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Physics, Chemistry, Biology Exam Questions

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions across various subjects including Physics, Chemistry, Biology, and Mathematics. Each section presents questions related to fundamental concepts, calculations, and definitions relevant to each scientific discipline. The questions test knowledge on topics such as satellite motion, atomic structure, ecological relationships, and geometric properties.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
7 views25 pages

Physics, Chemistry, Biology Exam Questions

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions across various subjects including Physics, Chemistry, Biology, and Mathematics. Each section presents questions related to fundamental concepts, calculations, and definitions relevant to each scientific discipline. The questions test knowledge on topics such as satellite motion, atomic structure, ecological relationships, and geometric properties.

Uploaded by

Phoenix Gaming
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

20-12-2024

4602CPF404146240020 PF

PART – A : Section – I : PHYSICS

1) Two satellites of a planet have periods 32 days and 256 days. If the radius of orbit of former is R,
find the orbital radius of the later.

(1) 4R

(2)

(3) 16R
(4) 8R

2) The time period of an earth satellite in circular otbit is independent of

(1) Mass of the satellite


(2) Radius of its orbit
(3) Both the mass and radius of the orbit
(4) Neither the mass of the satellite nor the radius of its orbit

3) The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is twice the
shaded area SAB. If t1 is the time for the planet to move from C to D and t2 is the time to move from
A to B then:

(1) t1 = t2
(2) t1 < t2
(3) t1 = 4t2
(4) t1 = 2t2

4)

Gravitational force is a

(1) Long range attractive force


(2) Long range repulsive force
(3) Short range attractive force
(4) Short range repulsive force
5) The escape velocity from the earth is about 11.2 km/s. The escape velocity from the planet having
twice the radius and the same mean density will be:

(1) 33.6 km/s


(2) 22.4 km/s
(3) 11.2 km/s
(4) 5.6 km/s

6) An object hangs from a spring balance. The balance indicates 30 N in air and 20 N when the
object is submerged in water. What does the balance indicate when the object is submerged in a
liquid with a density that is half that of water?

(1) 20 N
(2) 25 N
(3) 30 N
(4) 35 N

7) The dimensions of a wooden raft (density = 150 kg/m3) are 3.0 m × 3.0 m × 1.0 m. What
maximum load can it carry in seawater so that the plank just floats in water
(density = 1020 kg/m3) ?

(1) 1350 kg
(2) 7830 kg
(3) 9200 kg
(4) 19,500 kg

8) In the figure shown water is filled in a symmetrical container. Four pistons of equal area A are
used at the four opening to keep the water in equilibrium. Now an additional force F is applied at
each piston. The increase in the pressure at the centre of the container due to this addition is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
9) A measuring cylinder contains oil to a depth of 6cm, floating on water. The depth of water is 9 cm.
The density of oil is 700 kg / m3 and the density of water is 1000 kg/m3. The pressure at the bottom

of the cylinder, due to the liquids, will be (Take = 10 m/s2)

(1) 0.48 KPa


(2) 1.32 KPa
(3) 1.05 KPa
(4) 5.10 KPa

10) A large iron body of mass 2 kg and volume 2.5 × 10-3 is dipped in water. Will it float or sink?

(1) Float
(2) Sink
(3) Float and then sink
(4) Cannot be determined

11) An object of mass 225 kg has a density of . It is immersed completely in water. The

upthrust acting on it _____

(1) 15 kg wt
(2) 100 kg wt
(3) 150 kg wt
(4) 200 kg wt

12) A girl stands on a box having 60 cm length, 40 cm breadth and 20 cm height in three ways.
Pressure exerted by the brick will be

(1) max. when length and breadth form the base


(2) max. when breadth and height form the base
(3) max. when height and length form the base
(4) the same in all the above three cases

13) A tank 2 m high is half filled with water and then filled to the top with oil of density 0.80 g/cc.
What is the pressure at the bottom of the tank due to these liquids only?
(Take

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) While determining the density of the material of metallic sphere using a spring balance and
measuring cylinder a student noted the following readings.
1. Mass of sphere = 81g
2. (i) Reading of water level in the cylinder without sphere = 54 mL
(ii) Reading of water level in the cylinder with sphere = 63 mL
On the basis of these observations, the density of the material of the sphere is (1 ml = 10-6 m3)

(1) 9000 kg/m3


(2) 6000 kg/m3
(3) 7000 kg/m3
(4) 1500 kg/m3

15) Work done in moving a 50 kg block through a horizontal distance of 10 m by applying a force of
100 N which makes an angle of 60° with the horizontal is:

(1) 200 joule


(2) 425 joule
(3) 500 joule
(4) 575 joule

16) The mass of a body P is twice that of body Q. But the speed of P is half of that of Q. The Kinetic
energies of P and Q are in the ratio of?

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 4 : 1

17) A brick was lifted from the ground to a height 'h' in 3 different ways. In which case was the work

done against gravity maximum ?

(1) Case A
(2) Case B
(3) Case C
(4) Equal in all 3 cases

18) A body mass 2 kg is projected vertically upwards with a speed of 3 m/s. The maximum
gravitational potential energy of the body is
(1) 18 J
(2) 4.5 J
(3) 9 J
(4) 2.25 J

19) A boy throws a stone upward as shown in the figure. When it reaches P, which of the following

options is correct for the stone? (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) Kinetic Energy = 0 J


(2) Potential Energy = 100 J
(3) Acceleration due to gravity = 0 m/s2
(4) Total Mechanical Energy = 0 J

20)

A car of mass 1000 kg accelerates from rest to 72 km/h in 5 second. What is average power of the
car ?

(1) 4 × 104 W
(2) 12 × 104 W
(3) 7.71 × 104 W
(4) 2 × 104 W

Section – II : CHEMISTRY

1) The mass of a proton is

(1) 1.00728 amu


(2)
(3)
(4) All of these

2) A neutron is represented as

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
3) Neutrons are present in all atoms except

(1) H
(2) C
(3) He
(4) Ne

4) When alpha particles are allowed to strike thin metal foil, most of them go straight through the
foil because

(1) Alpha particles are much heavier than electrons.


(2) Alpha particles are positively charged.
(3) Most part of the atom is empty.
(4) Alpha particles move with high velocity.

5) In Rutherford’s experiment, circular screen is coated with

(1) Gold
(2) Lead
(3) Silver Sulfide
(4) Zinc Sulfide

6) An α- particle contains

(1) 4 positive charge & 2 mass unit


(2) 2 positive charge & 4 mass unit
(3) 2 positive charge & 2 mass unit
(4) 4 positive charge & 4 mass unit

7) Which of the following has the same number of protons, electrons & neutrons ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

8) An isotones of is.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) Structure of nuclei of three atoms A, B and C are given below


A has 90 protons and 146 neutrons
B has 92 protons and 146 neutrons
C has 90 protons and 148 neutrons
Based on the above data, which of these atoms are isotopes and which are isobars?

(1) A and C are isotopes B and C are isobars


(2) A and B are isotopes A and C are isobars
(3) B and C are isobars A and B are isotopes
(4) A and C are isotopes A and B are isobars

10) Which of the following will have equal number of electrons?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) Three elements A, B and C have atomic number Z-1, Z and Z+2 respectively. B is a noble gas.
The compound between A and C will be

(1)
(2) CA
(3)
(4)

12) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Charges on an electron and proton are equal and opposite


(2) Neutron have no charge
(3) Electron and proton have same mass
(4) Masses of proton and neutron are nearly the same

13) An atom which has a mass number of 14 and 8 neutrons is -

(1) Isotope of oxygen


(2) Isobar of oxygen
(3) Isotope of carbon
(4) Isobar of carbon

14) Electronic configuration of an atom is 2, 8, 1. Which of the following elements is similar with it in
chemical reactivity?

(1) K
(2) Cl
(3) N
(4) Ar
15) Valence electron in ions is

(1) 16
(2) 8
(3) 17
(4) 18

16) When electron jumps from L to K shell

(1) Energy is released


(2) Energy is absorbed
(3) Energy is sometimes released and sometimes absorbed
(4) Energy is neither absorbed nor released

17) If Z = 10 the valency of the element is _______ .

(1) Zero
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

18) Which of the following isotope is used in the treatment of blood cancer?

(1) P-32
(2) I-131
(3) Co-60
(4) Any one of these

19) Which isotope is generally used as a nuclear fuel?

(1) U-235
(2) Co-60
(3) P-32
(4) Iodine

20) The average atomic mass of an element X is 80 u. The present of isotopes in


the sample is

(1) 90.99 and 9.01


(2) 80.8 and 19.2
(3) 66.67 and 33.34
(4) 50 and 50

Section – III : BIOLOGY


1) Mycorrhiza, a relationship between fungi and roots of higher plants, is a –

(1) Parasitic relationship


(2) Saprophytic relationship
(3) Symbiotic relationship
(4) Epiphytic relationship

2) Lichens are a symbiotic relationship between a –

(1) Fungus and bacteria


(2) Fungus and algae
(3) Fungus and funaria
(4) Fungus and blue green algae

3) In five kingdom classification, which single kingdom contains blue-green algae, nitrogen fixing
bacteria and methanogenic archaebacteria?

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Plantae
(4) Fungi

4) The common name for Ascaris is –

(1) Shipworm
(2) Pinworm
(3) Tapeworm
(4) Roundworm

5) Platyhelminthes are also called –

(1) Roundworms
(2) Flatworms
(3) Blindworms
(4) None of the above

6) A prokaryotic cell –

(1) has membrane-bound organelles


(2) has membrane-bound nucleus
(3) lacks a true nucleus
(4) has clearly demarcated nucleus and other organelles

7) The most simple and primitive plants are –

(1) Protists
(2) Fungi
(3) Algae
(4) Bacteria

8) The two super kingdoms created on the basis of cell structure are –

(1) Monera and Protista


(2) Prokaryote and Eukaryote
(3) Plantae and Animalia
(4) Protista and Non-Protista

9) A plant body which is not differentiated into stem, roots, etc. is called –

(1) Thallus
(2) Mycelium
(3) Frond
(4) Substratum

10) Which one of the following is not the basis of Five kingdom system of classification?

(1) Complexity of cell structure


(2) Complexity of cellular organization
(3) Type of reserve food material
(4) Mode of nutrition

11) Among Five kingdom classification, eukaryotes are placed in how many kingdoms?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

12) The mode of nutrition in monerans/bacteria may be –

(1) Autotrophic
(2) Heterotrophic/Parasitic
(3) Saprophytic/Saprotrophic
(4) All of these

13) ‘Systema Naturae’ was written by –

(1) Darwin
(2) Linnaeus
(3) Aristotle
(4) John Ray
14) Which of the following are characteristics of both bacteria and fungi?

(1) Cell wall, unicelluar and mitochondria


(2) Cell wall, DNA and plasma membrane
(3) Plasma membrane, multicellularity and Golgi apparatus
(4) Nucleus, organelles and unicellularity

15) Algae are similar to plants and were classified together because –

(1) They have true leaves, stems and roots


(2) They make their own food through photosynthesis
(3) They produce seeds
(4) They do not prepare their own food by themselves

16) The sequence of taxa in the animal kingdom is –

(1) Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, species,and genus


(2) Kingdom, phylum , class, order, family, genus, and species
(3) Kingdom, phylum, class, family, order, species and genus
(4) Phylum, kingdom, class, family, order, genus and species

17) Four-chambered heart is present in –

(1) Frog
(2) Crocodile
(3) Shark
(4) Lizard

18) In the latin name Salix nigra, the first name is the ______ and second is the ______ .

(1) Genus, species


(2) Family, genus
(3) Common name, scientific name
(4) Species, genus

19) Who introduced the system of scientific nomenclature of organisms?

(1) Robert Whittaker


(2) Carolus Linnaeus
(3) Robert Hook
(4) Ernst Haeckel

20) Two chambered heart occurs in –

(1) Crocodiles
(2) Fish
(3) Aves
(4) Amphibians

Section – IV : MATHEMATICS

1) AB and CD are parallel chords with centre O such that AB = 80 cm and CD = 18 cm. The chords
are on the same side of the centre and the distance between them is 31 cm. The radius of the circle
is

(1) 17 cm
(2) 43 cm
(3) 21 cm
(4) 41 cm

2) The figure shows a circle of diameter AB and radius 12.5 cm. If chord CA is 24 cm, find the area

of triangle ABC.

(1) 60 cm2
(2) 84 cm2
(3) 40 cm2
(4) 52 cm2

3) Two chords AB and CD of a circle cut each other when produced outside the circle at P. AD and

BC are joined. If PAD = 30° and CPA = 45°, find


CBP

(1) 95°
(2) 105°
(3) 135°
(4) None of these

4) The given figure shows a circle with centre O in which a diameter AB bisects the chord PQ at the
point R. If PR = RQ = 8 cm and RB = 4 cm, then find the radius of the circle.
(1) 12 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 16 cm
(4) 13 cm

5) In the given figure, ABO = 60°. If O is the centre, then ACB is equal to

(1) 40°
(2) 60°
(3) 50°
(4) 30°

6) In the given figure, O is the centre and m AOC = 130°. Then, m CBE is equal to

(1) 50°
(2) 100°
(3) 105°
(4) 115°

7) The mean of a data is 'P'. If each observation is multiplied by 3 and then 1 is added to each result,
the mean of the new observations so obtained is

(1) P
(2) 3p
(3) p + 1
(4) 3p + 1

8) The mean of 11 observations is 17.5. If an observation '15' is deleted, the mean of the remaining
observations will be

(1) 16
(2) 17.75
(3) 17.5
(4) 17.25

9) The median and mean of n observations are 30.5 and 26.2. Find its mode

(1) 31.2
(2) 35.1
(3) 40.4
(4) 39.1

10) The probability of getting a sum of more than 7 when a pair of dice is thrown, is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

11) Tickets numbered from 1 to 20 are mixed up together and then a ticket is drawn at random.
What is the probability that the drawn ticket has a number which is a multiple of either 3 or 5?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

12) The probability expressed as a percentage of a particular occurrence can never be

(1) Less than 100


(2) Less than 0
(3) Greater than 1
(4) Anything but a whole number

13) Find the values of x for which log (x + 1) + log (x – 1) = 3log2 + log3, x > 0.
(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 3

14) Find the value of x, if

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

15) If and then the value of a + b + c is

(1) 2
(2) 0
(3) 1
(4) None of these

16) Solve for x,

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 6

17) If find the value of

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) If find the value of

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

19) Evaluate:

(1)

(2)

(3) 1

(4)

20) Evaluate:

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

PART – B : MENTAL ABILITY

1) Arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence.


A. Tree B. Seed
C. Flower D. Fruit
E. Plant

(1) B, E, A, C, D
(2) B, E, A, D, C
(3) E, A, B , C, D
(4) B, E, C, A, D

2) Arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence.


A. Index B. Chapter
C. Book D. Questions

(1) C, D, A, B
(2) C, A, D, B
(3) C, A, B, D
(4) D, C, A, B

3) Arrange the following in correct sequence.


1. District 2. Village 3. State
4. Town 5. City
(1) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
(2) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
(3) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4
(4) 2, 5, 3, 4, 1

4)

In the question below are two/three/four statements followed by two/three/four conclusions. You
have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly
known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow
from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
All the Harmoniums are Instruments.
All the Instruments are Flutes.
Conclusions:
(I) All the Flutes are Instruments.
(II) All the Harmoniums are Flutes.

(1) Only I conclusion follows


(2) Only II conclusion follows
(3) Either I or II conclusion follows
(4) Both conclusion follows

5) In the question below are two/three/four statements followed by two/three/four conclusions. You
have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly
known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow
from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some Eyes are Ears.
Some Ears are Lungs.
All Lungs are Hands.
Conclusions:
(I) Some Hands are Eyes.
(II) Some Hands are Ears.
(III) Some Lungs are Eyes.

(1) None follow


(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) All follows

6) A, B, P, Q, Y and Z are sitting in a row. P and Q are at the two ends. A and Z are at center. Y is
right of P. Who is third left of B ?

(1) P
(2) Z
(3) Y
(4) R
7) Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is between D and C. A is between E and
C. F is to the right of [Link] is between A and F ?

(1) B
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E

8) Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a closed circle facing the centre. A is facing D. C is
between A and B. F is between E and A. E is to the left of D. Who is to the immediate left of B?

(1) A
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E

9) E is the son of A. D is the son of B. E is married to C. C is B's daughter. How is D related to E?

(1) Brother
(2) Uncle
(3) Father-in-law
(4) Brother-in-law

10) If Amit's father is Ketan's father's only son and Ketan has neither a brother nor a daughter. What
is the relation between Ketan and Amit?

(1) Uncle-Nephew
(2) Father-Daughter
(3) Father-Son
(4) Cousin

11) A's son B is married with C whose sister D is married to E the brother of B. How D is related to
A?

(1) Sister
(2) Daughter-in-law
(3) Sister-in-law
(4) Cousin

12)

If P $ Q means 'P is the father ofQ,P#Q means 'P is the mother of Q, P*Q means P is the sister of Q.
Then, how is Q related to N in N # L $ P * Q?

(1) Grandson
(2) Granddaughter
(3) Nephew
(4) Data inadequate

13) When time is 4 : 40, the angle between hands of a clock is –

(1) 120°
(2) 100°
(3) 90°
(4) 130°

14) At what time between 4 and 5 will the hands of a watch be together?

(1)
minutes past 4

(2)
minutes past 4

(3)
minutes past 4
(4) None of these

15) How many time in a day, the two hands of a clock are at right angle?

(1) 11
(2) 22
(3) 44
(4) None of these

Common Content for Question No. 16 to 17

Direction : Read the following information and then find out answer to the questions that follow.

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input of words and numbers, rearranges
them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and
rearrangement.

Input : by now 25 72 sight 37 15 home

Step I : sight by now 25 72 37 15 home

Step II : sight 15 by now 25 72 37 home

Step III : sight 15 now by 25 72 37 home

Step IV : sight 15 now 25 by 72 37 home

Step V : sight 15 now 25 home by 72 37

Step VI : sight 15 now 25 home 37 by 72

And Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find
out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
16) Step III of an input is : yellow 12 tire 92 84 36 goal life
How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

17) Step II of an input is : victory 19 22 34 age bear high 24


Which of the following will be step VII?

(1) There will be no step VII


(2) victory 19 high 22 34 age bear 24
(3) victory 19 high 22 bear 34 age 24
(4) victory 19 high 22 bear 24 34 age

18) Step IV of an input is : now 17 mother 23 can know 47 31


How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

19) Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

Common Content for Question No. 20 to 21


In each problem, out of the four figures marked (1), (2), (3) and (4) three are similar in a certain
manner. However, one figure is not like the other three. Choose the figure which is different from
the rest.

20)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
ANSWER KEYS

PART – A : Section – I : PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 4 1 2 2 2 1 2 1 3 2 3 1 3 1 4 3 2 1

Section – II : CHEMISTRY

Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 1 3 4 2 1 2 1 2 1 3 3 1 2 1 1 3 1 3

Section – III : BIOLOGY

Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 3 2 1 4 2 3 3 2 1 3 3 4 2 2 2 2 2 1 2 2

Section – IV : MATHEMATICS

Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 4 2 2 2 4 3 4 2 4 2 1 2 2 3 2 2 2 3 4 1

PART – B : MENTAL ABILITY

Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 3 1 2 2 3 4 3 4 3 2 4 2 1 3 2 1 1 2 4
SOLUTIONS

PART – A : Section – I : PHYSICS

3)

6) 30N air, 20N water. In liquid of density half of water?


FB = wa – ww = 30 – 20 = 10N.

When so, means 10 = v. δw × g


10 = v. 1000 × 10
v = 10–3m3

when
w' = v. 500 × g
= 10–3 × 500 × 10
w' = 5N
So, spring balance = Wa – FB = 30 – 5 = 25N.

7) v = 3 × 3× 1 = 9m3
m = δv = 150 × 9 = 1350 kg.
Weight of raft + load = wt. of water displaced by raft
1350 + x = v.δw
v.δw = 1350 = 9 × 1020 – 1350 = 9180 – 1350 = 7830 kg.
Option - (2)

8) The four piston are initially in equilibrium. As additional force F is applied to each piston,

the pressure in fluid at each point must be increased by so that each piston retains state of

equilibrium. Thus the increment in


pressure at each point is (by Pascal's law)

15) m = 50 kg, s = 10 m, F = 100 N, θ = 60°


WD = F s cosθ = 100 × 10 × cos 60°
= 500 J

19)

PE = mgH = 5 × 10 × 2 = 100 J

20)

v = 72 km/h= 20 m/s

F = m × a = 1000 × 4 = 4000 N
P = F × V = 4000 × 20
P = 8 × 104 W, Pavg = 4 × 104 W

Section – II : CHEMISTRY

Section – III : BIOLOGY

Section – IV : MATHEMATICS

PART – B : MENTAL ABILITY

84)
So, only II follows.

85)
So, only II follows.

90)

Clearly Ketan is Father of Amit.


91)

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