05-05-2024

1001CMD050524002 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Application of Gauss Law) List-II (Value of |E|)

A. Field inside thin shell I.

B. Field outside thin shell II.

C. Field of thin shell at the surface III.

D. Field due to long charged wire IV. Zero

(Here symbols have their usual meaning and R is the radius of thin shell)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

2) A particle is displaced through by a force . The work done is :

(1) 8 J
(2) 6 J
(3) 10 J
(4) 14 J

3) Two identical rectangular plane sheets A and B each of surface charge density ε0Cm–2 are placed
parallel to each other as shown in figure. The electric field at the mid point P will be :
(1) 1 N C–1
(2) 0.5 N C–1
(3) Zero
(4) 2N C–1

4) An object falls freely from height h above the ground. It travels h in the last 1s. Then height h is
(Given g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 25 m
(2) 45 m
(3) 58 m
(4) 5 m

5) Radiation of wavelength 280 nm is used in an experiment of photoelectric effect with cathode of

work function, 25 eV. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is
[Take h = 6.62 × 10–34 J s and c = 3 × 108 ms–1]

(1) 7.103 × 10–15J

(2) 1.9 eV
(3) 4.60 eV
(4) 4.4 eV

6) The speed (s) of a car as a function of time (t) is shown in figure. The distance travelled by the car

in 8 seconds is :

(1) 60 m
(2) 80 m
(3) 18 m
(4) 180 m

7) A conducting circular loop of face area 2.5 × 10–3 m2 is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field
which varies as B = 0.5 sin (100 π t)T. The magnitude of induced emf at time t = 0 s is :

(1) 125 π mV
(2) 125 πV
(3) 12.5 π mV
(4) 0.125 π mV

8) A vernier calipers has 1 mm marks on the main scale. It has 20 equal divisions on the vernier
scale which match with 16 main scale divisions. The least count of this vernier calipers is :

(1) 0.05 mm
(2) 0.10 mm
(3) 0.20 mm
(4) 0.02 mm

9) Zener diode works

(1) in reverse bias only

(2) as a voltage regulator in forward bias and as a simple pn junction diode in reverse bias.
(3) as a voltage regulator in reverse bias and as a simple pn junction diode in forward bias.
(4) in forward bias only.

10) For an adiabatic process, the factor which remains constant is [All the notations have their usual
meaning] :

(1) TV1 – γ
(2) Vγ–1 Tγ
(3) P1 – γTγ
(4) Pγ–1Tγ

11) An excited heavy nucleus emits radiations in the following sequence,

where Z, A are the atomic and mass number of element X, respectively. The possible emitted
particles or radiations in the sequence, respectively, are

(1) e–, α, e+, α, γ

(2) α, e–, α, e+, γ
(3) α, e+, α, e–, γ
(4) e+, α, e–, α, γ

12) Time taken by sunlight to pass through a glass slab of thickness 5 mm and refractive index 1.5,
is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Given below two statements :

Statement-I : The de Broglie wavelength associated with a material particle depends on its charge
and nature.
Statement-II : The wave nature of particles, in sub-atomic domain is significant and measurable. In
the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

14) Consider a thin circular ring (A), a circular disc (B), a hollow cylinder (C) and a solid cylinder (D)
of the same radius R and of same mass.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
If IA, IB, IC and ID are their moments of inertia about the axis shown, then :
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) IA = 2IB and 2IC = ID

(2) 2IA = IC and IB = 2ID
(3) IA = IB = IC = 2ID
(4) IA = IC and 2IB = ID

15) In Young's double slit experiment, if the wavelength of light used is increased (say from violet to
red) then the :

(1) fringe width increases

(2) central bright fringe becomes dark
(3) fringe width remains unaltered.
(4) fringe width decreases.

16) Given below two statements: One is labelled as

Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: A glass tube partially filled with water represents as open organ pipe.
Reason R : The open end corresponds to an antinode and the end in contact with water, to a node.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A.

17) Match List-I with List-II

List I List II
(Material) (Example)
A. Diamagnet I. Alnico
B. Paramagnet II. Copper
C. Soft ferromagnet III. Aluminium
D. Hard ferromagnet IV. Gadolinium

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

18) If represents the electric field vector and magnetic field vector, respectively, in an
electromagnetic wave then the direction of EM wave is along:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

19) A wire of length L and radius r (r < < L) is kept floating on the surface of a liquid of density ρ.
The maximum radius of the wire for which it may not sink is (Surface tension of liquid is T) :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

20) L, C and R respresent the value of inductance, capacitance and resistance, respectively. The
factor which has the same dimensions as that of the inverse of resonance frequency is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) The best suited curve showing the variation of susceptibility ( ) of a paramagnetic material in
free space with temperature (T) is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
22)
An ideal inductor-resistor-battery circuit is switched on at t=0 s. At time t, the current is
i=i0 A,
where i0 is the steady-state value. The time at which the current becomes 0.5 i0 is : [Given ln
(2)=0.693]

(1) 6.93 ms
(2) 69.3 s
(3) 6.93 s
(4) 6.93 × 103 s

23) If F= αt2 – βt is the magnitude of the force acting on a particle at an instant t then the time, at
which the force becomes constant, is (where α and β are constants) :

(1)

(2)

(3) zero

(4)

24) The percentage errors in the measurement of mass and momentum of an object are 1% and 2%
respectively. The percentage error in the measurement of kinetic energy of the object is :

(1) 3%
(2) 4%
(3) 5%
(4) 1%

25) The value of R in the given circuit when there is no current in the 5Ω resistor is :

(1) 9Ω
(2) 3Ω
(3) 2Ω
(4) 12Ω
26) Match List-I with List-II :
List – I List – II
(Measured values) (Significant figures)
A. 0.001213 I. 2
B. 2.1 × 1016 II. 3
C. 3.70 III. 1
D. 3000 IV. 4
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

27) A body of mass 6 kg is moving from its initial position A to the next position B as shown in figure.

From A to B, the value of momentum of the body is (in SI unit)

(1) 12
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) 24

28) A solar cell is a :

(1) type of light emitting diode.

(2) diode working on the principle of photo - voltaic effect
(3) type of photo-diode with external biasing.
(4) forward biased zener diode.

29) The graph which shows the correct variation of with for a concave mirror, where u is the
object distance and v is the image distance, is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) The pressure experienced by a swimmer 20 m below the water surface in a lake is approximately
[Given density of water=103 kg m–3, g=10 m s–2 and 1 atm ≈ 105 Pa] :

(1) 2 atm
(2) 3 atm
(3) 4 atm
(4) 1 atm

31) Match List-I with List-II. (The symbols carry their usual meaning.)
 List-I List-II
Ampere-Maxwell's
A. I.
Law

B. II. Faraday's Law

Gauss Law of
C. III.
electrostatics
Gauss Law of
D. IV.
magnetism

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

32) If i is the angle of incidence and i' is the angle of emergence on a prism, then the relation
between i and i' to obtain an angle of minimum deviation is :

(1) i > i'

(2) i < i'
(3) i = 0
(4) i = i'

33) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II (Wave

(Series) number in cm–1)

A. Balmer series I.

B. Lyman series II.

Brackett
C. III.
series

D. Pfund series IV.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

34) The equivalent resistance RAB between points A and B in the given network is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1R

35) A body weighing 100 N on the surface of earth weighs x kg ms–2 at a height above the
–2
surface of earth. The value of x is (g = 10 m s at surface of earth and RE is the radius of earth) :

(1) 54
(2) 81
(3) 62
(4) 72

SECTION-B

1) A dielectric slab of dielectric constant 3 having the same area of cross-section as that of parallel

plate capacitor but of thickness of the separation of plates is inserted into the capacitor. The
ratio of potential difference across the plates without dielectric to that with dielectric is :

(1) 2 :3
(2) 3 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

2) For a smoothly running analog clock, the ratio of number of rotations made in a day by the hour
hand and second hand respectively, is :

(1) 1 : 720
(2) 1 : 60
(3) 2 : 5
(4) 24 : 1

3) An ideal gas at 0°C and atmospheric pressure P has volume V. The percentage increase in its
temperature needed to expand it to 3 V at constant pressure is :

(1) 200 %
(2) 300%
(3) 50%
(4) 100%

4) Object A has half the kinetic energy as that of object B. The object B has half the mass as that of
the object A. The object A speeds up by 1 ms–1 and then has the same kinetic energy as that of object
B. The initial speed of object A is nearly
(Take ):

(1) 1 m s–1
(2) 2.5 m s–1
(3) 4.8 m s–1
(4) 0.5 m s–1

5) If an unpolarised light is incident on a plane surface of refractive index at Brewster's angle

then the angle of refraction is :

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 0°

6) A body is falling freely in a resistive medium. The motion of the body is described by = 4 – 2v,
–1
where v is the velocity of body at any instant (in ms ). The initial acceleration and terminal velocity
of the body, respectively, are :

(1) 2 m s–2, 4 m s–1

(2) 6 m s–2, 2 m s–1
(3) 2 m s–2, 6 m s–1
(4) 4 m s–2, 2 m s–1

7) A particle of mass m and charge q is placed in a uniform electric field E at t = 0 s. The kinetic
energy of the particle after time t is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A rocket is fired vertically upward with a speed of from the earth's surface, where ve is escape
velocity on the surface of earth. The distance from the surface of earth upto which the rocket can go
before returning to the earth is (Given radius of earth = 6400 km) :

(1) 3200 km
(2) 6400 km
(3) 12800 km
(4) 1600 km

9) A rod of length L rotates with a small uniform angular velocity ω about its perpendicular bisector.
A uniform magnetic field B exists parallel to the axis of rotation. The potential difference between
the center of the rod and an end is :

(1)

(2)

(3) zero

(4)

10) If T1, T2, T3, T4 and T5 represent the tension in the string of a simple pendulum when the bob is
at the left extreme, right extreme, mean, any intermediate left and any intermediate right positions,
respectively. Then which of the following relations are correct ?
(A) T1 = T2 (B) T3 > T2
(C) T4 > T3 (D) T3 = T4
(E) T5 > T2 Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) B, C and D only

(2) A, B and E only
(3) C, D and E only
(4) A, B and C only

11) The correct input (A,B)-output (Y) combination for the given circuit is :

(1) A = 0, B = 1, Y = 1
(2) A = 1, B = 0, Y = 0
(3) A = 0, B = 0, Y = 1
(4) A = 1, B = 1, Y = 1

12) Arrange the following in the order of their resistance

(A) (0 to 1A) ranged ammeter.
(B) (0 to 100 mA) ranged milli-ammeter.
(C) (0 to 500 μA) ranged micro-ammeter.
(D) (0 to 100 V) ranged voltmeter.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) D > C > B > A

(2) D > A > B > C
(3) C > B > A > D
(4) A > B > C > D

13) The ratio of nuclear densities and nuclear volumes of and are, respectively :

(1) 14 : 1 and 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 1 and 14 : 1
(3) 1 : 1 and 13 : 1
(4) 13 : 1 and 14 : 1

14) The length of a magnetized iron bar is L and its magnetic moment is M. When this bar is bent to
form a semicircle its magnetic moment is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) M

15) There are two heaters A and B. Heater A takes time t1 to boil a given quantity of water, while B
takes time t2 to boil the same quantity of water across same supply voltage. If the two heaters are
connected in series, time taken by this combination to boil the same quantity of water will be :

(1) t1 + t2

(2)
(t1 + t2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I
List-II
(Process
(Characteristics)
/Property)
 Independent
Adiabatic
A. I. of amount of
process
substance

Both way
process
Reversible
B. II. reactant to
process
product and
vice-versa

No transfer of
Intensive heat between
C. III.
property system and
surroundings.

Dependent
Extensive
D. IV. on amount
property
of substance

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

2) Which one of the following molecules is paramagnetic ?

(1) Li2
(2) C2
(3) O2
(4) H2

3) 4.74 g of an inorganic compound contains 0.39 g of K, 0.27 g of Al, 1.92 g of SO4 radicals and 2.16
g of water. If molar mass of the compound is 948 g mol–1, the molecular formula of the inorganic
compound is :

(1) K2Al2(SO4)4.12 H2O

(2) K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24 H2O
(3) K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.12 H2O
(4) KAl(SO4)2.12 H2O

4) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Benzoic acid produces effervescence on treatment with aq. NaHCO3.
Statement II : The effervescence is due to the release of hydrogen gas.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

5) Which of the following pair of aqueous solutions will have the same value of osmotic pressure ?

(Assume complete dissociation in aqueous solution)

(1) 0.1 M Na3PO4 and 0.1 M K2SO4

(2) 0.2 M NaCl and 0.1 M K2SO4
(3) 0.2 M NaCl and 0.1 M K3[Fe(CN)6]
(4) 0.1 M BaCl2 and 0.2 M K2SO4

6) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : 2F electricity is required for the oxidation of 1 mole H2O to O2.
Statement II : To get 40.0 g of Aluminium from molten Al2O3 required electricity is 4.44 F.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

7) Which of the following expression is correct for the reaction given below ?
2HI(g) ® H2(g) + I2(g)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The correct 'spin only' magnetic moments of [CoF6]3– and [Co(C2O4)3]3– respectively, are :

(1) 0 BM and 0 BM
(2) 4.9 BM and 0 BM
(3) 4.9 BM and 4.9 BM
(4) 0 BM and 4.9 BM

9) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II (Most Common

(Element) oxidation state/s)

A. Fe I. +2, +7
 B. V II. +3, +2

C. Mn III. +4

D. Ti IV. +5

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

10) The technique used to purify liquids having high boiling points and getting decomposed at or
below their boiling points is :

(1) steam distillation

(2) simple distillation
(3) distillation under reduced pressure
(4) fractional distillation

11) The method used for quantitative estimation of halogens is :

(1) Carius method

(2) Kjeldahl's method
(3) Combustion method
(4) Dumas method

12) Effective collisions are known to possess :

A. energy greater than threshold energy.
B. breaking of old bond in reactant.
C. formation of new bond in product.
D. high activation energy
E. proper orientation.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A, B, C, E only
(2) A, C, D, E only
(3) B, C, D, E only
(4) A, B, C, D only

13) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(complex ion) (Hybridisation)
2–
A. [Ni(CN)4] I. sp3
3–
B. [CoF6] II. d2sp3
 3–
C. [Co(C2O4)3] III. sp3d2
2–
D. [NiCl4] IV. dsp2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

14) Which of the following reaction is not a disproportionation reaction ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I
List-II
(IUPAC
(IUPAC
official
symbol)
name)

A. Mendelevium I. Mt

B. Meitnerium II. Mc

C. Moscovium III. No

D. Nobelium IV. Md

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

16) CCl2F2 is one of the most common haloalkanes used in industries. The reaction through which it
is manufactured from tetrachloromethane is called :

(1) Sandmeyer's reaction

(2) Swarts reaction
(3) Wurtz-Fittig reaction
(4) Finkelstein reaction

17) Which pair of the following compounds has one lone pair of electrons on the central atom ?
(1) SF4, ClF3
(2) ClF3, XeF4
(3) XeF4, BrF5
(4) SF4, BrF5

18) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I (Reactions) List-II (Products)

CH3CH=CH2+H2O+O
A. I. (CH3)2C=O+CO2+H2O

CH3CH=CH2
B. II.

C. III.

D. IV. (CH3)3C–OH

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

19) The behaviour of samarium (Z=62) is very much like europium (Z=63). Since both elements :

(1) have 4f56s2 and 4f66s2 electronic configurations, respectively.

(2) have 4f76s2 and 4f86s2 electronic configurations, respectively.
(3) have same atomic radii.
(4) exhibit +2 and +3 oxidation states.

20) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II (Deficiency /other

(Vitamins) name / property)

RBC deficient
A. Vitamin K I.
in haemoglobin
 B. Vitamin B12 II. Bleeding gums

C. Vitamin C III. Thiamine

D. Vitamin B1 IV. Fat soluble

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

21) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

A. Carbylamine test I. phenol

B. Bayer's test II. acetone

C. Iodoform test III. ethylene

D. Phthalein dye test IV. aniline

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

22) Molar mass of a compound (X) whose 2.6 mol weighs 312 g is :

(1) 120 g mol–1

(2) 60 g mol–1
(3) 811.2 g mol–1
(4) 312 g mol–1

23) The standard enthalpy of neutralization is –57.3 kJ mol–1 as :

The enthalpy of neutralization of 0.25 mole of HCl by 0.25 mol of NaOH is :

(1) –28.3 kJ mol–1

(2) –14.32 kJ mol–1
(3) +57.3 kJ mol–1
(4) –57.3 kJ mol–1
24) Match List–I with List-II

List-II (pKb
List–I (Amine)
value)

A. Benzenamine I. 3.38

B. Phenylmethanamine II. 9.38

C. Methanamine III. 4.70

D. N-Ethylethanamine IV. 3.0

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A–III, B–II, C–I, D–IV
(2) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV
(3) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV
(4) A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV

25) Match List–I with List-II

List-II (Name of
List–I (Reagent)
the reaction)

A. H2, Pd-BaSO4 I. Gattermann-Koch reaction

(i) CrO2 Cl2, CS2; Reimer-Tiemann

B. II.
(ii) H2O reaction

CO, HCl, Anhyd.

C. III. Etard reaction
AlCl3/CuCl

D. CHCl3,NaOH IV. Rosenmund reduction

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

26) The common oxidation state shown by actinoids is +3 with the other oxidation states being +4,
+5, +6 and +7. The number of oxidation states shown by the following elements decrease in the
order :
A. Np (Z = 93)
B. Am (Z = 95)
C. Ac (Z = 89)
D. Pa (Z = 91)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A > B > C > D

(2) B > A > D > C
(3) D > B > A > C
(4) A > B > D >C

27) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I Equilibria List-II Conditions/Parameters

A. Liquid ⇌ Vapour I. Melting point

B. Solid ⇌ Liquid II. Boiling point

C. Solid ⇌ Vapour III. Sublimation point

Solute (Solid) ⇌
D. IV. Saturated solution
Solute (solution)

V. Unsaturated solution

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
(2) A–III, B–II, C–I, D–IV
(3) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–V
(4) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV

28) Arrange the following hydrides in the order of decreasing bond angle :
A. SbH3
B. AsH3
C. PH3
D. NH3
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) B > A > C > D

(2) D > C > B > A
(3) A > C > B > D
(4) B > A > D > C

29) Consider the reaction in equilibrium

PCl5 ⇌ PCl3 + Cl2 at 500 K. The concentration of PCl5 = 1.40 M concentration of Cl2 = 1.60 M,
concentration of PCl3 = 1.60 M. Calculate Kc.

(1) 2.6
(2) 1.83
(3) 3.4
(4) 2.00

30) Isotope of an element contains 19.23% more neutrons as compared to protons. The correct
element along with its mass number is :
(Given Atomic number Fe : 26, Co : 27)

(1) 57Fe
(2) 57Co
(3) 60Co
(4) 56Fe

31) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : The energy of He+ ion in n = 2 state is same as the energy of H atom in n = 1 state.
Statement-II : It is possible to determine simultaneously the exact position and exact momentum of
an electron in H atom.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

32) The correct shape and hybridisation of BrF5 is :

(1) Square pyramidal and d2sp3

(2) Trigonal bipyramidal and sp3d2
(3) Trigonal bipyramidal and d2sp3
(4) Square pyramidal and sp3d2

33) Phenanthrene, , is an aromatic compound and follows Huckel's (4n + 2)π electron
rule. The value of n is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 0

34) Identify the incorrect statement :

(1) Na2O is a basic oxide and Cl2O7 is an acidic oxide.

(2) The following four species are called isoelectronic species : O2–, F–, Na+ and Mg2+.
(3) Among the four species Mg, Al, Mg2+ and Al3+, the smallest one is Al.
The oxidation and coordination number (or covalency) of Al in [AlCl(H2O)5]2+ are +3 and 6,
(4)
respectively

35) Identify [X] and [Y] in given reaction :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B

1) The major product P formed in the following reaction sequence is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
2) The Crystal Field Stabilisation Energy (CFSE) and the 'spin only' magnetic moment of [FeF6]3– ion
respectively, are :

(1) 0 Δo and 1.73 BM

(2) 2.0 Δo and 5.9 BM
(3) 2.0 Δo and 1.73 BM
(4) 0 Δo and 5.9 BM

3) When 5 g of a non-volatile non-electrolyte solute dissolved in 100 g of a certain solvent, the

freezing point of the solvent decreases by 0.25 K. The molar mass of the solute is :
[Kf of the given solvent = 1.2 K kg mol–1]

(1) 238.2 g mol–1

(2) 241.8 g mol–1
(3) 240.0 g mol–1
(4) 242.8 g mol–1

4) The compound that gives blood red colour in Lassaigne's test is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

5) For the equilibrium

2 NOCl(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Cl2(g)
the value of equilibrium constant, KC is 3.0 × 10–6 at 1000 K. Find KP for the reaction at this
temperature.
(Given R : 8.314 J K–1mol–1)

(1) 2.494 × 10–2

(2) 3.0 × 10–6
(3) 2.494 × 10–4
(4) 1.493

6) The product that cannot be formed in the following reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Identify the incorrect statement :

Boron trioxide is acidic, aluminium and gallium trioxides are amphoteric while indium and
(1)
thallium trioxides are basic.
3+ 2 3
(2) The hybridisation of Al in [Al(H2O)6] is d sp .
(3) Two isotopes of Boron, namely 10B(19%) and 11B(81%) are known.
(4) The relative stability of group 13 elements in +1 oxidation state varies as Al < Ga < In < Tl.

8) In salt analyses, group V radicals (Ba2+, Ca2+ and Sr2+) are precipitated as their carbonates by
adding soild NH4Cl and excess of NH4OH solution followed by solid (NH4)2CO3.
Choose the correct reagent used for the confirmation of Ca2+ ion from the following :

(1) Potassium chromate

(2) Ammonium oxalate
(3) Ammonium nitrate
(4) Ammonium sulphate

9) The most preferred method for the preparation of pure alkyl chlorides from alcohols is :

(1) R – OH + PCl5 → R – CI + POCl3 + HCl

(2) R – OH + SOCl2 → R – CI + SO2 + HCl

(3) R – OH + PCl R – CI + H3PO3

3

(4) R – OH + HCl R – CI + H2O

10) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Benzenediazonium chloride is a colourless crystalline solid. It is insoluble in water
but reacts with water when warmed.
Statement II : Benzenediazonium chloride on reacting with HCl in presence of copper powder gives
chlorobenzene as the product. This is an example of Gatterman reaction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) Statement II is true but Statement I is false
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

11) Number of mole of getting reduced to Mn2+ under acidic condition by 4.517 × 1024
electrons is :

(1) 7.5 moles

(2) 2.5 moles
(3) 5.0 moles
(4) 1.5 moels

12) Time taken by the first order decomposition of SO2Cl2 to decompose to 40% is 560 seconds. Rate
constant for the reaction is:
(log 2.5 = 0.3979)

(1) = 9.81 × 10–2 min–1

(2) 2.216 × 10–5 min–1
(3) 2.126 × 10–5 min–1
(4) 2.726 × 10–5 min–1

13) In salt analyses, Cl–, Br– and I– are identified by adding dilute HNO3 followed by AgNO3 solution
to the salt solution. Choose the correct statements from the following :
A. Cl– gives pale yellow precipitate.
B. Br– gives pale yellow precipitate which is partially soluble in NH4OH.
C. I– gives yellow precipitate which is insoluble in NH4OH.
D. Cl– gives white precipitate which is insoluble in NH4OH.
E. I– gives purple violet gas.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A and B only

(2) A and E only
(3) D and E only
(4) B and C only

14) Identify the incorrect statement :

(1) Silicon and Germanium are useful in semicondutor industry.

(2) Boron trifluoride is a strong Lewis acid.
(3) Common oxidation states of group 14 elements are +1 and +3
(4) Carbon has the tendency to form chains and rings with itself

15) Enthalpy of combustion of carbon to carbon dioxide is –390.0 kJ mol–1. The amount of heat
released, when 35.0 g of CO2 is formed from the reaction of carbon and dioxygen gas, is :

(1) 490 kJ
(2) 245 kJ
(3) 700 kJ
(4) 310 kJ

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : When the fitness of one species is significantly lower in the presence of another
species, the process is defined as competition.
Statement II : When fungi remain in association with living plants or animals they are called
Saprophytes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2) Which of the following statement is incorrect about enzymes ?

(1) In thermophilic organisms enzymes can catalyze reaction at high temperature i.e. 90°C
(2) All enzymes are proteinaceous in nature
(3) Some enzymes have metal ions
(4) They are highly substrate specific

3) Important objective of biotechnology in agriculture is to :

(1) increase nitrogen content in plant.

(2) decrease the seed number.
(3) increase the plant weight.
(4) produce pest resistant varieties of plant.

4) The negatively geotropic roots produced by Rhizophora are called :

(1) Prop roots

(2) Stilt roots
(3) Storage roots
(4) Pneumatophores

5) In glycolysis, the conversion of 1, 3-bisphospho Glyceric Acid to 3-Phosphoglyceric Acid is :

(1) Energy utilising process

(2) Phosphorylation process
(3) Isomerisation process
(4) Energy yielding process

6) Which of the following is not a selectable marker of cloning vectors ?

(1) Metformin
(2) Chloramphenicol
(3) Tetracycline
(4) Ampicillin

7) The transverse section of monocot root shows the following internal tissue organization. Arrange
them in correct sequence starting from periphery to centre.
A. Endodermis B. Pith
C. Epidermis D. Pericycle
E. Cortex
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A, C, E, B, D
(2) C, E, A, D, B
(3) C, E, D, B, A
(4) D, C, E, A, B

8) Given below are two statement :

Statement I : Two DNA sequences where prepared corresponding to A and B, chains of human
insulin and were introduced in the plasmids of Agrobacterium to produce insulin chain.
Statement II : Chain A and B were produced separately, extracted and combined by creating
disulphide bonds to form human insulin.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

9) ABO blood groups is an example of :

(1) Multiple alleles

(2) Pleiotropy
(3) Linkage
(4) Incomplete dominance

10) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
Microscopic
A. I. Salvinia
angiosperm
Tallest
B. II. Marchantia
gymnosperm
Thalloid
C. III. Sequoia
bryophyte
Heterosporous
D. IV. Wolffia
pteridophyte

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

11) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Rain forests which used to cover more than 14% of the earth's land surface is now
reduced to 6%.
Statement II : Amazon rain forest has greatest biodiversity on earth.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

12) Synthesis of ATP linked to development of a proton gradient across a membrane is :

(1) Wobble hypothesis

(2) Chemiosmotic hypothesis
(3) Rivet Popper hypothesis
(4) Mass flow hypothesis

13) The given figure with reference to the anatomy of plants represents :

(1) Xylem fibre

(2) Xylem parenchyma
(3) Vessel
(4) Tracheid

14) The population growing in a habitat with limited resources will show :
A. lag phase, followed by phases of acceleration and deceleration and finally an asymptote.
B. the ability to realise its innate potential to grow in number and reach enormous densities in short
time.
C. exponential growth.
D. logistic growth.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) C and D only

(2) A and D only
(3) B and C only
(4) A and B only

15) The following can be found as a zwitter ion :

(1) Monosaccharide
(2) Amino acid
(3) Nucleic acid
(4) Fatty acid

16) The phenomenon where a single gene exhibiting multiple phenotypic expressions is called :
(1) Pleiotropy
(2) Multiple alleles
(3) Polygenic inheritance
(4) Co-dominance

17) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
Filaments of
stamens
A. Polyadelphous I. united into
more than two
bundles
B. Syncarpous II. Sterile stamen
Stamens are
C. Staminode III. attached to
the petals
Carpels are
D. Epipetalous IV.
fused

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

18) Identify the place(s) from the following where sacred groves are not found.
A. Aravalli Hills of Rajasthan.
B. Chanda and Bastar area of Madhya Pradesh.
C. Mudumalai Sanctuary in Tamil Nadu.
D. Khasi and Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) C only
(2) B and C only
(3) C and D only
(4) A only

19) 'Golden rice' is a genetically modified rice. It is an example of :

(1) biofortification
(2) pest-resistant crop
(3) increased mineral usage efficiency
(4) bioprospecting

20) The junction between ovule and funicle is represented by :

(1) Integument
(2) Chalaza
(3) Hilum
(4) Nucellus

21) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
A. Toxin I. Gum
Polymeric Concanavalin
B. II.
substance A
C. Lectin III. Ricin
D. Drug IV. Vinblastin

Choose the correct answer from the option below :

(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

22) The asexual spores of Deuteromycetes are :

(1) Conidia
(2) Zoospores
(3) Basidiospores
(4) Aplanospores

23) Cell wall formation in Bacteria is facilitated by :

(1) Mesosomes
(2) Golgi Apparatus
(3) Centrosomes
(4) Ribosomes

24) Which of the following technique was used to elucidate the double helix model of DNA ?

(1) Electromagnetic radiation

(2) UV-vis spectroscopy
(3) X-ray diffraction
(4) γ-radiation

25) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
+ –
A. C4 Pathway I. 2H2O → 4H + O2 + 4e
 Ribulose
B. Light reaction II.
1,5-bisphosphate
Phosphoenol
C. Photorespiration III.
Pyruvate
D. Calvin Cycle IV. Phosphoglycolate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

26) Which of the following represents the female gametophyte ?

(1) Embryo sac

(2) Nucellus
(3) Endosperm
(4) Ovule

27) Which one of the following is not a complex polysaccharide ?

(1) Chitin
(2) Glucosamine
(3) N-acetyl galactosamine
(4) Inulin

28) A yellow seeded and violet flowered pea plant was crossed with a green seeded and white
flowered pea plant. The progeny showed plants with four different phenotypes. The yellow seeded
and violet flowered parent must be:

(1) Double heterozygous

(2) Homozygous for seed colour and heterozygous for flower colour
(3) Heterozygous for seed colour and homozygous for flower colour
(4) Double homozygous

29) Which of the following is not the characteristic feature of genetic code?

(1) The code is nearly universal

(2) The code has punctuations
(3) Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon, hence the code is degenerate
(4) The codon is triplet

30) Which of the following represent Sister chromatids in the given figure?
(1) B
(2) C
(3) D
(4) A

31) In plants, sucrose is converted into two molecule of monosaccharides due to action of invertase
and then both enter the glycolytic pathway. Identify the monosaccharides.

(1) Glucose and fructose

(2) Glucose and galactose
(3) Fructose and galactose
(4) Glucose and glucose

32) A cross between tall plants was made resulting offsprings of tall and dwarf plants with ratio 3 :
1. The genotype (s) of both the parents are :

(1) Tt and tt
(2) Tt and Tt
(3) tt and tt
(4) TT and TT

33) How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are required respectively for fixation of every CO2
molecule entering the Calvin cycle?

(1) 4 and 2
(2) 3 and 2
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 2 and 4

34) The photochemical phase of photosynthesis include:

A. Oxygen release
B. Formation of NADPH
C. Use of ATP
D. Water splitting
E. Carboxylation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A, B and D only

(2) B, C and E only
(3) A, B, C and D only
(4) C and E only

35) Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements :
A. In cymose infloroscence, the flowers are borne in an acropetalous succession.
B. In gulmohar, the flowers are actinomorphic.
C. In the flowers of cucumber, the margin of the thalamus grows upward enclosing the ovary
completely and getting fused with it, the other parts of flower arise above the ovary.
D. Bracts are reduced leaves found at the base of the pedicel.
E. The flowers are hypogynous in mustard.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) B, D, E only
(2) A, C, D only
(3) C, D, E only
(4) A, B, C only

SECTION-B

1) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The rate of decomposition is not related to chemical composition of detritus and
climatic factors.
Statement II : In a particular climatic conditions, decomposition rate is faster if detritus is rich in
lignin and chitin.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

2) Which of the following statements are correct about respiration?

A. Energy of oxidation - reduction is utilised for phosphorylation.
B. Oxygen acts as the final hydrogen acceptor.
C. The photo-oxidation energy is utilised for production of proton gradient required for
phosphorylation.
D. The role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage of the respiration process.
E. Protons cross the outer membrane of mitochondria through the channel formed by an integral
membrane protein complex.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B, D only
(2) B, C, D, E only
(3) A, C, D only
(4) A, B, D, E only
3) Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Restriction endonuclease finds its specific recognition sequence and binds to the
DNA.
Statement II : Restriction Endonuclease cuts each of the two strands of the double helix at specific
points in their sugar phosphate backbone.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

4) Which of the following is not an example of Mutualism?

(1) Mycorrhizae
(2) An orchid on a branch of mango plant
(3) The wasp pollinating fig inflorescence
(4) Lichens

5) Which of the following graphs explains the effect pH on the enzyme activity?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

6) Read the following statements and find out the correct set of statements :
A. Companion cells help in maintaining the pressure gradient in the sieve tubes.
B. Gymnosperm lack vessels in their xylem.
C. The xylem vessels are devoid of cytoplasm.
D. Xylem fibres may be septate or aseptate.
E. A mature sieve element in phloem possesses cytoplasm, vacuole and nucleus.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B, D, E only
(2) A, B, C, D only
(3) C, D, E only
(4) B, C, D, E only

7) Highest annual Net Primary Productivity is observed in-

(1) Temperate evergreen forest

(2) Temperate deciduous forest
(3) Tropical rain forest
(4) Tropical deciduous forest

8) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : In collenchyma cell walls are thickened at corners due to deposition of cellulose,
hemicellulose and pectin.
Statement II : Sclerenchyma consists of lignified cell walls and possesses pits.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

9) Bt toxin Protein that can kill many insects, doesn't kill the Bacillus because:

(1) Bacillus has protective mechanism against it.

In Bacillus, it is present in an inactive state and once insect ingests it, it is converted to active
(2)
form.
(3) The protoxin requires protein conjugate for its activation
(4) Bt toxin requires acidic pH for activation
10) Which experimental material was used by Taylor and colleagues to prove that DNA in
chromosomes replicates semiconservatively?

(1) Pisum sativum

(2) Solanum tuberosum
(3) Oryza sativa
(4) Vicia faba

11) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

A. Collagen I. Enzyme

Most abundant
B. GLUT-4 II.
enzyme in biosphere

Most abundant
C. Trypsin III. protien in animal
world

Enables
D. RuBisCO IV. glucose transport into
cells.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV
(2) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
(3) A–I, B–III, C–IV, D–II
(4) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II

12) What is incorrect about ecosystem?

(1) It may be anthropogenic in origin

(2) It may be temporary or Permanent
(3) It involves the function of flow of energy not recycling of nutrients.
(4) It can vary from small sized pond to large sized sea.

13) The flowers of Amorphophallus provide safe place for the pollinator to lay eggs. This is an
example of:

(1) Anemophily
(2) Floral reward
(3) Commensalism
(4) Amensalism

14) Match List-I with List-II

 List-I List-II

Increasing
A. Ethylene I.
length of stem

Promotion of
B. Cytokinins II. senescenence
and abscission

Delaying
C. ABA III.
leaf senescenence

Inhibition of
D. Gibberellins IV.
seed germination

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
(2) A–IV, B–II, C–I, D–III
(3) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
(4) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II

15) In the lac operon the i gene code for :

(1) repressor
(2) β-galactosidase
(3) permease
(4) inducer

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Name the hormone(s) not secreted by placenta.

A. Estrogens
B. Progestogens
C. Relaxin and Inhibin
D. hCG
E. hPL
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) C only
(2) B only
(3) A and C only
(4) D and E only

2) MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy) with oral pills is considered relatively safe upto-

(1) 15-18 weeks of pregnancy

(2) 20-24 weeks of pregnancy
(3) 28-30 weeks of pregnancy
(4) 7-9 weeks of pregnancy

3) Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II

Vertebrochondral Ilium, Ischium,

A. I.
Ribs Pubis

Floating 8th, 9th and

B. II.
Ribs 10th Pairs

C. Scapula III. Acromion

Coxal
D. IV. 11th and 12th Pairs
Bone

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

4) Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II

Flight or
A. Parathyroid hormone I.
fight response

Epinephrine Regulates the

B. II.
and Nor-epinephrine body’s biological clock

Thyroid
Increases blood
C. stimulating III.
Ca2+ level
hormone

Synthesis of T3 and T4
D. Melatonin IV.
hormone

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

5) Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II
 Saccharomyces
A. I. Citric acid
cerevisiae

B. Aspergillus niger II. Butyric acid

Trichoderma
C. III. Ethanol
polysporum

D. Clostridium butylicum IV. Cyclosporin-A

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

6) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : The ground substances of bone is solid, pliable and resist compression.
Statement-II : The bone marrow of all bones is site of production of blood cells.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

7) Which of the following is NOT an example of assisted reproductive technology (ART) ?

(1) GIFT
(2) IUI
(3) IUD
(4) IVF

8) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Aphids and mosquitoes are natural pests.
Statement-II : Lady bird and dragonflies are natural pests controllers.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

9) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Bacterial infection by Bacillus thuringiensis can kill only caterpillar larvae.
Statement-II : B. thuringiensis cannot kill adult moths.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

10) Given below is a list of some sexually reproducing animals. Select the hermaphrodite animals
from the list.
A. Cockroach B. Leech
C. Housefly D. Tapeworm
E. Earthworm
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(1) C and D only

(2) B, D and E only
(3) A, C and E only
(4) A, B and D only

11) Arrange in a proper sequence the pathway of sperms from testis to outside in human male
reproductive system.
A. Vas deferens B. Rete testis
C. Seminiferous tubules D. Vasa efferentia
E. Urethra F. Epididymis
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(1) C → A → B → D → F → E
(2) B → A → D → C → F → E
(3) C → B → D → F → A → E
(4) F → A → B → D → E → C

12) The catalytic cycle of an enzyme action is described as:

A. Enzyme releases products of the reaction and gets free.
B. Substrate induces the enzymes to alter its shape.
C. The substrate binds with the active site of the enzymes.
D. Enzymes-product complex is formed.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) C → B → D → A
(2) B → C → D → A
(3) D → C → A → B
(4) C → B → A → D

13) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : Connell’s elegant field experiment showed that on the rocky sea, the larger and
competitively superior barnacles dominate the intertidal area, and excludes the smaller barnacle
from that area.
Reason R : Generally herbivores and plants appear to be more adversely affected by competition
than Carnivores.
In the light of tha above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below :

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

14) Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II

A. Ampicillin I. Restriction Sites

Blue/White
B. Ori II.
screening

Multiple Cloning Selectable

C. III.
Sites marker

Sequence from
β galactosidase
D. IV. where replication
gene
starts

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

15) Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II

Proliferation of
A. Emphysema I.
fibrous tissues

Alveolar walls are

damaged and
B. Asbestosis II.
respiratory surface is
decreased

C. Asthma III. Serious lung damage

Difficulty in breathing
due to inflammation
D. Fibrosis IV.
of bronchi and
bronchioles
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

16) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : In honey bee population, sons do not have fathers but have grandfathers.
Reason R : Haploidy in drones of honey bee is due to parthenogenesis while fertilisation results into
female bees.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below :

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

17) Which of the following is ‘NOT’ an autosomal recessive disorders ?

(1) Phenylketonuria
(2) Haemophilia
(3) Thalassemia
(4) Sickle cell anemia

18) In the following diagram of alimentary canal of cockroach identify the labels A, B, C and D

respectively.

A-Oesophagus, B-Crop,
(1)
C-Salivary glands, D-Hepatic caeca
(2) A-Crop, B-Gizzard, C-Hepatic caeca, D-Malpighian tubules
(3) A-Gizzard, B-Hepatic caeca, C-Malpighian tubuels, D-Cilia
(4) A-Gizzard, B-Crop,C-Malpighian tubules, D-Hepatic caeca

19) Which of the following group of animals have three chambered heart ?

(1) Chameleon, Hyla, Calotes

(2) Crocodilus, Pavo, Clarias
(3) Exocoetus, Hemidactylus, Rana
(4) Bufo, Alligator, Struthio
20) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

A. Ribozyme I. Glucose transport

B. Lecithin II. Non proteinaceous Enzyme

C. GLUT-4 III. Lipid

D. Vitamins IV. Coenzyme

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

21) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : Some ethical standards are required to evaluate the morality of scientific human
activities that might help or harm living organisms.
Reason R : Genetic Engineering Approval Committee make decisions regarding the validity of
Genetically Modified (GM) research and the safety of introducing GM organisms for public services.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is correct but R is not correct.
(3) A is not correct but R is correct.
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

22) Use of hyper immune horse serum raised against a specific pathogen, given to a recipient is an
example of :

(1) Artificial active immunity

(2) Natural passive immunity
(3) Artificial passive immunity
(4) Natural active immunity

23) Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II
Cell Cycle Events
 Cell is metabolically
active but no
A. G1 Phase I.
proliferation until
required

B. S Phase II. Replication of DNA

C. G0 Stage III. Synthesis of Proteins

Cell is metabolically
D. G2 Phase IV. active and grows
continuously

Choose the correct answer from the option given below :

(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

24) Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II

M. Meselson and
A. DNA fingerprinting I.
F. Stahl

A. Harshey and
B. Pneumococcus II.
M. Chase

C. E. coli III. F. Griffith

D. Bacteriophage IV. Alec Jeffreys

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

25) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(Biological Name) (Common Name)

A. Asterias I. Sea urchin

B. Antedon II. Brittle star

C. Echinus III. Sea lily

D. Ophiura IV. Star fish

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

26) The animal coelacanth caught in South Africa is an example of vertebrate transition from:

(1) Amphibia to Reptilia

(2) Reptilia to Bird
(3) Reptilia to Mammal
(4) Fish to Amphibia

27) Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II

Guards the opening

A. Tricuspid valves I. between right atrium
and right ventricle

Guards the opening

between the left
B. Sino-atrial node II.
atrium and the left
ventricle

Guards the opening

of right and left
Mitral
C. III. ventricles into
valves
pulmonary artry and
aorta, respectively

Cardiac musculature
Semilunar in the right upper
D. IV.
valves corner of right
atrium

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

28) Identify the correct statements about Genetic codons.

A. AUG is initiator codon and codes for Glycine
B. UAA codes for Tyrosine
C. The codons are mostly universal
D. UAG is terminator codon
E. More than one codons code for single amino acid
(1) A, D, E
(2) C, D, E
(3) A, B, C
(4) C, B, D

29) Which part of human nephron is impermeable to water?

(1) Distal convoluted tubule

(2) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
(3) Descending limb of loop of Henle
(4) Proximal convoluted tubule

30) In standard ECG diagram, the P-wave represents:

(1) Repolarisation of the ventricle

(2) Depolarisation of the ventricle
(3) End of systole
(4) Depolarisation of the atria

31) A Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: The interaction, in which one species benefits and the other is neither harmed nor
benefited, is known as commensalism.
Reason R: Egrets always forage close to where the cattles are grazing, otherwise it is difficult for
the egrets to find the insect and catch.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

32) Match List-I with List-II relating to major features of embryonic development at different timings
of pregnancy:

List-I (No. of Weeks) List-II (Major features)

Eye–lids separate and

A. After 4 weeks of pregnancy I.
eyelashes are formed

B. After 12 weeks of pregnancy II. Heart is formed

Limbs and digits are

C. After 24 weeks of pregnancy III.
developed

External genital organs

D. After 8 weeks of pregnancy IV.
are well developed

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV
(2) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
(3) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I
(4) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II

33) Match List–I with List–II

List–I List–II

A. Limbic system I. Body temperature

B. Arachnoid II. Tract of nerve fibres

C. Corpus callosum III. Amygdala

D. Hypothalamus IV. Cranial meninges

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A–I, B–II, C–IV, D–III
(2) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV
(3) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I
(4) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I

34) Match List–I with List–II

List–I List–II

A. Tertiary consumer I. Grass

B. Secondary consumer II. Lion

C. Primary consumer III. Wolf

D. Primary producer IV. Goat

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I

(2) A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I
(3) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
(4) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV

35) Match List–I with List–II

List–I List–II

A. Cilia I. Spindle fibres

B. Endoplasmic Reticulum II. Cristae

 C. Mitochondria III. Axoneme

D. Kinetochore IV. Ribosomes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I
(2) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV
(3) A–III, B–II, C–I, D–IV
(4) A–I, B–IV, C–II, D–III

SECTION-B

1) The manifestations of phenylketonuria are given below. Choose the incorrect answer from the
given options :

(1) Skin rashes

(2) Excessive accumulation of phenylpyruvate in blood
(3) Furrowed tongue
(4) Mental retardation

2) In human the process of respiration involves the following steps.

A. Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane
B. Diffusion of gases between blood and tissues
C. Transport of gases by blood
D. Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic reactions
E. Breathing or pulmonary ventilation
Choose the correct sequence of steps from the options given below:

(1) C → E → A → B → D
(2) B → D → C → E → A
(3) E → A → C → B → D
(4) A → E → B → C → D

3) Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: After death, the body muscles get stiff as a state of partial contraction of muscles.
Reason R: Attachment of myosin head to unexposed sites on actin can take place partially.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is correct but R is not correct.
(3) A is not correct but R is correct.
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

4) Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: Some human organs like liver, kidney fail to function normally and transplantation is
the only remedy to enable the patient to live a normal life.
Reason R : Tissue matching and blood group matching are essential before undertaking any
transplant and patient has to take immuno-suppresant thereafter.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

5) With regard to Hormones, identify the correct statements.

A. Epinephrine is a peptide hormone.
B. Progesterone is a peptide hormone.
C. Hormones that interact with membrane bound receptors normally do not enter target cell, but
generate second messengers.
D. Hormones that interact with intracellular receptors mostly regulate gene expression.
E. Insulin is a amino acid derivative hormone.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) C and E only

(2) C and D only
(3) B and C only
(4) A and B only

6) In animal kingdom along with XX–XY mechanism, many other variants of chromosomal sex
determination mechanism have been described such as XX-XO mechanism, ZZ-ZW mechanism
ZZ–ZO mechanism and haplo-diploidy mechanism, which are present, respectively in:

(1) Grasshopper, Birds, Moth, Wasp

(2) Birds, Moth, Grasshopper, Wasp
(3) Grasshopper, Moth, Birds, Wasp
(4) Birds, Grasshopper, Wasp, Moth

7) Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : In hemichordates the body cavity is lined by mesoderm.
Reason R : In aschelminthes the body cavity is not lined by mesoderm.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

8) Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : Juxta Glomerular Apparatus (JGA) plays an important role in regulation of glomerular
filtration rate (GFR).
Reason R : A fall in GFR can activate the J.G. cells to release renin which can stimulate the
glomerular blood flow and there by bringing the GFR to normal level.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

9) Assuming Hardy Weinberg's Principle, in certain population the frequencies of three genotypes
are as follows:

Genotypes AA Aa aa
Frequency 22% 62% 16%
What is likely frequency of 'A' and 'a' alleles ?
(1) 40% and 60%
(2) 50% and 50%
(3) 30% and 70%
(4) 53% and 47%

10) Given below are two statements:

Statement I : The Golgi cisternae are concentrically arranged near the nucleus with distinct convex
cis or the forming face and concave trans or the maturing face.
Statement II : The cis and trans faces of the orgnelle are identical and interconnected.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

11) Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Degeneration of corpus luteum in the absence of fertilization is the cause for
disintegration of endometrium.
Statement II : Cyclic menstruation indicates normal reproductive phase in human females and
extends between menarche and menopause.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

12) Match List–I with List–II

 List–I List–II
(Events) (Prophase-I)

Chromosomes start
pairing together to
A. I. Pachytene
form synaptonemal
complex

Chromosomes visible
under light microscope
B. II. Zygotene
and compaction
continues

Four chromatids of
bivalent chromosomes
C. become distinct and III. Diplotene
recombinant nodules
appear

Dissolution of
D. synaptonemal IV. Leptotene
complex

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A–I, B–IV, C–III, D–II
(2) A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I
(3) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
(4) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III

13) Match List–I with List–II

List–I (Cockroach) List–II (Term used)

A. Metamorphosis I. Ommatidia

B. Brain II. Paurometabolous

C. Vision III. Spiracles

D. Respiration IV. Supra–oesophageal ganglion

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A–I, B–III, C–IV, D–II
(2) A–III, B–II, C–I, D–IV
(3) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
(4) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III

14) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : There is always a sharp decline in dissolved oxygen downstream from the point of
sewage discharge, which causes mortality of fish and other aquatic creatures.
Reason R : Micro-organisms involved in bio-degradation of organic matter in the receiving water
body consumes a lot of oxygen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

15) The epithelial tissue has the following features:

A. Bear cilia on their free surface.
B. Provides a lining for some parts of body.
C. Compound epithelium is multilayered meant for limited role in secretion and absorption.
D. Located in the tip of nose.
E. Exocrine glands possess epithelial tissue.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B and C only

(2) B, C and E only
(3) C, D and E only
(4) B, D and E only
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 3 2 2 2 1 3 3 3 2 1 3 4 1 3 3 2 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 1 1 1 3 3 3 2 2 1 2 4 4 2 1 2

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 1 1 2 1 4 1 2 4 2 1 1 2 3 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 3 2 2 3 4 4 2 4 3 1 1 4 4 2 2 4 1 4 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 2 4 1 4 4 2 2 1 2 4 3 3 2

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 4 3 4 3 3 2 2 2 3 4 1 4 3 4

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 2 4 4 4 1 2 3 1 1 4 2 3 2 2 1 4 1 1 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 1 1 3 2 1 4 1 2 1 1 2 2 1 3

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 4 2 4 2 3 4 2 4 2 3 2 1 1

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 2 4 4 1 3 4 4 2 3 2 1 4 1 4 2 2 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 3 1 1 1 4 3 2 2 4 1 2 4 3 1

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 3 2 1 2 1 1 4 4 2 4 3 3 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) A : E = 0

B:E=

C:E=

D:

2)

W =
= 2(3) + 0
=6J

3)

E=0

4) and
⇒ h = 45 m

5) Kmax =
= (4.4 – 2.5) eV
= 1.9 eV

6)

Distance is area under speed time graph.

D=

7) emf =
= 2.5 × 10–3 × 0.5 × 100π cos(100πt)
= 125π × 10–3
= 125π mV
8) LC = MSD – VSD

= MSD – MSD

= mm

10) Equation of state : = constant

11)

12)

13)

Statement-1 is wrong because de-Broglie wavelength is associated will all types of material
particle whether they are charged or uncharged.
Statement-2 correct option (3)

14)

IA = mR2
IB = mR2/4
IC = mR2
ID = mR2/2
⇒ IA = IC & 2IB = ID

15)

In YDSE

Fringe width :
If λ↑ then β also ↑

16)

Assertion is false as water acts as fixed end (for displacement)

Reason is true for displacement.

17)

Diamagnet → Copper
Paramagnet → Aluminium
Soft ferromagnet → Gadolinium
Hard ferromagnet → Alnico

18)

19)

2F = mg
2TL = ρπr2Lg

20) ω =

21)
According to Curie Law

22) i = 0.5 i0

⇒ = 6.93 ms

23) Force is constant

when

⇒
⇒ 2αt – β = 0
⇒ τ = β/2α

24)

⇒
= 1% + 2(2%) = 5%

25) Balanced wheatston bridge :

⇒R=2Ω

26)

0.001213 → 4
2.1 × 1016 → 2
3.70 → 3
3000 → 1

27) p = mv

= 8 SI units

29)
for concave mirror

30)

P = Patm + ρgh
= 105 + 103(10) (20)
= 3 × 105 Pa
= 3 atm
31) Gauss Theorem in electrostatics

Gauss Theorem in magnetism

Faraday Law

Ampere-Maxwell's Law

32)
For minimum deviation condition :
i = i'

33)

(A) Balmer series n→2 A → IV

(B) Lyman series n→1 B→I
(C) Brackett series n→4 C → II
(D) Pfund series n→5 D → III

34)

35) W = mg'
36)

C' = 2C
Now

37)

38)

39)

Now :

= 1.4 + 1
= 2.4 m/s m/s
40)

U.P.L. μ = tan θp
= tan θp
" θp = 60°"
Apply Snell's Law

θp = 60°

sin θ = ⇒ θ = 30°

41)

Initial Acceleration (At t = 0 and v = 0)

a = 4m/s2
Terminal velocity (when a = 0)
⇒ 0 = 4–2v ⇒ v = 2m/s

42)

ΔKE = W
KE – 0 = qΔV
= qEd

43) If v = k ve

= R = 6400 km
44)

45)

T3 > T4 > T1 = T2 and T3 > T5 > T1 = T2

Because tension decreases as bob moves away from mean position

46) Y =

=
=
=
=
=
XOR gate

47) In as Range ↑ RAmmeter ↓

has high resistance then &

48)

Ratio of densities of nucleus = 1 : 1

∵V∝A

⇒ V1 : V2 = 14 : 1

49)
M' = m2r

∵
 50)

⇒ t = t1 + t2

CHEMISTRY

51)

No transfer of
Adiabatic heat between
(A) ⇒
process system and
surroundings (III)

Reversible Both way process

(B) process ⇒ reactant to product
and vice-versa (II)

Intensive Independent of amount

(C) ⇒
property of substance (I)

Extensive Dependent on amount

(D) ⇒
property of substance (IV)

52) O2 is paramagnetic due to 2 unpaired e– in π*2px and π*2py orbitals.

53)
54)

55)

π = iCRT
π1 = π2 when i1C1 = i2C2
check options,

56)

St.-I :- 1 mole
V.F of H2O = 2
geq. of H2O = 1 mol × (V.F = 2)
= 2F

St.-2 :- geq. of Al =
= 4.44 F

57) 2HI → H2 + I2

59) Fe = +2, +3, V ⇒ +5, Mn ⇒ +2, +7, Ti ⇒ +4

61) NCERT Pg.#

62) Fact

63) [Ni(CN)4]–2 ⇒ dps2, [CoF6]–3 ⇒ sp3d2

(CN– is SFL) F– is WFL
[Co(C2O4)3]–3 ⇒ d2sp3, [NiCl4]–2 ⇒ sp3
is SFL with Co+3, Cl– is WFL

64) Fact

66) Freon (CCl2F2) is manufactured from CCl4 by Swarts reaction.

67) SF4 ⇒

68)

69) NCERT, Page No. # 109 Last line

70)

(A) Vitamin K → IV (fat soluble)

(B) Vitamin B12 → I (RBC deficient in Haemoglobin)
(C) VItamin C → II (Bleeding gums)
(D) Vitamin B1 → III (Thiamine)

71)

(A) Carbyl amine test (IV) Aniline

(B) Bayer's test (III) Ethylene
(C) Iodoform test (II) Acetone
(D) Phthalein dye test (I) Phenol

72) Moles =

⇒ Mol. mass = = 120 g mol–1

73) For 1 mole HCl and NaOH; Heat = –57.3 kJ

For 0.25 mole; Heat = –57.3 × 0.25
= –14.32 kJ
(Unit should not be kJ mol–1)
74)

75)

76)

Np – +7 Highest oxidation state

Am – +6 Highest oxidation state
Pa – +5 Highest oxidation state
Ac – +3 Highest oxidation state

77) (A)→(II), (B)→(I), C→(III), (D)→(IV)

78)

Order of bond angle

⇒ NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
(Bond angle ∝ EN of central atom)

79) Kc =

80) No. of protons = p

No. of neutrons =
Option check ; n + p = 2.1923p
p = 26; n + p = 57

81) St.-1 :- E = –13.6 ×

For H-atom in n = 1 ; E = –13.6 eV

For He+ in n = 2, E = –13.6 ×

= –13.6 eV
St.1 is correct
St.-2 :- Incorrect (uncertainity principle)

82) BrF5 ⇒ Sp3d2 square pyramidal

83) 14πe– = (4n + 2)

84)

Correct order of radius – Al+3 < Mg+2 < Al < Mg

Al in [AlCl(H2O)5]2+ are +3 and 6, respectively

85)

86)

87) [FeF6]–3 ⇒ Fe+3 = 3d5 ( ) F– is WFL.

CFSE = – 0.4 Δ0 × 3 + 0.6 Δ0 × 2
CFSE = 0
Number of unpaired e– = 5

88) ΔTf = i × kf × molality

0.25 = 1 × 1.2 ×
m = 240
89)

90) Kp =
=
= 0.2493 × 10–3
= 2.49 × 10–4

91)

92) hybridisation of Al in [Al(H2O)6]+3 is sp3d2.

93) Ammonium oxalate is used for the confirmation of Ca+2.

94) R – OH + SOCl2 → R–Cl + SO2↑ + HCl↑

By products are in gaseous state, so separation of products not required.

96)

5 × (6.02 × 1023) e– 1 mole

4.517 × 1024 e– → × (4.517 × 1024)

= 1.5 mole

97)

K=

=
= 9.81 × 10–2 min–1

98)
 A - Cl– gives yellow ppt - false
Reason - it gives white ppt of AgCl
D - Cl– gives white ppt which is insoluble in NH4OH - false
Reason - white ppt of AgCl is soluble in NH4OH.
due to formation of soluble complex.

99) Common oxidation of group 14 elements are +2 and +4.

100)

C + O2 → CO2 ; ΔCH = –390 kJ mol–1

1 mole = 44 g → 390 kJ released

For 35 g → × 35 = 310 kJ

BOTANY

101) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 198, 201

102) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 112, 113, 114, 117

103) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 179

104) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 67 (Old NCERT)

105) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 156

106) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 169

107) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 74

108) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 182

109) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 61

110) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 29, 32, 34

111) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 222

112) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 140

113) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 87 (Old NCERT)

114) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 194, 195

115) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 106

116) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 69

117) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 64, 65

118) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 225

119) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 179

120) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 9

121) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 108

122) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 18

123) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 91

124) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 81

125) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 139-147

126) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 10

127) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 111

128) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 64

129) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 96

130) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 127

131) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 156

132) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 57

133) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 145

134) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 138-140

135) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 61, 62, 63

136) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 208

137) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 160

138) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 166

139) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 201

140) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 116

141) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 87 (Old NCERT)

142) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 207

143) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 86 (Old NCERT)

144) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 179

145) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 90

146) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 109

147) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 205

148) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 14

149) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 176-177

150) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 101

ZOOLOGY

151) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 37

152) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 46

153) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 225, 226

154) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 241-244

155) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 153

156) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 104 (Old NCERT)

157) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 48

158) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 157

159) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 157

160) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 42, 43, 44

161) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 32

162) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 115

163) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 199

164) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 169, 170

165) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 190, 191

166) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 71

167) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 74, 75

168) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 113 (Old NCERT)

169) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 48, 49

170) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 106, 109, 113, 118

171) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 185

172) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 136

173) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121, 122

174) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 84, 85, 89, 105

175) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 45

176) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 122

177) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 198, 199

178) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 96

179) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 209

180) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 201

181) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 201

182) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 38

183) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 235, 236

184) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 210

185) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95, 97, 99, 101

186) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 75

187) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 185

189) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 135, 136

190) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 248

191) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 69, 70

192) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 43, 45

193) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 212

194) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 121

195) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95, 96

196) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 35

197) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

198) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 113, 114, 115 (Old NCERT)

199) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 274, 275 (Old NCERT)

200) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101, 102 (Old NCERT)