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Instruments Test Paper
1. A 2 axis gyro, measuring vertical changes will have:
a one degree of freedom, vertical axis
b two degrees of freedom, vertical axis
c one degree of freedom, horizontal axis
d two degrees of freedom, horizontal axis
2. The properties of a gyro are:
1. mass
2. rigidity
3. inertia
4. precession
5. rotational speed
a. 1,2, & 3
b. 2 & 4
c. 2 & 3
d. 1 & 3
3. An aircraft fitted with a DRMC upon landing in a northerly direction will indicate:
a no change
b oscillation about north
c a turn towards east
d a turn towards west
4. Which of the following will effect a direct reading compass?
1. ferrous metals
2. non-ferrous metals
3. electrical equipment
a. 1 only
b. 1 & 3
c. 1 & 2
d. all 3
5. A vibrator may be fitted to an altimeter to overcome:
a friction
b hysterysis
c lag
d pressure error
6. An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude, over a warm airmass. The altimeter
reading will be:
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a correct
b greater than the real altitude
c less than the real altitude
d oscillating around the correct altitude
7. The mach meter consists of:
a an airspeed indicator with mach scale
b an airspeed indicator with an altimeter capsule
c an altimeter corrected for density
d a VSI and altimeter combined
8. CAS is IAS corrected for:
a position and instrument error
b instrument, pressure and density error
c relative density only
d compressibility
9. A DGI has:
a one degree of freedom & a horizontal spin axis
b two degrees of freedom & a vertical spin axis
c two degrees of freedom & a horizontal spin axis
d one degree of freedom & a vertical spin axis
10. An aircraft is flying at an indicated altitude of 16,000ft. The outside air temperature is –
300 C. What is the true altitude of the aircraft?
a 16,200 ft
b 15,200 ft
c 18,600 ft
d 13,500 ft
11. The main cause of error in a DRMC is:
a parallax in the rose
b turning
c magnetic deviation
d latitude
12. QNH is:
a the airfield barometric pressure
b the setting that will give zero indication on the airfield
c the equivalent sea level pressure at the airfield
d the setting that will indicate airfield height
13. What is the Schuler period?
a 21 minutes
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b 84 minutes
c 1 oscillation in azimuth
d 63 minutes
14. The vertical reference of a data generation unit is:
a horizontal axis with 1 degree of freedom
b vertical axis with 1 degree of freedom
c horizontal axis with 2 degree of freedom
d vertical axis with 2 degree of freedom
15. The torque motor of a gyro stabilised magnetic compass:
a precesses the directional gyro
b takes its input from the flux valve
c moves the heading pointer
d moves the Selsyn stator
16. A factor giving an error on a direct indicating compass would be:
a crosswinds – particularly on east/west headings
b parallax due to oscillations of the compass rose
c acceleration on east/west headings
d turning through east/west headings
17. A rate integrating gyro is used in:
1. inertial attitude unit
2. autopilot system
3. stabiliser servo mechanism system
4. inertial navigation unit
5. rate of turn indicator
a 1, 2, 3, 4, & 5
a1&4
b 2, 3, & 5
c 2, 3, & 4
18. The errors of a DGI are:
1. earth rate
2. transport wander
3. banking when pitched up
4. annual movement of poles
5. mechanical problems
a 2, 3, & 5
b 3, 4, & 5
c 1, 2, 3, & 5
d all 5
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19. An Air Data Computer (ADC) obtains altitude from:
a. outside air temperature
b. barometric data from static source
c. time elapsed for signal to travel to and return from the earth
d. difference between absolute and dynamic pressure
20. If the needle and the ball of a Turn & Slip indicator both show right, what does it
indicate:
a. turn to left & too much bank
b. turn to right & too much bank
c. turn to left & too little bank
d. turn to right & too little bank
21. What formula gives the total temperature (TT) from the static temperature (TS):
a TT = TS (1 + 0.2 M2)
b TT = TS (1 + 0.2 KrM2)
c TT = TS / (1 + 0.2 KrM2)
d TT = TS (1 - 0.2 M2)
22. The Inertial Strapdown Unit of an IRS is programmed with co-ordinates during
alignment in order to:
a establish the tri-hedron with reference to the earth
b establish true or magnetic heading
c check the function of the laser gyros
d compensate for aircraft movement
23. When descending through an isothermal layer at constant CAS, what does the TAS do?
a increase at a linear rate
b increase at an exponential rate
c remain the same
d decrease
24. What is VMO calculated from:
a. CAS
b. TAS
c. COAS
d. EAS
25. Descending from FL390 at maximum groundspeed, what will the pilot be limited by:
a. VMO initially then MMO at a specified altitude
b. MMO initially then VMO at a specified altitude
c. VNE initially then MMO at a specified altitude
d. VNO initially then VNE at a specified altitude
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26. At constant weight, regardless of altitude, an aircraft always lifts off at a constant:
a EAS
b TAS
c ground speed
d CAS
27. VFE is the maximum speed that:
a. the flaps can be operated
b. the flaps may be extended in the take-off configuration
c. the flaps may be extended in the landing configuration
d. the flaps may be extended in a specified configuration
28. The white arc on the ASI indicates:
a. VS1 at the lower end and VLE at the upper end
b. VS0 at the lower end and VLE at the upper end
c. VS0 at the lower end and VFE at the upper end
d. VS1 at the lower end and VFE at the upper end
29. An ASI circuit consists of pressure sensors. The Pitot Probe measures:
a total pressure & static pressure
b dynamic pressure
c static pressure
d total pressure
30. Mach number is defined as the ratio of:
a IAS to LSS
b TAS to LSS
c CAS to LSS
d EAS to LSS
31. If a pitot source is blocked in an ASI, and the drain hole is blocked, but the static source
is open, what will happen?
a ASI reading goes to zero
b ASI under reads
c ASI over reads
d ASI behaves like an altimeter
32. In a turn at constant angle of bank ... the rate of turn is:
a. independent of weight and proportional a to TAS
b. dependant on weight and inversely proportional to TAS
c. independent of weight and inversely proportional a to TAS
d. dependant on weight and proportional to TAS
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33. The Turn Indicator is a useful gyroscopic instrument. When used in association with an,
attitude indicator will show:
1. angular velocity about the yaw axis
2. direction of turn
3. angular velocity about true vertical axis
4. speed of turn
a 1, & 3
b 2, & 3
c 3, & 4
d 1, & 2
34. If an aircraft, fitted with a DRMC, takes off on a westerly heading, in the northern
hemisphere, the DRMC will indicate:
a a turn to the north
b oscillates about west
c no turn
d a turn to south
35. When turning through 900 at constant attitude and bank, a classic Artificial Horizon
indicates:
a nose up and correct angle of bank
b attitude and bank angle are correct
c nose up and bank angle too low
d nose up and bank angle too high
36. The factors which will affect a Turn Indicator are:
1. angle of bank
2. aircraft speed
3. aircraft weight
a. all 3
b. 1 & 2
c. 1 & 3
d. 2 & 3
37. To obtain heading information from a Gyro Stabilised platform, the gyros should have:
a 1 degree of freedom and a horizontal axis
b 1 degree of freedom and a vertical axis
c 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal axis
d 2 degrees of freedom and a vertical axis
38. What are the inputs to the ADC?
1. OAT
2. dynamic pressure
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3. TAT
4. static pressure
5. electric power
6. pitot pressure
7. AOA
a. 1, 2, 5 & 6
b. all 7
c. 3, 4 & 6
d. 3, 4, 5, 6, & 7
39. The properties of a Turn Indicator are:
1. One degree of freedom
2. two degrees of freedom
3. two springs connected to the aircraft frame
4. spin axis in the longitudinal plane
5. spin axis parallel to the yaw axis
6. spin axis horizontal
a 1, & 6
b 2, & 5
c 1, & 4
d 2, & 6
40. A gravity erector system corrects errors on a:
a. DGI
b. artificial horizon
c. turn indicator
d. RIMC
41. In a Gyro magnetic Compass the flux gate transmits information to the:
a heading indicator
b amplifier
c error detector
d erecting system
42. VNO is the max. speed which:
a the pilot can fully deflect the controls.
b should only be exceeded in still air and with caution.
c should never be exceeded.
d must not be exceeded for flap/gear extension
43. If while level at FL 270, at a constant CAS, temperature falls, what happens to the Mach
No.
a decreases.
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b increases.
c remains constant.
d increases depending on whether temp >ISA or < ISA.
44. If the static vent becomes blocked on an unpressurised a/c, what could you do?
a open the window.
b break the VSI glass.
c compute altitude mathematically.
d Select standby pitot source
45. What does the “barbers pole” on an ASI indicate?
a VMO & altitude.
b VMO & temperature.
c VNO
d VNE
46. On board a/c, true altitude shown from:
a standard atmosphere.
b pressure altitude.
c density altitude.
d temperature altitude.
47. On a turn and slip indicator, needle to the left and ball to the right indicates:
a turn to the right, not enough bank.
b turn to the left, too much bank.
c turn to the left, not enough bank.
d turn to the right, too much bank.
48. What is density altitude:
a altitude in the standard atmosphere at which the prevailing density is equal to the
density in the standard atmosphere
b pressure altitude corrected for prevailing temp.
c temperature altitude.
d pressure corrected
49. A radio altimeter is:
a ground based and measures true altitude.
b ground based and measures true height.
c a/c based and measures true altitude.
d a/c based and measures true height.
50. An a/c is travelling at 120 kts, what angle of bank would be required for a rate 1(one) turn:
a. 300
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b. 120
c. 180
d. 350
51. An a/c is travelling at 100 kts forward speed on a 30 glideslope. What is its rate of descent?
a 500 ft/min.
b 300 ft/min.
c 250 ft/min.
d 600 ft/min.
52. If the pitot tube is leaking (and the pitot drain is blocked) in a non-pressurised a/c, the
ASI will:
a under-read.
b over-read.
c over-read in the climb, under-read in the descent.
d under-read in the climb, over-read in the descent.
53. An RMI rose is mechanically stuck on 090 degrees. The ADF pointer indicates 225
degrees. What is the relative bearing to the beacon?
a 225 degrees.
b 135 degrees.
c Cannot be determined.
d 000 degrees.
54. Using a classic Artificial Horizon, the a/c performs a right turn through 270 degrees at a
constant angle of bank and rate of turn. The indication is:
a Nose up, too much bank.
b Nose up, not enough bank.
c Nose up, wings level.
d Bank and pitch correct.
55. In a DGI what error is caused by the gyro movement relative to the earth?
a. Earth Rate
b. Transport Wander
c. real wander
d. latitude error
56. In a right turn while taxiing, the correct indications are:
a Needle left, ball right.
b Needle left, ball left.
c Needle right, ball right.
d Needle right, ball left.
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57 An aircraft is taking of on a runway heading 0450, in still air, with a compass having 00
deviation. The runway is on an agonic line. What are the northerly turning errors (NH)?
a. compass moves to less than 0450
b. compass moves to more than 0450
c. compass stays on 0450 if wings are kept level
d. compass remains on 0450
58. True heading can be converted into magnetic heading using a compass and:
a A map with isogonal lines.
b A map with isoclinal lines.
c A deviation card.
d A deviation curve
59. At sea level ISA, TAS:
a Equals CAS
b Is greater than CAS
c Is less than CAS
60. What will the altimeter read if the layers beneath the aircraft are all colder than standard?
a read lower than the real altitude
b read higher then the real altitude
c read the correct altitude
d readings will fluctuate
61. The flux valve in a RIMC
a is supplied with AC current (usually 487.5 Hz).
b is fed with DC.
c is made of perm-alloy magnetic steel.
d has its own self exciter unit.
62. The indications of a machmeter are independent of:
a Temperature (OAT)
b Static Pressure
c Differential static and dynamic Pressure
d Dynamic Pressure
63. An artificial horizon has:
a 1 degree of freedom and an horizontal axis.
b 2 degree of freedom and an horizontal axis.
c 1 degree of freedom and a vertical axis.
d 2 degree of freedom and a vertical axis.
64. The rigidity of a gyro is improved by:
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a Increasing RPM and concentrating the mass on the periphery of the rotor.
b Increasing RPM and concentrating the mass at the hub of the rotor.
c Decreasing RPM and concentrating the mass on the periphery of the rotor.
d Decreasing RPM and concentrating the mass at the hub of the rotor.
65. What is the speed of sound at sea level ISA
a 644kts.
b 661kts.
c 1059 kts
d 583kts.
66. What is the speed of sound at 25,000 ft and -28⁰C.
a 624kts.
b 618kts.
c 601kts
d 610kts.
67. What is the speed of sound at 30,000 ft and -40 degrees C.
a 562kts.
b 595kts.
c 590kts.
d 661kts.
68. If a constant CAS is maintained in a climb, what happens to the mach number
a. remains constant
b. increases
c. decreases
69. A compass swing is used to:
a align compass north with magnetic north.
b align compass north with true north.
c align magnetic north with true north.
d get true north and lubber line aligned.
70. The TAT probe measures TAT by:
a TAT = SAT + kinetic heating.
b TAT = SAT - heating due to compressibility.
c TAT = SAT - kinetic heating.
d TAT = SAT + heating due to compressibility.
71. If a pitot tube and drains are blocked at altitude by icing, during a descent the ASI will:
a read constant airspeed.
b under read.
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c over read.
d show zero.
72. An IRS is aligned when turned on so as to:
a calculate the computed trihedron.
b establish true and magnetic north.
c establish position relative to true north and magnetic north.
d establish magnetic north.
73. The advantages of an ADC over a traditional pitot - static system (list)
1. Position and compressibility correction.
2. reduced lag
3. ability to supply many instruments
4. ability to act as an altimeter following failure.
5. (apparently all the answer bar one had 4 as a correct answer)
a. 1, 2 & 3
b. 1, 2 & 4
c. 2, 3 & 4
d. 1, 3 & 4
74. The frequency band used for a Radio Altimeter is:
a. SHF
b. VHF
c. UHF
d. LF
75. What is the purpose of the latitude nut in a DGI?
a. to correct for latitude error
b. to correct for transport wander
c. to correct for earth rate
d. to correct for coriolis error
76. Total Air Temp is always ____ than Static Air Temp and the difference varies with ______.
a warmer, altitude.
b colder, altitude.
c warmer, CAS.
d colder, CAS.
77. In a slightly banked turn, the turn needle will indicate:
a roll rate.
b rate of yaw.
c angular velocity about the vertical axis.
d rate of pitch.
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78. The Primary Flying Display (PFD) displays information dedicated to:
a. engine data and alarms
b. flight path
c. weather radar
d. aircraft systems
79. What are the inputs to the FMS?
1. Radio Aids
2. Engine Parameters
3. Air Data
4. Route Data
5. Terminal Data
6. Operating Data
a. 1, 3, 4 & 6
b. 2, 3, 4, & 5
c. All of the above
d. 1, 2, 3 & 6
80. What are the upper and lower limits of the yellow arc on an ASI?
a. lower limit VLO and upper limit VNE
b. lower limit VLE and upper limit VNE
c. lower limit VNO and upper limit VNE
d. lower limit VLO and upper limit VLE
81. What does the blue line on an ASI of a twin propeller engined aircraft indicate?
a. VYSE
b. VNO
c. VFE
d. VMCA
82. The gravity erecting device on a vertical gyro is used on which instrument;
a. directional gyro unit
b. turn indicator
c. artificial horizon
d. gyromagnetic device
83. In a VSI lag error is improved by:
a. bi-metalic strip
b. two
c. use of an accelerometer system
d. return spring
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84. An aircraft fitted with a DRMC is landing in a southerly direction, in the Southern
Hemisphere. What indications will be seen on the DRMC?
a. 180⁰ turn to east
b. no apparent turn
c. turn to west
85. What is the maximum drift of a gyro, due to earth rate:
a. 90⁰ per hour
b. 180⁰ per hour
c. 15⁰ per hour
d. 5⁰ per hour
86. An aircraft is flying a true track of 3600 from 50 south to 50 north. What is the change in
apparent wander rate:
a. 00 per hour
b. + 50 per hour
c. - 50 per hour
d. depends upon groundspeed
87. When turning through 1800 at constant attitude and bank, a classic Artificial Horizon
indicates:
a nose up and correct angle of bank
b attitude and bank angle are correct
c nose up and bank angle too low
d nose up and bank angle too high
88. What is the Schuler period?
a. 48 minutes
b. 84 seconds
c. 48 seconds
d. 84 minutes
89. Mach number is defined as:
a. The ratio of pitot pressure to dynamic pressure
b. The ratio of static pressure to dynamic pressure
c. The ratio of dynamic pressure to static pressure
d. The ratio of static pressure to pitot pressure
90. You are flying at a constant FL 290 and constant mach number. The total temperature
increases by 50. The CAS will:
a. remain approximately constant
b. increase by 10 kts
c. decrease by 10 kts
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d. will increase or decrease depending on whether you are above or below ISA.
91. An aircraft turns from south-west to south-east when situated at 450N, what heading
should you roll out on if using a DRMC?
a. 130⁰
b. 115⁰
c. 140⁰
d. 155⁰
92. What is SAT?
a. relative temperature measured in K
b. differential temperature measured in K
c. relative temperature measured in 0C
d. ambient temperature measured in 0C
93. If an aircraft climbs, at constant mach No, in ISA conditions what happens to the TAS and
the CAS?
a. TAS increases and CAS increases
b. TAS remains constant and CAS decreases
c. TAS decreases and CAS increases
d. TAS decreases and CAS decreases
94. Where is the earth rate wander, and the transport wander of a gyro equal to zero?
a. North Pole
b. Equator
c. 45⁰ N
d. 45⁰ S
95. What happens when the static pressure supply, to an altimeter, becomes blocked during a
descent?
a. reduces to zero
b. over reads
c. under reads
d. indicates altitude at which blockage occurred
96. What happens when the static vent supplying an ASI is blocked, and the ram air inlet
remains clear?
a. ASI acts opposite to an altimeter
b. ASI always over reads / reads a higher value
c. ASI always under reads / reads a lower value
d. ASI acts like an altimeter
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97. In a left turn while taxiing, the correct indications are:
a Needle left, ball right.
b Needle left, ball left.
c Needle right, ball right.
d. Needle right, ball left.
98. VLO is defined as:
a. the maximum speed at which to fly with the landing gear retracted
b. the maximum speed at which the landing gear may be retracted or extended
c. the maximum speed at which to fly with the landing gear extended
d. the minimum speed at which to fly with the landing gear extended
99. VNE is defined as:
a. the speed which must not be exceeded in still air, or without caution
b. the speed above which the landing gear may not be extended
c. the speed which must never be exceeded
d. the maximum speed for normal flap extension to be selected
100. In a left turn, the ball of the turn co-ordinator is out to the right, what corrective action is
required?
a. more right rudder
b. less right bank
c. more left bank
d. more left rudder
101. In a gyro magnetic compass, where does the torque motor get its information from?
a. the flux gate
b. error detector
c. the rotor gimbal
d. amplifier
102. If an aircraft is descending at constant mach number, and the total air temperature
remains constant, what happens to the CAS?
a. remains constant
b. decreases
c. increases
d. increases if the temperature is below standard, and decreases if the temperature is above
standard
103. What are the advantages of a laser gyro compared to a conventional gyro?
a. has a longer cycle life
b. takes longer to set up/ spin up
c. uses more power
d. takes longer to align
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104. A machmeter measures the ratio of;
a. pitot pressure to static pressure
b. (pitot pressure minus static pressure) to static pressure
c. pitot pressure times static pressure
d. pitot pressure to (static pressure times pitot pressure)
105. Which instrument has a 2° rotation in the horizontal axis?
a. artificial horizon
b. flux detector
c. directional gyro indicator
d. turn indicator
106. The maximum drift error sensed by an uncompensated DGI will be:
a. 15° per hour
b. 30° per hour
c. 45° per hour
d. 60° per hour
107. The green arc on the ASI is used to identify which speed range:
a. Vso to Vno
b. Vs1 to Vfe
c. Vs1 to Vno
d. Vs1 to Vlo
108. Pressure altitude may be defined as:
a. lowest forecast regional pressure
b. pressure measured in the standard atmosphere
c. altitude indicated with QFE set on the altimeter
d. altitude indicated with QNH set on the altimeter
109. What is the effect on an altimeter reading if variations in static pressure occur near to the
pressure source?
a. a change in hysterysis error
b. a change in the instrument error
c. a change in the position error
d. a change in the compressibility error
110. What is the value of the angle of magnetic dip at the South Pole?
a. 0°
b. 45°
c. 90°
d. 60°
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111. A standby artificial horizon must have the following properties:
1. a remote gyro
2. its own power supply
3. only to be used in emergency
4. its own gyro
5. one for each certified pilot
a. all the above
b. 1,3, & 5
c. 2, 3, & 4
d. 2 & 4
112. During a descent at constant CAS and total temperature, the mach no:
a. increases
b. remains constant
c. increases if SAT is greater than standard temperature and decreases if it is lower
d. decreases
113. The single most significant item which makes a servo altimeter more accurate is:
a. electromagnetic pick-off
b. logarithmic scale
c. temperature compensated spring
d. multiple pointers
114. Which of the following gyro instruments has one degree of freedom?
a. artificial horizon
b. turn indicator
c. directional gyro
d. slaved gyro compass
115. If a large aircraft is slide slipped to starboard, and the port static vent is blocked, what
will the altimeter read?
a. under read
b. read correctly
c. Over read
d. fluctuate
116. Mach number is determined from: (PT = total pressure, PS = static pressure)
a. (PT + PS) x PT
b. (PT - PS) x PS
c. (PT x PS) x PT
d. (PT - PS) / PS
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117. The right static vent is blocked, when the aircraft yaws to the right. Does the altimeter:
a. Over read
b. under read
c. unaffected
118. If the radio altimeter fails:
a. height information disappears
b. aural warning given
c. radio alt flag, red lamp, and aural warning given
d. radio alt flag and red lamp activates.
119. During a descent at a constant mach number, there is an increase of total temperature by
50. What effect does this have on CAS?
a. remains almost constant
b. increases if SAT is more than standard and decreases if SAT is less than standard
c. increases by 10 kts
d decreases by 10 kts
120. VNO is defined as:
a. maximum structural cruising speed
b. never exceed speed
c. manoeuvring speed
d. maximum operating speed
121. If the left static vent is blocked, and the right static vent is clear. What will the altimeter
read if the aircraft maintains constant level?
a. read correctly whatever the situation
b. under read
c. if side slipping to the left, altimeter will over read.
d. if side slipping to the right, altimeter will over read.
122. An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude, over a cold airmass. The altimeter
reading will be:
a. greater than the real altitude
a standard altitude
b same as the real altitude
d. less than the real altitude
123. The machmeter compares: (PT = total pressure, PS = static pressure)
a. (PT - PS) to PT
b. (PT + PS) to PS
c. (PT - PS) to PS
d. PT to PS
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124. From where does the air data computer (ADC) obtain aircraft altitude?
a. OAT probe
b. dynamic – absolute ambient pressure
c. absolute barometric sensor on aircraft fuselage
d. IRS
125. An aircraft is accelerating to take-off on a runway with a QDM of 045°. Which way does
the DRMC move, if the aircraft is in the Northern Hemisphere?
a. less than 45°
b. more than 45°
c. correct if wings are level
d. correct
126. When turning right onto north, through 900, what heading on your DIC should you roll
out on, if the aircraft is in the Northern Hemisphere?
a. 020°
b. 360°
c. 340°
d. 320°
127. What does a radio altimeter, for an aircraft in the landing configuration, measure:
a. height of aircraft wheels above the ground
b. height of the aircraft above the ground
c. altitude of the aircraft
d. altitude of the aircraft wheels
128. Why is a servo altimeter better than a sensitive altimeter?
a. it has a pick-off coil
b. it is more accurate at low level
c. it has ambient pressure in the capsule
d. it is fitted with a knocking device
129. In an altimeter what is fed to: the capsule (i) and to the case (ii)?
a. (i) vacuum (ii) static input
b. (i) static input (ii) vacuum
c. (i) pitot input (ii) static input
d. (i) total input (ii) ambient input
130. What principle does the radio altimeter work on?
a. pulse modulation
b. amplitude modulation
c. pulse modulation and carrier wave
d. frequency modulation and carrier wave
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131. What is indicated on the ASI when the static vent blocks during a descent?
a. under reads
b. reads correctly
c. over reads
d. reads zero
132. A rate integrating gyro is used in:
a. inertial attitude unit
b. autopilot system
c. inertial navigation system
d. a rate of turn indicator
133. The error in a Directional Gyro due to the earth’s rotation, at a mean latitude of 450 N,
will cause the spin axis to move by:
a. 10.6° Clockwise
b. 10.6⁰ Anti-clockwise
c. 7.6⁰ Clockwise
d. 7.6⁰ Anti-clockwise
134. What are the components of a Ring Laser Gyro?
a. mirrors and 2 cavities
b. 2 anodes and 2 cathodes
c. 2 beams of laser light
d. horizontal gryo axis and 1 degree of freedom
135. Where on the earth’s surface is the earth rate drift of a DGI equal to 15.040 per hour?
a. 15°
b. 30°
c. 0°
d. 90°
136. If you maintain the same CAS and Altitude (FL270), and the temperature increases, what
happens to the Mach No?
a. increases at an exponential rate
b. decreases at an exponential rate
c. remains the same
d. increases
137. If CAS is kept constant, what happens to the Mach No?
a. as the altitude increases the mach No will increase
b. as the altitude increases the mach No will decrease
c. as the temperature increases the mach No will increase
d. as the temperature decreases the mach No will decrease
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138. The pendulous type correction detector fitted to the DGI provides:
a. torque on the sensitive axis
b. two torque motors on the horizontal axis
c. pendulous internal nozzle on the outer gimbal
d. one torque motor
139. An aircraft is fitted with two altimeters. One is corrected for position error, the other is
not corrected for position error.
a. ATC will receive erroneous information of flight level
b. at high speed the non-compensated altimeter will show a lower altitude
c. provided that the ADC is working normally, there will be no error to either altimeter
d. at high speed the non-compensated altimeter will show a higher altitude
140. Density altitude is defined as:
a. the altitude of the airfield elevation corrected for Lapse Rate
b. the altitude reading on the altimeter which has QNH set on it
c. the altitude corresponding to the standard atmosphere compensated for ambient density
d. the altitude showing on the altimeter with the lowest regional QNH set
141. The pitot tube of an ASI gives a direct reading of:
a. static pressure
b. total & static pressure
c. total pressure
d. dynamic pressure
142. When descending from FL230 to FL50 at maximum speed, the limitations which apply
are:
a. VMO
b. VMO then MMO
c. MMO then VMO
d. MMO
143. The pressure measured at the forward face of the Pitot probe is:
a. dynamic pressure
b. static pressure
c. total pressure
d. total pressure + static pressure
144. What has inputs from the flux valve;
a. error detector
b. heading indicator
c. amplifier
d. precession motor
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145. Machmeter readings are subject to which of the following errors;
a. density error
b. setting error
c. temperature error
d. position/pressure error
146. Sound propagates at a speed which depends only on:
a. density
b. temperature
c. temperature & pressure
d. pressure
147. What aircraft system uses a frequency of 4,400 MHz?
a. SSR
b. radio altimeter
c. weather radar
d. ATC radar
148. A low altitude Radio Altimeter, used in precision approaches, has the following
characteristics:
1. 1540MHz to 1660 MHz range
2. pulse transmissions
3. frequency modulation
4. height range between 0 and 5,000ft
5. an accuracy of +/- 2ft between 0 and 500ft
a. 1, 4 and 5
b. 3 and 4
c. 3 and 5
d. 2, 3 and 5
149. A modern low altitude Radio Altimeter uses the principle of:
a. pulse modulated waves, with the difference between the transmitted and received waves
displayed on a circular screen.
b. Frequency modulated waves, where the difference between the transmitted wave and the
received wave is measured.
c. Wave modulation, with frequency shift due to Doppler effect of the ground reflected wave
being measured
d. Triangular wave, with the frequency shift of the ground reflected wave being measured
150. The frequencies used in a low altitude Radio Altimeter are:
a. 5 GHz to 6 GHz
b. 5400 MHz and 9400 MHz
c. 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz
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d. 2700 MHz to 2900 MHz
151. The difference between Magnetic North and True North can be derived by:
a. deviation curve
b. deviation card
c. map with isoclinic lines
d. map with isogonal lines
152. A direction gyro gets its directional information from:
a. air data computer
b. direct reading magnetic compass
c. flight director
d. flux valve
153. What is the principle of operation of a VSI:
a. differential pressure across a capsule
b. total pressure in a capsule
c. static pressure in a capsule
d. dynamic pressure in a capsule
154. In a Remote Indicating Compass, what component feeds the Amplifier?
a. gyro precession signal
b. flux valve
c. annunciator
d. error detector
155. An aircraft turns right, through 900, onto North, at 48N, using a direct indicating
compass. The aircraft is turning at rate 2. What heading should the aircraft roll out on?
a. 010°
b. 030°
c. 330°
d. 350°
156. What is the normal operating range of a low altitude Radio Altimeter?
a. 0 to 2,500ft
b. 50ft to 2500ft
c. 0 to 10,000ft
d. 0 to 7,500ft
157. What is a radio altimeter used for?
a. to determine aircraft height above mean sea level
b. to determine aircraft height above ground level
c. to determine pressure altitude
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d. to determine aircraft altitude
158. Why must Latitude and Longitude be inserted into an IRS?
a. to determine the aircraft position relative to the earth
b. to check the IRS position with the Flight Management System
c. to enable the levelling procedure to commence
d. to determine the accuracy of the alignment
159. An aircraft is flying a true track of 3600 from 50 south to 50 north. What is the average
apparent wander rate:
a. 0° per hour
b. + 5° per hour
c. - 5° per hour
d. depends upon groundspeed
160. You commence a rate 2 turn from south-east to south-west, in the Northern Hemisphere.
On what heading do you stop the turn?
a. 240°
b. 255°
c. 235°
d. 205°
161. A directional gyro is valid only for a short period of time. The causes of this inaccuracy
are:
1. earth rotation
2. longitudinal accelerations
3. a/c motion over the earth
4. mechanical defects
5. gyro mass
a. 1, 3 & 5
b. 1, 3 & 4
c. 1, 2 & 3
d. all of the above
162. A VMO / MMO alarm system, on an airline aircraft, is fitted with an aneroid capsule
which is:
a. subjected to static pressure and an anemometer subjected to dynamic pressure
b. subjected to dynamic pressure and an anemometer subjected to static pressure
c subjected to static pressure and an anemometer subjected to static pressure
d subjected to dynamic pressure and an anemometer subjected to dynamic pressure
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163. An aircraft, in the southern hemisphere, is decelerating to land on a westerly heading.
The direct reading magnetic compass will indicate:
a. an apparent turn to north
b. an apparent turn to south
c. correctly
d. an oscillation about west
164. What is the input to a VSI?
a. static pressure
b. differential pressure
c. total pressure
d. dynamic pressure
165. The component(s) used to align an inertial strap-down unit in the horizontal plane
is/are:
a. Accelerometers and gyroscopes
b. Accelerometers
c. Flow inductors
d. Gyroscopes
166. A ring laser gyro consists of;
a. A gyro with 2 degrees of freedom
b. Two moving cavities using mirrors
c. A laser split into two beams
d. Two electrodes (anodes and cathodes)
167. The Directional Gyro Indicator (DGI) can:
a. not align itself with magnetic north
b can automatically align itself with magnetic north
c have 1° of freedom
d. have 2° of freedom
168. The Pitot tube comprises a mast to position it below the skin of the aircraft for:
a. avoid disturbance from aerodynamic flow about the aircraft
b. position it outside the boundary layer
c. anti-ice protection
d. easy access for maintenance
169. Using a classic Artificial Horizon, the a/c performs a right turn through 360 degrees at a
constant angle of bank and rate of turn. The indication is:
a. Nose up, too much bank.
b. Nose up, not enough bank.
c. Nose up, wings level.
d. Bank and pitch correct.