product D. 5
A. Citric acid
B. Tartaric acid if alone crumble easily
-

,
15. Moisture content requirement for soft-gelatin capsules
C. Malic acid A. 3-6%
D. Fumaric acid B. 6-10%
in Hbc
C. 12-16% moisture content
-

5. A type of tablet that dissolves slowly in the cheeks for systemic absorption D. 16-20%
A. Chewable tablet chewed first before swallowing
-

B. Orally disintegrating tablet liquefy on the tongue -

16. Type of extended-release formulation that follows zero-order

C. Buccal tablet slowly -

kinetics
D. Sublingual tablet under the tongue ; rapidly
-

A. Immediate-release
[Link]-release 1st order kinetics ; cone dependent
-
-

6. Which example of bulk powder contains a soap, mild abrasive agent and C. Controlled-release
anticariogenic agent? D. Target-release
I. Dentifrices
II. Dusting Powders 17. Also known as pessaries
III. Douche Powders
A. Rectal suppositories
IV. Insufflations
B. Vaginal suppositories
V. Triturations
A. V C. Urethral suppositories
B. III D. Ocular suppositories
C. II
D. I 18. Pencil-shaped suppositories
A. Rectal suppositories bullet shaped / torpedo /
- -
little finger

7. Which example of bulk powder is locally applied non-toxic powders that have no B. Vaginal suppositories globular cone , ovoid
-
,

systemic action? C. Urethral suppositories

I. Dentifrices D. Ocular suppositories
II. Dusting Powders
III. Douche Powders 19. Most stable polymorph of cocoa butter
IV. Insufflations A. Alpha 22°C
-

V. Triturations B. Beta 34.5°C

-

A. II C. Beta prime 28°C -

B. III D. Gamma least stable ; laic

-

C. V
D. I ✓ yellow ointment
20. Simple ointment is a mixture of
-

A. White petrolatum + white wax

8. Which example of bulk powder is dissolved in warm water prior to use as cleansing
agent or antiseptic for body cavity? B. White petrolatum + yellow wax
C. Yellow petrolatum + white wax
I. Dentifrices D. Yellow petrolatum + yellow wax
II. Dusting Powders
III. Douche Powders 21. Hydrophilic ointment is what type of ointment base
IV. Insufflations A. Hydrocarbon base
Fino istrue
V. Triturations -
B. Absorption base
A. III -
251 moisture →
.

emulsion
C. Water-removable base
B. V D. Water-soluble base
C. II
D. I 22. A dispersion system that composed of small inorganic particles
and large organic molecules dispensed throughout a liquid vehicle
9. Which example of bulk powder is blown into a body cavity using a special device? A. Gel
I. Dentifrices B. Cream emulsion base
-

II. Dusting Powders

C. Paste larger proportion of solid particles
-

III. Douche Powders

D. Magma type of gel
-

IV. Insufflations '

larger particle size of suspended particles
V. Triturations
A. IV 23. Composition of glycerogelatin
B. III A. 40% gelatin, 35% glycerin, 15% water, 10% API
C. V B. 45% glycerin, 30% water, 15% gelatin, 10% API
D. I C. 40% glycerin, 35% water, 15% gelatin, 10% API
D. 45% gelatin, 30% glycerin, 15% water, 10% API
10. Which example of bulk powder is referred to as dilutions of potent powdered drugs?
I. Dentifrices 24. Part of transdermal drug delivery system (TDDS) that prevents
II. Dusting Powders water and drug loss
III. Douche Powders A. Occlusive backing film
IV. Insufflations B. Drug reservoir stores { releases API
-

V. Triturations 101 API -

.
C. Adhesive layer ensure contact w/ skin
-

A. IV D. Release liner
B. III [ removed before use
C. V protect API
during storage
D. I
 39. Treated soda lime glass
25. First TDDS developed
A. Type I highly resistant borosilicate glass
-

A. Duragesic fentanyl -

""
upper back / am / Chest "
"
B. Type II treated wlsoz ang surface l acidic 501ns)
B. Androderm testosterone
-

PAM
"

µgnµyreÑysxyrotoam
"
] "
C. Type III soda time glass ( non-aqueous parenteral s solids for reconstitution)
marmoset,µµ*mYfneMÑ
wiper
-

C. Testoderm
-

or
scrotum
-
D. NP non parenteral / general purpose
D. Transderm Scop behind the ear
- -

'
DOA :3
days
40. Type of plastic used in blister packs
26. Burrow’s solution is used as
A. 1 PET
-

-
A. Diluent
B. 2 HDPE
Aluminum acetate
-

B. Douche
C. 3 pvc
C. Astringent
-

D. 4 LDPE
-

D. Mouthwash
41. Storage condition: cool
27. The most preferred method of syrup preparation A. -20 to -10°C freezer * cold nmt 8°C -

A. Solution with heat fastest method of syrup prep ; prob sucrose inversion /
' -

B. 2 to 8°C refrigerator heat > 40°C

-

caramelization
B. Solution without heat
-

excessive -40°C
C. 8 to 15C warm 30
C. Reconstitution medicated tymps
-

D. 15to 20C controlled Rt 20 -25°C -

D. Percolation now 11mL 1min)

-
room temp -

temp prevailing in the area

/
iodine tincture 42. Use of Tragacanth in tablet formulation
28. Hydroalcoholic solutions prepared from vegetable drugs or chemical a-
A. Disintegrant gum
= B. Binder
belladonna tincture
substances
A. Tinctures C. Diluent increase
-
size

B. Elixirs flavored / sweetened , for oral use

- D. Lubricant reduce friction
-

C. Spirits aromatic substances / volatile oils

-

D. Fluid extracts 100-1 tincture-

.
43. The following are used as disintegrants, except:
*
aromatic water -

aqueous sun of V. 0 .
A. Gelatin sticky material ; binder
-

B. Starch paste binder / dis integrant ; swelling

-

29. Type of extract where nearly all solvent is removed

C. Sodium starch glycollate super dis integrant -

A. Semiliquid no solvent is removed

-

D. Microcrystalline cellulose wicking -

B. Pilular
C. Powdered all solvent is removed
-

44. FD&C Red No. 40

D. Marc residue left that is exhausted
-

A. Indigotine
B. Allura Red
30. Most widely used pressurizable container in aerosols C. Erythrosine
A. Aluminum D. Tartrazine
B. Glass
C. Tin-plated steel 45. Flavorant that mask bitter taste of drugs
D. Brass A. Chocolate cherry raspberry mint
,
,
,

B. Orange
31. Which manufacturing process is applicable for semisolid dosage forms? C. Vanilla
A. Rotary die process i
D. Butterscotch
Su Sa Na Ac As Na
B. Wet granulation
C. Tip seal 46. A sweetener that is 500x sweeter than sucrose
sucralose 1000 ✗
A. Acesulfame potassium -

D. Fusion method heat is involved saccharin 500 ✗

B. Aspartame
-
-

Na saccharin 300 ✗ -

C. Sucralose Acesnlfamell 180-2004

32. What manufacturing process is applicable for Hard Gelatin Capsules? D. Saccharin
-

Aspartame -190 200 X -

A. Fusion method Na cyclamate cmagic sugar) box

-

B. Pin method form Hbc shells

-

47. Most widely used milling equipment that uses a high speed rotor to
C. Tip seal method which swinging arms are fixed
D. Rotary die process A. Roller mill 2 cylindrical rolls-

B. Edge runner mill mortar { pestle w/ 2 Wheels -

33. What manufacturing process is applicable for Soft Gelatin Capsules? C. Ball mill balls in cylinder
- a

A. Tip seal method [Link] mill

B. Rotary die process / reciprocating die
C. Pin method plate process oldest -
48. Most recommended rotating shell mixers that can alternately
D. Fusion method combine and draw apart the raw materials
A. V-shell blender twin smell blender - -

34. What manufacturing process is applicable for tablets? B. Sigma blade mixer
A. Rotary die process C. Double-cone blender
B. Wet granulation 1dm granulation / divert compression D. Planetary mixer
C. Tip seal method
49. Method of granulation used for moisture- and heat-sensitive drugs
D. Fusion method
A. Wet granulation
B. Dry granulation
35. What manufacturing process is applicable for closing ampules? C. Melt granulation
A. Wet granulation method D. Direct compression
B. Pin method
C. Tip seal method / Pull seal method 50. Part of the tableting machine that guides the movement of punches
D. Fusion method A. Hopper holds materials
-

B. Feed shoe transfer materials into die cavity

-

36. Type of manufacturing activity wherein a competent manufacturing company C. Die size 4 shape of tablet
-

manufactures products of other company D. Cam track compress the materials w/in the die
-

A. Primary manufacturing raw materials -

B. Seconary manufacturing dosage forms -

51. Type of tablet defects in which there is a partial or complete
C. Tertiary manufacturing separation of the top or bottom crown
packaging
-

D. Toll manufacturing A. Lamination separated into 2 or more layers

-

B. Capping
37. Specific quantity of drug product having the uniform character and quantity, C. Cracking fine cracks on the surface
-

D. Chipping small portion removed

-

produced during a single manufacturing process

A. Lot portion of a bath
-

52. Step in sugar coating that adds most weight

B. Batch A. Sealing waterproof
-

C. Product line B. Subcoating gum t dusting powder-

D. Bulk C. Syruping smooths out snbuoated surface 1- adds

-
color

D. Polishing glossy
Inning 1 uses waxes)
-

38. A type of container that is impervious to air or any other gas

A. Well-closed solids -

53. Most inert grade of mixing tanks

B. Tight liquids
-

A. SS316
C. Hermetic air -
B. SS304
D. Tamper-resistant C. SS 136
D. SS 403
 68. An automatic particle counter that uses electric
resistance to determine the size of the particle
54. Type of parabens that disrupt the endocrine system
A. HIAC Royco light blockade
A. Methyl
-

B. Coulter counter
B. Propyl
C. Gelman filter systems
-

C. Long chain
D. Abbe
D. Short chain
react w/ free radicals
/
69. The ratio of the void volume to the bulk volume
55. The following are considered as true antioxidants, except:
- of the packing
A. Vitamin C RA
-

A. Porosity
B. Vitamin E
*
B. Packing arrangement
C. BHT antioxidant synergists
chelating agents (ex EDTA) C. Bulkiness reciprocal of bulk
-

density
.

D. BHA
* E. alkyl gallates
D. Flow particles
56. An emulsion instability which defined as the irreversible separation into a later due to
70. Range of HLB value in the Griffin scale for anti-
coalescence of the internal phase
foaming agents AWW ODS
A. Sedimentation
B. Creaming ] reversible A. 0-3
B. 3-8
C. Breaking or Cracking
D. Phase inversion
irreversible
] C. 8-16
D. 16-18
57. Autoclave settings oven 160 -170°C for 4 hrs
setting : 71. Required temperature for specific gravity
A. 121°C, 15 psi, 30 – 45 min
determination
B. 121°C, 30 psi, 15 – 20 min
A. 15.56C alcohol ( hydrometer)
-

C. 100°C, 15 psi, 15 – 20 min

B. 30C
D. 121°C, 15 psi, 15 – 20 min
C. 25C
D. 20C
58. Gas used in gas sterilization
A. Carbon dioxide
72. The buffer equation is also known as
B. Ethylene oxide * alternatives :
formaldehyde B- pnopio lactone ,
A. Noyes-Whitney dissolution -

C. Butane
B. Arrhenius stability-

D. CFCs
C. Henderson-Hasselbach
D. Van’t hoff osmotic pressure
-

59. The required class for compounding area in sterile production

A. Class 100,000
73. The dissolution of drug is calculated using
B. Class 10,000
A. Henderson-hasselbach
C. Class 1,000
B. Noyes-Whitney
D. Class 100
C. Arrhenius
D. Stokes sedimentation rate
-

60. Reliable sealing method for ampule closure

A. Tip sealing
74. In Stokes law, the parameter that has the
B. Bead sealing
greatest effect on the sedimentation rate is:
C. Pull sealing
A. Diameter of the particle
D. Band sealing
B. Density of the particle
C. Density of the medium
61. The following are Van der Waals forces of attraction, except:
D. Gravity
A. Hydrogen bonding
B. Dipole-induced dipole
75. Convert 37.5°C to Fahrenheit
si
Nancy nawalanng 75
-

C. Keesom forces dipole dipole

-

A. 98.6F
D. Debye forces dipole induced
-

9C = 51=-160
-

or induction
dipole B. 99.5F
/ non-polar
C. 100.4F 9137.50 C) 51=-160 =
62. The intermolecular forces exist between Cl2 and CBr4 are:
D. 100.3F
9137.51114¥
F
T :[
A. Dipole-dipole
B. Dipole-induced dipole non -
poÑ
76. Describe the flow property of a powder based
C. Induced dipole-induced dipole
on the angle of repose if the height of the powder
D. Ion-induced dipole
cone is 5.8 cm and the horizontal spread is 20 cm
A. Excellent
63. Gas law wherein V and T are variable and P, n, R are held constant tan ' tan
(E) -11¥) 30.11°
=
-

② =
B. Good =

A.. boyle’s law

C. Fair
B. Charles’ law
D. Passable
C. Avogadro’s law
D. Gay-Lussac’s law / A month 's law
77. Describe the flow characteristic based on
Hausner ratio if the bulk volume is 70 mL and the
64. The Avogadros number is equal to
tapped volume is 60 mL
A. 6.02 x 1023 ✓ bulk 70mL
A. Excellent HR =

1.166
B. 1.802 x 1023
= =

Tom,
-

B. Good ✓
C. 9.6 x 1023 tapped 5
C. Fair I. 17
D. 6.0 x 1023
D. Passable E I. 00 l It -

65. The gram-molecular volume of gas at STP is equal to: 6 1.12-1 . 18

78. Crystal symmetry of Urea
A.1.0 L
1- 0°C
or
273k =
A. Cubic Nau
-

B. 2.24 L triclinic -1-131303 boric acid

B. Tetragonal
C. 22.4 L F- 1 atm 760
mmHg or

C. Hexagonal iodoform -

D. 22.4 mL
D. Rhombic iodine -

monoclinic -

sucrose
66. USP official method of particle size analysis 79. Long-acting form or polymorph of insulin
A. Sieve analysis
site out in liquid Dts A. Crystalline
B. Optical microscopy most accurate method
-

for particle
-
electrical resistance
B. Amorphous
C. Automatic particle counter coulter counter
-

g- C. Alpha
D. Sedimentation rate HIAC Royw counter light blockade
-

D. Beta
67. In optical microscopy, this is the longest tangent line that can be measured in a 80. A drug is soluble if its 1 part can be dissolved to
particle A. Less than 1 part of solvent
A. Martin diameter bisect
-

B. 1 to 10 parts of solvent
B. Feret diameter C. 10 to 30 parts of solvent
C. Projected area diameter circle -

D. 30 to 100 parts of solvent

D. Longest diameter
81. Compute for the osmotic pressure in atm of a 0.884M of sucrose solution at 16°C 95. Traditional and Alternative Medicine Act of 1997
A. 25.96 atm A. RA 9502
IT i MRT
=
B. 25.69 atm B. RA 8981
C. 20.96 atm
D. 52.96 atm
=(1) ( 0.884M) 10.09205
'matY-)(
161-2731 c) C. RA 8423
D. RA 10912

82. Lacrimal fluid has an isotonicity values corresponding to that of NaCl solution with 96. One of its objectives is to standardize and regulate the
the strength of pharmacy education in the country.
A. 0.1% A. RA 10912
B. 9.0% B. RA 10918
C. 1.0% C. RA 8203
D. 0.9% D. RA 9994

83. Using White Vincent Method, compute for the required volume to make 0.3 g of 97. It is the policy of the state to safeguard the integrity of its
E ✗ 111 I territory and the well-being of its citizenry particularly the youth,
Atropine sulfate (E=0.13) isotonic.
( gx
=
.

A. 3.9 mL 0 13 ✗ 111 I from the harmful effects of dangerous drugs.

WV method 0.3g ✗
.

=
.

B. 4.3 mL A. RA 9165
C. 25.6 mL B. RA 8981
D. 33.3 mL C. RA 9994
D. RA 7581
84. Compute for the E-value of Zinc Chloride (MW=135.9) with an Liso of 5.1.
A. 0.46 98. To promote, encourage, and require the use of generic
B. 0.64 terminology of drugs.
C. 453 A. RA 6675
D. 1.22 B. RA 8981
C. RA 9711
85. Which of the following is a colligative property? D. RA 10918
A. Osmotic pressure
B. Boiling point Levevation) 99. To safeguard the health of the people against counterfeit drug.
C. Freezing point ( depression) A. RA 9165
D. Vapor pressure ( lowering B. RA 8203
C. RA 9994
86. The biological half-life of a drug that is eliminated by 1st order is mathematically D. RA 9711
represented by:
A. 1/k 100. To have an effective competition policy in the supply and
B. Log k demand of quality drugs. .
C. 0.693/k - 2-
In
A. RA 10918
D. 2.303/k K B. RA 9502
C. RA 8423
87. Most penetrating form of radiation D. RA 10912
A. Alpha radiation highest ionizing power
-

B. Beta radiation
C. Gamma radiation
D. Electron radiation

88. Flow system that shows a yield value

A. Plastic
B. Pseudoplastic smear thinning
-

C. Dilatant shear thickening

-

D. Newtonian

89. Cup and bob viscometer type where the bob is rotated
A. Searle type
B. Couette type Mp is rotated
-

C. Cone and plate type

D. Ostwald type

90. This is known as heat content and it is the heat required to increase the internal
energy and to perform work.
A. Specific heat
B. Heat potential
C. Entropy disorderliness / heat unavailable for work
-

D. Enthalpy

91. The PRC Modernization Act of 2000

A. RA 10912
B. RA 8981
C. RA 8423
D. RA 9711

92. Generics Act of 1988

A. RA 6675
B. RA 8981
C. RA 9165
D. RA 8203

93. FDA Act of 2009

A. RA 9502
B. RA 7581
C. RA 9711
D. RA 9502

94. Expanded Senior Citizen Act of 2010

A. RA 9156
B. RA 6675
C. RA 8423
D. RA 9994
 15. GABHS
MODULE 6 A. Streptococcus agalactiae GBS
1. A biological sterilization indicator used to test efficiency of ethylene oxide: B. Streptococcus pyogenes
A. Bacillus thuringiensis C. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Bacillus stearothermophilus D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Bacillus subtilis 16. If you Gram-stained the bacteria that live in the human
intestine, you would expect to find mostly
2. Public health activities of a pharmacist on a micro-level would include which of the A. Gram positive cocci
following, except: B. Gram negative rods Bacillus -

A. Educating the public on health and medication C. Gram positive, endospore-forming rods ✗
B. Research and development of health policies for the community D. Gram negative, nitrogen-fixing bacteria ✗
C. Counseling patients about chronic conditions E. All of the above
D. Drug information services and publications of health promotions
17. Obligate aerobe -

PNBMC
3. Used as water disinfectant in public waters A. Actinomyces
A. Iodine B. Bacillus
B. Chlorine C. Clostridium
C. Fluorine D. Prevotella
D. Bromine
* 18. Lactose fermenting enterics:
4. The influenza vaccine is administered each year because I. Shigella
A. mutations in the viral hemagglutinin may allow the virus to evade the immune response II. Salmonella
elicited by previous vaccines III. Klebsiella
B. it is a polysaccharide vaccine that does not confer long-term protection IV. E. coli
C. the vaccine is sufficiently toxic to make it necessary to administer only a small amount A. I & II
at any one time [Link] & III
C. I & IV
5. A structurally mature infectious viral particle D. III & IV
A. Spore
B. Capsid 19. Its mission is to lead the country in the development of a
productive, resilient, equitable and people-centered health
C. Virion
system
D. Capsule
A. DOH
B. WHO
6. Type of culture media used for microorganisms that are non-fastidious C. RHU rural health unit
-

A. Enriched D. MHU mobile health unit

-

B. Differential
C. Simple 20. The following pathogens are likely to establish chronic
D. Selective and latent infections, except:
A. CMV
7. Place the following surfactants in order, from the most effective to the least effective B. Hepatitis B virus
antimicrobial activity C. Hepatitis A virus
I. Soap 2 D. Herpes Simplex Virus
II. Anionic detergent 3
III. Cationic detergent , 21. Organisms having tufts of flagella on each pole:
A. III,I,II A. Monotrichous one flagellum at one end
-

B. II,I,III B. Amphitrichous flagella on both ends

-

C. I,II,III C. Peritrichous flagella all over the place

-

D. I,III,II D. Lophotrichous tufts of flagella at one end

-

E. Atrichous no flagella
-

8. A man comes to a clinic complaining of diarrhea and abdominal pain. He told the
physician that he was able to eat pork prior to the manifestations of the sign and 22. The following are naked viruses, except:
symptom. What could be the possible causative agent? A. Picornavirus
A. Taenia saginata beef tapeworm
- ENVELOPED DNA VIRUS: HeHePox B. Parvovirus
NAKED DNA VIRUS: APaPar
B. Balantidium coli -

protozoa ; ingestion of pork NAKED RNA VIRUS:: PiCaReo

C. Togaviridae
C. Hymenolepsis nana dwarf tapeworm insects)
-

D. Reoviridae
D. Diphyllobotrium latum broad fish tapeworm
-

23. Which of the following is/are true regarding

9. The following vaccines was granted EUA by the Philippine FDA, except immunoglobulins?
A. Pifzer-BioNtech A. IgD acts as an antigen receptor (together with IgM) on
B. Oxford AstraZeneca surface of mature B lymphocytes.
C. Gamaleya Sputnik V B. IgG is the principal immunoglobulin in secondary immune
D. None of the above response
self
limiting C. IgA is present in body secretions, including tears,
-

✓
10. Which of the following is FALSE regarding mumps? -
colostrum, saliva, and vaginal fluid
A. Humans are the sole host of this RNA virus D. A and C only
B. Gancyclovir may be used to treat this enveloped virus Anti CMV agent -
E. All of the above
C. In takes 2-3 weeks before symptoms manifest
D. In some adult males, the infection localizes in the epididymis 24. Vehicle-borne transmission of the pathogens by
contaminated inanimate objects:
11. Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine? I. Food
A. Measles II. Water
B. Varicella-Zoster III. Milk
C. Yellow fever GABHS IV. Mites
/
D. Hepatitis B A. I,II,III
/ Streptococcus pyogenes B.I,II,IV
12. Which of the following correctly describes a causative agent for impetigo?
A. It causes complete hemolysis of blood 0 C.I&II
D.I,II,III,IV
B. It can be treated using Bacitracin
C. It can be caused by Streptococcus (
mama so ltagalo g)
25. Refers to the number of diseased individuals in the
honey crust lesions population at a given time
-

D. All of the above

A. Prevalence rate
13. Used for radical cure for malaria: B. Incidence rate # Of new cases in the population
-

A. Chloroquine DOC prophylaxis { tx of

-
all forms of malaria except chloroquine resistant falciparum
-

C. Crude death rate

B. Primaquine D. Crude birth rate
C. Quinine
D. NOTA 26. This organism is usually acquired by fishermen eating
raw small brackish water fish called bagsit (Hyseleostris
14. Components of epidemiologic triangle include the following EXCEPT: biparita)
A. Host A. Ascaris lumbricoides giant intestinal roundworm
-

B. Agent B. Trichinella spiralis muscle roundworm

-

C. Environment C. Capillaria philippinensis

D. NOTA D. Trichuris trichuria whipworm
-
 40. The "A" subunit of diphtheria toxin rm protein
of S pyogenes
.

27. In the drugstore, when a customer would ask a pharmacist what is a disinfectant; A. binds host cell receptors found on heart cells can ring RHF
which of the following is the best statement as answer? B. causes ADP ribosylation of a factor involved in protein
A. A chemical agent that kills both vegetative forms and spores of pathogens sterilizing agent
-

synthesis
B. A chemical agent that eradicates microorganism C. forms cAMP that leads to fluid accumulation cholera toxin
-

C. A chemical agent that kills vegetative forms of pathogens but not the spores D. lysis macrophages with the release of cytokines
D. A substance that serves as a cleansing agent
41. Which of the following lacks a cell wall?
28. Recently, an outbreak of Polio has been declared in the Philippines. Polio virus [Link]
belongs to which family of viruses: B. Mycoplasma
A. Paramyxovirus C. Mycobacterium
B. Picornavirus D. Nocardia
C. Coronavirus
D. Bunyavirus 42. Which of the following when put together will best explain the
E. Flavivirus term antisepsis?
I. A synonym for disinfection✗ inanimate objects
-

29. Which of the following descriptors represents the index that measures the II. Inhibits microorganism on living tissue
number of individuals who have died within a susceptible population during a specific III. Limits or prevent harmful results of infection
period because of a particular disease? IV. Chemical used are applied to skin and mucous membrane
A. Prevalence rate # of diseased individuals in the population at a given time
-

B. Virulence proportion of clinically apparent cases that are severe/ fatal

-

A. I,III,IV
C. Mortality rate B. II,III,IV
D. Morbidity rate # of diseased individuals in a population
-
C. I,II,III
D. I,II,III,IV
30. DOC for candidiasis
A. Griseofulvin ringworm infection
-
43. Which of the following pairs are mismatched?
B. Amphotericin B systemic mycoses
-
A. ETEC: traveler’s diarrhea
B. EIEC: shigellosis-like
C. Nystatin
C. EPEC: persistent infant diarrhea
D. Fluconazole crypto cocoon's
-

D. EHEC: hemorrhage
[Link] of the above
* 31. Indicator used for the completeness of gas sterilization EAEC : persistent watery diarrhea
A. Bacillus stearothermophilus autoclave -

44. Which blood type is considered as the universal donor?

B. Bacillus pumilis ionizing radiation
-

A. Type AB universal recipient

-

C. Bacillus subtilis var niger oven / dry heat

-

B. Type A
D. Bacillus subtilis var globigii C. Type O no antigen on the surface
-

D. Type B
32. Which of the following is not a contributor to the development healthcare-
associated infections? 45. What is the vector of a disease known as African
A. Inappropriate handwashing practices among healthcare workers Trypanosomiasis?
*
A. Mosquitoes American trypanosomiasis Rheduvid
B. Prolonged hospitalization kissing bug
-

C. Smoking and alcoholism B. Tse-tse flies leishmaniasis Phlebotomies

-

C. Lice sandfly
D. Increased number of immunocompromised patients
D. Dust mites
33. Which of the following bioterrorism agents is not correctly paired with the disease
46. DOC for uncomplicated cystitis
it causes?
A. Macrodantin nitrofurantoin -

A. Chlamydia psittaci: parrot fever

B. Cipro ciprofloxacin ; for recurrent / complicated
-
Mtl
B. Francisella tularensis: rabbit fever C. Tazicef ceftati dime
-

C. Rickettsia prowazekii: Rocky Mountain spotted fever D. Zinnat cefuroxime

-

D. Coxiella burnetti: Q fever

E. Bacillus anthracis: Woolsorter’s disease 47. Which of the following anti-retroviral agents inhibit the gp41
protein (fusion protein) of HIV?
34. Used in cold sterilization / gas ster .
A. Emtricitabine NRTI -

A. Refrigerator B. Etravirine NNRTI

-
-

B. Ethylene oxide C. Enfuvirtide

C. Nitrogen gas D. Indinavir protease inhibitor
-
-

D. Nitrous oxide 21-42 days apart

*
bonus ✓
48. True about Sputnik V Vaccine, except?
-

35. HIV has a high affinity for this type of lymphocyte A. Given 2 doses, 4 weeks apart
A. T-helper lymphocytes CD 4T cells B. Viral vector (non replicating)
B. B lymphocytes C. EUA approved by Philippine FDA
C. Phagocytes D. Stored at -18C and below
E. NOT A
D. T cytotoxic lymphocytes
49. Which of the following is NOT an alga?
A. Desmids
36. Causative agent of food poisoning from canned goods B. Sporozoa Arthropod borne protozoa Lex Plasmodium)
- -

A. Bacillus cereus fried rice poisoning

.

C. Diatoms
B. Vibrio parahemolyticus seafood -
"
D. Dinoflagellates
C. Vibrio vulnificus oyster poisoning
-

D. Clostridium perfringens clostridial food poisoning

-

50. Which of the following is not zoonotic?

E. Clostridium botulinum A. Mumps
B. Tularemia rabbit -

37. Refers to the likelihood that a particular hazard will occur C. Brucellosis cow -

A. Accident D. Plague rat -

B. Incident
C. Risk 51. Which of the following is used in the analysis of aromatic
D. Hazard potential to cause harm
- compounds containing an amino group in the molecules?
A. Acid-base titration
38. Organisms having a flagellum on each pole: B. Proximate assay
A. Monotrichous C. Acetylation process
D. Diazotization titration
B. Amphitrichous
C. Peritrichous
52. In process verification for continuous improvement of
D. Lophotrichous compounded products, criteria for potency verification of a drug
E. Atrichous in suspension dosage form preparations include?
I. Strength
39. Which of the following are identified worldwide as ‘ESKAPE’ pathogens? II. Purity
I. Enterococcus faecalis III. Quality
II. Acinetobacter baumannii IV. Sterility ✗ for parenteral s
-

III. Candida albicans A. I,II,III

IV. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. I,III,IV
A. I,II,III, & IV B. I,II, & IV C. II,III, & IV D. I,II, & III C. II,III,IV
D. I,II,IV
 64. Plastic products that can be decomposed by
53. It refers to the direct or residual analysis of acids using standard basic solutions: microorganisms are described as ____.
A. Kjeldahl A. Recyclable
B. Acidimetry B. Earth friendly
C. Alkalimetry C. Biodegradable
D. Compleximetry D. Green products

54. Fatty acids are commonly used in the preparation of pharmaceutical products and 65. In paper chromatography, the data needed to compute for
medicines; these can either be unsaturated or saturated fatty acids. Unsaturated fatty Rf value:
acids easily undergo auto-oxidation. The following are some examples with their A. Distance traveled by solute
structure. B. Distance traveled by solvent
I. CH3(CH2)12 COOH – Myristic acid C. Distance traveled by the blank
II. CH3(CH2)16 COOH – Stearic acid D. A and B only
III. CH3(CH2)5 CH=CH (CH2)7 COOH – Palmitoleic acid
E. All of the above
IV. CH3(CH2)7 CH=CH(CH2)7 COOH – Oleic acid
V. CH3(CH2)4CH2 CH=CH CH2 CH=CH CH2 (CH2)4 COOH – Linoleic acid
VI. CH3CH2CH=CHCH2CH=CHCH2 CH=CH(CH2)7 COOH – Linolenic acid 66. A 30g sample of CaO consumed 18.00 mL of 1.5 N Sulfuric
Acid VS. Determine the % CaO.
Which are unsaturated fatty acids? A. 6.07%
A. I,II,III,IV B. 7.89%
B. II,IV,V C. 2.52%
C. III,IV,V,VI D. 5.04%
[Link],III,IV,VI
67. Protects the contents from contamination by extraneous
55. At what temperature range should Water for Injection be held at, after distillation liquids, solids or vapors
and before packing and sterilization to prevent possible regrowth of Gram-negative A. Well-closed container
bacteria and release of endotoxins? B. Tight container
A. 25-40C C. Hermetic container
B. Not lower than 100C D. Glass container
C. -20-80C
D. 80C or above 68. Which of the following statements will correctly define the
principle of total quality in the manufacture of pharmaceutical
56. Techniques used in the tests for the presence of bacterial endotoxins (BET)
products?
include the following, EXCEPT ____.
A. Chromogenic A. Quality is everybody’s business in pharmaceutical
B. Gasometric establishment
C. Gel-clot B. Strict adherence to standards combines with quality
D. Turbidimetric C. Use of state-of-the-art equipment and advance technology
means total quality
57. Using a spectrophotometer, a 1.5N standard solution was noted to have an D. Production department is responsible for quality
absorbance of 0.42. What is the concentration of an unknown solution if was noted to
have an absorbance of 0.69? 69. Which of the pharmaceutical formulations will special
A. 1.5 M methods like turbidimetric and nephelometric assays be
B. 2.0M applicable?
C. 2.5 M A. Elixirs
D. 3.0 M B. Suspensions
C. Solutions
58. Limits for hardness of compressed tablets D. Waters
A. 1-2 kg SL
-

B. 2-3 kg chewable
-

70. Calculate the weight of oxalic acid required to prepare 1000

C. 4-10 kg
ml of 0.5 N of the solution. MW=126
D. 7-10 kg buccal
-

A.36.5 g
59. Fatty acids are commonly used in the preparation of pharmaceutical products and B. 65.3 g
medicines; these can either be unsaturated or saturated fatty acids. Unsaturated fatty C. 31.5 g
acids easily undergo auto-oxidation. The following are some examples with their D. 56.3 g
structure.
I. CH3(CH2)12 COOH – Myristic acid 71. What is dried to constant weight?
II. CH3(CH2)16 COOH – Stearic acid A. Sum between two successive weighings is not more than
III. CH3(CH2)5 CH=CH (CH2)7 COOH – Palmitoleic acid 1.5mg/g sample
IV. CH3(CH2)7 CH=CH(CH2)7 COOH – Oleic acid B. Difference between two successive weighings is not less
V. CH3(CH2)4CH2 CH=CH CH2 CH=CH CH2 (CH2)4 COOH – Linoleic acid than 0.5mg/g sample
VI. CH3CH2CH=CHCH2CH=CHCH2 CH=CH(CH2)7 COOH – Linolenic acid C. Difference between two successive weighings is not more
than 0.5mg/g sample
Predict which fatty acid will undergo auto-oxidation easily D. Sum between two successive weighings should be the same
[Link] E. Quotient between two successive weighings should be the
B. II same
C. VI
D. V
72. The most effective chemical substance in removing stains
60. The assay of Menadione Sodium (Vit K) uses this method of analysis: of KMnO4:
A. Compleximetry A. Oxalic acid
B. Alkalimetry B. Sodium thiosulfate
C. Precipitimetry C. Sodium hypochlorite
D. Cerimetry D. Ferric chloride

61. What is the typical range of acceptance criteria for assay results as found in the 73. Chromatography can be used to separate compounds that
labeled claim? are
A. 75-100% A. Colored
B. 85-95% B. Colorless
C. 90-110% C. Turbid
D. 100-110% D. A and B
Bay aw
✓ very demanding
62. Temperature for ignition described as Dull red heat
- . 74. Assay used in the determination of Aldehyde and Ketones
A. 500-550C A. Electrolytic hygrometry
B. 550-700C
B. Bisulfate method
C. 800-1000C
C. Hydroxylamine HCl method
D. 1000-1200C
E. 1200-1600C D. B and C

63. Safety or toxicity test for infusion plastic sets is conducted using:
A. Guinea pigs
B. Dogs
C. Rabbits implantation test
-

D. White mice
[Link],III,IV
B.I,II,III 89. The analysis of Aspirin employs a
C.I,II,IV A. Direct with blank titration
D. I,III,IV B. Indirect with blank titration
C. Residual with blank titration
76. Solution that is not necessarily pure, but whose exact concentration is known D. Double residual with blank titration
A. Analyte
B. Primary standard 90. Measured excess of the standard solution is added to the sample to
C. Secondary standard accomplish a desired reaction, and the excess is back-titrated with a 2nd
D. Indicator standard solution
A. Direct titration
77. A polarimeter is used to determine whether a substance is
I. Optically active
B. Indirect titration
II. Dextrorotatory C. Residual titration
III. Levorotatory D. Excessive titration
A. I
B. II,III 91. A type of defect that affects the function of a drug product and so it may
C. I,III render the product useless
D. I,II,III A. Major defect
B. Minor defect
78. A 25-gram sample of NaHCO3 consumed 15.00 mL of 1 N Sulfuric Acid VS. C. Critical defect
Determine the % NaHCO3. D. Ocular defect
A. 6.07%
B. 7.89%
92. Quality Assessment tools for non-sterile dosage form specific for
C. 4.38%
suppositories, troches, and lozenges include
D. 5.04%
I. Weight and weight variations
II. Color of preparation
79. Antibiotics are assayed by:
III. Clarity (visual)
A. Voltametry
IV. Appearance, feel
B. Polarimetry
C. Refractometry A. I,II,III, & IV
D. Turbidimetry B. II,III, & IV
C. II&IV only
80. What chemical reaction is involved during an analysis wherein there occurs a D. I,II,III
change of valence of reacting substances?
A. Neutralization 93. Which of the following is NOT used as reference for international
B. Oxidation-reduction standards of pharmaceuticals?
C. Complexation A. ICH
D. Precipitation B. ISO
C. PIC/S
81. Which of the following vitamins is correctly matched with its official assay? D. HACCP
I. Thiamine – Fluorimetry
II. Riboflavin – Fluorimetry
94. You can see colors with your naked eye because their wavelength falls
III. Niacin – Turbidimetry
under the range:
IV. Folic Acid – Turbidimetry
A. I,II A. 180-380
B. III,IV B. 380-780
C. I,II,III C. 780-3000
D.I,II,III,IV D. 3000-15000
E. 15000-30000
82. involves measurement of current resulting from the electrolysis of an
electroactive species at a given electrode potential under controlled conditions 95. Determine the distance travelled by the solute if its Rf value is 0.769
A. Potentiometry and the solvent travels 12 cm.
B. Polarography A. 15.6 cm
C. Coulometry B. 12.3 cm
D. Calorimetry C. 6.9 cm
D. 9.2 cm
83. The presence of a cotton fiber in a liquid preparation is considered as a/an
A. Internal defect
B. Minor defect 96. In reverse phase chromatography, the stationary phase is
C. Major defect ____________ and the mobile phase is ____________.
D. Critical defect A. Polar, polar
B. Non-polar, non-polar
84. The animal used in testing chorionic gonadotropin C. Polar, non-polar
A. Rabbit D. Non-polar, polar
B. Male rat of 20-23 days old
C. Female rat of 20-23 days old 97. An O/W emulsion is subjected to CoCl2 test, what will be the result
D. Chicken consistent with the emulsion:
A. Pink spots in blue background
85. Which of the following indicators may be used in the assay of ethanoic acid B. Blue spots in pink background
(CH3COOH) and sodium hydroxide (NaOH)
C. Pink spots in white background
A. Methyl orange
D. Blue spots in white background
B. Methyl red
C. Methyl yellow
D. Phenolphthalein 98. Compute for the saponification value of a sample if its acid value is
4.58 and its ester value is 7.62
86. Temperature requirement for disintegration testing A. 12.2
A. 36°C ± 0.5°C B. 3.04
B. 36°C ± 2°C C. 1.66
C. 37°C ± 2°C D. 34.8
D. 37°C ± 0.5°C
99. In column chromatography, the mobile phase is
87. A 0.2164-g sample of NaCl (MW = 58.5) was assayed using 50 mL of 0.0985 N A. Eluent
silver nitrate and 11.65 mL of 0.1340 N ammonium thiocyanate. Calculate the B. Chromatogram
percent of NaCl in the sample
C. Elution
A. 150.10%
B. 45.47% D. Eluate
C. 75.05%
D. 90.94% 100. In iodimetry, iodine is
A. Liberated and titrated
88. The dye used in leaker’s test B. Used as titrant
A. Thymol blue C. Used as indicator
B. Methylene blue D. Used as primary standard
C. Methyl red
D. Phenolphthalein