07-05-2025

4504CMD303021250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) Statement-I : Charge is quantized

Statement-II : Charge, which is less than 1 C is not possible

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

2) Magnitude of electric field intensity E is such that, an electron of mass m, charge e placed in it
would experience an electric force equal to its weight, then E is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) mg

3) Choose the correct option for Coulomb's Law –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

4) Two identical charged balls (each of charge Q and mass M) are suspended by 2 strings of same

length as in figure at equilibrium (θ is very small) then :-

(1) x2 ∝ Q3
(2) x3 ∝ Q2
(3) x ∝ Q2
(4) x3 ∝ Q

5) Two point charges +8q and -2q are located at and respectively. The point on x axis at
which net electric field is zero due to these charges is

(1) 8 L
(2) 4 L
(3) 2 L
(4) L

6) What should be the value of q0 placed at the geometrical centre of the triangle shown, so that

system is in equilibrium.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Two point charges placed at a distance r in air exert a force F on each other. The value of distance
R at which they experience force 4F when placed in a medium of dielectric constant K = 16 is :

(1) r
(2) r/4
(3) r/8
(4) 2r

8) An electric dipole has charges +q and -q at a separation r. At distance d >>r along the axis of the
dipole, the field is proportional to:

(1) q/d2
(2) qr/d2
(3) q/d3
(4) qr/d3

9) A charged particle of mass m and charge q is released from rest in an electric field of constant
magnitude E. The KE of the particle after time t is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Two spheres carrying charges +6 C and +9 C, separated by a distance d, experiences a force
of repulsion F. When a charge of –3 C is given to both the spheres and kept at the same distance
as before the new force of repulsion is

(1)

(2) F

(3)

(4) 3 F

11) Electric field intensity at point P is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Consider the charge configuration and a spherical Gaussian surface as shown in the figure.
When calculating the flux of the electric field over the spherical surface, the electric field will be due

to :

(1) q2
(2) +q1 and –q1
(3) All the charges
(4) Only the positive charges

13) A semi circular arc of radius a is charged uniformly and the charge per unit length is λ. The
electric field at the centre is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A square surface of side L meters in the plane of the paper is placed in a uniform electric field E
acting along the same plane at an angle with the horizontal side of the square as shown in figure.

The electric flux linked to the surface is:-

(1) Zero
(2) EL2
(3)
(4)

15) Two point charges Q1, Q2 are fixed at x = 0 and

x = a. Assuming that field strength is positive in the direction coinciding with the positive direction

of x. then, which following option will be correct ?

(1) Both Q1 and Q2 are negative with |Q1| > |Q2|

Q1 is positive and Q2 is negative with
(2)
|Q1| > |Q2|
Q1 is negative and Q2 is positive with
(3)
|Q1| = |Q2|
(4) Both are positive |Q1| > |Q2|

16) For a given surface the Gauss's law is stated as

 . From this we can conclude that :-

(1) E is necessarily zero on the surface

(2) E is perpendicular to the surface at every point
(3) The total flux through the surface is zero
(4) The flux is only going out of the surface

17) The given figure shows the electric line of force emerging from a charged body. If the electric
field at A and B are EA and EB respectively and if the displacement between A and B is r, then:

(1) EA > EB
(2) EA < EB
EA =
(3)

EA =
(4)

18) Sure check for presence of electric charge is :

(1) Process of induction

(2) Repulsion between bodies
(3) Attraction between bodies
(4) None of these

19) Three equal charges each +q are placed on the corners of an equilateral triangle of side a. Then
the coulomb force experienced by one charge due to the rest of the two is:

(1) Kq2/a2
(2) 2Kq2/a2
(3) Kq2/a2
(4) zero

20) Two identically charged spheres are suspended by strings of equal length. The strings make an
angle of 45° with each other. When suspended in a liquid of density 0.8 gm cm–3, the angle remains
same what is the dielectric constant of liquid. (Density of sphere =1.6 gm cm–3) :-

(1) 5
(2) 8
(3) 2
(4) 10
21) The spatial distribution of the electric field lines due to charges (A, B) is shown in figure. Which

one of the following statements is correct ?

(1) A is +ve and B is –ve and |A| < |B|

(2) A is –ve and B is +ve; |A| = |B|
(3) Both are +ve but |A| > |B|
(4) A is +ve and B is –ve and |A| > |B|

22) A circular wire loop of radius 'r' carries a total charge 'Q' distributed uniformly over its length. A
small length d of the wire is cut off. The electric field at the centre due to the remaining wire:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Two charges 9e and 3e are placed at a separation r. The distance of the point where the electric
field intensity will be zero, is

(1)
from 9e charge

(2)
from 9e charge

(3)
from 3e charge

(4)
from 3e charge

24) If the electric flux entering and leaving a closed surface are 6 × 106 and 9 × 106 S.I. units
respectively, then the charge inside the surface of permittivity of free space ε0 is -

6
(1) ε0 × 10
6
(2) –ε0 × 10
6
(3) –2ε0 × 10
6
(4) 3ε0 × 10

25) Assertion : If a proton and an electron are placed in the same uniform electric field they
experience same acceleration
Reason : Electric force on a test charge is independent of its mass.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion is False but the Reason is True.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

CHEMISTRY

1) In which of following solution, liquid is solute and solid is solvent ?

(1) Amalgam of Hg with Na

(2) Copper Dissolved in gold
(3) Solution of hydrogen is paladium
(4) All of these

2) 10 mL concentrated H2SO4 (18 M) is diluted to 1 litre. Normality of diluted acid is :-

(1) 0.18 N
(2) 0.09 N
(3) 0.36 N
(4) 18 N

3) At what temperature, the molarity and molality of pure water are equal :-

(1) 100°C
(2) 277 K
(3) 298 K
(4) At all temperature

4) If the mole fraction of solute is 0.3 in an aqueous solution then molality of the solution is

(1) 30.8 m
(2) 23.8 m
(3) 24.5 m
(4) 2.8 m

5) The normality of 4% (mass/vol.) NaOH is :-

(1) 0.1 N
(2) 1.0 N
(3) 0.05 N
(4) 0.01 N

6) Which among the following concentration terms is independent of temperature ?

(1) Molarity
(2) Molality
(3) (w/v)%
(4) Normality

7) 5 mL of 1N HCl, 20 mL of N/2 H2SO4 and 30 mL of N/3 HNO3 are mixed together and volume
made to one litre. The normality of the resulting solutions is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Select the incorrect statement among the following.

(1) Different gases have different KH values at the same temperature

(2) The value of KH for a gas decreases with increase of temperature
(3) Higher the value of KH at a given pressure, the lower is the solubility of the gas in a liquid
Mole fraction of a gas in the solution is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas over the
(4)
solution

9) The solubility (in mole fraction) of a gas X in benzene at 298K under pressure 760mmHg is
(Henry's law constant for the gas X at 298K is 7.6×105 mm Hg)

(1) 1×10-4
(2) 0.1
(3) 1×10-2
(4) 1×10-3

10) A solution is a mixture of A and B. Mole fraction of A in solution phase is, xA = 0.4. Find the mole
fraction of A in vapour phase:
(Given : PºA = 100 mm of Hg, PºB = 200 mm of Hg)

(1) 0.4
(2) 0.8
(3) 0.25
(4) 1.2

11) Solutions A, B, C and D are respectively 0.1 M glucose, 0.05 M NaCl, 0.05 M BaCl2 and 0.1
M AlCl3. Which one of the following pairs is isotonic?

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and D
(4) A and C

12) Which one is not equal to zero for an ideal solution

(1) ΔSmix
(2) ΔVmix
(3) ΔP = Pobserved – PRaoult
(4) ΔHmix

13) Mixture of volatile components A and B has total vapour pressure

P = 254 – 119 XA
Where XA is mol fraction of P°A in mixture. Then values of P°A and P°B will be respectively

(1) 254, 119

(2) 119, 254
(3) 135, 254
(4) 154, 119

14) On mixing 10mL of acetone with 40mL of chloroform the total volume of the solution is

(1) < 50mL

(2) > 50 mL
(3) = 50 mL
(4) Can't be predicted

15) The vapour pressure of the solution of two liquids A(pº = 80 mm) and B(pº = 120 mm) is found
to be 100 mm when xA = 0.4. The result shows that

(1) solution exhibits ideal behaviour

(2) solution shows positive deviations
(3) solution shows negative deviations
solution will show positive deviations for lower concentration and negative deviations for higher
(4)
concentrations.

16) If T1 , T2 and T3 are boiling points of component A, component B and azeotropic mixture
then which of the following relation is correct for a minimum boiling azeotrope :-

(1) T1 < T3
(2) T2 < T3
(3) T3 < T1
(4) T3 = T2

17) Which of the following aqueous solutions has the highest freezing point assuming solution is very
dilute?
(1) 0.1 M KNO3
(2) 0.2 M Na3PO4
(3) 0.25 M FeCl3
(4) 0.01 M Na2SO4

18) The rise in the boiling point of a solution containing 1.8 g of glucose in 100 g of solvent is 0.1°C.
The molal elevation constant of the solvent is :

(1) 0.01 K/m

(2) 0.1 K/m
(3) 1 K/m
(4) 10 K/m

19) Freezing point of an aqueous solution is (–0.186)ºC. Elevation of boiling point of the same
solution is (Kf = 1.86°C, Kb = 0.512°).

(1) 0.186°C
(2) 0.0512°C
(3) 0.092°C
(4) 0.02372°C

20) When 36.0 g of a solute having the empirical formula CH2O is dissolved in 1.20 kg of water, the
solution freezes at –0.93°C. What is the molecular formula of the solute ?
(Kf = 1.86°C kg mol–1) :-

(1) C3H6O3
(2) C2H2O2
(3) C2H4O3
(4) C2H4O2

21) The size of a raw mango shrinks to a much smaller size when kept in a concentrated salt
solution. Which one of the following processes can explain this?

(1) Dialysis
(2) Diffusion
(3) Reverse osmosis
(4) Osmosis

22) The relationship between osmotic pressures ( ) at a definite temperature when 1 g

glucose, 1 g urea and 1 g sucrose are dissolved in 1 litre of water is :
(assume i = 1 for all) :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

23) Assuming 100% ionisation, which of the following has same van't Hoff factor as K4[Fe(CN)6]?

(1) CaSO4
(2) Al2(SO4)3
(3) CaCI2
(4) AICI3

24) Acetic acid exists in benzene solution in dimeric form. In an actual experiment the Van't Hoff
factor was found to be 0.52. The degree of association of acetic acid is

(1) 0.48
(2) 0.88
(3) 0.96
(4) 0.52

25) Two solute X and Y separately dissolved in water to form two solutions. Both solution have same
B.P. and have same % w/w concentration. If Van't Hoff factor of X is more than Van't Hoff factor of Y
then-

(1) Molar mass of X and Y are equal

(2) Molar mass of X is higher than Y
(3) Molar mass of X is lower than Y
(4) Both solution have same molality

BIOLOGY

1) Pollen grains are generally __A__ measuring about __B__ .

(1) A – Spherical , B – 2.5 to 5.0

(2) A – Amoeboid , B – 25 to 50 mm
(3) A – Spherical , B – 25 to 50
(4) A – Irregular in shape, B – 50 to 100 mm

2) In some cereals like rice and wheat, pollen grains lose viability within ____________ but in members
of Rosaceae, Leguminosae and Solanaceae, pollen viability is maintained for ______________ .

(1) Months. years

(2) Years, months
(3) Months, 30 minutes
(4) 30 minutes, months

3) The cells of tapetum possess _________ cytoplasm and generally have _________.

(1) Light, single nucleus

(2) Light, two nucleus
(3) Dense, single nucleus
(4) Dense, more than one nucleus

4) Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by mitotic division in :-

(1) Microspore mother cell

(2) Body cell
(3) Generative cell
(4) Vegetative cell

5) Which one of the following pair of plant structures has haploid number of chromosomes?

(1) Nucellus and antipodal cells

(2) Egg nucleus and megaspore mother cell
(3) Megaspore and nucellus
(4) Synergid and antipodal cell

6) In majority of angiosperm female gametophyte is

(1) 7 celled 7 nucleated structure

(2) 7 celled 8 nucleated structure
(3) 7 celled 6 nucleated structure
(4) 4 celled 4 nucleated structure

7) How many meiotic and mitotic division are required to form embryo sac from megaspore mother
cell respectively?

(1) 1, 3
(2) 1,2
(3) 1, 1
(4) 1, 4

8) Multicarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in:-

(1) Lotus
(2) Papaver
(3) Michelia
(4) Rose

9) Which of the following sequence is correct for microsporogenesis ?

(1) Microspore tetrad (2N) Microspore (N)

(2) Microspore mother cell (2N) Microspore tetrad (N)

(3) Microspore tetrad (N) Microspore (2N)

(4) Microspore tetrad (2N) Microspore (2N)

10)

Given below is the diagrammatic view of three dimensional cut section of an anther. Identify the
parts labelled A, B, C and D and select the right option about them.

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

Pollen Pollen Filament Line Of
1
sacs grains (Stalk) dehiscence

Pollen Pollen Line Of Filament

2
sacs grains dehiscence (Stalk)

Pollen Filament Line Of

3 Pollen sacs
grains (Stalk) dehiscence

Pollen Line Of Pollen Filament

4
sacs dehiscence grains (Stalk)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Polar nuclei are situated in the central cell :-

(1) Below the egg apparatus

(2) Above the egg apparatus
(3) Below the antipodals
(4) Both (2) and (3)

12)

Match the column-I with column-II and select the right option:-
 Column-I Column-II

A Male gametophyte (i) Embryosac

Pollen
B Megasporangium (ii)
grain

C Megasporophyll (iii) Ovule

D Female gametophyte (iv) Pistil/carpel

A B C D (1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii iv i iii
(3) ii iii iv i (4) ii iii i iv
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) One of the most resistant known biological material is:

(1) Lignin
(2) Hemicellulose
(3) Sporopollenin
(4) Lignocellulose

14) Find out the structure in the given figure and select right option :-

A B C D E
Micro
Middle spore
1 Epidermis Endothecium Tapetum
layers mother
cells
Micro
spore
2 Middle layers Endothecium Epidermis Tapetum
mother
cells
Micro
spore Middle
3 Tapetum Endothecium Epidermis
mother layers
cells
Micro
spore Middle
4 Epidermis Middle layers Endothecium
mother layers
cells
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Which of the following represents the basal part of the ovule ?

(1) Micropyle
(2) Chalaza
(3) Hilum
(4) Funicle

16) Largest cell of the embryo sac is :

(1) Antipodal cell

(2) Egg cell
(3) Synergid
(4) Central cell

17) An anther having 10 microsporocyte or microspore mother cell will produce how many pollen
grains.

(1) 24
(2) 12
(3) 40
(4) 16

18) Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of

(1) –120°C
(2) –80°C
(3) –196°C
(4) –186°C

19) Statement I : A typical angiospermic anther is bilobed with each lobe having two theca, i.e.,
they are dithecous
Statement II : Microsporangia develop further and become pollen sac

(1) Both statements I and II are incorrect

(2) Both statements I and II are correct
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

20) Filiform apparatus is present at –

(1) Micropylar tip of synergid cell

(2) Central cell
(3) Micropylar tip of antipodal cell
(4) None of these

21) Egg apparatus consists of -

(1) One egg cell and three antipodal cells.

(2) One egg cell and two polar nuclei.
(3) One egg cell and two synergids.
(4) One egg cell and one synergid.

22) Statement I : Flowers are objects of social, religious and cultural value.
Statement II : Flowers are the sites of sexual reproduction in ferns.

(1) Only statement I is incorrect

(2) Only statement II is incorrect
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

23) Select the correct order in which a flower develop

I. Differentiation and development of the floral primordium
II. Appearance of flowers
III. Hormonal and structural changes are initiated
IV. Inflorescences are formed and bear floral buds

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

24) Asthma and bronchitis may occur due to exposure of pollens of ?

(1) Mango
(2) Carrot grass
(3) Maize
(4) Wheat

25) What does the following diagram represent

(1) Female gametophyte

(2) Scanning electron micrograph of a few pollen grains
(3) Egg
(4) Microspore mother cell
26) How many mammary lobes are present in a female?

(1) 15-20
(2) 30-40
(3) 10-15
(4) 15-25

27) Which part of the human sperm has a large number of mitochondria essential for sperm motility?

(1) Head
(2) Middle piece
(3) Acrosome
(4) Tail

28) Which gland's secretions help in lubrication of penis:

(1) Seminal vesicle

(2) Prostate gland
(3) Bulbourethral gland
(4) Bartholin glands

29) Assertion :- Tertiary follicle is characterized by a fluid filled cavity called Antrum.
Reason :- The Primary oocyte within the tertiary follicle undergo unequal cytokinesis to form a
large Haploid secondary oocyte.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

30)

Which of the following is not part of female external genitalia?

(1) Moms pubis

(2) Labia minora
(3) Clitoris
(4) Vagina

31)

Seminal vesicle, Prostate, Cowper's glands, Testis

How many of the following are paired?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

32) Read the following statements (i to iv) and answer the following question.
(i) Each testes has highly coiled 250 compartments called seminiferous tubules.
(ii) Erection of the penis due to presence of special erectile tissues facilitates insemination.
(iii) Immunologically competent cells are also present in the interstitial spaces of seminiferous
tubules.
(iv) Testes lie outside the abdominal cavity in a thin pouch like skin called scrotum.
(v) Bulbourethral gland is a single accessory gland.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (iii) and (v)
(3) (i) and (v)
(4) (ii), (iv) and (v)

33) Select the correct statement.

(1) Hymen is not a part of female external genitalia

(2) Mons pubis is a cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin and not having pubic hair after puberty
The clitoris is a tiny finger like structure which lies at the upper junction of two labia minora
(3)
above the urethral opening
(4) Finger like projection on the edges of infundibulum help in collection of fertilised ovum

34) Select the correct sequence of stages during sperm production

(1) Spermatogonia, primary spermatocyte, spermatid, secondary spermatocyte, sperm

(2) Spermatogonia, primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatozoa
(3) Sperm, spermatogonia, primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, spermatid
(4) Spermatid, spermatogonia, spermatozoa, secondary spermatocyte, primary spermatocyte

35) The function of ovary is

a. To produce female gamete
b. To provide the site for fertilisation
c. To provide the site for implantation
d. To produce several steroid hormones

(1) a and b
(2) a, b and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) a and d

36) Common duct formed by union of vas deferens and duct from seminal vesicle is :-

(1) Urethra
(2) Rete testis
(3) Ejaculatory duct
(4) Epididymis

37) Statement-I : The uterus opens in to vagina through a narrow cervix.

Statement-II : Perimetrium is the outer glandular layer of uterus.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.

38) Recognise the figure and find out the correct marking

(1) a-primary oocyte, b-secondary oocyte, c-ovum, d-second meiotic division, e-first meiotic division
(2) a-primary oocyte, b-secondary oocyte, c-ovum, d-first meiotic division, e-mitosis differentiation
a-primary oocyte, b-secondary oocyte, c-polar body, d-second meiotic division, e-first meiotic
(3)
division
(4) a-first polar body, b-second polar body, c-ovum, d-first meiotic division, c-mitosis differentiation

39) A large number of primary follicles degenerate during the phase from birth to puberty.
Therefore, at puberty each ovary has about

(1) 1 million primary follicles

(2) A couple of million primary follicles
(3) 60000-80000 primary follicles
(4) 1,20,000-1,00,000 primary follicles

40) Recognised the figure and find out the correct matching.
(1) d - sertoli cells, c - spermatozoa, b - spermatogonia, a - interstitial cells
(2) a - sertoli cells, b - spermatozoa, c - spermatogonia, d - interstitial cells
(3) c - sertoli cells, a - spermatozoa, d - spermatogonia, b - interstitial cells
(4) b - sertoli cells, d - spermatozoa, a - spermatogonia, c - interstitial cells

41) The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary is

(1) isthmus
(2) infundibulum
(3) cervix
(4) ampulla

42) Given below is an incomplete flow chart showing influence of hormone on gametogenesis in

male, observe the flow chart carefully and identify :

A B C D

Sertoli
(I) Testosterone Spermatogenesis Spermiogenesis
cell

Leydig
(2) Androgen Spermiogenesis Spermiogenesis
cell

(3) FSH Oogenesis ICSH Spermatogenesis

Polar-
(4) LH Oogenesis Oogenesis
body
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
43) Total number of polar bodies formed in oogenesis in human being.

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 0

44) The figure below shows development of follicles (A, B, C and D). Select the option giving correct

identification of structure together with its function ?

(1) B – Secondary Follicle –secretes progesterone

(2) D – Corpus albicans – Secretes estrogen
(3) A – Tertiary follicle – Secretes FSH & LH
(4) C – Corpus luteum – Secretes progesterone

45) How many structures in the list given below are diploid?
Spermatid, secondary spermatocyte, primary spermatocyte, ovum, sperm, spermatogonia

(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Five

46) Meiotic-I division during oogenesis occurs in :

(1) Primary oocyte

(2) 1st polar body
(3) Secondary oocyte
(4) IInd polar body

47) The completion of meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is induced by

(1) Transport of ovum through fallopian tube

(2) Ovulation
(3) Entry of sperm
(4) Puberty

48) The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of the female reproductive system
of humans. Which one set of three parts out of A to F have been correctly identified?
(1) C - Infundibulum, D - Fimbriae, E – Cervix
(2) D - Oviduct funnel, E - Uterus, F – Cervix
(3) A - Perimetrium, B - Myometrium, C - Fallopian tube
(4) B - Endometrium, C - Infundibulum, D - Fimbriae

49) Spermiogenesis is

(1) spermatids transformed into spermatozoa

(2) spermatozoa transformed into spermatids
(3) spermatozoa transformed to spermatocytes
(4) spermatid to secondary spermatocytes

50) The duct which carries sperms from testis to epididymis is

(1) Vasa efferentia

(2) Vasa differentia
(3) Ureter
(4) Seminiferous tubules
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 1 2 3 4 3 4 3 1 2 3 1 1 3 3 1 2 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25
A. 4 1 2 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 3 2 2 2 2 4 2 4 3 1 1 3 1 3 3 4 3 2 4
Q. 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 3 2 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 4 4 3 4 2 1 2 2 2 1 3 3 1 2 4 3 3 2 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 4 2 2 2 2 3 2 4 3 3 3 2 4 3 1 2 3 1
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 1 1 4 3 1 3 1 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

2)

qE = mg

eE = mg ⇒ E =

3)

We are asked to express the vector formula for the forces F 12 (force on q 1 due to q2) and F2
1 (force
on q2 due to q1), given their position vectors r 1 and r2, and the distance between them r.
Concept:
The forces between two point charges, q1 and q2, are described by Coulomb's law. The forces
on the
charges are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction, as per Newton's Third Law.

For Coulomb's force between two charges, we use the formula:

Where:
• k is Coulomb's constant,
• r is the distance between the charges,
• r is the unit vector pointing from one charge to the other.

8)

9)

13) here

14) Field is parallel to plane of area

16)

Theory based.
 21) 1. Explain question:
The problem provides the spatial distribution of electric field lines due to two charges (A and
B). We are tasked with determining the correct relationship between the signs and magnitudes
of charges A and B.
2. Concept:

A. Electric field lines originate from positive charges and terminate at negative charges.
B. The number of field lines corresponds to the magnitude of the charge. More field lines indicate
a larger magnitude of charge.

3. Formula:

A. The electric field lines' direction and number indicate the charge's sign and magnitude.

4. Calculation:

A. Sign of charges: Field lines originate from A, so A is positive. Field lines terminate at B, so B is
negative.
B. Magnitude comparison: A has more field lines originating from it, implying that the magnitude
of A's charge is greater than B's charge, which has fewer field lines terminating at it.
C. Therefore, A is positive, B is negative, and |A| > |B|.

Answer: Option 4. A is +ve and B is-ve and |A| > |B|.

24)

ϕtotal = ϕin + ϕout = –6 × 106 + 9 × 106

= 3 × 106
∴ ϕclosed = ε0ϕtotal = 3ε0 × 106

CHEMISTRY

29)

= 23.80 m
Where = mole fraction of solute
= mole fraction of solvent
= molecular mass of solvent

34)

36) Isotonic solutions have same molar concentration of solute particles in solution. Molar
concentration of particles in solution are 0.1 M in glucose, in NaCl, in
 39) CHCl3 and CH3COCH3 show negative deviation

BIOLOGY

51) NCERT Pg. 7

54)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 23 (E), 25(H)

55)

Nucellus, megaspore mother cell = 2n antipodal cell, egg nucleus, megaspore and synergids =
n

56)

In majority of angiosperm female gametophyte is 7 celled 8 nucleated structure

57)

XII NCERT Pg # 10, 11

58)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 25(E), 26(H), fig. 2.7(a)

60) NCERT XII pg. 21 Fig. 2.2 (b)

61) NCERT XII pg. 27, I para

63) NCERT XII, Page # 23

64) NCERT XII, Page # 22

65) NCERT-XII Pg # 25

66) NCERT-XII Pg # 27

71) Egg apparatus consists of two synergids and one egg cell lying at the micropylar end
76) NCERT Pg. # 31

77) NCERT page- 32