Chapter 9

Practical Work
Class 9 - Concise Chemistry Selina

Exercise 9A

Question 1

(a) Give a chemical test to identify the following gases :

1. Ammonia
2. Sulphur dioxide
3. Hydrogen chloride
4. Chlorine
5. Carbon dioxide
6. Oxygen
7. Hydrogen

(b) Select a basic gas mentioned in Q.1(a). How is the basic nature verified?

(c) Select acidic gases from the gases mentioned in Q.1(a). How is the acidic nature verified?

(d) State the gas responsible for the bleaching action?

(e) Which gas turns blue cobalt chloride paper light pink?

Answer

(a) Chemical test to identify the gases are :

1. Ammonia — When a glass rod dipped in conc. HCl is brought near the gas, dense white
fumes of ammonium chloride are formed.
2. Sulphur dioxide — Sulphur dioxide gas turns acidified potassium permanganate from
pink to clear colourless and acidified potassium dichromate from orange to clear green.
3. Hydrogen chloride — Forms a curdy white ppt. on passage through AgNO3 solution.
The precipitate dissolves in excess of NH4OH.
4. Chlorine — Pass the gas through silver nitrate solution, a white ppt. of silver chloride is
formed.
 5. Carbon dioxide — When the gas is passed through lime water, it turns milky and white
ppt. of calcium carbonate appears.
6. Oxygen — Oxygen gas rekindles a glowing wooden splinter.
7. Hydrogen — Hydrogen gas burns with a 'pop' sound in air.

(b) Ammonia is a basic gas. It turns red litmus blue.

(c) Sulphur dioxide, Hydrogen chloride, Chlorine, Carbon dioxide. It turns blue litmus red.

(d) Chlorine

(e) Water vapour

Question 2

What is observed on performing the following :

Hydrogen Oxygen Carbon dioxide Chlorine

Litmus test

Applying burning splint to the gas

Colour of gas colourless colourless colourless greenish yellow

Odour of gas

Answer

Hydrogen Oxygen Carbon dioxide Chlorine

blue litmus turns

Neutral to blue litmus
Litmus test Neutral to litmus red and finally
litmus turns red
bleaches

Pure hydrogen burns

Applying rekindles a
with a pale blue flame burning splint burning splint is
burning splint glowing
when a burning splinter is extinguished extinguished
to the gas splinter
is brought near it

Colour of gas colourless colourless colourless greenish yellow

 Hydrogen Oxygen Carbon dioxide Chlorine

sharp pungent
Odour of gas odourless odourless odourless
choking smell

Question 3

Give a chemical test to distinguish between the following gases.

(a) H2 and CO2

(b) H2 and O2

(c) CO2 and SO2

(d) HCl and H2S

(e) HCl and Cl2

(f) NH3 and HCl

(g) SO2 and Cl2

(h) NH3 and SO2

Answer

(a) H2 and CO2 — Hydrogen gas is neutral to litmus whereas carbon dioxide turns blue litmus
red.

(b) H2 and O2 — Hydrogen gas burns with a pale blue flame when a burning splinter is brought
near it whereas oxygen gas rekindles a glowing wooden splinter.

(c) CO2 and SO2 — Carbon dioxide gas has no effect on acidified potassium permanganate
(KMnO4) and acidified potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7) solution whereas sulphur dioxide gas
turns acidified potassium permanganate from pink to clear colourless and acidified potassium

2KMnO4 + 2H2O + 5SO2 ⟶ K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 2H2SO4

dichromate from orange to clear green.

K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 + 3SO2 ⟶ K2SO4 + Cr2(SO4)3 + H2O

(d) HCl and H2S — Rod dipped in ammonia solution is brought near the mouth of the two
gases. HCl gives dense white fumes of ammonium chloride and hence can be distinguished from
NH3(aq) + HCl ⟶ NH4Cl
hydrogen sulphide.

(e) HCl and Cl2 — Chlorine (Cl2) turns moist starch iodide paper blue black whereas HCl does

Cl2 + 2KI ⟶ 2KCl + I2

not.

Starch + I2 ⟶ Blue black colour

(f) NH3 and HCl — Ammonia turns Nessler's reagent from colourless to pale brown.
Hydrogen chloride shows no action with Nessler's reagent. It forms a curdy white ppt. on

AgNO3 [ag.] + HCl ⟶ AgCl ↓ [curdy white ppt.] + HNO3

passage through AgNO3 solution.

The ppt. of AgCl is soluble in NH4OH but insoluble in dil. HNO3

(g) SO2 and Cl2 — On passing Sulphur dioxide gas through lime water, it turns lime water

Ca(OH)2 + SO2 ⟶ CaSO3 ↓ [white ppt.] + H2O

milky.

Cl2 + 2KI ⟶ 2KCl + I2

Chlorine gas does not turn lime water milky. It turns moist starch iodide paper blue black.

Starch + I2 ⟶ Blue black colour

(h) NH3 and SO2 — Ammonia turns red litmus blue whereas sulphur dioxide turns wet blue
litmus red and finally bleaches it, though the bleaching is temporary.

Question 4

Name a gas that :

(a) turns moist starch iodide paper blue black

(b) turns moist red litmus blue

(c) does not affect acidified K2Cr2O7 paper but turns lime water milky.

(d) affects acidified K2Cr2O7 paper and also turns lime water milky.

Answer

(a) Chlorine

(b) Ammonia

(c) Carbon dioxide

(d) Sulphur dioxide

Question 5
What do you observe when

(a) CO2 is passed through lime water first and then a little in excess?

(b) HCl is passed through silver nitrate solution?

(c) H2S is passed through lead nitrate solution?

(d) Cl2 is passed through potassium iodide (KI) solution?

(e) Cobalt chloride paper is introduced in water vapour?

Answer

(a) When CO2 is passed through lime water first in small amounts it turns lime water milky. This
is due to the formation of insoluble calcium carbonate.

Ca(OH)2 + CO2 ⟶ CaCO3 ↓ + H2O

When excess of the gas is passed through the solution, milkiness disappears. This is due to the
formation of a soluble bicarbonate.

CaCO3 + CO2 + H2O ⟶ Ca(HCO3)2 [soluble]

(b) When HCl is passed through silver nitrate solution, a white ppt. of silver chloride is formed.

HCl + AgNO3 ⟶ AgCl ↓ + HNO3

(c) When H2S is passed through lead nitrate solution, black ppt. of PbS is formed.

Pb(NO3)2 [colourless] + H2S ⟶ PbS ↓ [black] + 2HNO3

(d) Cl2 turns potassium iodide (KI) solution blue black

Cl2 + 2KI ⟶ 2KCl + I2

(e) Water vapour turns blue cobalt chloride paper pink.

CoCl2 + 2H2O ⟶ CoCl2.2H2O

Question 6

Name:

(a) Two carbonates that do not produce carbon dioxide on heating.

(b) Two nitrates that do not produce nitrogen dioxide on heating.

(c) A brown gas.

(d) A greenish yellow gas.

(e) A gas with rotten egg smell.

Answer

(a) Sodium carbonate [Na2CO3] and Potassium carbonate [K2CO3]

(b) Potassium nitrate [KNO3] and Sodium nitrate [NaNO3]

(c) Nitrogen dioxide [NO2]

(d) Chlorine [Cl2]

(e) Hydrogen sulphide [H2S]

Exercise 9B

Question 1

Distinguish by heating the following in dry test tube.

(a) Zinc carbonate, copper carbonate and lead carbonate

(b) zinc nitrate and copper nitrate

(c) copper sulphate and copper carbonate

(d) ammonium chloride and iodine

Answer

(a) zinc carbonate, copper carbonate and lead carbonate :

On heating zinc carbonate, light amorphous white solid changes to pale yellow.

On heating copper carbonate, light green amorphous powder changes to black.

On heating lead carbonate, heavy white crystalline solid crumbles with a crackling sound.

(b) zinc nitrate and copper nitrate :

On heating zinc nitrate, white solid changes to yellow when hot and white when cold.

On heating copper nitrate, bluish green crystalline solid melts to form a bluish green mass and
gives off steamy vapours which condense on cooler parts of the test tube.
On further heating, the bluish green mass changes to a black residue.
(c) copper sulphate and copper carbonate :

On heating copper sulphate, blue crystalline solid crumbles to form a white amorphous powder
and gives off steamy vapours which condense on cooler parts of the test tube to form a colourless
liquid (water).
On strong heating, a black solid is formed and a gas is evolved that turns moist blue litmus red
and changes the colour of acidified K2Cr2O7 solution from orange to green suggesting that it is
SO2.

On strongly heating copper carbonate, light green amorphous powder changes to black and a
colourless odourless gas is evolved that extinguishes a burning wooden splinter and turns lime
water milky but has no effect on acidified K2Cr2O7 solution suggesting that it is CO2.

(d) ammonium chloride and iodine :

On heating ammonium chloride, white crystalline solid sublimates to form a basic gas (NH3)
and acidic gas (HCl). The dense white fumes are noticed that form a white mass on the cooler
parts of the test tube.

On heating iodine, violet crystalline solid sublimates to form violet vapours. These vapours
settle down on cooler parts of test tube to form violet crystals.

Question 2

Match the following :

Column A Column B

(a) Pb(NO3)2 (i) rotten egg smell

(b) CO2 (ii) burns with a pop sound

(c) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (iii) suffocating smell of sulphur

(d) HCl (iv) lime water turns milky

(e) NO2 (v) crackling sound

(f) O2 (vi) residue swells up

(g) H2 (vii) brown gas

 Column A Column B

(h) H2S (viii) supports combustion

(i) SO2 (ix) fumes with NH3 solution

Answer

Column A Column B

(a) Pb(NO3)2 (v) crackling sound

(b) CO2 (iv) lime water turns milky

(c) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (vi) residue swells up

(d) HCl (ix) fumes with NH3 solution

(e) NO2 (vii) brown gas

(f) O2 (viii) supports combustion

(g) H2 (ii) burns with a pop sound

(h) H2S (i) rotten egg smell

(i) SO2 (iii) suffocating smell of sulphur

Question 3

Distinguish by dilute sulphuric acid.

(a) Sodium sulphite and sodium carbonate.

(b) Copper and magnesium.

(c) Sodium sulphide and sodium sulphite.

Answer

(a) Sodium sulphite and sodium carbonate :

On adding dilute sulphuric acid to sodium sulphite and warming, a colourless gas with
suffocating smell of burning sulphur is evolved. The evolved gas turns lime water milky and
changes the colour of acidified K2Cr2O7 solution from orange to green suggesting that it is SO2.

Na2SO3 + H2SO4 (dil.) ⟶ Na2SO4 + H2O + SO2↑

On adding dilute sulphuric acid to sodium carbonate and warming, a colourless gas is evolved
with brisk effervescence. The evolved gas extinguishes a burning wooden splinter and turns lime
water milky but has no effect on acidified K2Cr2O7 solution suggesting that it is CO2.

Na2CO3 + H2SO4 (dil.) ⟶ Na2SO4 + H2O + CO2↑

(b) Copper and magnesium :

Magnesium on reaction with dil. sulphuric acid produces a colourless, odourless gas with brisk
effervescence. The gas evolved is hydrogen as it burns with a pale blue flame producing a pop
sound.

Mg+�2SO4 dil.⟶MgSO4+H2Mg+ dil.H2SO4⟶MgSO4+H2

Copper does not react with dil. sulphuric acid liberating hydrogen as it is lower in metal
reactivity series than hydrogen.

(c) Sodium sulphide and sodium sulphite :

When dil. sulphuric acid is added to sodium sulphide and heated, hydrogen sulphide gas is
evolved which has the smell of rotten eggs.

Na2S + H2SO4 ⟶ Na2SO4 + H2S ↑

On adding dilute sulphuric acid to sodium sulphite and warming, a colourless gas with
suffocating smell of burning sulphur is evolved. The evolved gas turns lime water milky and
changes the colour of acidified K2Cr2O7 solution from orange to green suggesting that it is SO2.

Na2SO3 + H2SO4 (dil.) ⟶ Na2SO4 + H2O + SO2↑

Question 4

Write your observation and a balanced equation in the case of the following substances being
heated.

(a) Ammonium dichromate

(b) Copper nitrate

(c) Copper carbonate

(d) Zinc carbonate

(e) Ammonium chloride

Answer

(a) Ammonium dichromate — Orange red crystalline solid, on heating, swells up and
decomposes violently with flashes of light leaving greenish residue. It also gives off steamy
fumes, which condense on the cooler parts of the test tube to form tiny droplets of water.

(NH4)2Cr2�7[Ammonium dichromate (orange)]→ Δ Cr2�3 [Chromic oxide(

green)]+4H2O+N2[Ammonium dichromate (orange)](NH4)2Cr2O7 Δ [Chromic oxide(green)]Cr2
O3+4H2O+N2
(b) Copper nitrate — Bluish green crystalline solid, on heating, melts to form a bluish green
mass and gives off steamy vapours that condense on the cooler parts of test tube.

Cu(NO3)2.6H2O→ Δ Cu(NO3)2+6H2OCu(NO3)2.6H2O Δ Cu(NO3)2+6H2O

On further heating, the bluish green mass changes to a black residue of copper (II) oxide and
brown coloured nitrogen dioxide gas is evolved along with oxygen gas.

2Cu(NO3)2[Copper nitrate (blue)]→ Δ 2CuO[copper oxide - black]

+4NO2↑[Nitrogen dioxide]+�2↑[Oxygen][Copper nitrate (blue)]2Cu(NO3)2 Δ [copper oxi
de - black]2CuO+[Nitrogen dioxide]4NO2↑+[Oxygen]O2↑

(c) Copper carbonate — Light green amorphous powder changes to black. Carbon dioxide gas
is given off which turns lime water milky.

+CO2↑[Carbon dioxide][Copper carbonate (light green)]CuCO3⟶Δ[copper oxide - black]CuO+

CuCO3[Copper carbonate (light green)]⟶ΔCuO[copper oxide - black]

[Carbon dioxide]CO2↑

(d) Zinc carbonate — On strong heating, light amorphous white solid changes to pale yellow.
Carbon dioxide gas is given off which turns lime water milky.

The residue, on cooling, changes to a white colour. i.e., residue is yellow when hot and white
when cold.

ZnCO3→ΔZnO+CO2↑[Zinc[Zinc oxide][Carboncarbonate][yellow - hot]dioxid

e][white][white - cold]ZnCO3[Zinccarbonate][white]ΔZnO[Zinc oxide][yellow -
hot][white - cold]+CO2↑[Carbondioxide]
(e) Ammonium chloride — On heating ammonium chloride, white crystalline solid sublimates
to form a basic gas (NH3) and acidic gas (HCl). The dense white fumes are noticed that form a
white mass on the cooler parts of the test tube. No residue is left behind.

NH4Cl⇌coolheatNH3↑+HCl↑NH4ClheatcoolNH3↑+HCl↑

Question 5

State the original colour of the following substances and colour of residue obtained after heating.

(a) ammonium dichromate

(b) copper carbonate

(c) lead nitrate

(d) zinc carbonate

Answer

S.
Salt Original colour Residue after heating
No.

(a) ammonium dichromate Orange solid Green solid

(b) copper carbonate Green solid Black solid

(c) lead nitrate White solid Yellow solid

Yellow when hot,

(d) zinc carbonate White solid
white when cold

Exercise 9C

Question 1

Carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide gas can be distinguished by using :

(a) moist blue litmus paper

(b) lime water

(c) acidified potassium dichromate paper

(d) none of the above

Answer

acidified potassium dichromate paper

Reason — There is no effect of CO2 gas on potassium dichromate whereas SO2 turns acidified

K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 + 3SO2 ⟶ K2SO4 + Cr2(SO4)3 + H2O

potassium dichromate from orange to clear green.

Question 2

Match the gases in column I to the identification of the gases mentioned in column II

Column I Column II

(a) Hydrogen sulphide A. Turns acidified potassium dichromate solution green

(b) Nitric oxide B. Turns lime water milky

(c) Carbon dioxide C. Turns reddish brown when it reacts with oxygen

(d) Sulphur dioxide D. Turns moist lead acetate paper silvery black

Answer

Column I Column II

(a) Hydrogen sulphide D. Turns moist lead acetate paper silvery black

(b) Nitric oxide C. Turns reddish brown when it reacts with oxygen

(c) Carbon dioxide B. Turns lime water milky

(d) Sulphur dioxide A. Turns acidified potassium dichromate solution green

Question 3

Match column A with column B

 Column A Colum B

(a) Blue salt changes to white and then black (i) Ammonium dichromate

(b) Orange coloured compound changes to green (ii) Iodine

(c) Red compound changes to brown and then yellow (iii) Zinc Nitrate

(d) White to yellow when hot and white when cold (iv) Copper Sulphate

(e) Violet solid changes to violet vapours (v) Red Lead

Answer

Column A Colum B

(a) Blue salt changes to white and then black (iv) Copper Sulphate

(b) Orange coloured compound changes to green (i) Ammonium dichromate

(c) Red compound changes to brown and then yellow (v) Red Lead

(d) White to yellow when hot and white when cold (iii) Zinc Nitrate

(e) Violet solid changes to violet vapours (ii) Iodine

Question 4

Identify the following substances:

(a) An alkaline gas A which gives dense white fumes with hydrogen chloride.

(b) Gas B that has an offensive smell as of rotten eggs.

(c) Gas C that is colourless and can be use as a bleaching agent.

(d) A brown gas D with irritating smell.

Answer
(a) A → Ammonia

(b) B → Hydrogen sulphide

(c) C → Sulphur dioxide

(d) D → Nitrogen dioxide

Question 5

Name the gases which :

(a) extinguishes burning wooden splinter.

(b) turns moist red litmus blue.

(c) do no effect on moist litmus.

(d) affect the acidified K2Cr2O7 paper and also turns lime water dirty milky.

Answer

(a) NH3, HCl, SO2, H2S, CO2, NO2, Cl2.

(b) Ammonia [NH3]

(c) Water vapour, hydrogen, oxygen

(d) Sulphur dioxide [SO2]

Question 6

What do you observe when dilute sulphuric acid is added to the following:

(a) Sodium Sulphide

(b) Sodium Carbonate

(c) Zinc granules

Answer

(a) When dil. sulphuric acid is added to sodium sulphide and heated, hydrogen sulphide gas is
evolved which has the smell of rotten eggs and turns lead acetate paper black.

Na2S + H2SO4 ⟶ Na2SO4 + H2S

(b) When dilute sulphuric acid is added to sodium carbonate a colourless gas [CO2] is evolved
with brisk effervescence that turns lime water milky and has no effect on acidified potassium
dichromate paper.

Na2CO3 + H2SO4 ⟶ Na2SO4 + H2O + CO2 (g)

(c) When dilute sulphuric acid is added to granulated zinc, hydrogen gas is evolved with an
effervescence.

Zn + H2SO4 (dil) ⟶ ZnSO4 + H2 (g)

Question 7a

How is the flame test performed?

Answer

The procedure to detect the colour imparted by flame test is as follows:

A thin platinum wire is first thoroughly cleaned by dipping it in conc. hydrochloric acid. It is
then heated in the non-luminous flame of the burner. The process is repeated. When the wire
imparts no colour to the flame, it is ready for use.

Now, wire is first dipped in conc. hydrochloric acid and then in the salt to be tested. It is then
introduced into the non-luminous part of the flame and the colour imparted to the flame is
observed.

Question 7b

How will you distinguish between sodium chloride, potassium chloride and calcium chloride?

Answer

We can distinguish between the three salts [sodium chloride, potassium chloride and calcium
chloride] with the help of flame test as described below:

Method

1. Thin platinum wire is thoroughly cleaned and then heated in a non-luminous flame of a
burner.
2. When the wire imparts no colour it is dipped in conc. HCl and then into the substance to
be identified.
3. The wire is then reintroduced into the non-luminous flame and the colour imparted is
noted.

Observation —
 1. The golden yellow flame confirms the presence of sodium [Na1+] ion.
2. Lilac colour of flame confirms the presence of Potassium [K1+]
3. Brick red colour of flame, confirms the presence of Calcium [Ca2+] ion.

Question 7b(ii)

How will you distinguish between soft water and hard water

Answer

Differentiating hard water from soft water —

1. Two unknown samples 'X' and 'Y' containing hard water and soft water are taken
separately in a trough or beaker.
2. Ordinary soap is rubbed by the hands inside each sample.

Observation —

1. One sample of water 'X' lathers with soap

2. The sample of water 'Y' does not lather with soap.

Result —

1. The sample 'X' which lathers with soap is soft water.

2. The sample 'Y' which does not lather with soap is hard water.

Question 7b(iii)

How will you distinguish between temporary hard water and permanent hard water

Answer

Distinguish between temporary hard water and permanent hard water —

1. Two unknown samples 'A' and 'B' containing temporary and permanent hard water are
taken separately in a trough or beaker.
2. The water is boiled slowly, gases allowed to escape out and then the water is filtered.
3. Ordinary soap is rubbed by the hands inside each filtered sample.

Observation —

1. One sample of water 'A' lathers with soap.

2. The sample of water 'B' does not lather with soap.

Result —
 1. The boiled and filtered sample 'A' which lathers is temporary hard water whose hardness
is removed by boiling.
2. Sample 'B' is permanent hard water whose hardness cannot be removed by boiling.

Question 8

(a) What do you understand by :

(i) temporary hardness

(ii) soft water

(iii) permanent hardness

(b) How are temporary and permanent hardness removed ?

Answer

(a) (i) Temporary hardness — Hardness of water due to the presence of calcium and magnesium
bicarbonates — Ca(HCO3)2, Mg(HCO3)2 — that can be removed by boiling and filtration is
called temporary hardness.

(ii) Soft water — Water that does not contain dissolved calcium and magnesium salts is called
soft water. This water forms lather with ordinary soap.

(iii) Permanent hardness — Hardness of water due to the presence of calcium and magnesium
chlorides and sulphates — CaCl2, MgCl2, CaSO4, MgSO4 — that cannot be removed by boiling
is called permanent hardness.

(b) Temporary hardness can be removed by boiling followed by filtration and permanent
hardness can be removed by addition of washing soda or caustic soda.

Question 9

(a) What are soaps and detergents?

(b) Why do they differ in their actions ?

(c) Explain their cleansing actions.

Answer

(a) Soap — It is the sodium or potassium salt of an organic fatty acid. It reacts with hard water
forming scum, which is why ordinary soap is wasted.

CaSO4 + 2NaSt (soap) ⟶ CaSt2 (scum) + Na2SO4

Detergents — They are the sodium salts of alkyl sulphonic acids. Detergents contain a sulphonic
acid group (-SO3H) instead of a carboxylic group (-COOH).

(b) Soaps reacts with hard water forming scum, which is why ordinary soap is wasted.

Detergents can lather even with hard water. Due to the solubility of their calcium and magnesium
salts in water, they do not form scum.

(c) Soap or detergent molecules form clusters called micelles when dissolved in water. The
molecules arrange themselves with their tails inward and their heads outward. During the
cleansing process, the hydrocarbon tail of the detergent attaches to oil and dirt. When water is
stirred, the oil and dirt separate into smaller fragments. This allows other tails to attach to the
fragmented oil and dirt. The detergent molecules surround these small oil and dirt globules. The
negatively charged heads in the water prevent the globules from recombining into larger
aggregates. As a result, when clothes are rinsed with water, the oil and dirt are effectively
removed.

Question 10

Compare the effect of soap and detergent on hard water.

Answer
 Soaps react with hard water forming scum which is why ordinary soap is wasted whereas
detergents can lather even with hard water. Due to the solubility of their calcium and magnesium
salts in water, they do not form scum.

Question 11

Copy and complete the following table that refers to the action of heat on some carbonates:

Carbonate Colour of residue on cooling

Zinc carbonate

Lead carbonate

Copper carbonate

Answer

Carbonate Colour of residue on cooling

Zinc carbonate Yellow when hot, white when cold

Lead carbonate Yellow

Copper carbonate Black

Question 12

Complete the following table and write your observations.

Hydrogen Sulphur Hydrogen

Ammonia
sulphide dioxide chloride

Shake the gas with red litmus

solution

Shake the gas with blue litmus

solution
 Hydrogen Sulphur Hydrogen
Ammonia
sulphide dioxide chloride

Apply a burning splint to the

gas

Answer

Hydrogen Hydrogen
Ammonia Sulphur dioxide
sulphide chloride

Shake the gas

Red litmus
with red litmus No change No change No change
becomes blue
solution

Shake the gas

Blue litmus Blue litmus Blue litmus
with blue litmus No change
becomes red becomes red becomes red
solution

Apply a burning Burning splint is Burning splint is Burning splint is Burning splint is
splint to the gas extinguished extinguished extinguished extinguished
Atmospheric Pollution
Class 9 - Concise Chemistry Selina

Exercise 8A

Question 1

Define the following terms :

(i) pollution

(ii) pollutant

(iii) air pollution.

Answer

(i) Pollution is defined as the effect of undesirable changes in our surroundings that have a
harmful effect on plants, animals and human beings.

(ii) Pollutants are toxic and otherwise harmful substances that have an undesirable impact on the
different components of the environment and life forms.

(iii) Air pollution means degradation of air quality due to the increase in the concentration of
harmful contaminants that affects human, plant and animal lives.

Question 2

Name any four gaseous pollutants.

Answer

Four gaseous pollutants are :

1. Sulphur dioxide
2. Hydrogen sulphide
3. Nitrogen oxides
4. Carbon monoxide

Question 3

Name the compounds of sulphur that cause air pollution. Also, state their harmful effects.
Answer

Compounds of sulphur like sulphur dioxide (SO2), sulphur trioxide (SO3) and hydrogen sulphide
((H2S) cause air pollution.

Harmful effects of hydrogen sulphide (H2S) :

 It causes nausea and irritates the eye and the throat. Being acidic in nature H 2S destroys
vegetable matter.

Harmful effects of oxides of sulphur:

 It causes headache, vomiting and even death due to respiratory failure.

 It destroys vegetation and weakens building materials/constructions.
 It mixes with smoke and fog to form smog, which is very harmful.
 It causes acid rain.

Question 4

State:

(i) natural sources of air pollution

(ii) man-made sources of air pollution

Answer

(i) Natural sources of air pollution are :

1. Volcanic eruptions.
2. Lightning discharge.
3. Decaying vegetation.
4. Forest fires.
5. Winds and dust storms.

(ii) Man-made sources of air pollution are :

1. Automobiles.
2. Factories.
3. Industrial processes.
4. Burning of fossil fuels.
5. Decay of crop residue.

Question 5
(a) How do oxides of nitrogen enter the atmosphere?

(b) What are their harmful effects?

Answer

(a) Oxides of Nitrogen enter the atmosphere in the following ways :

 On the burning of fuels in furnaces, temperature increases. At high temperature, nitrogen

and oxygen present in the air combine to form oxides of nitrogen.
 When fuel burns in internal combustion engine, oxides of nitrogen are produced and they
enter the atmosphere as exhaust gases from automobile engines.
 Nitric oxide is formed by the reaction between atmospheric nitrogen and oxygen in the
presence of electric discharge, which happens during thunderstorms, when there is
lightening.
 Nitric oxide further reacts with atmospheric oxygen and ozone to form nitrogen dioxide.

b) Harmful effects of oxides of nitrogen are :

 Nitrogen dioxide causes irritation in the mucous membrane.

 Large concentrations of nitrogen dioxide may cause serious lung diseases.
 Nitrogen dioxide causes injuries to vegetation by damaging plant leaves.
 In sunlight, nitrogen dioxide oxidises hydrocarbons to form photochemical smog. It
causes eye irritation, asthma attacks, nasal and throat infections.

Question 6

State the origin and health impact of smog.

Answer

A pollutant which is a combination of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur and partially-oxidized

hydrocarbons and their derivatives produced by industries and automobiles forms a dark, thick,
dust and soot laden fog and is known as smog.

Smog is noxious and irritating. It reduces visibility, induces respiratory troubles, and can cause
death by suffocation.

Question 7

What are the harmful effects of oxides of Sulphur?

Answer

Harmful effects of oxides of sulphur:

 1. It causes headache, vomiting and even death due to respiratory failure.
2. It destroys vegetation and weakens building materials/constructions.
3. It mixes with smoke and fog to form smog, which is very harmful.
4. It is oxidised by atmospheric oxygen into sulphur trioxide which combines with water to

2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ⟶ 2SO3 (g)

form sulphuric acid. Sulphuric acid is the cause of acid rain.

SO3 (g) + H2O (l) ⟶ H2SO4 (aq)

Question 8

State the main sources and effects of carbon monoxide.

Answer

Carbon monoxide is formed by incomplete combustion of fuels in homes, factories and

automobiles.

Harmful effects of carbon monoxide :

Carbon monoxide is a highly poisonous gas. If inhaled, it binds with haemoglobin 200 times
more strongly than oxygen reducing the blood's ability to carry oxygen by converting
haemoglobin into carboxyhaemoglobin. So, even in small quantities, it is fatal and can lead to
death.

Question 9

Give the mechanism of the action of carbon monoxide.

Answer

When inhaled, carbon monoxide enters the bloodstream through the lungs. It binds to
haemoglobin, which carries oxygen to body tissues. Carbon monoxide binds with haemoglobin
200 times more strongly than oxygen, so even small amounts in the air can greatly affect the
body. It reduces the blood's ability to carry oxygen by converting haemoglobin into
carboxyhaemoglobin. The heart and brain, being highly sensitive to oxygen deprivation, are most
severely impacted by carbon monoxide exposure. In high concentrations, carbon monoxide can
lead to death by paralyzing normal brain function.

Question 10

How can we control carbon monoxide poisoning?

Answer

Carbon monoxide poisoning can be controlled in the following ways :

1. By switching over from internal combustion engines to electrically powered cars.

 2. Many pollution control devices are now installed in cars. Most of these devices help
reduce pollution by burning gasoline completely. Complete combustion of gasoline

2C8H18 +25O2 ⟶ 16CO2 + 18H2O

produces only carbon dioxide and water vapour.

3. By using substitute fuels for gasoline: Natural gas in both compressed (CNG) and
liquefied forms (LNG) is now increasingly being used as fuel. Alcohols are other feasible
substitutes.
4. By using catalytic converters:
Carbon monoxide changes to carbon dioxide in the presence of finely divided platinum as
a catalyst.
2CO→[O]PtCO2+H2O2COPt[O]CO2+H2O

Exercise 8B

Question 1

Why does rainwater have pH less than 7?

Answer

pH of rain water is about 5.6, because carbon dioxide reacts with it to form weak carbonic acid.

CO2 + H2O ⟶ H2CO3

Question 2

pH of acid rain is sometimes as low as 2. Explain.

Answer

Acid rain results from acids like nitric acid and sulphuric acid present in polluted air. These acids
are formed when oxides of nitrogen and sulphur come into contact with rain water. Due to high
pollution, when amount of these acids dissolved in rain water is high, the pH of acid rain can be
as low as 2.

Question 3

Explain the formation of acid rain due to:

(i) oxides of sulphur

(ii) oxides of nitrogen

Answer
(i) Sulphur is a non-metallic element found in coal and other fossil fuels. When these fuels are
burned, sulphur combines with oxygen in air to form its gaseous oxides, sulphur dioxide (SO2)
and sulphur trioxide (SO3)

S + O2 ⟶ SO2

2SO2 + O2 ⟶ 2SO3

Sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide react with water to form H2SO4, which is the main cause of
acid rain.

2SO2 + O2 + 2H2O ⟶ 2H2SO4

SO3 + H2O ⟶ H2SO4

(ii) Oxides of nitrogen are produced naturally during thunder and lightning. They are also
produced by internal combustion engines.

N2 + O2 →(3000°C)high temperaturehigh temperature(3000°C) 2NO

Nitrogen oxide then gets oxidized in the atmosphere of nitrogen dioxide.

2NO + O2 ⟶ 2NO2

Nitrogen dioxide combines with water to form a mixture of nitrous acid and nitric acid which
causes acid rain.

2NO2 + H2O ⟶ HNO2 + HNO3

Question 4

What are the causes of acid rain?

Answer

The main cause of acid rain is the formation of mineral acids like carbonic acid, nitric acid and
sulphuric acid during rains.
Combustion of fossil fuels releases large amounts of sulphur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen and
carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. These oxides dissolve in rain water forming mineral acids
and causing acid rain.

Question 5

Give the impact of acid rain:

(i) on plants

(ii) on soil
(iii) on water bodies

Answer

Impact of acid rain on:

(i) On plants — Acid rain causes nutrient loss from plants thus damaging their leaves. It also
suppresses growth of plants.

(ii) On soil — Acid rain affects soil chemistry. It removes calcium and potassium, both the basic
ingredients of soil, thus making it lose its fertility.

(iii) On water bodies — The water of lakes and rivers is gradually becoming acidic due to acid
rain, which is affecting aquatic life.

Question 6

How does a scrubber help in reducing the formation of acid rain?

Answer

A scrubber is a device that absorbs gaseous pollutants. It consists of a fine spray of water and gas
rising from the stack, which is passed through the scrubber where water absorbs sulphur dioxide.
Thus the formation of this constituent of acid rain is reduced. Below diagram shows the working
of a scrubber :
Exercise 8C

Question 1

What do you understand by the 'greenhouse effect' ?

Answer

Heating of the earth and its environment due to solar radiations trapped by greenhouse gases
such as carbon dioxide and water vapour in the atmosphere is called greenhouse effect.

Question 2

What are greenhouse gases? How are they responsible for global warming?

Answer

Carbon dioxide, water vapour, oxides of nitrogen, methane, ozone, chloro-fluoro carbons, etc.
are called greenhouse gases.

The greenhouse gases in the atmosphere allow the infrared rays from the Sun to penetrate the
Earth but do not allow the heat radiated by the heated Earth to penetrate back into space. This
trapped radiation warms the earth's surface and lower parts of the atmosphere leading to increase
in temperature which is known as global warming.

Question 3

State the sources and effects of the following gases:

(i) Carbon dioxide

(ii) Methane

(iii) Water vapour

Answer

(i) Carbon dioxide

Sources :

1. Burning of fossil fuels like coal, natural gas and petroleum.

2. Industrial processes like the manufacture of lime and those seen in fermentation units.
3. Biological decay of plants.
4. Respiration by animals, humans beings and plants.

Effects :

1. Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas.

2. It has the largest contribution of about 50% towards greenhouse effect.

(ii) Methane

Sources :

1. Anaerobic decomposition of organic matter in soil, water and sediments.

2. Incomplete combustion of fossil fuels.

Effects :

1. Methane is a greenhouse gas.

2. It has the second largest contribution of about 19% towards greenhouse effect.

(iii) Water vapour

Sources :

1. Burning of hydrocarbons.
2. Evaporation from water bodies.
 3. Transpiration from plants.

Effects :

1. Water vapour is a greenhouse gas.

2. It contributes 2% towards greenhouse effect.

Question 4

State the ways of reducing the presence of greenhouse gases.

Answer

The ways of reducing the presence of greenhouse gases are :

1. Minimize use of automobiles : depending on the situation, one can use a bicycle or the
public transport system and car pools.
2. Plant more trees to increase the green cover.
3. Avoid burning of dry leaves, wood etc.
4. Avoid smoking
5. Spread awareness about global warming.

Question 5

State the effects of greenhouse gases on the atmosphere.

Answer

Effects of the greenhouse gases on the atmosphere are :

1. Greenhouse gases are crucial for the evolution of life on earth. Without them, solar heat
would escape, leaving the planet cold and barren like the moon.
2. They are necessary for evaporation of water and formation of clouds, leading to rain.
3. The increase of greenhouse gases above an optimum level is causing global warming by
increasing the earth's temperature.
4. Global warming due to greenhouse gases will lead to rise in sea level, change in rainfall
pattern and destruction of forests and wildlife.

Question 6

State the role of a greenhouse in growing plants.

Answer

A greenhouse is a glass structure that is used to grow green plants in colder regions of the earth.
The glass structure allows sunlight to reach inside it but does not allow reflected radiations to
escape, thus heating up the greenhouse and providing optimum temperature for the plants to
grow.

Question 7

Our atmosphere acts as a greenhouse. Explain.

Answer

The atmosphere acts as a greenhouse by trapping and retaining heat energy from the Sun, similar
to how a greenhouse retains heat to create a warmer environment for plants.

The greenhouse gases in the atmosphere allow the infrared rays from the Sun to penetrate the
Earth but do not allow the heat radiated by the heated Earth to penetrate back into space. Thus,
they act like a blanket around the Earth.

By trapping heat, the atmosphere helps to regulate the Earth's temperature and maintain suitable
conditions for life.

Question 8

How can we reduce global warming?

Answer

We can reduce global warming in the following ways :

1. Minimize use of automobiles : depending on the situation, one can use a bicycle or the
public transport system and car pools.
2. Plant more trees to increase the green cover.
3. Avoid burning of dry leaves, wood etc.
4. Avoid smoking
5. Spread awareness about global warming.

Exercise 8D — Multiple Choice Type

Question 1

Excessive release of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is the cause of :

1. depletion of ozone
2. formation of polar vortex
3. global warming
4. formation of smog
Answer

global warming

Reason — Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas and it traps heat radiated from the sun. An
excessive release of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere will lead to rise in temperature, thus
leading to global warming.

Question 2

Inhalation of air polluted with carbon monoxide is dangerous because :

1. CO combines with O2 dissolved in the blood.

2. CO combines with haemoglobin of blood.
3. CO removes water from the body and causes dehydration.
4. CO causes coagulation of proteins in the body.

Answer

CO combines with haemoglobin of blood

Reason — Carbon monoxide is dangerous because it combines with haemoglobin of blood and
prevents it from carrying oxygen to different parts of the body.

Question 3

A decrease in the amount of ozone in the stratosphere is called depletion of ozone and it is
caused by :

1. UV radiations of the sun

2. excessive use of detergents
3. burning coal and wood
4. Use of CFC compounds

Answer

Use of CFC compounds

Reason — Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) entering the atmosphere cause ozone layer depletion.

Question 4

Which is not a greenhouse gas ?

1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
 3. Nitrous oxide
4. Carbon dioxide

Answer

Carbon monoxide

Reason — Carbon monoxide is not a greenhouse gas. Carbon dioxide, water vapour, oxides of
nitrogen, methane, ozone, chloro-fluoro carbons are examples of greenhouse gases.

Question 5

The acid which is not responsible for acid rain is :

1. Formic acid
2. Carbonic acid
3. Sulphuric acid
4. Nitric acid

Answer

Formic acid

Reason — The main cause of acid rain is the formation of mineral acids like carbonic acid,
sulphuric acid and nitric acid during rains. Formic acid being an organic acid does not cause acid
rain.

Question 6

The branch of chemistry that aims to design product/process which minimize the use and/or
generation of pollution is :

1. Industrial chemistry
2. Green chemistry
3. Analytical chemistry
4. Biochemistry

Answer

Green chemistry

Reason — Green chemistry is the study of science dealing with the development of environment
friendly technology in order to reduce the use and production of hazardous and poisonous
chemicals.
Exercise 8D — Very Short Answer Type

Question 1

Fill in the blanks:

(a) The pollutants such as NO2, SO2 and SO3 dissolved in the moisture of air are the cause
of ...............

(b) Excessive release of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is the cause of ............... effect which
produces global warming.

(c) Ozone layer prevents the harmful ............... radiation of the sun to reach the earth.

(d) Decrease in the concentration of ozone in the stratosphere is the cause of the formation
of ............... holes.

(e) Ozone depletion is mainly caused by the active ............... atoms generated from CFC in the
presence of UV radiation.

Answer

(a) The pollutants such as NO2, SO2 and SO3 dissolved in the moisture of air are the cause of acid
rain

(b) Excessive release of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is the cause of greenhouse effect
which produces global warming.

(c) Ozone layer prevents the harmful ultraviolet radiation of the sun to reach the earth.

(d) Decrease in the concentration of ozone in the stratosphere is the cause of the formation
of ozone holes.

(e) Ozone depletion is mainly caused by the active chlorine atoms generated from CFC in the
presence of UV radiation.

Question 2

Name any two :

(a) natural sources of atmospheric pollution.

(b) gases which are responsible for the formation of acid rain.

(c) particulate pollutants.

Answer
(a) Volcanic eruptions, Decaying vegetation.

(b) Sulphur dioxide, Nitrogen dioxide.

(c) Dust, Smoke.

Question 3

State two effects of ozone depletion.

Answer

Depletion of ozone layer allows the ultraviolet rays of the Sun to reach the Earth. The harmful
effects of these ultraviolet rays are :

1. They cause skin cancer.

2. They destroy many organisms necessary for life in general.

Exercise 8D — Short Answer Type

Question 1

What is a pollutant ?

Answer

Pollutants are toxic and otherwise harmful substances that have an undesirable impact on the
different components of the environment and life forms.

Question 2

What do you understand by ppm ?

Answer

PPM stands for "parts per million." It is a unit of measurement used to express the concentration
of one substance in relation to a million units of another substance. It is commonly used to
quantify the presence of pollutants in air.

Question 3

State an advantage of CNG (Compressed Natural Gas).

Answer
CNG (Compressed Natural Gas) is a cleaner and cheaper fuel than petrol or diesel that helps to
control carbon monoxide pollution.

Question 4

State how CFCs break ozone layer.

Answer

CFCs are decomposed by ultra-violet rays to highly reactive chlorine, which is produced in its
atomic form.

CF2Cl2 (g) →Ultraviolet raysUltraviolet rays CF2Cl (g) + Cl (g) [free radical]
This free radical [Cl] reacts with ozone forming chlorine monoxide.

Cl(g) + O3(g) ⟶ ClO (g) + O2 (g)

This causes depletion of ozone, and chlorine monoxide further reacts with atomic oxygen to
produce more free radicals of chlorine.

ClO (g) + O (g) ⟶ Cl (g) + O2 (g)

Again this free radical [Cl] destroys ozone, and the process continues, giving rise to large scale
ozone depletion.

Question 5

State the chemicals responsible for ozone layer depletion.

Answer

Chemicals responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer are :

1. Excessive use of chlorofluoro carbons: CFCs (freons) enter the atmosphere because of
their excessive use in solvents, aerosol sprays, propellants, refrigerants and blowing
agents for plastic foams.
2. Fuel of planes: When the fuel of planes burns, a large quantity of nitric oxide and other
gases is emitted in the atmosphere.
3. The chemicals used in industries like methyl chloride (CH3Cl), methyl bromide (CH3Br),
carbon tetrachloride (CCl4) also deplete ozone layer.

Question 6

What is the function of ozone in the atmosphere ?

Answer
The ozone layer acts as a blanket in the atmosphere above 16 km from the earth’s surface. Ozone
absorbs the harmful ultra-violet rays coming from the sun and prevents them from reaching the
earth’s surface. Thus, it protects the life on earth from harmful effects of ultra-violet rays that can
cause skin cancer and destroy many organisms necessary for life in general.

Question 7

What is the effect of the following pollutants on living beings (one in each case)?

(a) Fluorides

(b) Smoke particles

(c) Lead

(d) Nitrogen oxide

(e) Smog

Answer

(a) Fluorides — causes destruction of vegetation.

(b) Smoke particles — get lodged in lungs damaging its functioning.

(c) Lead — damages the nervous and digetsive systems and can cause cancer.

(d) Nitrogen oxide — causes irritation in mucous membranes.

(e) Smog — it induces respiratory troubles.

Question 8

What is smog ? State its damaging effects.

Answer

A pollutant that is a combination of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur and of partially oxidized
hydrocarbons and their derivatives produced by industries and automobiles forms a dark, thick,
dust and soot laden fog and is known as smog.

Smog is noxious and irritating. It reduces visibility, induces respiratory troubles, and can cause
death by suffocation.

Exercise 8D — Descriptive type

Question 1
Give the composition, causes and effects of acid rain.

Answer

Composition
Acid rain results from acids like nitric acid and sulphuric acid present in polluted air. These acids
are formed when oxides of nitrogen and sulphur come into contact with rain water.

Causes
Fossil fuels contain compounds of nitrogen and sulphur in addition to carbon. Due to combustion
of these fuels, large amounts of sulphur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen and carbon dioxide get
discharged into the atmosphere. These oxides dissolve in rainwater to form mineral acids which
is the main cause of acid rain.

Effects

1. Acid rain affects soil chemistry. It removes calcium and potassium, both the basic
ingredients of soil, thus making it lose its fertility.
2. Acid rain causes nutrient loss from plants thus damaging their leaves.
3. The water of lake and rivers is gradually becoming acidic due to acid rain, which is
affecting aquatic life.
4. Acid rain causes extensive damage to building and sculptural materials like marble,
limestone, slate, mortar, etc. These materials become pitted and thus weaken
mechanically.
5. Acid rain increases corrosion of metals.
6. In high concentrations, it affects a person's breathing. In lower concentrations, it injures
lung tissues.

Question 2

How do you propose to control:

(a) carbon monoxide emission

(b) SOx emission

Answer

(a) Carbon monoxide pollution can be controlled in the following ways:

1. By switching over from internal combustion engines to electrically powered cars.

2. Many pollution control devices are now installed in cars. Most of these devices help
reduce pollution by burning gasoline completely. Complete combustion of gasoline

2C8H18 + 25O2 ⟶ 16CO2 + 18H2O

produces only carbon dioxide and water vapour.
 3. By using substitute fuels for gasoline: Natural gas in both compressed (CNG) and
liquefied forms (LNG) is now increasingly being used as fuel. Alcohols are other feasible
substitutes.
4. By using catalytic convertors :
Carbon monoxide changes to carbon dioxide in the presence of finely divided platinum as
a catalyst.
2CO→[O]PtCO2+H2O2COPt[O]CO2+H2O
(b) The main source of SOx emissions are industrial and metallurgical processes. Such emissions
can be reduced by using a scrubber, a device which absorbs gaseous pollutants. It consists of a
fine spray of water. The gas rising from the stack is passed through the scrubber where water
absorbs sulphur dioxide.

Question 3

What are the components of clean, dry air?

Answer

Pure Air Components by Volume (% Proportion) Concentration (ppm)

Nitrogen 78.08 780,900

Oxygen 20.94 209,400

Inert gases

Argon 0.93 9300

Neon 18

Helium 5

Krypton 1

Xenon 1

Carbon dioxide 0.03 315

Methane 1
 Pure Air Components by Volume (% Proportion) Concentration (ppm)

Hydrogen 0.5

Natural pollutants

Oxides of Nitrogen 0.52

Ozone 0.52

Question 4

What is air pollution? How is it caused?

Answer

Air pollution means degradation of air quality due to the increase in the concentration of harmful
contaminants that affects human, plant and animal lives.

Causes of air pollution are :

Natural Sources

1. Volcanoes — Volcanoes release large amounts of air pollutants such as carbon

monoxide, sulphur dioxide, hydrogen sulphide, chlorine, hydrogen chloride,
hydrocarbons and particulates.
2. Decaying vegetation — Microbial action on organic matter in soil releases a pollutant -
nitrous oxide.
3. Forest fires release the poisonous gas - carbon monoxide.
4. Winds and dust storms carry particulate matter like sand and dust.

Man-made sources

1. Automobiles use diesel or petrol as fuel. Incomplete combustion of these fuels releases
carbon monoxide, sulphur dioxide, hydrocarbons, nitrogen oxide and particulates like
lead.
2. Factories release carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide, nitrogen monoxide and particulates.
3. Industrial processes release different types of air pollutants, depending upon the type of
process involved.
 4. Decay of crop residue in rural areas is the main source of carbon monoxide and methane.
5. Burning of plastics releases carbon monoxide and other harmful gases.

Question 5

Why is cigarette-smoking harmful?

Answer

Cigarette smoking is harmful to both the smoker and those exposed to secondhand smoke. Below
are a few key points highlighting the harmful effects of cigarette smoking :

1. It increases the risk of cancer due to the many toxic carcinogens present in the cigarette
smoke.
2. It damages the respiratory system causing respiratory diseases like pneumonia, asthma,
chronic bronchitis, etc.
3. It significantly increases the risk of heart diseases and stroke.
4. It affects almost every organ in the body. It weakens the immune system, damages the
skin, teeth, and gums, and increases the risk of vision problems.

Question 6

Describe the major air pollutants. How does carbon monoxide pollute our environment?

Answer

Major air pollutants are :

1. Nitrogen oxides (N2O, NO and NO2)

2. Hydrocarbons (mainly methane, CH4)
3. Sulphur oxides (SO2 and SO3)
4. Hydrogen sulphide (H2S)
5. Carbon monoxide (CO)
6. Particulates (small solid particles and liquid droplets)

Carbon monoxide is a highly poisonous gas. If inhaled, it binds with haemoglobin 200 times
more strongly than oxygen reducing the blood's ability to carry oxygen by converting
haemoglobin into carboxyhaemoglobin. So, even in small quantities, it is fatal and can lead to
death.
In atmosphere, Carbon monoxide combines with oxygen to increase carbon dioxide
concentration leading to global warming.

Question 7

Explain the effect of sulphur dioxide on the atmosphere.

Answer

Effects of Sulphur dioxide on the atmosphere are :

1. It mixes with smoke and fog to form smog, which is very harmful.
2. It is oxidised by atmospheric oxygen into sulphur trioxide (SO3) which combines with

2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ⟶ 2SO3 (g)

water to form sulphuric acid. Sulphuric acid (H2SO4) is the cause of acid rain.

SO3 (g) + H2O (l) ⟶ H2SO4 (aq)

3. It destroys vegetation and weakens building materials/constructions.
4. It causes headache, vomiting and even death due to respiratory failure.

Question 8

Explain the formation of ozone in the atmosphere.

Answer

Ozone is formed by the action of ultraviolet rays of the Sun on oxygen.

3O2 (g) ⟶ 2O3 (g)

High energy ultra violet radiation, help in breaking oxygen molecules into oxygen atoms.

O2 + UV ⟶ O + O

Oxygen atoms then react with oxygen molecule to form ozone.

O + O2 ⟶ O3

Net reaction : 3O2 + UV ⟶ 2O3

Question 9

Explain the term 'global warming'. State two ways by which global warming can be reduced.

Answer

The rise in temperature of earth surface due to the heat trapped by greenhouse gases i.e., carbon
dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, ozone, chloro-fluoro-carbon compounds (CFCs) and water
vapour present in the atmosphere is called global warming.

Two ways by which global warming can be reduced are :

1. Minimize use of automobiles : depending on the situation, one can use a bicycle or the
public transport system and car pools.
2. Plant more trees to increase the green cover.
Question 10

What is the cause of acid rain? Give any two impacts of acid rain.

Answer

Fossil fuels contain compounds of nitrogen and sulphur in addition to carbon. Due to combustion
of these fuels, large amounts of sulphur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen and carbon dioxide get
discharged into the atmosphere. These oxides dissolve in rainwater to form mineral acids causing
acid rain.

Two impacts of acid rain are :

1. Acid rain affects soil chemistry. It removes calcium and potassium, both the basic
ingredients of soil, thus making it lose its fertility, which ultimately damages forests.
Acid rain causes nutrient loss from plants thus damaging their leaves.
2. The water of lakes and rivers is gradually becoming acidic due to acid rain, which is
affecting aquatic life.

Question 11

Describe the methods of saving the ozone layer.

Answer

Methods of saving the ozone layer are :

1. Use of products that contain CFC's to be replaced by alternative products.

2. Substitutes for CFC's have been initiated by scientists and use of HCFC
[hydrochlorofluorocarbons] is being considered. Labelling products as CFC free is
initiated.
3. International Treaty [Montreal protocol] was also initiated to prevent ozone depletion.

Exercise 8D — Structured/Application/Skill Type

Question 1

Study the following figure and answer the questions that follow :
(a) What phenomenon is depicted in this figure ?

(b) Mention the cause of it and give the reactions involved.

(c) State any two consequences of the above phenomenon.

(d) List the ways by which you can reduce and/or prevent it from happening.

Answer

(a) Acid rain

(b) Fossil fuels contain compounds of nitrogen and sulphur in addition to carbon. Due to
combustion of these fuels, large amounts of sulphur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen and carbon
dioxide get discharged into the atmosphere. These oxides dissolve in rainwater to form mineral
acids causing acid rain.

Formation of sulphuric acid : Sulphur dioxide is oxidised by atmospheric oxygen into sulphur
trioxide which combines with water to form sulphuric acid.
2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ⟶ 2SO3 (g)
SO3 (g) + H2O (l) ⟶ H2SO4 (aq)

Formation of nitric acid : Oxides of nitrogen are produced naturally during thunder and
lightning. They are also produced by internal combustion engines.

N2 + O2 →(3000°C)high temperaturehigh temperature(3000°C) 2NO

Nitrogen oxide then gets oxidized in the atmosphere to nitrogen dioxide.

2NO + O2 ⟶ 2NO2

Nitrogen dioxide combines with water to form a mixture of nitrous acid and nitric acid which
causes acid rain.

2NO2 + H2O ⟶ HNO2 + HNO3

(c) Two consequences of acid rain are :

1. Acid rain affects soil chemistry. It removes calcium and potassium, both the basic
ingredients of soil, thus making it lose its fertility, which ultimately damages forests.
Acid rain causes nutrient loss from plants thus damaging their leaves.
2. The water of lakes and rivers is gradually becoming acidic due to acid rain, which is
affecting aquatic life.

(d) The ways to reduce and/or prevent acid rain are :

1. Use coal or oil with low sulphur content to reduce the emission of oxides of sulphur and
nitrogen.
2. Use of scrubber (a device which absorbs gaseous pollutants) for removing sulphur
dioxide from a smoke stack.
Study of Gas Laws
Class 9 - Concise Chemistry Selina

Exercise 7 — Multiple Choice Type

Question 1

The graph of PV vs P for a gas is :

1. parabolic
2. hyperbolic
3. a straight line parallel to X-axis
4. a straight line passing through origin
Answer

a straight line parallel to X-axis

Reason — The graph of PV vs P is a straight line parallel to the pressure axis.

Question 2

The absolute temperature value that corresponds to 27°C is :

1. 200 K
2. 300 K
3. 400 K
4. 246 K

Answer

300 K

Reason — Celsius values can be converted to Kelvin values by adding 273 to degree celsius
values. Hence, 27°C + 273 = 300 K

Question 3

Volume-temperature relationship is given by :

1. Boyle
2. Gay Lussac
3. Dalton
4. Charles

Answer

Charles

Reason — Charles' law states that volume of a given mass of a dry gas is directly proportional to
its absolute (Kelvin) temperature, if the pressure remains constant.

Question 4

If pressure is doubled for a fixed mass of a gas, its volume will become :

1. 4 times
2. 1⁄2 times
3. 2 times
 4. No change

Answer

1⁄2 times

Reason — According to Boyle's law volume of a given mass of a dry gas is inversely
proportional to its pressure at constant temperature.

Hence, if pressure is doubled for a fixed mass of a gas, its volume will become 1⁄2 times.

Question 5

The S.I. unit of temperature is :

1. Pascal
2. °C
3. Kelvin
4. °F

Answer

Kelvin

Reason — The S.I. unit of temperature is Kelvin.

Question 6

Which of the following temperatures is known as the steam point ?

1. 273 K
2. 373 K
3. 290 K
4. 273°C

Answer

373 K

Reason — The steam point on Celsius scale is 100°C and corresponding to that steam point on
Kelvin scale is 273 + 100 = 373 K.

Question 7

The graph shown below gives the statement for :

 1. Henry's law
2. Charles' law
3. Boyle's law
4. Daltons' law

Answer

Boyle's law

Reason — For graphical verification of Boyle's law a graph of V vs 1/P is a straight line passing
through the origin.

Question 8

'The volume of a given amount of a gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature at a
constant pressure' is the statement of :

1. Gay-Lussac's law
2. Boyle's law
3. Charles' law
4. Mendeleev's law

Answer
Charles' law

Reason — Charles' law states that volume of a given mass of a dry gas is directly proportional to
its absolute (Kelvin) temperature, if the pressure remains constant.

Question 9

The volume of a given mass of a gas at constant temperature and 10 atmospheric pressure is 10
litres. Its volume at 5 atmospheres will be :

1. 5 litres
2. 10 litres
3. 15 litres
4. 20 litres

Answer

20 litres

Reason — Given,

V1 = 10 l
P1 = 10 atm
P2 = 5 atm
V2 = ?

According to Boyle's law, P1V1 = P2V2

So, 10 x 10 = 5 x V2

V2 = 10055100 = 20 l

Question 10

STP is called standard temperature and pressure. The standard temperature and standard pressure
respectively are :

1. 273 K and 760 mm

2. 0°C and 760 cm
3. 273°C and 1 atmosphere
4. 373 K and 76 cm

Answer

273 K and 760 mm

Reason — The standard values chosen are 0°C or 273 K for temperature and 1 atm or 760 mm
of Hg for pressure. These values are known as standard temperature and pressure (STP).

Exercise 7 — Very Short Answer Type

Question 1

Match the following:

Column A Column A

(a) Cm3 (i) Pressure

(b) Kelvin (ii) PV = P1V1

(c) Torr (iii) Volume

(d) Boyle’s law (iv) VTTV = V1T1T1V1

(e) Charles law (v) PVTTPV = P1V1T1T1P1V1

(vi) temperature

Answer

Column A Column A

(a) Cm3 (iii) Volume

(b) Kelvin (vi) temperature

(c) Torr (i) Pressure

(d) Boyle’s law PV = P1V1

(e) Charles law (iv) VTTV = V1T1T1V1

Question 2

Fill in the blanks:

(a) The average kinetic energy of the molecules of a gas is proportional to the ...............

(b) The temperature on the Kelvin scale at which molecular motion completely ceases is
called ...............

(c) If the temperature is reduced to half, ............... would also reduce to half.

(d) The melting point of ice is ............... Kelvin.

Answer

(a) The average kinetic energy of the molecules of a gas is proportional to the absolute
temperature.

(b) The temperature on the Kelvin scale at which molecular motion completely ceases is
called absolute zero.

(c) If the temperature is reduced to half, volume would also reduce to half.

(d) The melting point of ice is 273 Kelvin.

Question 3

Correct the following statements, wherever necessary.

(a) The volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure at constant temperature.

(b) Volume of a fixed mass of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature, pressure
remaining constant.

(c) 0°C is equal to zero Kelvin.

(d) Standard temperature is 25°C.

(e) The boiling point of water is 273 K.

Answer

(a) The volume of a given mass of a dry gas is inversely proportional to its pressure at constant
temperature.

(b) Volume of a fixed mass of a dry gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature
(Kelvin), pressure remaining constant.

(c) 0°C is equal to 273 Kelvin

(d) Standard temperature is 0°C or 273 K.

(e) The boiling point of water is 373 K.

Question 4

State (i) the three variables for gas laws (ii) S.I. units of these variables.

Answer

(i) The three variables for gas laws are Volume (V), Pressure (P), Temperature (T)

(ii) S.I. units of these variables:

Volume: Cubic metre (m3)

Pressure: Pascal (Pa)

Temperature: Kelvin (K)

Question 5

Write the value of:

(a) Standard temperature in:

(i) °C (ii) K

(b) Standard pressure in:

(i) atm (ii) mm Hg (iii) cm Hg (iv) torr

Answer

(a) Standard temperature

(i) 0°C (ii) 273 K

(b) Standard pressure

(i) 1 atmospheric pressure (atm)

(ii) 760 mm Hg

(iii) 76 cm of Hg

(iv) 760 torr

Question 6

State the following:

(a) Volume of a gas at 0 Kelvin.

(b) Absolute temperature of a gas at 7°C.

(c) Gas equation.

(d) Ice point in absolute temperature.

(e) S.T.P. conditions

Answer

(a) Volume of a gas at 0 Kelvin is zero.

(b) Absolute temperature of a gas at 7°C is 7 + 273 = 280 K.

(c) The gas equation is

P1V1T1T1P1V1 = P2V2T2T2P2V2
(d) Ice point in absolute temperature = 0 + 273 = 273 K

(e) Standard temperature = 0°C = 273 K

Standard pressure = 760 mm Hg = 76 cm Hg = 1 atmosphere (atm)

Exercise 7 — Short Answer Type

Question 1

What do you understand by gas?

Answer

Gas is a state of matter in which inter-particle attraction is weak and inter-particle space is so
large that the particles become completely free to move randomly in the entire available space.

Question 2

What is diffusion ? Give an example to illustrate it.

Answer
Diffusion is the process of gradual mixing of two substances, kept in contact, by molecular
motion.

If a jar of chlorine is opened in one end of the room, the odour of the gas can be detected in the
entire room, because its particles start moving in a haphazard manner in all directions, till there is
an equal concentration throughout the room.

Question 3

How is molecular motion related with temperature?

Answer

Molecular motion is directly proportional to temperature. When temperature increases molecular

motion increases and when temperature decreases molecular motion decreases.

Question 4

Define absolute zero and absolute scale of temperature.

Answer

The temperature on the Kelvin scale at which molecular motion completely ceases is
called absolute zero. Absolute zero is -273°C.

The temperature scale with its zero at -273.15°C and whose each degree is equal to one degree
on the Celsius scale, is called the Kelvin or absolute scale of temperature.

Question 5

(a) Define S.T.P.

(b) Why is it necessary to compare gases at S.T.P.?

Answer

(a) The standard values chosen are 0°C or 273 K for temperature, and 1 atmospheric unit (atm)
or 760 mm Hg for pressure. These standard values are known as standard temperature and
pressure (S.T.P.).

(b) Since volume of a gas changes remarkably with change in temperature and pressure, it
becomes necessary to choose standard values of temperature and pressure to which gas volumes
can be referred.

Question 6

State the laws which are represented by the following graphs.

Answer

(a) Charles' law

(b) Boyle's law

Question 7

What is the relationship between the Celsius and the Kelvin scales of temperature?

Answer

The size of 1 degree on the Kelvin scale is the same as the size of 1 degree on the Celsius scale
i.e., unit size on Kelvin scale is equal to the unit size on Celsius scale.
The value on the Celsius scale can be converted to Kelvin scale by adding 273 to it. Kelvin scale
values can be converted to degree Celsius values by subtracting 273 from it.

Question 8

The molecular theory states that the pressure exerted by a gas in closed vessel results from the
gas molecules striking against the walls of the vessel. How will the pressure change if :

(a) the temperature is doubled keeping the volume constant

(b) the volume is made half of its original value keeping the temperature constant?

Answer
(a) This can be explained on the basis of Gas equation

P1V1T1T1P1V1 = P2V2T2T2P2V2
When volume is constant we get,

P1T1T1P1 = P2T2T2P2
Hence, when temperature is doubled, pressure is doubled, as pressure and temperature are
directly proportional.

(b) This can be explained on the basis of Boyle's law

P1V1 = P2V2

Hence, when the volume is made half of its original value keeping the temperature constant,
pressure becomes double, as pressure and volume are inversely proportional.

Question 9

(a) What is the need for the Kelvin scale of temperature?

(b) What is the boiling point of water on the Kelvin scale? Convert it into centigrade scale.

Answer

(a) Kelvin scale makes application and use of gas laws simple. More significantly, all values on
Kelvin scale are positive.

(b) Boiling point of water on the Kelvin scale is 373 K.

Temperature in °C = K - 273

So, 373 K - 273 = 100°C.

Question 10

Give reasons for the following :

(a) All temperatures in the absolute (Kelvin) scale are in positive figures.

(b) Gases have lower density compared to that of solids or liquids.

(c) Gases exert pressure in all directions.

(d) It is necessary to specify the pressure and temperature of a gas while stating its volume.

(e) Inflating a balloon seems to violate Boyle's law.

(f) Mountaineers carry oxygen cylinders with them.

(g) Gas fills completely the vessel in which it is kept.

Answer

(a) The temperature -273°C is called absolute zero and it is theoretically the lowest temperature
that can ever be achieved. The absolute (Kelvin) scale has its zero at -273°C. As temperatures
lower than -273°C are not possible, hence, all temperatures in Kelvin scale are in positive
figures.

(b) The number of molecules per unit volume in a gas is very small as compared to solids and
liquids. Gases have large inter-molecular spaces between their molecules. Therefore gases have
lower density compared to that of solids or liquids.

(c) The moving particles of a gas collide with each other and also with the walls of the container.
Due to these collisions gas molecules exert pressure. It has been found that at a given
temperature, time and area, the same number of molecules of a gas strike against the walls of the
container. Thus, gases exert the same pressure in all directions.

(d) Since volume of a gas changes remarkably with change in temperature and pressure, it
becomes necessary to choose standard values of temperature and pressure to which gas volumes
can be referred.

(e) Boyle's law states that the volume of a dry gas is inversely proportional to its pressure at a
constant temperature. When we inflate a balloon, the volume and pressure of the air increase
simultaneously, seemingly violating Boyle's law. However, this is not the case because according
to the law, the mass of the gas should remain constant. In the balloon scenario, as more air is
blown into the balloon, the mass of the gas increases, ensuring Boyle's law is not violated.

(f) Atmospheric pressure is low at high altitudes, so air is less dense. Hence, lesser quantity of
oxygen is available for breathing. Thus, mountaineers have to carry oxygen cylinders with them.

(g) Gas is a state of matter in which inter-particle attraction is weak and inter-particle space is so
large that the particles become completely free to move randomly in the entire available space.
Hence, it fills completely the vessel in which it is kept.

Exercise 7 — Descriptive Answer Type

Question 1

Give the assumptions of the kinetic molecular theory.

Answer

The assumptions of the kinetic molecular theory are :

 1. Composition of gases — Gases are made of tiny particles moving in all possible
directions at all possible speeds. The molecules are negligibly small as compared to the
volume of the occupied gas.
2. Gases have neither a fixed volume nor a fixed shape — There is negligible force of
attraction between the particles (gas molecules). Therefore, the particles (gas molecules)
are free to move in the entire space available to them. Their movement is only restricted
by the container, hence it takes the shape of the container.
3. Gases exert pressure in all directions — The moving particles of gas collide with each
other and with the walls of the container. Due to these collisions, gas molecules exert
pressure. It has been found, that at a given temperature, time and area, the same number
of molecules of a gas strike against the walls of the container. Thus, gases exert the same
pressure in all directions.
4. Gases are highly compressible — There are large inter-particle (inter-molecular) space
between gas molecules, and this accounts for high compressibility of gases.
5. Gases are highly expansible — Gases increase in volume with a decrease in pressure
and an increase in temperature.
6. Gases have low density — The number of molecules per unit volume in a gas is very
small due to the large intermolecular spaces between their molecules. Therefore, gases
have very low density.
7. Gases have a natural tendency for diffusion — Due to large intermolecular spaces, the
molecules of two gases mix with each other in such a manner that a homogeneous
gaseous mixture is formed.
8. Gases can be liquefied — On cooling, the kinetic energy of the molecules of a gas is
reduced and on applying pressure on a cooled gas, the molecules come closer. Thus, the
gas liquefies.

Question 2

Explain Boyle's law on the basis of the kinetic theory of matter.

Answer

According to the kinetic theory of gases, the number of particles and their average kinetic energy
in a given mass of gas remain constant. When the volume of a gas is halved, the particles have
less space to move, resulting in double the number of molecules striking the container walls per
unit area and thus doubling the pressure. Conversely, doubling the volume gives the particles
more space, reducing the number of molecules striking the walls per unit area by half and
halving the pressure. This demonstrates Boyle's law: as pressure increases, the volume of a gas
decreases at a constant temperature.

Question 3

Explain Charles' law on the basis of the kinetic theory of matter.

Answer
According to the kinetic theory of gases, the average kinetic energy of gas particles is directly
proportional to the absolute temperature. Increasing the temperature causes the particles to move
faster and strike the container walls more frequently and forcefully. When pressure is constant,
the volume of the gas increases proportionally. Therefore, at constant pressure, the volume of a
gas is directly proportional to its temperature (Charles' law).

Question 4

How did Charles' law lead to the concept of an absolute scale of temperature?

Answer

According to Charles' law, when pressure (P) is constant,

V=V0+V0273t⇒V=V0(273+t273)V=V0+273V0t⇒V=V0(273273+t)

∴ Volume at -273°C = V0(273−273273)V0(273273−273) = 0

Hence, the volume of a gas would be reduced to zero at -273°C. This temperature is called
absolute zero.

This allowed the scientists to establish an absolute temperature scale (known as Kelvin scale) by
defining absolute zero as the point where volume of a gas would theoretically be zero.

Question 5

(a) State Boyle's Law.

(b) Give its

(i) mathematical expression,

(ii) graphical representation and

(iii) significance.

Answer

(a) Boyle's law states that the volume of a given mass of a dry gas is inversely proportional to its
pressure at a constant temperature.

(b) (i) Mathematical expression of Boyle's law :

Suppose a gas occupies volume V1 when its pressure is P1; then

V1 α 1P1P11 or
V1 = kP1P1k or

P1V1 = k = constant

If V2 is the volume occupied when the pressure is P2 at the same temperature, then

V2 α 1P2P21 or

V2 = kP2P2k or

P2V2 = k = constant

∴ P1V1 = P2V2 = k; at constant temperature.

(ii) Graphical representation of Boyle's Law:

(a) V vs 1PP1 : a straight line passing through the origin is obtained.

(b) V vs P : a hyperbolic curve in the first quadrant is obtained.

(c) PV vs P : a straight line is obtained parallel to the pressure axis.
(iii) Significance of Boyle's law :
On increasing pressure, volume decreases. The gas becomes denser. Thus, at constant
temperature, the density of a gas is directly proportional to pressure.

Question 6

(a) State Charles' law.

(b) Give its

(i) Graphical representation,

(ii) mathematical expression and

(iii) Significance.

Answer
(a) Charles law states that pressure remaining constant, the volume of a given mass of dry gas
increases or decreases by 12732731 of its volume at 0°C for each 1°C increase or decrease in
temperature, respectively.

(b) (i) Graphical representation of Charles' law : The relationship between the volume and the
temperature of a gas can be plotted on a graph. A straight line is obtained.
(ii) Mathematical expression of Charles' law :

Suppose, a gas occupies V1 cm3 at T1 temperature and V2 cm3 at T2 temperature, then by Charles'
law:

V1 α T1

or V1 = kT1 (k is constant)

or V1T1T1V1 = k and

V2 α T2

or V2T2T2V2 = k

∴ V1T1T1V1 = V2T2T2V2 = k (at constant pressure)

(iii) Significance of Charles' Law :

Volume of a given mass of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature, hence, density
decreases with an increase in temperature.
Question 7

What is meant by aqueous tension? How is the pressure exerted by a gas corrected to account for
aqueous tension?

Answer

When the gas is collected over water, it is moist and contains water vapour. The total pressure
exerted by moist gas is equal to the sum of the partial pressure of the dry gas and the pressure
exerted by water vapour. The partial pressure of water vapour is called as aqueous tension.

Ptotal = Pgas + Pwater vapour

Pgas = Ptotal – Pwater vapour

Actual pressure of gas = Total pressure – Aqueous tension

Thus, to obtain the actual pressure, the pressure which is due to moisture in the gas has to be
subtracted.

Question 8

During the chemistry practical when hydrogen sulphide gas having offensive odour is prepared
for some test in the laboratory, we can smell the gas from even 50 metres away. Explain the
phenomenon.

Answer

The phenomenon is Diffusion.

Diffusion is the process of gradual mixing of two substances, kept in contact, by molecular
motion.

The molecules of hydrogen sulphide gas collide with air particles and due to the collisions of the
particles, they start moving in a haphazard manner in all possible directions. Due to this, the
molecules of hydrogen sulphide gas quickly spread in the surroundings and we can smell the gas
from even 50 metres away.

Exercise 7 — Structured/Application/Skill Type

Question 1

(a) State the law verified by the following figure:

(b) Draw P.V. isothermal for the above law.

Answer

(a) Boyle's law — It states that the volume of a given mass of a dry gas is inversely proportional
to its pressure at a constant temperature i.e., P1V1 = P2V2

(b) P.V. isothermal for Boyle's law is shown below :

Question 2

(a) State the law which the following graph verifies.

(b) Derive the mathematical expression for it.

(c) Give one application/use where the above law is employed.

Answer

(a) Charles' law — It states that pressure remaining constant, the volume of a given mass of dry
gas increases or decreases by 12732731 of its volume at 0°C for each 1°C increase or decrease
in temperature, respectively.

(b) Let V0 be the volume of a fixed mass of a gas at 0°C and let V be its volume at temperature
t°C at constant pressure. Then according to Charles' law,

V = Vo + V0273273V0t (when P is constant)

V = Vo (1 + t273273t)
= Vo (273 + t273273273 + t)
V = V0273273V0T where T = 273 + t

For a given mass of a gas,

V0273273V0 = constant
∴ V = k x T (where k is constant)

or V α T and VTTV = K

Suppose a gas occupies V1 cm3 at T1 temperature and V2 cm3 at T2 temperature, then by Charles
law,

V1 α T1

or V1 = kT1 (k is constant)

or V1T1T1V1 = k and

V2 α T2

or V2T2T2V2 = k

∴ V1T1T1V1 = V2T2T2V2 = k (at constant pressure)

(c) Volume of a given mass of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature, hence, density
decreases with an increase in temperature. This is the reason that hot air is filled into balloons
used for meteorological purposes.

Question 3

Plot V versus absolute T (K) by the given data:

Temperature Volume in litres

27°C 4.8

77°C 5.6

127°C 6.4

177°C 7.2
 Temperature Volume in litres

227°C 8.0

(a) The graph between V and T is a ............... .

(b) Check whether the line passes through the origin.

(c) Which law is obeyed.

Answer

Converting temperature to Kelvin Scale :

Temp Temp Volume

(°C) (K) (litres)

27 300 4.8

77 350 5.6

127 400 6.4

177 450 7.2

227 500 8.0

Graph of V versus absolute T is shown below :

(a) The graph between V and T is a straight line.

(b) Yes, as we can see in the graph, the line passes through the origin.

(c) Charles' law

Exercise 7 — Numericals

Question 1

Convert :

(i) 273°C to kelvin

(ii) 293 K to °C

Answer

(i) Kelvin = °C + 273 = 273 + 273 = 546 K

(ii) °C = Kelvin - 273 = 293 - 273 = 20°C

Question 2

What will be the minimum pressure required to compress 500 dm3 of air at 1 bar to 200 dm3, if
temperature is kept constant?

Answer

Given,

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 500 dm3

P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = 1 bar.
V2 = Final volume = 200 dm3
P2 = Final pressure of the gas = ?

By Boyle's Law:

P1V1=P2V2P1V1=P2V2
Substituting the values :

1×500=P2×200P2=500200P2=2.5 bar 1×500=P2×200P2=200500P2=2.5 bar

∴ Final pressure of the gas = 2.5 bar.

Question 3

2 litres of a gas is enclosed in a vessel at a pressure of 760 mm Hg. If temperature remains

constant, calculate pressure when volume changes to 4 dm3.

Answer

V1 = 2 lits.

P1 (Initial pressure) = 760 mm Hg

V2 = 4 dm3

P2 (Final pressure) = ?

By Boyle's Law:

P1V1=P2V2P1V1=P2V2
Substituting the values :
760×2=P2×4P2=760×24P2=380 mm Hg760×2=P2×4P2=4760×2P2=380 mm Hg
∴ Final pressure of the gas = 380 mm Hg.

Question 4

800 cm3 of gas is collected at 654 mm pressure. At what pressure would the volume of the gas
reduce by 40% of its original volume, temperature remaining constant?

Answer

V1 = 800 cm3

P1 (Initial pressure) = 654 mm of Hg

V2 = reduces by 40% of it's initial value

= 800 - (4010010040 x 800)

= 800 - 320 = 480 cm3

P2 (Final pressure) = ?

By Boyle's Law:

P1V1=P2V2P1V1=P2V2
Substituting the values :

654×800=P2×480P2=800×654480P2=1090 mm of Hg654×800=P2×480P2
=480800×654P2=1090 mm of Hg
∴ Final pressure of the gas = 1090 mm of Hg.

Question 5

At constant temperature, the effect of change of pressure on volume of a gas was as given
below :

Pressure in atmospheres Volume in litres

1.0 12

1.5 8.0
 Pressure in atmospheres Volume in litres

2.0 6.0

2.5 4.8

3.0 4.0

(a) Plot the following graphs :

(i) P vs V

(ii) P vs 1/V

(iii) PV vs P

(b) Assuming that the pressure values given above are correct, find the correct measurement of
the volume at 2.3 atmosphere pressure.

Answer

(a)

(i) Graph of P vs V :

Pressure (atm) Volume (lit)

1.0 12.0

1.5 8.0

2.0 6.0

2.5 4.8

3.0 4.0
(ii) Graph of P vs 1/V :

Pressure (atm) Volume (lit) 1/V

1.0 12 0.083

1.5 8.0 0.125

2.0 6.0 0.166

2.5 4.8 0.208

3.0 4.0 0.25

(iii) Graph of PV vs P :

Pressure (atm) Volume (lit) PV

1.0 12 12

1.5 8.0 12

2.0 6.0 12

2.5 4.8 12

3.0 4.0 12
 Pressure (atm) Volume (lit) PV

(b) By Boyle's Law:

P1V1=P2V2P1V1=P2V2
P1V1 = 12 is a constant, hence, V2 = ? at P2 = 2.3 atm

Substituting the values :

12=2.3×V2V2=122.3V2=5.217 lit12=2.3×V2V2=2.312V2=5.217 lit

Hence, volume = 5.217 lit
Question 6

A cylinder of 20 litres capacity contains a gas at 100 atmospheric pressure. How many flasks of
200 cm3 capacity can be filled from it at 1 atmosphere pressure temperature remaining constant?

Answer

V1 = 20 lits.

1 lit. = 1000 cm3

∴ 20 lit = 20,000 cm3

P1 (Initial pressure) = 100 atmos.

P2 (Final pressure) = 1 atmos.

V2 = ?

By Boyle's Law:

P1V1=P2V2P1V1=P2V2
Substituting the values :

100×20,000=1×V2V2=20,00,000 cm3100×20,000=1×V2V2=20,00,000 cm3

∴ Number of flasks required for 20,00,000 cm3 of gas

200 cm3 = capacity of 1 flask

=20,00,000200=10,000=20020,00,000=10,000
Hence, number of flask that can be filled = 10,000.

Question 7

A steel cylinder of internal volume 20 litres is filled with hydrogen at 29 atmospheric pressure. If
hydrogen is used to fill a balloon at 1.25 atmospheric pressure at the same temperature, what
volume will the gas occupy ?

Answer

V1 = 20 litres

P1 = 29 atmospheric pressure

P2 = 1.25 atmospheric pressure

V2 = ?

By Boyle's Law:

P1V1=P2V2P1V1=P2V2
Substituting the values :

20×29=1.25×V2V2=20×291.25V2=464 litres20×29=1.25×V2V2=1.2520×29V2
=464 litres
∴ Volume occupied = 464 litres.

Question 8

561 dm3 of a gas at S.T.P. is filled in a 748 dm3 container. If temperature is constant, calculate
the percentage change in pressure required.

Answer

V1 = 561 dm3

P1 = P

V2 = 748 dm3

P2 = ?

By Boyle's Law:

P1V1=P2V2P1V1=P2V2
Substituting the values :

561×P=748×P2P2=561×P748P2=0.75P561×P=748×P2P2=748561×PP2=0.75P
Change in pressure = P - 0.75P = 0.25P decrease

Percentage decrease in pressure = DecreaseOriginalOriginalDecrease x 100

= 0.25PPP0.25P x 100 = 25%

∴ Percentage decrease in the pressure of the gas = 25%

Question 9

88 cm3 of nitrogen is at a pressure of 770 mm mercury. If the pressure is raised to 880 mm Hg,
find by how much the volume will diminish, temperature remains constant.
Answer

V1 = 88 cm3

P1 = 770 mm

P2 = 880 mm Hg

V2 = ?

By Boyle's Law:

P1V1=P2V2P1V1=P2V2
Substituting the values :

770×88=880×V2V2=770×88880V2=77770×88=880×V2V2=880770×88V2=77
V2 = 77 cm3

∴ Decrease in volume = 88 - 77 = 11 cm3

Question 10

A gas at 240 K is heated to 127°C. Find the percentage change in the volume of the gas (pressure
remaining constant).

Answer

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = V cc

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 240 K
T2 = Final temperature of the gas = 127°C = 127 + 273 = 400 K
V2 = Final volume of the gas = ?

By Charles' Law:

V1T1=V2T2T1V1=T2V2
Substituting the values :

V240=V2400V2=400×V240V2=5×V3240V=400V2V2=240400×VV2=35×V
Increase in vol. = 5V335V - V = 2V332V

Percentage increase in vol. = IncreaseOriginalOriginalIncrease x 100 = 2V3V3V2V x

100 = 66.67%
∴ Percentage increase in the volume of the gas = 66.67%

Question 11

Certain amount of a gas occupies a volume of 0.4 litre at 17°C. To what temperature should it be
heated so that its volume gets (a) doubled (b) reduced to half, pressure remaining constant?

Answer

(a) To find the temperature so that volume gets doubled :

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 0.4 litre

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 17°C = 17 + 273 = 290 K
V2 = Final volume of the gas = double of initial = 2 x 0.4 = 0.8 litre
T2 = Final temperature of the gas = ?

By Charles' Law:

V1T1=V2T2T1V1=T2V2
Substituting the values :

0.4290=0.8T2T2=0.8×2900.4T2=580 K2900.4=T20.8T2=0.40.8×290T2=580 K
∴ Final temperature in °C = 580 - 273 = 307°C

(b) To find the temperature so that volume gets reduced to half :

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 0.4 litre

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 17°C = 17 + 273 = 290 K
V2 = Final volume of the gas = reduced to half of initial = 0.2 litre
T2 = Final temperature of the gas = ?

By Charles' Law:

V1T1=V2T2T1V1=T2V2
Substituting the values :

0.4290=0.2T2T2=0.2×2900.4T2=1452900.4=T20.2T2=0.40.2×290T2=145
∴ Final temperature in °C = 145 - 273 = -128°C

Question 12

A given mass of a gas occupies 143 cm3 at 27°C and 700 mm Hg pressure. What will be its
volume at 300 K and 280 mm Hg pressure?
Answer

Initial conditions Final conditions

P2 = Final pressure of the gas = 280 mm

P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = 700 mm Hg
Hg

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 143 cm3 V2 = Final volume of the gas = ?

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 27°C = 27 + 273 = 300

T2 = Final temperature of the gas = 300 K
K

By Gas Law:

P1×V1T1=P2×V2T2T1P1×V1=T2P2×V2
Substituting the values :

700×143300=280×V2300V2=700×143280V2=357.5 cm3300700×143
=300280×V2V2=280700×143V2=357.5 cm3
∴ Final volume of the gas = 357.5 cm3

Question 13

A gas occupies 500 cm3 at S.T.P. At what temperature will the volume of the gas be reduced by
20% of its original volume, pressure being constant?

Answer

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 500 cm3

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 273 K
V2 = Final volume of the gas = reduced by 20% of its original = 500 - (2010010020 x 500) =
500 - 100 = 400 cm3
T2 = Final temperature of the gas = ?

By Charles' Law:

V1T1=V2T2T1V1=T2V2
Substituting the values :

500273=400T2T2=400×273500T2=218.4 K273500=T2400T2=500400×273T2
=218.4 K
Final temperature = 218.4 K

Question 14

Calculate the final volume of a gas 'X', if the original pressure of the gas, at S.T.P. is doubled and
its temperature is increased three times.

Answer

Initial conditions [S.T.P.] Final conditions

P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = 760 mm Hg P2 = Final pressure of the gas = (2 x 760) mm Hg

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = V V2 = Final volume of the gas = ?

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 273 K T2 = Final temperature of the gas = (3 x 273) K

By Gas Law:

P1×V1T1=P2×V2T2T1P1×V1=T2P2×V2
Substituting the values :

760×V273=2×760×V23×273V2=32VV2=112V273760×V=3×2732×760×V2V2
=23VV2=121V
∴ Final volume of the gas = 112121 times the original volume.

Question 15

A sample of carbon dioxide occupies 30 cm3 at 15°C and 740 mm pressure. Find its volume at
S.T.P.

Answer

Initial conditions Final conditions [S.T.P.]

P2 = Final pressure of the gas = 760 mm

P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = 740 mm Hg
Hg

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 30 cm3 V2 = Final volume of the gas = ?

 Initial conditions Final conditions [S.T.P.]

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 15°C = 15 + 273 = 288

T2 = Final temperature of the gas = 273 K
K

By Gas Law:

P1×V1T1=P2×V2T2T1P1×V1=T2P2×V2
Substituting the values :

740×30288=760×V2273V2=740×30×273288×760V2=27.68 cm3288740×30
=273760×V2V2=288×760740×30×273V2=27.68 cm3
∴ Volume of carbon dioxide = 27.7 cm3

Question 16

What temperature would be necessary to double the volume of a gas, initially at S.T.P., if the
pressure is decreased to 50% ?

Answer

Initial conditions [S.T.P.] Final conditions

P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = 1 atm P2 = Final pressure of the gas = 0.5 atm

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = V V2 = Final volume of the gas = 2V

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 273 K T2 = Final temperature of the gas = ?

By Gas Law:

P1×V1T1=P2×V2T2T1P1×V1=T2P2×V2
Substituting the values :

1×V273=0.5×2VT2T2=0.5×2×273T2=273 K2731×V=T20.5×2VT2
=0.5×2×273T2=273 K
∴ Final temperature of the gas = 273 K
Question 17

At 0°C and 760 mm Hg pressure, a gas occupies volume of 100 cm3. Kelvin temperature of the
gas is increased by one-fifth and the pressure is increased one and a half times. Calculate the
final volume of the gas.

Answer

Initial conditions [S.T.P.] :

P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = 760 mm Hg

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 100 cm3
T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 0°C = 273 K

Final conditions :

P2 (Final pressure) = increased one and a half times of P1

= (1 + 1221) of 760

= 3223 x 760

= 3 x 380

= 1140 mm Hg

V2 (Final volume) = ?

T2 (Final temperature) = increased by one-fifth of 273 K

= (1+15)(1+51) of 273

= 6556 x 273 = 1638551638

By Gas Law:

P1×V1T1=P2×V2T2T1P1×V1=T2P2×V2
Substituting the values :

760×100273=1140×V216385760×100273=5×1140×V21638V2=760×100×163
8273×5×1140V2=80 cm3273760×100=516381140×V2273760×100
=16385×1140×V2V2=273×5×1140760×100×1638V2=80 cm3
∴ Final volume of the gas = 80 cm3

Question 18
It is found, on heating a gas, its volume increases by 50% and pressure decreases to 60% of its
original value. If the original temperature was -15°C, find the temperature to which it was
heated?

Answer

Initial conditions [S.T.P.] :

P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = P

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = V
T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = -15°C = -15 + 273 = 258 K

Final conditions :

P2 (Final pressure) = pressure decreases to 60% of its original value

= 6010010060 of P

= 3553P

V2 (Final volume) = volume increases by 50% of its original value

= 1 + 5010010050 of V

= 100+50100100100+50 of V

= 150100100150 of V

= 3223V

T2 (Final temperature) = ?

By Gas Law:

P1×V1T1=P2×V2T2T1P1×V1=T2P2×V2
Substituting the values :

PV 258=35P×32VT2T2=3×3×2585×2=232210T2=232.2K258PV =T253P×23V
T2=5×23×3×258=102322T2=232.2K
∴ Final temperature of the gas = 232.2 - 273 = -40.8°C

Question 19

A certain mass of a gas occupies 2 Litres at 27°C and 100 pascal. Find the temperature when
volume and pressure become half of their initial values.
Answer

Initial conditions [S.T.P.] :

P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = 100 Pascal

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 2 Litres

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 27°C = 27 + 273 = 300 K

Final conditions :

P2 (Final pressure) = 50 Pascal

V2 (Final volume) = 1 litre
T2 (Final temperature) = ?

By Gas Law:

P1×V1T1=P2×V2T2T1P1×V1=T2P2×V2
Substituting the values :

100×2300=50×1T2T2=50×32T2=75K300100×2=T250×1T2=250×3T2=75K
∴ Final temperature of the gas = 75 - 273 = -198°C

Question 20

2500 cm3 of hydrogen is taken at S.T.P. The pressure of this gas is further increased by two and
and a half times (temperature remaining constant). What volume will hydrogen occupy now?

Answer

V1 = 2500 cm3

P1 = 760 mm Hg

P2 = increased by two and a half times

= (1 + 212221 ) times of 760 mm Hg

= (1 + 5225 ) times of 760 mm Hg

= ( 7227 x 760) mm Hg

V2 = ?

By Boyle's Law:
P1V1=P2V2P1V1=P2V2
Substituting the values :

760×2500=72×760×V2V2=50007760×2500=27×760×V2V2=75000
∴ Final volume = 5000775000 cm3

Question 21

Taking the volume of hydrogen as calculated in Q.20 what change must be made in Kelvin
(absolute) temperature to return the volume to 2500 cm3 (pressure remaining constant).

Answer

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 5000775000 cm3

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 273 K

V2 = Final volume of the gas = 2500 cm3

T2 = Final temperature of the gas = ?

By Charles' Law:

V1T1=V2T2T1V1=T2V2
Substituting the values :

50007×273=2500T2T2=7×273×25005000T2=7×2732T2=3.5×2737×2735000
=T22500T2=50007×273×2500T2=27×273T2=3.5×273
∴ Final temperature = 3.5 times of Kelvin temperature.

Question 22

A given amount of gas A is confined in a chamber of constant volume. When the chamber is
immersed in a bath of melting ice, the pressure of the gas is 100 cm Hg.

(a) What is the temperature, when the pressure is 10 cm Hg?

(b) What will be the pressure, when the chamber is brought to 100°C?

Answer

(a) P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = 100 cm Hg

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 273 K

P2 = Final pressure of the gas = 10 cm Hg

T2 = Final temperature of the gas = ?

V1 = V2 = V [constant volume]

By Gas Law:

P1×V1T1=P2×V2T2T1P1×V1=T2P2×V2
Substituting the values :

100×V273=10×VT2T2=27310T2=27.3K273100×V=T210×VT2=10273T2
=27.3K
∴ When the pressure is 10 cm Hg, the temperature is 27.3 K.

(b) P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = 100 cm Hg

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas (ice point) = 273 K

P2 = Final pressure of the gas = ?

T2 = Final temperature of the gas = 100°C = 273 + 100 = 373 K

V1 = V2 = V [constant volume]

By Gas Law:

P1×V1T1=P2×V2T2T1P1×V1=T2P2×V2
Substituting the values :

100×V273=P2×V373P2=37300273P2=136.63 cm of Hg273100×V=373P2×VP2
=27337300P2=136.63 cm of Hg
∴ When the chamber is brought to 100°C, the pressure is 136.63 cm Hg.

Question 23

A gas is to be filled from a tank of capacity 10,000 litres into cylinders each having capacity of
10 litres. The condition of the gas in the tank is as follows:

(a) pressure inside the tank is 800 mm of Hg.

(b) temperature inside the tank is -3°C.

When the cylinder is filled, the pressure gauge reads 400 mm of Hg and the temperature is 270
K. Find the number of cylinders required to fill the gas.

Answer

Initial conditions :

P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = 800 mm of Hg

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 10,000 litres

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = -3°C = -3 + 273 = 270 K

Final conditions:

P2 (Final pressure) = 400 mm of Hg

V2 (Final volume) = 10 litres x n cylinders

T2 (Final temperature) = 270 K

where n is the number of cylinders = ?

By Gas Law:

P1×V1T1=P2×V2T2T1P1×V1=T2P2×V2
Substituting the values :

800×10,000270=400×10×�270n=800×10,000×270400×10×270n=800×104n=
2000270800×10,000=270400×10×nn=400×10×270800×10,000×270
n=4800×10n=2000
∴ Number of cylinders = 2000.

Question 24

A sealed tube (able to withstand a pressure of 3 atmospheres) is filled with air at 27°C and one
atmosphere pressure. Find the temperature above which it will burst.

Answer

P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = 1 atm

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 27°C = 27 + 273 = 300 K

P2 = Final pressure of the gas = 3 atm

T2 = Final temperature of the gas = ?

V1 = V2 = V [constant volume]

By Gas Law:

P1×V1T1=P2×V2T2T1P1×V1=T2P2×V2
Substituting the values :

1×V300=3×VT2T2=3×300T2=900K3001×V=T23×VT2=3×300T2=900K
∴ The temperature above which the tube will burst is 627°C.

Question 25

Calculate the temperature at which the volume of a gas is doubled if its pressure at the same time
increases from 70 cm of Hg to 80 cm of Hg.

Answer

Initial conditions :

P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = 70 cm of Hg

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = V

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 273 K

Final conditions:

P2 (Final pressure) = 80 cm of Hg

V2 (Final volume) = 2V

T2 (Final temperature) = ?

By Gas Law:

P1×V1T1=P2×V2T2T1P1×V1=T2P2×V2
Substituting the values :

70×V273=80×2VT2T2=80×2V×27370×VT2=16×2737T2=624 K27370×V=T2
80×2VT2=70×V80×2V×273T2=716×273T2=624 K
∴ Final temperature of the gas = 624 - 273 = 351°C
Question 26

Calculate the volume occupied by 2 g of hydrogen at 27°C and 4 atmosphere pressure, if at

S.T.P. it occupies 22.4 litres.

Answer

Initial conditions [S.T.P.] :

P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = 1 atm

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 22.4 l

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 273 K

Final conditions :

P2 (Final pressure) = 4 atm

T2 (Final temperature) = 27°C = 27 + 273 = 300 K

V2 (Final volume) = ?

By Gas Law:

P1×V1T1=P2×V2T2T1P1×V1=T2P2×V2
Substituting the values :

1×22.4273=4×V2300V2=300×22.4273×4V2=6.15 l2731×22.4=3004×V2V2
=273×4300×22.4V2=6.15 l
∴ Volume occupied = 6.15 l

Question 27

Which will have greater volume when the following gases are compared at S.T.P.

(a) 1.2 l N2 at 25°C and 748 mm Hg

(b) 1.25 l O2 at S.T.P.?

Answer

(a) 1.2 l N2 at 25°C and 748 mm Hg

Initial conditions :
P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = 748 mm Hg

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 1.2 l

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 25°C = 25 + 273 = 298 K

Final conditions :

P2 (Final pressure) = 760 mm of Hg

T2 (Final temperature) = 273 K

V2 (Final volume) = ?

By Gas Law:

P1×V1T1=P2×V2T2T1P1×V1=T2P2×V2
Substituting the values :

748×1.2298=760×V2273V2=748×1.2×273298×760V2=1.081 �298748×1.2
=273760×V2V2=298×760748×1.2×273V2=1.081 l
∴ Volume of N2 at S.T.P. = 1.081 l and volume of O2 at S.T.P. is 1.25 l. Hence, volume of O2 at
S.T.P. is greater than N2 at S.T.P.

Question 28

50 cm3 of hydrogen is collected over water at 17°C and 750 mm Hg pressure. Calculate the
volume of dry gas at S.T.P. The water vapour pressure at 17°C is 14 mm Hg.

Answer

Initial conditions :

P1 = 750 - water vapour pressure = 750 - 14 = 736 mm Hg

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 50 cm3

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 17°C = 17 + 273 = 290 K

Final conditions :

P2 (Final pressure) = 760 mm of Hg

T2 (Final temperature) = 273 K

V2 (Final volume) = ?
By Gas Law:

P1×V1T1=P2×V2T2T1P1×V1=T2P2×V2
Substituting the values :

736×50290=760×V2273V2=736×50×273290×760V2=45.58 cm3290736×50
=273760×V2V2=290×760736×50×273V2=45.58 cm3
∴ Volume of dry gas = 45.6 cm3

Question 29

Calculate the volume of dry air at S.T.P. that occupies 28 cm3 at 14°C and 750 mm Hg pressure
when saturated with water vapour. The vapour pressure of water at 14°C is 12 mm Hg.

Answer

Initial conditions :

P1 = 750 - water vapour pressure = 750 - 12 = 738 mm Hg

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 28 cm3

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 14°C + 273 = 287 K

Final conditions [S.T.P.] :

P2 (Final pressure) = 760 mm of Hg

T2 (Final temperature) = 273 K

V2 (Final volume) = ?

By Gas Law:

P1×V1T1=P2×V2T2T1P1×V1=T2P2×V2
Substituting the values :

738×28287=760×V2273V2=738×28×273287×760V2=25.86 cm3287738×28
=273760×V2V2=287×760738×28×273V2=25.86 cm3
∴ Volume of dry gas = 25.9 cm3

Question 30
L.P.G. cylinder can withstand a pressure of 14.9 atmosphere. The pressure gauge of the cylinder
indicates 12 atmosphere at 27°C. Due to a sudden fire in the building the temperature rises. At
what temperature will the cylinder explode?

Answer

P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = 12 atm

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 27°C = 27 + 273 = 300 K

P2 = Final pressure of the gas = 14.9 atm

T2 = Final temperature of the gas = ?

V1 = V2 = V [constant volume]

By Gas Law:

P1×V1T1=P2×V2T2T1P1×V1=T2P2×V2
Substituting the values :

12×V300=14.9×VT2T2=14.9×30012T2=372.5K30012×V=T214.9×VT2
=1214.9×300T2=372.5K
∴ The temperature at which the cylinder will explode = 99.5°C.

Question 31

22.4 litres of a gas weighs 70 g at S.T.P. Calculate the weight of the gas if it occupies a volume
of 20 litres at 27°C and 700 mm Hg of pressure.

Answer

Initial conditions :

P1 = 700 mm Hg

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 20 litres

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 27°C + 273 = 300 K

Final conditions [S.T.P.] :

P2 (Final pressure) = 760 mm of Hg

T2 (Final temperature) = 273 K

V2 (Final volume) = ?

By Gas Law:

P1×V1T1=P2×V2T2T1P1×V1=T2P2×V2
Substituting the values :

700×20300=760×V2273V2=7×2×2733×76V2=16.76 �300700×20
=273760×V2V2=3×767×2×273V2=16.76 l
22.4 l of gas at S.T.P. weighs 70 g

∴ 16.76 l of gas at S.T.P. will weigh

= 70×16.7622.422.470×16.76 = 52.38 g

∴ Weight of gas = 52.38 g

Numericals based on Boyle's law

Question 1

Volume of certain amount of a gas at 25°C and 100 cm Hg pressure is 80 mL. The gas is
expanded to 160 mL keeping the temperature constant. Calculate the pressure of the expanded
gas.

Answer

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 80 mL

P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = 100 cm Hg
V2 = Final volume of the gas = 160 mL
P2 = Final pressure of the gas = ?

By Boyle's Law:

P1V1=P2V2P1V1=P2V2
Substituting the values :

100×80=P2×160P2=1002P2=50 cm of Hg 100×80=P2×160P2=2100P2=50 cm o
f Hg
∴ Final pressure of the gas = 50 cm of Hg.

Question 2
At a particular temperature, a certain quantity of gas occupies a volume of 74 cm 3 at a pressure
of 760 mm. If the pressure is decreased to 740 mm, what will be the volume of the gas at the
same temperature?

Answer

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 74 cm3

P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = 760 mm
P2 = Final pressure of the gas = 740 mm
V2 = Final volume of the gas = ?

By Boyle's Law:

P1V1=P2V2P1V1=P2V2
Substituting the values :

760×74=740×V2V2=74×760740V2=76 cm3760×74=740×V2V2=74074×760V2
=76 cm3
∴ Final volume of the gas = 76 cm3

Question 3

A student performed an experiment to measure pressure and volume of a gas at constant

temperature and noted the following:

Pressure Volume
(mm of Hg) (cm3)

100 80

125 x

200 40

y 32

Calculate the value of x and y. Which law was used in the calculations? Draw graphs to show:

(i) volume plotted against pressure.

(ii) PV plotted against pressure

Answer

(a) V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 80 cm3

P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = 100 mm of Hg
P2 = Final pressure of the gas = 125 mm of Hg
V2 = Final volume = ?

By Boyle's Law:

P1V1=P2V2P1V1=P2V2
Substituting the values :

100×80=125×V2V2=100×80125V2=64 cm3100×80=125×V2V2=125100×80V2
=64 cm3
∴ x = 64 cm3

(b) V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 40 cm3

P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = 200 mm of Hg
V2 = Final volume of the gas = 32 cm3
P2 = Final pressure of the gas = ?

By Boyle's Law:

P1V1=P2V2P1V1=P2V2
Substituting the values :

200×40=P2×32P2=200×4032P2=250 mm of Hg200×40=P2×32P2=32200×40P2
=250 mm of Hg
∴ y = 250 mm of Hg

(i) Graph of volume plotted against pressure :

Pressure Volume
(mm of Hg) (cm3)

100 80

125 64

200 40
 Pressure Volume
(mm of Hg) (cm3)

250 32

(ii) Graph of PV plotted against pressure :

 Pressure Volume
PV
(mm of Hg) (cm3)

100 80 8000

125 64 8000

200 40 8000

250 32 8000

Question 4

At a constant temperature, volume of a gas was found to be 400 cm3 at a pressure of 760 mm Hg.
If the pressure of the gas is increased by 25%, find the new volume.

Answer

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 400 cm3

P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = 760 mm
P2 = Final pressure of the gas

= increased by 25% of 760 mm Hg

= 2510010025 of 760 mm Hg
= (1441 x 760) + 760

= 190 + 760 = 950 mm

V2 = Final volume = ?

By Boyle's Law:

P1V1=P2V2P1V1=P2V2
Substituting the values :

760×400=950×V2V2=400×760950V2=320 cm3760×400=950×V2V2
=950400×760V2=320 cm3
∴ Final volume = 320 cm3

Question 5

A vessel of capacity 600 cm3 contains hydrogen gas at a pressure of 330 cm Hg. What will be the
pressure of hydrogen gas, when the vessel is connected to another vessel of 300 cm3 capacity ?

Answer

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 600 cm3

P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = 330 cm Hg
V2 = Final volume = 600 + 300 = 900 cm3
P2 = Final pressure of the gas = ?

By Boyle's Law:

P1V1=P2V2P1V1=P2V2
Substituting the values :

330×600=P2×900P2=600×330900P2=220 cm of Hg330×600=P2×900P2
=900600×330P2=220 cm of Hg
∴ Final pressure = 220 cm of Hg

Question 6

At constant temperature, a gas is at a pressure 1080 mm Hg. If the volume is decreased by 40%,
find the new pressure of the gas.

Answer
V1 = Initial volume of the gas = V

P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = 1080 mm of Hg

V2 = Final volume of the gas = decreased by 40%

= 60% of V1 = 6010010060V = 3553V

P2 = Final pressure of the gas = ?

By Boyle's Law:

P1V1=P2V2P1V1=P2V2
Substituting the values :

V×1080=P2×35VP2=5×10803P2=1800 mm of HgV×1080=P2×53VP2
=35×1080P2=1800 mm of Hg
∴ Final pressure = 1800 mm of Hg

Question 7

At constant temperature, the pressure of a gas is 940 mm of Hg. Calculate the pressure if the
volume of the gas in decreased by 20%.

Answer

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = V

P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = 940 mm of Hg

V2 = Final volume of the gas = decreased by 20%

= 80% of V1 = 8010010080V = 4554V

P2 = Final pressure of the gas = ?

By Boyle's Law:

P1V1=P2V2P1V1=P2V2
Substituting the values :

V×940=P2×45VP2=5×9404P2=1175 mm HgV×940=P2×54VP2=45×940P2
=1175 mm Hg
∴ Final pressure = 1175 mm Hg
Question 8

If the pressure of 800 cm3 of a gas is tripled what will be the change in the volume?

Answer

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 800 cm3

P1 = Initial pressure of the gas = P
P2 = Final pressure of the gas = 3P
V2 = Final volume of the gas = ?

By Boyle's Law:

P1V1=P2V2P1V1=P2V2
Substituting the values :

P×800=V2×3PV2=13×800P×800=V2×3PV2=31×800
∴ Final volume is one-third of initial volume.

Numericals based on Charles' law

Question 1

Convert the following:

(i) 37 K to °C

(ii) 273 K to °C

(iii) -27°C to K

(iv) 27°C to K

Answer

(i) °C = Kelvin - 273 = 37 - 273 = -236°C

(ii) °C = Kelvin - 273 = 273 - 273 = 0°C

(iii) Kelvin = °C + 273 = -27 + 273 = 246 K

(iv) Kelvin = °C + 273 = 27 + 273 = 300 K

Question 2
20 mL of hydrogen gas at -13°C is heated to 117°C at constant pressure. Find the new volume of
hydrogen.

Answer

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 20 mL

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = -13°C = -13 + 273 = 260 K
T2 = Final temperature of the gas = 117°C = 117 + 273 = 390 K
V2 = Final volume of the gas =?

By Charles' Law:

V1T1=V2T2T1V1=T2V2
Substituting the values :

20260=V2390V2=20×390260V2=30 mL26020=390V2V2=26020×390V2=30 m
L
∴ Final volume = 30 mL

Question 3

At what temperature in degree centigrade will the volume of a gas, which is originally at 0°C,
double itself, pressure remaining constant?

Answer

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = V

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 0°C = 273 K
V2 = Final volume of the gas = 2V
T2 = Final temperature of the gas = ?

By Charles' Law:

V1T1=V2T2T1V1=T2V2
Substituting the values :

V273=2VT2T2=2×273T2=546 K273V=T22VT2=2×273T2=546 K
∴ Final temperature in °C = 546 - 273 = 273°C

Question 4

Calculate the volume (in cm3) of air expelled from a vessel containing 0.4 litres of it at 250 K,
when it is heated to 27°C at the same pressure.
Answer

∴ 0.4 lit = 400 cm3

1 lit = 1000 cm3

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 400 cm3

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 250 K
T2 = Final temperature of the gas = 27°C = 27 + 273 = 300 K
V2 = Final volume of the gas = ?

By Charles' Law:

V1T1=V2T2T1V1=T2V2
Substituting the values :

400250=V2300V2=400×300250V2=480 cm3250400=300V2V2=250400×300
V2=480 cm3
Volume of air expelled = 480 - 400 = 80 cm3

Question 5

What will be the volume of a gas when 3 litres of it is cooled down from 27°C to -73°C at
constant pressure?

Answer

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 3 litres

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 27°C = 27 + 273 = 300 K
T2 = Final temperature of the gas = -73°C = -73 + 273 = 200 K
V2 = Final volume of the gas = ?

By Charles' Law:

V1T1=V2T2T1V1=T2V2
Substituting the values :

3300=V2200V2=3×23V2=2 lit3003=200V2V2=33×2V2=2 lit

∴ Final volume = 2 litres.

Question 6

To what temperature must a gas at 300 K be cooled down in order to reduce its volume to 1331
rd of its original volume, pressure remaining constant?
Answer

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = V

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 300 K

V2 = Final volume of the gas = 1331V

T2 = Final temperature of the gas = ?

By Charles' Law:

V1T1=V2T2T1V1=T2V2
Substituting the values :

V300=13VT2T2=3003T2=100 K300V=T231VT2=3300T2=100 K
∴ Final temperature = 100 K

Question 7

Prove that the volume of a gas at 273°C is twice its volume at 273 K, at constant pressure.

Answer

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = V

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 273 K

T2 = Final temperature of the gas = 273°C = 273 + 273 = 546 K

V2 = Final volume of the gas = ?

By Charles' Law:

V1T1=V2T2T1V1=T2V2
Substituting the values :

V273=V2546V2=V×546273V2=2V273V=546V2V2=273V×546V2=2V
∴ Volume of a gas at 273°C is twice its volume at 273 K

Question 8
A gas occupies 3 litres at 0°C. What volume will it occupy at -20°C pressure remaining
constant?

Answer

V1 = Initial volume of the gas = 3 litres

T1 = Initial temperature of the gas = 0°C = 273 K

T2 = Final temperature of the gas = -20°C = -20 + 273 = 253 K

V2 = Final volume of the gas = ?

By Charles' Law:

V1T1=V2T2T1V1=T2V2
Substituting the values :

3273=V2253V2=3×253273V2=2.78 litres2733=253V2V2=2733×253V2=2.78 lit

res
∴ Final volume = 2.78 litres.

Study of the First Element —

Hydrogen
Class 9 - Concise Chemistry Selina

Exercise 6(A)

Question 1
Justify the position of Hydrogen in the periodic table.

Answer

Hydrogen is the first element of the periodic table. Its atomic number is 1, and it has only one
electron in its valence shell. Therefore, it belongs to the first group and the first period of the
periodic table.

As hydrogen shows a dual nature, it resembles alkali metals of Group IA and the halogens of
Group VII A (17). Thomson suggested a separate position for hydrogen. He puts hydrogen at the
top of the periodic table, that does not disturb the symmetry of the periodic table.

Question 2

Why does hydrogen show dual nature?

Answer

Hydrogen resembles the alkali metals of Group IA and the halogens of Group VIIA. This is due
to the fact that it has only one electron in its valence shell, hence it behaves like the alkali metals
which have one valence electron. At the same, it also behaves like halogens as it has just one
electron less than the nearest inert gas.

Question 3

Compare hydrogen with alkali metals on the basis of :

(i) Ion formation

(ii) Reducing power

(iii) Reaction with oxygen

(iv) Oxide formation

Answer

(i) Hydrogen and Alkali metals both form a cation, by loss of an electron.

H ⟶ H+ + e-

Li ⟶ Li+ + e-

Na ⟶ Na+ + e-

All these elements have electropositive character.

(ii) Both Hydrogen atoms and alkali metals are reducing agents.
CuO + H2 ⟶ Cu + H2O

CuO + 2Na ⟶ Cu + Na2O

(iii) Both hydrogen and alkali metals react with oxygen to form respective oxides.

Hydrogen - forms H2O

Sodium - forms Na2O

(iv) Both alkali metals and Hydrogen burns in air to form oxides.

Hydrogen forms its oxide (water)

2H2 + O2 ⟶ 2H2O

Sodium also forms its peroxide

2Na + O2 ⟶ Na2O2

Question 4

In what respect does hydrogen differ from

(i) Alkali metals

(ii) Halogens

Answer

Properties of hydrogen different from Alkali metals & Halogens are:

1. Hydrogen has only one shell but alkali metals and halogens have two or more shells.
2. Oxides of hydrogen, H2O, is a neutral oxide. Oxides of halogens like Cl2O, Cl2O7, etc.,
are acidic in nature, while oxides of alkali metals like Na2O, K2O etc., are basic in nature.

Question 5

Give the general group study of hydrogen with reference to:

(i) valence electrons

(ii) burning

(iii) reducing power.

Answer
(i) Hydrogen has 1 valence electron in its orbit.

(ii) Hydrogen burns in Oxygen to form oxides (water).

Hydrogen burns with a pop sound.

2H2 + O2 ⟶ 2H2O

(iii) Hydrogen acts as a reducing agent.

CuO + H2 ⟶ Cu + H2O

Question 6

Why was hydrogen called 'inflammable air'?

Answer

Hydrogen is called inflammable air, because it is a highly combustible gas.

Question 7

State some sources of hydrogen.

Answer

In free state, hydrogen is found in traces in earth's crust and atmosphere. Volcanic gases contain
0.025% of it, the earth's crust 0.98%, the earth's atmosphere 0.01% and the atmospheres of the
Sun and the stars also contain hydrogen in large amounts.

In combined state :

1. Plants and animal tissues are made up of compounds of hydrogen with carbon, oxygen
and nitrogen.
2. Hydrogen is the characteristic constituent of acids, alkalis, hydrocarbons and proteins. In
addition to these, sugar, starch, petroleum products, proteins, carbohydrates and also fats
contain hydrogen.
3. In water, it is 11.1% by weight.

Question 8

Compare hydrogen and halogens on the basis of :

(i) Physical state

(ii) ion formation

(iii) valency

(iv) reaction with oxygen

Answer

(i) Like halogens (fluorine and chlorine), hydrogen too is a gas.

(ii) Both show a tendency to form anions since they are one electron short of the nearest inert gas
configuration.

H + e- ⟶ H-

Cl + e- ⟶ H-

(iii) Both have the valency 1.

(iv) Hydrogen reacts with oxygen to form neutral oxides (H2O); Halogen reacts with oxygen to
form acidic oxides (Cl2O, Cl2O7 etc.)

Question 9

Which metal is preferred for the preparation of hydrogen

(i) from water?

(ii) from acid?

Answer

(i) Reactive metals like sodium react with cold water forming their corresponding oxides and
evolving hydrogen.

2Na + 2H2O ⟶2NaOH + H2 ↑

Sodium amalgam (alloy of sodium and mercury) react smoothly with water. Therefore, hydrogen
can be safely prepared from this amalgam.

(ii) Zinc reacts with acids liberating hydrogen gas and forming their respective salts.

Zn + 2HCl ⟶ ZnCl2 + H2 ↑

Question 10

(i) Write the reaction of steam with red hot iron.

(ii) Why is this reaction considered a reversible reaction?

(iii) How can the reaction proceed continuously?

Answer

(i) 3Fe + 4H2O ⇌ Fe3O4 + 4H2 ↑

(ii) This reaction is reversible because if the hydrogen formed is not removed, then the iron oxide
(triferric tetraoxide) formed is reduced back to iron.

(iii) The hydrogen formed should be removed in order for the reaction to proceed continuously.

Question 11

Why are zinc and aluminium considered to have a unique nature. Give balanced equations to
support your answer.

Answer

Zinc and aluminium are considered to have a unique nature because:

(i) They can react with acids and can even react with hot conc. alkalis to form hydrogen and a
soluble salt.

Zn + 2NaOH ⟶ Na2ZnO2 + H2

2Al + 6NaOH ⟶ 2Na3AlO3 + 3H2

Zn + 2HCl ⟶ ZnCl2 + H2

2Al + 6HCl ⟶ 2AlCl3 + 3H2

(ii) Their oxides and hydroxides are amphoteric in nature i.e., they react with both bases and
acids to give salt and water.

ZnO + 2HCl ⟶ ZnCl2 + H2O

ZnO + 2NaOH ⟶ Na2ZnO2 + H2O

Al2O3 + 6HCl ⟶ 2AlCl3 + 3H2O

Al2O3 + 2NaOH ⟶ 2NaAlO2 + H2O

Question 12

Write balanced equations for the following

(i) Iron reacts with dil. HCl

(ii) Zinc reacts with caustic soda solution

(iii) Lead reacts with potassium hydroxide,

(iv) Aluminium reacts with fused sodium hydroxide

Answer

(i) Fe + 2HCl ⟶ FeCl2 + H2

(ii) Zn + 2NaOH ⟶ Na2ZnO2 + H2

(iii) Pb + 2KOH ⟶ K2PbO2 + H2

(iv) 2Al + 6NaOH ⟶ 2Na3AlO3 + 3H2

Question 13

Write balanced equations and give your observations when the following metals react:

(i) Sodium with cold water

(ii) Calcium with cold water

(iii) Magnesium with boiling water

(iv) Magnesium with steam.

Answer

(i) When Sodium reacts with cold water, it melts, forming a silvery globule, which darts about on
the surface of water. It catches fire and burns with a golden yellow flame. Bubbles of hydrogen
gas are liberated. The solution formed is colourless, soapy, slightly warm and alkaline.

2Na + 2H2O ⟶2NaOH + H2 ↑

(ii) Calcium sinks in water and the reaction is less vigorous than Sodium. Bubbles of hydrogen
gas are liberated and the solution turns milky, turbid and alkaline. If red litmus is introduced in
solution, it turns blue.

Ca + 2H2O ⟶ Ca(OH)2 + H2 ↑

(iii) Magnesium reacts slowly with boiling water and forms a base, magnesium hydroxide,
liberating hydrogen gas.

Mg + 2H2O ⟶ Mg(OH)2 + H2 ↑
(iv) Magnesium burns in steam with an intense white light, liberating hydrogen gas and white
ash which is magnesium oxide.

Mg + H2O ⟶ MgO + H2 ↑

Magnesium oxide crumbles down due to heating. Further exposing magnesium to steam results
in the liberation of hydrogen gas.

Question 14

(i) Under what conditions iron reacts with water?

(ii) Give the balanced equation of the reaction.

(iii) What is noticed if the products are not allowed to escape?

Answer

(i) Red hot iron reacts with steam, forming triferric tetra-oxide and hydrogen gas.

(ii) 3Fe + 4H2O ⇌ Fe3O4 + 4H2 ↑

(iii) If the hydrogen formed is not removed the iron oxide formed is reduced back to iron, as the
reaction is reversible.
In the beginning, the forward reaction is fast and the backward reaction is slow. As the products
are formed and the reactants get consumed the backward reaction becomes faster. There comes a
time when the forward and the backward reactions acquire the same speed. An equilibrium stage
is reached at 700°C and the amounts of the reactants and the products do not change.

Question 15

From the knowledge of activity series, name a metal which shows the following properties:

(i) It reacts readily with cold water

(ii) It displaces hydrogen from hot water

(iii) It displaces hydrogen from dilute HCl

(iv) It forms a base which is insoluble in water.

Answer

(i) Sodium

(ii) Magnesium

(iii) Zinc
(iv) Calcium

Question 16

Complete the following word equations:

(a) Sodium hydroxide + zinc ⟶ hydrogen + ...............

(b) Calcium + water ⟶ calcium hydroxide + ...............

Answer

(a) Sodium hydroxide + zinc ⟶ hydrogen + sodium zincate

(b) Calcium + water ⟶ calcium hydroxide + hydrogen

Exercise 6(B)

Question 1

Hydrogen can be prepared with the metal zinc by using

(i) acid

(ii) alkali

(iii) water

Give an equation in each case.

Answer

(i) Zn + 2HCl ⟶ ZnCl2 (dil.) + H2 ↑

(ii) Zn + 2NaOH ⟶ Na2ZnO2 + H2 ↑

(iii) Zn + H2O ⟶ ZnO + H2 ↑

Question 2

For laboratory preparation of hydrogen, give the following

(a) materials used

(b) method of collection

(c) chemical equation

(d) fully labelled diagram.

Answer

(a) Granulated zinc, dilute hydrochloric acid or dil. sulphuric acid.

(b) It is collected by the downward displacement of water.

(c) Zn + 2HCl ⟶ ZnCl2 + H2 ↑

(d) Labelled diagram of laboratory preparation of hydrogen:

Question 3

(a) Name the impurities present in hydrogen prepared in the laboratory.

(b) How can these impurities be removed?

Answer

(a) Impurities present are:

1. Hydrogen sulphide (H2S)

2. Sulphur dioxide (SO2)
3. Oxides of nitrogen
 4. Phosphine (PH3)
5. Arsine (AsH3)
6. Carbon dioxide and
7. Water vapour

(b) The impurities can be removed from hydrogen by passing it through:

AsH3 + 6AgNO3 ⟶ Ag3As + 3AgNO3 + 3HNO3

1. Silver nitrate solution [to remove arsine and phosphine].

PH3 + 6AgNO3 ⟶ Ag3P + 3AgNO3 + 3HNO3

Pb(NO3)2 + H2S ⟶ PbS + 2HNO3

2. Lead nitrate solution [to remove hydrogen sulphide].

3. Caustic potash solution [to remove sulphur dioxide, carbon dioxide and oxides of

SO2 + 2KOH ⟶ K2SO3 + H2O

nitrogen].

CO2 + 2KOH ⟶ K2CO3 + H2O

2NO2 + 2KOH ⟶ KNO2 + KNO3 + H2O
4. A drying agent used to dry the gas. Common drying agents such as fused calcium
chloride, caustic potash stick and phosphorus pentoxide remove water vapour.

Thus, the gas is purified and dried and then collected over mercury because mercury has no
reaction with it.

Question 4

Which test should be made before collecting hydrogen in a gas jar?

Answer

The gas should be collected only after all the air in the apparatus has escaped. This can be
ascertained by collecting some amount of gas in a test tube and taking it to a flame. If the gas
burns quietly, then there is no more air in the flask.

Question 5

Why is nitric acid not used in the preparation of hydrogen?

Answer

As nitric acid is a powerful oxidizing agent, and the oxygen formed due to its decomposition
oxidizes the hydrogen to give water thus defeating the purpose of the reaction. Hence, Nitric acid
is not used in the preparation of hydrogen.

3Zn + 8HNO3 ⟶ 3Zn(NO3)2 + 4H2O + 2NO ↑

Question 6

Why is hot concentrated sulphuric acid not used in the preparation of hydrogen?

Answer

Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is not used in the preparation of hydrogen as it is a strong
oxidizer and will produce sulphur dioxide.

Zn + 2H2SO4 ⟶ ZnSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O

Question 7

Hydrogen is manufactured by 'Bosch Process'.

(a) Give the equations with conditions.

(b) How can you obtain hydrogen from a mixture of Hydrogen and carbon monoxide?

Answer

(a) Steam is passed over hot coke (1000°C) in furnaces of a special design, called converters,
giving water gas.

�hot coke+�2�steam→1000°C[CO+�2]water gas−Δhot cokeC+steamH2O1000°C

water gas[CO+H2]−Δ

The reaction is endothermic.

(b) Water gas i.e., hydrogen and carbon monoxide is mixed with excess steam and passed over
heated ferric oxide, which acts as a catalyst and chromic oxide Cr2O3 which acts as a promoter.

[CO+�2]water gas+�2�steam→450°CFe2O3CO2+2H2+Δwater gas[CO+H2]

+steamH2OFe2O3450°CCO2+2H2+Δ

Question 8

Give equations to express the reaction between:

(a) steam and red hot iron

(b) calcium and water

Answer

(a) 3Fe + 4H2O ⇌ Fe3O4 + 4H2 ↑

(b) Ca + 2H2O ⟶ Ca(OH)2 + H2 ↑

Question 9

A small piece of calcium metal is put into a small trough containing water. There is
effervescence and white turbidity is formed.

(a) Name the gas formed in the reaction. How would you test the gas?

(b) Write an equation for the reaction.

(c) What do you observe when a few drops of red litmus solution are added to the turbid
solution?

Answer

(a) Hydrogen gas.

It burns silently in air or oxygen with a pale blue flame, forming water.

2H2 + O2 ⟶ 2H2O

When it is premixed with air or oxygen, it explodes with a pop sound.

(b) Ca + 2H2O ⟶ Ca(OH)2 + H2 ↑

(c) The solution turns blue.

Question 10

Thin strips of magnesium, copper and iron are taken.

(a) Write down what happens when these metals are treated as follows

(i) Heated in presence of air

(ii) Heated with dil. HCl

(iii) Added to an aqueous solution of zinc sulphate

(b) Arrange these metals in descending order of reactivity.

Answer

(a) (i) When we heat magnesium, copper and iron in presence of air they form respective oxides.

(ii) Magnesium and iron react with HCl liberating hydrogen and forming their respective salts.
Mg + 2HCl ⟶ MgCl2 + H2 ↑

Fe + 2HCl ⟶ FeCl2 + H2 ↑

As Cu is below hydrogen in metal reactivity series, hence, it cannot displace hydrogen from acid
and so no reaction takes place.

Cu + HCl (dil) ⟶ no reaction

(iii) Magnesium will displace zinc from zinc sulphate solution as magnesium is more reactive
than zinc and is placed above zinc in the reactivity series of metals.

Mg + ZnSO4 ⟶ MgSO4 + Zn

Copper and iron are less reactive and are placed below zinc in the reactivity series, hence will not
displace it and no reaction will take place.

(b) Mg > Fe > Cu

Question 11(a)

Hydrogen is evolved by the action of cold dil. HNO3 on

1. Fe
2. Cu
3. Mg
4. Zn

Answer

Mg

Reason — Magnesium (Mg) and manganese (Mn) are the only metals that react with very dil.
nitric acid to liberate hydrogen. The oxidizing action of the acid is much reduced due to its over
dilution.

Mg + 2HNO3 ⟶ Mg(NO3)2 + H2 ↑

Question 11(b)

Which metal produces hydrogen gas on reaction with cold water?

1. Al
2. Fe
3. Pd
4. Na
Answer

Na

Reason — Reactive metals like potassium, sodium and calcium react with cold water forming
their corresponding oxides and evolving hydrogen.

2Na + 2H2O ⟶ 2NaOH + H2 ↑

Question 11(c)

The composition of the nucleus of deuterium is:

1. 1e– and 1P
2. 1P and 1n
3. 1n and 1e
4. 2P and 1e–

Answer

1 n and 1 e

Reason — Hydrogen has three isotopes i.e., namely protium (11H), deuterium (21H) and tritium
(31H). Deuterium (21H) has 1 n and 1 e.

Question 11(d)

Elements which show unique nature in the preparation of hydrogen are

1. Na, K, Li
2. Mg, Ca, Ba
3. Al, Zn, Pb
4. Fe, Cu, Ag

Answer

Al, Zn, Pb

Reason — Metals like zinc, aluminium and lead are considered to have a unique nature in the
preparation of hydrogen. They react with acids and can even react with hot concentrated alkalis
to form hydrogen and a soluble salt.

Question 12

Give the reason for the following

(a) Zinc granules are used in the lab preparation of hydrogen.

(b) Purified and dried hydrogen is collected over mercury.

(c) The end of the thistle funnel should be dipped under acid.

(d) Dilute sulphuric acid cannot be replaced by concentrated acid in the preparation of hydrogen.

Answer

(a) Granulated zinc contains traces of impurities like copper, which has a slight catalyzing effect
on the reaction and speeds it up. Hence, granulated zinc is preferred in the lab preparation of
hydrogen over pure zinc.

(b) Hydrogen gas is purified and dried and then collected over mercury because mercury has no
reaction with it.

(c) The end of the thistle funnel should be dipped under acid so as to prevent gas from escaping
the thistle funnel.

(d) Dilute Sulphuric acid cannot be replaced by concentrated acid in the preparation of hydrogen
as it is a strong oxidiser and it will produce sulphur dioxide.

Zn + 2H2SO4 ⟶ ZnSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O

Exercise 6(C)

Question 1

(a) Where does Hydrogen occur in free state?

(b) How did the name 'hydrogen' originate?

Answer

(a) In free state, hydrogen is found in traces in earth's crust and atmosphere. Volcanic gases
contain 0.025% of it, the earth's crust 0.98%, the earth's atmosphere 0.01% and the atmospheres
of the Sun and the stars also contain hydrogen in large amounts.

(b) It is on account of its ability to form water that Lavoisier, in 1783, named it hydrogen
(Greek word meaning water former).

Question 2

Hydrogen can be prepared with the help of cold water. Give a reaction of hydrogen with:

(a) a monovalent metal

(b) divalent metal

Answer

(a) 2K + H2 →ΔΔ 2KH

(b) Ca + H2 →ΔΔ CaH2

Question 3

Which metal is preferred for preparing hydrogen from:

(a) cold water?

(b) hot water?

(c) steam?

Write balanced equation for each case.

Answer

(a) Calcium is preferred for preparing hydrogen from cold water as the reaction is less vigorous

Ca + 2H2O ⟶ Ca(OH)2 + H2 ↑
than Sodium.

(b) Magnesium reacts with boiling water and forms a base, magnesium hydroxide, liberating

Mg + 2H2O ⟶ Mg(OH)2 + H2 ↑
hydrogen gas.

(c) Zinc is preferred for preparing hydrogen from steam. When steam is passed over heated zinc,

Zn + H2O ⟶ ZnO + H2 ↑
hydrogen is liberated and zinc is converted to zinc oxide.

Question 4

Hydrogen may be prepared in the laboratory by the action of a metal with an acid.

(a) Which of the metals copper, zinc, magnesium or sodium would be the most suitable?

(b) Which of the acids dilute sulphuric, concentrated sulphuric, dilute nitric and concentrated
nitric would you choose? Explain why you would not use the acids you rejected.

(c) How would you modify your apparatus to collect dry hydrogen? Which drying agent would
you employ for this purpose?

Answer
(a) Zinc, because sodium reacts violently with acid, magnesium is expensive and copper does not
displace hydrogen when reacted with acids as it lies below hydrogen in the metal activity series.

(b) Dilute sulphuric acid is preferred to prepare hydrogen in the laboratory because:

1. Nitric acid, even in its dilute form, is not used in the preparation of hydrogen from metals
because it is a powerful oxidizing agent, and the oxygen formed due to its decomposition

3Zn + 8HNO3 ⟶ 3Zn(NO3)2 + 4H2O + 2NO↑

oxidizes the hydrogen to give water, thus defeating the purpose of the reaction.

2. The reason for not using concentrated sulphuric acid is that it is a strong oxidiser and will

Zn + 2H2SO4 ⟶ ZnSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O

produce sulphur dioxide.

(c) The purified and dry hydrogen gas is collected over mercury because mercury has no reaction
with it.
Common drying agents like fused calcium chloride, caustic potash stick and phosphorous
pentoxide can be used to dry hydrogen gas.

Question 5

Why are the following metals not used in the lab. preparation of hydrogen?

(a) calcium

(b) iron

(c) aluminium

(d) sodium

Answer

The following metals are not used in the lab. preparation of hydrogen because:

(a) Calcium is expensive.

(b) Iron has to be heated, but then the hydrogen thus produced contains impurities like hydrogen
sulphide and sulphur dioxide.

(c) Aluminium forms a protective coating of Al2O3 due to its great affinity for oxygen. Due to the
coating of Al2O3, aluminium does not give hydrogen with acid.

(d) Sodium reacts violently with acid.

Question 6
Based on the reactions of water on metals, arrange the following metals in increasing order of
reactivity: Iron, sodium, magnesium, zinc, calcium.

Answer

Iron < Zinc < Magnesium < Calcium < Sodium

Question 7

Hydrogen is evolved when dilute HCl reacts with magnesium, but nothing happens in the case of
mercury and silver. Explain.

Answer

As magnesium is more reactive than hydrogen and is placed above it in the metal reactivity
series, hence hydrogen is displaced by magnesium but mercury and silver are less reactive than
hydrogen and are placed below it in the series, hence they can't displace hydrogen.

Question 8

Steam can react with a metal and a non-metal to liberate hydrogen. Give the necessary conditions
and equations for the same.

Answer

The conditions necessary for the reaction of steam with a metal and a non-metal to liberate
hydrogen are:

1. Presence of steam — Steam (water vapor) is required for this reaction to occur.
2. Heat — The reaction is typically carried out at high temperatures to facilitate the reaction
between the metal or non-metal and steam.

Reaction of Zinc (metal) with steam to liberate hydrogen:

Znheated+�2�steam⟶ZnO+H2↑heatedZn+steamH2O⟶ZnO+H2↑
Reaction of Carbon (non-metal) with steam to liberate hydrogen:

⟶Water gasCO+H2
�Red Hot Coke+�2�steam⟶CO+H2⏟Water gasRed Hot CokeC+steamH2O

Question 9

Hydrogen is obtained by displacement from

(a) dilute sulphuric acid

(b) dilute hydrochloric acid

Write equations using zinc and iron.

Why does not copper show similar behaviour?

Answer

(a) dilute sulphuric acid

Zn + H2SO4 (dil.) ⟶ ZnSO4 + H2 ↑

Fe + H2SO4 (dil.) ⟶ FeSO4 + H2 ↑

(b) dilute hydrochloric acid

Zn + 2HCl (dil.) ⟶ ZnCl2 + H2 ↑

Fe + 2HCl (dil.) ⟶ FeCl2 + H2 ↑

Zinc and iron are above hydrogen in activity series of metals whereas copper is below hydrogen
in the series. As metals below hydrogen cannot displace it from dilute acids hence, copper does
not show similar behaviour as zinc and iron.

Question 10

Give a reason for the following

(a) Though lead is above hydrogen in the activity series, it is not used to prepare hydrogen.

(b) Potassium and sodium are not used for reaction with dilute hydrochloric acid or dilute
sulphuric acid in the laboratory preparation of hydrogen.

Answer

(a) Lead reacts with dilute sulphuric acid or hydrochloric acid and forms an insoluble coating of
lead sulphate or lead chloride. Therefore, further reaction is prevented. Hence, it is not used to
prepare hydrogen.

(b) Potassium and sodium react violently with acid, hence they are not used for reaction with
dilute hydrochloric acid or dilute sulphuric acid in the laboratory preparation of hydrogen.

Question 11

Name two alkalies that can displace hydrogen. Give balanced equations for the same. Why are
the metals you have used considered to have unique nature?

Answer
NaOH and KOH

Zn + 2NaOH ⟶ Na2ZnO2 + H2 ↑

Zn + 2KOH ⟶ K2ZnO2 + H2 ↑

Zinc and aluminium are considered to have a unique nature because:

(i) They can react with acids and can even react with hot conc. alkalis to form hydrogen and a
soluble salt.

Zn + 2HCl ⟶ ZnCl2 + H2

(ii) Their oxides and hydroxides are amphoteric in nature i.e., they react with both bases and
acids to give salt and water.

ZnO + 2HCl ⟶ ZnCl2 + H2O

ZnO + 2NaOH ⟶ Na2ZnO2 + H2O

Question 12

Complete and balance the following equations.

(a) Na + H2O ⟶ ............... + ...............

(b) Ca + H2O ⟶ ............... + ...............

(c) Mg + H2O ⟶ ............... + ...............

(d) Zn + H2O ⟶ ............... + ...............

(e) Fe + H2O ⟶ ............... + ...............

(f) Zn + HCl ⟶ ............... + ...............

(g) Al + H2SO4 ⟶ ............... + ...............

(h) Fe + HCl ⟶ ............... + ...............

(i) Zn + NaOH ⟶ ............... + ...............

(j) Al + KOH + H2O ⟶ ............... + ...............

Answer

(a) 2Na + 2H2O ⟶ 2NaOH + H2

(b) Ca + 2H2O ⟶ Ca(OH)2 + H2

(c) Mg + 2H2O ⟶ Mg(OH)2 + H2

(d) Zn + H2O ⟶ ZnO + H2

(e) 3Fe + 4H2O ⇌ Fe3O4 + 4H2

(f) Zn + 2HCl ⟶ ZnCl2 + H2

(g) 2Al + 3H2SO4 ⟶ Al2(SO4)3 + 3H2

(h) Fe + 2HCl ⟶ FeCl2 + H2

(i) Zn + 2NaOH ⟶ Na2ZnO2 + H2

(j) 2Al + 2KOH + 2H2O ⟶ 2KAlO2 + 3H2

Question 13

If the following are kept in closed vessels at over 400°C what would happen to them ?

(a) iron filings and steam,

(b) hydrogen and magnetic oxide of iron ?

Answer

(a) Iron oxide is formed with liberation of hydrogen gas.

3Fe + 4H2O ⇌ Fe3O4 + 4H2 ↑

(b) Hydrogen when passed over heated magnetic oxide of iron, it reduces the oxide to free metal.

Fe2O3 + 3H2 ⟶ 2Fe + 3H2O

Question 14

(a) A metal in the powdered form reacts very slowly with the boiling water, but it decomposes
with steam. Name the metal.

(b) Write a balanced equation for the reaction of the named metal with (i) boiling water (ii)
steam.

Answer

(a) Magnesium
(b) The reaction of Magnesium with:

Mg + 2H2O ⟶ Mg(OH)2 + H2 ↑
1. boiling water

Mg + H2O [steam] ⟶ MgO + H2 ↑

2. steam

Question 15

What do you observe when hydrogen gas is passed through soap solution?

Answer

On passing hydrogen gas through the soap solution, soap bubbles filled with hydrogen start
coming out of the solution and rise up in the air. This behaviour proves that hydrogen is lighter
than air.

Question 16

Under what conditions can hydrogen be made to combine with

(a) nitrogen

(b) chlorine

(c) sulphur

(d) oxygen

Name the products in each case and write the equation for each reaction.

Answer

(a) Three volumes of hydrogen and one volume of nitrogen react at temperature 450-500°C,
pressure 200-900 atm in the presence of a catalyst, finely divided iron, with molybdenum as a
promoter to give ammonia.

N2+3H2⇌450-500 °CFe2NH3+ΔN2+3H2Fe450-500 °C2NH3+Δ

(b) Equal volumes of hydrogen and chlorine react slowly in diffused sunlight but explosively in
direct sunlight, to form hydrogen chloride.

H2+Cl2→sunlight2HClH2+Cl2sunlight2HCl
(c) Hydrogen gas on passing through molten sulphur reacts to give hydrogen sulphide.

H2+�molten sulphur⟶H2SH2+molten sulphurS⟶H2S

(d) Hydrogen burns (in presence of electric spark) with a 'pop' sound in oxygen and with a blue
flame forming water.

2H2+O2→electric spark2H2O2H2+O2electric spark2H2O

Question 17

When hydrogen is passed over a black solid compound A, the products are 'a colourless liquid'
and 'a reddish-brown metal B.'

Substance B is divided into two parts, each placed in separate test tubes.

Dilute HCl is added to one part of substance B and dilute HNO3 to the other.

(a) Name the substances A and B.

(b) Give two tests for the colourless liquid formed in the experiment.

(c) What happens to substance A when it reacts with hydrogen ? Give reasons for your answer.

(d) Write an equation for the reaction between hydrogen and substance A.

(e) Is there any reaction between substance B and dilute hydrochloric acid ? Give reasons for
your answer.

Answer

(a) A = copper oxide [CuO],

B = copper [Cu]

(b) The liquid does not change the colour of blue or red litmus paper, showing neutral nature.

It changes the colour of cobalt chloride paper from blue to pink colour. Hence, the liquid
produced is water.

(c) Black copper oxide (A) is reduced to copper, by losing oxygen. This happens because,
hydrogen, the reducing agent reduces copper oxide to copper.

(d) CuO + H2 →ΔΔ Cu + H2O

(e) As copper is less reactive than hydrogen and lies below it in the metal reactivity series, hence
it cannot displace it from HCl. Hence, there is no reaction between them.

Cu + HCl ⟶ No reaction

Exercise 6(D) — Multiple Choice Type

Question 1

Helium is preferred to hydrogen for filling balloons because it is

1. lighter than air

2. almost as light as hydrogen
3. non-combustible
4. inflammable

Answer

non-combustible

Reason — Hydrogen is also lighter than air but it is a combustible gas. It forms an explosive
mixture with air (due to the oxygen present in it) and to avoid this risk helium gas is preferred.

Question 2

Upon reacting with water, an active metal produces

1. oxygen
2. nitric acid
3. a base
4. none of these.

Answer

a base

Reason — Active metals like potassium, sodium and calcium react with cold water forming their
corresponding hydroxides (i.e., bases) and evolving hydrogen.

Question 3

A metal oxide that is reduced by hydrogen is:

1. Al2O3
2. CuO
3. CaO
4. Na2O

Answer

CuO

Reason — Copper oxide loses oxygen, thus reduction of CuO to Cu take place.
CuO + H2 ⟶ Cu + H2O

Question 4

Which of the following statements about hydrogen is incorrect ?

1. It is an inflammable gas
2. It is the lightest gas.
3. It is not easily liquefied.
4. It is a strong oxidizing agent.

Answer

It is a strong oxidizing agent.

Reason — Hydrogen is not a strong oxidizing agent. It is a reducing agent. It reduces the oxides
of the less active metals i.e., it removes oxygen from strongly heated metal oxides when passed
over them and itself gets oxidized to water.

Question 5

For the reaction PbO + H2 ⟶ Pb + H2O, which of the following statements is wrong?

1. H2 is the reducing agent.

2. PbO is the oxidizing agent.
3. PbO is oxidized to Pb
4. H2 is oxidized to H2O.

Answer

PbO is oxidized to Pb

Reason — PbO is reduced to Pb, as oxygen has been removed from it.

Question 6

Which metal gives hydrogen with all of the following: water, acids, alkalis?

1. Fe
2. Zn
3. Mg
4. Pb

Answer
Zn

Reason — Zn has a unique nature.

Zinc is considered to have a unique nature because it can react with acids and can even react with
hot conc. alkalis to form hydrogen and a soluble salt.

Zn + 2HCl ⟶ ZnCl2 + H2

Zn + 2NaOH ⟶ Na2ZnO2 + H2 ↑

Zn with water also gives hydrogen

Zn + H2O ⟶ ZnO + H2

Question 7

Which of the following metals does not give hydrogen with acids?

1. Iron
2. Copper
3. Magnesium
4. Zinc

Answer

Copper

Reason — Hydrogen cannot be prepared from metals that are below in the metal reactivity
series such as copper, since only metals that are more reactive than hydrogen can displace it
from acids.

Exercise 6(D) — Very Short Type

Question 1

Choose terms from the options given in brackets to complete these sentences.

(a) When CuO reacts with hydrogen, ............... is reduced to ............... and ............... is oxidized
to ............... . (CuO, H2, Cu, H2O)

(b) Hydrogen is ............... soluble in water. (sparingly, highly, moderately)

(c) Metals like ..............., ............... and ............... give H2 with steam. (iron, magnesium,
aluminium, sodium, calcium)
(d) Sodium ............... reacts smoothly with cold water. (metal, amalgam, in the molten state)

(e) A metal ............... hydrogen in the activity series gives hydrogen with ............... acid
or ............... acid. (above, below, dilute hydrochloric, concentrated hydrochloric, dilute
sulphuric).

Answer

(a) When CuO reacts with hydrogen, CuO is reduced to Cu and H2 is oxidized to H2O

(b) Hydrogen is sparingly soluble in water.

(c) Metals like magnesium, iron and aluminium give H2 with steam.

(d) Sodium amalgam reacts smoothly with cold water.

(e) A metal above hydrogen in the activity series gives hydrogen with dilute hydrochloric acid
or dilute sulphuric acid acid.

Question 2

Name

(a) an oxidizing agent that does not contain oxygen.

(b) a substance that oxidizes concentrated HCl to chlorine.

(c) a substance that will reduce aqueous Iron (III) ions to Iron (II) ions.

(d) a liquid that is an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent.

(e) a gas that is an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent.

(f) a solid that is an oxidizing agent.

Answer

a) Chlorine [Cl2]

b) Manganese dioxide [MnO2]

c) Hydrogen sulphide [H2S]

(d) Hydrogen peroxide [H2O2]

(e) Hydrogen [H2]

(f) Potassium permanganate [KMnO4]

Question 3

Correct the following statements:

(a) Hydrogen is separated from CO by passing the mixture through caustic potash solution.

(b) All metals react with acids to give hydrogen.

(c) Hydrogen is dried by passing it through conc. H2SO4.

(d) Very dilute nitric acid reacts with iron to produce hydrogen.

(e) Conc. H2SO4 reacts with zinc to liberate hydrogen.

Answer

(a) Hydrogen is separated from CO2 by passing the mixture through caustic potash solution.

(b) All the metals above hydrogen in the metal activity series react with acids to give hydrogen.

(c) Hydrogen is dried by passing it through fused calcium chloride.

(d) Very dilute nitric acid reacts with magnesium [Mg] and manganese [Mn] to produce
hydrogen.

(e) Dilute H2SO4 reacts with zinc to liberate hydrogen.

Exercise 6(D) — Short Answer Type

Question 1

Divide the following redox reactions into oxidation and reduction half reactions.

(i) Zn + Pb2+ ⟶ Zn2+ + Pb

(ii) Zn + Cu2+ ⟶ Zn2+ + Cu

(iii) Cl2 + 2Br- ⟶ Br2 + 2Cl-

Answer

(i) Zn + Pb2+ ⟶ Zn2+ + Pb

Oxidation : Zn ⟶ Zn2+ + 2e-

Reduction : Pb2+ + 2e- ⟶ Pb

(ii) Zn + Cu2+ ⟶ Zn2+ + Cu

Oxidation : Zn ⟶ Zn2+ + 2e-

Reduction : Cu2+ + 2e- ⟶ Cu

(iii) Cl2 + 2Br- ⟶ Br2 + 2Cl-

Oxidation : Cl2 ⟶ 2Cl- + 2e-

Reduction : 2Br- + 2e- ⟶ Br2

Question 2

(a) Write the equation in the ionic form

CuSO4 (aq) + Fe (s) ⟶ FeSO4 (aq) + Cu (s)

(b) Divide the above equation into oxidation and reduction half reactions.

Answer

(a) The equation in the ionic form:

Cu2+ SO42- + Fe ⟶ Fe2+ SO42- + Cu

(b) Oxidation : Fe ⟶ Fe2+ + 2e-

Reduction : Cu2+ + 2e- ⟶ Cu

Question 3

Select the odd one out and justify your answer.

(a) Zn, Fe, Mg and Na

(b) SO2, H2S, NH3 and CO2

(c) Fe, Zn, Cu and Mg

(d) Fe, Pb, Al and Zn

Answer

(a) Na, as it reacts with cold water to produce hydrogen gas while others react with hot
water/steam to produce hydrogen gas.

(b) NH3, as it is basic in nature but rest are acidic.

(c) Cu, as it is below hydrogen in the metal activity series, hence it cannot displace hydrogen
from dilute acids whereas others are above hydrogen and can displace it from dilute acids.

(d) Fe as rest of the elements Pb, Al and Zn have unique nature. They can react with acids as
well as hot concentrated alkalis to form hydrogen and a soluble salt.

Question 4

Give reasons

(a) Hydrogen is collected by the downward displacement of water and not of air, even though it
is lighter than air.

(b) A candle brought near the mouth of a jar containing hydrogen gas starts burning but is
extinguished when pushed inside the jar.

(c) Apparatus for laboratory preparation of hydrogen should be air tight and away from a naked
flame.

Answer

(a) Hydrogen is collected by the downward displacement of water as it forms an explosive

mixture with air and therefore, cannot be collected by downward displacement of air even
though it is lighter than air.

(b) Hydrogen is a combustible gas but it does not support the combustion process, hence, when a
candle is brought near the mouth of a jar containing hydrogen gas, it starts burning but is
extinguished when pushed inside the jar.

(c) Apparatus for laboratory preparation of hydrogen should be air tight becasue hydrogen forms
an explosive mixture with air. Hydrogen is a highly flammable gas, if a naked flame is present
near the apparatus, it can lead to an ignition of the hydrogen, resulting in an explosion.

Question 5

Write half-reactions for the following reaction :

A+ + B ⟶ A + B+ and name the following:

(a) oxidizing agent

(b) substance oxidized

(c) reducing agent.

Answer

Half reaction:
A+ + e- ⟶ A (Reduction)

B ⟶ B + e- (Oxidation)

a. A, as it is oxidizing B by accepting electrons.

b. B, as it is losing electrons.

c. B, a it is reducing A by providing electrons.

Question 6

State whether the following conversions are oxidation or reduction reactions.

(a) PbO2 + SO2 ⟶ PbSO4

(b) Cu2+ + 2e- ⟶ Cu

(c) K ⟶ K+ + e-

(d) 2Cl- - 2e- ⟶ Cl2

Answer

(a) Oxidation, gain of oxygen

(b) Reduction, gain of electron

(c) Oxidation; loss of electron

(d) Oxidation, loss of electron

Question 7

State, giving reasons, whether the substances printed in bold letters have been oxidised or
reduced.

(a) PbO + CO ⟶ Pb + CO2

(b) Mg + 2HCl ⟶ MgCl2 + H2

(c) H2S + Cl2 ⟶ 2HCl + S

(d) Cl2 + H2S ⟶ 2HCl + S

Answer

(a) PbO is reduced, due to removal of oxygen.

(b) Mg is oxidised, due to loss of electrons.

(c) H2S is oxidised, as hydrogen is lost to give sulphur.

(d) Chlorine is reduced, due to addition of hydrogen to form HCl.

Exercise 6(D) — Descriptive Type

Question 1

Is it essential that oxidation and reduction must occur side by side in a chemical reaction?
Explain.

Answer

In a chemical reaction, if one substance is oxidized, the other substance must necessarily be
reduced. This is because the electrons lost during oxidation are simultaneously gained during
reduction and vice versa.

For example, Zinc reacts with copper sulphate to form zinc sulphate and copper.

CuSO4 + Zn ⟶ ZnSO4 + Cu

Cu2+ SO42- + Zn ⟶ Zn2+ SO42- + Cu

Writing half-reaction,

Zn ⟶ Zn2+ + 2e- (Oxidation)

Cu2+ + 2e- ⟶ Cu (Reduction)

They occur simultaneously as

Cu2+ + Zn ⟶ Zn2+ + Cu

Thus, oxidation and reduction always occur simultaneously in a chemical reaction.

Question 2

Describe briefly the ionic concept of oxidation and reduction. Give an equation to illustrate.

Answer

Oxidation is a process in which an atom or ion loses an electron(s).

Example: Zn ⟶ Zn2+ + 2e-

Reduction is a process in which an atom or ion gains electron(s).

Example: Cu2+ + 2e- ⟶ Cu (Reduction)

Question 3

State the similarity of hydrogen with group 1 elements and group 17 elements.

Answer

Similarity of hydrogen with group 1 elements:

1. Electronic configuration — Both hydrogen and alkali metals have only one electron in
their outermost orbits.

H ⟶ H+ + e-
2. Ion formation — Both form a cation by loss of an electron.

Na ⟶ Na+ + e-
3. Valency — Both have the valency 1.

CuO + H2 ⟶ Cu + H2O
4. Reducing power — Both act as reducing agents.

CuO + 2Na ⟶ Cu + Na2O

5. Reaction with Oxygen — Both react with oxygen to form respective oxides.
Hydrogen forms H2O
Sodium forms Na2O

Similarity of hydrogen with group 17 elements:

1. Electronic configuration — Hydrogen and halogens have one electron less than the
nearest inert gas.
2. Physical state — Like halogens (fluorine and chlorine), hydrogen too is a gas.

H + e- ⟶ H-
3. Ion formation — Both form an anion by accepting an electron.

Cl + e- ⟶ Cl-
4. Valency — Both have the valency 1.
5. Atomicity — Hydrogen as well as halogens exist in the form of diatomic molecules (H2,
F2, Cl2, Br2, I2).

Question 4

Which is the most preferred metal for the laboratory preparation of hydrogen. Why is any other
metal not used?

Answer

Zinc is the most preferred metal in the laboratory preparation of hydrogen.

Other metals are not used because of the following reasons:

1. Sodium and potassium react violently with acid.

2. Calcium and magnesium are expensive.
3. Aluminium forms a protective coating of Al2O3 due to its great affinity for oxygen. Due
to the coating of Al2O3, aluminium does not give hydrogen with acid.
4. Iron has to be heated, but then the hydrogen thus produced contains impurities like
hydrogen sulphide and sulphur dioxide.
5. Lead reacts with dil. sulphuric acid or hydrochloric acid and forms an insoluble coating
of lead sulphate or lead chloride. Therefore, further reaction is prevented.
6. Hydrogen cannot be prepared from metals that are below in the metal reactivity series
such as copper and mercury, since only metals that are more reactive than hydrogen
can displace it from acids.

Question 5

Describe the laboratory preparation of hydrogen with a labelled diagram? How are the impurities
removed.

Answer

Reactants : Granulated zinc, dil. hydrochloric acid or dil. sulphuric acid.

Procedure : Place some pieces of granulated zinc in a flat bottom flask fitted with an air tight
cork with two holes. Through one hole, pass a thistle funnel with a long stem provided with a
stopper, and through the other, a long delivery tube.

Pour dilute hydrochloric acid (or dilute sulphuric acid) through the funnel.
Zn + 2HCl (dil.) ⟶ ZnCl2 + H2 ↑

Zn + H2SO4 (dil.) ⟶ ZnSO4 + H2 ↑

Observation : Reaction will gradually start in the form of effervescence and evolution of gas.
When all the air from the apparatus has been expelled, collect the gas over water by downward
displacement of water.

Impurities can be removed from hydrogen by passing it through :

AsH3 + 6AgNO3 ⟶ Ag3As + 3AgNO3 + 3HNO3

1. Silver nitrate solution [to remove arsine and phosphine].

PH3 + 6AgNO3 ⟶ Ag3P + 3AgNO3 + 3HNO3

Pb(NO3)2 + H2S ⟶ PbS + 2HNO3

2. Lead nitrate solution [to remove hydrogen sulphide].

3. Caustic potash solution [to remove sulphur dioxide, carbon dioxide and oxides of

SO2 + 2KOH ⟶ K2SO3 + H2O

nitrogen].

CO2 + 2KOH ⟶ K2CO3 + H2O

2NO2 + 2KOH ⟶ KNO2 + KNO3 + H2O
4. A drying agent used to dry the gas. Common drying agents such as fused calcium
chloride, caustic potash stick and phosphorus pentoxide remove water vapour.

Thus, the gas is purified and dried and then collected over mercury because mercury has no
reaction with it.
Question 6

How is hydrogen manufactured? Describe with the equation(s) involved.

Answer

Hydrogen is manufactured by Bosch process. It consists of following steps:

1. Production of water gas

�coke+�2�steam→1000°C[CO+�2]water gas−ΔcokeC+steamH2O1000°Cwater ga
s[CO+H2]−Δ

Reactants : White hot coke and steam

Temperature : Around 1000°C
Process : Passage of steam over white hot coke [carbon]
Chamber : Specially designed convertor

2. Reduction of steam to hydrogen by carbon monoxide

[CO+�2]water gas+�2�excess steam→450°�Fe2�3 CO2+2H2+Δwater gas[

CO+H2]+excess steamH2OFe2O3450°C CO2+2H2+Δ
Reactants : Water gas and excess steam
Temperature : Around 450°C
Catalysts : Iron [III] oxide [Fe2O3], promoter chromic oxide [Cr2O3]
Process : Excess steam is mixed with water gas, passed over a catalyst at elevated temperatures.
[CO is converted to CO2 with a further yield of hydrogen.]

3. Separation of carbon dioxide [CO2] and carbon monoxide from the above mixture

(a) CO2 is removed by dissolving mixture in water under pressure [30 atmospheres], or caustic
potash solution to dissolve CO2.

2KOH + CO2 ⟶ K2CO3 + H2O

(b) CO is removed by dissolving mixture in ammoniacal cuprous chloride solution.

CuCl + CO + 2H2O ⟶ [Link].2H2O.

Thus, hydrogen gas is left behind.

Exercise 6(D) — Structured/Application/Skill Type

Question 1

Look at the following figure and answer the questions that follow:
(a) Which gas is prepared by this method marked as A.

(b) Name this method of collection. Why is this method used?

(c) Why is nitric acid not used as a reactant in the above method?

(d) Conc. H2SO4 is a good drying agent. However, it is not used here. Why?

Answer

(a) Hydrogen

(b) Downward displacement of water.

This method is used as:

1. Hydrogen is virtually insoluble in water (20 ml of hydrogen dissolves in 1 litre of water

under normal conditions)
2. Hydrogen forms an explosive mixture with air and therefore, cannot be collected by
downward displacement of air even though it is lighter than air.

(c) Nitric acid, even in its dilute form, is not used in the preparation of hydrogen from metals
because it is a powerful oxidizing agent, and the oxygen formed due to its decomposition

3Zn + 8HNO3 ⟶ 3Zn(NO3)2 + 4H2O + 2NO↑

oxidizes the hydrogen to give water, thus defeating the purpose of the reaction.
(d) Conc. H2SO4 is a good drying agent. However, it is not used to dry hydrogen as it reacts with

H2SO4 + H2 ⟶ 2H2O + SO2

hydrogen, thus defeating the purpose of the reaction.
The Periodic Table
Class 9 - Concise Chemistry Selina

Exercise 5(A)

Question 1

What is the need for classification of elements?

Answer

Reasons for classification of elements are:

1. It helps in studying the elements in an organized manner.

2. It helps in correlating the properties of elements with the fundamental properties of all
states of matter.
3. It helps in defining the relationship of one element with another.

Question 2

What was the basis of the earliest attempts made for classification and grouping of elements?

Answer

Earliest attempts or classification and grouping of elements were based on factors such as:

 Density
 Malleability
 Ductility
 Metal or Nonmetal

Question 3

(a) A, B and C are the elements of a Dobereiner's triad. If the atomic mass of A is 7 and that of C
is 39, what should be the atomic mass of B?

(b) Why were Dobereiner's triads discarded?

Answer

(a) When the atomic mass of A = 7, and that of C is = 39 then according to Dobereiner's triad,
atomic mass of B should be mean value of atomic masses of A and C.
7+39227+39 = 462246 = 23
Hence, atomic mass of B = 23

(b) Reasons for discarding Dobereiner's triads:

1. Dobereiner failed to arrange all the then known elements in the form of triads.
2. The law did not fully apply even within the same family.

Question 4

Explain 'Newland's law of Octaves'. Why was the law discarded?

Answer

According to Newland's law of octaves, when elements are arranged by increasing atomic mass,
the properties of every eighth element starting from any element are a repetition of the properties
of the starting element.

Reasons for discarding the Newland's law of Octaves:

1. This classification did not work with heavier elements i.e., those lying beyond Calcium.
As more and more elements were discovered, they could not be fitted into Newland's
Octaves.
2. Newland adjusted two elements Cobalt (Co) and Nickel (Ni) in the same slot, and these
were placed in the same column as fluorine, chlorine and bromine which have very
different properties than these elements.
3. Iron, which resembles cobalt and nickel in properties has been placed far away from
these elements.

Question 5

Did Dobereiner's triads also exist in the columns of Newland's Octaves? Compare and find out.

Answer

Yes, Dobereiner's triads also exist in the columns of Newland's octaves.

Example: Consider the elements lithium (Li), sodium (Na), and potassium (K) present in second
column of Newland's classification of elements. If we start with lithium as the 1st element, then
the 8th element from it is sodium, and according to Newlands' law of octaves, the properties of
the 8th element, sodium should be similar to those of the 1st element, lithium.

Again, if we take sodium as the 1st element, then the 8th element from it is potassium, and
according to Newland's law of octaves, the properties of the 8th element, potassium should be
similar to those of the 1st element, sodium.
This means that according to Newland's law of octaves, the elements lithium, sodium, and
potassium should have similar chemical properties. We also know that lithium, sodium, and
potassium form a Dobereiner's triad having similar chemical properties. From this, we conclude
that Dobereiner's triads also exist in the columns of Newland's Octaves.

Question 6(a)

Lithium, sodium and potassium elements were put in one group on the basis of their similar
properties. What are those similar properties.

Answer

Similar properties of lithium, sodium and potassium were:

1. They have one electron in the outermost shell, so they form unipositive ions.
2. All these are soft metals.
3. They are good reducing agents.
4. These metals impart colour to the flame.

Question 6(b)

The elements calcium, strontium and barium were put in one group or family on the basis of their
similar properties. What were those similar properties?

Answer

Similar properties of calcium, strontium and barium were:

1. All are metals.

2. Their oxides are alkaline in nature.
3. Each has valency 2.

Question 7

(a) What was Mendeleev's basis for classification of elements?

(b) Mendeleev's contributions to the concept of a periodic table laid the foundation for the
Modern Periodic Table. Give reasons.

Answer

(a) Mendeleev classified elements according to Mendeleev's Periodic Law. Mendeleev's Periodic
Law states that physical and chemical properties of elements are a periodic function of their
atomic masses.
(b) As many features of the Mendeleev's periodic table were later used when Modern Periodic
Table was made so we can say that Mendeleev's contributions to the concept of a periodic table
laid the foundation for the Modern Periodic Table. For example:

1. Mendeleev's periodic table contains vertical column called groups and horizontal rows
called periods.
2. They were all in eight groups.
3. All elements in a group had similar properties and same valency.
4. In a period elements gradually changed from metallic to non-metallic character.
5. Mendeleev left some gaps in his periodic table for subsequent inclusion of elements not
known at that time.
6. He predicted the properties of then unknown elements on the basis of the properties of
elements lying adjacent to the vacant slots.
7. He was able to correct the atomic mass of elements like gold and platinum by placing
these elements strictly on the basis of similarities in their properties.

Question 8

State Mendeleev's periodic law.

Answer

Mendeleev's periodic law states that the physical and chemical properties of elements are a
periodic function of their atomic masses.

Question 9

Use Mendeleev's Periodic Table to predict the formula of:

(a) hydrides of carbon and silicon

(b) oxides of potassium, aluminium and barium.

Answer

(a) Carbon is in group 4. Hydride of any element of group 4 is written as RH4. Hence, the
hydride of carbon will have the formula CH4.

Silicon is also in Group 4. So, the hydride will be SiH4.

(b) K is in Group 1 and have general oxide formula R2O. So, the oxide will be K2O.

Al is in Group 3 and have general oxide formula R2O3. So, the oxide will be Al2O3.

Ba is in Group 2 and have general oxide formula RO. So, the oxide will be BaO.
Question 10

Which group of elements was missing from Mendeleev's original periodic table ?

Answer

Group zero elements or inert gases were missing from Mendeleev's periodic table as they were
not discovered at that time.

Question 11

State the merits of Mendeleev's classification of elements.

Answer

Merits of Mendeleev’s classification of elements:

1. Grouping of elements: He generalized the study of the elements then known to a study
of mere eight groups.
2. Gaps of undiscovered elements: Mendeleev left some gaps in his periodic table for
subsequent inclusion of elements not known at that time.
3. Prediction of properties of undiscovered elements: He predicted the properties of then
unknown elements on the basis of the properties of elements lying adjacent to the vacant
slots.
4. Incorrect atomic mass corrected: He was able to correct the atomic mass of elements
like gold and platinum by placing these elements strictly on the basis of similarities in
their properties.

Question 12

Why did Mendeleev leave some gaps in his periodic table of elements? Explain your answer
with an example.

Answer

In order to make sure that elements having similar properties fell in the same vertical column or
group, Mendeleev left some gaps in his periodic table. These gaps were left for subsequent
inclusion of elements not known at that time.

For example,

(i) Eka-aluminium (means one place below aluminium in the group); its atomic mass and
chemical properties are quite similar to those of the element gallium discovered later in 1876.

(ii) Properties of eka-silicon are the properties of germanium.

Question 13
The atomic number of an element is more important to the chemist than its relative atomic mass.
Why?

Answer

Through an experiment, Henry Mosley found that number of positive charge present in the
nucleus of an atom or atomic number is the most fundamental property of an atom.

According to him, if elements are arranged in order of their increasing atomic number, those
with similar properties are repeated after regular intervals, i.e., periodicity in the periodic table
occurs based on the atomic numbers (number of protons). Hence, the atomic number is more
important to a chemist than its relative atomic mass.

Question 14

Consider the following elements: Be, Li, Na, Ca, K. Name the elements of (a) same group (b)
same period.

Answer

(a) Same group

1. Li, Na, K belong to the same group IA.

2. Be, Ca belong to the same group IIA.

(b) Same period

1. Li and Be belong to Second period.

2. K, Ca belong to Fourth period.
3. Na belongs to Third period.

Question 15

(a) Name an element whose properties were predicted on the basis of its position in Mendeleev's
periodic table.

(b) Name two elements whose atomic weights were corrected on the basis of their positions in
Mendeleev's periodic table.

(c) How many elements were known at the time of Mendeleev's classification of elements?

Answer

(a) Gallium (Eka aluminium)

(b) Gold and Platinum

(c) 63

Exercise 5(B)

Question 1

(a) State the modern periodic law.

(b) How many periods and groups are there in the modern periodic table?

Answer

(a) The Modern Periodic Law is stated as, 'the physical and chemical properties of elements are
the periodic functions of their atomic number.'

(b) Groups - 18 and Periods - 07

Question 2

What is the main characteristic of the last elements in the periods of a periodic table? What is the
general name of such elements?

Answer

Main characteristic of the last element in each period of the Periodic Table are:

1. They have valency equal to zero.

2. They react under very special condition otherwise they don't react.
3. They have stable gas electronic configuration.

General name of such elements is Inert Gases.

Question 3

What is meant in the periodic table by :

(a) a group, and

(b) a period?

Answer

(a) Eighteen vertical columns in the periodic table are called groups.

(b) Seven horizontal rows in the periodic table are called periods.
Question 4

From the standpoint of atomic structure, what determines which element will be the first and
which the last in a period of the periodic table ?

Answer

Number of valence electrons determines which element will be the first and which element will
be the last in a period.

Question 5

(a) What are the following groups known as?

1. Group 1
2. Group 17
3. Group 18

(b) Name two elements of each group.

Answer

(a) The groups are knows as:

1. Group 1 — Alkali metals

2. Group 17 — Halogens
3. Group 18 — Noble gases

(b) Two elements of each group are:

1. Group 1 — Lithium, Sodium

2. Group 17 — Fluorine, Chlorine
3. Group 18 — Neon, Argon

Question 6

What is the number of elements in the :

(a) 1st period, and

(b) 3rd period, of the modern periodic table?

Answer

(a) 2 Elements

(b) 8 Elements
Question 7

How does the number of (i) valence electrons (ii) valency; vary on moving from left to right:

(a) in the second period of a periodic table?

(b) in the third period of a periodic table?

Answer

(a) In the second period of the periodic table, the number of valence electrons increase from 1 to
8 as we move from left to right. The valency first increases from 1 to 4 from element Lithium
(Li) to Carbon (C) and then reduces to zero from element Nitrogen (N) till Neon (Ne).

(b) In the third period of the periodic table, the number of valence electrons increases from 1 to 8
as we move from left to right. The valency first increases from 1 to 4 from element Sodium (Na)
to Silicon (Si) and then reduces to zero from element Phosphorus (P) till Argon (Ar).

Question 8

How do atomic structures (electron arrangements) change in a period with an increase in atomic
numbers, moving from left to right?

Answer

As we move across a period from left to right, the number of shells remain the same and number
of valence electron increases by one. The size of atom decreases because with increase in
number of protons, nuclear pull increases, which decreases the size.

Question 9

State the criteria used by Mendeleev in proposing his periodic table?

Answer

The criteria used by Mendeleev in proposing his periodic table was the atomic masses of
elements. He classified elements according to Mendeleev's Periodic Law. Mendeleev's Periodic
Law states that physical and chemical properties of elements are a periodic function of their
atomic masses.

Question 10

How are the positions of Cobalt and Nickel resolved in the Modern periodic table?

Answer

In Mendeleev's periodic table, Cobalt with atomic mass 58.9 preceded Nickel with atomic mass
58.6. This anomaly was resolved in Modern periodic table by arranging the elements based on
their atomic number instead of atomic mass.
Cobalt with atomic number 27 is placed in group 9 and Nickel with atomic number 28 is placed
in group 10 in the Modern periodic table.

Question 11

Cl35 and Cl37 are two different atoms. Where would they be placed in the periodic table.

Answer

Since, all isotopes of chlorine i.e., Cl35 and Cl37 have the same number of protons so their atomic
number is the same. Hence, they are placed at the same position in the periodic table in group 17,
period 3.

Question 12

An element X has 3 electrons in its M shell. State its position in the periodic table? Name the
element.

Answer

The element having three shells [K, L, M] with three electrons in the valence shell is in group 13
[III A] and period 3. The name of the element is Aluminium.

Question 13

Name an element that has two shells, each filled completely with electrons. State its position in
the periodic table.

Answer

Neon (Ne), It is placed in the zero group and 2nd period.

Question 14

Helium is an unreactive gas and neon is a gas of extremely low reactivity. What, if anything, do
their atoms have in common.

Answer

Atoms of both Helium and Neon have completely filled valence shells which makes them very
stable and unreactive.

Question 15

In which part of a group would you separately expect the elements to have
(a) the greatest metallic character?

(b) the largest atomic size.

Answer

(a) Greatest metallic character is shown in the elements at the bottom of the group.

(b) Largest atomic size is shown in the elements at the bottom of the group.

Question 16

What happens to number of valence electrons in atoms of elements as we go down a group of the
periodic table?

Answer

Number of valence electrons remain the same as we go down a group.

Example:

Element Electronic configuration valence electron

Lithium [Li] [2,1] 1

Sodium [Na] [2, 8, 1] 1

Potassium [K] [2, 8, 8, 1] 1

Question 17

Sodium and aluminium have atomic numbers 11 and 13, respectively. They are separated by one
element in the periodic table and have valencies 1 and 3 respectively. Chlorine and potassium are
also separated by one element in the periodic table (their atomic numbers being 17 and 19,
respectively) and yet both have valency 1. Explain.

Answer

Sodium and aluminium both belong to period 3 of the periodic table. They are the first and the
third elements of their period belonging to group IA and IIIA, respectively. As they lie towards
the left in their period, they exhibit metallic character and being separated by one element exhibit
positive valencies of +1 and +3, respectively.
On the other hand, even though chlorine and potassium are also separated by one element,
chlorine belongs to period 3 and potassium to period 4 of the periodic table. Chlorine is the
rightmost element of period 3 belonging to the Halogens group VIIA. So, it exhibits a negative
valency of -1. Potassium is the leftmost element of period 4 belonging to the Alkali metals group
IA. So, it exhibits a positive valency of +1.

Question 18

This question refers to elements of the periodic table with atomic numbers from 3 to 18. In the
table below, some elements are shown by letters, even though the letters are not the usual
symbols of the elements.

3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A B C D E F G H

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18

I J K L M N O P

(a) Which of these is

(i) a noble gas

(ii) a halogen

(iii) an alkali metal

(iv) an element with valency 4

(b) If A combines with F, what would be the formula of the resulting compound?

(c) What is the electronic configuration of G?

Answer

(a) (i) H and P are noble gases, as they are in group zero and have their octet complete.

(ii) G and O are halogens, as they are in group VIIA and have 7 valence electrons.

(iii) A and I are alkali metals, as they are in group IA and have 1 valence electron.

(iv) D and L have valency 4, as they are in group IVA and have 4 valence electrons.

(b) Valency of A [2, 1] is +1, so it tries to donate an electron and attain a stable state.
Valency of F [2, 6] is -2, so it tries to gain two electrons and attain a stable state. Hence, one F
atom takes electron from two A atoms. Therefore, the formula of their compound will be A2F
(c) Electronic configuration of G is [2, 7] as its atomic number is 9.

Question 19

The position of elements A, B, C, D and E in the periodic table are shown below:

Group 1 Group 2 Group 17 Group 18

– – – D

– B C –

A – – E

(a) State which are metals, non-metals and noble gas in this table.

(b) State which is the most reactive (i) metal (ii) non-metal.

(c) Which type of ion will be formed by element A, B and C.

(d) Which is larger in size (i) D or E (ii) B or C.

Answer

(a) Metals — A and B, as they belong to alkali metals group and alkaline earth metals group.

Non-metals — C, as it belongs to halogen group 17.

Noble gases — D and E, as they belong to group 18 or zero group.

(b) A is the most reactive metal as Group 1 (Alkali metals) elements are very reactive and the
degree of reactivity further increases down the group. C is the most reactive non-metal as it is
in Group 17 (Halogens) and the degree of reactivity of halogens decreases down the group.

(c) Type of ion formed by elements A, B and C will be:

1. Element A will lose the one valence electron and become an electropositive ion
[i.e., cation A+].
2. Element B will lose two valence electrons and become an electropositive ion [i.e., cation
B2+].
3. Element C will gain one electron, complete its octet and become an electronegative ion
[i.e., anion C-].

(d) Larger in size

 1. E is larger in size as the number of shells increases as we move down a group increasing
the size of the atom.
2. B is larger in size as atomic size decreases on moving from left to right across a period
due to increase in nuclear charge.

Question 20

Write the electronic configuration of the element 3517T.

(a) What is the group number of T?

(b) What is the period number of T?

(c) How many valence electrons are there in an atom of T?

(d) What is the valency of T?

(e) Is it a metal or a non-metal?

(f) State number of protons and neutrons in T.

Answer

The electronic configuration of 3517T is [2, 8, 7]

(a) Group number of T — VIIA [∵ it has 7 valence electrons]

(b) Period number of T — Third period [∵ it has 3 shells]

(c) Valence electrons — Seven [from electronic configuration]

(d) Valency of T is -1. [∵ it needs to gain one electron to complete its octet]

(e) T is a non-metal [∵ it has a tendency to accept electrons]

(f) Protons = 17, Neutrons = 18

Exercise 5(C) — Multiple Choice Type

Question 1

In the periodic table, the elements of a same group have the same:

1. Number of valence electrons

2. Mass number
3. Atomic number
4. Number of electrons
Answer

Number of valence electrons

Reason — The arrangement of elements based on their atomic weights in the Modern Periodic
Table puts elements with same number of valence electrons in the same group.

Question 2

The number of elements in the largest period of the periodic table is:

1. 18
2. 8
3. 32
4. 42

Answer

32

Reason — The sixth period contains 32 elements (atomic number 55-86). It is the longest
period.

Question 3

Atomic number is a much more fundamental property of an element than its atomic mass. This
was emphasised by:

1. Bohr
2. Mosley
3. Mendeleev
4. Newland

Answer

Mosley

Reason — Henry Mosley found that atomic number is a better fundamental property of elements
compared to atomic mass which led to the modern periodic law.

Question 4

All the members of group 15 have ................ electrons in their outermost orbit.

1. 3
2. 7
 3. 5
4. 8

Answer

Reason — Group 15 elements have 5 valence electrons.

Question 5

Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the elements — Na, Mg, Al, Si, P, S
and Cl.

1. Each element belongs to the same group.

2. Valency of each element is the same.
3. Each element belongs to the same period.
4. They are all metals.

Answer

Each element belongs to the same period

Reason — Period 3, known as short period, contains 8 elements i.e., sodium (Na), magnesium
(Mg), aluminium (Al), silicon (Si), phosphorous (P), sulphur (S) and chlorine (Cl).

Question 6

Elements with 2 electrons in their outermost shells are known as :

1. Alkali metals
2. Halogens
3. Alkaline earth metals
4. Inert gases

Answer

Alkaline earth metals

Reason — Group 2 elements known as alkaline earth metals, have two electrons in their
outermost orbit.

Question 7

Modern periodic table is based on:

 1. Atomic weight
2. Atomic number
3. Mass number
4. Molecular mass

Answer

Atomic number

Reason — The Modern Periodic Law is stated as, 'the physical and chemical properties of
elements are the periodic functions of their atomic number.'

Question 8

Elements which have their outermost orbits incomplete are:

1. Transition elements
2. Noble gases
3. Inner transition elements
4. Representative elements

Answer

Transition elements, Inner transition elements, Representative elements.

Reason — Noble gases have a stable electronic configuration with their outermost orbits
complete.

Question 9

The element with atomic number 16 is placed in the modern periodic table in:

1. 2nd period and VI A group

2. 3rd period and IV A group
3. 3rd period and VI A group
4. 2nd period and IV A group

Answer

3rd period and VI A group

Reason — The element with atomic number 16 has electronic configuration 2,8,6. It has 3 shells
so it will be in period 3 and 6 valence electrons so it is placed in VI A group.

Question 10
Typical elements are the elements of:

1. IIIrd group
2. IIIrd period
3. IIrd period
4. IVth period

Answer

IIIrd period

Reason — The third period elements Na, Mg, Al, Si, P, S and Cl summarize the properties of
their respective groups and are called typical elements.

Question 11

The strongest reducing agents are the elements of group:

1. Six
2. Seven
3. One
4. Two

Answer

One

Reason — As group 1 elements have 1 valence electrons hence they tend to donate it, attain a
stable configuration and get oxidized. Therefore, they are the strongest reducing agents.

Question 12

The most reactive non-metal is:

1. Iodine
2. Oxygen
3. Fluorine
4. Chlorine

Answer

Fluorine

Reason — As reactivity of halogens group decreases as we move downwards, hence fluorine is

the most reactive non-metal. Reactivity of fluorine is more than oxygen as it has a stronger
tendency to take electrons and complete its octet.
Exercise 5(C) — Very Short Answer Type

Question 1

Match column A with column B

Column A Column B

(a) Elements short by 1 electron in octet (i) Transition elements

(b) Highly reactive elements (ii) Noble gases

(c) Non-reactive elements (iii) Alkali metals

(d) Elements of group 3 to 12 (iv) Alkaline earth metals

(e) Radioactive elements (v) Halogens

(f) Elements with 2 electrons in the outermost orbit (vi) Actinides

Answer

Column A Column B

(a) Elements short by 1 electron in octet (v) Halogens

(b) Highly reactive elements (iii) Alkali metals

(c) Non-reactive elements (ii) Noble gases

(d) Elements of group 3 to 12 (i) Transition elements

(e) Radioactive elements (v) Actinides

(f) Elements with 2 electrons in the outermost orbit (vi) Alkaline earth metals
Question 2

Write down the word that will correctly complete the following sentences:

(a) Relative atomic mass of a light element up to calcium is approximately ............... its atomic
number.

(b) The horizontal rows in a periodic table are called ...............

(c) Going across a period left to right, atomic size ...............

(d) Moving left to right in the second period, number of valence electrons ...............

(e) Moving down in the second group, number of valence electrons ...............

Answer

(a) Relative atomic mass of a light element up to calcium is approximately twice its atomic
number.

(b) The horizontal rows in a periodic table are called periods.

(c) Going across a period left to right, atomic size decreases.

(d) Moving left to right in the second period, number of valence electrons increases

(e) Moving down in the second group, number of valence electrons remains same

Question 3

Name or state the following with reference to the elements of the first three periods of the
periodic table.

(a) Noble gas with duplet arrangement of electrons.

(b) Metalloid in Period 3.

(c) Valency of elements in Group 14 and 15.

(d) Noble gas having electronic configuration 2, 8, 8.

(e) Group whose elements have zero valency.

(f) A covalent compound formed by an element in period 2 and a halogen.

(g) Non-metallic element present in Period 3 of Groups 15 and 16.

(h) An electrovalent compound formed by an alkaline earth metal and a halogen.

(i) Bridge elements of Period 3 of Group 1, 2 and 3.

(j) Alkali metal in Period 3 that dissolves in water giving a strong alkali.

(k) Typical elements of Groups 14 and 15.

(l) Alkaline earth metal in Period 3.

Answer

(a) Helium (He)

(b) Silicon (Si)

(c) 4, 3

(d) Argon (Ar)

(e) Group 18 — Noble gases

(f) Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4)

(g) Phosphorus and sulphur

(h) Sodium chloride (NaCl)

(i) Lithium (Li) and Magnesium (Mg);

Beryllium (Be) and Aluminium (Al);
Boron (B) and Silicon (Si)

(j) Sodium (Na)

(k) Silicon (Si) and phosphorus (P).

(l) Magnesium (Mg)

Question 4

Name the gas used in

(a) filling balloons

(b) light bulbs

(c) bright coloured advertising light works

Answer

(a) Helium
(b) Argon

(c) Neon

Question 5

(a) Name the method by which alkali metals can be extracted.

(b) What is the colour of the flame of sodium and potassium?

Answer

(a) Electrolysis of their molten state.

(b) Flame of sodium is golden yellow, and potassium is lilac.

Exercise 5(C) — Short Answer Type

Question 1

Arrange the following

(a) Elements of group 1, in increasing order of reactivity.

(b) Elements of group 17, in decreasing order of reactivity.

(c) He, Na, Mg (decreasing order of valency).

(d) Chlorine, sodium, magnesium (increasing reducing character).

Answer

(a) Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs

(b) F > Cl > Br > I

(c) Mg > Na > He

(d) Cl < Mg < Na

Question 2

Element P has atomic number 19. To which group and period, does P belong? Is it a metal or a
non-metal? Why?

Answer
1A group and 4th period.

P is metal because its electronic configuration is 2,8,1 and and it belongs to the group of alkali
metals.

Question 3

An element belongs to the 3rd period and Group IIIA (13) of the periodic table. State

(a) the number of valence electrons,

(b) the valency,

(c) if it is a metal or non-metal?

(d) the name of the element.

Answer

(a) 3, as the electronic configuration of the element is 2,8,3.

(b) +3, as the element will try to donate three valence electrons and attain a stable octet
configuration.

(c) Metal, as the element has 3 valence electrons and tries to donate it to attain a stable
configuration.

(d) Aluminium (Al), as it is in 3rd period and Group IIIA (13)

Question 4

An element A has 2 electrons in its fourth shell. State:

(a) its atomic number

(b) its electronic configuration

(c) its valency

(d) position in the periodic table

(e) is it a metal or a non-metal?

(f) is it an oxidising or reducing agent?

Answer

(a) Atomic number is 20.

(b) Its electronic configuration is 2, 8, 8, 2.

(c) +2, as the element tries to donate the two valence electrons, gain a stable octet configuration
and become an electropositive ion.

(d) Group 2 Period 4

(e) Metal, as the element has 2 valence electrons and tries to donate it to attain a stable
configuration.

(f) Reducing agent, as metals are strong reducing agents.

Question 5

(a) Name the first three alkaline earth metals.

(b) Write their reactions with dil. hydrochloric acid.

Answer

(a) Beryllium (Be), Magnesium (Mg) and Calcium (Ca).

(b) Be + 2HCl ⟶ BeCl2 + H2

Mg + 2HCl ⟶ MgCl2 + H2

Ca + 2HCl ⟶ CaCl2 + H2

Question 6

(a) Name the alkali metals. How many electrons(s) do they have in their outermost orbit.

(b) Take any one alkali metal and write its reaction with

(i) Oxygen

(ii) Water

(iii) Acid

Answer

(a) Lithium (Li), sodium (Na), potassium (K), rubidium (Rb), caesium (Cs), and francium (Fr)
are alkali metals. They have 1 electron in their outermost orbit.

(b) (i) Alkali metal like sodium reacts rapidly with oxygen forming metal oxide

4Na + O2 ⟶ 2Na2O
(ii) Alkali metal like sodium reacts with water violently and produces its hydroxide and
hydrogen

2Na + 2H2O ⟶ 2NaOH + H2

(iii) Alkali metal react violently with dil. HCl and dil. H2SO4 to produce hydrogen

2Na + 2HCl ⟶ 2NaCl + H2

Question 7

(a) How do alkaline earth metals occur in nature?

(b) Write the electronic configuration of the first two alkaline earth metals.

Answer

(a) Alkaline earth metals are reactive metals, hence they do not occur in free state in nature.
Their oxides occur in the earth's crust.

(b) Electronic configuration of beryllium (Be) is [2, 2] and magnesium (Mg) is [2, 8, 2]

Question 8

(a) How many electrons do inert gases have in their valence shells?

(b) Name an element of group 18 which can form compounds.

Answer

(a) They have 8 electrons in their outermost orbits (except He, which has only 2 electrons).

(b) Xenon

Question 9

Give reasons.

(a) Alkali metals are kept in inert solvent.

(b) Alkali metals and halogens do not occur free in nature.

(c) Alkali and alkaline earth metal compounds usually form electrovalent compounds.

(d) Inert gases do not form compounds.

Answer
(a) As alkali metals are very reactive metals, hence they are kept in inert solvents.

(b) As alkali metals and halogens are very reactive, hence, they do not occur free in nature.

(c) As alkali and alkaline earth metal have 1 and 2 valence electrons respectively hence, they
tend to donate the valence electrons to attain a stable configuration and form electrovalent
compounds.

(d) As the outermost orbits of inert gases are completely filled and they are in a stable state hence
they do not form compounds.

Exercise 5(C) — Descriptive Type

Question 1

(a) State the nature of compounds formed when group 17 elements combine with (i) metals (ii)
non-metals.

(b) Why group 17 elements are highly reactive?

Answer

(a) (i) Group 17 elements (halogens) can react directly with metals to form metal halides (or
salts).

(ii) Group 17 elements (halogens) react with non-metals to form halides like chlorides, bromides
and iodides.

(b) Group 17 elements are highly reactive as they need only one electron to complete its octet
and attain a stable state.

Question 2

(a) What is the name given to group 17 elements? Why are they called so?

(b) Comment on the (i) reactivity (ii) colour and (iii) physical state of group 17 elements.

Answer

(a) Group 17 elements are called halogens. The name halogen (Greek, halo = sea or salt + gen =
producing) means 'salt former'. Group 17 elements form salts, hence, they are called Halogens.

(b) (i) Halogens are the most reactive non-metals. Their reactivity decreases down the group.
For example: fluorine is the most reactive and iodine is the least reactive.
(ii) The intensity of the colour of the element increases from pale to dark. Fluorine is a pale
yellow gas, chlorine is a greenish-yellow gas, bromine is a reddish-brown liquid and iodine is a
violet solid.

(iii) The physical state of the elements changes from gas to solid as we move down the group.
Fluorine is a gas, chlorine is a gas, bromine is liquid and iodine is solid.

Question 3

State the uses of Modern Periodic table.

Answer

1. Periodic table has been useful in predicting the existence of new elements.
2. It has been useful in the past in correcting the position of elements in relation to their
properties.
3. Study of elements and their compounds has become systematic and easier to remember.
4. Position of an element in the periodic table reveals its:
i. atomic number
ii. electronic configuration
iii. number of valence electrons
iv. properties
5. Nature of chemical bond, formula of compound formed and properties of that compound
can all be predicted from the periodic table.
6. Position of an element in the periodic table reveals:
i. valency of the element
ii. whether the element is a metal or a non-metal — metals occupy the extreme left
positions of the periodic table while non-metals are at the extreme right of the
periodic table.

Question 4

Give the merits of Mendeleev's periodic table.

Answer

Merits of Mendeleev’s periodic table :

1. Grouping of elements — He generalized the study of the elements then known to a

study of mere eight groups.
2. Gaps of undiscovered elements — Mendeleev left some gaps in his periodic table for
subsequent inclusion of elements not known at that time.
3. Prediction of properties of undiscovered elements — He predicted the properties of
then unknown elements on the basis of the properties of elements lying adjacent to the
vacant slots.
 4. Incorrect atomic mass corrected — He was able to correct the atomic mass of elements
like gold and platinum by placing these elements strictly on the basis of similarities in
their properties.

Question 5

State the defects of the table proposed by Mendeleev.

Answer

Defects of table proposed by Mendeleev:

1. Anomalous pairs — The following elements did not follow Mendeleev's principles:
i. Argon with atomic mass 39.9 precedes potassium with atomic mass 39.1
ii. Cobalt with atomic mass 58.9 precedes nickel with atomic mass 58.6
iii. Tellurium with atomic mass 127.6 precedes iodine with atomic mass 126.9
2. Position of isotopes — According to Mendeleev's periodic table isotopes should be
given separate place in the table since they have different atomic mass. But they were not
assigned separate places.
3. Grouping of chemically dissimilar elements — Elements such as copper and silver bear
no resemblance to alkali metals (lithium, sodium etc.) but they have been placed together
in the first group.
4. Separation of chemically similar elements — Elements that are chemically similar,
such as gold and platinum have been placed in separate groups.
5. Electron arrangement — It does not explain the electron arrangement of elements.
6. Position of hydrogen — Hydrogen was not given a fixed position. It was considered in
group IA as well as in group VIIA because it forms forms both a positive ion, viz. in HCl
and a negative ion, viz. in NaH.

Question 6

Give the main characteristics of representative elements.

Answer

1. They include both metals and non-metals. There is a regular gradation from metallic to
non-metallic character as one moves from left to right across the period.
2. They form electrovalent as well as covalent compounds with non-metals.
3. Metallic nature increases on moving down any of these seven groups.
4. Metals, which are good conductors of heat and electricity, are present in groups 1 and 2.
Non-metals, which are present in groups 16 and 17, are poor conductors of heat and
electricity.
5. Some heavier elements, like tin and lead, exhibit variable valencies.
Question 7

Discuss the characteristics of halogens with respect to:

(a) reactivity

(b) intensity of colours

(c) formation of ions.

Answer

(a) Halogens are the most reactive non-metals. Their reactivity decreases down the group. For
example: fluorine is the most reactive and iodine is the least reactive.

(b) The intensity of the colour of the element increases from pale to dark. Fluorine is a pale
yellow gas, chlorine is a greenish-yellow gas, bromine is a reddish-brown liquid and iodine is a
violet solid.

(c) They all form negative ions carrying a single charge [Fluoride ions F-, Chloride ions Cl-,
Bromide ions Br-, Iodide ions I-.]

Question 8

Two elements 'P' and 'Q' belong to the same period of the modern periodic table and are in group
1 and group 2 respectively. Compare the following characteristics in tabular form.

(a) number of electrons in their valence shell.

(b) their tendency to lose electrons.

(c) their metallic characters.

(d) formation of their oxides.

(e) formulae of their chlorides.

Answer

These elements belong to alkali metals and alkaline earth metals, respectively. Below is the
comparison of their characteristics:

S.
No Characteristic Alkali metals (P) Alkaline earth metals (Q)
.

(a) Number of electrons in their 1 2

 S.
No Characteristic Alkali metals (P) Alkaline earth metals (Q)
.

valence shell

Can easily lose Loses electrons but relatively less

(b) Tendency to lose electrons.
electrons easily than alkali metals.

(c) Metallic character Metallic Less metallic than P

React rapidly with

(d) Formation of their oxides Less reactive than alkali metals
oxygen in the air

(e) Formulae of their chlorides NaCl, KCl, CsCl MgCl2, CaCl2, BaCl2

Exercise 5(C) — Structured/Application/Skill Type

Question 1

Western music Do Re Me Fa So La Ti

Indian music Sa Re Ga Ma Pa Dha Nee

1 2 3 4 5 6 7

H Li Be B C N O

F Na Mg Al Si P S

Cl K Ca Cr Ti Mn Fe

(a) Name the scientist who gave this table.

(b) Which group of elements were not known at his time?

(c) This system worked quite well for the .............. (heavier/lighter) elements.
(d) The table shown above relates the properties of the elements to their .............. (atomic
number / atomic mass)

(e) Why was this table discarded?

Answer

(a) John Newland

(b) 18th group of inert elements

(c) This system worked quite well for the lighter elements.

(d) The table shown above relates the properties of the elements to their atomic mass.

(e) Reasons for discarding the law of octaves:

1. This classification did not work for heavier elements i.e., those lying beyond calcium. As
more and more of elements were discovered, they could not be fitted in this table.
2. Newland adjusted two elements cobalt (Co) and nickel (Ni) in the same slot and these
were placed in the same column as fluorine, chlorine and bromine which have very
different properties than these elements.
3. Iron, which resembles cobalt and nickle in properties, has been placed far away from
these elements.

Question 2

(a) Complete the table.

Atomic No Element Electronic configuration Select element of the same group

11 Sodium ............... (Ca/N/K)

15 Phosphorus ............... (Al/N/C)

16 Sulphur ............... (F/Cl/O)

9 Fluorine ............... (Ca/Cl/K)

(b) Classify the elements given in the table as metals and non-metals.

(c) To which group does sodium belong? Why is Hydrogen not considered while describing the
elements of this group?
Answer

(a) The completed table is given below:

Atomic No Element Electronic configuration Select element of the same group

11 Sodium 2, 8, 1 K

15 Phosphorus 2, 8, 5 N

16 Sulphur 2, 8, 6 O

9 Fluorine 2, 7 Cl

(b)

Element Metal/Non-metal

Sodium (Na) Metal

Phosphorous (P) Non-metal

Sulphur (S) Non-metal

Fluorine (F) Non-metal

(c) Sodium belongs to group 1.

Position of hydrogen is not satisfactory. Hydrogen atom is very small in size and therefore many
of its properties are different from group 1 elements (alkali metals). It is a gas at room
temperature, while other elements of group 1 are solid metals. Secondly, it does not readily form
cations, in most compounds, whereas group 1 metals readily form cations and form only ionic
bonds. Due to these reasons Hydrogen is not considered while describing the elements of group
1.
Chapter 4

Atomic Structure and Chemical

Bonding
Class 9 - Concise Chemistry Selina

Exercise 4(A)

Question 1

What is the contribution of the following in Atomic structure?

(a) Maharshi Kanada

(b) Democritus?

Answer

(a) The idea of the smallest unit of matter was given by Maharshi Kanada. According to him,
matter consisted of indestructible minute particles called paramanus, now called atoms. A
paramanus does not exist in free state, rather it combines with other paramanus to form a bigger
particle called anu, now known as molecule. There are different types of paramanus. Each one of
them exhibits specific properties.

(b) Democritus called the paramanu an atom, which is derived from the Greek word atomos,
meaning indivisible.

Question 2

State Dalton's atomic theory.

Answer

John Dalton gave the first scientific theory about the structure of matter. He considered atoms
as indivisible particles that are the fundamental building blocks of matter. The existence of
different types of matter is considered to be due to different types of atoms constituting them.

Main postulates of Dalton's atomic theory are:

1. Matter consists of very small and indivisible particles called atoms.

2. Atoms can neither be created nor be destroyed.
3. The atoms of an element are alike in all respects, but they differ from the atoms of other
elements.
4. Atoms of an element combine in small numbers to form molecules.
5. Atoms of one element combine with atoms of another element in a simple ratio to form
molecules of compounds.
6. Atoms are the smallest units of matter that can take part in a chemical reaction.

Question 3

What is an α (alpha) particle?

Answer

An α (alpha) particle is a doubly charged helium ion (He2+) containing two protons and two
neutrons. It is formed by removing 2 electrons from helium atom.

Question 4

What are the cathode rays? How are these rays formed?
Answer

Cathode rays are a stream of electrons that travel from the negatively charged electrode (the
cathode) to the positively charged electrode (the anode) in a discharge tube.

Formation of cathode rays — When a high voltage (10,000 volts) charge from an induction
coil is applied to tubes filled with gases at very low pressure (0.01 mm of Hg), the gases become
good conductors of electricity and begin to flow from cathode to anode in the form of rays which
are called cathode rays.

Question 5

What is the nature of a charge on

(i) cathode rays

(ii) anode rays?

Answer

Cathode rays are negatively charged as they are made of negatively charged particles.

Anode rays are positively charged as they are made of positively charged particles.

Question 6

How are X-rays produced?

Answer

When a beam of cathode rays is made to fall upon hard metallic targets like tungsten, X-rays are
produced.

Question 7

Why were anode rays also called as 'canal rays'?

Answer

In discharge tube experiment, Goldstein noticed another set of rays travelling in a direction
opposite to that of the cathode rays i.e., from anode towards cathode, when perforated cathode
was used in the discharge tube. He called these rays as canal rays since these rays passed through
the holes or canals in the cathode. These rays were named positive rays or anode rays.

Question 8

How do cathode rays differ from anode rays?

Answer

Cathode rays Anode rays

They travel from the cathode to the anode. They travel from the anode to the cathode.

They cause a greenish-yellow fluorescence on a

They produce fluorescence on a zinc sulphide screen.
soda-glass screen.

They are made of negatively charged particles. They are made of positively charged particles.

They are affected by electric field i.e., they are They are deflected by electric and magnetic fields but in a
inflected towards a positive field and deflected from direction opposite to that of cathode rays. This means that
the negative field. This shows they carry negative these rays consist of positively charged particles called
charge. protons.

The ratio of charge (e) to the mass (m) remains same

The ratio of charge (e) to the mass (m), differs from gas to
irrespective of the nature of the gas taken and of the
gas.
metal forming the cathode.

Question 9

State one observation which shows that atom is not indivisible.

Answer

Discovery of sub-atomic particles i.e., electrons, protons and neutrons shows that atoms are
divisible.

In discharge tube experiment, Goldstein noticed, set of rays travelling in a direction opposite to
that of the cathode rays. These were called canal rays since these rays passed through the holes
or canals in the cathode. These rays were named positive rays or anode rays. These rays consist
of sub-atomic particle proton.

Question 10

(a) Name an element which does not contain neutron.

(b) If an atom contains one electron and one proton, will it carry any charge or not?

Answer
(a) Hydrogen does not contain neutron.

(b) If an atom contains one electron and one proton, it will not carry any charge i.e., it will be a
neutral atom.

Question 11

On the basis of Thomson's model of an atom, explain how an atom as a whole is neutral.

Answer

According to Thomson's atomic model —

1. An atom is considered to be a sphere of uniform positive charge and electrons are embedded
into it.
2. The total positive charge is equal to the total negative charge so that an atom as a whole is
electrically neutral.

Question 12

Which sub-atomic particle was discovered by

(a) Thomson

(b) Goldstein

(c) Chadwick.

Answer

(a) J. J. Thomson — Electrons

(b) [Link] — Protons

(c) James Chadwick — Neutrons

Question 13

Name the sub-atomic particle whose charge is

(a) +1

(b) -1

(c) 0.

Answer

(a) Proton (+1)

(b) Electron (-1)

(c) Neutron (0)

Question 14

(a) Which metal did Rutherford select for his α-particle scattering experiment and why ?

(b) What do you think would be the observation of α-particle scattering experiment if carried out
on

(i) heavy nucleus like platinum

(ii) light nuclei like lithium.

Answer

(a) Rutherford selected gold for his α-particle scattering experiment as he wanted as thin a layer
as possible and gold is the most malleable metal.

(b) (i) Heavy nucleus like platinum will show the same observation with α-particles as shown by
gold foil.

1. Most of the α-particle will pass straight.

2. Some α-particle will slightly deflect from their straight path.
3. Very few will be deflected by very large angles or completely bounce back.

(ii) If light nuclei like lithium is used then fast moving α-particles may even push the light
nucleus aside and may not be deflected back.
Question 15

On the basis of Rutherford's model of an atom, which subatomic particle is present in the nucleus
of an atom?

Answer

According to Rutherford's model of an atom, there is a positively charged mass in the centre of
the atom, i.e., nucleus, in which the entire mass of the atom is concentrated, which makes
nucleus the densest part of the atom. The electrically positive nature of the nucleus is supported
by the fact that the positively charged α-particles approaching the nucleus get deflected. This
proved that nucleus contained protons.

Question 16

Which part of an atom was discovered by Rutherford?

Answer

Rutherford discovered the nucleus.

Question 17

How was it shown that the atom has empty space?

Answer

Rutherford through an experiment, directed a stream of α-particles towards a very thin gold foil.
Most of the α-particle pass through the metal foil without deviating from their path. This showed
that an atom contains a large empty space (extra nuclear space).

Question 18

State one major drawback of Rutherford's model.

Answer

The comparison of electrons with planets in the solar system is the main drawback of
Rutherford's model. It failed to explain the stability of the atom.

Question 19

In the figure given alongside :

(a) Name the shells denoted by A, B and C. Which shell has the least energy?

(b) Name X and state the charge on it.

(c) The above sketch is of ............... model of an atom.

Answer

(a) A is First energy level (K shell)

B is Second energy level (L shell)

C is Third energy level (M shell)

Shell K has the minimum amount of energy.

(b) X is the nucleus, it is positively charged.

(c) The above sketch is of Bohr's atomic model model of an atom.

Question 20

Give the postulates of Bohr's atomic model.

Answer

Postulates of Bohr's atomic model are as follows

1. The electrons revolving around the nucleus are confined to certain fixed orbits called shells or
energy levels, each of which is associated with a fixed amount of energy.
2. While it is revolving around the nucleus in an orbit, an electron neither loses nor gains energy.
3. An electron revolving in a particular orbit, on gaining a certain amount of energy, jumps to the
next orbit and vice verse. Since each orbit is associated with a fixed amount of energy, Bohr
called it an energy level.
Exercise 4(B)

Question 1

(a) Name the three fundamental particles of an atom.

(b) Give the symbol and charge of each particle.

Answer

(a) The three fundamental particles of an atom are:

1. electrons
2. protons
3. neutrons

(b) The table below shows the symbol and charge of the particles:

Particle Symbol Charge

0
Electron -1 e or e- -1

1
Proton 1H or p+ +1

1
Neutron 0n or n No charge

Question 2

Complete the table given below by identifying P, Q, R and S.

Element Symbol No of Protons No of Neutrons No of Electrons

23
Sodium 11 Na 11 P 11

35
Chlorine 17 Cl Q 18 17

Uranium R 92 146 92
 Element Symbol No of Protons No of Neutrons No of Electrons

19
S F
9 9 10 9

Answer

Element Symbol No of Protons No of Neutrons No of Electrons

23
Sodium 11 Na 11 12 11

35
Chlorine 17 Cl 17 18 17

238
Uranium 92 U 92 146 92

19
Fluorine F
9 9 10 9

P — 12

Q — 17

R — 23892U

S — Fluorine

Question 3

The atom of an element is made up of 4 protons, 5 neutrons and 4 electrons. What are its atomic
number and mass number ?

Answer

Atomic number (Number of protons or number of electrons) = 4

Mass number (Number of protons + Number of neutrons) = 4 + 5 = 9

Question 4

The atomic number and mass number of sodium are 11 and 23 respectively. What information is
conveyed by this statement?

Answer
Atomic number of sodium is 11 implies that number of protons in the nucleus of sodium =
number of electrons in a neutral atom of sodium = 11

Mass number of sodium is 23 implies that the sum of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of
sodium = 23

Question 5

Write down the names of the particles represented by the following symbols and explain the
meaning of superscript and subscript numbers attached.

1p1, 0n1, -1e0

Answer

p = proton

n = neutron

e = electron

Superscript Subscript
Particle Symbol Charge mass
(electronic unit) (amu)

Electron -1 e0 -1 1184018401 = 0

Proton 1p1 +1 1

Neutron 0n1 0 1

Question 6

From the symbol 2412Mg state the mass number, the atomic number and electronic configuration
of magnesium.

Answer

Mass number = 24

Atomic number = 12

No. of electrons = 24 - 12 = 12
Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 2

Question 7

Sulphur has an atomic number 16 and mass number of 32. State the number of protons and
neutrons in the nucleus of sulphur. Give a simple diagram to show the arrangement of electrons
in an atom of sulphur.

Answer

Given, Atomic number = 16 and mass number = 32

So, Number of protons = 16

Number of electrons = 16

Number of neutrons = 32 – 16 = 16

Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 6

Below diagram shows the arrangement of the electrons in an atom of sulphur:

Question 8

Explain the rule according to which electrons are filled in various energy levels.

Answer

Distribution of electrons into various orbits was suggested by Bohr and Bury

1. The maximum possible number of electrons in a particular shell is given by the formula 2n 2,
where n is the serial number of that shell.
First shell or K shell has (2 x 12) = 2 electrons
Second shell or L shell has (2 x 22) = 8 electrons
Third shell or M shell has (2 x 32) = 18 electrons
 Fourth shell or N shell has (2 x 42) = 32 electrons
and so on.
2. Electrons are not accommodated in a given shell unless the inner shells are filled. In other words
the shells are filled in stepwise manner.
3. The outermost shell of an atom cannot accommodate more than 8 electrons, even if it has the
capacity to accommodate more than 8 electrons.
4. The outermost shell of a chemically stable atom can accommodate a maximum of 8 electrons,
except Hydrogen and Helium atoms, which have only one shell, and can thus accommodate a
maximum of 2 electrons only.

Question 9

Draw the orbital diagram of 2040Ca+2 ion and state the number of three fundamental particles
present in it.

Answer

Below is the orbital diagram of 2040Ca+2 ion:

Three fundamental particles of 2040Ca+2 are:

1. Protons — 20
2. Electrons — 18
3. Neutrons — 40 - 20 = 20

Question 10

Write down the electronic configuration of the following:

(a) 1327X

(b) 1735Y
Write down the number of electrons in X and neutrons in Y.

Answer

(a) electronic configuration of 1327X is [2, 8, 3]

(b) electronic configuration of 1735Y is [2, 8, 7]

Number of electrons in X = 13

Mass number of Y = 35 and number of protons in Y = 17

∴ Number of neutrons in Y = 35 - 17 = 18

Exercise 4(C)

Question 1(a)

Rutherford's alpha-particle scattering experiment led to the discovery of :

1. Electron
2. Proton
3. Atomic nucleus
4. Neutron

Answer

Atomic nucleus

Reason — Rutherford through an experiment, directed a stream of α-particles towards a very

thin gold foil. Most of the α-particles passed through the metal foil without deviating from their
path. Very few (nearly one in ten thousand) alpha particles were either deflected by very large
angles or completely bounced back. This suggested the presence of a positively charged mass at
the centre of the atom, known as the nucleus.

Question 1(b)

The number of valence electrons in O2- is :

1. 6
2. 8
3. 10
4. 4

Answer
8

Reason — Oxygen has atomic no. 8. Its electronic configuration becomes 2, 6 i.e., it has 6
valence electrons. In O2-, there are two more electrons. Hence, number of valence electrons in
O2- is 8.

Question 1(c)

Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of potassium ?

1. 2, 8, 9
2. 8, 2, 9
3. 2, 8, 8, 1
4. 1, 2, 8, 8

Answer

2, 8, 8, 1

Reason — Potassium has 19 electrons hence the electronic configuration is [2, 8, 8, 1]

Question 1(d)

The mass number of an atom whose unipositive ion has 10 electrons and 12 neutrons is :

1. 23
2. 22
3. 20
4. 21

Answer

23

Reason — As the atom is unipositive so the actual number of electrons must be 11 and mass
number will be 11 + 12 = 23

Question 1(e)

The number of valence electrons in Cl- ion is:

1. 16
2. 8
3. 17
4. 18
Answer

Reason — Chlorine has atomic number 17 and electronic configuration is 2, 8, 7. For Cl-,
number of electrons increases by 1 hence electronic configuration becomes 2, 8, 8 and valence
electrons will be 8.

Question 1(f)

The correct electronic configuration of Fluorine is:

1. 2, 8
2. 8, 2, 1
3. 7, 2
4. 2, 7

Answer

2, 7

Reason — Fluorine has atomic number 9 and electronic configuration is 2, 7.

Question 1(g)

An element 'A' has 15 electrons and 16 neutrons. The correct representation of this element is:
16
1. 15A
31
2. 16A
31
3. 15A
15
4. 16A

Answer
31
15A

Reason — Atomic number is 15 so it will be written in subscript and mass number = 15 + 16 =

31 so it will be written in superscript. Hence the correct representation will be 3115A

Question 1(h)

An atom having 3 protons and 4 neutrons will have a valency of :

1. 3
2. 7
3. 1
 4. 4

Answer

Reason — Number of electrons = number of protons = 3, hence electronic configuration = 2,1.

Hence, the valency is 1.

Question 1(i)

Elements with valency 2 are:

1. Always metals
2. Always non-metals
3. Can be metals or non-metals
4. Metalloids (semi metals)

Answer

Can be metals or non-metals

Reason — If the element shows positive valency it is a metal (e.g., Beryllium) and if the element
shows negative valency it will be a non-metal (e.g., Sulphur).

Question 1(j)

Nucleus of an atom is composed of :

1. Electrons and neutrons

2. Protons and neutrons
3. Protons, neutrons and electrons
4. Electrons and protons

Answer

Protons and neutrons

Reason — The nucleus is located at the centre of the atom, it contains protons and neutrons,
which account for the total mass of that atom.

Question 1(k)

There are 3 electrons in M shell of an atom. Its atomic number is:

1. 11
 2. 13
3. 15
4. 3

Answer

13

Reason — M shell has 3 electrons so the electronic configuration becomes 2, 8, 3. Hence the
total number of electrons = 13 and the atomic number becomes 13.

Question 1(l)

The maximum number of electrons that M shell can occupy is:

1. 18
2. 8
3. 2
4. 10

Answer

18

Reason — The maximum possible number of electrons in a particular shell is given by the
formula 2n2, where n is the serial number of that shell.
Third shell or M shell has (2 x 32) = 18 electrons

Question 1(m)

Which orbit is nearest to the nucleus of an atom?

1. K
2. L
3. M
4. N

Answer

Reason — Orbits are arranged as K, L, M, N. So the orbit closest to the nucleus is K.

Question 1(n)

Atoms combine to attain an electronic configuration similar to their nearest :

 1. Metals
2. Noble gas
3. Non-metals
4. Semi metals

Answer

Noble gas

Reason — Elements tend to combine with one another to attain the stable electronic
configuration of the nearest noble gas i.e., 2 or 8 electrons in its valence shell.

Question 1(o)

Isotopes differ in the number of their:

1. Electrons
2. Protons
3. Neutrons
4. Electrons and protons

Answer

Neutrons

Reason — Isotopes are the elements having the same atomic number but different mass
numbers.

For example : 2412Mg and 2612Mg

Isotopes differ in terms of neutrons.

Question 2

Name the following:

(a) The element which does not contain any neutron in its nucleus.

(b) An element having valency 'zero'.

(c) Metal with valency 2

(d) Two atoms having the same number of protons and electrons but different number of
neutrons.

(e) The shell closest to the nucleus of an atom.

Answer

(a) Hydrogen

(b) Helium

(c) Magnesium

(d) Isotopes

(e) K shell

Question 3

Match the atomic numbers 4, 14, 8, 15 and 19 with each of the following :

(a) A solid non-metal of valency 3.

(b) A gas of valency 2.

(c) A metal of valency 1.

(d) A non-metal of valency 4.

Answer

Property Atomic Number

A solid non-metal of valency 3 15

A gas of valency 2 8

A metal of valency 1 19

A non-metal of valency 4 14

Explanation

(a) As atomic number 15 has electronic configuration [2,8,5], so it is a non-metal having 5

electrons in the valence shell and needs three electrons to complete its octet so it has a valency 3.

(b) As atomic number is 8, so it has the electronic configuration of [2,6] and it needs 2 electrons
to complete its octet hence, it is a gas of valency 2
(c) As atomic number 19 has electronic configuration [2,8,8,1], so it is a metal having 1 electron
in the valence shell and donates its one electron to complete its octet so it has a valency 1.

(d) As atomic number 14 has electronic configuration [2,8,4], so it is a non-metal having 4

electrons in the valence shell and needs four electrons to complete its octet so it has a valency 4.

Question 4

(a) What are inert elements?

(b) Why do they exist as monoatoms in molecules?

(c) What are valence electrons?

Answer

(a) Elements with the valence shell having 8 electrons and helium with 2 electrons, cannot gain
or lose electrons so they are chemically inactive and are called inert elements.

(b) Inert elements exist as monoatoms because they have a completely filled outermost electron
shell. This makes them very stable and unlikely to form chemical bonds with other atoms.
Hence, they tend to exist as monoatoms in molecules rather than participating in chemical
reactions.

(c) Electrons present in the outermost shell (i.e., valence shell) of an atom are valence electrons.

Question 5

In what respect do the three isotopes of hydrogen differ ? Give their structures.

Answer

Hydrogen has three isotopes i.e., namely protium (11H), deuterium (21H) and tritium (31H) each
having the same atomic number i.e., 1 but different mass numbers i.e., 1, 2 and 3 respectively.

Hence, all three have same number of electrons and protons whereas number of neutrons are 0,
1 and 2 respectively.

Isotopes of Hydrogen
Question 6

What is the significance of the number of protons found in the atoms of different elements?

Answer

As elements are arranged on the basis of the number of protons in their respective atoms,
therefore, proton helps in determining and understanding the structure and behavior of an atom.
Protons also determine the positive charge of the nucleus in the atom

Question 7

Element X has electronic configuration 2, 8, 18, 8, 1. Without identifying X,

(a) predict the sign and charge on a simple ion of X.

(b) write if X will be an oxidizing agent or a reducing agent. Why?

Answer

(a) X+

Reason — Since the element X has 1 electron in its valence shell. So, it will lose an electron and
gain noble gas configuration. Therefore it forms a cation (X+). The sign is positive and the charge
is of 1 proton.

(b) X will be a strong reducing agent as it has the tendency to donate its valence electron.

Question 8

Define the terms :

(a) mass number

(b) ion
(c) cation

(d) anion

(e) element

(f) orbit.

Answer

(a) Mass number (A) — The mass number of an atom is equal to the total number of nucleons
(i.e., the sum of the number of protons and the number of neutrons ) in it's nucleus. It is denoted
by A.

A = number of protons + number of neutrons

Mass number however is a whole number approximation of the atomic mass calculated in atomic
mass units.

(b) Ion — An ion is a charged particle which is formed due to the gain or loss of one or more
electrons by an atom.

For example, a sodium ion (Na+) is formed when a sodium atom loses one electron and Chlorine
ion (Cl-) ion is formed when a chlorine atom gains an electron.

(c) Cation — A metallic atom, which loses electron(s), becomes a positively charged ion and is
known as a cation.

(d) Anion — A non-metallic atom, which gains electron(s) becomes a negatively charged ion
and is known as an anion.

(e) Element — An element is a pure substance that can neither be formed from, nor decomposed
into simple substances by ordinary physical or chemical methods.

(f) Orbit — The imaginary circular path around the nucleus of an atom, in which the electrons
revolve.

Question 9

From the symbol 42He for the element helium, write down the mass number and the atomic
number of the element.

Answer

Atomic number = 2

Mass number = 4
Question 10

An atom of an element has two electrons in the M shell. What is the

(a) atomic number

(b) number of protons in this element?

Answer

(a) Number of electrons in the M shell = 2. So, the electrons in the K and L shells = 2 and 8

Hence, atomic number = 2 + 8 + 2 = 12

(b) As number of protons = number of electrons = 12

Question 11

Five atoms are labelled A to E.

Atoms Mass no. Atomic no.

A 40 20

B 19 9

C 7 3

D 16 8

E 14 7

(a) Which one of these atoms:

(i) contains 7 protons

(ii) has electronic configuration 2, 7?

(b) Write down the formula of the compound formed between C and D.

(c) Predict :

(i) metals
(ii) non-metals.

Answer

(a) (i) Atom E.

As its atomic number is given as 7, therefore it contains 7 protons.

(ii) Atom B.

As its atomic number is 9, hence it has 9 electrons, therefore, its electronic configuration is 2, 7.

(b) Atom C has electronic configuration : [2, 1]

Atom D has electronic configuration : [2, 6]

As D requires two electrons to complete its octet, hence, it combines with two atoms of C which
donate their valence electrons to attain stable noble gas configuration and D accepts the two
electrons and attains a stable state, hence the formula of the compound formed between C and D
is C2D

(c) (i) Metals: A [2,8,8,2] and C [2,1]

Reason — As the elements A and C have 2 and 1 electrons respectively in the valence shells
hence, they are metals.

(ii) Non-metals: B [2,7], D [2,6], E [2,5].

Reason — As the elements B,D and E have 7,6 and 5 electrons respectively in the valence shell,
hence they are non-metals.

Question 12

1224Mg1224Mg and 1226Mg1226Mg are symbols of two isotopes of magnesium. Compare

the atoms of these isotopes with respect to :

(i) the composition of their nuclei.

(ii) their electronic configurations.

(iii) give the reason why the two isotopes of magnesium have different mass numbers.

Answer

(i) The composition of their nuclei :

1224Mg1224Mg :
Atomic number [Z] = electron [e] = proton [p] = 12
Mass number [A] = 24

As, neutron [n] = A - Z = 24 - 12 = 12.

Hence, p = 12, n = 12

1226Mg1226Mg :
Atomic number [Z] = electron [e] = proton [p] = 12

Mass number [A] = 26

As, neutron [n] = A - Z = 26 - 12 = 14.

Hence, p = 12, n = 14

(ii) Their electronic configurations :

1224Mg1224Mg :
As electron [e] = 12 hence, electronic configuration = 2,8,2

1226Mg1226Mg :
As electron [e] = 12 hence, electronic configuration = 2,8,2

(iii) Reason for difference in mass numbers — As the number of neutrons is different in the
two isotopes of magnesium, therefore, they have different mass numbers.

Question 13

What are nucleons? How many nucleons are present in phosphorus? Draw its structure.

Answer

Constituents of the nucleus are called nucleons, i.e. protons and neutrons.
31
P has atomic number 15, hence it has 15 protons.
15

Mass number 31, hence number of neutrons = 31 - 15 = 16

Therefore, number of nucleons are p + n = 15 + 16 = 31.

Structure of Phosphorus is shown in the diagram below:

Question 14

What are isotopes? With reference to which fundamental particle do isotopes differ ? Give two
uses of isotopes.

Answer

Isotopes are atoms of the same element having same atomic number but different mass
number.

For example : 2412Mg and 2612Mg

Isotopes differ in the number of neutrons.

Uses of isotopes

1. Radioactive isotopes are used in industry to detect the leakage in underground oil pipelines, gas
pipelines and water pipelines.
2. An isotope of Uranium 23592U is used as a fuel in nuclear reactors.

Question 15

Why do 3517Cl and 3717Cl have the same chemical properties? In what respect do these atoms
differ?

Answer

Isotopes have the same atomic number i.e., the same number of electrons and protons and hence
the same electronic configuration. Chemical properties are determined by the electronic
configuration of an atom. Thus, the isotopes of an element are chemically alike.

Isotopes have different mass numbers [A] due to different number of neutrons. 3517Cl has 18
neutrons whereas 3717Cl has 20 neutrons. Due to different atomic masses these atoms differ in
their physical properties like density, melting point, boiling point, etc.
Question 16

Explain fractional atomic mass. What is the fractional mass of chlorine?

Answer

Fractional atomic mass is the weighted average of the atomic masses of all the naturally
occurring isotopes of that element.

Fractional mass of chlorine is 35.5.

Any natural sample of chlorine contains 75% of 3517Cl and 25% 3717Cl, i.e., these isotopes are in
the ratio of 3:1 respectively. Thus, average atomic mass of chlorine is calculated as

(35×3)+(37×1)44(35×3)+(37×1) = 35.5. Therefore, atomic mass of chlorine atom is 35.5

Question 17

(a) What is meant by 'atomic number of an element'?

(b) Complete the table given below:

No of protons No of electrons No of neutrons Atomic number Mass number

35
17 Cl

37
17 Cl

(c) Write down the electronic configuration of

(i) Chlorine atom

(ii) Chloride ion

Answer

(a) Atomic number of an element is the number of:

 electrons present in its neutral atom.

 protons present in the nucleus of its atom.
 positive charge in the nucleus of its atom.
 it is denoted by Z.

(b) Complete the table given below:

 No of protons No of electrons No of neutrons Atomic number Mass number

35
Cl
17 17 17 18 17 35

37
Cl
17 17 17 20 17 37

(c) Write down the electronic configuration of

(i) Chlorine atom — 2, 8, 7

(ii) Chloride ion — 2, 8, 8

Question 18

Draw diagrams representing the atomic structures of the following

(a) Sodium atom

(b) Chloride ion

(c) Carbon atom

(d) Oxide ion.

Answer

(a) Sodium atom —

(b) Chloride ion —

(c) Carbon atom —

(d) Oxide ion —

Question 19
Complete the following table relating to the atomic structure of some elements.

Element Atomic Mass Number of Number of Number of

Symbol Number Number Neutrons Electrons Protons

Li 3 6

Cl 17 20

Na 12 11

Al 27 13

S 32 16

Answer

Element Atomic Mass Number of Number of Number of

Symbol Number Number neutrons electrons protons

Li 3 6 3 3 3

Cl 17 37 20 17 17

Na 11 23 12 11 11

Al 13 27 14 13 13

S 16 32 16 16 16

Question 20

Give reasons

(a) Physical properties of isotopes are different.

(b) Argon does not react.

(c) Actual atomic mass is greater than mass number.

(d) 3517Cl and 3717Cl do not differ in their chemical reactions.

Answer

(a) Physical properties depend on the atomic mass (mass number) and isotopes have different
mass numbers due to different number of neutrons hence they differ in their physical properties.

(b) Argon [2, 8, 8] does not react or do not combine either with other atoms or among themselves
to form molecules, since their octet is already complete, hence, they are in a stable state and their
combining capacity is zero.

(c) Actual atomic mass is greater than the mass number because the mass number is a whole
number approximation of atomic mass unit. Actual atomic mass is fractional as it is the weighted
average of all the naturally occurring isotopes of that element.

(d) Chemical properties are determined by the electronic configuration of an atom and electronic
configuration of both isotopes of chlorine is same, i.e., electronic configuration of 3517Cl is [2,8,7]
and electronic configuration of 3717Cl is [2,8,7], hence they both have same chemical properties.

Question 21

Give the use of the following isotopes:

(a) Radioactive isotopes

(b) 235U

(c) 60Co

(d) 131I

(e) 14C

Answer

(a) Radioactive isotopes — Used in industry to detect the leakage in underground oil pipelines,
gas pipelines and water pipelines.

(b) 235U — Used as fuel in nuclear reactors.

(c) 60Co — used in radiotherapy for treating cancer and other diseases.

(d) 131I — Used in treatment of goitre.

(e) 14C — Used for determining the age of historical and geological material.
Question 22

How does the Modern atomic theory contradict and correlate with Dalton's atomic theory?

Answer

Contradictions with Modern atomic theory:

Dalton's atomic theory Modern atomic theory

Atoms are divisible into sub-atomic particles like

Atoms are indivisible particles.
protons, electrons and neutrons.

Atoms can be created and destroyed by nuclear fusion

Atoms can neither be created nor be destroyed.
and fission.

The atoms of an element are alike in all respects, but they The atoms of an element may not be alike in all
differ from the atoms of other atoms. respects, as seen in the case of isotopes.

Atoms of elements combine in small whole numbers to In the formation of organic compounds, the numbers
form molecules. can be very big such as thousands.

Correlation with Modern atomic theory:

The modern atomic theory however correlates with Dalton's atomic theory in the fact that atoms
are the smallest unit of matter taking part in a chemical reaction and in a given compound the
relative number and kind of atoms is a constant.

Question 23

Explain:

(a) octet rule for formation of a chemical compound.

(b) duplet rule for formation of hydrogen.

Answer

(a) For an atom to achieve stable electronic configuration it must have 8 electrons in outermost
orbit like that of noble gases other than Helium. This is known as Octet rule.

(b) For an atom of hydrogen to achieve stable electronic configuration it must have 2 electrons in
the first shell [outermost] like that of noble gas Helium. So, two hydrogen atoms share one
electron each to become stable. This is known as Duplet rule.
Question 24

An element

A has atomic number 7, mass number 14

B has electronic configuration 2, 8, 8

C has 13 electrons, 14 neutrons

D has 18 protons 22 neutrons

E has electronic configuration 2, 8, 8, 1

State

(i) valency of each element

(ii) which one is a metal

(iii) which is a non-metal

(iv) which is an inert gas.

Answer

(i) Valency of each element:

Element A : Atomic number (number of electrons) = 7

Electronic configuration = 2, 5

Valency of A = 8 - 5 = 3

Element B : Electronic configuration 2, 8, 8

Valency of B = Zero

Element C : has 13 electrons

Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 3

Valency of C = 3

Element D : Protons = Electrons = 18

Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8

Valency of D = Zero
Element E : Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8, 1

Valency of E = 1

(ii) C and E are metals.

(iii) A is a non-metal.

(iv) B and D are inert gases.

Question 25

Elements X, Y and Z have atomic numbers 6, 9 and 12 respectively. Which one :

(a) forms an anion

(b) forms a cation

(c) has four electrons in its valence shell?

Answer

(a) Y (2, 7) forms an anion.

(b) Z (2, 8, 2) forms a cation.

(c) X (2, 4) has four electrons in the valence shell.

Exercise 4(D)

Question 1

How do atoms attain noble gas configuration?

Answer

Atoms attain noble gas configuration either by gaining electrons or losing electrons or sharing of
electrons with other atoms of the same element or another element to form a chemical
compound.

Question 2

Define electrovalent bond.

Answer
The chemical bond formed between two atoms by transfer of one or more electrons from the
atom of a metallic (electropositive) element to an atom of a non-metallic (electronegative)
element is called ionic bond or electrovalent bond.

Question 3

Elements are classified as metals, non-metals, metalloids and inert gases. Which among them
form electrovalent bonds?

Answer

Bonds formed between metals and non-metals are electrovalent bonds.

Metals have 1, 2 or 3 electrons in their valence shell. They have a tendency to lose their valence
electrons. So they combine with non-metals which have 5, 6 or 7 electrons in their valence shell
and thus have a tendency to gain electron(s) and form electrovalent bonds.

Question 4

(a) An atom X has three electrons more than the noble gas configuration. What type of ion will it
form?

(b) Write the formula of its (X)

(i) sulphate

(ii) nitrate

(iii) phosphate

(iv) carbonate

(v) hydroxide.

Answer

(a) Since there are three electrons more than the noble gas configuration in the atom so the atom
will try to lose three electron to gain noble gas configuration. Therefore, it will form a cation X 3+.

Formula of its:

(i) Sulphate — X2(SO4)3

(ii) Nitrate — X(NO3)3

(iii) Phosphate — XPO4

(iv) Carbonate — X2(CO3)3

(v) Hydroxide — X(OH)3

Question 5

Mention the basic tendency of an atom which causes it to combine with other atoms.

Answer

The basic tendency of an atom which makes it to combine with other atoms is the tendency of
elements to acquire the nearest noble gas configuration in their outermost orbit and become
stable

Question 6

What type of compounds are usually formed between metals and non-metals and why?

Answer

Compounds formed between metals and non-metals are electrovalent compounds.

The metals have 1, 2 or 3 electrons in their valence shell. They have a tendency to lose their
valence electrons. So they combine with non-metals which have five, six or seven electrons in
their valence shell and thus have a tendency to gain electron(s) and form electrovalent
compounds.

Question 7

(a) In the formation of the compound XY2, an atom X gives one electron to each Y atom. What is
the nature of bond in XY2?

(b) Draw the orbit structure of this compound (XY2).

Answer

(a) Nature of bond is ionic because the atom X gives one electron to each Y atom.

(b) Orbit structure of XY2 :

Question 8

An atom X has electronic configuration 2,8,7. It combines with Y having 1 electron in its
outermost shell.

(a) What type of bond will be formed between X and Y?

(b) Write the formula of the compound formed.

Answer

(a) Ionic Bond

Reason — Since X has 7 electrons in its outermost shell and Y has only one electron in its
outermost shell. So, Y loses its one electron and X gains that electron to form an ionic bond.

(b) The formula of the compound is XY.

Question 9

Draw orbit structure diagram of

(a) sodium chloride (NaCl)

(b) calcium oxide (CaO)

[Atomic numbers Na = 11, Ca = 20, Cl = 17, O = 8]

Answer

(a) Orbit structure of NaCl is shown below:

(b) Orbit structure diagram of calcium oxide is shown below:

Question 10

Compare :

(a) sodium atom and sodium ion

(b) chlorine atom and chloride ion, with respect to

(i) atomic structure, (ii) electrical state

Answer

(a) Comparison between sodium atom and sodium ion

 Property Sodium Atom Sodium Ion

Atomic Structure It has one electron in M shell. It has 8 electrons in L shell.

Electrical State It is neutral. It is positively charged.

(b) Comparison between chlorine atom and chloride ion

Property Chlorine Atom Chloride Ion

Atomic Structure It has 7 electrons in M shell. It has 8 electrons in M shell.

Electrical State It is neutral. It is negatively charged.

Question 11

The electronic configuration of fluoride ion is the same as that of a neon atom. What is the
difference between the two ?

Answer

The electronic configuration of Fluoride ion is the same as that of a neon atom i.e., both have 8
electrons in their valence shell but Fluoride attain that configuration by gaining an electron so it
is negatively charged but neon atom have its own 8 valence electrons so it is neutral i.e., it has no
charge on it.

Question 12

(a) What do you understand by redox reactions?

(b) Explain oxidation and reduction in terms of loss or gain of electrons.

Answer

(a) Redox Reaction — A reaction in which oxidation and reduction occur simultaneously is
called an oxidation-reduction reaction or redox reaction.

In redox reaction there is a transfer of electrons between two atoms.

(b) The reaction in which electron(s) is gained is called a reduction reaction and the reaction in
which there is a loss of electron(s) is called an oxidation reaction
Question 13

Potassium (At No. 19) and chlorine (At No. 17) form a compound. Explain the formation of the
compound on the basis of:

(a) oxidation

(b) reduction

(c) oxidising agent

(d) reducing agent.

Answer

The electronic configuration of:

Potassium (19) = 2, 8, 8, 1

Chlorine (17) = 2, 8, 7

The reaction is :

2K + Cl2 ⟶ K+ + 2Cl-

(i) Oxidation : 2K ⟶ K+
Potassium undergoes oxidation reaction as it loses an electron.

(ii) Reduction : Cl2 ⟶ 2Cl-

Chlorine undergoes reduction reaction as it gains an electron.

(iii) Chlorine acts as an oxidising agent and gets reduced.

(iv) Potassium acts as a reducing agent and gets oxidised.

Exercise 4(E) — Multiple Choice Type

Question 1

(Choose the correct answer from the options given below).

The bond formed between a metal and non-metal is called:

1. Polar covalent
2. Electrovalent
3. Covalent
4. Coordinate
Answer

Electrovalent

Reason — Metals become positively charged when they give away electrons and non-metals
become negatively charged when they accept electrons. Due to electrostatic attraction between
the two oppositely charged ions electrovalent (ionic) bonds are formed.

Question 2

(Choose the correct answer from the options given below).

The most ionic compound is:

1. NaCl
2. KBr
3. CsF
4. MgCl2

Answer

CsF

Reason — Caesium fluoride CsF, is the most ionic as caesium has the maximum tendency to
loose an electron while fluorine has the maximum tendency to gain an electron.

Question 3

(Choose the correct answer from the options given below).

The electronic configuration of Ca2+:

1. 2, 8, 8, 2
2. 2, 8, 8
3. 2, 8, 8, 4
4. 2, 8, 2

Answer

2, 8, 8

Reason — The number of electrons in calcium atom is 20 and the electronic configuration of a
neutral calcium atom is 2, 8, 8, 2. Ca2+ has two electrons less so the electronic configuration
becomes 2, 8, 8.

Question 4
(Choose the correct answer from the options given below).

The formation of electrovalent bond is an example of:

1. Oxidation reaction
2. Reduction reaction
3. Displacement reaction
4. Redox reaction

Answer

Redox reaction

Reason — In the formation of an electrovalent bond, the transfer of electron(s) is involved. The
electropositive atom loses electrons and undergoes oxidation, while the electronegative atom
gains electrons and undergoes reduction. This is known as redox reaction.

Question 5

(Choose the correct answer from the options given below).

Ionic compounds are generally:

1. Liquids
2. Gases
3. Liquids of very low boiling points
4. Solids

Answer

Solids

Reason — Ionic compounds have strong electrostatic forces of attraction between their ions,
which cannot be separated easily. Thus, they are hard, crystalline solids consisting of ions.

Question 6

(Choose the correct answer from the options given below).

An example of a double covalent bond is:

1. Nitrogen molecule
2. Hydrogen molecule
3. Oxygen molecule
4. Chlorine molecule
Answer

Oxygen molecule

Reason — To attain the stable electronic configuration of the nearest noble gas neon, oxygen
needs two electrons.

When two oxygen atoms come closer, each contributes two electrons and so they have two
shared pair of electrons between them. Both atom attain an octet, resulting in the formation of a
double covalent bond [O=O] between them.

Question 7

(Choose the correct answer from the options given below).

Which of the following is not a non polar covalent molecule:

1. Chlorine
2. Methane
3. Hydrogen chloride
4. Carbon tetrachloride

Answer

Hydrogen chloride

Reason — The covalent bond is said to be polar when the shared pair of electrons are not at
equal distance between the two atoms. This results in the development of fractional positive
charge and negative charge on them and they ionise in water. For example: hydrogen chloride.

Question 8

(Choose the correct answer from the options given below).

The total number of atoms present in a carbon tetrachloride molecule is:

1. 4
2. 3
3. 5
4. 6

Answer

Reason — One carbon atom and 4 chlorine atoms combine to form a carbon tetrachloride (CCl4)
molecule.
Question 9

(Choose the correct answer from the options given below).

Three pair of electrons are shared in a molecule of:

1. Oxygen
2. Hydrogen
3. Methane
4. Nitrogen

Answer

Nitrogen

Reason — To attain the stable electronic configuration of the nearest noble gas neon, nitrogen
needs three electrons.

When two nitrogen atoms come closer, each contributes three electrons and so they have three
shared pair of electrons between them. Both atom attain an octet, resulting in the formation of a
triple covalent bond [N≡N] between them.

Question 10

(Choose the correct answer from the options given below).

In the formation of CCl4 molecule, the nearest noble gas configuration attained by carbon and
chlorine respectively are :

1. Argon and neon

2. Helium and neon
3. Neon and argon
4. Helium and argon

Answer

Neon and argon

Reason —

Atoms involved Electronic configuration Nearest noble gas

Carbon C [2,4] Neon [2,8]

Chlorine Cl [2,8,7] Argon [2,8,8]

 Atoms involved Electronic configuration Nearest noble gas

Question 11

(Choose the correct answer from the options given below).

The characteristic of an electrovalent compound is that :

1. It is formed by sharing of electrons

2. It is formed between metals and non-metals
3. It is formed between two non-metals
4. It often exists as a liquid.

Answer

It is formed between metals and non-metals

Reason — Bonds formed between metals and non-metals are electrovalent bonds.

Metals have 1, 2 or 3 electrons in their valence shell. They have a tendency to lose their valence
electrons. So they combine with non-metals which have 5, 6 or 7 electrons in their valence shell
and thus have a tendency to gain electron(s) and form electrovalent bonds.

Question 12

(Choose the correct answer from the options given below).

When a metal atom becomes an ion:

1. It loses electrons and is oxidized.

2. It gains electrons and is reduced.
3. It gains electrons and is oxidized
4. It loses electrons and is reduced.

Answer

It loses electrons and is oxidized.

Reason — As oxidation is loss of electrons so the metal atom is oxidised after losing electrons.

Question 13
(Choose the correct answer from the options given below).

An element Y has 2 electrons in the 2nd orbit and X has 7 electrons in its 3rd orbit. The
compound formed between them has the formula:

1. XY2
2. YX2
3. YX
4. Y7X2

Answer

XY2

Reason — As element X has 2 electrons in its 2nd orbit, so the electronic configuration of X is
[2, 2] and Y has 7 electrons in the third orbit so its electronic configuration as [2, 8, 7]

X donates it two valence electrons and completes its octet and two atoms of Y accept the
electrons to attain the octet, hence the compound formed is XY2.

Exercise 4(E) — Very Short Answer Type

Question 1

Match the atomic numbers 4, 8, 10, 15 and 19 with each of the following:

(a) Element which can form trivalent ion.

(b) An element with 4 shells.

(c) Element with 6 valence electrons.

(d) Element which does not form ion.

Answer

Property Atomic number

Element which can form trivalent ion 15

An element with 4 shells 19

Element with 6 valence electrons 8

 Property Atomic number

Element which does not form ion 10

Explanation:

1. Electronic configuration of an element with atomic number 15 is [2, 8, 5], hence, it needs three
electrons to complete its octet and forms a trivalent ion.
2. Electronic configuration of an element with atomic number 19 is [2, 8, 8, 1], hence, it has K, L,
M, N shells.
3. Electronic configuration of an element with atomic number 8 is [2, 6], hence it has 6 electrons in
the outermost shell called valence electrons.
4. Electronic configuration of an element with atomic number 10 is [2, 8], so its octet is complete
and it does not form ions.

Question 2

Identify the following reactions as either oxidation or reduction:

(i) O + 2e- ⟶ O2-

(ii) K - e- ⟶ K+

(iii) Fe3+ + e- ⟶ Fe2+

(iv) Zn ⟶ Zn2+ + 2e-

Answer

(i) Reduction, since there is a gain of 2 electrons by Oxygen.

(ii) Oxidation, since there is a loss of an electron by Potassium.

(iii) Reduction, since there is a gain of an electron by Iron.

(iv) Oxidation, since there is a loss of two electrons by Zinc.

Question 3

Give the terms for the following definitions:

(a) A bond formed by a shared pair of electrons, each bonding atom contributing one electron to
the pair.

(b) A bond formed by transfer of electron(s).

Answer

(a) Single Covalent bond

(b) Electrovalent bond

Question 4

Name or state the following.

(a) An element having valency zero.

(b) Metal with valency one.

(c) Atoms of the same element differing in mass numbers.

(d) Elements having same mass number but different atomic number.

(e) Bond formed by transfer of electrons(s)

(f) Ion formed by gain of electron(s)

Answer

(a) Helium (Inert element)

(b) Lithium

(c) Isotopes

(d) Isobars

(e) Electrovalent or Ionic bond

(f) Anion

Exercise 4(E) — Short Answer Type

Question 1

(a) Define covalent (molecular) bond.

(b) Give an example of covalent bond formed by

(i) similar atoms

(b) dissimilar atoms

Answer

(a) Covalent Bond — The chemical bond that is formed between two combining atoms by
mutual sharing of one or more pair of electrons is called a covalent bond. Depending on the
number of electron pairs shared : bond is single [-], double [=], or triple [≡] covalent.

(b) (i) Bond formed between two H atoms; H-H

A hydrogen atom has one electron in its only shell. It needs one more electron to attain duplet.
To meet this need, hydrogen atom shares its electron with another hydrogen atom. Thus, one
electron each is contributed by the two atoms of hydrogen, and the resulting pair of electrons is
mutually shared by both the atoms to form a hydrogen molecule.

(ii) Bond formed between a hydrogen atom and chlorine atom; H‒Cl

In the case of hydrogen chloride molecule, hydrogen atom shares an electron pair with chlorine
atom, such that hydrogen acquires a duplet configuration and chlorine an octet, resulting in the
formation of a single covalent bond.

Question 2

An element A has 1 electron in its first shell. It combines with element B having 7 electrons in its
third shell. What type of bond is formed ?

Answer

Element A with 1 electron in its first shell is hydrogen, and element B with 7 electrons in its third
shell is chlorine. So, a single covalent bond is formed between hydrogen and chlorine by sharing
one pair of electron.

Question 3

If electrons are getting added to an element Y; then

(a) what charge will Y have?

(b) is Y getting oxidized or reduced ?

Answer

(i) Y will have negative charge as electrons are getting added to it.

(ii) Y is getting reduced as reduction is gain of electrons.

Question 4

(a) Elements X, Y and Z have atomic numbers 6, 9 and 12 respectively. Which one:
(i) forms an anion,

(ii) forms a cation,

(b) State the type of bond between Y and Z and give, its molecular formula.

Answer

(a) X[6] = Electronic configuration [2,4]

Y[9] = Electronic configuration [2,7]

Z[12] = Electronic configuration [2,8,2]

(i) Y gains one electron to attain a stable octet, hence becomes negatively charged anion.

(ii) Z loses two electrons to attain a stable octet hence becomes positively charged cation.

(b) Ionic bond with molecular formula ZY2.

Question 5

Potassium Chloride is an electrovalent compound, while hydrogen chloride is a covalent

compound. But, both conduct electricity in their aqueous solutions. Why?

Answer

Potassium chloride being an electrovalent compound consists of ions. In aqueous solution state,
the electrostatic forces between them weaken and the ions become mobile conducting electricity.

On the other hand, hydrogen chloride is a polar covalent compound. The shared electron pair is
shifted towards Chlorine thereby developing a slight negative charge on it and a slight positive
charge on hydrogen atom. In its aqueous solution state, hydrogen chloride ionises into
Hydronium and Chloride ions as shown in the equation below. These ions help in conducting
electricity.

HCl + H2O ⇌ H3O+ + Cl-

Question 6

Name two compounds that are covalent when taken pure but produce ions when dissolved in
water.

Answer

Hydrogen Chloride (HCl) & Ammonia (NH3)

Question 7
An element M burns in oxygen to form an ionic compound MO. Write the formula of the
compounds formed if this element is made to combine with chlorine and sulphur separately.

Answer

With Chlorine — MCl2

With Sulphur — MS

Explanation:

Given, M reacts with oxygen to form an ionic bond MO. Oxygen needs 2 electrons to complete
its octet forming the anion O2-. As the compound formed is MO, it means that M has 2 electrons
in its valence shell which it donates to Oxygen to attain a stable electronic configuration forming
a cation M2+.

Each Chlorine atom accepts 1 electron to complete its octet so 2 Chlorine atoms combine with 1
atom of M to form MCl2. Each Sulphur atom accepts 2 electrons to complete its Octet so 1
Sulphur atom combines with 1 atom of M to form MS.

Question 8

State the type of bonding in the following molecules.

(a) water,

(b) calcium oxide,

(c) hydrogen chloride

Answer

Covalent bonding
Reason — The valency of hydrogen element is 1 and that of oxygen is 2. Hydrogen needs one
electrons to attain stable duplet structure of nearest noble gas - He [2] and oxygen needs two
electrons to attain stable octet structure of nearest noble gas - Ne [2,8]
Each of the two hydrogen atoms shares an electron pair with the oxygen atom such that hydrogen
acquires a duplet configuration and oxygen an octet configuration resulting in the formation of
two single covalent bonds [H-O-H] in the molecule of water.
(ii) Electrovalent bonding
Reason — The valency of calcium (2,8,8,2) element and that of oxygen (2,6) is 2. Calcium
donates two electrons and oxygen takes up those two electrons and electrovalent bond is formed.

(iii) Polar covalent bonding Reason — In hydrogen chloride, the strong nuclear charge of the
chlorine atom attracts the shared electron pair towards itself, i.e., negative charge shifts towards
the chlorine atom thereby developing a slight negative charge on it. The hydrogen atom develops
a slight positive charge. Therefore, a polar covalent bond is formed as shown below :

Question 9

The atomic species X and Y have different number of protons but the same number of nucleons.
While atoms A and B have the same number of protons but different number of nucleons.

(a) Which of them are

(i) isotopes

(ii) isobars ?

(b) Give one example of each.

Answer

(a) (i) A and B are isotopes, as they have same atomic number but different mass number.

(ii) X and Y are isobars, as they have same mass number but different atomic number.

(b) (i) Examples of isotopes — 3517Cl, 3717Cl

(ii) Examples of isobars — 4018Ar, 4020Ca

Exercise 4(E) — Descriptive Type

Question 1
Covalent bonds can be single, double or triple covalent bond.

(a) How many electrons are shared in each?

(b) Give an example of each type.

Answer

A single covalent bond is formed by sharing of one pair of electrons between the atoms, each
atom contributing one electron.

Ex: Molecule of hydrogen [H-H]

A double covalent bond is formed by sharing of two pairs of electrons between two atoms.

Ex: Molecule of oxygen [O=O]

A triple covalent bond is formed by sharing of three pairs of electrons between two atoms.

Ex: Molecule of nitrogen [N≡N]

Question 2

Taking MgCl2, as an example of electrovalent bond, CCl4 as a covalent bond. Give a difference
between electrovalent and covalent bonds.

Answer

Magnesium loses its two valence electrons to acquire a stable octet. The two chlorine atoms
accept one each of these electrons to acquire a stable octet. Thus, electrovalent bond in MgCl 2 is
formed by transfer of electrons.
When a molecule of CCl4 is to be formed, one atom of carbon shares four electron pairs, one
with each of the four atoms of chlorine. Thus, covalent bond is formed by sharing of electrons.

Question 3

Give orbital diagram of the following :

(a) magnesium chloride,

(b) nitrogen

(c) methane

(d) hydrogen chloride

Answer
(a) Orbital diagram of Magnesium Chloride

(b) Orbital diagram of Nitrogen

(c) Orbital diagram of Methane

(d) Orbital diagram of Hydrogen Chloride
Question 4
Metal M forms a chloride with the formula MCl2. What type of bond is in MCl2? Write the
formula of the compound when M combines with sulphur, oxygen and nitrogen.

Answer

The bond formed between metal (M) and non-metal (chlorine) is ionic bond.

As M bonds with two chlorine atoms having electronic configuration [2,8,7], so we can say that
M donates two electrons to two chlorine atoms to complete their octet and therefore, it has a
valency of 2.

When metal (M) having +2 valency combines with sulphur [2,8,6] having -2 valency, M donates
its two valence electrons to sulphur and formula of compound formed is MgS

When metal(M) having +2 valency combines with oxygen [2,6] having -2 valency, M donates its
two valence electrons to oxygen and formula of compound formed is MgO

When metal (M) atoms having +2 valency combines with nitrogen [2,5] having -3 valency then
an ionic bond is formed by the transfer of 6 electrons from 3 metal (M) atoms to 2 nitrogen
atoms, hence the formula of the compound is Mg3N2.

Question 5

Explain the following :

(a) Mass of an atom is concentrated inside the nucleus of the atom.

(b) Atoms combine by transfer and sharing of electron(s).

(c) An element has atoms with different mass number.

(d) Carbon-12 and carbon-14 both show similar chemical properties

Answer

(a) Atom is made of primarily three sub-atomic particles namely electrons, protons and neutrons.
An electron has negligible mass, and protons and neutron lie inside the nucleus, hence, mass of
an atom is majorly present in the nucleus.

(b) Elements tend to combine with one another to attain the stable electronic configuration of the
nearest noble gas. This is achieved either by gaining electrons or losing electrons or sharing of
electrons with other atoms of the same element or another element to form a chemical
compound.

(c) Isotopes are the elements having the same atomic number but different mass numbers.

For example : 2412Mg and 2612Mg

Isotopes differ in the number of neutrons.

(d) Chemical properties are determined by the electronic configuration of an atom and electronic
configuration of both isotopes of carbon is same, i.e., electronic configuration of C-12 is [2,4]
and electronic configuration of C-14 is [2,4], hence they both have same chemical properties.

Question 6

With the help of a diagram, state the number of bonds and the type of bonds in:

(a) ethene molecule

(b) ethyne molecule

Answer

(a) Ethene molecule [C2H4] — It has one double covalent bond between the 2 Carbon atoms and
four single covalent bonds with hydrogen atoms.

(b) Ethyne molecule [C2H2] — It has one triple covalent bond between the 2 Carbon atoms and
2 single covalent bonds with hydrogen atoms.
Exercise 4(E) — Structured/Application/Skill Type

Question 1

The atom of an element A has 6 electrons in its M shell.

(a) Write the electronic configuration of element A.

(b) What is the atomic number of element A?

(c) Is it a metal or a non-metal?

(d) What type of ion will be formed by an atom of element A? Write the symbol of the ion
formed.

(e) What could element A be ?

(f) Draw the orbital structure of A and its ion.

Answer

(a) [2, 8, 6], as it has three shells — K, L, M.

(b) 16, as atomic number is the total number of electrons so, 2+8+6 = 16

(c) Non-metal, as it has 6 electrons in the valence shell and will accept 2 electrons to complete
its octet.

(d) Anion, A2-, as element A has 6 valence electrons so it has a valency of -2 and it will take two
electrons, complete its octet and become a negatively charged ion.

(e) Sulphur, as sulphur also has the electronic configuration of [2, 8, 6].

(f) Orbital structure of A and its ion is shown below:

Question 2

An atom of an element Y may be written as 94Y.

(a) What does the figure 9 indicate?

(b) What does the figure 4 indicate?

(c) What is the number of protons in atom Y?

(d) What is the number of neutrons in atom Y?

(e) What is the number of electrons in atom Y?

(f) How many electrons are there in the outermost shell of an atom of element Y?

(g) Write the symbol of ion formed by an atom of element Y?

Answer

(a) Mass number is indicated by figure 9, which is the sum of protons and neutrons in the
nucleus of an atom.

(b) Atomic number is indicated by figure 4, which is the number of electrons present in a
neutral atom.

(c) 4, as the atomic number also indicates the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.

(d) 5, number of neutron = mass number - number of protons = 9-4=5

(e) 4, as the atomic number is 4, which is the number of electrons present in a neutral atom.

(f) 2, its electronic configuration is [2, 2]

(g) Y2+, as it has the valency of +2, hence it loses two valence electrons and becomes a positively
charged ion.

Question 3

Atom A is represented as 20982A, atom B as 20983B and atom C as 21182C

(a) How many electrons, protons and neutrons do A, B and C have?

(b) Which two atoms have the different number of nucleons?

(c) Name the term which can be used for A and C atoms.

(d) Define the term mentioned in part (c) above.

Answer

(a)

Atom Electron (e) Proton (p) Neutron (n = mass number - p)

209
A
82 82 82 209 - 82 = 127

209
B
83 83 83 209 - 83 = 126

211
C
82 82 82 211 - 82 = 129

(b) A and C have different number of nucleon, because the number of protons is same in both but
number of neutrons are different.

(c) Isotopes

(d) Isotopes are atoms of the same element having the same atomic number but different mass
numbers.

Question 4

(a) Name the charged particles which attract one another to form electrovalent compounds.

(b) In the formation of electrovalent compounds; electrons are transferred from one element to
another. How are electrons involved in the formation of a covalent compound ?

(c) The electronic configuration of nitrogen is (2, 5). How many electrons in the outer shell of a
nitrogen atom are not involved in the formation of a nitrogen molecule ?
(d) In the formation of magnesium chloride (by direct combination between magnesium and
chlorine), name the substance that is oxidized and the substance that is reduced.

Answer

(a) Cation [positively charged] and anion [negatively charged]

(b) In the formation of covalent compounds, the electrons are shared between the combining
atoms. Depending on the number of electron pairs shared : bond is single [-], double [=], or triple
[≡] covalent.

(c) Two electrons in the outer shell of a nitrogen atom are not involved in the formation of a
nitrogen molecule.
Reason — Nitrogen has 5 electrons in the valence shell whereas it forms triple bond to fulfill it's
octet and hence, 2 electrons are left in the outer shell of a nitrogen atom which are not involved
in the formation of a nitrogen molecule.

(d) Magnesium is oxidized and Chlorine is reduced.

Reason — In the formation of magnesium chloride the reaction is :

Mg + Cl2 ⟶ Mg2+ + 2Cl-

Oxidation : Mg ⟶ Mg2+

Reduction : Cl2 ⟶ 2Cl-

Question 5

An element X has 2 electrons in its M shell, it forms bond with an element Y which has 7
electrons in its third orbit.

(a) Write the formula of the compound formed.

(b) Which nearest inert gas electronic configuration will element X and Y acquire?

(c) Show using an orbital diagram the formation of compound between X and Y.

Answer

(a) XY2
Reason — As element X has 2 electrons in its M shell, so the electronic configuration of X is [2,
8, 2] and Y has 7 electrons in the third shell so its electronic configuration is [2, 8, 7]
X donates it two valence electrons and completes its octet and two atom of Y accepts the
electrons to attain the octet, hence the compound formed is XY2.

(b) The nearest inert gas electronic configuration for element X is 2, 8 i.e., Neon while that for
element Y is 2, 8, 8 i.e, Argon.
(c) Orbital diagram of XY2

Question 6

In the formation of (i) Oxygen molecule (ii) Carbon tetrachloride molecule, state the following:

(a) Electronic configuration of nearest inert gas attained.

(b) How many electrons are shared/transferred in bond formation?

(c) Which type of bonds these compounds form?

(d) Draw the orbital diagrams?

Answer

(i) In the formation of Oxygen molecule:

(a) Neon (10) 2,8, because electronic configuration of oxygen is [2,6] so to attain the stable
configuration of nearest noble gas Neon, oxygen needs two electrons.

(b) Two pairs of electrons are shared, and both oxygen atoms attain their octet.

(c) Double Covalent bond, as the bond between two oxygen atoms is formed by sharing of
electrons.
(d) Orbital Diagram of the formation of Oxygen molecule:

(ii) In the formation of Carbon tetra chloride molecule:

Atoms involved Electronic configuration Nearest noble gas

Carbon C [2,4] Neon [2,8]

Chlorine Cl [2,8,7] Argon [2,8,8]

(b) Four pair of electrons are shared, as carbon needs four electrons and chlorine needs one
electron to complete their octet, hence four chlorine atoms share their one electron each with
carbon and all the atoms attain a stable configuration.

(c) Single Covalent bond, as the bond between carbon and 4 chlorine atoms is formed by
sharing one pair of electrons.

(d) Orbital Diagram of the formation of Carbon tetrachloride molecule:

Exercise 4(E) — Numericals

Question 1

What is the average atomic mass of bromine if it has 49.7% 7935Br and 50.3% 8135Br?

Answer

Given,

49.7% of 7935Br and

50.3% of 8135Br

These isotopes are in the ratio = [Link].7 = 497503503497

Average atomic mass = (79×497)+(81×503)10001000(79×497)+(81×503)

=39263+(40743)1000=800061000=80.006 amu≈80 amu=100039263+(40743)

=100080006=80.006 amu≈80 amu
∴ Average atomic mass of bromine = 80 amu

Question 2

A sample of an element A contains two isotopes 168A and 188A. If the average atomic mass of the
element is 16.2 amu, calculate the percentage of the two isotopes in this sample.

Answer

Let,
the percentage of 168A be X and

percentage of 188A be 100-X

Average atomic mass = (16×X)+[18×(100-X)]100100(16×X)+[18×(100-X)] = 16.2

⇒ 16X + 1800 - 18X = 1620

⇒ -2X + 1800 = 1620

⇒ -2X = 1620 - 1800

⇒ 2X = 180

⇒ X = 18022180 = 90

∴ 100 - X = 100 - 90 = 10

Hence, percentage of the two isotopes in this sample are 90% of 168A and 10% of 188A