18-05-2025

7501CMD303021250010 MD

PHYSICS

1) Two point charge placed at corners A and B of cube. Flux through shaded face :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Electric charge is uniformly distributed along a long straight wire of radius 1 mm. The charge per
centimetre length of the wire is Q coulomb. Another cylindrical surface of radius 50 cm and length
1m symmetrically encloses the wire as shown in figure. The total electric flux passing through the

cylindrical surface is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
3) Half ring of radius a is uniformly charged with linear charge density
+λ. Find out electric field intensity at point O.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4)

Two infinitely long parallel wires having linear charge densities and respectively are placed at

a distance of R metres. The force per unit length on either wire will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) A block of mass m (= 10 kg), charge Q (= 2 C) is kept on smooth incline plane as shown. It is in

equilibrium when a horizontal electric field is switched on in the region, then the angle of

inclination of the incline plane is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

6) For a given surface the Gauss's law is stated as . From this we can conclude that :-

(1) E is necessarily zero on the surface

(2) E is perpendicular to the surface at every point
(3) The total flux through the surface is zero
(4) The flux is only going out of the surface

7) The given graph shows the variation of velocity with displacement. Which one of the graph given

below correctly represents the variation of acceleration with displacement ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The initial velocity of a particle is u and the acceleration is given by (kt), where k is a positive
constant. The distance travelled in time t is :

(1) s = ut2 + kt2

(2) s = ut + (kt3/6)
(3) s = ut + (kt3/2)
(4) s = (ut2/2) + (kt3/6)
9) A bead slides on a frictionless straight rod fixed between points A and B of a vertical circular loop
of radius r as shown in the figure. Line BC is a vertical [Link] acceleration due to
gravity by g, which of the following is correct expression for the time taken by the bead to slide from
A to B :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) A bullet is fired from the gun with a speed of 1000 m/s in order to hit a target at horizontal
distance S = 100 m away. At what height above the target should by gun be aimed ? (The resistance
of air is negligible and g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 23 cm
(2) 15 cm
(3) 9 cm
(4) 5 cm

11) From a point on the ground at a distance a from the foot of a pole, a ball is thrown at an angle of
45°, which just touches the top of the pole and strikes the ground at a distance of b, on the other
side of it find the height of the pole :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) A smooth square platform ABCD is moving with speed v. At what angle θ (shown in diagram) a
particle must be projected from A so that it strikes at point B.

(1)
sin–1
cos–1
(2)

(3)
sin–1
cos–1
(4)

13) Maximum value of force such that the the 2kg block does not slip :-

(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 16 N
(4) 30 N

14) Select correct statement regarding pseudo force :-

(1) It is electromagnetic in origin

(2) Newton's 3rd law is applicable for it
(3) It is a fundamental force
(4) It is used to make Newton's law applicable in non-inertial frame

15)

Referring figure A and B :-

(1) reading of spring balance in (A) is 8 g and in (B) is also 8 g
(2) reading of spring balance in (A) is 8 g and in (B), it is less than 8 g
(3) reading in (A) is less than 8 g and in (B), it is 8 g
(4) reading in both (A) and (B) is less than 8 g

16) Three infinitely long charge sheets are placed as shown in figure. The electric field at point P is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A conducting sphere of radius 0.1 m has uniform charge density on its surface. The
electric field in free space at radial distance 0.2 m from a point on the surface is ( =
permittivity of free space)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

18) Two concentric conducting thin spherical shells A and B having radii rA and rB (rB > rA) are
charged to QA and –QB(|QB| > |QA|). The electric field along a line (passing through the centre) is
represented as :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A sphere of radius R carries charge density proportional to the square of the distance from the
center : ρ = Ar2, where A is a positive constant. At a distance of R/2 from the center, the magnitude
of the electric field is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Two large parallel planes charged uniformly with surface charge density are located
as shown in the figure. Which one of the following graphs shows the variation of electric field along
a line perpendicular to the planes as one moves from A to B ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within it. If ϕ is the electric flux in units of V-m
associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A in unit of V-m will be:
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The spatial distribution of the electric field lines due to charges (A, B) is shown in figure. Which

one of the following statements is correct ?

(1) A is +ve and B is –ve and |A| > |B|

(2) A is –ve and B is +ve ; |A| = |B|
(3) Both are +ve but A > B
(4) Both are –ve but A > B

23) A ring of radius R is uniformly charged to linear charge density λ. An imaginary sphere of radius
R is drawn with its centre on the circumference of the ring. Total electric flux passing through the
sphere would be :-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) A uniformly charged rod passes through a cube of side 'a' then maximum possible flux related to
cube is (charge density of rod is λ) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
25) A charge q is placed at the centre of the cubical vessel (with one face open) as shown in figure.

The flux of the electric field through the surface of the vessel is

(1) zero
(2) q/ε0

(3)

(4) 5q/6ε0

26) A charged ball B hangs from a silk thread S, which makes an angle θ with a large charged
conducting sheet P, as shown in the figure. The surface charge density σ of the sheet is proportional
to :

(1) sin θ
(2) tan θ
(3) cos θ
(4) cot θ

27) Two spherical conductros B and C having equal radii and carrying equal charges in them repel
each other with a force F when kept apart at some distance. A third spherical conductor having
same radius as that of B but uncharged is brought in contact with B, then brought in contact with C
and finally removed away from both. The new force of repulsion between B and C is

(1) F/4
(2) 3F/4
(3) F/8
(4) 3F/8

28) A negative charge particle (–q, m) is revolving around a uniformly charged long wire (+λ). Find
speed of the particle.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) A small sphere carrying a charge Q is hanging in between two parallel plates by a string of
length L. Time period of pendulum is T0. When parallel plates are charged, the time period changes

to T. The ratio T/T is equal to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none of these

30) A uniformly charged infinite wire is placed along 'y' axis having linear charge density 'λ1'. A
semicircle wire having radius R and linear charge density 'λ2' centred at (R, 0) is placed as shown.
Find the ratio of , if electric field at (R, 0) is zero.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) If the central portion of a convex lens is wrapped in black paper as shown in the figure :-

(1) No image will be formed by the remaining portion of the lens

(2) The full image will be formed but it will be less bright
(3) The central portion of the image will be missing
(4) There will be two images each produced by one of the exposed portions of the lens

32) The graph shows how the inverse of magnification produced by a thin convex lens varies with

object distance u. What will be the focal length of the lens used ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
33) Find the power of given lens:

(1) +5D
(2) +7.5D
(3) +2.5D
(4) –2.5D

34) Two mirror labelled L1 for left mirror and L2 for right mirror in the figure are parallel to each
other and 3m apart. A person standing 1.0 m from the right mirror (L2) looks into this mirror and see
a series of images. The second nearest image seen in the right mirror is situated at a distance :-

(1) 2.0 m from the person

(2) 4.0 m from the person
(3) 6.0 m from the person
(4) 8.0 m from the person

35) A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm
respectively. To view an object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a
distance :-

(1) 37.3 cm
(2) 46.0 cm
(3) 50.0 cm
(4) 54.0 cm

36)

The image formed by an objective of a compound microscope is

(1) virtual and diminished

(2) real and diminished
(3) real and enlarged
(4) virtual and enlarged

37) Assertion : The optical instruments are used to increase the size of the image of the object.
Reason : The optical instruments are used to increase the visual angle.

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

38) One face of a prism with a refracting angle 30° is coated with silver. A ray is incident on another
face at an angle of 45° is refracted and reflected from the silver coated face & retraces its path. The

refractive index of prism is

(1)
(2) 2
(3)
(4) 1.5

39) Match the column (θC is the critical angle b/w prism medium and surrounding medium)

Light ray always crosses the prism

(A) (1)
for any value of i

Light ray never crosses the prism

(B) A > 2θC (2)
for any value of i
Light ray may crosses the prism
(C) θC < A < 2θC (3)
depends on i
Option :
(1) A → 1, B → 1, C → 3
(2) A → 3, B → 2, C → 1
(3) A → 2, B → 1, C → 2
(4) A → 1, B → 2, C → 3
40)

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : There is no dispersion of light refracted through a rectangular slab.
Reason (R) : Dispersion of light is the phenomenon of splitting of a beam of light into its constituent
colours.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

41) Figure shows a cross section of a ‘light pipe’ made of a glass fibre of refractive index . The

outer covering of the pipe is made of a material of refractive index . What is maximum angle of
the incident ray with the axis of the pipe for which total internal reflections inside the pipe take

place :-

(1) 45°
(2) 66°
(3) 80°
(4) 90°

42) Given that, velocity of light in quartz is 1.5 × 108 m/s and velocity of light in glycerine is

. Now a slab made of quartz is placed in glycerine as shown. What is the shift produced

by slab, if seen from other side of slab.

(1) 6 cm
(2) 3.55 cm
(3) 9 cm
(4) 2 cm

43) A convex mirror is used to form an image of a real object. The image
(i) Always lies between the pole and the focus
(ii) Is diminished in size
(iii) Is erect
(iv) Is real

(1) (i), (ii)

(2) (ii), (iii)
(3) (iii), (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii)

44) An equiconvex lens has power P. It is cut into two symmetrical halves by a plane containing the
principal axis. The power of one part will be :

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4) P

45) A ray of light passes through four transparent media with refractive indices μ1, μ2, μ3 & μ4 as
shown in the figure. The surfaces of all media are parallel. If the emergent ray CD is parallel to the

incident ray AB, we must have:

(1) μ1 = μ2
(2) μ2 = μ3
(3) μ3 = μ4
(4) μ4 = μ1

CHEMISTRY

1)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

2) The relative reactivity of following halides toward reaction follows the order :

(1) R > S > Q > P

(2) P > S > R > Q
(3) S > R > Q > P
(4) P > R > S > Q

3) Which of the following compound when reacts with CH3MgBr form 3° alcohol?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) HBO, oxymercuration-demercuration and acid catalysed hydration will give same product in :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) An unknown alcohol is treated with the "Lucas reagent" to determine whether the alcohol is
primary, secondary or tertiary. Which alcohol reacts fastest and by what mechanism :-
(1) Secondary alcohol by SN1
(2) Tertiary alcohol by SN1
(3) Secondary alcohol by SN2
(4) Tertiary alcohol by SN2

6) Assertion : On treating phenol with chloroform in presence of sodium hydroxide a –CHO group is
introduced at ortho position of phenol.
Reason : This is an example of electrophilic aromatic substitution.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is the not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

7) Assertion : Phenoxide ion formed by treating phenol with sodium hydroxide is even more
reactive than phenol towards electrophilic aromatic substitution.
Reason : Phenoxide ion gives electrophilic substitution with a weak electroplile like CO2.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is the not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

8) Product is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Identify the major products A and B respectively in the following reactions of phenol.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Major product :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None
11) Consider the following reaction sequence

Product A and C respectively are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12)

Best method for preparation of

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
13) Which of the following ether can be formed by williamson's synthesis method :

(1) Ph–O–Ph
(2) CH2=CH–O–Ph
(3) CH3–O–CH3

(4)

14) The preparation of ethers from alcohols by using sulphuric acid is called :-

(1) Williamson's ether Synthesis

(2) Williamson's continuous etherification process
(3) Ziesel's method
(4) Zerewitinoff method

15) Phenol reacts with bromine in CS2 at a low temperature, the product is -

(1) m-Bromophenol
(2) p-Bromophenol
(3) o-and p-Bromophenol
(4) 2, 4, 6-Tribromophenol

16) What is the colour develop when ethyl alcohol treated with base during victor meyer test :-

(1) Blood red colour

(2) Blue colour
(3) No colour
(4) Green colour

17)
The electrophile involved in the above reaction is -

(1) dichlorocarbene (: CCl2)

(2)
trichloromethyl anion

(3)
formyl cation

(4)
dichloromethyl cation
18) Reaction of Phenol with concentrated HNO3 and concentrade H2SO4 yields.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19)

Which one/ones of the following reactions will yield 2-propanol ?

(i) CH3CH = CH2 + H2O

(ii) CH3CHO

(iii) HCHO

Choose the right answer :

(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (i)
(4) None of these

20) The synthesis of alkyl fluorides is best accomplished by

(1) Free radical fluorination

(2) Sandmeyer's reaction
(3) Finkelstein reaction
(4) Swarts reaction

21) What will be the major product in the following mononitration reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22)
Select the incorrect statement about product A.

(1) Product is aromatic

(2) Product has high dipole moment.
(3) Product has less resonance energy
(4) Product is soluble in polar solvent.

23) For the electrophilic substitution reaction involving nitration, which of the following sequence
regarding the rate of reaction is true?
(1) > >
(2) < <
(3) = =
(4) > <

24) Which of the following carbocations is expected to be most stable?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Which of the following statements is correct for electrophilic substitution.

(1) Ortho-and para-directing groups increase electron density at ortho-and para-positions

(2) Meta-directing groups increase electron density at meta-position
(3) Meta-directing groups decrease electron density at meta-position
(4) Ortho-and para-directing groups decrease electron density at meta-position

26) Which statement is correct:

(1) Although benzene contains three double bonds, normally it does not undergo addition reaction.
(2) m-chlorobromobenzene is an isomer of m-bromochlorobenzene.
(3) In benzene, carbon uses all the three p orbitals for hybridization.
An electron donating substitutent in benzene orients the incoming electrophilic group to the
(4)
meta position.

27) Major product of this reaction will be :

(1) o-xylene
(2) p-xylene
(3) both
(4) m-xylene

28) For preparing monoalkyl benzene, acylation process is preferred than direct alkylation because

(1) In alkylation, a poisonous gas is evolved

(2) In alkylation, large amount of heat is evolved
(3) In alkylation, polyalkylated product is formed
(4) Alkylation is very costly

29) Statement-1 : Bromobenzene upon reaction with Br2/Fe gives 1,4-dibromobenzene as the major
product.
Statement-2 : In bromobenzene, the inductive effect of the bromo group is more dominant than the
mesomeric effect in directing the incoming electrophile.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

30) The pair of molecules shown are

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Constitutional isomers
(4) Two conformations of the same molecule

31) Stereoisomers possible for following compound is :

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 32
(4) 64

32) The absolute configuration of

(1) S, S
(2) R, R
(3) R, S
(4) S, R

33) Which compound show G.I.

(1) 1-phenyl-2-butene
(2) 3-phenyl-1-butene
(3) 2-phenyl-1-butene
(4) 1,1-diphenyl-1-propene
34) The correct stereochemical descriptions for the structure given below are :

(1) 1Z, 3Z
(2) 1Z, 3E
(3) 1E, 3E
(4) 1E, 2Z

35) The major product formed in the following reaction is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) The major product of above reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) None of these

37) Arrange in decreasing order of basic strength of the given compound :-

(a) CH2=CH–NH2 (b) CH≡C–NH2 (c) CH3–CH2–NH2 (d) CH3–NH–CH3

(1) a > b > c > d

(2) d > c > a > b
(3) b > a > c > d
(4) c > d > a > d

38) (A);
Product (A) is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Which of the following is the correct order for bond energy for C–H bonds in these compounds?

(1) Y > Z > X

(2) X > Z > Y
(3) X > Y > Z
(4) Z > X > Y

40) Order of stability of following carbocation:

(1) c > b > a

(2) a > b > c
(3) b > c > a
(4) c > a > b

41) The products A and B in the following reactions, respectively are

(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–ONO, CH3–CH2–CH2–NC

(2) CH3–CH2–CH2–ONO, CH3–CH2–CH2–CN
(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–NO2, CH3–CH2–CH2–CN
(4) CH3–CH2–CH2–NO2, CH3–CH2–CH2–NC

42) In the given reaction

[X] ; (X) will be

(1) Meso-2,3-dibromobutane
(2) Racemic mixture of 2,3-dibromobutane
(3) Meso as well as racemic mixture
(4) 1-Bromo-2-butene

43) The major product obtained in the reaction :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

44)
x & y should be :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Most reactive for sodium hydroxide

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following will be true about chromosome present in secondary oocyte in human :

(1) 22 + XX
(2) 44 + XX
(3) 22 + X
(4) 22 + Y

2) Choose incorrect statement :-

(1) Mammary glands are paired structures

(2) Mammary gland contain fix amount of fat
(3) Several mammary ducts join to form a wider mammary ampulla
(4) Mammary lobes contain clusters of cells called alveoli

3) Statement-1 : No more oogonia are formed and added after birth.

Statement-2 : Oogenesis is initiated during puberty.

(1) Statement-1 is correct & Statement-2 is incorrect.

(2) Statement-1 is incorrect & Statement-2 is correct.
(3) Both Statement-1 & 2 are correct
(4) Both Statement-1 & 2 are incorrect

4)

Some of important events in the human female reproductive cycle are listed below.
Which of following best describes their sequence :-

(A) Ovulation (B) Rupturing of mature Graafian follicle

(C) Formation of corpus luteum
(D) Extreme high level of estrogen
(E) LH surge
(1) A – B – C – D – E
(2) D – E – B – A – C
(3) D – A – B – C – E
(4) D – A – B – C – E

5) Menstruation is initiated by :

(1) A sudden fall of FSH from anterior pituitary

(2) A increase the level of oestrogen and decrease the level of progesteron
(3) Low level of progesteron and oestrogen due to degeneration of corpus luteum
(4) Low level of HCG due to degeneration of Graafian follicle

6) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Primary oocyte grows in size and completes its first meiotic division within the
secondary follicle.
Statement-II : During oogenesis first meiotic division is unequal division resulting in the formation
of secondary oocyte and first polar body.

(1) Both statement I and statement - II are incorrect.

(2) Statement - I is correct but statement - II is incorrect.
(3) Statement - I is incorrect but statement - II is correct.
(4) Both statement - I and statement - II are correct.

7) Statement-1 : Tertiary follicle is characterised by a fluid filled cavity called antrum.

Statement-2 : Release of secondary oocyte from the ovary by the process called ovulation.

(1) Both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect

(2) Both statement 1 and 2 are correct
(3) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect
(4) Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct

8) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : The menstrual phase is followed by follicular phase.
Statement-II : During follicular phase the primary follicle in the ovary grow to become a fully
mature graafian follicle.
In the light of above two statements.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

9) Assertion (A):- The first menstruation begins at puberty and is called menarche.
Reason (R):- Menstrual cycles cease around 50 yrs. of age, termed as menopause.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

10) Assertion : Follicular development do not occur in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle.
Reason : Gonadotropins levels are low in the luteal phase.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

11) The graph below shows different levels of hormones during menstrual cycle. Select the option
giving correct identification together with its secretion:

(1) A – LH, secreted by posterior pituitary

(2) B – FSH, secreted by developing follicles
(3) C – Estrogen, secreted by developing follicle
(4) D – progesterone, secreted by corpus albicans

12)

which hormone attains two peaks during menstration cycle ?

(1) LH
(2) Estrogen
(3) Progesterone
(4) Inhibin

13) Which structure prevents the embryo from ectopic pregnancy?

(1) Corona radiata

(2) Zona pellucida
(3) Corpus luteum
(4) Graffian follicle

14)

Given below are four statements (i)-(iv) regarding embryonic development in humans.
(i) Cleavage divisions bring about considerable increase in the mass of protoplasm.
(ii) With more cleavage divisions, the resultant blastomers become smaller and smaller.
(iii) The blastomers in the blastocyst are arranged into two layers, trophoblast and endometrium.
(iv) Cleavage divisions result in a solid ball of cells called morula.

Which of the above two statements are correct ?

(1) (i) and (iii)
(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) (iii) and (iv)

15) Correct sequence of hormones secretion from beginning of menstrual cycle is :

(1) FSH, Progesterone, Estrogen

(2) Estrogen, FSH, Progesterone
(3) FSH, Estrogen, Progesterone
(4) Estrogen, Progesterone, FSH

16) Statement-I : All copulation lead to fertilisation and pregnancy.

Statement-II : The process of fusion of a sperm with an ovum is called fertilisation.
In the light of above statements find out the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

17) Fertilisation has following processes given below

(a) Plasmogamy (b) Karyogamy
(c) Syngamy (d) Amphimixis
Arrange these in correct sequence.

(1) a → b → c → d
(2) b → a → d → c
(3) c → a → b → d
(4) c → a → d → b

18) Which of the following option is not correct ?

(1) Fertilisation takes place at ampulla.

(2) Zona pellucida block polyspermy.
(3) Only one sperm can fertilise an ovum.
(4) Myometrium proliferation is necessary for implantation.

19) Ovum released from ovary and is transported to the fallopian tube for fertilisation. Trace the
correct path the egg and embryo takes from ovary to uterus :-
(1) Ovum → Abdominal cavity → Ampulla → Isthmus → Infundibulum → Uterus
(2) Ovum → Abdominal cavity → Infundibulum → Ampulla → Isthmus → Uterus
(3) Ovum → Abdominal cavity → Isthmus → Ampulla → Infundibulum → Uterus
(4) Ovum → Abdominal cavity → Coelom → Isthmus → Ampulla → Uterus

20) The below diagram show the structure of ovum surrounded by some sperms. Identify A, B, C and

D.

A = Zona pellucida
B = Sperm
(1)
C = Cell of corona radiata
D = Peri-vitelline space
A = Cell of corona radiata
B = Sperm
(2)
C = Zona pellucida
D = Peri-vitteline space
A = Peri-vitelline space
(3) B = Sperm
C = Zona pellucida D = Cell of corona-radiata
A = Peri-vitelline space
(4) B = Sperm
C = Cells of corona radiata D = Zona-pellucida

21) Enzymes in acrosome of sperm are :

(1) Zona lysin (Acrosin)

(2) Hyaluronidase
(3) Hyaluronic acid
(4) Both (1) & (2)
22) Identify A and B and their respective functions:

Function
A B
A B

Inner cell Attach to the Differentiat

(1) Trophoblast
mass Endometrium as embryo

Inner cell Differentiated Attach to the

(2) Trophoblast
mass as embryo Endometrium

Inner cell Differentiated Attach to the

(3) Mesoderm
mass as embryo Endometrium

Attach to the Differentiated

(4) Ectoderm Mesoderm
myometrium as embryo
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

23) What is released at ovulation?

(1) Primary oocyte arrested at meiosis I

(2) Primary oocyte arrested at meiosis II
(3) Secondary oocyte arrested at meiosis I
(4) Secondary oocyte arrested at meiosis II

24) During implantation, the embryo becomes embedded in the which layer of uterus :-

(1) Perimetrium
(2) Myometrium
(3) Endometrium
(4) Serosa

25) Correct sequence of embryo development:-

(1) Gamete → Zygote → Morula → Blastocyst → Gastrula

(2) Gamete → Zygote → Blastocyst → Morula → Gastrula
(3) Gamete → Neurula → Gastrula
(4) Gastrula → Neurula → Morula

26) Match the Column-A with Column-B :-

 Column -A Column-B

(A) Mons pubis (i) Fleshy folds of tissue

(B) Labia majora (ii) Paired folds of tissue

Membrane covering the

(C) Labia minora (iii)
vaginal opening

(D) Hymen (iv) Cushion of fatty tissue

(1) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(2) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

27)

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Semen = Sperms + secretion of all accessory sex glands.

(2) Semen = Sperms + Seminal fluid + Prostatic fluid + Fluid of bulbourethral glands.
(3) Semen = Sperms + Seminal plasma
(4) Semen = Sperms + Seminal fluid

28) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which include all correct ones
only:
(a) Estrogen cause myometrial hypertrophy.
(b) Progesteron decrease myometrial contraction.
(c) Pre ovulatory phase also known as progesterogenic phase.
(d) Oestrogen is only secreted by follicles.

(1) Statement (a), (c) and (d)

(2) Statement (b), (d)
(3) Statement (a), (b)
(4) Statement (b, (c) and (d)

29)

Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Proliferative Formation of corpus

(A) (a) 14th day (i)
phase luteum

Secrectory Development of
(B) (b) Ist-5th day (ii)
phase Graafian follicle

Shedding of stratum
(C) Bleeding (c) 15th-28th day (iii)
functionale
 Ovulatory Release of secondary
(D) (d) 6th-13th day (iv)
phase oocyte
(1) A → d → iii; B → c → i, C → b → iv, D → a → ii
(2) A → c → ii; B → b → iii, C → a → i, D → d → iv
(3) A → d → ii; B → c → i, C → b → iii, D → a → iv
(4) A → d → iii; B → b → iv, C → a → ii, D → c → i

30) A 25 years old female goes to doctor that after 4 days there is due date of her menses and she
want to postpone bleeding for some days as she will be engaged in some official work during those
days. Which hormone will the doctor advise her to take?

(1) FSH & LH

(2) LH & Progesterone
(3) Progesterone only
(4) LH only

31)

Which of the following hormones are secreted by the corpus luteum?

(a) Prolactin
(b) Progesterone
(c) Oestrogens
(d) Human chorionic gonadotrophin
(e) FSH

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) all except e

32) Find out incorrect statement about extraembryonic membrane:-

(1) Amnion - It is formed by the layer of amniogenic cells and visceral extraembryonic mesoderm.
(2) Chorion - It participate in the formation of placenta
(3) Yolk sac - It act as haemopoetic organ of foetus
(4) Allantois - In human, it store the excretory food

33) Which of the following hormones are produced in women only during pregnancy :- (a) hPL (b)
Relaxin (c) Progesterone
(d) FSH (e) hCG (f) LH

(1) a,b,e
(2) b & e
(3) c,d,e,f
(4) a,b,c,d,e,f

34) Read the following statements:

(a) After implantation, finger like projections appear on the trophoblast called chorionic villi.
(b) The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into an outer layer called trophoblast.
(c) Placenta also acts as an endrocrine tissue.
(d) hCG, hPL and Relaxin are produced in women during each menstrual cycle.
How many of the above statement are wrong ?

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

35) Assertion :- During pregnancy level of hormones like estrogen, progesterone, cortisol,
prolactin, thyroxine etc are increased several folds.
Reason :- Increased production of hormones is essential for supporting fetal growth, metabolic
changes in mother and maintenance of pregnancy.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

36) Choose the incorrect pair.

Organ Time of development in foetus

(1) Heart After one month of pregnancy

(2) Limbs and digits By the end of second month

By the end of 24 weeks

(3) External genital organs
(second trimester)

First movement of
(4) During the fifth month
foetus
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) Read following statements (a-d) and choose the option with only correct statements.
a. Parturition occurs due to a complex neuroendocrine mechanism at the end of gestation period.
b. The signals for parturition originate from fully developed foetus and placenta which induces mild
uterine contraction.
c. Foetal ejection reflex triggers release of oxytocin from foetal pituitary.
d. Oxytocin reduces uterine contraction under positive feedback control and causes expulsion of
placenta followed by foetus known as parturition.

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) c and d
(4) a and d

38) Which of the following statements are true for spermatogenesis but do not hold true for
Oogenesis?
(a) It results in the formation of haploid gametes
(b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the completion of meiosis
(c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically dividing stem cell population
(d) It is controlled by the Luteinising hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
secreted by the anterior pituitary
(e) It is initiated at puberty
Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(1) (b), (c) and (e) only

(2) (c) and (e) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (b), (d)and (e) only

39) Assertion (A) : Inner cell mass (epiblast) is the source of all the germ layers in the embryo.
Reason (R): Morphogenetic movement occurs during blastocyst formation.

(1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) If A is true, but R is false
(4) If A is false, but R is true

40) Orchiodectomy surgery is performed in a 30yrs male due to suspection of cancer. After one year
of surgery that person was analysed for hormonal level. What is correct?

(1) Progesterone ↓, LH ↓, FSH ↓

(2) Testosterone ↓, LH ↓, FSH ↓
(3) Testorterone , LH ↓, FSH ↓
(4) Testosterone ↓, LH , FSH

41) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
:-
(a) Coronary Artery disease, (CAD) often referred to as Atherosclerosis
(b) Heart failure means when the heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood supply
(c) High blood pressure leads to heart diseases and also affects vital organs like brain and kidney
(d) Angina occurs when no enough oxygen is reaching the heart muscle.
Options :-

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a), (b) only
(3) Statements (c), (d) only
(4) Statement (a), (c) and (d)

42) Read the following statements from A to D

A. All the four chambers of heart are in a relaxed state.
B. The tricuspid and Bicuspid valves are open.
C. The semilunar valves are close.
D. Blood from the pulmonary veins and vena cava flows into the right and left ventricles respectively
through the left and right atria.
How many of the above state statements are incorrect during joint diastole ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

43) Read the following statements and select the correct one :-
(i) Nodal tissue is specialised cardiac musculature in human heart which has the ability to generate
action potential only due to an external stimuli.
(ii) Position of SAN - right upper corner of right atrium
(iii) Position of AVN - right corner of ventricle
(iv) AV bundle begins from AVN
(v) Purkinje fibres are modified cardiac muscle fibres that originate from the branch of
atrioventricular bundle and spread into the two ventricles.

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(4) All of these

44) There are 3 drops of blood on a slide Identify the blood

group :-

(1) B+
(2) B–
(3) A+
(4) A–

45) Which type of white blood cell are concerned with the phagocytic in nature and maximum in
number ?

(1) Monocytes
(2) Eosinophils
(3) Basophils
(4) Neutrophils

46) Gemmae are -

(1) Green, unicellular, asexual bud, develop in small receptacles i.e. gemma cup
(2) Green, multicellular, asexual bud develop in small receptacles i.e. gemma cup
(3) Non - green unicellular, asexual bud, develop in small receptacles i.e gemma cup
(4) Green, multicellular, sexual bud develop in small receptacles i.e. gemma cup

47) Read the following statements -

(i) The stems are unbranched in Cycas and branched in Pinus and Cedrus.
(ii) In Cycas the pinnate leaves persist for a few years.
(iii) All gymnosperms are heterosporous.
(iv) In gymnosperm male and female gametophytes have an independent free-living existence.
(v) In Cycas male cones and megasporophylls are borne on same tree.
How many of the above statements are correct.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

48) Read the following statements -

(A) In chlorophyceae, sexual reproduction shows considerable variation in the type and formation of
sex cells.
(B) Pyrenoid contain protein besides nucleic acid.
(C) Chlorophyceae members are usually grass green due to the dominance of pigments chl a and chl
c.
(D) Kelps are profusely branched plants, members of rhodophyceae.
How many of the above statements are correct -

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

49) The correct sequence of the ploidy in moss protonemal cell, primary endosperm cell in dicots,
leaf cell of a moss, prothallus cell of a fern, gemma cell in marchantia, meristematic cell of monocot,
egg of liverwort and zygote of ferns-

(1) n, 3n, n, n, n, 2n, n, 2n

(2) 3n, 2n, 2n, n, n, n, n, n
(3) 3n, 2n, n, n, n, 2n, n, n
(4) n, 3n, n, 2n, n, 2n, n, n

50) Male and Female gametophytes do not have an independent free living existence in :

(1) Polytrichum
(2) Marchantia
(3) Sphagnum
(4) Pinus
51) Oogamy is seen in

(1) Chlorophyceae only

(2) Phaeophyceae only
(3) Rhodophyceae only
(4) All

52) How many haploid and diploid nuclei are participated in the process of double fertilization in the
life cycle of angiosperm.

(1) One haploid and two diploid

(2) Three haploid and one diploid
(3) Three haploid and two diploid
(4) Two haploid and three diploid

53) How many pollen mother cells are required for the formation of 64 male gametes in a typical
angiosperm.

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Eight
(4) Six

54) Select incorrect statements ?

(1) Formation of fruit without fertilization is called parthenocarpy.

(2) Papaya and date palm are dioecius plants.
(3) Flowers are bisexual in sweet potato.
(4) In a typical angiopserm, anther is monosporangiate.

55) Mature pollen grain contains :-

(1) 1 celled
(2) 2 celled
(3) 3 celled
(4) 4 celled

56)
Find out the structure in the given figure and select right option :-

A B C D E
Middle Micro spore
1 Epidermis Endothecium Tapetum
layers mother cells
Middle Micro spore
2 Endothecium Epidermis Tapetum
layers mother cells
Micro spore Middle
3 Tapetum Endothecium Epidermis
mother cells layers
Middle Micro spore Middle
4 Epidermis Endothecium
layers mother cells layers
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

57) In which of the following plants floral reward is providing safe place to lay eggs ?

(1) Yucca
(2) Amorphophallus
(3) Aristolochia
(4) Both (1) & (2)

58) Which of the following is not the disadvantage of autogamy ?

(1) Inbreeding depression

(2) Weaker progeny
(3) Poor adaptability
(4) Retention of purity of character

59) An apomictic seed contains an embryo that is

(1) produced when two sperm fertilize one egg

(2) developed from one egg alone
(3) the result of parental self-fertilization
(4) genetically identical to its parent

60) In a pollen grain the small cell is spindle shaped with dense cytoplasm is :-

(1) Central cell

(2) Vegetative cell
(3) Generative cell
(4) Tube cell

61) In humans, ABO blood types refer to glycoproteins in the membranes of red blood cells. There
are three alleles for this autosomal gene : IA, IB, and i. The IA allele codes for the A glycoprotein. The
IB alleles codes for the B glycoprotein, and the i allele doesn't code for any membrane glycoprotein.
IA and IB are codominant, and i is recessive to both IA and IB. People with type AB blood have the
genotypes IAIB, and people with type O blood are ii. If a woman with type AB blood marries a man
type O blood, which of the following types could their children possibly have ?

(1) A and B
(2) AB and O
(3) A, B, and O
(4) A, B, AB, and O

62) Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-
flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. The part of the radish we eat may be oval or long, with
long being the dominant trait. If true-breeding red long radishes are crossed with true-breeding
white oval radishes, the F1 will be expected to exhibit which of the following phenotypes ?

(1) Red and long

(2) White and long
(3) Purple and long
(4) Purple and oval

63) Given the following genotypes for two parents, AABBCc × AabbCc, assume that all traits exhibit
simple dominance and independent assortment. What proportion of the progeny of this cross will be
expected to phenotypically resemble the first parent with the genotype AABBCc ?

(1) 1/4
(2) 3/4
(3) 3/8
(4) 1

64) Which of the following phenotypes is an example of polygenic inheritance ?

(1) Pink flowers in snapdragons

(2) The ABO blood group in humans
(3) White and purple flower color in peas
(4) Skin pigmentation in humans

65) When Mendel crossed yellow-seeded and green-seeded pea plants, all the offspring were yellow-
seeded. When he took these F1 yellow-seeded plants and crossed them to green-seeded plants, what
genotypic ratio was expected ?

(1) 1 : 2 : 1
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1

66) In a particular plant, leaf color is controlled by gene locus D. Plants with at least one allele D
have dark green leaves, and plants with the homozygous recessive dd genotype have light green
leaves. A true-breeding, dark-leaved plant is crossed with a light-leaved one, and the F1 offspring is
allowed to self-pollinate. The predicted outcome of the F2 is diagrammed in the Punnett square
shown in the figure, where 1, 2, 3, and 4 represent the genotypes corresponding to each box within
the square. Which of the boxes marked 1-4 correspond to plants with dark
leaves ?

(1) 1 only
(2) 2 and 3
(3) 4 only
(4) 1, 2 and 3

67) Which of the following statements correctly explains the fact that all seven of the pea plant traits
studied by Mendel obeyed the principle of independent assortment ?

(1) None of the traits obeyed the law of segregation

(2) The diploid number of chromosomes in the pea plants was seven
(3) All of the genes controlling the traits were located on the same chromosome
(4) All of the genes controlling the traits behaves as if they were on different chromosomes

68) Which of the following statements is correct in describing the terms monohybrid cross and
dihybrid cross ?

(1) A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross involves two parents
A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters that are being
(2) studied, and a monohybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for only one
character being studied
A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation, whereas a dihybrid cross is performed for
(3)
two generations
(4) A monohybrid cross results in a 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio, whereas a dihybrid cross gives a 3 : 1 ratio

69) Which of the following statements about independent assortment or segregation is correct ?

The law of independent assortment describes the behavior of two or more genes relative to one
(1)
another
(2) The law of segregation describes the behavior of two or more genes relative to one another
(3) The law of independent assortment is accounted for by observations of prophase I of meiosis
(4) The law of segregation is accounted for by anaphase of mitosis

70) Gymnosperms and angiosperms have the following in common except :

(1) Seeds
(2) Pollen
(3) Ovaries
(4) Ovules
71) Which set contains the most closely related terms ?

(1) Megasporangium, megaspore, pollen, ovule

(2) Microsporangium, microspore, egg, ovary
(3) Megasporangium, megaspore, egg, ovule
(4) Microsporangium, microspore, carpel, ovary

72) The following question refers to the generalized life cycle for land plants shown in the figure.
Each number within a circle or square represents a specific plant or plant part, and each number
over an arrow represents meiosis, mitosis, or fertilization.

In the figure, which number represents

the mature gametophyte ?

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 7
(4) 11

73) Suppose, a bryophyte, a pteridophyte, a gymnosperm and an angiosperm has the same haploid
number of chromosomes in their cells, i.e., n = 10. Then what will be the chromosome number in the
following structure :
I. Rhizoid of bryophyte
II. Endosperm of gymnosperm
III. Prothallus of pteridophyte
IV. Foot and seta of bryophyte
V. Endosperm of angiosperm
VI. Antherozoid mother cell of pteridophyte

I II III IV V VI

(1) 10 30 10 20 30 10

(2) 10 20 10 20 30 10

(3) 10 30 10 20 10 10

(4) 10 10 10 20 30 10
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

74) A botanist discovers a new species of plant in a tropical rain forest. Investigation of its anatomy
and life cycle shows the following characteristics : flagellated sperm, xylem with tracheids, separate
gametophyte, and sporophyte generations with the sporophyte dominant, and no seeds. This plant is
probably most closely related to _____.

(1) Mosses
(2) Ferns
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Flowering plants

75) Consider the cross AaBbCcDdEe × aaBbccddee. What proportion of the progeny will
genotypically resemble the first parent ?

(1) 1/64
(2) 2/64
(3) 4/16
(4) 4/64

76) If you cross a diploid individual that is homozygous recessive for a given trait with a
heterozygous diploid individual, what is the probability of obtaining an offspring with the
homozygous recessive phenotype ?

(1) 0%
(2) 25%
(3) 50%
(4) 75%

77) The two alleles of a locus which an offspring receives from the male and female gametes are
situated on

(1) Same locus of homologous chromosome

(2) Different locus of two different chromosome
(3) Sex chromosomes
(4) A single chromosome

78) A cross between two individuals heterozygous for two pairs of genes was carried out. Assuming
segregation and independent assortment, the number of different genotypes and phenotypes
obtained respectively would be :-

(1) 4 and 9
(2) 6 and 3
(3) 9 and 4
(4) 11 and 4
79) According to Mendel,............segregate and ........ assort independently

(1) Alleles of a gene; alleles of different genes

(2) Alleles of different genes' alleles of a gene
(3) Dominant traits; recessive traits
(4) Recessive traits; recessive traits

80) The dominant alleles A and B each add 2 g weight to a basal weight (in homozygous recessive
condition) of 6 g of fruits of a certain plant. If two plants, each with fruits weighing 8g and having
heterozygous condition for one gene each are crossed. What phenotypic ratio is expected among the
offspring ?

(1) 25% with 10g : 50% with 8g : 25% 6g fruit

(2) 50% with 10 g : 50% with 6 g fruits
(3) 25% with 12 g : 25% with 10 g : 25% with 8 g : 25% with 6 g fruits
(4) 12.5% with 14 g : 25% with 12 g : 25% with 10g : 25% with 8g : 12.5% with 6 g fruits

81) Assertion : Formation of mature male gametophyte requires one mitotic and one meiotic
division in 60% of the angiosperms.
Reason : Pollination occurs in three celled condition in majority of angiosperms.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

82) Which of the following statements is not correct ?

(1) Some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators in some plant species.
Pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube
(2)
of the same species grows into the style
Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called
(3)
pollen/nectar robbers
Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are regulated by chemical components of pollen
(4)
interacting with those of the pistil.

83) Choose the correct option from the following

I. Dehydration and dormancy of mature seed are crucial for seed storage.
II. Seed of Lupinus arcticus is the oldest one which germinated after 2000 year.
III. Orchid seed is one of largest seed in plant Kingdom.
IV. Seeds of parasitic plants Orobanche and Striga are tiny seeds.

(1) I, II are correct but III, IV are incorrect

(2) I, IV are correct but II, III are incorrect
(3) III, IV are correct but I, II are incorrect
(4) II, III are correct but I, IV are incorrect

84) An angiospermic plant is having 24 chromosomes in its leaf cells. The number of chromosomes
present in synergid, pollen grain, nucellus and endosperm will be respectively

(1) 12, 12, 12, 72

(2) 8, 8, 12, 36
(3) 12, 12, 24, 36
(4) 12, 12, 12, 36

85) A gene is said to be dominant if

(1) It expresses its effect only in homozygous state

(2) It expresses its effect only in heterozygous condition
(3) It expresses its effect both in homozygous and heterozygous condition
(4) It never expresses its effect in any condition

86) A self-fertilizing trihybrid plant forms

(1) 8 different gametes and 64 different zygotes

(2) 4 different gametes and 16 different zygotes
(3) 8 different gametes and 16 different zygotes
(4) 8 different gametes and 32 different zygotes

87) Assertion : Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene.

Reason : It depends as much on the gene product and the production of a particular phenotype
from this product.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

88) Which three scientists independently rediscovered Mendel's work ?

(1) Avery, McLeod, McCarty

(2) Sutton, Morgan and Bridges
(3) Bateson, Punnet and Bridges
(4) de Vries, Correns and Tschermak

89) Among the seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plant as studied by Mendel, the number of
traits related to flower, pod and seed respectively were

(1) 2, 2, 2
(2) 2, 2, 1
(3) 1, 2, 2
(4) 1, 1, 2

90) Vascular plants share all of the following characteristics EXCEPT.

(1) Alternation of generations
(2) Development of seeds
(3) Dominance of the sporophyte
(4) Lignin in cell walls
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 2 1 2 2 3 1 2 1 4 2 2 4 4 3 2 3 1 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 1 4 3 4 2 4 1 3 1 2 4 2 3 4 3 4 1 4 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 1 4 4 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 3 3 2 2 2 3 2 1 1 4 3 2 3 1 1 2 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 3 4 1 1 4 3 3 2 1 2 1 2 4 1 2 1 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 3 3 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 1 2 3 3 2 1 2 1 3 2 2 2 3 3 3 4 2 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 (1) 4 3 1 3 4 3 3 3 2 4 1 1 1 3 1 1 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 3 1 4 2 2 4 1 4 4 2 3 4 2 1 4 4 4 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 2 4 3 4 4 2 1 3 3 3 4 2 2 3 1 3 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 2 3 3 1 1 4 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

For given surface flux per corner charge

For two corner - ϕnet = 2ϕ =

2) Total enclosed charge q = 100 Q coulomb

ϕE =

3)

4)

5)

Consider FBD of block

At equilibrium
mg sin θ = qE cos θ
⇒ tan θ =
θ = tan–1 (2/5)

6) Solution:-
Exp:- To find flux . through a surface
Concept :- electric flux

Formula:- ϕ (flux enclosed) =

Cal:- If =0
than ϕ = 0
Answer-3
Level:- Easy

7)

From given v – x graph

Equation is v =
⇒ v = –3x + 30

as a =
⇒ a = (–3x + 30) (–3)
⇒ a = 9x – 90

8) a = kt

dv = kt dt
9)

a = g cos θ; LAB = 2r cos θ = at2

10)
R = uT

R=u

100 = 1000 ⇒

11)

y = x tan θ

h = a tan 45°

12)
Velocity of particle w.r.t platform should be along AB line.
Then u cos θ = v
 cosθ = ⇒ θ = cos–1

13) fℓ = 0.1 × 2 g ⇒ 2 N

max common acceleration = = 1m/s2

F – 0.2 × 10g = 10 (1)
F = 30 N

14) Since acceleration of ‘A’ is zero, friction force is zero

Hence option (1)

15)

Reading of spring balance = 2 × (Tension in string)

In (A) : Reading =

In (B) : Reading =

16)

Explanation:

To find electric field at point 'P'.

Concept:

Electric field due to large charge sheet.

Formula:

Electric field at any point is

Visual Diagram:
Calculation:

At point P
Enet =

17)

Electric field at outside point of a conducting sphere is given by

18) The electric field inside the shell A is zero.

At the surface of shell A,

Between the shell A and B, at a distance x from the common centre,
 towards right, hence positive

At the surface of shell B, towards right hence positive.

Outside both the shells, at a distance x from the common centre, , towards
left, hence negative (as x' increases negative value of Eout decreases and it becomes zero at x =
∞)

19)

20)

21) Let ϕA, ϕB and ϕC are the electric flux linked with A, B and C

According to Gauss theorem, ϕA + ϕB + ϕC =

Since, ϕA = ϕC
∴ 2ϕA + ϕB = or 2ϕA = – ϕB

or 2ϕA = –ϕ (Given ϕB = ϕ)

∴ ϕA =

22) QA —→ +ve ⇒ QB —→ –ve

|QA| > |QB| (number of field lines )

23)

24)

25) Total flux through closed cubical vessel =

& Flux through one face =

So, total flux passing through given cubical vessel is = ; (as vessel has 5 faces)

26) T sin θ = qE
and T cos θ = mg
⇒ tan θ = =
⇒ σ ∝ tan θ

27) Initially, F = k . (Fig. A). When a third spherical conductor come in contact alternately
with B and C and then removed, the charges on B and C are Q/2 and 3Q/4, respectively (Fig.
B)

Now force F' = k . =

28) Force of attraction of wire on -q will provide required centripetal force

where,
E will be radially away from wire, so force on charge will be towards the wire

29)
Net downward force,

⇒ Net acceleration,
Hence, time period

Required ratio

30) (θ = 180°)

EInfinite wire = (d = R)

31) Since aperture of lens reduces so brightness will reduce but their will be no effect on size
of image.

32)

y = mx + c

∴f=

33)

= (µ –1) = (15 – 1)

= 0.5 –

f= cm

P= = 7.5D

34)
from person it is at 6 cm

35) Using lens formula for objective lens

 ⇒

0
⇒ = ⇒ v = 50 cm
Tube length ℓ = |v0| + fe = 50 + 4 = 54 cm.

36)

Objective of compound microscope is a convex lens. Convex lens forms real and enlarged
image when an object is placed beyond focus of lens

37)

Theoretical / conceptual

38) For retracing of light, light will fall normally on the mirror.
By applying Snell's law μ1sini = μ2sinr
1 × sin 45° = μsin30°
μ=

39) For A > 2θC ; the light ray never crosses the prism for any angle of incidence.

40) A. QUESTION EXPLANATION:

We need to determine the truth of each statement and whether the reason correctly explains
the assertion.
B. CONCEPT:

A. Dispersion: The splitting of white light into its constituent colors (wavelengths) due to the
variation of refractive index with wavelength.

C. SOLUTION:
1. Assertion (A): "There is no dispersion of light refracted through a rectangular slab." This
statement is false because the two surfaces are parallel, the net deviation for each color is the same.
The colors emerge parallel to the original incident beam, and thus, no net separation of colors
occurs.

But if we see this case For this case , two sides ae

adjacent with right angle in between. Hence dispersion occurs. 2. Reason (R): "Dispersion of light
is the phenomenon of splitting of a beam of light into its constituent colours." This statement is also
true. It correctly defines dispersion.
E ANSWER: option 4
(A) is false and (R) are true
41)
i = 45°

42) μquartz = 2, μglycerine = 4/3

Shift = t = 18

43)

A. Question Explanation

A convex mirror always forms an image of a real object that is virtual, erect, and diminished,
regardless of the object's position.

B. Concept

A convex mirror diverges light rays, making the image appear behind the mirror.

The image is always virtual, erect, and diminished. It always forms between the pole and the
focus.

C FORMULA: not required

D CALCULATION: not required

E. Final Answer (4) (i), (ii), (ii)

F. Question Level

44) Question Explanation : to find power of each cut part of lens.

Concept : Radius of curvature remains constant when lens is cut into two halves by plane
containing the principal axis.

Formula :
Visual aid:

Calculation : μ, R1, R2 → are constant.

Hence F does not change, i.e., P is constant.

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

45) Concept :
 Snell's law, refraction at multiple interfaces.

Formula :

Snell's law : n1 × sin(i) = n2 × sin(r)

Calculation :

Parallel surfaces : Since all surfaces are parallel, the angle of incidence at each interface is
equal to the angle of refraction at the previous interface.

Emergent ray parallel to incident ray : For the emergent ray to be parallel to the incident
ray, the final angle of refraction must be equal to the initial angle of incidence.

Applying Snell's law : The overall effect is that the product of refractive indices for the first
two media must be equal the product of the refractive indices for the last two media.

Final answer : Option (4)

CHEMISTRY

48) NCERT Pg. # 358 aldehyde ketones

50)

1° Alcohol No turbidity.
2° Alcohol Turbidity within 5 Min.
3° Alcohol Turbidity within 2-3 Sec.
Tertiary alcohol reacts fastest and follow SN1 Mechanism.

53)

54)
55)

56)

58)

59)

Williamson's ether Synthesis :-

SN2 – mechanism.

60) As all the O & P position are not active and thus Br attacks at para position.

61)

Gives blood-red color.

64)

65)

R – X + Ag – F → R – F
AgF is soluble rest halides (AgX) are ppt.

66)

Para position has more 'M' effect.

67)

68) Nitration does not show kinetic isotopic effect.

69) is most stable.

70) Meta directing group decreases electron density at ortho and para position.

71) m–chlorobromo benzene and m–bromochloro benzene are identical.

In benzene all carbon atoms are sp2 hybridised.

72)

73)

In alkylation, poly alkylation takes place, as alkyl group activates benzene ring towards
reaction.

74) Halogens are ortho–para directing groups due to +M effect.

75) For comparison of Fischer projection, like groups should be present on vertical and
horizontal lines.
76)
Hence, total stereoisomer = 23 = 8.

77)

R and S configuration based on Cahn Ingold Prelog rules.

78) H3C–CH=CH–CH2–C6H5
Two different at each double bonded carbon.

79)

80) Asking About - major product formed.

Concept -

1°, 2° Base 3° or monostable carbocation than 3°

Solution -
81)
It is an example of oxymercuration-demercuration reaction in which addition of H2O takes
place according to markownikoff's rule without rearrangement.

82) B. S. ∝

B.S. ∝

83) Removal of most acidic H takes place, according to size factor, Acidic strength ∝ size

84) Bond energy ∝

No resonance

Cross conjugation

Continuous conjugation
 85)

86)

87)

88)

89)

90) NCERT-12th-326

BIOLOGY

92) NCERT Pg # 47, Para-I

93) NCERT Pg # Eng.-32, Hin.-35

96) NCERT Pg no. 32, 33

97) NCERT XII Pg # 32 (E), 36 (H)

99) NCERT XII, Pg. # 49

100) NCERT XII Page No. # 50

101) NCERT XII Page # 33,34

 102)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 34

103)

The zona pellucida is a glycoprotein layer surrounding the oocyte (egg cell) and plays an
important role in preventing ectopic pregnancies. It facilitates the proper fertilization process
and the movement of the fertilized egg to the uterus. The zona pellucida helps to prevent
polyspermy (fertilization by more than one sperm) and also ensures that the fertilized egg
remains in the correct location, ideally traveling into the uterine cavity for implantation.

The correct answer is : 2. Zona pellucida.

106) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 51

110) NCERT XII, Page # 51

112) NCERT XII, Pg # 52, 53

115)

The correct sequence of embryo development is:

1. Gamete → Zygote → Morula → Blastula → Gastrula

A. Gamete: These are the sex cells (sperm and egg).

B. Zygote: Formed by the fusion of a sperm and an egg.
C. Morula: A solid ball of cells resulting from the early divisions of the zygote.
D. Blastula: A hollow ball of cells formed from the morula.
E. Gastrula: A three-layered structure (ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm) formed from the
blastula through a process called gastrulation.

116)

NCERT, Pg. # 30

120) NCERT XII Page # 33,34

123) NCERT XII Pg. 53

124) NCERT-XII, Page No- 53

125)
NCERT-XII-Page No. # 53

127) NCERT Page No. 54

131)

Pg. No. 287, 288_XI NCERT

132)

NCERT XI - Pg# 284, 285

134)

NCERT-XII Pg#195

135) NCERT Pg. # 279

137) NCERT Pg. # 32

138) NCERT Pg. # 26, 27

140) NCERT XI pg.# 39

141) Explanation: Oogamy is a type of sexual reproduction where the female gamete (egg) is
large and non-motile, while the male gamete is small and motile. This form of reproduction is
observed in members of Chlorophyceae (e.g., Volvox, Chara), Phaeophyceae (e.g., Fucus), and
Rhodophyceae (e.g., Polysiphonia, Batrachospermum).

145) NCERT XII, Page # 23

146) NCERT XII, Page # 22

147) NCERT XII pg.# 30(E), 32(H)