27-04-2025

2001CMD303001250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) Maximum value of 5 sinθ – 12 cosθ is:-

(1) 13
(2) 5
(3) 12
(4) None

2)

The value of sin (300°) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Value of sin 1° is approximately equal to:-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

4) cos =?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Calculate the value of sin (106°)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) The maximum and minimum values of expression (4–2 cos θ) respectively are

(1) 4 and 0
(2) 4 and 2
(3) 6 and 0
(4) 6 and 2

7) Sec 135° is equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The value of sin 275° × cosec 275° is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 0
(4) None of these

9) In the shown diagram, arc length AB will be (in cm)

(1) 18π
(2) 6π
(3) 9π
(4) 12π
10)

(1) 420°
(2) 210°
(3) 450°
(4) 480°

11) Value of cos 2° nearly–

(1) 2

(2)

(3) 1
(4) 0

12) Range of cosθ will be:-

(1) –1 ≤ cos θ ≤ 0
(2) 1 ≤ cos θ ≤ –1
(3) –1 ≤ cos θ ≤ 1
(4) –∞ ≤ cos θ ≤ ∞

13) Value of tan θ is positive in quadrants

(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) II and IV
(4) I and III

14)

Select correct alternatives :-

(i) 1 rad = 57.3 degree
(ii) 1 degree = 60 minute
(iii) 1 minute = 60 seconds

(iv) 1 right angle = 90 degree

(1) (ii, iii)
(2) (ii, iv)
(3) (i, iii, iv)
(4) (i, ii, iii, iv)

15) tan (–53°) =

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

16) If y = x3 + 2 then will be

(1)

(2) 3x4 + 2x
(3) 3x2 + 2
(4) 3x2

17) Find the derivative of given function y w.r.t. corresponding independent variable, x.
y = tan x + cot x

(1) sec2x – cosec2x

(2) tan2x – cosec2x
(3) secx + cosecx
(4) secx + cosec2x

18) Find derivative of given functions w.r.t. the independent variable x.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) If y = x5 + x3 + 10 ; then is equal to

(1) 5x4 + x2
(2) 5x4 + 2x2
(3) 5x4 + 3x2
(4) x4 + 3x2

20) If
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

21) Find

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

22) If y = sin4x, find

(1)

(2)

(3) 4cos4x
(4) –4cos4x

23) If y = sin (3t + 4) ; then is equal to :

(1) –3cos (3t + 4)

(2) 36sin (3t + 4)
(3) 3cos (3t + 4)
(4) 12cos (3t + 4)

24) The slope of graph as shown in figure at points 1, 2 and 3 is m1, m2 and m3 respectively then

(1) m1 > m2 > m3

(2) m1 < m2 < m3
(3) m1 = m2 = m3
(4) m1 = m3 > m2

25) Magnitude of slope of the shown graph.

(1) First increases then decreases
(2) First decreases then increases
(3) Increases
(4) Decreases

26)

(1)
(2) 0
(3)
(4) None of these

27) Find minimum value of y = 5x2 – 2x +1.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) An edge of variable cube is increasing at the rate of 3 cm/sec. How fast is the volume of cube
increasing when the edge is 10 cm long ?

(1) 500 cm3/sec

(2) 600 cm3/sec
(3) 900 cm3/sec
(4) 300 cm3/sec

29) A car moves along a straight line whose equation of motion is given by s = 12t + 3t2 – 2t3
where s is in metres and t is in seconds. The velocity of the car at start will be :–

(1) 7 m/s
(2) 9 m/s
(3) 12 m/s
(4) 16 m/s
30)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31)

(1) x + ℓn x + C

(2)
+ ℓn x + C

(3)
+ ℓnx + 2x + C
(4) None of the above

32) What is the integral of

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) =

(1)

(2) 4e4x + c

(3)

(4) e4x + c

34) Area bounded by the curve y = cos x and x–axis for x equal to from 0 to is

(1) 1
(2) 0
(3) 2
(4) 3

35) If –3x – 5y = 15 then y – x graph is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Equation for the straight line graph shown in the figure is :-

(1) y = 3 + x
(2) x = 3 + y
(3) y = 3 – x
(4) x = 3 – y

37) The graph for xy = 2 will be :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

38) The equation of shown sinusoidal graph is–

(1) y = sinx
(2) y = 5sinx
(3) y = 10sinx
(4) y = sin2x

39) If then graph between x & y :–

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

40)

Find out graph for equation y = 2x2 :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41)
The sum of given infinite G.P series is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) Calculate =?

(1) 1.01
(2) 1.02
(3) 0.99
(4) 0.999

43) =

(1)

(2)

(3) 0
(4) 2

44) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) log10 10 = 1
(2) log (2 + 3) = log2 + log3
(3) log10 1 = 0
(4) log(1×2×3) = log1 + log2 + log3

45) cos can be represented as :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY
1) Calculate the energy of a photon of sodium light of wavelength 2 × 10–16 m

(1) 9.9 × 10–10 J

(2) 6.6 × 10–11 J
(3) 9.9 × 10–12 J
(4) 4.8 × 10–11 J

2) The energy ratio of a photon of wavelength 3000Å and 6000Å is :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

3) The isotopes of Br, 35Br79 and 35Br81 are in the ratio 1 : 1. Then average atomic weight is :-

(1) 79.5
(2) 80
(3) 80.5
(4) None of these

4) If radius of second stationary orbit of hydrogen atom is R, than calculate radius of third orbit of H-
atom.

(1)

(2) 9R

(3)

(4) 2.25R

5) The energy of electron is maximum at :-

(1) Nucleus
(2) Ground state
(3) First excited state
(4) Infinite distance from the nucleus

6) According to the Bohr theory, which of the following transitions in the hydrogen atom will give
rise to the least energetic photon ?

(1) n = 6 to n = 1
(2) n = 5 to n = 4
(3) n = 6 to n = 5
(4) n = 5 to n = 3

7) As we go away from the nucleus, energy of the orbits

(1) increases
(2) decreases
(3) remains constant
(4) first increases, then decreases

8) If electron falls from n = 3 to, n = 2 then emitted energy is

(1) 10.2eV
(2) 12.09eV
(3) 1.9eV
(4) 0.65eV

9) The energy of hydrogen atom in its ground state is –13.6 eV. The energy of the level
corresponding to n = 5 is :-

(1) –0.54 eV
(2) –5.40 eV
(3) –0.85 eV
(4) –2.72 eV

10) If change in energy = 3 × 10–8 J, h = 6.64 × 10–34 J-s and c = 3 × 108 m/s, then wavelength of the
light is:-

(1) 6.36 × 103 Å

(2) 6.36 × 105 Å
(3) 6.34 × 10–8 Å
(4) 6.36 × 1018 Å

11) What is the maximum wavelength line in the lyman series of He+ ion ?

(1) 3R

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

12) The energy of the second Bohr orbit in the hydrogen atom is –3.41eV. The energy of the second
Bohr orbit of He+ ion would be :

(1) –0.85 eV
(2) –13.64 eV
(3) –1.70 eV
(4) –6.82 eV

13) The ratio of velocity of electron in second and third shell of Li+2 ion :
(1) 2 : 3
(2) 3 : 2
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 : 1

14)

Which of the following pair of element belongs to isotones -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) When electron of a hydrogen atom jumps from n = 4 to n = 2 state, number of maximum
possible spectral lines emitted is :-

(1) 15
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Smallest wavelength occurs for :-

(1) Lyman series

(2) Balmer series
(3) Paschen series
(4) Brackett series

17) The ionisation potential of an atom is 16 ev. what is the value of first excitation potential :-

(1) 10.2 ev
(2) 12 ev
(3) 14 ev
(4) 16 ev

18) What is the charge on S–2 ?

(1) 2C
(2) 3.2 × 10–19 C
(3) 1.6 × 10–19 C
(4) None of these

19) Match the following :-

 (a) Isotopes (i) Same no. of electrons

(b) Isobars (ii) Same value of A-Z

(c) Isoneutronic (iii) Same no. of protons

(d) Isoelectronic (iv) Same value of n+p

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

20) Bohr's model can explain:

(1) spectrum of hydrogen atom only

(2) spectrum of any atom or ion having one electron only
(3) spectrum of hydrogen molecule
(4) solar spectrum

21) The ratio of e/m, i.e., specific charge for a cathode ray:

(1) has the smallest value when the discharge tube is filled with H2
(2) is constant
(3) varies with the atomic number of gas in the discharge tube
(4) varies with the atomic number of an element forming the cathode

22) Which is not characteristics of Planck's quantum theory of radiation?

(1) Radiation is associated with energy

(2) Energy is not absorbed or emitted in whole number or multiples of quantum
(3) The magnitude of energy associated with a quantum is proportional to the frequency
Radiation energy is neither emitted not absorbed continuously but in small packets called
(4)
quanta

23) Increase in the frequency of the incident radiations increases the :

(1) rate of emission of photo-electrons

(2) work function
(3) kinetic energy of photo-electrons
(4) threshold frequency

24) Threshold wavelength depends upon:

(1) frequency of incident radiation

(2) velocity of electrons
(3) work function
(4) none of the above
25) An increasing order (lowest first) for the values of e/m for electron (e), proton (p), neutron (n)
and alpha (α) particle is:

(1) e, p, n, α
(2) n, α, p, e
(3) n, p, e, α
(4) n, p, α, e

26) Deuterium nucleus contains:

(1) 1p + 1n
(2) 2p + 0n
(3) 1p + 1e–
(4) 2p + 2n

27) Which is not deflected by magnetic field -

(1) Neutron
(2) Positron
(3) Proton
(4) Electron

28) Rutherford’s experiment on scattering of alpha particles showed for the first time that atom has

(1) Electrons
(2) Protons
(3) Nucleus
(4) Neutrons

29)

α - particles are represented by –

(1) Lithium atoms

(2) Helium nuclei
(3) Hydrogen nucleus
(4) None of these

30) The e/m ratio is maximum for :-

(1) D+
(2) He+
(3) H+
(4) He2+

31) An electron in an atom jumps in such a way that its kinetic energy changes from x to x/4. The
change in potential energy will be

(1) +3/2 x
(2) –3/2 x
(3) +3/4 x
(4) –3/4 x

32) Splitting of a spectral line in presence of magnetic field is known as

(1) Stark effect

(2) Zeeman effect
(3) Photoelectric effect
(4) Heisenberg uncertainty principle

33) Which of the following series of transitions in the spectrum of hydrogen atom fall in visible
region?

(1) Lyman series

(2) Balmer series
(3) Paschen series
(4) Brackett series

34) If threshold wavelength for ejection of electron from metal is 330 nm, then work function
for the photoelectric emission is

(1) 6 × 10–10 J
(2) 1.2 × 10–18 J
(3) 3 × 10–19 J
(4) 6 × 10–19 J

35) Bohr’s model is based upon

(1) Heisenberg’s principle

(2) de–Broglie’s concept
(3) Schrodinger’s wave equation
(4) Planck's quantum theory

36) Number of special line in Balmer series when an electron return from 7th orbit to 1st of
hydrogen atom are

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 21
(4) 8

37) The third line in the Balmer series corresponds to an electronic transition between which Bohr
orbit in Hydrogen?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

38) When α-particles are sent through a thin metal foil, most of them go straight from the foil
because ?

(1) α-particles are positively charged

(2) Most of the space is empty in an atom
(3) α-particles are striking with low speed
(4) None of these

39)

An element has 18 electrons when its charge is –2 and it also has 20 neutron. What is its mass
number ?

(1) 38
(2) 39
(3) 40
(4) 36

40) Millikan's oil drop expriment is used to find

(1) e/m ratio of electron

(2) Electronic charge
(3) Mass of an electron
(4) Specific charge of electron

41) Mass of proton is times the mass of electron:-

(1) 1837
(2) 1450
(3) 1610
(4) None of these

42) Bohr's theory is not applicable to

(1) He
(2) Li+2
(3) He+2
(4) 1 and 3 Both

43) The potential energy of an electron second Bohr's orbit of the He+ ion is :-
(1) –54.4 eV
(2) –27.2 eV
(3) –103.3 eV
(4) –13.6 eV

44) Which one of the following statement is correct about photo electric effect?
(a) There is no time lagging b/w strinking of beam of light and ejection of e–
(b) No of ejected e– proportional to intensity of light
(c) Threshold frequency below which photo electric effect is not observed
(d) Threshold frequency above which photo electric effect is not observed.

(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, b, c

45) Which of the following is an example of isodiapher?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Living organism is differentiated from non living organism on the basis of which defining feature ?

(1) Growth
(2) Locomotion
(3) Metabolism
(4) Reproduction

2) Statement-I: Isolated metabolic reaction outside the body of an organism. Performed in a test
tube is neither living nor nonliving. Statement-II: Intrinsic growth is unique feature of living
organisms.

(1) Both I and II are correct

(2) Both are false
(3) Statement I is wrong
(4) Statement II is wrong

3) All plants, animals, fungi and microbes exhibit

(1) Reproduction
(2) Growth by increase in mass only
(3) Metabolism
(4) Self-consciousness

4) Twin characters of growth are :

(1) Increase in length

(2) Increase in width
(3) Increase in mass and cell number
(4) Both (1) & (2)

5) Statement-I : In majority of higher animal and plants, growth and reproduction are mutually
exclusive events.
Statement-II : Non-living object also grow if we take increase in body mass as a criterion for
growth.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

6) Which of the following is most important property of life, but can not be taken as defining
property.

(1) Reproduction
(2) Cellular organisation
(3) Metabolism
(4) Consciousness

7) Which among these easily multiply by fragmentation :-

(1) Filamentous Algae and Protonema of moss

(2) Yeast and Hydra
(3) Dinoflagellates and Slime moulds
(4) Monerans and Protistans

8) Living organisms are ——A——, ——B—— and ——C—— interactive systems capable of responding
to external stimuli.

(1) A-Self-Replicating, B-Evolving, C-Non-Regulating

(2) A-Unable to Replicating, B-but evolving, C-Self-Regulating
(3) A-Unable to Replicating, B-non evolving, C-Self-Regulating
(4) A-Self-Replicating, B-Evolving, C-Self-Regulating

9) The properties of tissues :

(1) Are present in their constituent cells

(2) Are due to dissimilar cells in them
(3) Are due to their dissimilar origin
(4) Arise as a result of interactions among their constituent cells

10) The defining characteristics of all living organisms among the following are
(A) Response to stimuli
(B) Self consciousness
(C) Growth
(D) Metabolism
(E) Reproduction

(1) Only A & D only

(2) Only A & B
(3) Only B & C
(4) A, B, D only

11) Extrinsic and intrinsic growth are respectively in :-

(1) Mountain, Boulders

(2) Humans, Mango tree
(3) House fly, Mountains
(4) Sand dune, Human

12) Find the correct statements from the following-

(A) All living phenomena are due to underlying interactions.
(B) Properties of tissues are due to interaction among its constituent cells.
(C) Properties of cellular organelles are due to their molecular constituents and not due to the
interactions among them.
(D) All living organisms present, past and future are linked to one another by the sharing of common
genetic material in equal magnitude.

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) A, B, & C
(4) A & D

13) Non-living objects

1. Grows from external surface by collecting substance on it.
2. Grows from internal surface like living.
3. Do not grow at all.
Which of the followings option is correct?

(1) Only 1 correct

(2) Only 2 correct
(3) Only 3 correct
(4) All 1, 2, 3 correct

14) Which of the following statements regarding growth is incorrect?

(1) In plants, growth by cell division is seen only upto a certain stage.
(2) Growth exhibited by non-living objects is by accumulation of material on the surface.
(3) A multicellular organism grows by cell division.
Growth in in vitro culture of unicellular organisms can be observed by counting the number of
(4)
cells.

15) Which of the following is self-conscious?

(1) Human being

(2) Tiger
(3) Lion
(4) Frog

16) The brain dead coma patient who is supported by machines which replace heart and lungs has:-

(1) Only self consciousness

(2) Only consciousness
(3) Both consciousness and self-consciousness
(4) Both consciousness and ability to respond

17) The ability of all organism to sense and respond to external environment is known as–

(1) Consciousness
(2) Sensitivity
(3) Self consciousness
(4) Homeostasis

18) Assertion : Reproduction can not be taken as defining characteristic of living organisms.
Reason : Many living organisms like mule and worker bees do not reproduce.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

19) Select wrongly matched pair–

Most complex
(1) Consciousness
defining feature

(2) Non living things Extrinsic growth

Growth and
(3) Bacteria reproduction
synonymous

Invitro metabolic Considered living

(4)
reactions things
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Match the following columns

Column I Column II

(a) Planaria (i) Binary fission

(b) Fungi (ii) Asexual spores

(c) Yeast (iii) Budding

(d) Hydra (iv) True regeneration

(e) Amoeba (v) Fragmentation

(1) (a)-i, (b)-ii, (c)-iv, (d)-(v), (e)-i
(2) (a)-iv, (b)-ii, (c)-iii, (d)-iii, (e)-i
(3) (a)-iii, (b)-ii, (c)-iii, (d)-i, (e)-iv
(4) (a)-iv, (b)-ii, (c)-i, (d)-iii, (e)-ii

21) Which among the following are defining properties of living beings?

(1) Consciousness
(2) Metabolism
(3) Cellular organisation
(4) All

22) Reproduction is synonymous with growth in which organisms?

(1) Only in plants

(2) Only in animals
(3) Only in multicellular organisms
(4) Only in unicellular organisms

23) Metabolism can be exhibited by ?

(1) Only plant

(2) Plant and animal both
(3) Plant, animal and fungi only
(4) Plant, animal, fungi and microbes

24) How many incorrect statements with respect to growth

(a) Non-living objects do not show growth without exception.
(b) Plant show definite growth
(c) Growth can be internal or external
(d) Animal grow upto a certain age.
(e) Growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive events in unicellular organisms

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 2

25) Find the incorrect statements from the followings:-

(1) Self consciousness is unique character of human

(2) Living organisms are self replicating, evolving and self regulating.
(3) Metabolism, cellular organisation and consciousness are defining characters of livings
(4) Growth and reproduction are defining characteristics of living organisms

26)

Which of the following is a correctly written scientific name ?

(1) Solanum tuberosum

(2) Solanum Tuberosum
(3) Solanum tuberosum
(4) Solanum Tuberosum

27) Choose correct scientific name of mango.

(1) mangifera indica L.

(2) Mangifera indica Linn.
(3) Mangifera Indica Linn.
(4) Mangifera Indica L.

28) Let us consider Mangifera indica, Solanum tuberosum and Panthera leo. The first words
Mangifera, Solanum and Panthera are-

(1) Name of species

(2) Specific epithet
(3) Generic name
(4) Biological name

29) Animals, mammals, dogs all are taxa. But you know that a dog is a mammal and mammals are
animals. Therefore animals, mammals and dogs represent :-

(1) Taxa at same levels

(2) Taxa / Taxon at different levels
(3) Taxa which have same morphological characters
(4) Taxa at division level

30)
In which book Linnaeus gave binomial system of nomenclature for animals ?

(1) Genera Plantarum

(2) Species Plantarum
(3) Systema Naturae
(4) Philosophia botanica

31) Phylogenetic classification is one which is based on :-

(1) Habit of plants

(2) Over all similarities
(3) Common Evolutionary descent
(4) Number of plant characters

32) In which classification all characters are given equal importance ?

(1) Numerical classification system

(2) Natural classification system
(3) Practical classification system
(4) None of the above

33)

Taxonomically known number of species is :

(1) 1.7 billion

(2) 17 lakh
(3) 5-30 million
(4) 17 million

34) ICBN stands for :-

(1) International committee for biological naming

(2) International code for botanical nomenclature
(3) International code for biological nomenclature
(4) International code for biological naming

35) The term systematics was introduced by :

(1) Linnaeus
(2) Benthem
(3) Mayr
(4) Aristotle

36) The author of the book ‘Systema Naturae’ is [NCERT, P-8]

(1) Carolus Linnaeus

(2) Ernst Prantl
(3) Robert Hooke
(4) Wallace

37) Systematics includes-

(1) Identification
(2) Nomenclature and Classification
(3) Evolutionary relations
(4) All the above

38) "Natural classification" is the best classification system because :-

(1) It involves few vegetative characters.

(2) It involves only two morphological characters.
(3) It involves complete morphological characters.
(4) It involves the economic importance of the plants.

39) The main purpose of classification of organisms is to :-

(1) Study geography

(2) Locate plants and animals
(3) Establish relationships amongst organisms
(4) Study evolution

40) Artificial system of classification given by Linnaeus was based upon

(1) Vegetative characters

(2) Androecium structure
(3) Habit and habitat
(4) All of these

41) Plant classification as proposed by Carolus Linnaeus was artificial because it was based on :-

(1) Only a few morphological characters

(2) All the possible characters
(3) Anatomical characters which are adaptive in nature
(4) Physiological and morphological characters

42) Floral features are commonly used for identification of angiosperms because :-

(1) Reproductive parts are more conservative

(2) Flowers can be safely pressured
(3) Flowers are nice to work with
(4) Flowers have various colours and scents
43) The process by which anything grouped into convenient categories based on some easily
observable characters is called :-

(1) Systematics
(2) New systematics
(3) Nomenclature
(4) Classification

44) Which of the following classification is now easily carried out using computers is based on all
observabale characteristics ?

(1) Natural classification

(2) Artificial classification
(3) Practical classification
(4) Numerical classification

45) Which of the following character forms the basis of modern taxonomic studies?

(1) Structure of cell

(2) Developmental process of organisms
(3) Ecological information of organisms
(4) All of the above

46) Look at the diagram carefully .

Which of the following statement is not correct for the above diagram ?

(1) It represents cuboidal epithelium.

(2) It is composed of a single layer of tall and slender cells
(3) It is commonly found in ducts of glands & tubular parts of nephron in kidney.
(4) It's main functions are secretion & absorption.

47) In columnar epithelium nucleus is located ?

(1) At the base

(2) In middle
(3) On apex part
(4) In peripheral part
48) Connective tissue is ............ in origin ?

(1) Ectodermal
(2) Mesodermal
(3) Endodermal
(4) Ecto-mesodermal

49) Which of the following is present in the alveoli of lungs ?

(1) Simple columnar epithelium

(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Simple squamous epithelium
(4) Sensory epithelium

50)

The ciliated epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in :-

(1) Fallopian tubes and urethra

(2) Eustachian tube and stomach lining
(3) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes
(4) Bile duct and oesophagus

51)

Given epithelia is observed in :-

(1) PCT
(2) Wall of blood vessels
(3) Lining of stomach
(4) DCT

52)

Which is the most abundant tissue among the following ?

(1) Epithelial tissue

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Muscular tissue
(4) Nervous tissue

53)

Tendon is made up of :-

(1) Yellow fibrous connective tissue

(2) Modified white fibrous tissue
(3) Areolar tissue
(4) Adipose tissue

54)

The covering tissues of external and internal surfaces of parts of body in animals is :-

(1) Connective
(2) Muscular
(3) Nervous
(4) Epithelial

55)

The cells of connective tissue which produce histamine is :-

(1) Fibroblasts
(2) Macrophages
(3) Mast cells
(4) Plasma cells

56) Tendon is :-

(1) Areolar connective tissue

(2) Adepose connective tissue
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

57) Bone joins with muscles by :

(1) Areolar tissue

(2) Tendon
(3) Ligament
(4) Dense irrregular connective tissue

58) Find out the correct match for following options :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

59) Which type of epithelium found in fallopian tube ?

(1) Simple squamous epithelium

(2) Stratified keratinized squamous epithelium
(3) Transitional epithelium
(4) Ciliated columnar epithelium

60) Tight Junctions :-

(1) Help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue

(2) Perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together
(3) Provide stretchability to the epithelium
(4) Finger like processes of plasma membrane which inter into cytoplasm of adjacent cell

61)

Tendons connect :

(1) Muscle to muscle

(2) Muscle to Bone
(3) Bone to Bone
(4) Bone to cartilage

62)

Identify the type of tissue and select the correct option regarding the location of tissue :

(1) Collecting duct of nephron

(2) Neck of nephron
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Fallopian tube

63) Epithelium founds in PCT of nephron ?

(1) Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium

(2) Ciliated cuboidal epithelium
(3) Glandular columnar epithelium
(4) Steriociliated cuboidal epithelium

64) The epithelium helps in filtration and diffusion?

(1) Simple squamous epithelium

(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Simple columnar epithelium
(4) Pseudostratified epithelium

65) Recognize the figure and find out correct labelling :-

(1) 'a' – unicellular glandular epithelium like goblet cells of alimentary canal.
(2) 'a' – unicellular glandular epithelium like salivary gland.
(3) 'a' – Multicellular glandular epithelium like salivary gland.
(4) 'a' – Multicellular glandular epithelium like goblet cells of alimentary canal.

66) Cells lining the blood capillaries are called :-

(1) Oxyntic cells

(2) Endothelial cell
(3) Haemocytes
(4) Parietal cell

67) The ground substance of connective tissue is basically composed of :-

(1) Lipids
(2) Monosaccharides
(3) Phospholipids
(4) Mucopolysaccharides

68) Below the skin, the fat is present in the form of :-

(1) Muscles
(2) Lymphoid tissue
(3) Adipose tissue
(4) Areolar tissue

69) In all connective tissues except ..............., the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called
collagen or elastin :-
(1) Blood
(2) Bone
(3) Cartilage
(4) Areolar tissue

70) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column-I Column-II

Help to stop
Adhering substances from
a. 1.
junctions leaking across a
tissue

Perform cementing
b. Gap junctions 2. to keep neighbouring
cells together

Facilitate the cells to

c. Tight junctions 3. communicate with
each other
(1) a–3, b–2, c–1
(2) a–2, b–3, c–1
(3) a–2, b–1, c–3
(4) a–1, b–3, c–2

71) Some of columnar or cuboidal cells get specialised for secretion and are called :-

(1) Ciliated epithelium do not move mucus in any specific direction

(2) Compound epithelium has secretory function
(3) Simple epithelium has a role in mechanical protection
(4) Glandular epithelium and are of two types-unicellular and multicellular

72) Fill in the blanks :-

a. The ....1.... consists of two or more cell layers and has protective function as it does in our skin.
b. The ....2.... is composed of single layer of cells and functions as a lining for body cavities, ducts
and tubes.

(1) 1–simple squamous epithelium, 2–simple cuboidal epithelium

(2) 1–simple columnar epithelium, 2–simple squamous epithelium
(3) 1–simple epithelium, 2–compound epithelium
(4) 1–compound epithelium, 2–simple epithelium

73) In multicellular animals, a group of similar cells along with intercellular substances perform a
specific function. Such an organisation is called-

(1) Epithelium
(2) Organ
(3) Tissue
(4) Organ system

74) Cartilage, bone and blood are example of :-

(1) Loose connective tissue

(2) Dense regular connective tissue
(3) Specialized connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

75) Identify the structure 'A' given in the following figure and it can be general structure of :-

(1) Parotid gland

(2) Sub mandibular gland
(3) Goblet cell
(4) Sublingual gland

76) Here are given two lists, one contain type of epithelial tissue and other contain list of location,
where they are found. Select the correct match.

Squamous
(A) (i) Fallopian tube
epithelia

Cuboidal wall of blood

(B) (ii)
epithelia vessels

Columnar
(C) (iii) Lining of stomach
epithelia

Cliated Tubular parts of

(D) (iv)
epithelia nephron
(1) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv D–i
(2) A – i, B – iii, C – ii D – iv
(3) A – ii, B – iv, C – iii D–i
(4) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv D–i

77) The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of fallopian tubes, trachea and bronchi
is:-

(1) Squamous epithelium

(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Ciliated epithelium
(4) Cuboidal epithelium

78) Match the columns :-

Tight
(A) Unicellular gland (1)
junctions

Facilitate rapid Gap

(B) (2)
transfer of ions junctions

Stopping of
Compound
(C) leakage of (3)
epithelia
substance

Providing
Goblet
(D) protection to (4)
cell
underlying tissues

Simple
(5)
epithelia
(1) A – 2, B – 4, C – 3, D – 5
(2) A – 2, B – 4, C – 3, D – 1
(3) A – 4, B – 2, C – 3, D – 5
(4) A – 4, B – 2, C – 1, D – 3

79) Junctions that perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together is :-

(1) Tight junction

(2) Adhering junction
(3) Gap junction
(4) Interdigitation

80) Compund epithelium is present on :-

(1) Dry surface of skin

(2) Moist surface of buccal cavity
(3) Pharynx
(4) all of above

81) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Colomnar epithelium is present in stomach and intestine

(2) Cilia move the particles in specific direction
(3) Cilia are present in fallopian tube and bronchioles
(4) In PCT simple squamous epithelium is present

82) See the following figure and identify the following simple epithelial tissues :-
 A B C D

Pseudostratified
(1) Squamous Cuboidal Columnar columnar
(ciliated)

Pseudostratified Ciliated
(2) Cuboidal Columnar
squamous columnar

Ciliated
(3) Squamous Cuboidal Columnar
columnar

Ciliated
(4) Cuboidal Squamous Columnar
columnar
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

83) Mucus, saliva, earwax, oil, milk and digestive enzymes are secreted by :-

(1) Exocrine glands

(2) Endocrine glands
(3) Heterocrine glands
(4) Compound glands

84) Identify the tissues A and B shown in the following diagram:

Select the correct option :

A B

(1) Squamous epithelium Columnar epithelium

(2) Cuboidal epithelium Squamous epithelium

 (3) Columnar epithelium Cuboidal epithelium

(4) Compound epithelium Pseudostratified

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

85) Match the following columns:

Column-I Column-II

(a) Adipose tissue 1. Blood

(b) Dense regular 2. Macrophages and mast cells

(c) Fluid connective tissue 3. Fat storage

(d) Areolar tissue 4. Tendon

Select the correct option:

a b c d

(1) 4 3 2 1

(2) 2 4 1 3

(3) 1 2 3 4

(4) 3 4 1 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

86) Fibre free matrix is a characteristic of

(1) calcified cartilage

(2) hyaline cartilage
(3) elastic cartilage
(4) calcified cartilage

87) 'Pubic symphysis' is the example of :-

(1) White fibrous tissue (Sheath)

(2) White fibrous cartilage
(3) Yellow cartilage
(4) Both (1) & (2)

88) Consider the following statements (a-d) and select option which includes all the correct ones
only:-
a. Bones have a hard and pliable ground substance
b. Bone matrix is rich in calcium salts and collagen fibers.
c. Bone forming cells are Osteoblast.
d. Bones is an example of areolar connective tissue.
Options :-

(1) Statements a and b

(2) Statements b and c
(3) Statements c and d
(4) Statements a and d

89) Match the column A with column B

(1) i (c), ii (d), iii (b), iv (a)

(2) i (c), ii (d), iii (a), iv (b)
(3) i (d), ii (c), iii (b), iv (a)
(4) i (a), ii (b), iii (c), iv (d)

90) How many statements are correct for cartilage:-

(A) Cartilage is a specialised connective tissue
(B) Matrix is solid and pliable
(C) Matrix does not resist compression
(D) Cells are enclosed in lacunae

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 2
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 2 1 4 4 3 1 2 1 3 3 4 4 4 4 1 1 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 3 3 2 2 2 3 3 3 4 3 4 3 1 1 3 4 2 4 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 1 3 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 2 4 4 3 1 3 1 3 2 2 2 1 3 1 2 2 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 3 3 2 1 1 3 2 3 1 2 2 4 4 1 1 2 4 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 2 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 3 3 1 1 1 4 4 1 4 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 4 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 4 4 4 4 1 2 3 2 3 3 1 2 2 1 1 4 3 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 4 4 4 2 1 2 3 3 2 2 2 4 3 3 2 1 4 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 1 1 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 4 3 3 3 3 3 4 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 3 1 1 4 2 2 2 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Let y = 5sinθ – 12 cosθ

Compare with asinθ + bcosθ,
Maximum value =

= =13

2)

Concept:
Quadrants and Signs: The sine function is positive in the first and second quadrants and
negative in the third and fourth quadrants.
Mathematical Calculation:
1. Locate 300°: An angle of 300° lies in the fourth quadrant.
2. Find the reference angle: The reference angle for 300° is 360° - 300° = 60°.
3. Determine the sign: Since 300° is in the fourth quadrant, where the sine function is
negative, sin(300°) will be negative.
4. Evaluate: We know that sin(60°) = √3/2. Therefore, sin(300°) = sin(360-60°) = -sin(60°)= -
√3/2
Final Answer:

The value of sin(300°) is

option 1
Question Level: Easy

3)

sin 1° = sin
for angle to be small

5) sin(106°) = sin(2×53°)
= 2 sin53° × cos53°

6)

4 – 2cosθ
⇒ – 1 ≤ cosθ ≤ 1
Here
For maximum value
use (cosθ = –1)
⇒ 4 – 2 (–1) = 6
For minimum value
use (cosθ = 1)
⇒ 4 – 2(1) ⇒ 2

7) 1. Asking About:
We are tasked with finding the Value of sec(135°), which is the secant of an angle of 135°.
2. Concept
• The secant function is the reciprocal of the cosine function:

• The angle 135 ° lies in the second quadrant, where the cosine function is negative.
• The reference angle for 135° is 45°, and standard trigonometric values can be used.
3. Formula:
To calculate sec(135°):

Using the reference angle and the cosine sign in the second quadrant:
cos(135°) = - cos(45-0 ).
From standard values:

Thus:

4. Solution/Explanation!
Now substitute cos(135°) into the fonmula for secant:

Simplify the fraction:

sec(135°) =

5 .. Final Answer:

Correct option: 3.
 8) sin275° × cosec 275°

= sin 275° ×

9) 1. Question Explain:
The question asks to find the arc length of a circle with a radius of 9 cm and central angle of
2π/3 radians.
2. Concept Based:
Arc Length in a Circle: The arc length is the distance along the circumference of the circle,
corresponding to a central angle. It is calculated using the formula s = rθ, where r is the
radius and θ is the central angle in radius.
3. Formula Used:
Arc Length (s):
s = r.θ
Where:

A. r is the radius of the circle

B. θ is the central angle in radians

4. Calculation:
Given:

A. r = 9 cm

B. θ = radians

Apply the formula:

Simplify:

Answer:
The arc length is 6π cm.

10)

12)

–1 ≤ cos θ ≤ 1

13) by ASTC rule, tanθ is positive in I and III quad.

15) tan(–53°) = – tan 53° =

 16)

35)
– 3x – 5y = 15
5y = – 3x – 15

y=

Here :- c = –3

36)

To determine the equation of the straight line, let's analyze the given information step by step.
Explanation

A. Concept:

The general equation of a straight line is :

y = mx + c,
where:-

A. m is the slope of the line.

B. c is the y-intercept (the value of y when :x = 0)

2. Given Information:

A. The line cuts the y-axis at 3, so the y-intercept c = 3.

B. The line makes an angle of 45° with the negative x-axis.

3 Slope Calculation:

A. The slope m of a line is given by:

m = tan(angle with the positive x-axis).

A. The angle with the positive x-axis is 180° - 45° = 135°.

B. The slope is:

4 Equation of the Line: Substituting m = -1 and c = 3 into y = mx + c:

y = -x + 3 or equivalently y = 3 - x.
Calculation

A. Verify the equation:

A. At X = 0, y = 3. which matches the given y-intercept.

B. The slope of -1 correctly represents the line decreasing as x increases.
Correct Option : 3

Final Answer :

37) 1. Explanation (30 words):

We are asked to describe the graph of the equation xy = 2 This equation represents a
hyperbola. To understand it better, we analyze its structure and behavior.
2. Concept (20 words):
The equation xy = 2 represents a rectangular hyperbola, which has two branches and
asymptotes along the coordinate axes.
3. Formula:
The equation xy = 2 can be rewritten as:

This is the standard form of a rectangular hyperbola.

38)

y = 5sinx

39)
a>b

42) Explain to find root square of √1.02

Concept Binomial Theorem
Formula- (1+x)n= 1 + nx
Calculation

44) log (a + b) ≠ log a + log b.

45) Explain: convert

Concept: use trigonometry formula.
Formula:

Calculation:
CHEMISTRY

46) Asking : Energy of photon

Concept : Plank's Theory

Solution : E =
where h = 6.02 × 10–34
c = 3 × 108
λ = 2 × 10–10

∴E=

47)

=2:1

52)

E1 < E2 < E3

54) E = = –0.54 eV

55)

ΔE = ;λ= =

56)

Maximum wavelength = Minimum energy

(for lyman series)
n1 = 1, n2 = 2
 62)

ΔE = 12eV

71)

Deuterium is , i.e., Z = 1, A = 2
∴ it contains 1p + 1n.

78)

A: Question Explanation

The question asks us to identify which series of transitions in the hydrogen atom's spectrum
falls within the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum.

B: Given Data

A. We are given four options representing different spectral series of the hydrogen atom: Lyman,
Balmer, Paschen, and Brackett.

C: Concept

A. Hydrogen Spectrum: The hydrogen atom emits light at specific wavelengths when an
electron transitions between energy levels. These transitions are grouped into series named
after their discoverers:
A. Lyman series: Transitions to n=1 (ultraviolet region)
B. Balmer series: Transitions to n=2 (visible region)
C. Paschen series: Transitions to n=3 (infrared region)
D. Brackett series: Transitions to n=4 (infrared region)

D: Final Answer

The Balmer series corresponds to transitions where the electron falls to the n=2 energy level,
and these transitions produce light in the visible region.

The correct option is (2) Balmer series.

E: Question Level

84) Explanation : find Mass Number (A)

given data No. of electrons = 18 ,No. of neutrons = 20
charge on ion = -2
Concept :
No of electrons = z -(change on ion)
18 = z -(-2)
 z = 18 - z = 16 = No. of protons
Mars No. (A) = No. of protons (2) + No. of neutrons (n)
= 16 + 20
= 36
Final answer 36
Correct option (4)

85) We calculate electronic charge by millikan's oil drop experiment.

90) Isodiapher → Having same difference of neutron & proton.

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 4,5

92) NCERT pg no. 4-5

93) The correct answer is 3 - Metabolism.

All plants, animals, fungi, and microbes exhibit metabolism, which refers to the set of life-
sustaining chemical reactions that occur within all living organisms. These reactions include
processes such as energy production, digestion, and cell maintenance.
While reproduction, growth, and other characteristics are also common in these groups,
metabolism is a fundamental property shared by all living organisms, including plants,
animals, fungi, and microbes.

A. Reproduction is not universal across all organisms at all times (e.g., sterile individuals).
B. Growth by increase in mass only is not the only form of growth for all organisms.
C. Self-consciousness is specific to certain animals (e.g., humans) and is not a characteristic of all
life forms.

So, metabolism is the key common feature.

95) The answer is Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

Here's the explanation:
Statement-I: In the majority of higher animals and plants, growth and reproduction are
mutually exclusive events.
This is true.
Statement-II: Non-living objects also grow if we take increase in body mass as a criterion for
growth.
This is also correct.

98) The correct answer is A-Self-Replicating, B-Evolving, C-Self-Regulating.

Living organisms are self-replicating (they can reproduce), evolving (they can undergo genetic
changes over time through evolution), and self-regulating (they maintain homeostasis or
internal balance despite external changes). These characteristics, along with being interactive
systems capable of responding to external stimuli, define living organisms.
 100) NCERT Pg no - 4 & 5

106) Explanation: Sensitivity is the ability of an organism to detect and respond to changes or
stimuli in its external environment. While consciousness refers to awareness, sensitivity is the
term more specifically related to the ability to sense and respond to environmental factors.

107)

2. Sensitivity
1. Male fruit fly is Homogametic.
Explanation:

A. Male fruit fly is homogametic: This statement is incorrect. Male fruit flies (Drosophila) are
heterogametic, meaning they have two different sex chromosomes (XY), unlike females, who
are homogametic (XX).
B. In male grasshoppers, 50% of sperms have no sex chromosome: This statement is correct.
Male grasshoppers have an XO system, where the sperm can either carry an X chromosome or
no sex chromosome (0), resulting in 50% of sperms lacking a sex chromosome.
C. In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny depends on the type of egg rather than sperm: This
statement is correct. In birds, the sex of the offspring is determined by the Z and W
chromosomes, and the egg determines the sex, not the sperm.
D. Human males have one of their sex chromosomes much shorter than the other: This statement
is correct. In humans, males have an X and a Y chromosome. The Y chromosome is much
smaller than the X chromosome.

111) NCERT page no 4, 5.

112) NCERT page no 4.

118)

NCERT XI Pg. # 9

119) NCERT - XI , Page - 7

133) NCERT Pg # 7

137) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 101

146) NCERT Pg. # 103

147) NCERT Pg. # 103

148) NCERT Pg. # 101,102

150) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 102, Para - 3

151)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 103

152) NCERT XIth Pg.#101

153) Module, Pg. # 91

154) Module Pg. # 90

155) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 102, Fig. 7.2(b)

156) NCERT-XI, Pg#101

157) NCERT-XI, Pg#103

158)

NCERT-XI, Pg#103

160)

NCERT Page no. 102

161) NCERT XI, Pg. # 102, Ist para

162) NCERT XI, Pg. # 101, Ist para

163) NCERT XI, Pg. # 100, Ist para

164) NCERT XI, Pg. # 104, Ist Para

165)

The structure labeled 'A' in the image is a Goblet cell.

Goblet cells are specialized epithelial cells that produce and secrete mucus.

167)
 The correct answer is 3. Ciliated epithelium.

Here's why:

A. Ciliated epithelium is characterized by the presence of cilia, which are hair-like

projections on the cell surface.

B. Fallopian tubes: Ciliated epithelium in the fallopian tubes helps move the ovum towards
the uterus.

Trachea and bronchi: Ciliated epithelium in the respiratory tract helps move mucus and trapped
particles out of the airways.

168) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 102

171)

Ncert old page 101.

173) NCERT (XI)(E) Pg. # 103

174) OLD NCERT-11, Pg. # 101

175) OLD NCERT-11, Pg. # 103,104