32. The equation of state for n moles of an ideal gas is PV = nRT, where R is a constant.

The SI unit for R is

(A) JK–1 per molecule (B) JK–1 mol–1 (C) J Kg–1 K–1 (D) JK–1 g–1
Ans : (B)
Hints : JK–1 mol–1

26. It is difficult to cook rice in an open vessel by boiling it at high altitudes because of
(A) low boiling point and high pressure (B) high boiling point and low pressure
(C) low boiling point and low pressure (D) high boiling point and high pressure
Ans : (C)
Hints : At high altitude pressure is low and boiling point also low

32. The equation of state for n moles of an ideal gas is PV = nRT, where R is a constant. The SI unit for R is
(A) JK–1 per molecule (B) JK–1 mol–1 (C) J Kg–1 K–1 (D) JK–1 g–1
Ans : (B)
Hints : JK–1 mol–1

59. Which of the following will decrease the pH of a 50 ml solution of 0.01 M HCl?
(A) addition of 5 ml of 1 M HCl (B) addition of 50 ml of 0.01 M HCl
(C) addition of 50 ml of 0.002 M HCl (D) addition of Mg
Ans : (A)
Hints :50 ml 0.01 M ≡50 × 0.01 = 0.5 millimole
5 ml 1 (M) ≡ 5 × 1 = 5 millimole
Total millimoles = 5.5 millimole
Total volume = 55 ml.
Molarity = 0.1(M) 10 (M)
55
5.5 = = −1
pH = 1

61. Hybridisation of central atom in NF3 is

(A) sp3 (B) sp (C) sp2 (D) dsp2
Ans : (A)
63. The half-life of a radioactive element is 10 hours. How much will be left after 4 hours in 1 g atom sample?
(A) 45.6 × 1023 atoms (B) 4.56 × 1023 atoms (C) 4.56 × 1021 atoms (D) 4.56 × 1020 atoms
Ans : (B)
64. For the Paschen series the values of n1 and n2 in the expression  


 

Δ=−2
2
2
1
11
nn
E Rhc are
(A) n1=1, n2=2, 3, 4........ (B) n1=2, n2=3, 4, 5........ (C) n1=3, n2=4, 5, 6........ (D) n1=4, n2=5, 6, 7........
Ans : (C)
Hints : In Paschen series electron shifting to third shell i.e., n1 = 3 to n2 = 4, 5, 6, ......
65. Under which of the following condition is the relation ΔH = ΔE + PΔV valid for a closed system?
(A) Constant Pressure (B) Constant temperature
(C) Constant temperature and pressure (D) Constant temperature, pressure and composition
Ans : (A)
Hints : This is applicable when pressure remains constant.
66. An organic compound made of C, H and N contains 20% nitrogen. Its molecular weight is :
(A) 70 (B) 140 (C) 100 (D) 65
Ans : (A)
Hints : Nitrogen at. wt. = 14 in a molecule minimum one atom of N is present
i.e., 20% ≡ 14 Molecular weight = 70
100% ≡ 14 × 5 = 70
8. What is the particle x in the following nuclear reaction :
Be +He 12⟶C+ x
(A) electron (B) proton (C) Photon (D) Neutron
Ans : (D)
Hence X represents neutron ( n)
1

1. What is the weight of oxygen which occupies 21 litres at S.T.P?

A) 45 g B) 50 g C) 60g D) 30g
2. A gaseous mixture contains oxygen and nitrogen in the ratio of 1:4 by wt. Therefore the
ratio of their number of molecules is?
A) 1:4 B) 2:7 C) 7:32 D) 3:16
3. The largest number of molecules is in?
A) 36g H2O B) 28g CO C) 46 g C2H5OH D) 54g NO5
4. 1.12 litre of oxygen at _.T.P contains 3x1022 molecules. The volume SO2 at _.T.P which
will contain the same number of molecules?
A) 22.4 l B) 1.12 l C) 0.56 l D) 4.44 l
5. Which of the following contains same no. of atoms as 6g of Mg?
A) 12 g of carbon B) 4 g of oxygen C) 6 g of O3 D) 27 g of Al
6. 2.4 g of a gaseous compound having same volume as that of 0.4 g of ethane gas. The mol.
Wt. of gaseous compound is?
A) 180 B) 240 C) 120 D) None
7. The volume occupied by 2g of Helium at S.T.P is?
A) 5.6 litres B) 2.8 litres C) 11.2 litres D) 84 litres
8. What volume occupied by 14g of _2 at S.T.P?
A) 22.5 litres B) 11.2 litres C) 44.8 litres D) 33.6 litres
9. In 0.004g of Mg, the number of atoms is equal to?
A) 24 B) 6.02 x 1023 C) 1 x 1023 D) 96
10. In 18.016 g of H2O, how many molecules are present?
A) 1 B) 18.016 C) 6.02 x 1023 D) None
11. How many molecules are present in one g of Hydrogen?
A) 6.02 x 1022 B) 6.02 x 1023 C) 3.0115 x 1023 D) 3.0125x 1023
12. Which of the following weights the least?
A) 24 g of Mg B) 0.9 mole of nitric
oxide
C) 22.4 l of N2 D) 6.023 x 1024
molecules of O2
13. The number of molecules in 89.9 litres of a gas at O°C and 1 atm pressure is?
A) 6.023 x 1023 B) 12.04 x 1023 C) 18.06 x 1023 D) 24.08 x 1023
14. 4g of caustic soda contains?
A) 6.023 x 1023 atoms
of hydrogen
B) 4g atoms of
sodium
C) 6.02 x 1023 atoms
of sodium
D) 4 moles of Neon

15. 12g of magnesium on reacting completely with acid gives hydrogen gas, the volumes of
which of _.T.P would be?
A) 22.4 litres B) 11.2 litres C) 44.8 litres D) 6.1 litres
16. One litre of a gas at S.T.P weight [Link] can be possible be?
A) C2H2 B) CO C) O2 D) CH4
17. 0.5 mole of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.2 mole of _a3PO4.The maximum number of mole of
Ba3(PO)4 that can be formed is?
A) 0.7 B) 0.5 C) 0.3 D) 0.1
18. 19.7kg of gold was recovered from a smuggler. How many atoms of gold were
recovered?
A) 100 B) 6.02 x 1023 C) 6.02 x 1024 D) 6.02 x 1025
19. How many formula units are there in a 42g sample of (_H4)2Cr2O7 (formula wt=252)?
A) 7.0 x 1023 B) 1x 1023 C) 6 x 1023 D) 1.4 x 1023
20. The number of atoms present in 1 g of hydrogen gas is the same as present in?
A) 0.4 g of He B) 22 g of CO2 C) 6 g of H2O D) 12 g of CO
21. The law of multiple proportions is illustrated by?
A) KCl and KClO3 B) H2O2 and H2O C) NaBr and Nal D) MnSO4 & MgSO4
22. In a balanced chemical equation
A) atoms are
conserved
B) molecules are
conserved
C) moles are
conserved
D) reactant and product
are conserved
23. The empirical formula of hydrogen peroxide is?
A) H2O2 B) HO C) H2O D) HO2
24. A hydrogen contains C=80%, H=20%. What is the empirical formula of compound
(C=12, H=1)
A) CH2 B) CH3 C) CH4 D) C2H6
25. C6H6 contains hydrogen by weight?
A) 20% B) 6% C) 24% D) 80%
26. Paracetamol C6H5(OH)_HCOOH3 has molecular mass 156. It contains nitrogen by
weight?
A) 8.9 B) 11.1 C) 14 D) None of them
27. An anti-freeze has empirical formula CH3O. Its molecular mass is 62. What is its
molecular formula
A) CH3O B) C6H186O62 C) C2H6O D) C2H6O2
28. Which compound doesn’t have molecular formula
A) NaCl B) N2 C) Cl2 D) HNO3
29. Which one of the following compound, does not have the empirical formula CH2O
A) HCHO B) C6H12O12 C) CH3COOH D) CH3CH2OH
30. A compound contains 87.5% Si and 12.5% H. what is the empirical formula of
compound (relative atomic masses H = 1 and Si = 28)
A) SiH2 B) SiH3 C) SiH4 D) Si2H6
31. 1 mole of C-12 has mass of?
A) 18 B) .9.022 x 10-22 C) 6.022 x 1024 D) 6.022 x 1023
32. One mole of C-12 has mass of?
A) 0.012 Kg B) 0.0012 Kg C) 1 Kg D) 2 Kg
33. I mole water is equals to?
A) 22.4 dm3 B) 18 dm3 C) 1 dm3 D) none of them

2
1. Which of the following is directly related to qualitative analysis?
A) Identification B) Separation C) Measurement D) Calculation
2. Which of the following process is used to separate insoluble particles from liquid?
A) Separation B) Filtration C) Crystallization D) Condensation
3. The pore size of the filter paper depends upon?
A) Nature of medium B) Temp. of medium C) Size of particles D) Mass of particles
4. Which one is the property of an ideal solvent?
A) Should be
expensive
B) React chemically
with solute
C) Impurities crystallize
with solute
D) Should be safe to
use.
5. If the solvent is inflammable for heating purpose, we use?
A) Ice bath B) Water bath C) Wire gauze D) Thermostat
6. To prepare the medium sized crystal the hot filtrate is cooled?
A) Slowly B) Fast C) Moderately D) None
7. When a solid which has high vapour pressure at a temperature below its boiling point, is
heated, it starts
A) Subliming B) Melting C) Decomposing D) Condensing
8. The process of filtration is used to separate
A) Solute from
solution
B) Insoluble particles
from liquid
C) Two immiscible
liquids
D) Two miscible
liquids
9. In which process solid phase and vapour phase are directly involved?
A) Sublimation B) Condensation C) Vaporization D) Filtration
10. In crystallization, the solvent is selected on the basis of?
A) Hardness B) Porous nature C) Reactivity D) Hit & trial method
11. After filtration slow cooling yields?
A) Bigger & pure
crystals
B) Bigger & impure
crystals
C) Smaller & pure D) Smaller &
impure
12. Chromatography phenomenon is based on?
A) Separation B) Precipitation C) Filtration D) Distribution
13. The technique of chromatography is used in?
A) Separation B) Isolation C) Purification D) All of above
14. Chromatography is important in?
A) Quality analysis B) Quantitative C) Determination of
purity of substance
D) All of above
15. Without suction the filtration through filter paper is?
A) Rapid B) Slow C) Time consuming D) Effective
16. Solvent extraction is mostly applied to separate?
A) Organic
compounds
B) Inorganic
compounds
C) Both A & B D) None of them
17. Solvent extraction method is used for compounds?
A) Volatile B) Thermally
unstable
C) Both A & B D) None
18. Solvent extraction is an equilibrium process and it is controlled by?
A) Distribution law B) Law of mass
action
C) Amount of solute
used
D) Amount of
Solvent

3
1. Equal weights of methane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25°[Link]
fraction of the total pressure exerted by hydrogen is?
A) .th B) 8/9th C) 1/9 D) 16/17
2. The ratio of the rates of diffusion of SO2, O2 and CH4 is?
A) 1:√2:2 B) 1:2:4 C) 2:√2:2 D) 1:2:√2
3. The rate of diffusion of methane at a given temperature is twice that of a gas X. The
molecular weight of X is?
A) 64 B) 32 C) 4 D) 8
4. Helium diffuses twice as fast as another gas B. If the vapour density of Helium is two, the
molecular weight of B is?
A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 24
5. The vapour density of a gas is 11.2. The volume occupied by 11.2 g of the gas at _.T.P is?
A) 1 litre B) 11.2 litre C) 22.4 litre D) 44.8 litre
6. Two gases A and B, having moles ration 4:8 in a container; exert a pressure of 12 atm. If
A is removed, what would be the pressure due to B only, temperature remaining constant?
A) 4 atm B) 8 atm C) 12 atm D) None
7. A mixture in a gas cylinder at 1 atm pressure contains 65% _2, 15% O2, and 20% H2 by
volume. The partial pressure of nitrogen is?
A) 0.65 atm B) 65 atm C) 130 atm D) None
8. A closed vessel contains equal number of oxygen and hydrogen molecules at a total
pressure of 7400 mm. If oxygen is removed from the system, the pressure will?
A) become 1/9th of
740 mm
B) become .th of
740 mm
C) remain
unchanged
D) becomes double
of 740 mm
9. At what temperature will be the volume of a gas at 0°C double itself pressure remaining
constant?
A) 546 °C B) 273 K C) 546 °F D) 546 K
10. When the temperature of 23 ml of dry CO2 gas changed from 10°C to 90°C at constant
pressure of 760 mm the volumes of the gas becomes closest to?
A) 21 ml B) 29.5 ml C) 24.6 ml D) 25 ml
11. If 2 moles of an ideal gas at 546 K occupies a volume of 44.8 litres the pressure must be?
A) 2 atm B) 4 atm C) 3 atm D) 1 atm
12. A bottle of cold drink contains 200 ml liquid in which CO2 is 0.1 molar. Suppose CO2
behaves like an ideals gas, the volume of the dissolved CO2, at STP is?
A) 0.224 litre B) 0.448 litre C) 22.4 litres D) None
13. The temperature of a sample of SO2 gas is raised from 27°C to 327°[Link] average
kinetic energy of the gas molecule is?
A) doubled B) halved C) multiplied by the
factor of 327/27
D) raised to the
power of two
14. The ratio of the rates of diffusion of CO2 and a gaseous oxide is 1.2:1 .The molecular
weight of the gaseous oxide is?
A) 63.36 B) 0.6336 C) 6.336 D) None
15. The volume of a given mass of gas is 117 ml at 39°C .At what temperature will it be 213
ml?
A) 273 K B) 39°C C) 426 K D) 153 K
16. If 3 litres of oxygen are heated from 27°C to 45°C keeping pressure constant at 1 atm,
the new volume will be?
A) 5 litres B) 4.67 litres C) 4.06 litres D) 3.18 litres
17. The rate of diffusion of a gas A and B of mol. Wt. 100 and 81 respectively are in the
ratio of?
A) 9:10 B) 10:09 C) 100:81 D) 81:100
18. If 10 g of a gas at 1 atm pressure is cooled from 273C 10 0C keeping the volume
constant, its pressure would become?
A) 1/2 atm B) 1/273 atm C) 2 atm D) 273 atm
19. Pressure exerted by a perfect gas is equal to?
A) mean kinetic
energy per unit
volume
B) half of mean
kinetic energy
per unit volume
C) two third of mean
kinetic energy per
unit volume
D) One third of mean
kinetic energy per
unit volume
20. The internal energy of a gram-molecule of an ideal gas depends on?
A) pressure alone B) volume alone C) temperature
alone
D) Both on pressure as
well as temperature
21. The absolute temperature of a gas is determined by?
A) the average
momentum of the
molecules
B) the velocity of
sound in the gas
C) the no. of
molecules in the
gas
D) The mean square
velocity of the
molecules
22. The motion of the molecules of a mono atomic gas is?
A) Translatory B) Vibratory C) Rotatory D) All of the above
23. Gases exert pressure on the walls of the containing vessel because of the gas molecules
A) Possess
momentum
B) Collide with each
other
C) Have finite
volume
D) Obey gas laws
24. In the kinetic molecular theory of gases; One assumes that the collisions between the
molecules are?
A) Perfectly elastic B) Perfectly
inelastic
C) Partly inelastic D) It depends upon the
nature of the gas
25. According to kinetic molecular theory of gases, at absolute zero of temperature?
A) Molecule are in
motion
B) Liquid helium
freezes
C) Molecular
motion stops
D) Liquid hydrogen
freezes
26. At constant volume, the temperature is increased then?
A) collision on walls
will be less
B) no. of collisions
per unit time will
increase
C) collisions will be
in straight line
D) collisions will
not change
27. Boyle's law is applicable in?
A) isochoric process B) isothermal process C) isobaric process D) isotonic process
32. An ideal gas cannot be liquefied because?
A) Its critical
temperature is
always above 0°C
B) Its molecule are
relative small in size
C) It solidifies before
becoming a liquid
D) Forces operative
between its molecules
are negligible
33. If the concentration of water vapour in the air is 1% and the total atmospheric pressure
equals to 1 atm then partial pressure of water vapour is?
A) 0.1 atm B) 1 mm of Hg C) 7.6 mm of Hg D) 100 atm
34. The pressure of gas having 2 moles in 44.8 litre vessel at 540 K is?
A) 1 atm B) 2 atm C) 3 atm D) 4 atm
35. Which of the following is most polarized among noble gases?
A) He B) Xe C) Kr D) Rn
36. If the rate of diffusion of A is 5 times that of B. What will be the density ratio of A and
B?
A) 1/25th B) 1/5th C) 25 D) 5

37. If the pressure of a gas contained in a closed vessel is increased by 0.4% when heated by
1°C its initial temperature
A) 250 K B) 250°C C) 2500 K D) 25°C
38. Which has the highest rate of diffusion under similar conditions of P and T?
A) CO2 B) NH3 C) N2 D) O2
39. Select one correct statement. In the gas equation PV=nRT
A) n is the number of
molecules of a gas
B) n moles of the gas
have a volume V
C) V denotes volume of
one mole of the gas
D) P is the pressure of the
gas when only one
mole of gas is present
40. The temperature at which real gases obey the ideal gas laws over a wide range of
pressure is called?
A) Critical
temperature
B) Boyle
Temperature
C) Inversion
Temperature
D) Reduced
Temperature
41. Equal masses of methane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25°[Link]
fraction of the total pressure exerted by Hydrogen is?
A) .th B) 8/9th C) 1/9th D) 16/17th
42. The density of CO2 at 100°C and 800 mm of Hg is?
A) 1.51 g/litre B) 1.51 g/ml C) 1.51 g/cm3 D) None
43. A gas will approach ideal behaviour at?
A) low T and high P B) low T and low P C) high T and low P D) high T and high P
44. The molar volume of CO2 is maximum at?
A) NTP B) 0°C and 2 atm C) 127°C and 1 atm D) 273°C and 2 atm
45. If the gas expands at constant temperature?
A) Pressure
decreases
B) kinetic energy of
molecules remain
the same
C) kinetic energy of
molecules
decreases
D) No. of molecules
of the gas
increases
46. The densities of two gases are in the ratio of 1:16. The ratio of their rates of diffusion is?
A) 16:1 B) 4:1 C) 1:4 D) 1:16

4
28. Which of the following have strong intermolecular forces?
A) gases B) liquids C) amorphous solids D) crystalline solids
29. Which of the following is an amorphous solid?
A) Diamond B) Graphite C) Glass D) Common salt
30. Which one of the following is a covalent solid?
A) Fe B) Diamond C) NaCl D) Cu
31. Most crystals show good cleaning because their atoms, ions and molecules are?
A) Weakly bonded
together
B) Strongly bonded
together
C) Spherically
symmetrical
D) Arranged in
Planes

5
1. If, in the path of cathode rays an opaque object is placed, the rays are?
A) Unaffected B) Deflected C) Absorbed D) Produce Sharp
Shadows
2. The nature of cathode rays remains the same irrespective of the material used for?
A) Class B) Gas C) Electrode D) Cathode
3. The most important factor in determining the chemical behaviour of an atom is its?
A) Nuclear Structure B) Electronic
Configuration
C) Atomic Weight D) Solubility
4. The nuclear particle positron has?
A) Charge +1, Mass 0 B) Charge 0, Mass 0 C) Charge -1, Mass 0 D) Charge 0, Mass 1
5. In the conductors, the electric current is due to the movement of?
A) Charged Particles B) Electrons C) Protons D) Neutrons
6. The lightest and simplest canal ray particles are formed when a gas discharge tube
contains?
A) Nitrogen B) Hydrogen C) Helium D) Oxygen
7. Which gas has the highest value of e/m?
A) Hydrogen B) Nitrogen C) Oxygen D) Helium
8. The diameter if an atom is of the order of?
A) 10-5 m B) 10-8 m C) 10-10 m D) 10-2 m
9. When electrons are allowed to pass through magnetic field, they bend towards?
A) North Pole B) South Pole C) None D) All
10. The nuclear radiation that has the maximum capacity to ionize the gases is called?
A) Beta B) Gamma C) Alpha D) Cathode Rays
11. Which of the following colours have the shortest wavelength in the visible spectrum of
light?
A) Red B) Violet C) Green D) Yellow
12. Which of the following colours have the longest wavelength in the visible spectrum of
light?
A) Red B) Violet C) Green D) Yellow
13. Which of the following was the major discovery in the field of atomic science, credited
to Sit Rutherford?
A Proton B) Neutron C) Electron D) Nucleus
14. Which of the following quantum numbers is in that describes the energy of an electron
in an atom?
A) Magnetic B) Spin C) Azimuthal D) Principal
15. Which of the following quantum numbers is in that describes the shape of an orbital?
A) Magnetic B) Spin C) Azimuthal D) Principal
16. Which of the following quantum numbers is the one that describes the orientation of an
orbital?
A) Magnetic B) Spin C) Azimuthal D) Principle
17. Which of the following quantum numbers is the one that describes the magnetic
properties of an electron?
A) Magnetic B) Spin C) Azimuthal D) Principle
18. An orbital can have maximum of ____ electrons?
A) 2 B) 6 C) 10 D) 12
19. P-fund series lies in?
A) Visible Region B) Ultraviolet Region C) Infra Red & Far
Infra Red Region
D) None
20. If the value of l=1, the orbital in dumbbell in shape and is called?
A) s B) p C) d D) f
21. If the value of ‘l’=0, the orbital is
A) s B) p C) d D) f
22. In the following nuclear reaction,
13Al27 + 2He4───>15X30 + 0n1
The element ‘X’ is?
A) Sulphur B) Carbon C) Phosphorous D) Silicon
23. With Increasing principal quantum number, the energy difference between adjacent
energy levels in H atom?
A) Decreases B) Increases C) Remains Constant D) Changes with Z
24. The mass of the neutron is of the order of?
A) 10-23 kg B) 10-24 kg C) 10-26 kg D) 10-27 kg
25. The maximum number of electrons in a sub-shell for which l=3 is?
A) 14 B) 10 C) 8 D) 4
26. The number of electrons in the M shell of the element with atomic number 24 is?
A) 14 B) 12 C) 13 D) 8
27. When electrons revolve in stationary orbits?
A) There’s no
change in energy
level
B) They become
stationary
C) They gain
Kinetic Energy
D) There energy
increases
28. Which quantum number is sufficient to describe the electron in hydrogen atom?
A) l B) n C) m D) s
29. The valence orbital configuration of an element with the atomic number 23 is?
A) 3d5 B) 3d3, 4s2 C) 3d3, 4s1, 4p1 D) 3d2, 4s2, 4p1
30. The number of neutrons in the element 9
4Be is?
A) 4 B) 5 C) 9 D) 13
31. Sodium Chloride imparts yellow colour to the Bunsen flame. This can be interpreted
due to?
A) Low I.P of
Sodium
B) Sublimation of
metallic Na to give
yellow vapour
C) emission of excess
energy absorbed as
a radiation in
visible region
D) Photosensitivity
of Sodium
32. Subsidiary quantum number specifies?
A) Size of Orbital B) Shape of Orbital C) Orientation of
Orbitals
D) Nuclear Stability
33. The spectrum of Helium is expected to be similar to that of?
A) H B) Li+ C) Na D) He+
34. If atomic numbers of nickel and copper are 28 and 29 respectively, which of the
following does the electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d6 represent?
A) Cu+ B) Cu2+ C) Ni2+ D) Ni
35. The number of spherical nodes in 3p orbitals is?
A) One B) Three C) None D) Two
36. The number of neutrons in heavy hydrogen atom is?
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3
37. The total number of possible values of magnetic quantum number for the value of l=3
is?
A) 3 B) 1 C) 5 D) 7
38. If the value of principal quantum number is 3, the total possible values for magnetic
quantum number will be?
A) 1 B) 4 C) 9 D) 12
39. For which of the following sets of quantum numbers, an electron will have the highest
energy?
A) 3, 2, 1, . B) 4, 2, -1, . C) 4, 1, 0, -. D) 5, 0, 0, .
40. Azimuthal quantum number of the last electron of 11_a is?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 0
41. If the radius of first Bohr orbit be a0, then the radius of third Bohr orbit would be?
A) 3 x a0 B) 6 x a0 C) 9 x a0 D) . x a0
42. An electron has principal quantum number 3. The number of its (a) subshells and (b)
orbitals would be?
A) 3 and 5 B) 3 and 7 C) 3 and 9 D) 2 and 5
43. The four quantum numbers of the valence electron of potassium are?
A) 4, 1, 1, . B) 4, 0, 0, . C) 4, 1, 0, . D) 4, 4, 0, .
44. Heaviest particle is?
A) Neutron B) Proton C) Electron D) Meson
45. Which of the following has more unpaired d-electrons?
A) Zn+ B) Fe2+ C) Ni3+ D) Cu+
46. The third line of the Balmer series, in the emission spectrum of hydrogen atom is due to
the transition from the?
A) 4th Bohr orbit to
1st Bohr Orbit
B) 6th Bohr orbit to
3rd Bohr Orbit
C) 7th Bohr orbit to
3rd Bohr Orbit
D) 5th Bohr orbit to
2nd Bohr Orbit
47. Which is not true for the cathode rays?
A) A stream of
Electrons
B) Charged Particles C) Move with speed
as that of light
D) Can be deflected
by magnetic rays
48. Which of the following element’s outermost orbits last electron has magnetic quantum
number m=0?
A) Na B) O C) Cl D) N
49. Which of the following is not isoelectronic?
A) Na+ B) Mg2+ C) O2- D) Cl-
50. The configuration 1s2 2s2 2p5 3s1 shows?
A) Excited state of
O2
-
B) Excited state of
Neon
C) Excited state of
Fluorine
D) Ground state of
Fluorine atom
51. The orbital in Rutherford’s model is?
A) Spiral B) Circular C) Both D) None
52. The atomic number of an element is 35. What is the total number of electrons present in
all the p-orbitals of the ground state atom of that element?
A) 6 B) 11 C) 17 D) 23
53. For the principal quantum number, n = 4, the total number of orbitals having l = 3 is?
A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9
54. The correct set of quantum numbers (n, l & m) respectively of the unpaired electron of
chlorine atom is?
A) 2, 1, 0 B) 2, 1, 1 C) 3, 1, 1 D) 3, 2, 1

6
1. An example of a molecule containing coordinate covalent bond is?
A) NH4 B) HF C) BF3, NH3 D) NaCl
2. Highest covalent character is found in which of the following
A) CaF2 B) CaCl2 C) CaI2 D) CaBr2
3. Methanol and Ethanol are miscible in water due to?
A) Covalent
Character
B) Hydrogen Bond C) Ionic Bonding D) tendency to form
co-ordinate bond
4. Which of the following has the smallest bond length?
A) O2 B) O2
- C) O2
+ D) O2
-2
5. The ion iso-electronic with CO is?
A) CN B) O2
+ C) N2
+ D) O2
-
6. Hydrogen bonding is maximum in?
A) Ethanol B) Diethyl ether C) Ethyl chloride D) Triethyl amine
7. Total number of electrons that take part in the forming bonds in _2 is?
A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 10
8. Hybridization in SO2 is?
A) sp B) sp2 C) sp3 D) sp3d
9. The type of hybrid orbitals used by the chlorine atom in ClO2
-?
A) sp3 B) sp2 C) sp D) None
10. The H-O-H angle in water molecule is about?
A) 50 ° B) 80° C) 105° D) 75°
11. Among the following one with the highest second ionization potential is?
A) Nitrogen B) Carbon C) Fluorine D) Oxygen
12. Variable valency is exhibited by?
A) Iron B) Zinc C) Magnesium D) Sodium
13. First ionization energy is highest for?
A) Alkali metals B) Alkaline earth
metals
C) Halogens D) Noble gases
14. The bond present in diamond is?
A) Electrovalent B) Covalent C) Hydrogen D) None
15. Type of bonding in HCl molecule is?
A) Pure covalent B) Polar covalent C) Highly polar D) H-bonding
16. The molecule having one unpaired electron is?
A) O2 B) CN- C) CO D) NO
17. The C--H bond distance is longest in?
A) C2H2 B) C2H4 C) C2H2Br2 D) C2H6
18. The molecule which has the largest dipole moment is?
A) CH4 B) CHCl3 C) CCl4 D) CHI3
19. Which of the following ions is not isoelectronic with O2
-?
A) N3- B) F- C) Ti+ D) Na+
20. Which of the following compounds has a three centre bond?
A) Boron Trifluoride B) Carbondioxide C) Diboron D) Ammonia
21. Which of the following compound is the most ionic?
A) Cs--Cl B) Al--Cl C) C--Cl D) H--Cl
22. Which of the following has three fold axis of symmetry?
A) NH3 B) C2H4 C) CO2 D) SO2
23. Which of the following halogen has the highest bond energy?
A) F2 B) Cl2 C) Br2 D) I2
24. Which one of these is the weakest?
A) Ionic bond B) Covalent bond C) Metallic bond D) Vander Waal
forces
25. Which of the following has unchanged valency?
A) H B) Na C) Fe D) O
26. Which of the following does not conduct electricity?
A) molten NaOH B) molten KOH C) Solid NaCl D) Aqueous NaCl
27. Inter molecular forces in solid hydrogen are?
A) Covalent forces B) Vander Waal's
forces
C) Hydrogen bonds D) All of these
28. Stability of ionic compound is due to?
A) Electronegativity B) Electron affinity C) Sublimation
energy
D) Lattice energy
29. Which of the following has a covalent as well as an ionic valency?
A) NaCl B) NaOH C) H2O D) HCl (g)

30. In the electronic structure of H2SO4 the total number of unshared electrons is?
A) 16 B) 20 C) 12 D) 8
31. Covalent compounds are soluble in?
A) All solvents B) Polar solvents C) Conc. acids D) Non-polar
solvents
32. Which of the following compound can form hydrogen bond?
A) CH4 B) H2O C) NaCl D) CHCl3
33. In ice, the bond present between two molecules of water is?
A) Ionic bond B) Metallic bond C) Covalent bond D) All of the above
34. The type of bonding between two atoms is determined by the difference of?
A) Electron Affinity
Values
B) Electronegativity
Values
C) Ionization
Potential Values
D) None
35. Which set of electrons offer more repulsion?
A) Lone-Bond Pair B) Bond-Bond Pair C) Lone-Lone Pair D) None
36. Which compound has fast reaction?
A) Covalent
Compound
B) Ionic Compound C) Metallic
Compound
D) Co-ordinate
Compound
37. Strongest crystal lattice has?
A) Covalent Bonding B) Hydrogen
Bonding
C) Ionic Bonding D) Dative Bonding
38. The atomic number of Magnesium is 12. When magnesium reacts to form an ionic
compound, the electronic configuration of the magnesium ion formed is?
A) 2, 8 B) 2, 8, 1 C) 2, 8, 2 D) 2, 8, 3
39. HCl possesses?
A) Polar Bond B) Ionic Bond C) Coordinate Bond D) Non-polar Bond
40. The double bonds are present between the atoms of the molecules of?
A) CO2 B) H2O C) CH3 D) CH4
41. Which of the following is non-polar molecule?
A) CH3 B) H2O C) NH3 D) H2S
42. Which one of the following is not a polar solvent?
A) HCl B) H2O C) C2H5OH D) CH3-O-CH3
43. Polarity produced in a molecule is due to difference in?
A) Electronegativity B) Ionization
Potential
C) Atomic Radii D) Size
44. The formation of H2 molecules from hydrogen atom is?
A) Endothermic B) Exothermic C) Both (A) & (B) D) None
45. Vander Waal’s bond exists in?
A) Solid metal B) Solid Non-metal C) Molecular
Crystal
D) Ionic Crystal
46. Pi-bond is ___________ than sigma.
A) Stronger B) Weaker C) More Polarized D) None
47. Which bond is the strongest?
A) s-s B) s-p C) p-p D) None
48. The order of increasing bonf energy in Hydrogen halides is?
A) HCl>Hf>HBr>HI B) HBr>HI>HCl>HF C) HF>HCl>HBr>HI D) HI>HBr>HCl>HF
49. Which of the following molecule has angular shape?
A) H2S B) CO2 C) CO D) HF
50. In a double bond, connecting two atoms, there is a sharing of?
A) 2 electrons B) 4 electrons C) 1 electron D) All electrons

7
1. Respiration is a/an __________ reaction?
A) Endothermic B) Exothermic C) Substitution D) Addition
2. Energy required to break bond of HF is 556. Formation of HF is a/an?
A) Endothermic B) Exothermic C) Addition D) Replacement
3. In Thermochemical equations, coefficient of the reactants and products indicate their?
A) Atoms B) Molecules C) Ions D) Moles
4. Which one of the following is endothermic reaction?
A) Vaporization B) Sublimation C) Melting D) All
5. Which condition is correct for all the exothermic reactions?
A) A catalyst is
needed
B) Light is absorbed C) Products have
less energy than
the reactants
D) Require heat to
start
6. The state of system can be defined completely by which of the following properties?
A) Volume B) Pressure C) Temperature D) All of the above
7. Internal Energy RE of a system is a state function and depends only on?
A) Amount of
substance
B) Steps of the
reaction
C) Initial and Final
Sates of System
D) All of these
8. What possibilities are associated with increase in internal energy?
A) Temperature
increases
B) Phase Changes C) Chemical
Reaction takes
place
D) All of these
9. Which is not a state function?
A) Temperature B) Enthalpy C) Entropy D) Internal Energy
10. Under adiabatic conditions and constant volume a system will be in equilibrium when
which of the following quantities is at minimum?
A) Internal Energy
(E or U)
B) Enthalpy (H) C) Helmholtz
Energy (A)
D) Gibb’s Energy (G)
11. Heat absorbs at constant pressure?
A) q p = PH B) q p = E2 + PV2 C) q p = E1+ PV1 D) q p = H2
12. The sum of internal energy and product of its pressure and volume is called?
A) Thermochemistry B) 1st Law of
Thermodynamics
C) Enthalpy D) Heat of system
13. In a process 240 J of heat is absorbed by a system, while 120 J of work is done on the
system. The change in internal energy is?
A) 240 J B) 260 J C) 360 J D) 160 J
14. If 600 calories of heat are added to a system, which does work equivalent to 800 calories
by expanding against the surrounding. What is the value of RE for the system?
A) 200 B) -200 C) 1400 D) -1400
15. If two moles of hydrogen at 3 atm pressures expand isothermally at 50°C, the change of
internal energy is?
A) 12 J B) 6 J C) 100 J D) Zero
16. Which substance have RH = RE?
A) Solids B) Liquids C) Gases D) Liquids & solids
17. A decrease in the internal energy of the system usually accompanied by decrease in?
A) Potential Energy B) Kinetic Energy C) Thermal Energy D) Chemical Energy
18. The mechanical work done by the engine of an automobile is a result of which of the
following processes?
A) Combustion B) Oxidation C) Reduction D) Catalysis
19. The entropy of the universe tends to?
A) Become maximum B) Become Minimum C) Be zero D) Remain constant
20. The energy of a system can?
A) Not be changed
to mass
B) Be interchanged
into a different
form
C) Not be measured
into a different
form
D) Be measured only
as kinetic energy
21. RH _eutralization is always?
A) Positive B) Negative C) Zero D) Both (A) & (B)

12. The atoms of the same element which have the same atomic number but different mass
numbers are called?
A) Isotopes B) Actinides C) Isobars D) None
13. Atoms having same atomic weights but different atomic numbers are called
A) Isotopes B) Actinides C) Isobars D) None
14. The ionization of Hydrogen atom would give rise to?
A) Hydride ion B) Hydronium ion C) Proton D) Hydroxyl ion