P

NEET- 2024
Mark Group Date : 09/04/2024
720 PCB FINAL ROUND - 05 Time : 3 : 20 Hours
Question Booklet Version Roll No. Question Booklet Sr. No

P (Write this number on

your Answer Sheet) 0 4324

This is to certify that, the entries of NEET-IIB 2023-24 Roll No. and Answer Sheet No. have been correctly written and
verified.

Date : 09/04/2024
Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature

1. The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2024 comprises of two Sections. Each subject (Physics, Chemistry, Botany,
Zoology ) will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15
questions, out of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions. So, the total
number of questions and utilization of time will remain the same. Total No. of Questions (200 ), The
duration of the test would be 3 :20 hours.
2. Tile questions paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet is issued separately at the start of the
examination.
3. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.
4. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Questions Booklet and Answer Sheet and
make the correct entries on the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheet are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARK
READER (OMR) SYSTEM, special care should be taken to mark the entries correctly. Special care should be
taken to fill QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION, SERIAL No. and NEET-IIB-2023-24 Roll . accurately. The candidate
must sign on the Answer Sheet and Question Booklet.
5. Determine the one correct answer from out of the four available options given for each question,
6. NEET (UG) – 2024 is a Pen & Paper-based Test, to be answered on the specially designed machine gradable
OMR sheet using Ball Point Pen.
7. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.
8. Rough work should be done only one the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work should
not be done on the Answer Sheet.
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over. the Question Booklet and Answer sheet is to be
returned to the invigilator. Confirm that both the candidate and invigilator have signed on question booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Test Syllabus (PCB NEET - 2024)

Physics : XIth + XIIth Whole Physics
Chemistry : XIth + XIIth Whole Chemistry
Biology : XIth + XIIth Whole Biology

1
 NEET - 2024 P

06. Three rods of same dimensions have thermal

PHYSICS conductivities 3K, 2K and K. They are arranged
as shown below
SECTION - A (35 Questions)
01. A transformer connected to 220 V mains is used
to light a lamp of rating 100 W and 110 V. If the
primary current is 0.5 A, the efficiency of the
transformer is (approximately)
(1) 60% (2) 35%
(3) 50% (4) 90% What will be the temperature T of the junction?

02. At which temperature the rms velocity of a 200 o 100 o

(1) C (2) C
hydrogen molecule equal to that of an oxygen 3 3
molecule at 47°C?
50 o
(1) 80 K (2) – 73 K (3) 75oC (4) C
3
(3) 4 K (4) 20 K
An electric field is given by (3iˆ  10 ˆj  2kˆ ) N /C .

Date : 09/04/2024
07.
03. A particle starts from rest and moves along a
straight line for 10 seconds. Its acceleration a The electric flux through a surface area 60iˆ m 2
versus time t is as shown in figure. The maximum lying in YZ- plane (in SI unit) is:
speed of the particle is :
(1) 90
(2) 150
(3) 180
(4) 60
08. Current in an inductor is varying with time as shown
in figure. Which one of the following is the correct
(1) 80 m/s (2) 40 m/s
variation of induced emf in the coil with time ?
(3) 400 m/s (4) 320 m/s
04. In the figure shown, the total resistance between A
and B is

(1) 12  (2) 4 
(1) (2)
(3) 6  (4) 8 
05. Which of the following series in the spectrum of
hydrogen atom lies in the visible region of the
electromagnetic spectrum ?
(1) Paschen series (2) Balmer series (3) (4)
(3) Lyman series (4) Brackett series

EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! THINK NEET - JEE THINK IIB

2
 P NEET - 2024

09. Statement I : Work done by static friction may 13. A disc is rotating with an angular velocity 0 . A
be positive
constant retarding torque is applied on it to stop
Statement II : Static friction may act along the the disc. The angular velocity becomes ( 0 /2) after
direction of motion of an object. n rotations. How many more rotations will it make
(1) both, Statement I and Statement II are true before coming to rest?

(2) both, Statement I and Statement II are false (1) n (2) 2n

(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (3) n/2 (4) n/3
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true 14. For an isotropic medium B, µ, H and M are related
10. A string of mass ‘m’ and length ‘l’ rests over a as (where B, µ0, H and M have their usual meanings
frictionless table with 1/4th of its length hanging in the context of magnetic material
from a side. The work done in bringing the hanging
part back on the table is (1) (B – M) = µ0 H

(1) mgl/4 (2) mgl / 32 (2) M = µ0 (H + M)

(3) mgl / 16 (4) None of these. (3) H = µ0 (H + M)

11. An electric current passes through non-uniform (4) B = µ0 (H + M)

Date : 09/04/2024
cross-section wire made of homogeneous and
isotropic material. If jA and jB are the current 15. When a torque acting upon a system is zero. Which
densities and EA and EB are the electric field of the following will be constant?
intensities at A and B respectively, then
(1) Force (2) Linear momentum

(3) Angular momentum (4) Linear impulse

16. When n fluids of masses m1, m2, ..., mn and densi-

ties 1, 2 ,....., n respectively are mixed together,,
(1) j A  jB ; E A  EB
then resultant density of mixture is
(2) j A  jB ; E A  EB n n

m i m i i
(3) j A  jB ; E A  EB (1) i 1
(2) i 1
n
n

 i m i
(4) j A  jB ; E A  EB i 1 i 1

12. The strain-stress curves of three wires of different n

materials are shown in the figure. P, Q and R are
the elastic limits of the wires. The figure shows that
m
i 1
i
(3) n (4) infinity
mi

i 1 i

17. When the temperature of a rod increases from t to

t  t , its moment of inertia increases from I to
I  I . If  be the coefficient of linear expansion
(1) elasticity of wire P is maximum I
of the rod, then the value of is
I
(2) elasticity of wire Q is maximum
(3) tensile strength of R is maximum (1) 2t (2) t

(4) None of these (3) t / 2 (4) t / 

EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! THINK NEET - JEE THINK IIB

3
 NEET - 2024 P
18. Match the column-I with column-II 22. A cricket player catches a ball of mass 120 g mov-
ing with 25 m/s speed. If the catching process is
Column-I Column-II
(Number) (Number of completed in 0.1 s then the magnitude of force ex-
significant digits) erted by the ball on the hand of player will be (in
SI unit) :
(A) 1001 (P) 5 (1) 24 (2) 12
(B) 0100.1 (Q) 4 (3) 25 (4) 30
(C) 100.100 (R) 6
23. A bus is moving with a speed of 10 ms–1 on a
(D) 0.001001 (S) 3 straight road. A scooterist wishes to overtake the
bus in 100 s. If the bus is at a distance of 1 km
(1) A  Q, B  Q, C  R, D  Q from the scooterist, with what speed should the
(2) A  Q, B  P, C  R, D  R scooterist chase the bus ?
(3) A  Q, B  S, C  S, D  Q (1) 40 ms–1
(4) A  Q, B  Q, C  P,, D  Q (2) 25 ms–1
19. A thermodynamics system is taken through the
(3) 10 ms–1
cycle ABCDA as shown in the figure. Heat rejected
by the gas during the cycle is (4) 20 ms–1

Date : 09/04/2024
24. The magnetic field due to a straight solid conductor
of uniform cross-section of radius a and carrying a
steady current is represented by

(1) (2)
(1) 2 PV (2) 4 PV
(3) PV / 2 (4) PV
20. The E-r curve for an infinite linear charge distribu-
tion will be (3) (4)

(1) (2) 25. If the origin of co-ordinate system lies at the centre
of mass, the sum of the moments of the masses of
the system about the centre of mass

(1) may be greater than zero

(3) (4)
(2) may be less than zero

(3) may be equal to zero

21. A block follows the path as shown in the figure
from height h. If radius of circular path is r, then (4) is always zero
relation that holds good to complete full circle is :
26. In a coil having emf of 8V induced for 0.05 s, the
(1) h < 5r/2
value of current changes from 2A to 4A. The value
(2) h = 5r/2 of coefficient of self induction of the coil is

(3) h  5r/2 (1) 10.8 H (2) 0.4 H

(4) All of Above (3) 0.2 H (4) 0.1 H

EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! THINK NEET - JEE THINK IIB

4
 P NEET - 2024

27. The dimensions of physical quantity X in the 32. The magnifying power of a simple microscope when
X final image is formed at D is 6. The focal length of
equation Force = is given by its lens in metres will be
Density
(1) 0.25
(1) [M1L4T–2] (2) [M2L–2T–1]
(2) 0.06
(3) [M L T ]
2 –2 –2
(4) [M L T ]
1 –2 –1
(3) 0.05
28. A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance C = (4) 0.12
100 pF. It is connected to 230 V ac supply with
33. A satellite is revolving around the earth in an orbit
an angular frequency 600 rad/s. The rms value of
of radius r with time period T. If the satellite is
conduction current in the circuit and displacement
revolving around the earth in an orbit of radius
current in the capacitor respectively are:
r  r ( r  r ) with time period T  T then,
(1) 1.38 µA and 1.38 µA
T 3 r
(2) 14.3 µA and 143 µA (1) 
T 2 r
(3) 13.8µA and 138µA
T 2 r
(2) 
(4) 13.8µA and 13.8µA T 3 r

Date : 09/04/2024
29. If 1 and  2 denote the wavelength of de Broglie T r
(3) 
waves for electrons in the first and second Bohr T r
orbits in hydrogen atom, then 1 /  2 is equal to
T r
(4) 
(1) 2 / 1 (2) 1 / 2 T r

(3) 1 / 4 (4) 4 / 1 34. Statement I : The phase difference of two light

30. Consider the following statements regarding se- waves changes if they travel through different media
ries grouping of capacitors and select the correct having same thickness, but different indices of
statements. refraction.
I. Charge on each capacitor remains same and
Statement II : The wavelength of waves are
equals to the main charge supplied by the battery.
different in different media.
II. Potential difference and energy distributes in the
reverse ratio of capacitance. (1) both, Statement I and Statement II are true
III. Effective capacitance is even less than the least
(2) both, Statement I and Statement II are false
of the individual capacitances.
IV. Potential on each capacitor remains same and (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
equals to the potential supplied by battery.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(1) I and II (2) III and IV
(3) II and IV only (4) I, II and III 35. Consider the diffraction pattern obtained from the
sunlight incident on a pinhole of diameter 0.lµm. If
31. Find VAB the diameter of the pinhole is slightly increased, it
will affect the diffraction pattern such that

(1) Its size decreases, and intensity decreases

(2) Its size increases, and intensity increases.

(3) Its size increases, but intensity decreases

(1) 10 V (2) 20 V
(3) 30 V (4) none of these (4) Its size decreases, but intensity increases.

EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! THINK NEET - JEE THINK IIB

5
 NEET - 2024 P

SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions)

36. If two SHMs are represented by equations

 1  1 
y1  8sin(2t  ) and (1) sin  
4 2
y2  2[sin(2 t )  3 cos(2t )].
1  3 
The ratio of their amplitude is (2) sin  
 2 
(1) 4 : 1

(2) 1 : 4 1  2 
(3) sin  
 3
(3) 2 : 1

(4) 2 :1 1  1 
(4) sin  
 3
37. The velocity vector  and displacement vector x
of a particle executing SHM are related as 40. A block of mass m is placed on a surface having
d  vertical cross section given by y = x2/4. If coeffi-
 2 x with the initial condition   0 at

Date : 09/04/2024
dx cient of friction is 0.5, the maximum height above
x = 0. The velocity  , when displacement is x, is the ground at which block can be placed without
slipping is :
(1)   02  2 x 2
(1) 1/4 m
(2)   02  2 x 2 (2) 1/2 m

(3)   3 30  3 x3 (3) 1/6 m

(4) 1/3 m
(4)   0  (3 x3e x )1/3
3

41. The combination of ‘NAND’ gates shown here

38. The path difference between two waves under (figure) are equivalent to

 2x 
y1  a1 sin  t  
  

 2 x 
and y2  a2 cos  t     is
  

   
(1) ( ) (2)  
2 2  2

2   2
(3)
 
  (4)  
2 

39. A transparent solid cylinder rod has a refractive (1) an OR gate and and AND gate respectively
index of 2 / 3. It is surrounded by air. A light ray (2) an AND gate and NOT gate respectively
is incident at the mid-point of one end of the rod
as shown in the figure. The incident angle  for (3) an AND gate and an OR gate respectively
which the light ray grazes along the wall of the rod
is : (4) an OR gate and a NOT gate respectively

EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! THINK NEET - JEE THINK IIB

6
 P NEET - 2024

42. A student measured the diameter of a small steel 46. An electron of a stationary hydrogen atom passes
ball using a screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm. from the fifth energy level to the ground level. The
The main scale reading is 5 mm and zero of circular velocity that the atom acquired as a result of photon
scale division coincides with 25 divisions above emission will be
the reference level. If the screw gauge has a zero
error of –0.004 cm, the correct diameter of the 24hR 25hR
ball is (1) (2)
25m 24m
(1) 0.521 cm
25m 24m
(3) (4)
(2) 0.529 cm 24hR 25hR

(3) 0.053 cm 47. A tunning fork of frequency 480 Hz is used in an

experiment for measuring speed of sound (v) in air
(4) 0.525 cm by resonance tube method. Resonance is observed
to occur at two successive lengths of the air column,
43. A big drop is formed by coalescing 1000 small I1 = 30 cm and I2 = 70 cm. Then v is equal to
droplets of water. The surface energy will become:
(1) 332 ms–1
(1) 100 times (2) 10 times
(2) 379 ms–1

Date : 09/04/2024
1 1 (3) 384 ms–1
(3) th (4) th
100 10
(4) 338 ms–1
44. In a plane EM wave, the electric field oscillates
48. In X-ray tube when the accelerating voltage is
sinusoidally at a frequency of 5 × 1010 Hz and an
halved, the difference between the wavelength of
amplitude of 100 Vm–1. The total average energy K  line and minimum wavelength of continuous
density of the electromagnetic field of the wave is :
X-ray spectrum
[Use  0  8.85  10 12 C 2 / Nm 2 ]
(1) remains constant
(1) 1.106 × 10 Jm–8 –3
(2) 4.425 × 10 Jm –8 –3
(2) becomes more than two times
(3) 2.212 × 10–8 Jm–3 (4) 2.212 × 10–10 Jm–3 (3) becomes half
45. Two identical particles having the same mass m (4) becomes less than two times
and charges +q and –q, separated by a distance
d, enter in a uniform magnetic field B, directed 49. Two charges q and 3q are separated by a dis-
perpendicular to paper inwards, with speeds v1 tance ‘r’ in air. At a distance x from charge q, the
and v2 as shown in figure. The particle will not resultant electric field is zero. The value of x is:
collide if
(1  3) r
(1) (2)
r 3(1  3)

r
(3) (4) r (1  3)
(1  3)

50. A block of mass 2m is attached to a string of length

L = 5m. The block is released when the string is
horizontal, it picks up a particle of 2m kept at rest
m m
(1) d  (v1  v2 ) (2) d  (v1  v2 ) at the lowest point. The maximum height attained
Bq Bq by the combined mass is

2m (1) 1 m (2) 1.25 m

(3) d  (v1  v2 ) (4) Not possible
Bq (3) 1.5 m (4) 2.0 m

EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! THINK NEET - JEE THINK IIB

7
 P NEET - 2024

57. Which of the following reactions are incorrect.

CHEMISTRY
(1) O2N ONa CH3 Br O2N OCH 3
SECTION - A (35 Questions)
51. Which of the following statement is correctregarding (2) HO Br CH3ONa HO OCH3
phenol ?
A. electron withdrawing groups stabilize the (3) O C2H5 HBr OH C2H 5Br
phenoxide ion and increase the acidic strength
OH
B. electron donating groups destabilise the
phenoxide ion and decrease the acidic strength (4) CH 2 O HI CH 2 I

C. -OH group in phenol is ortho and para directing.

CN
D. Intermolecular H-bonding is present in phenol
CH3MgBr H2O
(1) A, C only (2) A, B only 58. dry ether
X Y

(3) C, D only (4) A, B, C, D

Identify Y
52. Statement-I : Lucas reagent is [Link] and
(1) Benzophenone
ZnCl2.
(2) Acetophenone
Statement-II : 3o-alcohol gives fastest turbidity
(3) Benzoic acid
with Lucas reagent.

Date : 09/04/2024
(4) Phenol
In the light of above statements,choose the correct
option. 59. Which of the following reactions is used to make a
fuel cell ?
(1) Both the statements (I) and (II) are true
(2) Both the statements (I) and (II) are false (1) Cd (s) + 2Ni(OH)3 (s)  
(3) Statement (I) is true but statement (II) is false CdO (s) + 2NiOH + H2O(l)
(4) Statement (I) is false but statement (II) is true
53. 10 mL of liquid carbon disulphide (specific gravity (2) Pb (s) + PbO2 (s) + 2H2SO4 (aq)  
2.63) is burnt in oxygen. Find the volume of the 2PbSO4 (s) + 2H2O (l)
resulting gases measured at STP.
CS2( l ) + 3O2(g)  (3) 2H2 (g) + O2 (g)   2H2O (l)
 CO2(g) + 2SO2(g)
(1) 23.25 L (4) 2Fe (s) + O2 (g) + 4H+ (aq)  
(2) 42.26 L
(3) 30.50 L 2Fe2+ (aq) + 2H2O (l)
(4) 10.08 L 60. The number of gram atoms of oxygen in
6.02 × 1024 CO molecules is
54. For the reaction : 2X + 3Y   3Z, the (1) 10 g atoms
combination of 2.00 moles of X with 2.00 moles of (2) 5 g atoms
Y produces 1.75 moles of Z. What is the (3) 1 g atoms
percentage yield of this reaction ? (4) 0.5 g atoms
(1) 43.8% (2) 58.3% 61. Which of the following is a zero overlap which leads
(3) 66.7% (4) 87.5% to non-bonding?
55. In thiosulphuric acid (H2S2O3), the two sulphur
atoms have the oxidation states
(1) +2 and –2 (2) +4 and –2 (1) (2)
(3) +6 and –2 (4) +4 and +2
56. The compound used for the preparation of UF6 in
235
the enrichement of 92 U is
(1) AlF3 (2) CaF2 (3) (4) All
(3) HF (4) CIF3

EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! THINK NEET - JEE THINK IIB

8
 NEET - 2024 P

62. The bond angles of NH3, NH 4  and N H 2 are in 67. The least stable ion among the following is
the order: (1) Li
 (2) B
(1) NH 2   NH3  N H 4
(3) C
 
(4) Be
(2) N H 4  NH 3  N H 2
68. Assertion : SeCl4 does not have a tetrahedral
 
structure.
(3) NH 3  N H 2  N H 4
Reason : Se in SeCl4 has two lone pairs.
 
(4) NH 3  N H 4  N H 2 (1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason
is the correct explanation of assertion
63. Assertion : α -amino acids exists as dipolar ions
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
or zwitter ions. is not the correct explanation of assertion
Reason : α -amino acids are the building blocks (3) If assertion is true but reason is false
of proteins.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason
is the correct explanation of assertion. 69. Which is not true about acetophenone ?
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason (i) Reacts with I2/NaOH to form iodoform

Date : 09/04/2024
is not the correct explanation of assertion (ii) Reacts with Tollen’s reagent to form silver mirror
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false (iii) On oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 followed
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. by hydrolysis gives benzoic acid
64. Select incorrect statement(s) about Cannizzaro (iv) Reacts with 2, 4-DNP to form
reaction 2,4-dinitrophenyl-hydrazone
(I) Aldehydes which do not have an α –hydrogen (1) ii and iv
atom undergo this reaction. (2) ii only
(II) It is an example of disproportionation reaction. (3) i and iv
(III) Aromatic aldehydes do not give this reaction. (4) iv only
(IV) Reaction is carried out in the pressure of strong 70. The stability of the following carbocations decreases
acid. in the order.
(1) (II), (III) and (IV) only
(2) (II) and (IV) only (i)
(3) (III) and (IV) only
(4) (IV) only
65. Which one of the following can be classified as a (ii)
Bronsted base:
(1) NO3–
(2) H3O+ (iii)
(3) NH4+
(4) CH3COOH
66. The pH of pure water or neutral solution at 50oC (iv)
is: (pKw = 13.26 at 50oC)
(1) 7.0 (1) iv > i > ii > iii
(2) 7.13 (2) iv > ii > iii > i
(3) 6.0 (3) iv > iii > ii > i
(4) 6.63 (4) iv > ii > i > iii

EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! THINK NEET - JEE THINK IIB

9
 P NEET - 2024

71. Which of the following statement(s) are correct? 76. Match the following:
(A) The electronic configuration of Cr is [Ar] 3d5
4s1 (atomic number of Cr = 24) List I List II
(Statement) (Law or Concept)
(B) The magnetic quantum number may have a 1. Solubility of gas (i) Reverse osmosis
negative value  Pressure of gas
2. Relative lowering (ii) Le-Chatelier’s principle
(C) In silver atom, 23 electrons have a spin of one of vapour pressure
type and 24 of the opposite type (atomic number  mole fraction
of Ag = 47) 3. Solubility of gas (iii) Henry’s law
1
(D) The oxidation state of nitrogen in HN3, is – 3 
Temperature
(1) (A), (B), (C) 4. Desalination of Sea (iv) Raoult’s law
(2) (B), (C), (D) water

(3) (C), (D)

(1) (1)-(i); (2)-(iii); (3)-(iv); (4)-(ii)
(4) (A), (B), (D)
72. Which of the following properties are characteristic (2) (1)-(i); (2)-(iii); (3)-(ii); (4)-(iv)
of lyophobic sol ? (3) (1)-(iii); (2)-(i); (3)-(iv); (4)-(ii)
A. Low viscosity, (4) (1)-(iii); (2)-(iv); (3)-(ii); (4)-(i)
B. High viscosity, 77. When 1 mol of an ideal gas is heated at constant
C. Reversibility volume, temperature is raised from 298 to 308 K.
If heat supplied to the gas is 500 J, then which

Date : 09/04/2024
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below statement is correct ?
(1) A and C only (2) B and C only (1) q  w  500 J, U  0
(3) A only (4) A and B only (2) q  U  500 J, w  0
73. Among the following complexes the one which
(3) q   w  500 J, U  0
shows zero crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE)
is (4) U  0, q  w  500 J
(1) [Co(H2O)6]2+ 78. Which one of the following complex ion is not
(2) [Co(H2O)6]3+ expected to absorb visible light ?
(3) [Mn(H2O)6]3+ (1) [Ni(H2O)6]2+
(4) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Ni(CN)4]2–
74. Which will not give the usual test for iron ? (3) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
(1) K2Fe(SO4)4.24H2O (4) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(2) (NH4)2Fe(SO4)2.6H2O 79. In paper chromatography
(3) K3[Fe(CN)6] (1) Moving phase is liquid and stationary phase in
(4) Fe(SO4)3 solid
75. In which of the following reactions benzene is (2) Moving phase is liquid and stationary phase is
obtained liquid
(3) Moving phase is solid and stationary phase is
solid
(1) (4) Moving phase is solid and stationary phase is
liquid
80. Assertion : Order of a reaction with respect to
any reactant can be zero, positive, negative or
fractional.
(2)
Reason : Rate of a reaction cannot decrease with
increase in concentration of a reactant or a product.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason
(3) is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
is not the correct explanation of assertion
N 2Cl (3) If assertion is true but reason is false
H3O +
(4) (4) If both assertion and reason are false


EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! THINK NEET - JEE THINK IIB

10
 NEET - 2024 P

81. The IUPAC name of the following compound, is 88. Match the Following:
OH Column I Column II
(A) He (i) High electron affinity
(B) Cl (ii) Most electropositive element
(C) Ca (iii) Strongest reducing agent
(D) Li (iv) Highest ionization energy
CN
Br (1) A-(iii); B-(i); C-(ii), D-(iv)
(1) 4-bromo-3-cynophenoal (2) A-(iv); B-(iii); C-(ii), D-(i)
(2) 2-bromo-5-hydroxybenzonitrile
(3) 2-cyano-4-hydroxybromobenzene (3) A-(i); B-(ii); C-(iii), D-(iv)
(4) 6-bromo-3-hydroxybenzonitrile (4) A-(iv); B-(i); C-(ii), D-(iii)
82. Which one of the following elements shows
89. Identify (A) in the following reaction :
maximum number of different oxidation states in its
compounds ? OCH 3
(1) Eu (2) La (i) H2O/H+
OCH 3 (A)
(3) Gd (4) Am (ii) 
COOH
83. Which is the correct order of osmotic pressure for
the following: OH
1N KCl, 1N K2SO4, 1N K3PO4

Date : 09/04/2024
(1) CH 3
1 2 3
(1) 3 > 2 > 1 (2) 1 > 2 > 3 COOH
(3) 2 > 1 > 3 (4) 3 > 1 > 2
84. Major product of the given reaction is
(2) O
[Link] 4 CH3
273 K
O
OH
(1) O (2) (3) O
OH
OH COOH
CHO
(3) (4) CHO
(4) O
85. No disproportionation is possible for
(1) AsH3 (2) SF4
(3) H5IO6 (4) PCl3 90. What is the value of pKb of (CH 3COO –) if
SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions) Λ om = 390 S cm–1 mol–1 and Λ m =7.8 S cm2
86. A substance C 4H 10O yields on oxidation a mol–1 for 0.04 M of CH3COOH at 25oC?
compounds, C4H8O which gives an oxime and a
(1) 9.3
positive iodoform test. The original substance on
treatment with conc. H2SO4 gives C4H8. The (2) 9.2
structure of the compound is (3) 4.7
(1) (CH3)3COH
(4) 4.8
(2) CH3CHOHCH2CH3
(3) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH 91. In Al2Cl6 :
(4) CH3CH2–O–CH2CH3 (1) All Al-Cl bonds have equal bond lengths.
87. Rate constant of a first order reaction is (2) All Al-Cl (terminal) bonds are longer than all
1.15 × 10 –5 s –1. The percentage of initial Al-Cl (bridged) bonds.
concentration that remained after 1 hour is
(3) All Al-Cl (terminal) bonds are shorter than all
(Take 100.018 = 1.042)
Al-Cl (bridged) bonds
(1) 89.15 % (2) 95.96%
(3) 55.86% (4) 83.45% (4) None of the above
EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! THINK NEET - JEE THINK IIB
11
 P NEET - 2024

92. Match the reactions given in Column I with the name 95. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
given in Column II. for given reaction.
Column-I Column-II
CH3 CH 3
(i) Na (a) Fitting
X RX reaction
C + OH C + Cl
C2 H5 C2 H5
R (B)
Cl OH
X H (A) H
(ii) (b) Wurtz Fitting
reaction (C)
2 2Na Ether
(i) The rate of reaction depends on the
2NaX
concentration of only (A)
(iii) N2X X
(c) Finkelstein (ii) Molecularity of reaction is one
Cu2X 2 reaction
N2 (iii) Molecularity of reaction is two
(iv) The rate of reaction depends on the
(iv) C H Cl  NaI  dry acetone
 (d) Sandmeyer
2 5
C 2 H 5 I+NaCl reaction concentration of both (A) and (B)
(1) i, ii (2) i, iii
(1) (i)-(a), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c) (3) ii and iv (4) None of the above
(2) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d) 96 Identify the correct statement regarding a
(3) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c) spontaneous process:
(1) Lowering of energy in the process is the only
(4) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)

Date : 09/04/2024
criterionfor spontaneity
93. For the synthesis of ammonia by the reaction
(2) For a spontaneous process in an isolated system,
N 2  3H 2  2NH 3 in the Haber’s process, the
the total change in entropy  ΔSsystem +ΔSsurrounding  is
attainment of equilibrium is correctly predicted by positive
the curve. (Assume the initial concentration of NH3 (3) Endothermic processes are never spontaneous
to be zero)
(4) Exothermic processes are always spontaneous
97. Name the gas that can readily decolorise acidified
KMnO4 solution.
(1) SO2 (2) NO2
(1) (2) (3) P2O5 (4) CO2
98. Consider the following pairs of compounds:

(3) (4)

Which among the following statements is correct?

A. Both are enantiomers
94. The correct statement(s) among the following is/ B. Both are in threo form
are : C. Both are diastereomers
(i) π back bonding strengthens M-C bond order D. Both are in erythro form
as well as CO bond order. (1) A and B (2) A, B and C
(ii) π back bonding weakens M-C bond order as (3) B and C (4) C and D
well as CO bond order. 99. Find the magnetic moment of a divalent ion if its
(iii) π back bonding weakens M-C bond order atomic number is 25:
but strengthens CO bond order. (1) 6.9 B.M. (2) 5.9 B.M.
(iv) π back bonding strengthes M-C bond order (3) 4.9 B.M. (4) 3.0 B.M.
and weakens CO bond order 100. Kolbe’s electrolysis of a mixture of Potassium
Propanoate and Potassium 3-Methyl butanoate give
(1) (i) and (ii) only
(1) Butane and isobutane
(2) (ii) and (iii) only (2) Butane and 2,5–dimethylhexane
(3) (i) (ii) and (iii) only (3) Butane, 2, 5-dimethylhexane and isohexane
(4) (iv) only (4) Butane and isohexane

EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! THINK NEET - JEE THINK IIB

12
 NEET - 2024 P

105. If a DNA molecule is shortened by 25 base pairs,

BOTANY how many helical turns will be reduced from its
structure?
Section - A (35 Questions)
(1) 3 (2) 2.5
101. Who worked on embryological aspects
(3) 2 (4) 1
(Popularized the use of embryological characters
106. A cell examined during prophase of cell cycle
in taxonomy) and plant anatomy respectively?
contained 100 units of DNA and 50
(1) P. Guha and P. Maheshwari chromosomes. What would be the number of
(2) P. Maheshwari and Katherine Esau DNA and chromosomes in anaphase of this cell
cycle?
(3) G. N. Ramchandran and Katherine Esau
(1) 200 DNA & 100 chromosomes
(4) All of these
(2) 100 DNA & 50 chromosomes
102. How many plants from the list given below
(3) 100 DNA & 100 chromosomes
possess flowers with bilateral symmetry.
(4) 50 DNA & 25 chromosomes
China rose, Mustard, Pea, Canna, Datura, 107. Statement 1 :- When the electrons pass from
Gulmohar, Bean, Ray florets of sunflowers, disc one carrier to another via complex I to IV in the
florets of sunflower, cassia, Sem, Groundnut, electron transport chain, they are coupled to ATP
Maize, Lady’s finger, Cotton. synthase (complex V) for the production of ATP
from ADP and inorganic phosphate.

Date : 09/04/2024
(1) Four
Statement 2 :- Oxidation of one molecule of
(2) Fight NADH gives rise to 3 molecules of ATP, while
(3) Five that of one molecule of FADH2 produces 2
molecules of ATP.
(4) Six
(1) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True;
103. Tetramerous flowers, Polyandrous stamens with Statement 2 is correct explanation for Statement
tetradynamous condition is found in ____ family 1
(1) Poaceae (2) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True;
(2) Malvaceae Statement 2 is not correct explanation for
Statement 1
(3) Brassicaceae (3) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False
(4) Asteraceae (4) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True
104. Given below are two statements : 108. When two unrelated individuals or lines are
crossed, the performance of F1 hybrid is often
Statement I : DNA polymerases catalyse
superior to both its parents. This phenomenon
polymerisation only in one direction, that is is called :
5'  3' (1) Heterosis
Statement II : During replication of DNA, on (2) Splicing
one strand the replication is continuous while on (3) Transformation
other strand it is discontinuous. (4) Metamorphosis
109. Which one of the following conditions correctly
In the light of the above statements, choose the
describes the manner of determining the sex in
correct answer from the options given below : the given example?
(1) Both Statement I and Statement Il are correct (1) Heterozygous sex chromosomes (ZW)
(2) Both Statement I and Statement Il are determine female sex in Birds.
incorrect (2) XY type of sex chromosomes determine male
sex in grasshopper
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement I| is
(3) XO condition in humans as found in Turner
incorrect Syndrome, determines female sex.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is (4) Homozygous sex chromosomes (X) produce
correct male in Drosophila

EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! THINK NEET - JEE THINK IIB

13
 P NEET - 2024

110. In male grass hoppers and moths there are two 115. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80 S, while the
pairs of autosomes and :- prokaryotic ribosomes are 70 S. Here ‘S’ stands
(1) X only for ..........., it indirectly is a measure of ........:-
(2) X and Y (1) Svedberg unit, number of r-RNA in ribosome
(3) Y only (2) Smooth surface, surface area of ribosome
(4) None of these (3) Shortest organelle, size
111. Cell organelle organization of which exhibit cart (4) Sedimentation coefficient, size and density
wheel structure in transverse section:- 116. From the following, identify the correct
(A) is helpful in cell division in almost all plant combination of salient features of Genetic Code :
cells (1) Universal, Non-ambiguous, Overlapping
(B) is not covered by any membrane (2) Degenerate, Overlapping, Commaless
(C) is a self-duplicating unit (3) Universal, Ambiguous, Degenerate
(D) contain microtubules composed of Dynein (4) Degenerate, Non-overlapping, Non-
protein ambiguous
(1) A and C are incorrect 117. Which one of the following cannot be explained
(2) B and C are correct on the basis of Mendel’s Law of Dominance?

Date : 09/04/2024
(3) Only A is incorrect (1) Alleles do not show any blending and both
(4) Only B is correct the characters recover as such in F2 generation
112. Photorespiration shows formation of (2) Factors occur in pairs
(1) Sugar but not ATP (3) The discrete unit controlling a particular
character is called a factor
(2) ATP but not sugar
(4) Out of one pair of factors one is dominant
(3) Both ATP and sugar
and the other recessive
(4) Neither ATP or sugar
118. Which one of the following cellular parts is
113. Carnivore includes-
correctly described?
(1) Group of organisms who eat grass
(1) Thylakoids – no. of flattened membranous
(2) Group of organisms belonging to same sacs forming the grana of chloroplasts
species
(2) Centrioles - sites for active RNA synthesis
(3) Group of organisms belonging to related
(3) Ribosomes - those on chloroplasts are larger
families
(80s) while those in the cytoplasm are smaller
(4) Group of organisms which are similar in all (70s)
features
(4) Lysosomes - optimally active at a pH of about
114. Select the two correct statement among the 8.5
following
119. Observe the following diagram carefully, identify
A. All aquatic plants use water for pollination the phase of cell division and select the incorrect
B. Commelina produce both chasmogamous statement with respect to the same-
and cleistogamous flowers
C. Genetically geitonogamy is similar to
autogamy
D. Pollination by animals is reffered to as
anemophily
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A and D

EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! THINK NEET - JEE THINK IIB

14
 NEET - 2024 P
(1) Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator 124. A leafy gametophyte plant with multicellular
and get aligned along metaphase plate through rhizoids and sporophyte differentiated in foot,
spindle fibres to both poles. seta and capsule should belongs to :-
(2) The complete disintegration of the nuclear (1) Psilopsida (2) Hepaticopsida
envelope marks the start of the second phase of (3) Bryopsida (4) Lycopsida
Mitosis. 125. The unique feature of bryophytes compared to
(3) Chromosome is made up of two sister other green plant groups is that:-
chromatids, which are held together by the (1) They produce spores
centrioles.
(2) Independent sporophyte
(4) Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of
chromosomes. (3) Dependent gametophyte
120. Read following floral characters carefully. (4) Dependent sporophyte
Composite inflorescence, caryopsis fruit, basal 126. The word standing crop in ecosystem refers to-
placentation, inferior ovary, feathery stigma, (1) Non-living material
spikelet inflorescence, versatile stamens, ovary (2) Living material
obliquely placed on thalamus, actinomorphic (3) Both living and non-living components
flowers. (4) Amount of nutrient present in soil
How many characters belong to Poaceae family. 127. Consider the following statements and identify
(1) Two the correct option

Date : 09/04/2024
(2) Three (A) The portion of the spectrum between
(3) Four 500nm and 800nm is also referred to as
(4) Five photosynthetically active radiation (PAR)
121. If a geneticist uses the blind approach for (B) Magnesium, calcium and chloride ions play
sequencing the whole genome of an organism, prominent roles in the splitting of water
followed by assignment of function to different (C) In cyclic photophosphorylation, oxygen is
segments, the methodology adopted by him is not released (as there is no photolysis of water)
called as: and NADPH is also not produced
(1) Gene mapping Of these statements given above
(2) Expressed sequence tags (1) A is true, but B and C are false
(3) Bioinformatics (2) A and B are false, but C is true
(4) Sequence annotation (3) B is true, but B and C are false.
122. Which one of the following is not a criterion of (4) A and B are true, but C is false.
genetic material? 128. Pollen grains
(1) Should be able to express itself in the form (A) Represent gametophytic phase of plant
of Mendelian character. (B) Can cause severe allergies like asthma and
(2) Should be able to generate its replica. bronchitis
(3) Should be stable chemically and structurally. (C) Are rich in nutrient
(4) Should not provide the scope for changes (D) Are used as food supplements
for evolution. (E) Are available in form of tables and syrups
123. Assertion: Green algae are usually grass green. in market.
Reason: Green algae contain chlorophyll a and (1) Only A is correct
b. (2) All are correct
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (3) All are wrong
explanation of A (4) Only A, B and C are correct
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct 129. How many ATP molecules are obtained from
explanation of A fermentation of 7 molecule of glucose?
(3) A is true but R is false (1) 266 (2) 14
(4) Both A and R are false. (3) 22 (4) 7

EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! THINK NEET - JEE THINK IIB

15
 P NEET - 2024

130. Which of the following statements are correct 135. Which of the following is correct about the slime
regarding growth? mould?
(A) In plants, the form of growth is open and 1. Its thalloid body plasmodium, has
localised pseudopodia for locomotion and engulfing
(B) Swelling of piece of wood in water is organic matter
considered as growth since it involves the 2. During unfavorable conditions plasmodium
increase in size differentiates and produces fruiting bodies.
(C) Growth is accompanied by metabolic 3. Spores possess no true cell wall
processes 4. Spores are dispersed by air current
(D) Growth, at a cellular level, is a result of 5. Being extremely resistant, spores survive for
increase in the amount of protoplasm many years
(1) All the statements are correct 6. Plasmodium can grow upto several feet
(2) A and B (1) 1,2,4,5,6
(3) B, C and D (2) 1,2,3
(4) A, C and D (3) 1,2,3,6
131. Which of the following hormone closes stomata (4) 2,3,6
in response to water stress?
SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions)
(1) IAA (2) ABA

Date : 09/04/2024
136. Find correct statement/s about the dicot stem?
(3) NAA (4) GA3
(1) A large number of vascular bundles are
132. Zeatin, 2, 4-dichloro-phenoxy acetic acid and arranged in a ring
6-furfuryl amino purine are
(2) It does not show secondary growth and
(1) Synthetic auxin, kinetin and natural auxin Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed
respectively
(3) The cells of the endodermis are rich in starch
(2) Gibberellin, natural auxin and kinetin grains and the layer is also referred to as the
respectively
starch sheath
(3) Natural cytokinin, Natural auxin and Kinetin
(4) 1 and 3
respectively
137. Read following statements carefully.
(4) Natural cytokinin, synthetic auxin and
Kinetin respectively (A) Marginal, Basal and free central placentation
found in monolocular ovary.
133. Enormous amount of pollens are produced in
wind and water pollinated plants (B) Axile placentation found in polycarpellary
multilocular ovary.
(1) To compensate for uncertainties for contact
of pollen with stigma. (C) In members of Brassicaceae ovary becomes
bilocular due to formation of false septum and
(2) To compensate for loss of pollen grains.
axial column.
(3) To ensure pollination for large number of (D) Basal placentation is found in both superior
ovules present
and inferior ovary
(4) Both (1) and (2) Select incorrect statement
134. Sexual reproduction in fungus occurs in the (1) A and D
following sequential event. Arrange them
properly. (2) C and D
A. Fusion of two nuclei called karyogamy. (3) C only
B. Fusion of protoplasm between two motile or (4) D only
non-motile gametes. 138. Which of the following is not characteristics of
C. Meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid spores. a ecosystem-
(1) A  B  C (1) Nutrient cycling
(2) B  A  C (2) Energy flow
(3) C  B  A (3) Dominant species
(4) C  A  B (4) Decomposition

EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! THINK NEET - JEE THINK IIB

16
 NEET - 2024 P

139. What is functional megaspore referred to as? 145. The ribosomes of the chloroplasts–
(1) The megaspore that degenerates after (1) Are smaller than the cytoplasmic ribosomes
formation. (2) Are bigger than the cytoplasmic ribosomes
(2) The megaspore that only develops into (3) Are of similar size to that of cytoplasmic
female gametophyte. ribosomes
(3) The megaspore that undergoes reduction (4) May be bigger or smaller than the
division. cytoplasmic ribosome
(4) The megaspore that is functionally inactive. 146. The proteins would be degraded by proteases
140. ‘Virus’, the name was given by and the individual amino acids (after
(1) Ivanowsky (2) Pasteur deamination) depending on their structure would
(3) Whittaker (4) Beijerinck enter the respiratory pathway at some stage
within
141. When deprived of sunlight the Euglenoids exhibit
(1) kreb cycle
(1) Parasitism
(2) as pyruvate
(2) Predation
(3) as Acetyl Co-A
(3) Saprophytism
(4) Any of these
(4) Detritivorous
147. The two chromatids of a metaphase chromosome
142. Which of the following is not correct for brown
represents: -

Date : 09/04/2024
algae?
(1) Replicated DNA to be separated at anaphase
(1) The protoplast contains, in addition to
plastids, a centrally located vacuole and nucleus. (2) Replicated DNA to be separated at prophase
(2) Sexual reproduction may be isogamous, (3) Replicated DNA to be separated at
anisogamous, or oogamous. telophase
(3) Asexual reproduction by uniflagellate (4) Replicated DNA to be separated at
zoospores. interphase
(4) Vegetative reproduction takes place by 148. If DNA contained sulphur instead of phosphorus
fragmentation and proteins contained phosphorus instead of
143. Nomenclature is very much necessary In sulfur, what would have been the outcome of
taxonomy which of the following is not correct Hershey and Chase experiment?
about scientific nomenclature (1) No radioactive sulfur in bacterial cells
(1) They ensure that each organism has only one (2) Both radioactive sulfur and phosphorus in
name bacterial cells
(2) They also ensure that such a name has not (3) Radioactive sulfur in bacterial cells
been used for any other known organisms (4) Radioactive phosphorus in bacterial cells
(3) Scientific nomenclature is a standardized 149. DNA replication is semi-conservative in nature
naming system was experimentally proved in eukaryotes by :
(4) Different countries of the world use different (1) Macleod and McCarty
kinds of scientific nomenclature system
(2) Meselson and Stahl
144. The Calvin cycle proceeds in three stages.
(3) Talyor and his colleagues
1. Reduction, during which carbohydrate is
formed at the expense of the photochemically (4) Hershey and Chase
made ATP and NADPH 150. A normal woman whose father was albino,
2. Regeneration, during which the carbon dioxide marries an albino man, what proportion of
acceptor ribulose–1, 5–bisphosphate is formed normal and albino are expected among their
3. Carboxylation, during which carbon dioxide offsprings?
combines with ribulose–1, 5–biphosphate (1) All normal
Identify the correct sequence (2) 2 normal: 1 Albino
(1) 3-1-2 (2) 3-2 (3) All albino
(3) 1-2-3 (4) 2-1-3 (4) 1 normal: 1 Albino
EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! THINK NEET - JEE THINK IIB
17
 NEET - 2024 P

157. What is the type of movable joint present

ZOOLOGY between the atlas and axis?
Section - A (35 Questions) (1) Pivot
151. The correct order of decreasing species diversity
(2) Saddle
of birds on earth is
(1) Greenland > New York > Colombia (3) Hinge
(2) New York > Greenland > Colombia (4) Gliding
(3) Greenland > Colombia > New York 158. The pectoral and pelvic girdles and the bones
(4) Colombia > New York > Greenland of limb form :-
152. Sacred groves in India are found in (1) Axial skeleton
(1) Jaintia hills of Karnataka
(2) Appendicular skeleton
(2) Western Ghat regions of Tamil Nadu
(3) Arvalli hills of Meghalaya (3) Visceral skeleton
(4) Bastar areas of Madhya Pradesh (4) Outer skeleton
153. Assertion: Biomacromolecules are those which 159. Which of the following STDs is not caused by a
are found in acid soluble fraction bacterium?

Date : 09/04/2024
Reason: Biomacromolecules gave molecular
weight less than 1000 dalton. (1) Chlamydia
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the (2) Gonorrhoea
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Syphilis
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the (4) Genital Herpes
assertion. 160. Given below are some statements, identify the
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false. appropriate one from options.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
Statements:
154. Which of the following secondary metabolites
are used as drugs? A) Are pathogens that attack insects and other
(1) Abrin + Ricin arthropods.
(2) Vinblastin + Curcumin B) The majority of this used as biological control
(3) Anthocyanine agents are in the genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus.
(4) Ricin + Glucosinolates C) These are excellent candidates for species-
155. Which one of the following contains the largest specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal
quantity of extracellular material?
applications
(1) Striated muscle
(1) Bt-cotton.
(2) Areolar tissue
(3) Stratified epithelium (2) Baculoviruses
(4) Myelinated nerve fibres (3) Biofertilizers
156. Which of the following statements is not true (4) Trichoderma.
w.r.t. tubectomy or tubal ligation?
161. Unmyelinated nerve fibres are commonly found
(1) It is more difficult than vasectomy and is even
in
more difficult to reverse
(2) No ovulation occurs, hence no fertilization (1) ANS
is possible (2) Somatic neural system
(3) It involves ligation of both fallopian tubes
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) The failure rate of this approach is almost
zero percent (4) None of these

EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! THINK NEET - JEE THINK IIB

18
 NEET - 2024 P
162. Given below are four statements pertaining to 166. Protein molecule makes revolving staircase like
separation of DNA fragments using gel ______ structure, the helix are held together in
[Link] the incorrect statements. place by _______.
(a) DNA is negatively charged molecule and so (1) 2°, H-bonds
it is loaded on gel towards the Anode terminal (2) 2°, Peptide bond
(b) DNA fragments travel along the surface of (3) 3°, H-bonds
the gel whose concentration does not affect
movement of DNA. (4) 1°, Peptide bond

(c) Smaller the size of DNA fragment larger is 167. Identify the incorrect statement, with respect to
the distance it travels through it. the given figure.

(d) Pure DNA can be visualized directly by

exposing UV radiation.
Choose correct answer from the options given
below
(1) (a), (c) and (d)
(1) It can survive both in water & on land
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) Its skin is dry, cornified & posses scales
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) Tympanum represents ear
(4) (a), (b) and (d)

Date : 09/04/2024
(4) Notocord is replaced by vertebral column in
163. Alpha-interferons adults.
(1) Activate the immune system 168. ADA deficiency is due to
(2) Help in destroying the tumour (1) Insertion of gene
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Deletion of gene
(4) None of the above
(3) Duplication of gene
164. Match the column.
(4) Translocation of gene
Column-I Column-II 169. Which of the following statement is wrong about
A. Amphetamine i Sedative & painkiller Prawn
B. Morphine ii. Hallucinogen
C. Datura iii. CNS depressant (1) They have jointed appendages
D. Barbiturates iv Stimulant (2) Balancing organ (or) statocyst is present

(1) A-iii; B-ii; C-i; D-iv (3) Compound eyes or simple eyes are present

(2) A-iv; B-i; C-ii; D-iii (4) Circulatory system is closed type
(3) A-ii; B-i; C-iii; D-iv 170. Nacl, lactic acid and small amounts of urea
present in
(4) A-iv; B-i; C-iii; D-ii
165. Statement A: Infertility means the inability to (1) Saliva
conceive in spite of unprotected sexual co- (2) Sweat
habitation (3) Sebum
Statement B: In India, often the male is blamed
(4) Bile juice
for the couple being childless, but more often
than not, the problem lies in the female partner 171. The use of Cannabis products (bhang, ganja,
(1) Statement A and statement B both are correct charas, marijuanaor hashish) are known for
(2) Statement A is correct but statement B is (1) Depression of brain activity and feeling of
incorrect calmness
(3) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is (2) Their effect on cvs
correct (3) Suppresses brain function and relieves pain
(4) Statement A and statement B both are (4) Stimulates the nervous system and increases
incorrect alertness and activity.

EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! THINK NEET - JEE THINK IIB

19
 P NEET - 2024
172. Mark the correct statement. 177. Which of the following hormones is responsible
(1) Biochemical similarities point to the same for both the milk-ejection reflex and the foetal-
shared ancestry as structural similarities among
ejection reflex?
diverse organisms.
(1) Oestrogen
(2) Man has bred all types of plants and animals
for agriculture, horticulture, sport or security. (2) Prolactin
(3) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of (3) Oxytocin
Cucurbits represents analogy.
(4) Relaxin
(4) Wings of bat and wings of parrot are
homologous organs. 178. The number of cervical vertebrae in mammals
173. Genetic drift operates in including human being are
(1) Large isolated population (1) 7
(2) Fast reproductive population (2) 8
(3) Small isolated population (3) 9
(4) Slow reproductive population
(4) 10
174. Which is the most common mechanism of
genetic variation in the population of the sexually 179. An area in the brain which is associated with

Date : 09/04/2024
reproducing organism? strong emotions is:
(1) Transduction (1) Cerebral cortex
(2) Chromosomal aberrations (2) Cerebellum
(3) Genetic drift (3) Limbic system
(4) Recombination
(4) Medulla
175. What is a important parameter chosen for
assessing impacts of any biotic or abiotic factor 180. Juxta glomerular apparatus (JGA) is a special
on population growth. sensitive region formed by cellular modifications
(1) Population density in
(2) The base of natural logarithms (1) PCT & afferent arteriole
(3) Per capita birth (2) Glomerulus &bowmans capsule
(4) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
(3) DCT & afferent arteriole
176. Match the following columns.
(4) DCT & efferent arteriole

Column I Column II 181. Emergency hormones increases all of the

(Events) (Features) following, except.

A. Parturition 1 Attachment of blastula (1) Sweating

to endometrium (2) Alertness
B. Gestation 2 Release of egg
C. Ovulation 3 Delivery of baby (3) Saliva secretion
D. Implantation 4 Period between fertilisation (4) Piloerection
and the birth
E. Fertilisation 5 Fusion of male and 182. The part of frog’s brain which is continuous with
female gametes the spinal cord is
(1) Cerebellum
(1) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-5, E-3
(2) Medulla oblongata
(2) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-5, E-2
(3) A-5, B-1, C-2, D-3, E-4 (3) Mid-brain
(4) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1, E-5 (4) Diencephalon

EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! THINK NEET - JEE THINK IIB

20
 NEET - 2024 P
183. Match the columns: 187. Assertion: New life forms have arisen at
different times in the history of earth.
Column- I Column-II Reason: Fossils study showed that life forms
A. Sponges and i. O2/CO2 exchange varied over time.
coelenterates by gills
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
B. Aquatic arthropods ii. Trachea for transport reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
of gases
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the
C. Insects iii. Lungs for gaseous reason is not the correct explanation of the
exchange
assertion.
D. Mammals, birds iv. O2/CO2 exchange by
and reptiles simple diffusion over (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
entire body surface (4) Both assertion and reason are false.
188. In a saturated fat, you would expect to find all
(1) A-i; B-ii; C-iv; D-iii the following except -
(2) A-iv; B-ii; C-iii; D-i (1) Single-bonded carbon atoms
(3) A-iv; B-i; C-ii; D-iii ` (2) CH3 at one end
(4) A-iii; B-ii; C-i; D-iv (3) Fatty acid(s) attached with glycerol
184. Which of the following is correct ? (4) Double bonded carbon atoms in fatty acids

Date : 09/04/2024
(1) The ventricular filling is not only due to 189. Triploblasty, true coelom, bilateral symmetry,
auricular systole but also due to joint diastole closed circulation, Dioecious, internal
(2) Auricular diastole and ventricular diastole fertilisation, direct development.
never overlap How many of the given characters found in pristis
(3) Auricular systole and ventricular systole (1) 7 (2) 6
overlap partially (3) 5 (4) 4
(4) More than one option is correct. 190. Which part almost merged with anterior pituitary.
185. Which of the given sets include the primary (1) Pars distalis
lymphoid organs? (2) Pars nervosa
(1) Thymus, lymph nodes and spleen (3) Pars intermedia
(2) Bone marrow and thymus (4) Pars tuberalis
(3) Bone marrow, Peyer’s patches and thymus 191. Malpighian tubules of Periplanata are lined by
(4) Thymus, liver and tonsils (1) Glandular epithelium with ciliated cells
SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions) (2) Simple epithelium and non-ciliated cells
186. Study the four statements given below and select (3) Glandular with brush border epithelium
the two correct ones out of them.
(4) Simple squamous epithelium
A. A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding 192. ATPase of the muscle is located in
on grains are ecologically similar in being
(1) Actinin
predator.
(2) Troponin
B. Predator star fish Pisaster helps in maintaining
(3) Myosin
species diversity of some vertebrates.
(4) Actin
C. Predators ultimately lead to the extinction of
193. Which of the following statement is not correct
prey species.
for oogonia?
D. Production of chemical such as nicotine, (1) They are million gamete mother cells
strychnine by the plants are defences.
(2) They are formed within each foetal ovary
The two correct statements are (3) They are formed throughout the life of female
(1) (B) and (C) (2) (A) and (D) (4) They start division and get arrested at
(3) (C) and (D) (4) (A) and (B) prophase-I of meiotic division

EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! THINK NEET - JEE THINK IIB

21
 P NEET - 2024

194. Which one of the following is commonly used to 199. Greeks like Hippocrates and Indian Ayurveda
transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants ? system considered health as ________.
(1) Penicillium expansum (1) Imbalance of certain ‘humors’
(2) Trichoderma harzianum (2) A state of body and mind.

(3) Meloidogyme incognita (3) Balance of certain ‘humors’

(4) Both (2) and (3)
(4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
200. Identify A, B, C and D :
195. Statement I : The proteins encoded by the genes
cryIAb and cryIIAc control the cotton Arteries Veins
bollworms. Tunica media is thick A
Statement II : The proteins encoded by the B The walls are thin
genes cryIIAb controls corn borer. C Have valves
Blood flow is fast D
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(1) A-Tunica media is thin, B-The walls are thin,
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. C-Valves present, D-Blood flow equally fast
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (2) A-Tunica media is thin, B-The walls are thick,
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. C-Valves absent, D-Blood flow relatively slow

Date : 09/04/2024
196. White matter is _____ in brain and _____ in (3) A-Tunica media thick, B-The walls are thick,
spiral cord (in case of humans) C-Valves absent, D-Blood flow relatively slow
(4) A-Tunica media equally thick, B-The walls are
(1) Outside, inside
thick, C-Valves present , D-Blood flow equally
(2) Inside, outside fast
(3) Inside, inside
(4) Outside, outside
197. Fungi are also known to form symbiotic
associations with plants called as mycorrhiza.
Benefits of mycorrhizae are
(i) resistance to root-borne pathogens.
(ii) tolerance of salinity and absorption of
phosphorus.
(iii) nitrogen fixation.
(iv) overall increase in the plant growth and
development.
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) (ii) and (iv)
(4) all of these
198. Lungs are comprised of :
(1) Alveoli, Bronchioles,The branching network
of bronchi
(2) Trachea
(3) Pleura
(4) All of the above

EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! THINK NEET - JEE THINK IIB

22
 P NEET - 2024

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Date : 09/04/2024

EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! THINK NEET - JEE THINK IIB

23
 P
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Date : 09/04/2024

24