UNIVERSITY OF KWAZULU-NATAL

SCHOOL OF BIOLOGICAL AND CONSERVATION SCIENCE

EXAMINATIONS: NOVEMBER 2009
SUBJECT, COURSE & CODE BIOL 102 – Life on Earth
BIOL 196 – Life on Earth (Augmented)
Pietermaritzburg & Westville
DURATION 3 HOURS TOTAL MARKS 180

INTERNAL EXAMINER Mr GK Moodley, Dr C Schoeman, Dr O Mokotedi, Dr D Glassom,

Dr N Hagenah, Dr A Jürgens, Dr T Olckers, Dr A Shrader
EXTERNAL EXAMINER Dr ER Dempster

CANDIDATES ARE REQUESTED, IN THEIR OWN INTERESTS, TO WRITE LEGIBLY

THIS PAPER COMPRISES TEN (10) PAGES, AND ONE ANSWER SHEET,
ENSURE YOU HAVE ALL OF THEM

Ensure that you NAME and STUDENT number are CLEARLY indicated on your multiple choice answer
sheet and the cover of all answer books.

Instructions:
Section A : Multiple Choice (Total = 80 marks)
Each question has five possible answers - choose one by indicating your choice in pencil on the
electronic MC answer sheet.
Note that there is only ONE correct answer per question. Negative marking will apply.
There are 40 questions = 80 marks (2 marks for a correct answer, 0.5 for an incorrect answer and 0 for
an unanswered question).

Section B : Short answers (Total = 100 marks)

These questions may be answered using a word, sentence or, at the most, a paragraph. Answer ALL the
questions in this section. Questions do not carry equal marks.

Please ensure that you answer questions in SEPARATE books as indicated and make sure that your
seat number and student number are clearly marked on each book.
Questions1 & 2 - Book 1 Question 3 - Book 2

Question 4 – Book 3 Question 5 – Book 4

Question 6 – Book 5 Question 7 – Book 6

Question 8 – Book 7 Question 9 – Book 8

YOU MUST HAND IN YOUR QUESTION PAPER

AT THE COMPLETION OF YOUR EXAMINATION
UNIVERSITY OF KWAZULU-NATAL EXAMINATIONS November 2009

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SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS: TOTAL 80 marks

Answer ALL 40 questions in this section in pencil on the mark sheet provided.
Each question has five possible answers – indicate your choice A, B, C, D or E
Note that there is only ONE correct answer per question
Each question is 2.0 marks,
an incorrect answer is minus 0.5 marks, and an unanswered question 0 marks

1. Which group of animals has the largest number of known species?

a. Mammals
b. Birds
c. Amphibians
d. Arthropods
e. Sponges

2. Which of the following was the most recent event in the evolution of life?
a. The Cambrian explosion
b. The first animals with shells
c. The first flowering plants
d. The first eukaryotes
e. The first multicellular animals

3. Species that are in the same ________________ are more closely related than species that
are only in the same ______________.
a. phylum … class
b. family … order
c. class … order
d. family … genus
e. kingdom … phylum

4. Darwin's concept of Natural Selection is closest in meaning to which of the following

statements?
a. In any population variation exists and much of this variation is heritable.
b. Individuals with more favorable traits are more likely to reproduce and these inherited favorable
traits become more common in succeeding generations.
c. Individuals of a species naturally select the habitat and niche to which they are best suited.
d. There is stability in the process of reproduction.
e. There is random mating in a population and no selection for or against either member of an
allelic pair.

5. An example of a simple mathematical measure that characterizes species diversity in a

community is the …
a. Sorensen diversity index.
b. Simpson’s diversity index.
c. Index of species diversity.
d. Tevjes index of richness.
e. Darwin’s index of natural diversity.
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6. Life probably would never have emerged on Earth if the ancient atmosphere had been the
same as the present one with regard to the concentration of
a. carbon dioxide.
b. hydrogen.
c. oxygen.
d. nitrogen.
e. carbon monoxide.

7. The family tree for animals shows a trend toward

a. increase in body size and complexity.
b. added levels of organization.
c. the capacity of cells to interact as part of tissues.
d. three germ layers.
e. all of these

8. Sponges have all of the following characteristics:

a. multicellular, diploblastic, bilateral symmetry
b. unicellular, asymmetry, organ level of organisation
c. multicellular, triploblastic, tissue level of organisation
d. multicellular, asymmetry, cellular level of organisation
e. multicellular, symmetry, tissue level of organisation

9. In the life cycle of a typical cnidarian, which of the following is free-swimming?

a. medusa
b. polyp
c. planula
d. medusa and planula
e. all of these

10. Colonial cnidarians

a. include Obelia.
b. include the Portuguese man-of-war.
c. include corals.
d. may harbour protist symbionts.
e. all of these.

11. Millipedes belong to the Kingdom ____ and the Phylum _____
a. Porifera, Spongaea
b. Spongaea, Porifera
c. Animalia, Porifera
d. Animalia, Arthropoda
e. Arthropoda, Myriapoda

12. Which of the following characteristics are shared by all arthropods?

a. an exoskeleton
b. an open circulatory system
c. a body divided into different primary regions or tagma
d. bilateral symmetry
e. all of the above

13. Which of the following life stages is NOT found in the life cycle of an insect with complete
metamorphosis?
a. egg
b. larva
c. nymph
d. pupa
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e. adult

14. Crustaceans and spiders are composed of two body regions (tagma) which are:
a. head and thorax.
b. head and abdomen.
c. body and legs.
d. cephalothorax and abdomen.
e. head and body.

15. Insects are successful in an evolutionary sense because they:

a. are small and can colonize a wide variety of habitats and niches.
b. have short life cycles that enable them to adapt to environmental change.
c. undergo metamorphosis that often enables them to exploit different resources.
d. have evolved flight which has numerous benefits.
e. all of the above

16. How long ago did chordates (e.g. lobed-fined fishes) invade land?
a. 200 million years ago
b. 350 million years ago
c. 410 million years ago
d. 470 million years ago
e. 560 million years ago

17. Which are the four key traits of Chordates?

a. Notochord, jaws, pharyngeal slits, nerve cord
b. Scales, jaws, lungs, amniotic egg
c. Specialised teeth, pharyngeal slits, jaws, tail
d. Notochord, tail, pharyngeal slits, nerve cord
e. Tail, hair, produce milk, nerve cord

18. What adaptations took place that separate reptiles from amphibians?
a. Notochord, jaws, pharyngeal slits, nerve cord
b. Scales, internal fertilisation, watertight skin, amniotic egg
c. Specialised teeth, pharyngeal slits, jaws, tail
d. Have both lungs and gills, lay eggs in water, jaws
e. Tail, hair, produce milk, nerve cord

19. Which is NOT a derived characteristic that sharks and bony fish share?
a. Jaws
b. Lateral line
c. Swim bladder
d. Gills
e. More developed skeleton

20. What are the key challenges that the first amphibians had to overcome to survive on land?
a. Lacked structural body support, breathing out of water, water loss.
b. Increased predation risk, reproduction out of water, water loss.
c. Less food available, increased predation risk, greater temperature extremes.
d. Less available habitats, greater predation risk, lacked structural body support.
e. Reproduction out of water, less available habitats, water loss.

21. The following animals are all chordates

a. Lampreys, tunicates & arachnids
b. Lampreys, tunicates & mice
c. Lancets, arachnids & mice
d. Crustaceans, mice and horseshoe crabs
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e. Insects, arthropods and amphipods

22. The difference between agnatha and other bony fish is

a. The presence of jaws.
b. The absence of amniotic egg production.
c. Tolerance to high pressure, allowing them to occur to great depths.
d. Suckers on the tops of their heads for attaching to host animals.
e. None of the above.

23. Flight evolved

a. Separately in insects, birds and mammals.
b. Once only and then spread.
c. Separately in insects and birds, but spread from birds to mammals.
d. Only in insects and birds – mammals only glide.
e. None of the above.

24. Most fish cannot alternate between fresh and salt water because
a. it is a challenge to regulate water and salt levels in their tissues.
b. fresh water isn’t deep enough.
c. their eyes are adapted to see in one type or the other.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

25. According to evolutionary theory

a. humans evolved from chimpanzees.
b. chimpanzees evolved from humans.
c. humans and chimpanzees evolved from gorillas.
d. all primates evolved from a common ancestor.
e. there is no evolutionary relationship between humans and other primates.

26. In mosses the ________is the dominant generation.

a. sporophyte
b. gametophyte
c. spore-producing generation
d. diploid generation
e. none of the above

27. The number of plant species in southern Africa is …

a. ca. 2 000
b. approximately 10 000
c. more than 20 000
d. approximately 250 000
e. more than 1 000 000

28. The fynbos biome is best characterized by which combination of characteristics?

a. Evergreen shrubland on poor soils in a winter rainfall region with regular fire regimes.
b. Low plant diversity, mostly trees and few endemics on nutrient rich soils.
c. Grassy layer with scattered trees where fire and grazing play an important role.
d. High plant diversity comprising mainly dwarf succulents and shrubs in dry winter rainfall region.
e. Evergreen shrubland on nutrient rich soils which has been heavily exploited in the past.

29. The oldest living plant in the world is a…

a. moss
b. angiosperm
c. gymnosperm
d. fern
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e. lichen

30. Self-fertilization in flowering plants is best prevented by

a. pollination and subsequent double-fertilization.
b. hermaphroditism and homogamy.
c. dioecy or self incompatibility.
d. self-compatibility and pollen competition.
e. monoecy or trioecy.

31. Which of the following is true? The nutritive tissue in the gymnosperm seeds is 1 and the food
in the flowering plant seed is 2 …
a. 1-triploid, 2-diploid
b. 1-triploid, 2-haploid
c. 1-haploid, 2-triploid
d. 1-diploid, 2-triploid
e. 1-diploid, 2-diploid

32. Plant gametes are produced by…

a. meiotic division in sporophytes.
b. mitotic division in gametophytes.
c. meiotic division in gametophytes.
d. mitotic division in sporophytes.
e. Fusion.

33. Peat, which is used as a fuel and enhances soil, is formed from…
a. fungi.
b. gymnosperms.
c. bryophytes.
d. bacteria.
e. angiosperms.

34. Cycads are called living fossils because…

a. they only lived in the past.
b. they are only known from the fossil record.
c. they have not changed in their morphology for hundreds of millions of years.
d. they have radiated to become many different species.
e. individual plants are sometimes more than 3000 years old.

35. Pine trees are

a. dioecious.
b. monoecious.
c. hermaphrodite.
d. protogynous.
e. protandrous.

36. What are the five main reasons why species go extinct?
a. Habitat destruction, Islandisation, Pollution, Poison, Predators.
b. Alien species, Overharvesting, Fire, Predators, Poison.
c. Overharvesting, Alien species, Habitat destruction, Islandisation, Pollution.
d. Alien species, Habitat destruction, Predators, Disease, Poaching.
e. Overharvesting, Diseases, Habitat destruction, Islandisation, Predators.

37. What do scientists mean by the ‘Living Dead’?

a. A species that has not changed since it first evolved.
b. A species that has such a low abundance that it is likely to go extinct in the near future.
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c. A species that is at the brink of extinction but can be recovered by strenuous effort.
d. A species that is extinct.
e. A species that has been brought back from extinction through genetic engineering.

38. Introduced species can have important effects on biological communities by ______.
a. preying upon native species.
b. competing with native species for resources.
c. displacing native species.
d. reducing biodiversity.
e. all of the above.

39. Which type of organisms are most affected by habitat destruction?

a. Species that can live in a wide range of habitats but have only limited dispersal capabilities.
b. Species that live in forests.
c. Species with special habitat requirements and limited dispersal capabilities.
d. Species with a small distribution range, limited dispersal capabilities and special habitat
requirements.
e. Species that live on islands.

40. Which of the following does NOT happen during mass extinctions?
a. A large number of species go extinct in the same time period.
b. A large number of families go extinct in the same time period.
c. Most of the earth is affected.
d. There is a fast rate of species loss and extinction.
e. There is a sharp increase in the rate of speciation.
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SECTION B: SHORT QUESTIONS

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS
(TOTAL = 100 MARKS)

QUESTION 1 (10 marks) (ANSWER IN BOOK 1)

a) Draw up a flow diagram or food web showing how the local extinction of sea otters affects other
species. [7]
c) Use this example to explain the concept of keystone species. [3]

QUESTION 2 (15 marks) (ANSWER IN BOOK 1)

a) Draw two diagrams, one showing the life cycle of a typical moss and one showing the life cycle
of a typical angiosperm. [10]
b) Explain why angiosperms are better adapted to dry conditions than mosses. [5]

QUESTION 3 (10 marks) (ANSWER IN BOOK 2)

Explain the significance of co-evolution of angiosperms with their insect pollinators. In your answer,
refer to floral structure and mode of attracting suitable pollinators.

QUESTION 4 (10 marks) (ANSWER IN BOOK 3)

a) Describe how a sponge feeds [5]
b) Explain what is meant by “coral bleaching” [5]

QUESTION 5 (15 marks) (ANSWER IN BOOK 4)

Examine the figure below (Figure 1. Metamorphosis of two different insects) and answer the following
questions:

a) Identify the organisms and the types of metamorphosis shown in the two life cycles, A & B. [2]
b) Describe the life cycles of organisms A & B in detail. [9]
c) Compare the two types of metamorphosis. [2]
d) Name another organism that has the same type of metamorphosis as each of A & B. [2]

Life Cycle A Life Cycle B

Figure 1. Metamorphosis of two different insects

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QUESTION 6 (10 marks) (ANSWER IN BOOK 5)

Use the phylogenetic tree below (Figure 2. Phylogenetic tree of carnivores) to answer the following
questions.

a) What does branch point 1 represent? [2]

b) What are the evolutionary relationships among Panthera leo (lion), Canis adustus (Side-striped
jackal) and Aonyx capensis (Clawless otter)? [2]
c) Which of the species in Fig. 2 are the most closely related? [2]
d) How do the families Mustelidae and Canidae differ? [2]
e) Which two genera (plural of genus) in Fig. 2 are most closely related? [2]

Order Family Genus Species

Panthera
Felidae

Panthera leo
(Lion)
Aonyx
Carnivora

Aonyx capensis
Mustelidae

(Cape clawless otter)

1
Mellivora

Mellivora capensis
(Honey badger)

Canis mesomelas
(Black-backed jackal)
Canidae

Canis

Canis adustus
(Side-striped jackal)

Figure 2. Phylogenetic tree of carnivores

QUESTION 7 (10 marks) (ANSWER IN BOOK 6)

Discuss vertebrate adaptations to life on land, referring to morphology, reproduction and respiration.

QUESTION 8 (10 marks) (ANSWER IN BOOK 7)

a) Describe the difference between ‘local extinctions’ and ‘global extinctions’. [5]
b) Can either local or global differences be reversed? If so, how? [5]
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QUESTION 9 (10 marks) (ANSWER IN BOOK 8)

Examine the Figure below (Figure 3. Decreased populations of marine, freshwater and terrestrial
vertebrate species worldwide between 1970 and 2000) and answer the following questions.

a. Briefly discuss the main causes for the decreased populations of vertebrate species between
1970 and 2000. [5]
b. Briefly state what we can do to reduce this trend. [5]

Figure 3. Decreased populations of marine, freshwater and terrestrial vertebrate species worldwide
between 1970 and 2000.