1.

An aircraft is approaching an airport (airfield elevation 643 ft AMSL) with the

following METAR:
METAR XXXX 251230Z 10002KT 9999 OVC024 M20/M22 Q0993.
What altitude does the altimeter show while landing with the QNH 993 set on the
subscale?
a) More than 643 ft
b) 643 ft
c) Impossible to say with the given information
d) Less than 643 ft

2. If the subscale of an altimeter is set to QNH, what will it indicate after:

a) Less than aerodrome elevation when it is colder than standard, aerodrome
elevation when it is warmer than standard.
b) Aerodrome elevation.
c) Less than aerodrome elevation when pressure is lower than standard, more than
aerodrome elevation when pressure is higher than standard.
d) Pressure altitude.

3. The atmosphere is split up into layers according to what?

a) Water vapour
b) Composition of the air
c) Vertical temperature profile
d) Electrical charges

4. Fill the blanks. The atmosphere is heated from (1) ___ by (2) ___ radiation.
a) (1) below, (2) ultraviolet
b) (1) above, (2) ultraviolet
c) (1) above, (2) infrared
d) (1) below, (2) infrared
5. Define QFF.
a) Airfield pressure reduced to mean sea level, assuming ISA temperature.
b) Airfield pressure reduced to mean sea level, accounting for the actual air
temperature.
c) The atmospheric pressure measured at MSL, accounting for ISA temperature
deviations.
d) The atmospheric pressure measured at a given flight level and reduced to the
surface of the earth, accounting for ISA temperature deviations.

6. What is the vertical temperature lapse rate, up to 11 km, in the standard ICAO
atmosphere?
a) per 1 000 m.
b) per 1 000 m.
c) per 1 000 m.
d) per 1 000 m.

7. An aircraft departs from India, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition
altitude. If the local QNH is 1024 hPa, the transition altitude is at 11000 ft and
transition level is at FL105, what will be the altimeter reading when the altimeter
setting is changed from QNH to standard pressure? (Barometric lapse rate: 27 ft /
hPa)
a) 10203 ft
b) 10595 ft
c) 11307 ft
d) 10703 ft
8. The QFE at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air
temperature is 10 ∘C∘C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
a) 1 016 hPa.
b) It is not possible to give a definitive answer.
c) Less than 1 016 hPa.
d) More than 1 016 hPa.

9. What can be said about the change of temperature with increasing altitude in the
lower ISA stratosphere?
a) The temperature is decreasing.
b) The temperature is increasing.
c) The temperature is first increasing and then decreasing.
d) The temperature is constant.

10. Solar radiation is the primary source of weather processes. When it interacts with
the atmosphere and the earth:
a) The major part remains in the atmosphere, where the ozone layer is an effective
absorber of solar radiation. Thus, temperatures in the ozone layer are similar to the
surface temperatures.
b) One part is absorbed by the atmosphere, another part is reflected by the surface
of the earth, but the major part is absorbed by the earth.
c) None is absorbed by the atmosphere. Almost all of the incoming radiation reaches
the surface of the earth, where it is completely absorbed, leading to maximum
temperatures at the ground.
d) The major part is absorbed by atmospheric gases and clouds. The temperature rise
in the affected layers leads to long wave terrestrial radiation.
11. Low level jet streams at relatively low altitudes may form:
a) At night just above the inversion created by the cooling of the air closest to the
surface inside valleys.
b) In the middle of the eye of a TRS.
c) Inside large Cb clouds during the dissipating stage.
d) In very unstable atmospheres during the day when convection is strongest.

12. Where are you most likely to encounter moderate to severe turbulence?
(Question incomplete in original content)

13. Under which of the following conditions is the most severe CAT likely to be
experienced?
a) A curved jet stream near a deep trough.
b) A jet stream, with great spacing between the isotherms.
c) A straight jet stream near a low pressure area.
d) A westerly jet stream at low latitudes in the summer.

14. What is the approximate speed of a 40 kt wind, expressed in m/sec?

a) 25 m/sec.
b) 20 m/sec.
c) 30 m/sec.
d) 15 m/sec.
15. The weather forecast for a specific part of Europe contains the information:
“...atmospheric convergence at low levels...” You can e) level wind...
a) backed relative to the isobars on the surface chart, cloud dissipating in the sinking
vertical currents, and atmospheric convergence close to the tropopause.
b) veered relative to the isobars on the surface chart, cloud dissipating in the rising
vertical currents, and atmospheric divergence close to the tropopause.
c) veered relative to the isobars on the surface chart, cloud forming in the rising
vertical currents, and atmospheric convergence close to the tropopause.
d) backed relative to the isobars on the surface chart, cloud forming in the rising
vertical currents, and atmospheric divergence close to the tropopause.

16. When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist, a station on the shore of a large
body of water will experience wind:
a) continually from water to the land.
b) from the water in daytime and from the land at night.
c) from the land in daytime and from the water at night.
d) continually from land to water.

17. Where is the wind speed of a polar front jet stream normally at its strongest?
a) In the area where the jet stream is curving around an anticyclone.
b) In the area between a trough and a ridge.
c) In the area where the jet stream is curving around a depression.
d) In the area of a weak trough.

18. Comparing the surface wind to the 3 000 ft wind.

a) Surface wind veers and is less than the 3 000 ft wind.
b) Surface wind blows across the isobars and is weaker than the 3 000 ft wind.
c) Surface wind blows along the isobars and is weaker than the 3 000 ft wind.
d) They are the same.
19. For the same pressure gradient at 60°N, 50°N and 40°N the speed of the
geostrophic wind will be:
a) greatest at 60°N.
b) greatest at 40°N.
c) least at 50°N.
d) the same at all latitudes.

20. Conditions most favourable for the formation of mountain waves are:
a) Little change in wind direction with height, wind speeds increasing upwards
through the troposphere, wind blowing perpendicular to the mountain ridge, wind
speed at the crest above 15 kt for small mountains and above 30 kt for large
mountains.
b) Approximately a 90° change in wind direction with height, wing speeds increasing
upwards through the troposphere, wind blowing within 30° of the perpendicular to
the ridge, wind speed at the crest above 15 kt for small mountains and above 30 kt
for large mountains.
c) Little change in wind direction with height, wind speeds increasing upwards
through the troposphere, wind blowing within 90° of the perpendicular to the ridge,
wind speed at the crest above 15 kt for small mountains and above 30 kt for large
mountains.
d) Approximately a 90° change in wind direction with height, wind blowing within 30°
of the perpendicular to the ridge, wind speed at the crest above 15 kt for small
mountains and above 30 kt for large mountains.

21. What is happening with the relative humidity if it is raining continuously for a
long period of time on a warm surface?
a) It is 100%.
b) It is constant.
c) It is decreasing.
d) It is 80%.
22. If the surface temperature is 15∘C15∘C, then the temperature at 10 000 ft in a
current of ascending unsaturated air is:
a) 0∘C0∘C
b) -5 °C
c) -15 °C
d) 5 °C

23. By volume, what percentage of the air in the lower troposphere consists of water
vapour?
a) 0-4 %
b) 10-15 %
c) 20-30 %
d) 5-10 %

24. In wintertime status is often formed when warm maritime air moves over cold
land. How can such clouds be classified?
a) Winter time clouds.
b) Cumuliform clouds.
c) Stratiform clouds.
d) Ciriform clouds.

25. Which of the following clouds can be for the species castellanus?
a) Cirocumulus, altocumulus, nimbostratus.
b) Cirrostraus, altostraus, stratus.
c) Cirocumulus, altostraus, cumulonimbus.
d) Stratocumulus, altocumulus, cirrocumulus.
26. What, among others, will probably occur when cold, moist air covers a warm
surface?
a) Convective clouds will develop.
b) A surface inversion will develop.
c) Stability increases near the surface.
d) Subsidence will occur.

27. The most hazardous type of cloud that may be encountered on a cross country
flight is:
a) Sc.
b) Cu.
c) Ch.
d) SC.

28. Which of the following clouds may extend into more than one level?
a) S.
b) C.
c) Ns.
d) As.

29. What is the relationship between moisture content and visibility regarding winter
type precipitations?
a) Lower moisture content leads to less intense precipitation and lower visibility.
b) Lower moisture content leads to more intense precipitation and lower visibility.
c) Higher moisture content leads to more intense precipitation and higher visibility.
d) Higher moisture content leads to more intense precipitation and lower visibility.
30. Where is the source of tropical continental air that affects Europe in summer?
a) The Azores region.
b) Southern Italy.
c) Southern France.
d) The Sahara Desert and the Near East.

31. In a warm occlusion:

a) the warm front becomes a front aloft.
b) the warm front overtakes the cold front.
c) the cold air is lifted.
d) the warm air is lifted.

32. During the passage of a front, the following conditions can be observed:
Wind: Sharp veer; Clouds: Ns and St; Pressure: Lowest value and stops decreasing;
Visibility: Very low.
What kind of front is it?
a) Cold front.
b) Warm front.
c) Warm occlusion.
d) Stationary front.

33. Which two air masses are most likely to govern weather in Western Europe?
a) Polar maritime and tropical continental.
b) Tropical maritime and polar continental.
c) Tropical maritime and polar maritime.
d) Tropical continental and polar continental.
34. What type of front is most likely to cause strong winds, thunderstorms and heavy
precipitation?
a) Cold front moving quickly in the summer.
b) Warm front moving slowly in the winter.
c) Warm occluded front moving quickly in the summer.
d) Cold front moving quickly in the winter.

35. During the summer, a warm front occlusion is approaching the east coast of the
United Kingdom. What weather pattern would you expect in the North?
a) low level ST clouds.
b) TSS, CBS, showers.
c) high level CI clouds.
d) medium level 3/8 octas clouds, isolated showers.

36. At which latitude are you most likely to find the polar front during summer?
a) 20°N
b) 60°N
c) 30°N
d) 40°N

37. Check the correctness of the following statements: 1 - The summer monsoon in
India is a SW monsoon. 2 - Hurricanes usually occur in winter.
a) 1 is correct, 2 is not correct.
b) 1 and 2 are not correct.
c) 1 is not correct, 2 is correct.
d) 1 and 2 are correct.
38. In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be expected over land
during the summer in the centre of a stationary high pressure zone?
a) NS.
b) Calm winds, haze.
c) CB, TS.
d) TS, SH.

39. At what time of the year are typhoons most likely to occur over the southern
islands of Japan?
a) January to May.
b) September to January.
c) July to November.
d) May to July.

40. Check the correctness of the following statements. 1- A blo

a warm high. 2 - Sea-breeze fronts only occur at mid-latitud
a) 1 and 2 are incorrect.
b) 1 and 2 are correct.
c) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
d) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.

41. How many tropical cyclones on average per year form east of Darwin in the
Southwest-Pacific?
a) 19
b) 16
c) 2
d) 9
42. If divergence is found at the surface, what does this mean?
a) Increase in pressure, subsiding air potentially resulting in inversion, dissipation of
cloud, convergence at high level.
b) Increase in pressure, rising air, divergence at high level.
c) Horizontal movement of the air is dissipating clouds and produces a convergence
aloft.
d) Reduction in pressure, rising air, instability, divergence at high level.

43. Complete the sentence: The trade winds flow from (1) ___ to the (2) ___:
a) (1) the polar low; (2) intertropical convergence zone
b) (1) intertropical convergence zone; (2) subtropical high
c) (1) the subtropical high; (2) intertropical convergence zone
d) (1) the polar front zone; (2) subtropical high

44. Refer to figure 050-30. Considering a route from Rome to Nairobi - the portion
of this route from 10°N to Nairobi, during January the upper winds at the 300 hPa
level are most likely to be:
a) westerlies at 140 kt.
b) westerlies in excess of 60 kt.
c) easterly jet streams in excess of 70 kt.
d) light easterlies.

45. Refer to figure 050-38. What does this picture depict?

a) A westerly circulation over central Europe
b) South foehn
c) A high pressure area over central Europe
d) North foehn
46. Where are easterly waves found?
a) In the temperate latitudes.
b) On the poleward side of the subtropical high pressure belt.
c) In the region of the subtropical jet stream.
d) Between subtropical high pressure cells and ITCZ, inside the NE trade winds.

47. What can occur during the summer, over land, in the centre of a cold-air drop?
a) Showers and thunderstorms
b) Strong westerly winds
c) Nothing (CAVOK)
d) Fine weather CU

48. Along the West coast of India, the prevailing winds are the:
a) SE in July and a SW in January.
b) NE in July and a SW in January.
c) SW in July and a SE in January.
d) SW in July and a NE in January.

49. What weather conditions in the region of the Alps would you expect with Foehn
from south?
a) Clouds and precipitation on the southern slopes of the Alps.
b) Heavy airframe icing conditions on the northern side of the Alps.
c) Heavy clear air turbulence on the southern side of the Alps.
d) Strong north winds on the southern side of the Alps.
50. The winds blowing over the Indian Ocean in July, North of the equator will
typically be:
a) SW
b) NW
c) SE
d) NE

51. You have an inflight safety briefing about ICI. What threats are associated with
ICI?
a) Engine loss or malfunction.
b) Erroneous reading from heated probes of the engines and the possibility of a loss
of engine performance or severe engine malfunction.
c) Moderate and sometimes severe turbulence.
d) Frozen windshield and engine loss.

52. Two aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (S), and the other with a thick profile
(T), are flying through the same cloud with same true airspeed. The cloud consists of
small, supercooled droplets. Which of the following statements is most correct
concern:
a) Neither of the aircraft accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets.
b) Aircraft T experiences more icing than S.
c) Aircraft S experiences more icing than T.
d) Aircraft S and T experience the same amount of icing.
53. How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft?
a) Large, abrupt changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft may only be out
of control momentarily.
b) Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at
all times.
c) Continued flight in this environment will result in structural damage.
d) Rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without appreciable
changes in altitude or attitude.

54. Refer to figure 050-166. What type of lightning is represented in figure 17

a) Cloud to air
b) Cloud to cloud
c) In cloud
d) Cloud to ground

55. If a thunderstorm 10 miles ahead is assessed as still being in the mature phase,
what should a pilot of a light aircraft do?
a) Cross the storm on the shortest possible way.
b) Climb above the storm.
c) Change heading to circumnavigate the storm.
d) Start a descent in order to pass underneath the storm.

56. With the development of a thunderstorm, at what stage will there be only
updraughts?
a) Initial stage.
b) Anvil stage.
c) Dissipating stage.
d) Mature stage.
57. If you compare a tornado to a dust devil, the tornado is normally (1) ___ in
diameter and originates from (2) ___.
a) (1) narrower; (2) the ground
b) (1) wider; (2) the ground
c) (1) narrower; (2) a cloud
d) (1) wider; (2) a cloud

58. What phenomenon can occur in a valley during a clear and cold winter night?
a) Valley breeze
b) Valley inversion
c) Mountain obstruction
d) Advection fog

59. You're approaching an aerodrome at sunset for RWV 18. There's haze up to 500
ft and the minimum descent altitude for that approach is 600 ft. The visibility is
reduced because of the...
a) Reflection of the sun's rays from the top of the layer of haze.
b) Low platform altitude indicated by the reduced minimum descent altitude.
c) Low visibility procedure prevailing at the aerodrome.
d) Deflection of the sun's rays from the top of the layer of haze.

60. An air mass containing St and Sc clouds is cooling as it is lifted over high ground.
The concentration of water droplets or ice particles will...
a) remain the same and their size will increase.
b) decrease.
c) remain the same.
d) increase.
61. What intensity and type of airframe icing is most likely to occur when flying at
FL170 in AS with the outside air temperature at -25 °C?
a) Moderate - clear.
b) Light - time.
c) Moderate - hoar frost.
d) Severe - clear.

62. Areas of High Ice Water Content (HIVVC) can cause ice crystal icing. Where would
you find the highest concentration of these crystals?
a) Within a low-level nimbostatus.
b) Within cirrus at the top of an active warm front.
c) Within the anvil cloud at the top of an oceanic mesoscale convective system.
d) Beneath the CBs in a cold-air drop.

63. The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large supercooled drops that
have a temperature of -5 °C is most likely to be:
a) clear ice.
b) cloudy ice.
c) hoar frost.
d) rime ice.

64. Which degree of aircraft turbulence is determined by the following ICAO

description? "Conditions in which abrupt changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude
occur; aircraft may be out of control for short periods. Usually, large variations in air
speed".
a) Violent
b) Light
c) Moderate
d) Severe
65. Refer to figure 050-102. Over London (EGLI), what amount, and general type of
cloud, would you expect at FL60?
a) Scattered to broken cirrus.
b) Locally broken altocumulus.
c) Locally 5-7 oktas cumulus and stratocumulus.
d) Isolated locally embedded cumulonimbus.

66. Refer to figure 050-102. To what extent is Zagreb (LDZA) covered by clouds?
a) 5 to 7 oktas
b) 1 to 4 oktas
c) 3 to 5 oktas
d) 3 to 7 oktas

67. Refer to figure 050-39. At which airport, is the following weather development
taking place? TAF 060600Z 0606/0616 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0607/0610
OVC200 BECMG 0610/0613 23010KT 8000 OVC100 BECMG 0613/0616 23014KT 6000
RA SCT030 OVC050 =
a) LEMO
b) LFPO
c) LOWW
d) EDDL

68. An aerodrome warning message gives information, among other things, about:
a) DS; SN clearing; FZRA including the observed braking action.
b) PL; SS; RA.
c) GR; FG; FZRA including the observed friction coefficient.
d) TS; SN including the expected or observed snow accumulation; hoar frost.
69. To which type of message does the following text belong?... VALID
211600/212000 HVY SN 25CM FCST=
a) Aerodrome warning
b) SNOWTAM
c) Supplementary information of a METAR
d) SIGMET

70. An airborne weather radar installation makes it possible to detect the location of:
a) all clouds.
b) stratocumulus and its vertical development.
c) zones of precipitation, particularly liquid-state precipitation, and their intensity.
d) cumulonimbus, but if clouds of that type are accompanied by falls of hail.

71. Refer to figure 050-37. Which of the following METARs would best reflect the
weather conditions expected at an airport located at position "E" at 12:00 UTC?
a) 19022646KT 1200 +TSGR BKN003 BKN015 17/14 Q1014 BECMG NSW=
b) 21014KT 5000 RA BKN015 OVC030 15/12 Q1011 NOSIG=
c) 28010KT 9999 BKN030 22/11 Q1016 NOSIG=
d) VR803KT 8000 BKN280 19/12 Q1012 BECMG 3000 BR=

72. EGBB 251450Z 30029639KT 8000 2000W SCT010CB BKN020 09/06 Q1005=
Suddenly, lightning is observed from one of the CB clouds just over the airfield and a
loud rumble follows. What is the correct action to be performed by the Aerodrome
Meteorological Station?
a) Issue a SPECI.
b) Advise the approaching traffics to divert to an alternate airport, due to the current
adverse conditions at destination.
c) Close the airport.
d) Change the runway in service.
73. Refer to figure 050-68. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The west part of the front system over Spain moves to the south with 10 and the
eastern part of that front over Spain moves to the north.
b) On a flight from Copenhagen to Amsterdam you have not to worry about
moderate and/or severe turbulence at FL110.
c) The moderate icing conditions overhead Zurich are forecast in a layer between
FL130 and above the limit of the chart.
d) The wind speed in the core of the jet stream near Bordeaux (B) is about 80 kt.

74. Which abbreviation is used for hail with a diameter of 5 mm or more?

a) GR
b) PL
c) FZRA
d) IC

75. Refer to figure 050-76. On the track shown at FL390, what is the forecast wind at
position 20° W?
a) 070° / 30 kt
b) 090° / 45 kt
c) 060° / 45 kt
d) 270° / 45 kt

76. Missing in original content

77. Consider the World Area Forecast System. The main objective of a Tropical
Cyclone Advisory Centre (TCAC) is:
a) Predict the chance of tropical cyclones developing in the easterly waves of the
ITC2 area.
b) Transmit warnings concerning tropical cyclones to operational control centres of
airline companies.
c) Issue information concerning the state, development and movement tropical
cyclones.
d) Deliver route advice to airline companies and Air Traffic Control centres areas with
tropical cyclones.

78. What information could you find in a gridded dataset?

a) Flight level and temperature of the tropopause, CB, turbulence, fog and icing.
b) The gridded forecast models are still a prototype.
c) Flight level and temperature of the tropopause, CB, turbulence, icing, direction and
speed of the maxim wind.
d) Flight level and temperature of the tropopause only.

79. On which of the following weather charts can a pilot most easily find the forecast
position of the jet stream?
a) Wind / temperature chart.
b) Significant weather chart.
c) Surface chart.
d) Upper air chart.

80. Which constant pressure chart is standard for FL140?

a) 700 hPa
b) 500 hPa
c) 850 hPa
d) 600 hPa