MDCAT FULL LENGTH PAPER-4

 PLEASE DO NOT WRITE ANYTHING ON THE PAGES.

ALL ANSWERS MUST BE GIVEN ON THE MCQ’s RESPONSE FORM

BIOLOGY
Q.1 All of the following cells/organisms are correctly paired with chemical composition
of their cell walls except:
A. Xylem cell – Lignin B. Prokaryotic cell – Peptidoglycan
C. Blue green algae – Cellulose D. Fungi – Chitin
Q.2 All of the following perform their specific functions due to presence of lysosomes
except:
A. Osteoclasts B. Acrosomes of sperms
C. Neutrophils D. RBCs
Q.3 Which of the following cells may have comparatively lesser number of SER?
A. Sebaceous glands under skin B. ‘α’ and ‘β’ cells of pancreas
C. Interstitial cells in testicles D. Developing follicles of ovaries
Q.4 Which of the following process is primarily absent in a cell infected with glycogenosis type
II disease?
A. Glycolysis B. Glycogenolysis C. Glycogenesis D. Gluconeogenesis
Q.5 The diagram below represents some events that take place in plant cells.

In which organelle would the above events most likely occur?

A. Lysosome B. Mitochondrion C. Chloroplast D. Ribosome
Q.6 Phragmoplast is the precursor of:
A. Cell plate B. Leucoplast C. Chloroplast D. Chromoplast
Q.7 Which of the following is a property of saturated fatty acids?
A. Branched or Ring B. Storage form of fat in animals
C. At least one C=C present D. Liquid at room temperature
Q.8 Ribose sugar is present in:
A. RNA polymerase, RNA and ATP B. RNA polymerase and ATP
C. RNA and ATP D. RNA and Guanine
Q.9 Actin and spectrin are fibrous proteins that form the inner framework of plasma
membrane and help in cytokinesis and endocytosis. These proteins are synthesized
by ribosomes located in/on:
A. RER B. Cytoplasm C. Plasma membrane D. Organelles
Q.10 Which of the following do not yield glucose on complete hydrolysis?
A. Starch B. Cellulose C. Chitin D. Glycogen
Q.11 Which of the following monosaccharides is not an example of ‘aldo sugar’?
A. Ribose B. Fructose C. Glucose D. Glyceraldehyde
Q.12 If an enzyme solution is saturated with substrate, the most effective way to obtain an
even faster yield of products would be:
A. Adding more of the enzyme molecules B. Adding more substrate
C. Adding a non-competitive inhibitor D. Adding an allosteric inhibitor
Q.13 During light reaction of photosynthesis which of the following phenomena is observed
during cyclic photophosphorylation as well as non-cyclic photophosphorylation?
A. Formation of ATP B. Release of O2
C. Involvement of both PS-I and PS-II D. Formation of NADPH

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Q.14 How many times does Calvin cycle occur to produce two molecules of glucose?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 12
Q.15 Readily available source of energy for a cell is:
A. NADH B. FADH2 C. ATP D. DAP
Q.16 In non-cyclic ETC, during photosynthesis, NADP is uninterruptedly reduced by
electrons extracted from:
A. PS-II B. Chlorophyll ‘a’
C. Accessory pigments D. Cytochrome complex
Q.17 The intestinal villi are more numerous and larger in posterior part of small intestine because:
A. Digestion is faster in posterior part B. Blood supply is poorer in anterior part
C. Blood supply is poorer in posterior part D. There is more digested food in posterior part
Q.18 Vermiform appendix is the part of:
A. Liver B. Rectum C. Intestine D. Stomach
Q.19 Which of the following represent bile salts?
A. Bilirubin and biliverdin B. Bilirubin and hemoglobin
C. Hemoglobin and biliverdin D. Sodium glycocholate and taurocholate
Q.20 The epithelial cells lining the stomach of humans is protected from the corrosive
damage of HCl because:
A. HCl is too dilute
B. HCl in neutralized by the stomach
C. Epithelial cells are resistant to the action of HCl
D. Epithelial cells are covered with thick mucus coating
Q.21 Which is a group of end products of carbohydrate digestion?
A. Sucrose, galactose, maltose B. Glucose, galactose, fructose
C. Maltose, glucose, galactose D. Starch, glucose, mannose
Q.22 Absorption of salt and water is the principal function of which region of GI tract?
A. Jejunum B. Stomach C. Duodenum D. Large intestine
Q.23 Throat is also known as:
A. Mouth B. Trachea C. Pharynx D. Diaphragm
Q.24 Pleura is a double membranous sac which envelopes:
A. Nostrils B. Lungs C. Diaphragm D. Nasal passage
Q.25 An oxygen molecule diffuses directly from the air in an alveolus to haemoglobin in a
red blood cell. What is the minimum number of cell surface membranes through
which this molecule must pass?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
Q.26 Enzyme involved in CO2 transport in blood is:
A. Carboxylase B. Carboxykinase C. Carbonic anhydrase D. Carboxypeptidase
Q.27 CO is more toxic than CO2 because it:
A. Damages lungs B. Forms acid with H2O
C. Affects the nervous system D. Reduces the O2 carrying capacity of Hb
Q.28 Purkinje fibres are connected with impulse conducting system of:
A. Skin B. Heart C. Brain D. Kidney
Q.29 The duration of cardiac cycle in normal man is:
A. 0.8 sec B. 80 sec C. 6 sec D. 72 sec
Q.30 During systole of heart:
A. Only auricles contract B. Only ventricles contract
C. Auricles and ventricles contract separately D. Auricles and ventricles contract simultaneously
Q.31 Systolic pressure of the heart is higher than diastolic pressure because:
A. Arteries contract during systole only
B. Arteries offer resistance to the flowing of blood
C. Volume of blood in heart is greater during systole
D. Blood is forcefully pumped into arteries by the heart during systole
Q.32 Given these blood vessels:
1. Arteriole 2. Capillary 3. Aorta 4. Artery
5. Vein 6. Venule
Choose the arrangement that lists the blood vessels in the order a RBC passes
through them as it leaves the heart, travels to a tissue and returns to the heart:
A. 3, 4, 2, 1, 5, 6 B. 3, 4, 1, 2, 6, 5 C. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5, 6 D. 4, 3, 2, 1, 6, 5
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Q.33 Antibodies in our body are complex:
A. Steroids B. Lipoproteins C. Prostaglandins D. Glycoproteins
Q.34 Which one of the following usually does not act as sink?
A. Roots B. Developing fruits C. Tubers D. Mature leaves
Q.35 The largest part of human brain is:
A. Cerebrum B. Cerebellum C. Diencephalon D. Medulla oblongata
Q.36 Afferent nerve fibres conduct impulse from:
A. CNS to receptor B. CNS to effector C. Receptor to CNS D. Effector to receptor
Q.37 During propagation of nerve impulse, the action potential results from the
movement of:
A. K+ from ECF to ICF B. K+ from ICF to ECF
C. Na+ from ICF to ECF D. Na+ from ECF to ICF
Q.38 Steroid hormones transmit their information by:
A. Entering in the cell and modifying nuclear organization
B. Entering in the cell and modifying cellular contents
C. Stimulating the receptors present on plasmalemma
D. The help of an intracellular second messenger
Q.39 Match list I with II and select the correct answer with the help of the codes given in
the following lists:
List I List I
A Somatotropin 1 Neurohypophysis
B Oxytocin 2 Cretinism
C Thyroxin 3 Rickets
D Vitamin D 4 Gigantism
A. A=3, B=1, C=4, D=2 B. A=4, B=1, C=2, D=3
C. A=2, B=3, C=4, D=1 D. A=1, B=4, C=3, D=2
Q.40 Identify a hormone produced by the pituitary gland in both males and females but
primarily functional only in females:
A. Prolactin B. FSH
C. ADH D. Somatotropic hormone
Q.41 Glucagon:
A. Decreases fat metabolism B. Primarily affects liver
C. Causes glycogen to be stored D. Causes blood glucose level to decrease
Q.42 The most important component of the oral contraceptive pill is:
A. Thyroxin B. Progesterone C. Growth hormone D. Luteinizing hormone
Q.43 Which of the following controls the function of sertoli cells?
A. FSH B. ACTH C. Estrogen D. Testosterone
Q.44 In the human female, which of the following is incorrect?
A. Menstruation takes 3-7 days
B. Menstruation cycle takes 28 days
C. Menopause occur at an age of 45-55 years
D. The ovulated egg released during pregnancy dies
Q.45 In the male human being, sperms contain one set of autosomes and:
A. Only one Y-chromosome B. Only one X-chromosome
C. Both X and Y-chromosome D. Either X or Y-chromosome
Q.46 Extremities of long bones possess __________ cartilage.
A. Elastic B. Fibrous C. Hyaline D. Calcified
Q.47 Friction is lessened in ball and socket joint by:
A. Mucin B. Synovial fluid C. Coelomic fluid D. Cerebrospinal fluid
Q.48 Hip joint is an example of:
A. Pivot joint B. Hinge joint
C. Ball and socket joint D. Gliding joint
Q.49 AIDS virus spreads through:
A. Killer T-cells B. Helper T-cells C. Plasma clone cell D. Suppressor T-cells

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Q.50 Which one of the statements about viruses is correct?
A. Viruses are obligate parasites B. All viruses contain both DNA and RNA
C. Nucleic acid of virus is called capsid D. Viruses possess their own metabolic machinery
Q.51 Sterilization is done by using:
A. Pasteurization B. Autoclaving C. Incubators D. Refrigerators
Q.52 Living organisms that are most versatile and adaptable of all biological groups:
A. Viruses B. Bacteria C. Lichens D. Algae
Q.53 Higher amount of peptidoglycan occurs in the cell wall of:
A. Gram positive forms B. Gram negative forms
C. Mycoplasma D. All types of pathogenic bacteria
Q.54 Food remains fresh in cold storage than at room temperature because:
A. Bacterial multiplication is greatly reduced
B. Low temperature kills most of viruses
C. Low temperature helps in better enzymatic activities
D. Low temperature can activate enzyme inhibitors
Q.55 In peritrichous bacteria, flagella are:
A. Absent B. Present
C. Present at one end D. Present all over the body
Q.56 Which of the following is unique feature related to most of the animals?
A. Presence of mitochondria B. Carbohydrates as structural component
C. Nervous and muscular tissues D. Parasitic mode of life
Q.57 It is an example of free living Platyhelminthes:
A. Schistosoma B. Dugesia C. Taenia solium D. Fasciola hepatica
Q.58 The respiratory pigment found in the molluscs is:
A. Haemocyanin B. Haemoglobin C. Haemoerythrin D. Myoglobin
Q.59 Depict the genotypic ratio of the cross between ‘Tt × Tt’ plants:
A. 3: 1 B. 1:3:3:9 C. 1: 2: 1 D. 9:3:3:1
Q.60 A test cross is best described by:
A. TT × Tt B. TT × tt C. tt × tt D. Tt × Tt
Q.61 Mendel’s law of independent assortment is not obeyed by:
A. Dominant genes B. Mutant genes C. Recessive genes D. Linked genes
Q.62 Chances for a man to be affected by haemophilia ‘C’ is:
A. Greater than woman B. Lesser than woman
C. Equal to woman D. Not predictable
Q.63 The method for analyzing inheritance pattern of traits in human being is:
A. DNA fingerprinting B. Pedigree analysis
C. Control crosses D. Karyotyping
Q.64 Arms, wings, flippers and forelegs of different mammals are variations on common
anatomical theme that shows:
A. Convergent evolution B. Organic evolution
C. Divergent evolution D. Speciation
Q.65 It provides the raw material for organic evolution:
A. Asexual reproduction B. Mutation
C. Nutritive substances D. Effect of hormones
Q.66 Most polysaccharides are polymers of:
A. Ribose units B. Glucose units C. Fructose units D. Glyceraldehyde units
Q.67 It is pure form of cellulose:
A. Potato tuber B. Cotton C. Plant cell wall D. Fruits
Q.68 These structures are specific for the neurons:
A. Nissl’s granules, Neurofibrils
B. Nissl’s granules, Neurofibrils, Mitochondria
C. Nissl’s granules, Neurofibrils, Golgi bodies
D. Nissl’s granules, Neurofibrils, Ribosomes

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 CHEMISTRY
Q.1 Yellow colour precipitate are formed when _____ reacted with I2 / NaOH
A. Isopropyl alcohol B. 2-Methyl-2-propanol
C. Iso-butylalcohol D. 1-Propanol
OH
|
Q.2 → H 2C − CN , in the given reaction nucleophile is
HCHO + HCN ⎯⎯
A. CN– B. HCl C. Cl– D. OH–
Q.3 Which statement is not correct about CH3COOH
A. Its dilute solution is called vinegar B. It can be oxidized very easily
C. Its pure form is called glacial acetic acid D. It is stronger acid than phenol
Q.4 Consider the following reaction:
R-CHO + 2[Ag(NH3))2]OH ⎯⎯ → RCOONH4 + 2Ag + 2NH3 + H2O
this reaction represents which of the following tests
A. Fehling test B. Benedict test C. Ninhydrin test D. Tollen’s test
Q.5 Esterification belongs to the reactions of a carboxylic acids in which
A. Hydrogen atom of carboxyl group is involved
B. –OH group is replaced by another group
C. –COOH group is involved as whole
D. –OH group of alcohol is replaced
Q.6 The conversion of acetic acid into ethanamide is an example of
A. Hydration B. Electrophilic substitution
C. Nucleophilic substitution D. Complete reduction
Q.7 What is the correct order for the acidic strength of acetic acid, phenol and ethanol
A. C6H5OH > CH3COOH > C2H5OH B. CH3COOH > C2H5OH > C6H5OH
C. C6H5OH > C2H5OH > CH3COOH D. CH3COOH > C6H5OH > C2H5OH
Q.8 Dimer of acetic acid in benzene has _______ number of oxygen atoms in ring
A. 0 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
Q.9 The following is a part of primary structure of a natural polymer

The functional groups present in the structure is / are

A. Thiol and amino groups B. Amide and amino groups
C. Amino, thiol and formyl groups D. Amide, thiol and amino groups
Q.10 An ‘X’ compound on ozonolysis produced acetone and propanal. Identify ‘X’ compound
A. 2-pentene B. 2-methyl-2-pentene C. 1-pentene D. 3-methyl-1-pentene
Q.11 Which of the following is dihydric alcohol
A. Glycol B. Glycerol C. Phenol D. Ethanol
Q.12 Correct order of electron affinity for halogens is
A. Cl > F > I B. F > Cl > I C. I > Cl > F D. Cl > I > F
Q.13 Which of the following compound on electrolysis will not produce hydrogen gas at
cathode
A. Mg(NO3)2(aq) B. KCl(aq) C. CuSO4(aq) D. NaOH(aq)
Q.14 What is the half-life time of radioactive substance in which 75% of it, disintegrates
in 100 minutes
A. 30 minutes B. 50 minutes C. 90minutes D. 120 minutes
Q.15 Nucleophilic substitution and elimination reactions are competing reactions of alkyl
halides. Which of the following alkyl halide does not give elimination reaction
A. n-Pentyl chloride B. Iso-pentyl chloride
C. Methyl chloride D. Secondary pentyl chloride

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Q.16 Least oxidation state observed in case of 3d-series elements in their compound is +1. Which
of the following transition element never show +1 oxidation state in its compounds
A. Fe B. Mn C. Cu D. Zn
Q.17 By quadrupling the concentration of reactant, the rate of reaction is halved. The
order of reaction is
A. First order B. Negative order C. Second order D. Pseudo first order
Q.18 Which one has highest Lattice energy value
A. CaO B. CaCl2 C. MgO D. MgCl2
Q.19 Alcohol produces oily layer of alkyl halide on reaction with HCl / ZnCl2 which one
of the following produce oily layer in shortest time
A. n-pentanol B. Iso-pentyl alcohol C. neo-pentyl alcohol D. Iso-propyl alcohol
Q.20 How many grams of magnesium metal are used with ethanoic acid to form one mole
of H2 gas
A. 23 B. 46 C. 24 D. 12
Q.21 Electronegativity of any element can be calculated by comparing with
A. F B. Cl C. Br D. I
Q.22 4g of a gas occupies 5.6dm3 at STP. The gas is
A. Ne B. He C. CH4 D. N2O
Q.23 Total number of anticlockwise electrons present in Z = 30 are
A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 30
Q.24 How many partial positive hydrogen atoms and lone pairs are available in
hydrofluoric acid
A. 3 and 1 B. 1 and 1 C. 1 and 2 D. 1 and 3
Q.25 IUPAC name of the following structure is CH3CH(CH3) CH2CHO
A. 2-Methylbutanal B. 2-Methylpental C. 3-Methylbutanal D. Iso-Butanal
Q.26 Markownikov’s rule in not followed in reaction between
A. 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene and Br2 B. Propene and H2SO4
C. Propene and HCl D. Propene and HCN
Q.27 The reaction of acetaldehyde with ammonia derivative (G – NH2) is ____ reaction
A. Addition-elimination B. Nucleophilic addition
C. Electrophilic addition D. Nucleophilic substitution
Q.28 Preparation of aspirin is 80% efficient reaction, if actual yield is 16g. The
theoretical yield should be
A. 16g B. 8g C. 20g D. 12g
Q.29 What is the mass of oxygen contained in 90g of pure water
A. 80g B. 64g C. 32g D. 70g
Q.30 The sub-shell in which n = 3 and l = 1, then how many electrons can be
accommodated in an orbital of this subshell
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 6
Q.31 The electronic configuration of cobalt (Z =27) is
A. [Ar] 4d6, 4s2 B. [Ar] 3d5, 4s1 C. [Ar] 3d7, 3s1 D. [Ar] 4d7, 4s2
Q.32 Which of the following molecule has largest number of unpair electrons?
A. NH3 B. CO2 C. N2 D. CO
Q.33 2H 2 + O 2 ⎯⎯⎯ → 2H 2O + 285.5kJmol -1

What will be the enthalpy change in the above reaction

A. 285.5 kJ mol–1 B. – 285.5 kJ mol–1 C. Zero kJ mol–1 D. 1 kJ mol–1
1
Q.34 H 2 + O 2(g) ⎯⎯
→ H 2O(g) ΔH = -285kJmol -1
2
In this reaction H will be called:
A. Enthalpy of atomization B. Enthalpy of formation
C. Enthalpy of decomposition D. Enthalpy of the dissociation
Q.35 The E° value of standard copper half-cell is +0.34V, measured when it is connected
with, SHE i.e. Standard hydrogen electrode. In this case the half reaction taking
place at SHE is
A. 2H(+aq ) + 2e− ⎯⎯
→ H2( g ) → 2H(+aq ) + 2e−
B. H2( g ) ⎯⎯
C. 2H(+aq ) + 2e− ⎯⎯
→ 2H( g ) → 2H( g ) + 2e−
D. H2( g ) ⎯⎯

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Q.36 In which of the following reactions Kp > Kc
A. 2NH3(g) N2(g) + 3H2(g) B. PCl5(g) PCl3(g)+Cl2(g)
C. 2NOCl( g ) 2NO( g ) + Cl2( g ) D. All of these
Q.37 Consider the following reaction at 25oC, (CH3)3COH(l) + HCl(aq) → (CH3)3CCl(l) + H2O(l)
The experimentally determined rate law for this reaction indicates that the reaction
is first-order in (CH3)3COH and that the reaction is pseudo first-order overall which
of the following would produce an increase in the rate of this reaction?
A. Increasing the concentration of (CH3)3COH B. Increasing the concentration of HCl
C. Decreasing the concentration of (CH3)3CCl D. It is impossible to tell
Q.38 For second order reaction A + B ⎯⎯ → C , reaction rate for each reactant concentration
of 0.01 M is found to be 2.0×10–5 moles dm–3 s–1. The rate constant “k” is
A. 2×10–5 s–1 B. 2×10–2 s–1 C. 2×10–1 s–1 D. 2×10–3 s–1
Q.39 Which of the following physical property first increases and then decreases along
the period
A. Electro positivity B. Shielding effect
C. Melting point and boiling point D. Electron affinity
Q.40 The reactivity of the IIA metals generally increases with
A. Increasing atomic radius B. Increasing shielding effect
C. Increasing atomic number D. All of the above
Q.41 The optimum temperature and pressure during Haber’s process are
A. 400K, 200-300atm B. 673K, 2–3 atm
C. 673°C, 200-300atm D. 673K, 200-300 atm
Q.42 Which of the following pairs of functional group isomer of each other
A. Alcohol and ester B. Aldehyde and alkanoic acid
C. Ether and ester D. methyl ethanoate and propanoic acid
Q.43 Which is not present as heteroatom in heterocyclic compounds
A. Sulphur B. Oxygen C. Chlorine D. Nitrogen
Q.44 The general formula for cycloalkene is
A. CnH2n+2 B. CnH2n–1 C. CnH2n–2 D. CnH2n
Q.45 In the bromination of benzene which electrophile attacks on ring
A. Br+ B. Br2 C. Br_ D. Bro
Q.46 Hydrohalogenation of alkene is an example of
A. Nu-substitution B. Electrophilic substitution
C. Electrophilic Addition D. Free radical substitution
Q.47 If halogenoalkanes are mixed with an excess of ethanolic ammonia and heated
under pressure amine are formed. Which amine is formed in the following reaction?
CH 3CH 2 Br + NH 3 ⎯⎯ → Amine
A. CH3—CH2—NH—CH2—CH3 B. CH3—CH2—CH2—NH2
C. CH3—CH2—NH2 D. H2N—CH2—CH2—NH2
Q.48 Among the alkyl halides, which always follows SN1 mechanism:
A. Primary alkyl halides B. Tertiary alkyl halide
C. Secondary alkyl halides D. Both A and B
Q.49 Alcoholic KOH when reacted with alkyl halide then the mechanism of the reaction is
A. Electrophilic addition B. Electrophilic substitution
C. Nucleophilic addition D. Elimination
Q.50 2-pentanol on oxidation will give ______
A. Diethyl ketone B. Dimethyl ketone
C. Ethyl methyl ketone D. Methyl n-propyl ketone
Q.51 For the reaction C2H 5OH + HX ⎯⎯ → C2H 5 X + H 2O the order of reactivity of HX is
A. HCl > HBr > HI B. HI > HBr > HCl C. HBr > HCl > HI D. HI > HCl > HBr
Q.52 The compound in which carbon uses only its sp3 hybrid carbon for bond formation is
A. HCOOH B. (CH3)3 COH C. (NH2)2CO D. (CH3)3 CHO
Q.53 When phenol reacts with ethanoyl chloride in the presence of a base, it forms _____
A. Ether B. Salt of carboxylic acid
C. Ketone D. Ester
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Q.54 Which of the following is difficult to oxidize
A. CH3CH2CHO B. CH3CHO C. CH3COCH3 D. CH3CH2COOH

PHYSICS
Q.55 In projectile motion the
A. Acceleration is parallel or anti parallel to the velocity
B. Acceleration is perpendicular to the velocity
C. Acceleration is vertical while the velocity can be in any direction
D. Acceleration is vertical and the velocity is horizontal
Q.56 Newton’s laws do not hold good for particles, which
A. Are at rest
B. Move with high velocity
C. Are moving slowly
D. Move with velocity comparable to velocity of light
Q.57 Let f be the frequency, v the speed, and T the period of a sinusoidal traveling wave.
The correct relationship is
A. f = v + T B. f = T /v C. f = v/T D. f = 1/T
Q.58 A cyclist comes to a skidding stop in 10m. During this process, the opposing force on
the cycle due to the road is 200N. How much work does the road do on the cycle?
A. –1800J B. –2000J C. 2000J D. 1900J
Q.59 Ohm time’s farad is equivalent to:
A. Time B. Charge C. Distance D. Capacitor
Q.60 1 Gy is equal to:
A. 1 Jkg B. 1 Jkg-1 C. 1 J-1Kg D. J-1kg-1
Q.61 The velocity of sound is measured in hydrogen and oxygen at a certain temperature.
The ratio of the velocities is
A. 4:1 B. 1:1 C. 1:2 D. 1:4
Q.62 There is no transmission of energy in________
A. Electromagnetic waves B. Simple harmonic waves
C. Longitudinal waves D. Stationary waves
Q.63 We can express the work in terms of
A. PU B. PA C. PV D. All are correct
Q.64 A body is revolving with a uniform speed v in a circle of radius r. The angular
acceleration of the body is
A. v/r B. Zero
C. v2/r along the radius and towards the centre D. v2/r along the radius and towards the centre
Q.65 The curve representing Ohms law is a:
A. Linear B. Non-linear C. Parabola D. Hyperbola
Q.66 Consider a stretched string under tension and fixed at both ends. If the tension is
doubled and the cross-sectional area halved, then the frequency becomes
A. Twice B. Four times C. Half D. 2 times
Q.67 Initially, when the capacitor is uncharged, the potential difference between plates is
A. Infinite B. Zero C. Maximum D. Minimum
Q.68 The direction of magnetic lines of force is
A. From south pole to north pole B. From north pole to south pole
C. From one end of the magnet to another D. None of the above
Q.69 The quantity of uranium is 400g. After 3rd half-life, how much uranium will be left?
A. 50g B. 100g C. 25g D. 200g
Q.70 A photon in light beam A has twice the energy of a photon in light beam B. The
ratio pA/pB of their momenta is:
A. 4 B. ¼ C. 2 D. 1/2
Q.71 The temperature of 2 mole of a gas is changed from 100°C to 120°C at constant
volume. The change in internal energy was found to be 80J. What is the molar heat
capacity of this gas at constant volume?
A. 0.4 J K–1 mol–1 B. 2 J K–1 mol–1 C. 4 J K–1 mol–1 D. 8 J K–1 mol–1

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Q.72 In half wave rectifier, the output voltage is taken across_______
A. Diode B. Resistor C. Input voltage D. Capacitor
Q.73 Number of down quarks in Proton
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
Q.74 Ripple tank is used to study features of
A. Particle B. Wave C. Light D. Solid
Q.75 In series combination of capacitors
C1C 2 C + C2 1
A. C1 + C2 + C3 B. C. 1 D.
C1 + C 2 C1C 2 C1 + C2 + C3
Q.76 In transmission from grid station, power losses are minimized by:
A. Increasing current B. Decreasing current
C. Increasing resistance D. Increasing voltage
Q.77 The angular momentum of a particle changes from 0 to 720 J s in 4s. The magnitude
of torque is:
A. 2880 N m B. 180 N m C. 360 N m D. 1440 N m
Q.78 The kinetic energy of an electron in first Bohr radius of H – atom is:
A. 13.6 J B. 13.6 eV C. –13.6 eV D. 13.6 keV
Q.79 Conductors of resistance R and 2R are connected in parallel across a source, the
ratio of power dissipation is:
A. 1 : 2 B. 2 : 1 C. 4 : 1 D. 1 : 4
Q.80 An aero-plane flying 490 m above ground level at 100 m/s, releases a block. How far
on the ground will it strike?
A. 2 km B. 1 km C. 0.1 km D. 8 km
Q.81 The gravitational potential energy of an object is due to
A. Its mass B. Its acceleration due to gravity
C. Its height above the earth’s surface D. All of the above
Q.82 At which angle work done equal to half of its maximum value
A. 30o B. 60o C. 45o D. 90o
Q.83 How much water at 50 °C is needed to just melt 2.2 kg of ice at 0 °C?
(Where L f, ice = 3.34 × 105 J/kg, cwater = 4200 J/kgK)
A. 9.4 kg B. 3.5 kg C. 2.0 kg D. 9.0 kg
Q.84 What is the radius of circular path, if particle has mass m and charge q
A. r = qb/m B. r = mv/B C. r= mv/qB D. r = mvr/qB
Q.85 The negative of the potential gradient is equal to
A. Electric field intensity B. Electromotive force
C. Potential difference D. Electrostatic force
Q.86 A heater of 400 watts kept on for 5 hours will consume electrical power of
A. 2 KWh B. 20 KWh C. 6 KWh D. 12 KWh
Q.87 What will be the expression for the observed frequency fo, if the source is moving
towards the observer?
 v   v   v   v 
A. fo =  f B. f o =  f C. fo =  f D. f =   fo
 v − us   v+u s   v + us   v − us 
Q.88 In an ideal transformer, a bulb of 100W is operated at 220V. If primary coil has 110
turns, the power in the primary will be
A. 50 W B. 100 W C. 200 W D. Zero
Q.89 To make a full wave rectifier, the ac input be applied across
A

D B

C
A. BD B. BC C. AD D. AC
Q.90 If photon of light of frequency f have momentum p, photons of light of frequency 2f
will have a momentum of
p 1
A. 2p B. C. 2p D. p
2 2

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Q.91 A certain radioactive mass decays from 64 gm to 2 gm in 20 days. What is its half-life?
A. 5 days B. 3 days C. 4 days D. 5 days
Q.92 A projectile is thrown at 45°, its range is 90 m what is its initial velocity?
A. 10 ms–1 B. 50 ms–1 C. 30 ms–1 D. 90 ms–1
Q.93 If two objects of equal masses ‘m’ are moving towards each other with the same speeds
‘v’ then what will be the total final momentum after elastic head-on collision?
A. – mv kg/s B. 2 mv kg/s C. mv kg m/s D. 0 kg m/s
Q.94 A positively charged particle moving due east enters a region of uniform magnetic
field directed vertically downwards. The particle will
A. Continue to move due east
B. Move in a circular orbit with its speed unchanged
C. Move in a circular orbit with its speed increases
D. Get deflected upward
Q.95 Due to current in straight conductor the distance between magnetic field lines.
A. Increases away from conductor
B. Increases towards conductor
C. Decreases away from conductor
D. Decreases and then increases towards conductor
Q.96 When the magnetic flux changes from 20 Wb to 50 Wb in 3 sec through coil of
50 turns then induce emf will be?
A. 500 V B. 400 V C. 300 V D. 200 V
Q.97 The output voltage of A.C generator at any instant is given by
2π 1 2π
A. V = Vm sin  B. V = Vm sin  t
T f T
2π 1 T
C. V = Vm sin  D. V = Vm sin  t
T t 2π
Q.98 If free space between the plates of a capacitor is replaced by a dielectric
A. The potential difference remains constant capacitance and energy stored increases
B. The potential difference remains constant capacitance decreases and energy increases
C. The capacitance increases but both potential difference and energy decrease
D. Both potential difference and capacitance decrease but energy increases
Q.99 In an elastic collision of two particles the following is conserved?
A. Speed of each particle B. Kinetic energy of each particle
C. Total kinetic energy of both the particles D. Momentum of each particle
Q.100 If W1, W2 and W3 represent the work done in moving a particle from X to Y along
three different paths 1, 2 and 3 respectively in the gravitational field of a mass M, then:

A. W1 = W2 = W3 B. W1 < W2 < W3 C. W1 > W2 > W3 D. W2 > W3 > W1

Q.101 Two beams, one of red light and the other of blue light, of the same intensity are
incident on a metallic surface to emit photoelectrons. Which emits electrons of
greater frequency?
A. Red light B. Both C. Blue light D. Neither
Q.102 A body is dropped from certain height and falls freely. Its velocity after 5 seconds
will be:
A. 0.4 m/s B. 0.49 m/s C. 4.9 m/s D. 49 m/s
Q.103 The instantaneous acceleration of an object travelling with uniform speed in a circle
directed towards the center of circle is referred as__________.
A. Angular acceleration B. Centrifugal acceleration
C. Centripetal acceleration D. Tangential acceleration
Q.104 The electrostatic force between two point-charges is independent of one of the following
quantities?
A. Distance between charges B. Magnitude of charges
C. Medium between charges D. Temperature of charges

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Q.105 How many electrons are there in one Coulomb charge?
A. 6.25 × 1015 B. 6.25 × 1016 C. 6.25 × 1017 D. 6.25 × 1018
Q.106 Which one of the following is the SI-unit of conventional current in a conductor?
A. Ampere B. Coulomb C. Ohm D. Ohm meter
Q.107 Which one of the following is the SI-unit of angular displacement?
A. Degree B. Radian C. Revolution D. Steradian
Q.108 Volt × Ampere is the measure of:
A. Current B. Volt C. Resistance D. Power

ENGLISH
Directions:
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.
Every Eid, after his sermon, whenever the cotton bag containing from 150 to 200 rupees
collected from the devotees happened to fall with a thud, he distributed 40 to 50 rupees in the
presence of the worshippers among the needy and the poor of the village. After each such act,
he used to say: “please don’t pray for me Remember the benevolent Almighty Allah. If He
creates insects in the stones, he supplies their food there too. Please do not bless me. What
has he not blessed me with? Health, peace of mind, freedom from care; I have everything one
cane desire. I don’t need anything more from his unlimited treasure of divine blessing.”
Q.109 What did he distribute among the needy and the poor?
A. Toys B. Clothes C. Rupees D. Stones
Q.110 From whom did he receive offerings?
A. Devotees B. students C. The needy D. The poor
Q.111 Supply the correct synonym for the capitalized word:
A HETRODOX is a ____person.
A. conventional B. orthodox C. conformist D. heretical
Q.112 Complete the sentence using the appropriate punctuation mark:
The prince married the beautiful princess___ they lived happily ever after.
A., B.– C.; D.:
Q.113 The underlined part in the sentence given below is an adverbial clause of_____:
He finished first though he began late.
A. contrast B. condition C. manner D. reason
Q.114 Supply the correct preposition:
A fair little girl sat ______a tree.
A. at B. under [Link] D. on
Q.115 Supply the correct preposition:
I have known him____ six years.
A. during B. for C. just D. since
Q.116 Supply the correct form of verb:
He fears___ in public.
A. speak B. speaking C. spoken [Link] speak
Q.117 Supply the correct form of verb:
He thanked me for what I ____.
A. have been doing B. had done C. was doing D. have done
Q.118 Identify the correct indirect form for the sentence given below:
The principal said to the staff,” will they help their students?”
A. The principal asked the staff whether they help their students.
B. The principal asked the staff whether they helped their students.
C. The principal asked the staff whether they would have helped their students.
D. The principal asked the staff whether they would help their students.
Q.119 Identify the correct spelling:
A. Communication B. Comunication C. Commonication D. Communecation
Q.120 Identify the correct passive from for the sentence given below:
The peon does not ring the bell daily.
A. The bell is not rung by the peon daily.
B. The bell is not being rung by the peon daily.
C. The bell has not been rung by the peon daily.
D. The bell does not ring by the peon daily.
Q.121 Supply the correct form of verb:
Had it been someone else, I________ ten rupees.
A. can easily have wangled B. have easily wangled
C. could easily have wangled D. had easily wangled

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Q.122 Supply the correct synonym for the capitalized word:
The performance was AWESOME, leaving everyone in the audience feeling truly_____.
A. ruined B. fooled C. repel D. astonished
Q.123 Identify the type of sentence given below:
God made the country and man made the town.
A. Complex B. Compound
C. Compound- complex D. Simple
Q.124 Identify the figure of speech in the following sentence:
The righteous shall flourish as the palm tree.
A. Alliteration B. Imagery C. Metaphor D. Simile
Q.125 Supply the correct antonym for the capitalized word:
Pollution is DETRIMENTAL to the environment, yet recycling efforts are____.
A. constructive B. injurious C. Negative D. damaging
Q.126 Supply the correct antonym for the capitalized word:
The professor’s rapid lecture style may BEWILDER some students, while a slower pace
would ____learning.
A. simplify B. amazed. C. confusing D. intriguing.

LOGICAL REASONING
Q.127 “Gala” cannot exist without ________
A. Unhappiness B. Celebration C. Dejection D. Appetizer
Q.128 Statements:
No Car is Truck. All Trucks are bikes. Some Bikes are cycles. Some cycles are scooters.
Conclusion:
I. Some Truck are cycle.
II. Some cycles are not trucks.
III. Some Bikes are Trucks.
A. Only III follows B. Either I or II follows
C. Only III and Either I or II follows D. None follows
Q.129 Ali walked 30 metres towards East, took a right turn and walked 40 metres. Then he
took a left turn and walked 30 metres. In which direction is he now from the starting
point?
A. North-east B. East C. South-east D. South
Q.130 Four political parties W, X, Y and Z decided to set up a joint candidate for the
coming parliament elections. The formula agreed by them was the acceptance of a
candidate by most of the parties. Four aspiring candidate A, B, C and D approached
the parties for the tickets.
A was acceptable to W but not Z.
B was acceptable to Y but not X.
C was acceptable to W and Y.
D was acceptable to W and X.
D was not acceptable to Z.
When candidate B was preferred by W and Z, candidate C was preferred by X and
Z and candidate A was acceptable to X but not to Y, who got the ticket?
A. A B. B C. C D. D
Q.131 Statements:
I. The standard of living of people of the average income group has been rising
since the last two years.
II. Pakistani economy has been showing a significant growth.
A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
Q.132 Statements
I. Michael Son’s painting in the Sistine Chapel are priceless.
II. Michael Son’s died a poor man.
A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect
B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect
C. Both statements I and II are independent causes
D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

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