Sample Paper Class: X going to XI

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 150

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes, specifically for this purpose.
Instructions to candidates
1. Answers are to be given in the separate OMR sheet.
2. Don't break the seal unless you're instructed to do so. If the seal is broken before the scheduled time, penalty will be
minus 10 marks.
3. There are 150 questions in this test paper. All questions are compulsory. Questions numbered 1 to 30 belong to
Science, 31 to 45 pertain to Mathematics, 46 to 75 belong to Social Science and 76-150 are on Mental Ability.
4. Please ensure that the question paper you have received contains all the questions in each section and pages. If you
find any mistake like missing question or pages then contact the invigilator, immediately.
5. Please follow the instructions given on the OMR sheet for marking the answers.
6. Write your nine-digit registration number, allotted to you in the admit card, clearly on the test-booklet.
7. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the OMR sheet /loose paper.
8. Each correct answer will be awarded one mark.
9. There is no negative marking.
10. Please return, only the OMR sheet to the invigilator, after the test.
11. Use black ball point pen only provided in the examination hall.
12. Write your registration number very clearly (only one digit in one block) on this booklet.
13. Answer each question, by darkening the correct alternative among the four choices on the OMR Sheet as shown
below.

14. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited and all questions carry equal marks, you should make
the best use of it by not spending too much time on one question. Time permitting, you can come back to the
question, which you have left in the first instance and try them again.
15. Use of whitener/white fluid, is strictly prohibited, on the OMR sheet, for changing the answer.
Note: Please turn over the page and start answering only after you are asked to do so.

Sample Paper/Page 1
 Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)
01. Two vertical plane mirros are inclined at an angle 07. Figure below shows an object OA and its image
60° with each other. A ray of light travelling IB formed by a concave lens. The possible posi-
horizontally is reflected first from one mirror and tion of lens could be:
then from the other. The resultant deviation is
(1) 60° (2) 120°
(3) 180° (4) 240°
02. An object is placed in front of a plane mirror. If
the mirror is moved away from the object through (1) In the left of object OA
a distance x, by how much distance will the image (2) In the right of image IB
move?
(3) In between object OA and image IB
x (4) Either left of object OA or in the right of
(1) (2) 2x image IB
2
(3) x (4) 4x 08. Eight resistors are connected in a circuit as shown
03. A battery is below. If Rxy represents equivalent resistance be-
(1) a single cell tween any points x and y then
(2) a combination of cells in which cells are
joined (+) to (–)
(3) a combination of cell in which cells are joined
(+) to (+)
(1) RAB = RCD (2) RAC = RBD
(4) None of these
(3) RAB = RAD (4) RBD = RAD
04. Refractive index of glass with respect to water is
09. If the index finger points towards the north and
5/4 and the refractive index of water with respect
to air is 4/3. What is the refractive index of glass the middle finger towards the east while using
with respect to air? Fleming’s left-hand rule, what will be the direc-
(1) 5/3 (2) 5/4 tion of the force acting on the conductor?
(3) 16/15 (4) 1.5 (1) South (2) West
05. Two resistors of 6  and 9  are connected in (3) Upward (4) Downward
series to a 120 V source. The power consumed by 10. A current that always flows in the same direction
the 6  through an electrical device is called
(1) 384 W (2) 576 W (1) a direct current
(3) 1500 W (4) 1800 W (2) an alternating current
06. The resistivity of a wire is proportional to its length (3) a varying current
as (4) a magnetic current
11. Chemically rust is
1
(1) (2)  2 (1) ferric sulphate
 (2) ferric oxide
1 (3) hydrated ferrous oxide
(3) 2 (4) 0
 (4) hydrated ferric oxide
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Sample Paper/Page 2
12. Corrosion of metal can be prevented 16. Which of the following is (are) an endothermic
(1) by coating the metal surface with a paint process?
(2) by applying film of grease and oil on the (i) Dilution of sulphuric acid
surface of the metal (ii) Sublimation of dry ice
(3) by covering the surface of the metal with (iii) Condersation of water vapours
another metal which is more electropositive (iv) Evaporation of water
(4) all of these (1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii) only
13. The main cause of rancidity is (3) (iii) only (4) (ii) and (iv)
(1) oxidation of fatty acid molecules 17. Identify the chemical equation which represents a
(2) antioxidant complete balanced equation for the reaction of
(3) bacteria barium chloride with sodium sulphate to produce
(4) none of these barium sulphate and sodium chloride
14. What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is (1) BaCl2(aq) + Na2SO4(aq) 
 BaSO4(s) +
added to iron filings? NaCl (aq)
(1) Hydrogen gas and iron (II) chloride are (2) BaCl2(aq) + Na2SO4(aq) 
 BaSO4(s) +
produced
2NaCl(aq)
(2) Chlorine gas and ferric hydroxide are
(3) 2BaCl2(aq) + Na2SO4(aq) 
 2BaSO4(s)
produced
+ NaCl(aq)
(3) Heat is absorbed, i.e., test tubes becomes
(4) BaCl2(aq) + Na2SO4(aq)   BaSO4(s) +
cold
2NaCl(aq)
(4) Iron salt and water are produced 18. A dilute ferrous sulphate solution was gradually
15. The given equation represents the reaction of added to the beaker containing acidified
sodium metal with water: permanganate solution. The light purple colour of
the solution fades and finally disappears. Which
Sodium + Water   Sodium hydroxide + of the following is the correct explanation for the
Hydrogen observation
Which of following chemical equations represents (1) KMnO4 is an oxidising agent, it oxidises
a complete balanced chemical equation for the FeSO4
given word equation?
(2) FeSO4 acts as an oxidising agent and oxidises
(1) 2Na(s) + H2O(l)   2NaOH(aq) +H 2
(g) KMnO4
(3) The colour disappears due to dilution; no
(2) Na(s) + 2H2O(l)   NaOH (aq) + H2(g) reaction is involved
(3) 2Na(s) +2H2O(l)   2NaOH(aq)+2H2(g) (4) KMnO4 is an unstable compound and de-
composes in presence of FeSO4 to a
(4) 2Na(s) +2H2O(l)   2NaOH(aq)+H2(g) colourless compound

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Sample Paper/Page 3
19. Which among the following is(are) double 23. Which of the following tissue gives tensile strength
displacement reaction(s)? against bending and swaying?
(i) Pb + CuCl2  (1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma
 PbCl2 + Cu
(3) Scleren chyma (4) None of these
(ii) Na2SO4 + BaCl2   BaSO 4
+ 2NaCl 24. Which part of brain controls salivation and blood
pressure?
(iii) C + O2   CO2
(1) Cerebrum (2) Medulla
(iv) CH4 + 2O2   CO 2
+ 2H2 (3) Cerebellum (4) Hypothalamus
(1) (i) and (iv) (2) (ii) only 25. Which kind of plastid is more common in flowers
(3) (i) and (ii) (4) (iii) and (iv) and fruits.
20. Which among the following statement (s) is (are) (1) Chloroplasts (2) Leuco plasts
true? Exposure of silver chloride to sunlight for a (3) Chromo plasts (4) Proteinoplasts
long duration turns grey due to 26. The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide,
(i) the formation of silver by decomposition of water and energy. Takes place in presence of
oxygen in
silver chloride (1) Cytoplasm (2) mitochondria
(ii) sublimation of silver chloride (3) choloroplast (4) nucleus
(iii) decomposition of chlorine gas from silver 27. Rings of cartilage are present in
chloride (1) oesophagus (2) bile duct
(iv) oxidation of silver chloride (3) throat (4) small intestine
(1) (i) only (2) (i) and (iii) 28. Which of the following plant hormones causes
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (iv) only wilting of leaves?
21. Guard cells are capable of photosynthesis because (1) Gibberellin (2) Cytokinin
they have (3) Auxin (4) Abscisic acid
(1) Cytoplasm, nucleus, centrioles 29. Insulin is produced by
(2) Cytoplasm, nucleus, centrosome (1) Pituitary (2) Pancreas
(3) Cytoplasm, nucleus, chloroplasts (3) Thyroid (4) Adrenal
(4) Cytoplasm, nucelus, chromosomes 30. The example of unisexual flower is
22. A and B are the two reproductive organs of (1) Hibiscus
females. A is responsible for nourishment of the (2) Mustard
developing embryo and B is where sperms (3) Papaya
encouter egg, A and B respectively are :- (4) None of these
(1) Vagina and uterus 31. The corresponding sides of two similar triangles
(2) Ovary and fallopian tube are in the ratio 2 to 3. If the area of the smaller
triangle is 12, the area of the larger is.
(3) Fallopian tube and uterus (1) 24 (2) 27
(4) Uterus and fallopian tube (3) 18 (4) 8
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Sample Paper/Page 4
32. If CD=15, DB=9, A D bisects A, ABC=900, then 37. In the following figure, if O is the centre of the
AB has length: circle and radius OA=14 cm, then the area of the
C shaded portion
is :
D

A B

(1) 32 (2) 18 (3) 7 (4) 24

33. Triangle PAB is formed by three tangents to circle (1) 7  cm2 (2) 49  cm2
O and APB=400, then angle AOB
(3) 98  cm2 (4) 196  cm2
R
B 38. The volume of the greatest sphere that can be cut
O
Q
off from a cylindrical log of wood of base radius 3
P
40° cm and height 7 cm is :
A T
(1) 108 cm3 (2) 36 cm3
(1) 450 (2) 500 4
(3) 600 (4) 700 (3) 12cm3 (4) cm3
3
34. Which of the following shapes of equal perimeter, 39. If a, b are coprime, them a2, b2 are:
the one having the largest area is: (1) coprime (2) Not coprime
(1) circle (2) equilateral triangle (3) Odd numbers (4) Even numbers
(3) square (4) regular pentagon 40. If ,  and  are the zeros of the cubic polynomial
35. The circle and the square have the same center 3x3 – 5x2 – 11x – 3, then the value of      is:
and the same area. If the circle has radius 1, 5 –11
The length of AB, is: (1) (2)
3 3
–5
(3) 1 (4)
3
41. For what value of k, do the equations 3x – y + 8 =
A B 0 and 6x – ky =–16, represent coincident lines?
1 1
(1) 4–  (2) 4  2  (1)
2
(2)
2
(3) 2   (4) 4   (3) 2 (4) –2
2
36. A circle is inscribe in trapezoid PQRS. If 42. If one root of the equation px – 14x + 8 = 0 is six
PS=QR=25 cm, PQ=18 cm and SR=32 cm, what times the other, the p is equal to–
is the length of the diameter of the circle? (1) 2 (2) 3
P Q (3) 1 (4) None of these
th
43. If the n term of an AP is (7 – 4n), then its common
difference is
(1) 7 (2) 4 (3) –3 (4) –4
S R 44. The first negative term of A.P. 24, 21, 18, 15, ......
(1) 14 cm (2) 25 cm is:
(1) 9th term (2) 10th term
(3) 24 cm (4) 674 cm
(3) 11th term (4) 13th term
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Sample Paper/Page 5
45. If cos  + sin  = 2 cos  , then cos  –sin  =? 52. Minerals are deposited and accumulated in the
strata of which of the following rocks?
(1) 2 tan  (2) 2 sin 
(1) Sedimentary rocks
2 (2) Metamorphic rocks
(3) (4) None of these
cos   sin  (3) Igneous rocks
46. In which one of the following states is the black (4) Solid rocks
soil found? 53. Which of the following mineral is formed by
(1) J & K (2) Gujarat decomposition of rocks leaving a residual mass
(3) Rajasthan (4) Jharkhand of weathered material?
47. Alluvial Soil have been deposited by three (1) Coal (2) Bauxite
important Himalayan river systems-the Indus, the (3) Gold (4) Zinc
Ganga and 54. Koderma in Jharkhand is the leading producer of
(1) The Mahanadi which one of the following minerals?
(2) The Godavari (1) Bauxite (2) Mica
(3) The Brahmaputra (3) Iron ore (4) Copper
(4) The Krishna 55. Which one of the following is contained in the
48. The June 1992, more than 100 heads of states met monazite sand?
for the first International Earth Summit in (1) Oil (2) Uranium
(1) Madrid, Spain (3) Thorium (4) Coal
(2) London, UK 56. Name the rock which is made of one mineral.
(3) Rio de Janerio, Brazil (1) Backlight (2) Stone
(4) New York,USA (3) Gemstone (4) Limestone
49. The Hirakud project in the_________basin 57. Name the industry in which India is self-reliant?
integrates conservation of water with flood control. (1) Textile (2) Sugar
(1) Mahanadi (2) Kosi (3) Iron and Steel (4) Chemical
(3) Son (4) Luni 58. Which one of the following criteria is the basis to
50. Jawahar Lal Nehru proudly proclaimed the dams measure the development of a country according
as to UNDP?
(1) Pillars of modern India (1) Per capita income
(2) Temples of modern India (2) Educational levels of the people
(3) Ttubewells of modern India
(4) Symbols of modern India (3) Health status of the people
51. Roof top rain water harvesting is the most common (4) All of the above
practice in
59. Money borrowed from bank and cooperative
(1) Indore, Madhya Pradesh
(2) Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh societies comes under which source of credit?
(3) Kokrajhar, Assam (1) Informal (2) Formal
(4) Shillong, Meghalaya (3) Semi-formal (4) None of these
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Sample Paper/Page 6
60. Which sector is also called the agricultural and 67. When was the use of English for official purposes
allied sector? stopped?
(1) Primary sector (2) Secondary sector (1) 1956 (2) 1958
(3) Tertiary sector (4) None of these (3) 1960 (4) 1965
61. The sectors are classified into public and private 68. Identify the significant reason of power sharing
sector on the basis of: from the following options.
(1) employment conditions (1) Reduces socio-economic conflicts
(2) the nature of economic activity (2) Provides ethnic-cultural development
(3) ownership of enterprises (3) Allows people to enjoy specific rights
(4) number of workers employed in the enterprise (4) Restricts supremacy of one party
62. A deposit with a bank that can be withdrawn 69. Name two materials which were exported to
whenever the depositor likes to do so, is termed England from India.
as: (1) Cotton and silk
(1) a demand deposit (2) Silk and jute
(2) a time deposit (3) Cotton and jute
(3) a fixed deposit (4) Cotton and metals
70. Name the author of the book dawn of the century?
(4) a legitimate deposit
(1) E.T. Paull
63. Which one of the following options describe
(2) James Hargreaves
‘collateral’?
(1) Double coincidence of wants (3) Elgin Mill
(2) Certain products for barter (4) Andrew Yule
(3) Trade in barter 71. Which of the following was Mahatma Gandhi’s
(4) Asset as guarantee for loan noble method of fighting against the British?
64. Which of the following is not an example of (1) He used violent method of stone pelting
‘holding together’ federations?
(2) He used arson to burn down government
(1) India (2) Spain
offices
(3) Belgium (4) Switzerland
(3) He fought with the principle of ‘an eye for an
65. Which of the following countries have one-party
eye’
system?
(1) China (2) USA (4) He practised open defiance of law, peaceful
(3) UK (4) India demonstration, Satyagraha and Non-violence
66. In which Schedule of the Indian constitution are 72. Who among the following wrote the Vande
the 22 scheduled languages included? Mataram?
(1) Tenth Schedule (1) Rabindranath Tagore
(2) Eighth Schedule (2) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(3) Twelfth Schedule (3) Abanindranath Tagore
(4) Ninth Schedule (4) Dwarkanath Tagore
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Sample Paper/Page 7
73. Which one of the following countries adopted 75. How did the production of manuscripts became
majoritarianism in their Constitution? possible in Europe?
(1) Nepal (2) India (1) Paper reached Europe via the Arab world
(3) Sri Lanka (4) Bangladesh (2) Chinese paper reached Europe via the silk
74. “Print culture created the conditions within which route
French Revolution occurred.” Which one of the (3) The Europeans discovered paper
following option support this statement? (4) None of the above
(1) Print popularised the ideas of the enlightened
thinkers
(2) Provided a critical commentary on modernity
and despotism
(3) Print created a new culture of dialogue and
debate of clergies
(4) Print culture spread the views of nobility only

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Sample Paper/Page 8
 Mental Ability Test (MAT)
Directions (76 to 77): In each question there are circles. Directions (81 to 85): Out of nine cells of a square
Certain numbers are given inside/outside the one cell is left blank, and in the rest of the cells
circles according to a particular rule. In each numbers are written which follows some rules. Get
question one of the circles has a (?) mark inside it. the rule and find out the proper option for the blank
Choose the correct answer to fill in the space cell (?).
marked (?) from the given alternatives.
81.
76.

(1) 9 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4

77. (1) 72 (2) 12

(3) 18 (4) 13

82.
(1) 2 (2) 5
(3) 7 (4) 31
Directions (78 to 80): These questions are based on
letter series in which some of the letters are
missing. The missing letters are given in the proper
sequence in one of the alternatives among the four (1) 18 (2) 54 (3) 81 (4) 15
given under each question. Find out the correct
alternatives for each question.
83.
78. a ___ ___ ab ___ aa ___ ___ bb
(1) abbab
(2) ababa
(3) baabb
(4) None of these
79. nc ___ ddc ___ nn ___ d ___ d ___ nn (1) 6 (2) 9 (3) 15 (4) 18
(1) dnccd
(2) dndcc 84.
(3) dncdc
(4) ddnad
80. ab ___ cba ___ bccb ___ a ___ cc ___ aa ___ c
(1) bcacbb (2) caabbb
(1) 31 (2) 30 (3) 10 (4) 08
(3) caabcb (4) cbaccc
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Sample Paper/Page 9
 89. AES : AIW :: ? : CHN
85. (1) CKS (2) CFL
(3) CFT (4) CBF
90. EFLK : ? :: GEKM : GIOM
(1) IHON (2) HOIN
(3) IHNO (4) HION
(1) RQ (2) RT (3) PR (4) RP 91. ? : HXVH :: GSUG : GWUG
(1) FRTF (2) FRFT
86. Six girls are sitting in a circle facing toward the
(3) TFRT (4) FKTF
centre. Sarita is sitting to the left of Kamla and 92. JKTU : ? :: JLUW : PNUS
right to Radha, is just opposite to Shilpi. Shilpi is (1) POVU (2) POUV
sitting left to Saroj but right to Shobha. (3) OVUP (4) VOUP
Who is sitting in between Radha and Shilpi. Direction (93-95): Each of the following questions is
(1) Saroj (2) Sarita based on the following information.
(3) Shobha (4) Kamla A # B means B is at 1 metre to the right of A.
87. If in the above question the position of girls Saroj A $ B means B is at 1 metre to the North of A.
and Sarita change their position. Similarly Shobha A * B means B is at 1 metre to the left of A.
and Radha also change their positions. In new A @ B means B is at 1 metre to the south of A.
positions who is sitting right to
In each question the first person from the left is
the Sarita? facing North.
(1) Saroj (2) Shobha 93. According to X @ B * P, P is in which direction
(3) Kamla (4) Shilpi with respect to X?
Directions (88 to 92): The following questions are (1) North (2) South
based on the arrangement of alphabets in the form (3) North-East (4) South-West
of a pyramid. In each question there is some 94. According to M # N $ T, T is in which direction
relationship between the two sets of letters on the with respect to M?
left of the (::).
(1) North-West (2) North-East
The same relationship exists between the two
(3) South-West (4) South-East
terms on the right of which one is missing. Find
the missing one from the given alternatives. 95. According to P # R $ A * U, in which direction is
U with respect to P?
(1) East (2) West
(3) North (4) South
96. A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W
X Y Z.
88. ABD : ADB :: AEI : ? Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to
(1) AIE (2) EAI the right of the letter and which is the tenth letter
(3) IEA (4) AEI to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet?
(1) X (2) W (3) I (4) H
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Sample Paper/Page 10
97. How many pairs of letters are there in the word 104.3, 7, 6, 5, 9, 3, 12, 1, (?), –1
'NURSING' which have as many letters between (1) 3 (2) 4
them as in the alphabet? (3) 13 (4) 15
(1) One (2) Three 105. 0, 2, 6, 12, (?), 30
(3) Five (4) Six (1) 25 (2) 27
98. Arrange the given words Alphabetical Order and (3) 16 (4) 20
choose the one that comes first. 106.16, 33, 65, 131, (?), 523
(1) Science (2) Scrutiny (1) 261 (2) 521
(3) Scripture (4) Scramble (3) 613 (4) 721
99. The total age of Amar, Akbar and Anthony is 80 Directions (107 to 111): These questions consist of a
years. What was the total of their ages three years
number series which contains a wrong term. This
ago?
term is given as one of the four alternatives among
(1) 71 years (2) 72 years the four numbers given below. The wrong term is
(3) 74 years (4) 77 years -
[Link] bus tickets from city A to B and three tickets 107.10, 14, 16, 18, 21, 24, 26
from city A to C cost Rs. 77 but three tickets from (1) 18 (2) 21
city A to B and two tickets from city A to C cost (3) 24 (4) 26
Rs. 73. What are the fares for cities B and C from 108.6, 9, 15, 21, 24, 28, 36
A? (1) 21 (2) 24
(1) Rs. 4, Rs. 23 (2) Rs. 13, Rs. 17 (3) 28 (4) 30
(3) Rs. 15, Rs. 14 (4) Rs. 17, Rs. 13 109.0, 9, 26, 65, 125, 217, 342
[Link] institute organised a fete and 1/5 of the girls (1) 9 (2) 125
and 1/8 of the boys participated in the same. What (3) 65 (4) 342
fraction of the total number of students took part 110.5, 10, 17, 28, 42, 58, 77
in the fete? (1) 42 (2) 28
(1) 2/13 (2) 13/40 (3) 58 (4) 17
(3) Data inadequate (4) None of these 111.1, 6, 40, 120, 360, 720, 720
Directions (102 to 106): In each question there is a (1) 120 (2) 1
number series with one term missing shown by (3) 6 (4) 40
question mark (?). This termin one of the
Directions (112 to 115): Each question consists of four
alternatives among the four numbers given under
it. That number is- groups. One set is different from the other three in
some way. Find out the different set-
102.5, 10, 13, 26, 29, 58, 61, (?)
112.(1) NMRQ (2) FEIH
(1) 64 (2) 122 (3) 125 (4) 128
(3) SRWV (4) HGLK
103.13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, (?), 41
113.(1) ATLER (2) TALER
(1) 33 (2) 37
(3) TALEN (4) LATER
(3) 39 (4) 35
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Sample Paper/Page 11
114.(1) M.S. DHONI [Link] of the following is TRUE regarding Q?
(2) SACHIN TENDULKER (1) P stands second to the left of Q.
(3) VISWANATHAN ANAND (2) S is one of the immediate neighbours of Q.
(4) SHANE WARNE (3) Only one person stands between Q and T.
115.(1) MERCURY (2) IRON (4) Q stands at one of the extreme ends of the
(3) ZINC (4) COPPER line.
Directions (116 to 120): In the following questions [Link] of the following four form a group as per
there is a letter series with one term missing shown the given arrangement. Which of the following
by (?). does not belong to that group?
Find this term. (1) RQ (2) TP (3) VT (4) UV
[Link], EGI, (?), ACE, YAC [Link] is the position of V with respect to U?
(1) ECG (2) CEG (1) Immediate left
(3) GCE (4) EGC (2) Second to the right
[Link], ADWZ, (?), AHSZ (3) Third to the right
(1) AFUZ (2) AUFZ (4) Immediate right
(3) ZFUA (4) ZUFA [Link] of the following pairs stand at the extreme
[Link], (?), SZBV, UYAX, WXZZ ends of the line?
(1) WUWZ (2) YTVB (1) Q, S (2) Q, P
(3) ASVD (4) QACT (3) Q, T (4) V, S
[Link], NLJH, FDBZ, XVTR, (?) [Link] of the following represents the position of
R from the left end of the line?
(1) JLPN (2) LJPN
(1) Fifth (2) First
(3) NPLJ (4) PNLJ
(3) Sixth (4) Fourth
[Link], DFHJ, (?), HJLN, JLND
Directions (126 to 127): In each question there are
(1) JLNR (2) FHJL
circles.
(3) JLNR (4) HJLN
Certain numbers are given inside/outside the
Direction (121-125): Study the following information circles according to a particular rule. In each
to answer the given questions. question one of the circles has a (?) mark inside it.
Seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are standing Choose the correct answer to fill in the space
in a straight line facing north but not necessarily marked (?) from the given alternatives.
in the same order.
 U stands second from the left end of the line.
 Only two people stand between U and T.. 126.
 Only one person stands between P and R.
 V stands third to the left of R.
 Neither R nor U is an immediate neighbour of (1) 36 (2) 40 (3) 45 (4) 50
S.

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 [Link] is the two-digit number ?
127. Statements
(i) Both the digits of the two-digit number are
even and the sum of their digits is 12.
(ii) The two digits of the two-digit number are
(1) 35 (2) 47 not the same.
(3) 45 (4) 47 (1) Only statement (i) is sufficient to answer the
question
Direction (Questions 128-130): In the following
(2) Only statement (ii) is sufficient to answer the
questions, the question is followed by two question
Statements (i) and (ii). (3) Both statement (i) and statement (ii) are
Youhave to determine whether. needed to answer the question
(4) Neither statement (i) nor statement (ii) is
Only statement (i) is sufficient to answer the
sufficient to answer the question.
question.
[Link] is the tallest amongst the four friends
Only statement (ii) is sufficient to answer the Kimaya, Aashvi, Vihana and Pari ?
question. Statements:
Both statement (i) and statement (ii) are needed to (i) Aashvi is not the tallest but taller than Vihana
and Kimaya.
answer the question.
(ii) Vihana is the shortest amongst the four
Neither statement (i) nor statement (ii) is sufficient friends.
to answer the question. (1) Only statement (i) is sufficient to answer the
question
[Link] is the date today?
(2) Only statement (ii) is sufficient to answer the
Statements question
(i) We are in the second week of March. (3) Both statement (i) and statement (ii) are
needed to answer the question
(ii) The date today is an odd number.
(4) Neither statement (i) nor statement (ii) is
(1) Only statement (i) is sufficient to answer the sufficient to answer the question.
question. [Link] objects or words given below form a certain
group. Which one of the following does not belong
(2) Only statement (ii) is sufficient to answer the
to the group?
question Spectacles, Earrings, Bicycle, Shoes, Bangles
(3) Both statement (i) and statement (ii) are (1) Bicycle
needed to answer the question (2) Shoes
(4) Neither statement (i) nor statement (ii) is (3) Earrings
sufficient to answer the question. (4) Spectacles
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[Link] is a 3-digit code to open a lock. There are [Link] starts driving in the direction of his shadow at
four 3-digit numbers and hints have been provided sunset. After going 120 km, he turns right and
corresponding to those numbers to crack the code. drives for 40 km more. Then again, he takes a 90°
Crack the code and mark that as your answer. anticlockwise turn and drives slowly for 30 km.
821 – One digit is correct but wrongly placed. Then he realizes he has taken a wrong turn and so
379 – None of the digits are correct. he takes a 135° clockwise turn and drives fast for
486 – Two digits are correct but wrongly placed. 50km. By that time, it was sunrise and Jon decided
538 – Two digits are correct and rightly placed. to go 180 km in the direction of his shadow. After
going 180 km how far is he from his start point?
(1) 528 (2) 845
(1) 120 km (2) 60 km
(3) 485 (4) 548
(3) 100 km (4) 80 km
[Link] a class 45% students study Mathematics, 55%
study physics, 40% study Chemistry, 30% study [Link], Saurav, Sehwag and Dravid are playing
Mathematics and Physics, 15% study Physics and Carrom. Sachin and Dravid are in one team.
Chemistry, 25% study Mathematics and Chemistry Saurav is sitting to the left of Dravid. Sehwag is
and 10% study all three subjects. What percentage facing South-West, then in which direction is
do not read any subject?
Sachin facing?
(1) 10% (2) 15%
(1) North (2) South-East
(3) 25% (4) 20%
Direction(134-135): study the following number series (3) North-west (4) North-East
to answer the given question. Directions (140-141): In each of the following
2, 6, 7, 5, 4, 3, 7, 4, 8, 9, 4, 3, 2, 5, 4, 7, 9, 8, 6, 8, questions there are three statements, which are
7, 1, 2, 5, 3, 7, 6, 8, 9, 3, 6. followed by three or four conclusions. Choose the
[Link] many 3s are there in the series which are conclusions which logically follow from the given
statements.
immediately preceded by an even number and
immediately followed by an odd number? [Link]: All the locks are keys. All the keys
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 3 are bats. Some watches are bats.
[Link] many such numbers are there in the series
which are immediately preceded by its multiple? Conclusions:
(1) 3 (2) 1 (3) 5 (4) 4 1. Some bats are locks.
[Link] to a girl in the picture, Salman said, “Her
mother’s brother is the only son of my mother’s 2. Some watches are keys.
father.” How is the girl’s mother related to Salman? 3. All the keys are locks.
(1) Sister (2) Aunt
(3) Grandmother (4) None of these (1) Only (1) and (2)
[Link] towards Mohan, ‘Ram’ says ‘He is the (2) Only (1)
son of the only daughter of my grandfather’. How
(3) Only (2)
is ‘Ram’ related to ‘Mohan’?
(1) Uncle (2) Father (4) Only (1) and (3)
(3) Brother (4) Son
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[Link]: Some keys are staplers. Some staplers [Link] out the pair in which the words bear the same
are stickers. All the stickers are pens. relationship to each other as similar to the words
Conclusions: of the given pair bear.
1. Some pens are staplers. India : Tricolour
2. Some stickers are keys. (1) China : Sickle and Hammer
3. No sticker is key. (2) UK : Red Cross
4. Some staplers are keys. (3) USA : Stars and Stripes
(1) Only (1) and (2) (4) None of these
(2) Only (2) and (4) [Link] out the pair in which the words bear the same
relationship to each other as similar to the words
(3) Only (2) and (3)
of the given pair bear.
(4) Only (1) and (4) and either (2) or (3)
Fish : Shoal
Direction(Ques. 142-143): There is a series provided
(1) Audience : Theater
to you where one of the entry is wrong. Analyze
the series and find the wrong entry. (2) Shark : School
142.2, 12, 38, 80, 150, 252, 392 (3) Elephant : Flock
(1) 392 (2) 2 (4) Whale : Herd
(3) 38 (4) 150 [Link] ‘SILVER’ is coded as ‘ZXYBDQ’ and
143.0, 6, 24, 60, 95, 210, 336 ‘KAMAL’ is coded as LNCNY, then what will be
(1) 210 (2) 336 the code for ‘VIKAS’?
(3) 120 (4) 95 (1) BXNLZ (2) ZXYCN
Directions (Ques. 144-145): In following question (3) BXLNZ (4) LNCBD
in certain code language if ‘+’ mean ‘x’, ‘–’ means [Link] B = 2 and BAG = 10, then BOX = ?
‘+’, ‘x’ means ‘  ’, and ‘  ’ means ‘–’ then answer (1) 36 (2) 39
the following questions. (3) 41 (4) 52
144.16 + 2 – 3  4 = ? [Link] the odd word.
(1) 31 (2) 26 (1) Orange (2) Apple
(3) 15 (4) None of these (3) Guava (4) Grapes
145.9 + 3  18 x 3 + 4 = ?
(1) 30 (2) 3
(3) 13 (4) 0

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 Sample Paper Class: X going to XI

ANSWER KEY

01. (4) 02. (2) 03. (3) 04. (3) 05. (1) 06. (4) 07. (2)
08. (1) 09. (3) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. (1)
15. (4) 16. (4) 17. (4) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (2) 21. (3)
22. (4) 23. (2) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (4)
29. (2) 30. (3) 31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (4) 34. (1) 35. (4)
36. (3) 37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (1) 40. (1) 41. (3) 42. (2)
43. (4) 44. (2) 45. (2) 46. (2) 47. (3) 48. (3) 49. (1)
50. (2) 51. (4) 52. (1) 53. (2) 54. (2) 55. (3) 56. (4)
57. (1) 58. (4) 59. (2) 60. (1) 61. (3) 62. (1) 63. (4)
64. (4) 65. (1) 66. (2) 67. (4) 68. (1) 69. (3) 70. (1)
71. (4) 72. (2) 73. (3) 74. (1) 75. (2) 76. (3) 77. (1)
78. (4) 79. (3) 80. (2) 81. (4) 82. (1) 83. (4) 84. (1)
85. (2) 86. (1) 87. (2) 88. (1) 89. (2) 90. (4) 91. (1)
92. (1) 93. (4) 94. (2) 95. (3) 96. (2) 97. (2) 98. (1)
99. (1) 100. (2) 101. (3) 102. (2) 103. (2) 104. (4) 105. (4)
106. (1) 107. (2) 108. (3) 109. (2) 110. (1) 111. (4) 112. (2)
113. (3) 114. (3) 115. (1) 116. (2) 117. (1) 118. (4) 119. (4)
120. (2) 121. (3) 122. (3) 123. (1) 124. (4) 125. (4) 126. (3)
127. (3) 128. (4) 129. (4) 130. (1) 131. (1) 132. (4) 133. (4)
134. (3) 135. (2) 136. (3) 137. (3) 138. (3) 139. (2) 140. (2)
141. (4) 142. (3) 143. (4) 144. (1) 145. (2) 146. (3) 147. (2)
148. (3) 149. (3) 150. (4)

For any correction or query related to answer key, contact +91 81262 61333

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