P

NEET- 2024
Mark Group Date : 05/04/2024
720 PCB FINAL ROUND - 03 Time : 3 : 20 Hours
Question Booklet Version Roll No. Question Booklet Sr. No

P (Write this number on

your Answer Sheet) 0 4324

This is to certify that, the entries of NEET-IIB 2023-24 Roll No. and Answer Sheet No. have been correctly written and
verified.

Date : 05/04/2024
Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature

1. The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2023 comprises of two Sections. Each subject (Physics, Chemistry, Botany,
Zoology ) will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15
questions, out of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions. So, the total
number of questions and utilization of time will remain the same. Total No. of Questions (200 ), The
duration of the test would be 3 :20 hours.
2. Tile questions paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet is issued separately at the start of the
examination.
3. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.
4. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Questions Booklet and Answer Sheet and
make the correct entries on the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheet are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARK
READER (OMR) SYSTEM, special care should be taken to mark the entries correctly. Special care should be
taken to fill QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION, SERIAL No. and NEET-IIB-2023-24 Roll . accurately. The candidate
must sign on the Answer Sheet and Question Booklet.
5. Determine the one correct answer from out of the four available options given for each question,
6. NEET (UG) – 2023 is a Pen & Paper-based Test, to be answered on the specially designed machine gradable
OMR sheet using Ball Point Pen.
7. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.
8. Rough work should be done only one the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work should
not be done on the Answer Sheet.
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over. the Question Booklet and Answer sheet is to be
returned to the invigilator. Confirm that both the candidate and invigilator have signed on question booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Test Syllabus (PCB NEET - 2024)

Physics : XIth + XIIth Whole Physics
Chemistry : XIth + XIIth Whole Chemistry
Biology : XIth + XIIth Whole Biology

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06. Power supplied to a particle of mass 2 kg varies

PHYSICS 3t 2
with time as P  W . Here t is in second. If
SECTION - A (35 Questions) 2
particle is at rest at t = 0. The velocity of particle
01. A simple pendulum of length 1m has a wooden at time t = 2s will be :
bob of mass 1kg. It is struck by a bullet of mass
10 – 2 kg moving with a speed of 2 × 102 m/s. The (1) 1 ms–1 (2) 4 ms–1
bullet gets embedded into the bob. The height to
(3) 2 ms–1 (4) 2 2 ms 1
which the bob rises before swinging back is : (g =
10 m/s2) 07. In a vernier calliper, N divisions of vernier scale
coincide with (N –1 ) divisions of main scale (in
(1) 0.30 m (2) 0.20 m
which 1 division represents 1mm). The least count
(3) 0.35 m (4) 0.40 m of the instrument in cm. should be

02. A wire can sustain the weight of 20kg before (1) N (2) N – 1
breaking. If the wire is cut into two equal part can
sustain a weight of 1 1
(3) (4)
10N N–1
(1) 10 kg (2) 20 kg

Date : 05/04/2024
08. Charge Q is distributed to two different metallic
(3) 40 kg (4) 80 kg spheres having radii R and 2R such that both
03. If a thermometer reads freezing point of water as spheres have equal surface charge density, then
20°C and boiling point as 150°C, how much will charge on large sphere is
thermometer read when the actual temperature is
60°C ? 4Q Q
(1) (2)
5 5
(1) 98°C (2) 110°C
(3) 40°C (4) 60°C 3Q 5Q
(3) (4)
5 4
04. Given below are two statements :
09. The range of a projectile is R when the angle of
Statement I : Absolute error is unitless and projection is 40°. For the same speed of
dimensionless. projection and range, the other possible angle of
Statement II : All type of error are unitless and projection is :
dimensionless
(1) 45°
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(2) 50°
most appropriate answer from the options given
below : (3) 60°
(1) Both Statement I and statement II are correct. (4) Not possible
(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is
incorrect. 10. A projectile is given an initial velocity of ( iˆ  2 ˆj )

(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is m/s, where iˆ is along the ground and ĵ is along
correct. the vertical. If g = 10 m/s2, the equation of its tra-
jectory is :
(4) Both statements I and statements II are
incorrect. (1) y = x – 5x2

05. Magnetic dipole moment is a (2) y = 2x – 5x2

(1) scalar quantity (2) vector quantity (3) 4y = 2x – 5x2
(3) constant quantity (4) None of these (4) 4y = 2x – 25x2

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11. Study the following statements. 15. A circular disc A of radius r having thickness t and
another circular disc B of same material having
I. When stone is rotated at greater speed in circu- radius 4r and thickness t/4. The relation between
lar path, greater force is required. moments of inertia IA and IB about the same
II. When stone is rotated in a circle of smaller ra- oriantation axis is
dius, greater force is required for the same speed. (1) IA > IB
III. When stone is rotated at greater speed in a (2) IA = IB
circle of smaller radius, smaller force is required.
(3) IA < IB
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(4) Depends on the actual values of t and r
(1) Both I and II (2) Both II and IV
16. Statement I : If ice cap of the pole melts, the day
(3) Both I and III (4) I, II and III length will shorten.
12. A force F is given by F = at + bt2, where t is time. Statement II : Ice will flow towards the equator
What are the dimensions of a and b? and decrease the moment of inertia of the earth.
(1) [MLT–3] and [ML2T–4] This increases the frequency of rotation of the earth.

(2) [MLT–3] and [MLT–4] (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.

Date : 05/04/2024
(3) [MLT–1] and [MLT0] (2) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.

(4) [MLT–4] and [MLT1] (3) Statement I is correct, and Statement II is

incorrect.
13. Potential energy versus displacement curve for one
dimensional conservative field is shown. Force at (4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
A and B is respectively: correct.
17. Match the column I (types of friction) with Col-
umn II (value of µ) and select the correct answer
from the codes given below.
Column I Column-II
A. Static friction 1. µ is highest
B. Rolling friction 2. µ is moderate
C. Kinetic friction 3. µ is lowest

(1) Positive, Positive (1) A–3, B–2, C–1 (2) A–1, B–2, C–3

(2) Positive, Negative (3) A–1, B–3, C–2 (4) A–2, B–3, C–1

(3) Negative, Positive 18. A wooden block with a coin placed on its top,
floats in water as shown in the figure. The distance
(4) Negative, Negative l and h are shown in figure. After some time the
14. A ball of mass m attached with string of length l is coin falls into the water. Then

given a speed v  7 gl at lowest point of verti-

cal circular motion then tension at lowest point will
be :
(1) 7 mg (1) l decreases and h increases
(2) 8 mg (2) l increases and h decreases
(3) 6 mg (3) both l and h increase
(4) none (4) both l and h decrease

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19. A sphere of mass M and radius R is falling in a 24. In a uniformly charged non conducting sphere of
viscous fluid. The terminal velocity attained the fall- total charge Q and radius R, the electric field E is
ing object will be proportional to plotted as function of distance from the centre. The
graph which would correspond to the above will
(1) R2 (2) R be:
(3) 1/R (4) 1/R2

20. A body cools from 75oC to 70oC in time t1, from

70oC to 65oC in time t2 and from 65oC to 60oC in (1) (2)
time t3, then:

(1) t3 > t2 > t1

(2) t1 > t2 > t3

(3) t2 > t1 = t3
(3) (4)
(4) t1 > t2 < t3

21. The density of a certain mass of a gas at STP is d.

If the pressure of the gas is doubled and the 25. Dimensions of a block are 1 cm × 1 cm × 100 cm.

Date : 05/04/2024
temperature is made one-third of its initial value, If specific resistance of its material is 3 × 10–7 ohm-
the new density will be m, then the resistance between the opposite
rectangular faces is
(1) 3 d (2) 4.5 d
(1) 3 × 10–9 ohm
(3) 6 d (4) 9 d
(2) 3 × 10–7 ohm
22. An air bubble in a glass slab (µ = 1.5) is 5cm deep
(3) 3 × 10–5 ohm
when viewed from one face and 3cm deep, when
viewed from the opposite face. The thickness of (4) 3 × 10–3 ohm
the slab is : 26. A coil is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field
(1) 7.5 cm of 5000T. When the field is changed to 2000 T. in
3s, an induced emf of 44 V is produced in the coil.
(2) 10.5 cm If the diameter of the coil is 0.02 m, then the number
of turns in the coil is :
(3) 7 cm
(1) 7 (2) 70
(4) 12 cm
(3) 35 (4) 140
23. Figure shows non uniform electric field lines in which
27. A conductor of length l is moved with a constant
an electric dipole P is placed as shown. Which of
velocity  in a perpendicular magnetic field B, the
the following statements is correct?
mechanical energy dissipated in resistance r of the
conductor is

B 2l 2 
(1)
r
B r v
B 2 l 2 2
(2)
(1) The dipole will not experience any force r

(2) The dipole will experience a force towards right ( Bl ) 2

(3)
2r
(3) The dipole will experience a force towards left
( Bl ) 2
(4) The dipole will experience a force upwards (4)
4r

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28. An AC voltage V  40sin 300t is applied to a 33. A simple pendulum with a metal bob has a time
series LCR circuit which drives a current period of oscillation T. Now the bob is immersed
into a liquid which is non viscous. This time, the
 
I  5sin  300t   . The average power time period is 3T. Then the ratio of densities of
 3
metal bob and that of the liquid is
dissipated is:
(1) 21.6 W (2) 200 W (1) 4 : 3
(3) 173.2 W (4) 50 W
(2) 8 : 3
29. If a photocell is illuminated with a radiation of 1240
Å, the stopping potential is found to be 8 volt ; (3) 9 : 4
then the work function of the emitter and the
threshold wave length are (4) 9 : 8
(1) 2 eV, 2000 Å (2) 2 eV, 6200 Å
(3) 2 eV, 2480 Å (4) 3 eV, 6200 Å 34. A progressive wave travelling along the positive
x-direction is represented by y(x, t) = A sin (kx +
30. In the hydrogen atom, an electron makes a
t +  ). Its snapshot at t = 0 is given in the figure.
transition from n = 2 to n = 1. The magnetic field
produced by the circulating electron at the nucleus For this wave, the phase  is

Date : 05/04/2024
(1) decreases 16 times (2) increases 4 times
(3) decreases 4 times (4) increases 32 times
31. In the given circuit

(1) 0


(2) 
2

The current through the battery is (3) 

(1) 0.5 A (2) 1 A


(3) 1.5 A (4) 2 A (4)
2
32. Pure Si at 500 K has equal number of electron
(n e ) and hole (n h ) concentrations of 35. An astronomical telescope has an angular
1.5 × 1016 m–3. Doping by indium increases nh to magnification of magnitude 5 for distant objects.
4.5 × 1022 m–3. The doped semiconductor is of The separation between the objective and the eye
(1) n-type with electron concentration piece is 36 cm and the final image is formed at
infinity. The focal length fo of the objective and the
ne = 2.5 × 1023 m–3
focal length fe of the eye piece are
(2) p-type having electron concentration
ne = 5 × 109 m–3 (1) fo = 45 cm and fe = – 9 cm
(3) n-type with electron concentration
(2) fo = 7.2 cm and fe = 5 cm
ne = 5 × 10 m22 –3

(3) fo = 50 cm and fe = 10 cm
(4) p-type with electron concentration
ne = 2.5 × 1010 m–3 (4) fo = 30 cm and fe = 6 cm

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SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions) 40. An electron is moving with an initial velocity
36. Two identical thin rings each of radius R are v  v0iˆ and is in a magnetic field B  B0 ˆj. Then
coaxially placed at a distance R. If mass of rings it's de Broglie wavelength
are m1, m2 respectively, then the work done in
(1) remains constant
moving a mass m from centre of first ring to that of
the other is (2) increases with time
(1) Positive (2) Negative
(3) decreases with time
(3) Zero (4) Can’t Say
(4) increases and decreases periodically
37. A transformer has an efficiency of 80% and works
at 20 V and 4 kW. If the secondary voltage is 240 41. A galvanometer has a resistance of 50  and it
V, then the current in the secondary coil is: allows maximum current of 2mA. It can be
converted into voltmeter to measure upto 50 V by
(1) 1.59 A
connecting in series a resistor of resistance
(2) 13.33 A
(1) 5950  (2) 2950 
(3) 1.33 A
(4) 15.1 A (3) 24950  (4) 25950 

Date : 05/04/2024
38. A string is clamped at both the ends and it is 42. If linear density of a rod of length 3m varies as
vibrating in its 4th harmonic. The equation of the   2  x, then the position of the centre of mass
stationary wave is Y = 0.3 sin (0.157x) cos
of the rod is
(200  t). The length of the string is (All quantities
are in SI units.)
7 12
(1) 20 m (2) 80 m (1) m (2) m
3 7
(3) 60 m (4) 40 m
10 9
39. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion with (3) m (4) m
7 7
a time period T. At time t = 0, it is at its position of
equilibrium. The kinetic energy - time graph of the 43. In a Young’s double slit experiment with slit
particle will look like separation 0.1 mm, one observes a bright fringe at
angle 1/40 rad by using light of wavelength 1 .
When the light of wavelength  2 is used a bright
(1) fringe is seen at the same angle in the same set up.
Given that 1 and  2 are in visible range (380 nm
to 740 nm), their values are
(1) 380 nm, 500 nm
(2)
(2) 625 nm , 500 nm
(3) 380 nm, 525 nm
(4) 400 nm, 500 nm
(3) 44. An  -particle of energy 5 MeV is scattered
through 180° by a fixed uranium nucleus. The
distance of closest approach is of the order of
approximately
(1) 10 – 12 cm (2) 10 –30 cm
(4)
(3) 10 – 40 cm (4) 10 – 50 cm

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45. Consider the cyclic process ABCA, shown in figure

is performed on a sample of 2.0 mole of an ideal
gas and total 1200 J of heat is withdrawn from the
sample in the process. The work done by the gas
during part AB is

(1) clockwise (2) anticlockwise

(3) ever changing (4) cannot say

49. The angular width of the central maximum in a single
slit diffraction pattern is 60°. The width of the slit is
1µm. The slit is illuminated by monochromatic plane
(1) – 2520 J waves. If another slit of same width is made near
it, Young’s fringes can be observed on a screen
(2) – 3250 J placed at a distance 50 cm from the slits. If the
observed fringe width is 1 cm, what is slit separation
(3) 3320 J distance? (i.e. distance between the centres of each
slit)
(4) – 5520 J
(1) 100 µm

Date : 05/04/2024
46. A parallel plate capacitor of plate separation 2 mm
is connected in an electric circuit having source (2) 25 µm
voltage 400 V. If the plate area is 60 cm2, then the (3) 50 µm
value of displacement current for 10–6 sec will be
(4) 75 µm
(1) 2.062 amp
50. When a dielectric slab is inserted between the
(2) 1.062 × 10–2 amp plates of a capacitors shown in the figure then
match the following:
(3) 3.062 × 10–3 amp

(4) 4.062 × 10–4 amp

47. A charged particle of mass m and charge q enters

along AB at point A in a uniform magnetic field
existing in the rectangular region of size a × b. From
what side particle can not leaves the region.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Charge on B (1) Increases
(B) Potential difference (2) Decreases
across B
(C) Capacitance of B (3) Remains constant
(1) AB (D) Energy stored in B (4) Cannot say

(2) BC

(3) AD (1) (A)  (1); (B)  (3); (C)  (2); (D)  (1)
(4) DC (2) (A)  (1); (B)  (3); (C)  (1); (D)  (1)

48. In figure, current form A to B in the straight wire is (3) (A)  (2); (B)  (2); (C)  (2); (D)  (4)
decreasing. The direction of induced current in the (4) (A)  (1); (B)  (2); (C)  (2); (D)  (3)
loop is

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55. Statement-1 : Tertiary amine is less basic than

CHEMISTRY secondary amine in aqueous solution.
SECTION - A (35 Questions) Statement-2 : Over crowding due to +I effect of
three alkyl groups increases strain.
51. A catalyst lowers the activation energy of the
forward reaction by 10 kJ mol–1. What effect does (1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true ;
it have on the activation energy of the backward Statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1
reaction ? (2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true ;
Statement-2 is not correct explanation for
(1) Increases by 10 kJ mol–1
statement-1
(2) Decreases by 10 kJ mol–1
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(3) Remains unaffected
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
(4) Can not be predicted
56. Which of the following is not the characteristic of
52. Consider following reaction : interhalogen compounds ?
(1) They are more reactive than halogens except
I. ONa + CH3 I 
 fluorine
(2) They are quite unstable but none of them is
explosive.

Date : 05/04/2024
II. Br + CH3 ONa 
 (3) They are covalent in nature
(4) All of them are highly volatile
III. (CH3 )3 C  Cl  CH3ONa 
 57. The units of conductivity of the solution are
IV. (CH3 )3 C  ONa  CH3Cl 
 (1) ohm–1
(2) ohms
Which of the above methods can not be used in the
synthesis of ether? (3) ohm–1cm–1
(1) I, IV (4) ohm–1 eq–1
(2) I, II 58. Assertion : Phenoxide ion is more stable than
methoxide ion.
(3) II, IV
Reason : Phenol is more acidic than MeOH.
(4) II, III
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason
53. Which of the following have distorted octahedral is the correct explanation of assertion.
structure?
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
(1) SF6 is not the correct explanation of assertion
(2) PF6 (3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(3) SiF62– (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
(4) XeF6 59. Which of the follwing MO’s has zero nodal planes?
54. Assertion : Complex reaction takes place in (1)  *1s
different steps and the slowest step determines the
rate of reaction. (2) 1s
Reason : Order and molecularity of a reaction are (3)  2p x
always equal.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason (4)  * 2p x
is the correct explanation of assertion. 60. Boron has two stable isotopes, 10B (19%) and 11B
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason (81%). The atomic mass that should appear for
is not the correct explanation of assertion boron in the periodic table is
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false (1) 10.8 (2) 10.2
(4) If both assertion and reason are false (3) 11.2 (4) 10.0

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61. Match the following 64. Arrange the following alkenes in the descending
Column-I Column-II order of their reactivity with HBr.
(a) ethene
O O
(b) Propene
CH 2 C OCH3
(a) (i) LiAlH4 (c) 2- methyl-2-Butene
O (1) a > b > c
OH
CH2 C OCH 3 (2) c > b > a
(3) c > a > b
(4) a > c > b
65. Statement-1 : [CrCl2(en)2]Cl shows geometrical
O O
isomerism and is heteroleptic complex.
CH 2 C OH
(b) (ii) PCC Statement-2 : It exists as cis and trans forms and
have different type of ligands.
OH
CH2CH 2OH (1) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true ; statement
2 is a correct explanation for statement 1
(2) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true ; statement
2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1
(c) CH 3 CH CH3 OH (iii) O2, H+/H2O

Date : 05/04/2024
(3) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
(4) Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true
66. In a depression in freezing point experiment, it is
(d) CH 3 CH CH CH 2OH (iv) NaBH4 found that:
(A) The vapour pressure of the solution is less than
CH3 CH CH CHO
that of pure solvent.
(1) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii (2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii (B) The vapour pressure of the solution in more
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii (4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv than that of pure solvent.
62. Which one of the following compounds does not (C) Only solute molecules solidify at the freezing
exist ? point.
(1) B2H4(CH3)2 (2) B2H3(CH3)3
(D) Only solvent molecules solidify at the freezing
(3) B2H2(CH3)4 (4) B2H(CH3)5 point
63. Match the Column:
(1) A, B
(2) B, C
Column I Column II
(A) Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq)  ZnCl2(s) + (p) 50% of (3) A, D
H2(g) above reaction is carried excess
out by taking 2 moles each of reagent left
(4) A, C
Zn and HCl
CH CH2
(B) AgNO3(aq) + HCl(aq)  (q) 22.4 L of
AgCl(s) + HNO3(g) above gas at STP is
KMnO4
reaction is carried out by taking liberated 67. A Br2/CCl4 B;
170 g AgNO3 and 18.25 g HCl
(Atomic weight of Ag = 108)
(C) CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g) (r) 1 moles
100 g CaCO3 is decomposed of solid A and Brespectively are
completely (product)
obtained
(1) o-bromo styrene, benzoic acid
(D) 2KClO3(s)  2KCl(s) + 3O2(g) (s) HCl is the (2) p-bromostryrene, benzaldehyde
2/3 moles of KClO3 limiting
decomposed completely reagent (3) m-bromostyrene, benzaldehyde
(4) styrene dibromide, benzoic acid
(1) A  (p, q, r, s), B  (p, s), C  (q, r), D  (q) 68. The correct order of increasing radii are
(2) A  (p, q, r, s), B  (p, s, q), C  (p), D  (q)
(1) Be2+, Mg2+, Na (2) K , Ca2+, S2–
(3) A  (p, q, r, s), B  (p, s), C  (q, s), D  (p)
(4) A  (p, q, r), B  (q, s), C  (q, r), D  (s) (3) O2–, F , N3– (4) S2–, O2–, As3–

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69. Consider the following gaseous equilibria given 74. The incorrect statement is :
below: (1) Manganate and permanganate ions are
(I) N 2  3H 2  2NH3 ; Eqm. Constant = K1 tetrahedral
(2) In manganate and permanganate ions, the
(II) N 2  O2  2NO; Eqm. Constant = K2 π -bonding takes place by overlap of p-orbitals of
oxygen and d-orbitals of manganese.
1
(III) H 2  O 2  H 2 O; Eqm. Constant = K3 (3) Manganate and permanganate ions are
2 paramagnetic.
The equilibrium constant for the reaction, (4) Manganate ion is green in colour and
5 permanganate ion is purple in colour.
2NH3  O 2  2NO  3H 2 O in terms of K1, 75. An ideal gas expands in volume from 1×10–3 to
2
1 × 10–2 m3 at 300 K against a constant external
K2 and K3 will be:
pressure of 1×105 Nm–2. The work done is
K 1K 2 (1) 270 kJ (2) – 900 kJ
(1) K1K2K3 (2) K (3) – 900 J (4) – 900 J
3
76. The decreasing order of basic characters of the
K1K 32 K 2 K 33 following is:
(3) (4)
K2 K1
O

Date : 05/04/2024
70. O C + NO2 A

The product A is
NO 2
O
(1) O C (1) III > IV > I > II
(2) II > I > IV > III
O
NO2 (3) IV > III > II > I
(2) O C (4) III > I > IV > II
77. The equivalent weight of KMnO4 (in acid medium)
NO2
is (At. wt. of K = 39, Mn = 55)
O (1) 158
(3) O2 N O C (2) 15.8
(3) 31.6
O (4) 3.16
(4) O C NO2 78. Match the property given in Column I with the
71. The total number of possible isomers of the complex element given in Column II.
Column-I Column-II
compound [CuII(NH3)4][PtIICl4] (Property) (Element)
(1) 3 (2) 6 (i) Lanthanoid which (a) Pm
shows +4 oxidation
(3) 5 (4) 4 state
72. On adding 0.1M solution each of [Ag+], [Ba2+], (ii) Lanthanoid which (b) Ce
can show +2
[Ca 2+ ] in a Na 2 SO 4 solution, species first oxidation
precipitated is: (iii) Radioactive (c) Lu
lanthanoid
6
[ (Ksp )BaSO4  1011 , (K sp )CaSO4  10 , (iv) Lanthanoid which has
4f7 electronic configuration
(d) Eu

in +3 oxidation state
(K sp ) Ag SO  105 ] (v) Lanthanoid which has 4f14 (e) Gd
2 4 Electronic configuration
in +3 oxidation state
(1) Ag2SO4 (2) BaSO4 (f) Dy
(3) CaSO4 (4) All of these (1) (i)–(b), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(e), (v)–(c)
73. Which of the following is used as an adsorbent in
(2) (i)–(c), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(a), (v)–(e)
adsorption chromatography ?
(1) Silica gel (2) Alumina (3) (i)–(c), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(e), (iv)–(b), (v)–(a)
(3) Zeolite (4) Both (1) and (2) (4) (i)–(e), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(c), (v)–(d)
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79. Which of the following series of transitions in the 85. Which statement is correct about bond angle of
spectrum of hydrogen atom falls in visible region? NCl3, NF3 and NH3 ?
(1) Brackett series (2) Lyman series I. Bond angle of NCl3 > NF3.
(3) Balmer series (4) Paschen series II. Bond angle of NCl3 < NF3.
80. The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 2.5 III. Bond angle of NH3 > NF3.
eV and 5.0 eV respectively. The relation between
IV. Bond angle of NH3 < NF3.
their wavelength i.e., l1 and l2 will be
(1) I, II
(1) l1 = l1 (2) l1 = 2l2
(2) I, III
1 (3) I, II, III
(3) l1 = 4l2 (4) 1   2
2
(4) I, II, IV
81. B  CH 3  C  CH 
BH 3 /THF
H 2 O 2 /  OH
 A, HgSO 4 / H 2SO 4
SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions)
A and B are respectively. 86. The half-life for the following first order reaction,
(1) CH3CH2CHO, CH3COCH3 2SO3 
 2SO2 + O2 is 12 hours at 30oC.
(2) CH3COCH3,CH3CH2CHO Starting with 10 g of SO3 how many grams of SO3
(3) CH3COCH3 both will remain after a period of 48 hours ?

Date : 05/04/2024
(4) CH3COCH3, CH3CH2CH2OH (1) 1.25 g
(2) 0.625 g
82. Identify the correct IUPAC name of the compound
given below (3) 1.77 g
(4) 0.5 g
O
87. Select incorrect statement about following about
H reaction of ether synthesis :
R  X  R 'ONa 
 ROR ' NaX
(1) It follows SN2 mechanism
(1) 4–benzyl–5–methyl hexanal (2) Alkyl halide (RX) should be 20 or 30 while
(2) 2–methyl–3–phenyl hexanal alkoxide (RO– Na+) should be 10
(3) 5–isopropyl–5–phenyl butanal (3) Alkyl halide should be 10 while alkoxide should
(4) 5–methyl–4–phenyl hexanal be 20 or 30.
(4) 20 and 30 alkyl halide may undergo E2 elimination
O
OH
in the presence of a strong base to form alkenes.
83. CH3 C CH3
H2O/ 88. The order of which of the following oxides is
arranged according to decreasing basic nature?
The major product which can be isolated from this
reaction is : (1) Na2O, MgO, Al2O3, CuO
(2) CuO, Al2O3, MgO, Na2O
O CH2 O Me
(3) Al2O3, CuO, MgO, Na2O
(1) (2)
CH 3 CH 3 Me (4) CuO , MgO, Na2O, Al2O3
CH2 89. Van’t Hoff factor is:
(3) (4) None of these (1) More than one in case of association
Me Me
(2) Less than one in case of dissociation
84. Which of the following pairs of orbitals will have
electron density along the axes? Normal molecular mass
(3) Equal to
Observed molecular mass
(1) d z2 , d x 2  y2 (2) d z 2 , d xz
Observed molecular mass
(4) Equal to
(3) d xz , d yz (4) d xy , d x 2  y2 Normal molecular mass

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O
90. Which is the correct statement?
H
95. KCN/HCN H/H 2O
(1) Starch is a polymer of α -glucose P1 P2

(2) Amylose is a component of cellulose P2 should be :

(3) Proteins are composed of only one type of CHO
amino acids
(1)
(4) In cyclic structure of furanose, there are four
carbon atoms and one oxygen atom COOH
91. In which of the following arrangements, the CHO
sequence is not strictly according to the property
written against it? (2)
(1) CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2 : increasing COOH
oxidising power OH
(2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI : increasing acid strength H
(3) COOH
(3) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 : increasing basic
strength (4) A mixture of the both 2 and 3
(4) B < C < O < N : increasing first ionization 96. Which of these statements about [Co(CN)6] is
3–

Date : 05/04/2024
enthalpy true ?
(1) [Co(CN)6]3– has four unpaired electrons and
92. Given that bond energies of H–H and Cl–Cl are will be in a low-spin configuration
430 kJ mol 240 kJ mol respectively and H f
–1 –1
(2) [Co(CN)6]3– has four unpaired electrons and
for HCl is –90 kJ mol–1, bond enthalpy of HCl is will be in a high-spin configuration
(3) [Co(CN)6]3– has no unpaired electrons and will
(1) 380 kJ mol–1 be in a high-spin configuration
(2) 425 kJ mol–1 (4) [Co(CN)6]3– has not unpaired electrons and will
(3) 245 kJ mol–1 be in a low-spin configuration
97. A body of mass 10 g is moving with a velocity of
(4) 290 kJ mol–1 100 m s–1. The wavelength associated with it is
93. A natural occurring substance has the constitution (1) 6.626 × 10–7 m (2) 6.626 × 10–34 m
shown below. How many isomers may have this (3) 6.626 × 10 m –4
(4) 6.626 × 10–35 m
constitution? H CH O

98. and can be

O

distinguished by :
(1) DNP test (2) Tollen’s reagent test
(3) Schiff’s reagent test (4) Fehling’s solution test
(1) 2 99. Lattice energy of BeCO3 (I), MgCO3 (II) and
(2) 8 CaCO3 (III) is in order :
(3) 16 (1) I < II < III (2) I > II > III
(4) 64 (3) I < III < II (4) II < I < III
O
94. The number of electrons involved in the reduction
100. (CH 3CH2 C O) 2Ca  P + CaCO 3 P should be :
of nitrate ion (NO3–) to hydrazine (N2H4) is
(1) CH2 = CH2
(1) 8
O
(2) 7 (2) CH 3CH 2 C CH 2 CH3
(3) 5 (3) CH3–CH2–OH
(4) 3 (4) None of these

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106. It is possible to make calculations of the net gain

BOTANY of ATP for every glucose molecule oxidised can
be made only on certain assumptions. All
Section - A (35 Questions)
assumptions given below are correct except :-
101. In leaf, location of xylem and phloem in vascular
(1) There is a sequential, orderly pathway
bundle respectively is —————
functioning, with one substrate forming the next
(1) Adaxial and abaxial and with glycolysis, TCA cycle and ETS pathway
(2) Abaxial and adaxial following one after another.
(3) Adaxial and adaxial (2) The NADH synthesised in glycolysis is
(4) Abaxial and abaxial transferred into the mitochondria and undergoes
102. How many statements are not correct? oxidative phosphorylation.
a. Distance between two polynucleotide chains (3) All of the intermediates in the pathway are
in DNA remains almost constant. utilised to synthesise any other compound.
b. Length of human genome is 1.1 meter. (4) Only glucose is being respired – no other
alternative substrates are entering in the pathway
c. Helicase is responsible for separating the two at any of the intermediary stages.
strands of DNA during transcription.
107. Which of the following is correct about EMP
d. Prior to the work of Oswald Avery, Colin pathway ?
MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty (1933-44), the (1) Common to path aerobic and anaerobic

Date : 05/04/2024
genetic material was thought to be a RNA. respiration.
e. A failure in cell division after DNA replication (2) Occurs in cytoplasm.
results into chromosomal anomaly. (3) O2 is not required for process.
(1) 3 (2) 4 (4) All the above
(3) 2 (4) 1 108. Assertion: Bryophytes play an important role
103. Physical and genetic map was generated by using in plant succession on bare rocks.
Information on polymorphism Reason: Mosses and lichens are the first
(1) of restriction endonuclease recognition sites organisms to colonize on rocks, hence are of
great ecological importance.
(2) DNA structure
(1) Both the assertion and the reason are true
(3) Microsatellites
and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(4) Both 1 and 3 assertion.
104. In a dihybrid cross, if the two genes are (2) Both the assertion and reason are true but
completely linked, what would be the expected the reason is not a correct explanation of the
phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation? assertion.
(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (2) 3 : 1 (3) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(3) 1 : 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (4) Both the assertion and reason are false
105. Assertion: Ethylene increases the yield in 109. The number of primary producers in a specified
cucumber. area would be maximum in—
Reason: Ethylene promotes female flower in (1) Pond ecosystem (2) Grassland ecosystem
cucumber. (3) Forest ecosystem (4) Desert ecosystem
(1) If both assertion & reason are true and the 110. Which of the following researchers discovered
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion the complimentary base pairing rules?
(2) If both assertion & reason are true but reason (1) Rosalind Franklin
is not the correct explanation of the assertion (2) James Watson and Francis Crick
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (3) Erwin Chargaff
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. (4) Morgan

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111. How does DNA replication ensure the fidelity 117. Which of these animals are placed in the same
of genetic information transfer? family but do not have the same genus?
(1) By synthesizing RNA primers (1) Dog and cat
(2) By proofreading newly synthesized DNA (2) Tiger and Dog
strands (3) Dog and lion
(3) By unwinding the DNA double helix (4) Cat and leopard
(4) By joining Okazaki fragments 118. How many are Autosomal recessive disorders?
112. Mendel’s dihybrid cross between pea plants with Cystic fibrosis, Sickle cell disease, Huntington’s
the genotype AaBb and AaBb resulted in disease, Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD),
offspring with the phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1. Hemophilia, Phenylketonuria (PKU),
What does this ratio represent? Thalassemia, Albinism.
(1) The ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes (1) 3 (2) 4
(2) The ratio of genotypes in the F2 generation (3) 5 (4) 6
(3) The ratio of parental to recombinant 119. How many plants from the list given below have
phenotypes superior ovary with axile placentation.
(4) The ratio of homozygous to heterozygous Mango, Lupin, Sem, Tobacco, Belladona,
genotypes Sunflower, Marigold, China rose, Lady’s finger,

Date : 05/04/2024
113. Arrange various groups of embryophytes given Mustard, Dianthus, Primrose, Makoi, Pea.
below in the correct sequence of the extend of
(1) Two
reduction in their gametophyte generation in their
life cycle (increasing order of reduction). (2) Three
A-Gymnosperm, B-Pteridophyte, C- (3) Five
Angiosperm, D-Bryophytes (4) Six
(1) B-D-C-A (2) D-B-C-A 120. Fruit which develops from monocarpellary or
(3) D-B-A-C (4) C-A-B-D polycarpellary syncarpous ovary is called as
114. Spindle shaped cell with dense cytoplasm and (1) Simple
nucleus in pollen grain is called (2) Aggregate
(1) Vegetative cell (2) Generative cell
(3) Composite
(3) Sperm cell (4) Egg cell
(4) False fruit
115. One hormone hastens maturity period in juvenile
121. Fruit which develops from monocarpellary,
conifers, a second hormone controls xylem
differentiation, while the third increases the superior ovary with marginal placentation is -
tolerance of plants to various stresses. They are (1) Drupe
respectively (2) Berry
(1) Gibberellin, Auxin, Cytokinin (3) Siliqua
(2) Auxin, Gibberellin, Cytokinin (4) Legume
(3) Gibbereilin, Auxin, ABA 122. Which of the following does not evolve oxygen?
(4) Auxin, Gibberellin, ABA (1) Photosynthetic bacteria
116. Which of the following is not correct? (2) Blue-green algae
(1) Robert Brown discovered the cell. (3) Green algae
(2) Schleiden and Schwann formulated the cell (4) Autotrophic plant
theory. 123. Suspensor is a component of
(3) Virchow explained that cells are formed from (1) Developing embryo
pre-existing cells. (2) Mature embryo
(4) A unicellular organism carries out its life (3) Endosperm
activities within a single cell. (4) Germinated embryo

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124. Match the columns. 129. The spindle fibers disappear during
(1) Prophase
Column-A Column-B
(2) Metaphase
(1) Emerson effect (a) C4 cycle
(3) Anaphase
(2) Peter Mitchell (b) Chemiosmotic
(4) Telophase
Hypothesis
130. Monocot root is anatomically different from
(3) Calvin cycle (c) C3 cycle
dicot root in primary stages of growth because
(4) Hatch and Slack (d) Photosystem-I of following reason (s):
pathway and II (1) Monocot roots have fewer xylem bundles,
(1) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d usually less than six
(2) 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b (2) Pith is large and well developed in monocot
(3) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b roots
(3) Secondary structure is very clear in monocot
(4) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a
roots
125. One molecule of glucose in Calvin cycle is formed
(4) All of the above
from
131. In Fern plant-
(1) 6CO2 + 12ATP
(1) Gametophyte is dominant
(2) 6CO2 + 30ATP + 12 NADPH
(2) Sporophyte is recessive
(3) 6CO2 + 18ATP + 12 NADPH
(3) Sporophyte is totally dependent

Date : 05/04/2024
(4) 6CO2 + 18ATP + 30 NADPH
(4) Gametophyte is independent.
126. Regarding Telophase, select the how many
132. Which is the perfect stage of a fungus?
statements is/are correct
(1) When it reproduces asexually
1. Telophase is the first stage of mitosis
(2) When it reproduces sexually
2. In telophase individual chromosomes can no
longer be seen as it decondense (3) When it forms perfect resting spores
3. In telophase Nucleolus, Golgi complex and (4) When the fungus is perfectly healthy
ER disappear. 133. Read the following four statements (A-D)
4. Nuclear envelope develops around the carefully:
chromosome clusters at each pole forming two A. Heterocyst is found in Nostoc.
daughter nuclei
B. All bacteria are heterotrophs.
(1) All are correct statements
C. Both Cycas and Marchantia are
(2) Only 1,3 are correct statements
monoecious.
(3) Only 2,4 are correct statements
D. The walls of Diatoms are easily destructible.
(4) Only 1,2,3 are correct statements
How many of the above statements are incorrect
127. Which of the following genetic disorders is
characterized by the absence of an X and correct respectively?
chromosome? (1) One and Three
(1) Turner syndrome (2) Two and Two
(2) Klinefelter syndrome
(3) Three and One
(3) Cri-du-chat syndrome
(4) All four are correct
(4) Down syndrome
128. What is the relationship between pollination and 134. Which of the following is correct?
fertilization in flowering plants (1) Cells of all living organisms have a nucleus.
(1) Fertilization precedes pollination (2) Both animal and plant cells have a well-
(2) Pollination easily occurs between plants of defined cell wall.
different species
(3) In prokaryotes, there are no membrane
(3) Pollen is formed within megasporangia so that
male and female gametes are near to each other. bound organelles.
(4) Pollination brings gametophytes together so (4) Cells are formed de novo from abiotic
that fertilization can occur materials.

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135. Plasmodesmata connections help in 141. Three morphological forms of Golgi complex
(1) Cytoplasmic streaming are-
(2) Synchronous mitotic divisions (1) Lamellae, tubules and vesicles
(3) Locomotion of unicellular organisms (2) Cisternae, tubules and vesicles
(4) Movement of substances between cells (3) Cisternae, tubules and lamellae
SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions) (4) Granum, thylakoids and vesicles
136. Match the following – 142. Endogenous and exogenous spores both can be
traced in
A. Parenchyma (i) Rolling and unrolling
(1) Mucor
of monocot leaf
B. Bulliform cells (ii) Photosynthesis, (2) Agaricus
Storage and Secretion (3) Penicillium
C. Casparian strips (iii) Mesophyll tissue (4) Rhizopus
of dicot leaf. 143. In taxonomic hierarchy of which of the following
D. Palisade (iv) Suberin deposition group of taxa will have less number of similarities
parenchyma in the radial walls as compared to other?
of endodermis (1) Solanaceae, Convulvulaceae, and Poaceae
(1) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii) (2) Polymoniales, Poales, and Sapindales
(2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)

Date : 05/04/2024
(3) Solanum, Petunia and Datura
(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) (4) Leopard, Tiger and Lion
(4) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii) 144. Scutellum is reported in
137. FAD is electron acceptor during oxidation of (1) Plants having epiblast.
which of the following?
(2) Plants having open vascular bundles.
(1) α -ketoglutarate  Succinyl Co-A
(3) Gram
(2) Succinic acid  Fumaric acid
(4) Castor
(3) Succinyl Co-A  Succinic acid
145. During zygotene, similar chromosomes start
(4) Fumaric acid  Malic acid
pairing together. It is called
138. Which of these is the food chain which runs from
larger to smaller organisms? (1) Crossing over
(1) Grazing food chain (2) Recombination
(2) Predator food chain (3) Synapsis
(3) Saprophytic food chain (4) Diakinesis)
(4) Parasitic food chain 146. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an autosomal
139. Which of the following is true regarding the lac recessive disorder caused by a deficiency of
operon? which enzyme?
(1) It is always active, regardless of the presence (1) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
of lactose. (2) Tyrosinase
(2) It consists of three structural genes: lac z, (3) Phenylalanine aminotransferase
lac y, and lac i. (4) Tyrosine hydroxylase
(3) It is active in the presence of glucose and
147. Engelmann’s experiment with Cladophora
lactose both.
demonstrated that
(4) It is regulated by both positive and negative
control mechanisms. (1) The full spectrum of sunlight is needed for
photosynthesis
140. In a population of 500 individuals, the frequency
of the recessive allele for a particular trait is 0.2. (2) Only red wavelengths are effective in causing
According to the Hardy-Weinberg equation, photosynthesis
what is the expected number of homozygous (3) Only blue wavelengths are effective
dominant individuals? in causing photosynthesis
(1) 160 (2) 200 (4) Both blue and red wavelengths are effective
(3) 320 (4) 300 in causing photosynthesis

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148. Opposite type of phyllotaxy is found in - 153. Statement I : Two separate bones namely tibia
(1) Alstonia and fibula , present in the shank region of leg.
(2) Mustard Statement II : Tibia is more developed than
fibula.
(3) Guava
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) Sunflower incorrect.
149. The dominant photosynthetic phase in the life (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
cycle of ferns is equivalent to the incorrect.
(1) Gametophytic phase of Funaria (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(2) Sporophytic phase of Funaria correct.
(3) Gametophytic phase of ferns (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct.
(4) Gametophytic phase of Cycas 154. Joint between bones of human skull is :
150. Which statement best describes the ethical, legal, (1) Hinge joint (2) Synovial joint
and social implications (ELSI) component of the (3) Cartilaginous joint (4) Fibrous joint
Human Genome Project? 155. Arrange the following taxa (in Amazonian rain
(1) It focused on ensuring equal access to forest) in ascending order on the basis of their
numbers :

Date : 05/04/2024
genetic information and technologies.
A-Species of plants, B-reptiles, C-Amphibians,
(2) It addressed ethical issues related to genetic D-Fishes, E-Birds, F-Invertebrates
testing, privacy, and discrimination. (1) F-A-D-E-C-B (2) B-C-D-E-A-F
(3) It aimed to regulate the use of genetic (3) B-C-E-D-A-F (4) B-C-E-D-F-A
engineering technologies. 156. Assertion: National parks are the examples of
(4) It emphasized the commercialization of in-situ conservation
genetic research. Reason: It is a conservation of this biological
wealth outside their natural habitat.
(1) both the assertion and the reason are true
ZOOLOGY and the reason is a correct explanation of the
Section - A (35 Questions) assertion.
151. Read the following statements (2) both the assertion and reason are true but
the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(a) Calcitonin is a proteinaceous hormone
assertion.
(b) Secretin is a peptide hormone
(3) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(c) Epinephrine is a steroid in nature (4) both the assertion and reason are false
(d) Several non-endocrine tissues secretes 157. Which one is not the character of red skeletal
hormones called growth factors muscle?
(e) ANF inhibits dilation of blood vessels (1) More myoglobin
Choose correct option (2) More mitochondria
(1) a, b, c are correct (3) More sarcoplasmic reticulum
(2) a, c, e are correct (4) More aerobic respiration
(3) a, b, d are correct 158. Na+ – K+ pump –
(4) a, b, d, e are correct (A) Transports 3Na+ inwards & 2K+ outwards.
152. Pelvic fin of which animals bears clasper. (B) Maintain ionic gradients by active transport.
(1) Exocoetus (C) Works against a concentration gradient.
(2) Myxine How many of above statements are false ?
(3) Pterophylum (1) 4 (2) 3
(4) Carcharadon (3) 2 (4) 1

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159. The most unique mammalian characteristic 166. Filarial worm require two hosts they are
feature is (1) Human, Female anopheles mosquito
(1) Presence of 4 chambered heart (2) Human, Aedes aegypti
(2) Presence of mammary glands (3) Human, Culex mosquito
(3) They can maintain constant body temperature (4) Human, tsetse fly.
(4) Internal fertilisation and direct development 167. Statement I : Cortisol acts upon liver cells
160. Choose wrong option for wall lizard, garden (Hepatocytes)
lizard and tree lizard. Statement II : Cortisol promotes
(1) They have 3 chambered heart gluconeogenesis, proteolysis & lipolysis
(2) Their skin is dry, with scales (1) Statement I & II are correct
(2) Statement I is correct & Statement II is
(3) Fertilisation is internal and development is
incorrect
indirect
(3) Statement I is incorrect & Statement II is
(4) Tympanum represents external ear
correct
161. The electrical potential difference across the (4) Both Statements I & II are incorrect
resting plasma membrane is called as
168. Choose incorrect statement of ADH
(1) Spike potential
(1) It affects kidney function by its constrictory

Date : 05/04/2024
(2) Action potential effect on blood vessels
(3) Resting potential (2) It increases blood pressure
(4) All of these (3) It decrease glomerular blood flow
162. The process of RNA interference has been used (4) It increases glomerular filtration rate
in the development of plants resistant to :- 169. Which of the following ecological relationship
between pairs of organisms is different from the
(1) Nematodes (2) Fungi
other pairs
(3) Viruses (4) Insects (1) An orchid—Mango
163. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are : (2) Clown fish—Sea anemone
(1) High yield and production of toxic protein (3) Ophrys—Species of bee.
crystals which kill dipteran pests (4) The cattle egrets—Cattle
(2) High yield and resistance to bollworms 170. Assertion: Rupture of Graafian follicle occur
around the 14th day of menstrual cycle.
(3) Long fibre and resistance to aphids
Reason: LH level is maximum during the mid
(4) Medium yield, long fibre and resistance to of cycle, i.e., (14th day)
beetle pests (1) If both the assertion and the reason are true
164. During DNA fingerprinting, DNA probes helps and the reason is a correct explanation of the
in assertion.
(1) Gel electrophoresis (2) If both the assertion and reason are true but
the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2) Southern blotting assertion.
(3) Autoradiography (3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) None of these (4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
165. Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 and 171. Which of the following micro-organism has a role
get amended in _______ /used as an immunosuppressive agent in organ-
transplant patients?
(1) 1951
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis
(2) 1971 (2) Monascus purpureus
(3) 1961 (3) Trichoderma harzianum
(4) 2017 (4) Trichoderma polysporum.

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172. Given below graph shows an oxygen dissociation 177. The Oxygen- haemoglobin dissociation curve will
curve: show a right shift in case of
(1) High pH, High H+
(2) Low pH, Low H+
(3) Low pH, High H+
(4) High pH, Low H+
178. Who wrote an essay on Human Population
Growth that helped Darwin formulate his theory
of evolution?
(1) Charles Lyell
(2) August Weismann
Where in the body will haemoglobin be
saturation at the percentage shown at points X, (3) Alfred Russel Wallace
Y, and Z. (4) Thomas Malthus
(1) X - Pulmonary artery, Y - Pulmonary vein,
179. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates
Z - Carotid artery

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that
(2) X - Systemic artery, Y - Pulmonary artery,
Z - Pulmonary vein (1) Fishes were amphibious in the past
(3) X - Pulmonary vein, Y - Systemic vein, Z - (2) Fishes evolved from frog like ancestors
Systemic vein during exercise
(3) Frogs will have gills in future
(4) X - Left ventricle, Y - Right ventricle, Z -
Systemic artery (4) Frogs evolved from gilled ancestors
173. Method in which the male partner withdraws his 180. Speciation usually occurs
penis from the vagina just before ejaculation is
(1) Suddenly
(1) Coitus interruptus
(2) By genetic drift
(2) Lactational amenorrhea
(3) Periodic abstinence (3) When population are geographically isolated
(4) All the above (4) When populations are not geographically
174. In periplaneta brain is represented by.... isolated
(1) Sub- oesophageal ganglia 181. Open circulatory system present in
(2) Supra-pharyngeal ganglia
(1) Annelids and chordates
(3) Supra- oesophageal ganglion
(4) Sub-pharyngeal ganglia (2) Arthropods, Hemichordate, Cephalopod
175. Frog’s eye are protected under water by the mollusca
presence of (3) Arthropods, Non cephalopod mollusca
(1) Retina
(4) Hemichordate, chordates
(2) Upper eyelid
(3) Nictitating membrane 182. Which one of the following statements is correct,
(4) Lower eyelid with reference to enzymes?
176. Following drugs are hallucinogens except one (1) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
(1) LSD
(2) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(2) Excess cocaine
(3) Datura (3) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor
(4) Smack (4) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme

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183. NAD and NADP contain: SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions)
(1) Niacin and Biotin respectively 186. Large amount of water could be reabsorbed
from this region to produce concentrated urine
(2) Riboflavin and Biotin respectively
(1) PCT (2) Loop of henle
(3) Riboflavin and Niacin respectively
(3) DCT (4) Collecting duct
(4) Niacin and Niacin respectively
187. In Myasthenia gravis ________ is affected.
184. Given below are three statements (A-B) each
(1) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
with one or more blanks. Select the option which
(2) Sarcolemma
correctly fills blanks in the statements –
(3) Neuromuscular junction
Statements:
A. Statins produced by the yeast……… . (4) T-tubules
B. ……………contains insecticidal crystal 188. The canal passing through the midbrain is called
proteins thurioside, which is stomach poison and (1) Corpora quadrigemina
highly insect specific. (2) Crura Cerebri
Options: (3) Cerebral aqueduct
(1) A - Monascus purpureus; B - Bacillus (4) Cerebral Peduncle
thuringiensis 189. Select the incorrect statement for continuous
(2) A-Leuconostoc citrovorum; B-Aspergillus culture system–

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niger (1) In this used medium is drained out from one
side while fresh medium is added from other side.
(3) A - Streptococcus thermophilus; B -
Lactobacillus bulgaricus (2) In this cells are maintained in their
physiologically most active lag phase of growth.
(4) A -Clostridium butylicum; B -Rhizobium
(3) It produces larger biomass.
japanicum.
(4) It shows higher yields of desired product.
185.
190. ..........is most abundant and widely distributed
in the body of complex animals.
(1) Muscular tissue
(2) Connective tissue
(3) Epithelial tissue
(4) Nervous tissue
191. Theoretically population size will grow
exponentially if everybody reproduce maximally,
but in fact population sizes in reality are limited.
The reason behind this is
(1) There had been competition for resources
(2) Only some survived due to better adaptation
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Fitness ultimately refers to reproductive
fitness
192. Which of the following statements about
What is indicated by a & c in figure ? enzymes is wrong?
(1) a-RNA polymerase C  Infected cell dies (1) Enzymes require optimum pH and
(2) a-Reverse transcriptase C  Infected cell temperature for maximum activity
dies
(2) Enzymes are denatured at high temperatures
(3) a - DNA polymerase C  Virus being
replicated (3) Enzymes are mostly proteins but some are
(4) a - Reverse transcriptase C  Infected cell lipids also
survives (4) Enzymes are highly substrate specific

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193. In Lungs there is definite exchange of ions 199. ECG records
between RBC and Plasma. Removal of CO2 (1) Electric current of the body
from blood involves - (2) Potential differences
(1) Efflux of CI– ions from RBC (3) Pulse rate
–
(2) Influx of CI ions into RBC (4) Quantity of blood pumped per minute
–
(3) Influx of HCO3 ions into Plasma. 200. Many members of the fungi like genus Glomus
–
(4) Efflux of HCO3 ions from RBC. form symbiotic association with roots of higher
plants is called __________
194. All of the following drugs and their effects
correctly matched except one. (1) Lichen
(1) Morphine - Slow down body function (2) Mycorrhiza
(2) Heroin - Depressant (3) Biofertilizer
(3) Marijuana - Effect on CVS (4) BOD
(4) Atropa belladona - Analgesic
195. Pick the odd one out from each series given
below and select the correct option.
I. Scrotum, rete testis, Fallopian tube, vas
deferens.
II. Ovary, uterus, vagina, ejaculatory duct.

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III. Acrosome, Graafian follicle, corpus luteum,
cervix.
IV. Prostate, testis, seminal vesicles, Cowper’s
gland.
(1) I-Vas deferens, II-Vagina, III-Cervix, IV-
Cowper’s gland
(2) I-Rete testis, II-Ovary, III-Graafian follicle,
IV-Prostate
(3) I-Scrotum, II-Uterus, III-Corpus luteum, IV-
Seminal vesicles
(4) I-Fallopian tube, II-Ejaculatory duct, III-
Acrosome, IV-Testis
196. When one organism inhibits another organism
without a significant gain is ___________.
(1) Parasitism
(2) Mutualism
(3) Amensalism
(4) Commensalism
197. Choose the incorrect pair.
(1) Finger-like projections – Fimbriae
(2) Narrow part of oviduct – Ampulla
(3) Part of oviduct joining the uterus – Isthmus
(4) Common site for fertilization- ampulla
198. According to 2011 census report Indian
population is equivalent to ........of the total world
population
(1) 6% (2) 16%
(3) 20% (4) 35%

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