1.

1 Ultrasonic Testing Level 2 (UT-2)

1.1.1 Ultrasonic Testing Level 2 (UT-2) General Examination

1. Most commercial ultrasonic testing is performed at frequencies between:

(a) 1 MHz and 10 MHz

(b) 1 MHz and 100 MHz

(c) 10 MHz and 50 MHz

(d) 1 MHz and 25 MHz

2. For a transducer with any given Q, resolution increases with:

(a) Sensitivity

(b) Frequency

(c) Wavelength

(d) Crystal thickness

3. Resolving power of a transducer is directly proportional to its:

(a) Wavelength

(b) Crystal thickness

(c) Bandwidth

(d) Q

4. The term is used to refer to the product of wave velocity and density is:

(a) Acoustic impedance

(b) The velocity-density ratio

(c) Index of refraction

(d) Reflection co-efficient

5. For an ultrasonic beam with normal incidence, the reflection coefficient is given by:

(a) [(Z1+Z2)2]/[(Z1-Z2)2]

(b) (Z1+Z2)/(Z1-Z2)

(c) [(4) (Z1)(Z2)]/[(Z1+Z2)2]

(d) [(Z1-Z2)2]/[Z1+Z2)2]

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 6. For an ultrasonic beam with normal incidence the transmission coefficient is given
by:

(a) [(Z1+Z2)2]/[(Z1-Z2)2]

(b) (Z1+Z2)/(Z1-Z2)

(c) [(4) (Z1)(Z2)]/[(Z1+Z2)2]

(d) [(Z1-Z2)2]/[Z1+Z2)2]

7. Snell's law is given by which of the following:

(a) (Sin A)/(Sin B) = VB/VA

(b) (Sin A)/(Sin B) = VA/VB

(c) (Sin A)/ VB = V(Sin B)/VA

(d) (Sin A)[VA] = (Sin B)[ VB]

8. Snell's law is used to calculate:

(a) Angle of beam divergence

(b) Angle of diffraction

(c) Angle of refraction

(d) None of the above

9. Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in steel [VS = 0.323cm/microsec] for an
incident longitudinal wave of 37.9 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]

(a) 26 degrees

(b) 45 degrees

(c) 48 degrees

(d) 64 degrees

10. Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in steel [VS = 0.323cm/microsec] for an
incident longitudinal wave of 45.7 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]

(a) 64 degrees

(b) 45.7 degrees

(c) 60 degrees

(d) 70 degrees

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11. Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in aluminium [VS = 0.31cm/microsec] for an
incident longitudinal wave of 43.5 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]

(a) 53 degrees

(b) 61 degrees

(c) 42 degrees

(d) 68 degrees

12. Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in aluminium [VS = 0.31cm/microsec] for an
incident longitudinal wave of 53 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]

(a) 53 degrees

(b) 61 degrees

(c) 42 degrees

(d) 68 degrees

13. Lithium sulphate, barium titanate and lead metaniobate are examples of:

(a) Magnetostrictive elements

(b) Piezoelectric elements

(c) Rochelle salts

(d) Y cut crystals

14. The particle motion for compression waves is:

(a) Parallel to wave propagation

(b) Transverse to wave propagation

(c) Elliptical

(d) Circular

15. Shear waves for ultrasonic testing are usually produced:

(a) X cut crystals

(b) Y cut crystals

(c) Modulated R-F conversion

(d) Mode converted longitudinal waves

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 16. Near surface resolution can be improved by:

(a) Using a narrow band transducer

(b) Using a focused transducer

(c) Using a high Q transducer

(d) None of the above

17. The most important requirement for paintbrush transducer is:

(a) Uniform beam intensity across the transducer

(b) A pinpoint focal spot

(c) Good horizontal linearity characteristics

(d) Prescribed vertical and horizontal linearity characteristics

18. Which of the following is an advantage of a focused transducer?

(a) Extended useful range

(b) Reduced sensitivity in localised area

(c) Improved signal to noise ratio over an extended range

(d) Higher resolution over a limited range

19. Which of the following is intended to be a ‘first cut’ or rough inspection device to be
followed by more precise evaluation of any discontinuities found?

(a) Wheel transducer

(b) Focused transducer

(c) Paintbrush transducer

(d) Ball transducer

20. A wider entry surface indication or pulse may result from:

(a) Side lobes of the sound beam being reflected from a rough surface

(b) Using a lower energy pulser

(c) Using a higher amplifier attenuation setting

(d) Huygen's principle

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 21. Which of the following methods might be used to reduce attenuation losses in an
ultrasonic test?

(a) Use a shorter wavelength

(b) Use a lower frequency transducer

(c) Change from longitudinal waves to shear waves

(d) Change to a coarser grained test piece

22. When comparing discontinuity echoes to equivalent flat bottom hole echoes in
materials with similar impedance, surface finish and attenuation:

(a) The flaw is never larger than the flat bottom hole

(b) The flaw is never smaller than the flat bottom hole

(c) The flaw is always smaller than the flat bottom hole

(d) None of the above

23. An advantage of immersion testing is that:

(a) Large parts are easily inspected

(b) Most test systems are easily transported in the field

(c) High test frequencies may be used

(d) Most test systems are not easily transported in the field

24. An advantage of immersion testing is that:

(a) Large parts may be easily inspected

(b) Most test systems are easily transported in the field

(c) Low test frequencies may be used

(d) Irregularly shaped test pieces can be virtually completely examined

25. An ultrasonic data display which shows a plan view presentation of the data is called:

(a) A scan

(b) B scan

(c) C scan

(d) Orthogonal view

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 26. An ultrasonic display which shows a cross section of the test piece and any flaws
which are found are called:

(a) A scan

(b) B scan

(c) C scan

(d) Orthogonal view

27. An ultrasonic display which shows echo locations and amplitude is called:

(a) A scan

(b) B scan

(c) C scan

(d) Orthogonal view

28. An advantage of using lower frequencies during ultrasonic testing is that:

(a) Near surface resolution is improved

(b) Sensitivity to small discontinuities is improved

(c) Beam spread is reduced

(d) Sensitivity to unfavourable oriented flaws is improved

29. A method of compensating for the ‘dead zone’ or near surface resolution problems is
to:

(a) Inspect all areas of the test piece twice to assure repeatability of indications

(b) Re-inspect from the opposite side of the test piece if geometry permits

(c) Re-inspect using a higher energy pulse

(d) Re-inspect using a higher frequency transducer that does not have a ‘dead
zone’

30. When testing a test piece with parallel front and back surfaces, no back wall echo can
be obtained. Which of the following actions might enable you to obtain a back wall
echo?

(a) Use a wetter transducer

(b) Use a lower frequency transducer

(c) Use a transducer with a narrower bandwidth

(d) Use a higher frequency transducer

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31. Materials which can readily be inspected with frequencies of 1 to 5 MHz are:

(a) Steel, cast iron and concrete

(b) Titanium, wood and aluminium

(c) Magnesium, titanium and steel

(d) All of the above

32. When variations are noticed in the front surface reflection, the test piece should be
inspected for possible near surface discontinuities by:

(a) Using a lower frequency transducer

(b) Using a higher pulse energy

(c) Inspecting from the opposite side

(d) Calibrating on a smaller diameter flat bottom hole

33. Forging bursts are most often orientated:

(a) Parallel to the surface

(b) Perpendicular to the surface

(c) In a random manner

(d) At an angle of 45 degrees to the surface

34. The purpose of adding a wetting agent to an immersion bath is:

(a) To make sure the bath is wet

(b) To reduce corrosive properties of the bath

(c) To eliminate air bubbles in the bath

(d) To prevent rust

35. During immersion testing of pipe or tubing the incident longitudinal wave angle must
be limited to a narrow range. The reason for the upper limit is:

(a) To avoid complete reflection of ultrasound from the test piece

(b) To prevent formation of Rayleigh waves

(c) To prevent formation of shear waves

(d) To avoid saturating the test piece with ultrasound

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 36. A calibration for immersion ultrasonic testing of pipe or tubing should establish a
transducer position such as:

(a) I.D. and O.D. notches produce equal responses for equivalent metal path
distances

(b) Rayleigh waves are generated through the entire pipe or tubing wall

(c) All ultrasound enters the test piece

(d) Only longitudinal waves are generated in the test piece

37. One way of identifying spurious echoes in an ultrasonic test is:

(a) Re-test the test piece to verify that the echoes are repeatable

(b) Clean and re-test the teat piece to determine if the echoes can be eliminated

(c) Use the reject control to eliminate unwanted echoes

(d) Decrease the gain to see if the echoes can be eliminated

38. During immersion ultrasonic testing of pipe or tubing, spurious echoes may be caused
by:

(a) Dirt on the test piece

(b) Grease on the test piece

(c) Air bubbles on the test piece

(d) All of the above

39. Typical frequencies which might be used to perform ultrasonic testing of concrete
are:

(a) 25 to 100 kHz

(b) 200 to 5 MHz

(c) 1 MHz to 5 MHz

(d) 2.25 MHz to 10 MHz

40. Typical frequencies which might be used to perform ultrasonic testing of ferrous and
non-ferrous welds are:

(a) 25 to 100 kHz

(b) 200 to 5 MHz

(c) 1 MHz to 5 MHz

(d) 2.25 MHz to 10 MHz

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 1.1.2 Ultrasonic Testing Level 2 (UT-2) Specific Examination

1. Which of the following may result in a long narrow rod if the beam divergence results
in a reflection from a side of the test piece before the sound wave reaches the back
surface?

(a) Multiple indications before the first back reflection

(b) Indications from multiple surface reflections

(c) Conversion from the longitudinal mode to shear mode

(d) Loss of front surface indications

2. Acoustic energy propagates in different modes. Which of the following represent a

mode?

(a) Longitudinal wave

(b) Shear wave

(c) Surface wave

(d) All of the above

3. Which of the following would be considered application(s) of ultrasonic testing?

(a) Determination of a material’s elastic modulus

(b) Study of a material’s metallurgical structure

(c) Measurement of a material’s thickness

(d) All of the above

4. Waves whose particle displacement is parallel to the direction of propagation are

called:

(a) Longitudinal waves

(b) Shear waves

(c) Lamb waves

(d) Rayleigh waves

5. Sound waves with particle displacement transverse to the direction of wave travel are
known as:

(a) Longitudinal waves

(b) Shear waves

(c) Rayleigh waves

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 (d) Plate waves

6. The only sound waves which travel in liquids are:

(a) Longitudinal waves

(b) Shear waves

(c) Rayleigh waves

(d) Plate waves

7. In steel, the velocity of sound is greatest in which of the following modes of

vibration?

(a) Longitudinal

(b) Shear

(c) Surface wave

(d) Sound velocity is identical in all modes, in a given material

8. The scattering of the rays of an ultrasonic beam due to reflection from a highly
irregular surface is called:

(a) Angulation

(b) Dispersion

(c) Refraction

(d) Diffraction
9. Acoustic impedance is a material's:

(a) (Density)/(velocity)

(b) (Density) × (velocity)

(c) Refractive index

(d) (Density)/(refractive index)

10. When a sound beam is incident on an acoustic interface at some angle other than
normal incidence, which of the following occurs?

(a) Reflection

(b) Refraction

(c) Mode conversion

(d) All of the above

11. The angle formed by an ultrasonic wave as it enters a medium of different velocity
than the one from which it came and a line drawn perpendicular to the interface
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 between the two media is called:

(a) The angle of incidence

(b) The angle of refraction

(c) The angle of diffraction

(d) The angle of reflection

12. Which of the following frequencies would probably result in the greatest ultrasonic
attenuation losses?

(a) 1 MHz

(b) 2.25 MHz

(c) 10 MHz

(d) 25 MHz

13. Attenuation is made up of:

(a) Diffusion and absorption

(b) Scatter and reflection

(c) Absorption and scatter

(d) Reflection at grain boundaries

14. The most important factor required for the proper interpretation of ultrasonic test
results is:

(a) The ultrasonic signal amplitude

(b) A knowledge of the test specimen material and its construction

(c) A knowledge of the ultrasonic instruments operating characteristics

(d) The ultrasonic signal location

15. A significant limitation of a lower frequency, single element transducer is:

(a) Scatter of sound beam due to microstructure of test object

(b) Increased grain noise or ‘hash’

(c) Less beam spread

(d) Impaired ability to display discontinuities just below the entry surface

16. Which of the following is the least efficient generator of ultrasonic waves:

(a) Quartz

(b) Lithium sulphate

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 (c) Lead metaniobate

(d) Barium titanate

17. Which of the following is the least efficient receiver of ultrasonic Energy?

(a) Quartz

(b) Lithium sulphate

(c) Lead metaniobate

(d) Barium titanate

18. The length of the zone adjacent to a transducer in which fluctuations in sound
pressure occur is mostly affected by:

(a) The frequency of the transducer

(b) The diameter of the transducer

(c) The length of transducer cable

(d) Both (a) and (b)

19. An advantage of using a transducer with a large beam spread is:

(a) Higher sensitivity to small discontinuities

(b) Less likelihood of spurious echoes

(c) Greater likelihood of spurious echoes

(d) Greater likelihood of detecting randomly oriented discontinuities

20. Resolution is inversely proportional to:

(a) Wavelength

(b) Crystal thickness

(c) Bandwidth

(d) Mechanical losses

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 1.1.3 Ultrasonic Testing Level 2 (UT-2) Answers to Questions

Ultrasonic Testing Level 2 Answers to Questions

General Examination Specific Examination
d 33 65 b 33 b
b 34 66 b d 34 a
35 67 c d 35 b
a 36 68 a a 36
d 37 69 c b 37 b
38 d 70 a a 38 b
b 39 71 a a 39 a
40 72 d d 40
b 41 d 73 b b 41 d
10 42 74 d 10 d 42 a
11 a 43 75 d 11 b 43
12 d 44 d 76 a 12 d 44 a
13 b 45 77 c 13 45 a
14 a 46 78 b 14 b 46 d
15 b 47 79 b 15 d
16 b 48 d 80 d 16 a
17 a 49 b 81 c 17 d
18 d 50 b 82 c 18 d
19 51 d 19 d
20 a 52 b 20 b
21 b 53 21
22 d 54 d 22 b
23 55 d 23
24 d 56 b 24 a
25 57 25 d
26 b 58 26 a
27 a 59 d 27
28 d 60 d 28 a
29 b 61 b 29 b
30 b 62 d 30 b
31 63 31 d
32 64 32