P

NEET- 2024
Mark Group Date : 03/04/2024
720 PCB FINAL ROUND - 02 Time : 3 : 20 Hours
Question Booklet Version Roll No. Question Booklet Sr. No

P (Write this number on

your Answer Sheet) 0 4324

This is to certify that, the entries of NEET-IIB 2023-24 Roll No. and Answer Sheet No. have been correctly written and
verified.

Date : 03/04/2024
Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature

1. The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2023 comprises of two Sections. Each subject (Physics, Chemistry, Botany,
Zoology ) will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15
questions, out of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions. So, the total
number of questions and utilization of time will remain the same. Total No. of Questions (200 ), The
duration of the test would be 3 :20 hours.
2. Tile questions paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet is issued separately at the start of the
examination.
3. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.
4. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Questions Booklet and Answer Sheet and
make the correct entries on the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheet are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARK
READER (OMR) SYSTEM, special care should be taken to mark the entries correctly. Special care should be
taken to fill QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION, SERIAL No. and NEET-IIB-2023-24 Roll . accurately. The candidate
must sign on the Answer Sheet and Question Booklet.
5. Determine the one correct answer from out of the four available options given for each question,
6. NEET (UG) – 2023 is a Pen & Paper-based Test, to be answered on the specially designed machine gradable
OMR sheet using Ball Point Pen.
7. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.
8. Rough work should be done only one the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work should
not be done on the Answer Sheet.
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over. the Question Booklet and Answer sheet is to be
returned to the invigilator. Confirm that both the candidate and invigilator have signed on question booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Test Syllabus (PCB NEET - 2024)

Physics : XIth + XIIth Whole Physics
Chemistry : XIth + XIIth Whole Chemistry
Biology : XIth + XIIth Whole Biology

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07. Feathery stigma is found in -

BOTANY (1) Fabaceae
SECTION - A (35 Questions) (2) Asteraceae
01. The HGP coordinated by the (3) Malvaceae
(1) U.S. Department of Health and the National (4) Poaceae
Institute of Energy 08. How many statements is/are false regarding
(2) U.K. Department of Health and the National fermentation?
Institute of Energy i. In both lactic acid and alcohol fermentation
(3) U.S. Department of Energy and the National not much energy is released.
Institute of Health ii. In animal cells also, like muscles during
(4) U.K. Department of Energy and the National exercise, when oxygen is inadequate for cellular
Institute of Health respiration pyruvic acid is oxidised to lactic acid
02. To catalyse the transcription of all types of RNA by lactate dehydrogenase
in Eukaryote, how many type(s) of DNA
dependent RNA polymerase is/are present in iii. The reducing agent is NADH+H+ which is
them? reoxidised to NAD + in both the fermentation
(1) Two (2) Three processes.
(3) Five (4) One iv. Yeast poison themselves to death when

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03. The Hershey–Chase experiments show which of concentration of alcohol reaches to less than
the following steps chronologically? seven percent.
(1) Blending, Infection, Centrifugation v. Fermentation takes place under anaerobic
(2) Centrifugation, Infection, Blending conditions in many prokaryotes and unicellular
(3) Infection, Centrifugation, Blending eukaryotes.
(4) Infection, Blending, Centrifugation vi. CO2 evolved in lactic acid fermentation is due
04. Plant growth hormones extracted from a fungus to pyruvate decarboxylase.
and maize are respectively (1) 1
(1) Gibberellins and zeatin (2) 2
(2) Ethylene and cytokinin (3) 3
(3) Auxin and 2, 4-D (4) 4
(4) Gibberellin and kinetin. 09. For the process of photosynthesis all except one
05. The main arena of cellular activities in both the of the following items are essential. Point out
plant and animal cells is the exception.
(1) Nucleus (2) Nucleolus (1) Water, minerals
(3) Cytoplasm (4) Endoplasmic reticulum (2) Light, chlorophyll
06. Regarding prokaryotes- (3) CO2, optimum temperature
1. Generally smaller and multiply more rapidly (4) Oxygen, sucrose
than the eukaryotic cells.
10. Ring arrangement of vascular bundles, Medullary
2. The fluid matrix filling the cell is the cytoplasm
and there is well-defined nucleus rays, Parenchymatous pith, Sclerenchymatous
hypodermis, starch sheath, scattered vascular
3. The genetic material is basically naked, not
enveloped by a nuclear membrane. bundles, presence of water containing cavity in
4. Many bacteria have small circular DNA vascular bundles, conjoint vascular bundles,
outside the genomic DNA, called plasmid exarch xylem, intrafascicular cambium. Out of
5. Mesosome is the essentially infoldings of the these feature show many are found in maize
cell membrane. stem?
(1) Only 1, 4 & 5 are correct (1) 3
(2) Only 3 & 5 are correct (2) 4
(3) Only 1, 3, 4 and 5 are correct (3) 2
(4) All are correct (4) 6

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11. Statement 1:- When carbohydrates are used 15. The distribution of pteridophytes and bryophytes
as substrate and are completely oxidised, the is limited to some geographical zones only
RQ will be 1. (1) Because their spores can germinate in only
Statement 2 :- Because equal amounts of CO2 specific kind of soil only.
and O2 are evolved and consumed respectively. (2) Because they require water for fertilization.
(1) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; (3) Because they have only specific pollination
Statement 2 is correct explanation for Statement which are available in narrow geographical
1 range.
(2) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; (4) Only some weather conditions permit fruit
Statement 2 is not correct explanation for formation in them.
Statement 1 16. Tetragonal anther consists of
(3) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False (1) One microsporangia
(4) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True
(2) Two microsporangia
12. Consider the following statements with respect
(3) Three microsporangia
to photosynthesis.
(A) The first carbon dioxide acceptor in C4 cycle (4) Four microsporangia
is 3-phosphoglycerate 17. A woman whose mother was colourblind and
(B) In C3 plants, the first stable product of father was haemophilic, marries a colourblind
photosynthesis during dark reaction is RuBP haemophilic man, what is true about their

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(C) Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the daughters?
formation of ATP only (1) All their daughters are coloublind and
(D) Oxygen which is liberated during haemophilic
photosynthesis comes from water (2) They may have daughters who neither suffer
Of the above statements from colourblindness nor from haemophilia
(1) A and B alone are correct (3) They may have daughters who are
(2) A and C alone are correct colourblind or haemophilic
(3) C and D alone are correct (4) Some of their daughters are colourblind, but
(4) B and C alone are correct not haemophilic
13. Taylor is heterozygous for two autosomal gene 18. Cycads (Cycas) are
pair (CcDd). He is also colour-blind. What is
the probability of gametes having c, d and a (1) Homosporous and dioecious or monoecious
colour blind genes. (2) Homosporous and monoecious or dioecious
(1) 1/2 (2) 1/4 (3) Heterosporous and monoecious
(3) 1/8 (4) 1/6 (4) Dioecious and heterosporous
14. How many statements are incorrect regarding 19. Which of the following is not the result of
‘Hershey and Chase’ experiment, proving DNA meiosis?
is genetic material? (1) Pollen grains and megaspores in angiosperms
i. Experimental organism was E. coli. (2) Antherozoids in antheridia of pteriodphytes
ii. Radioactivity was seen in supernatant for the (3) Spores in bryophytes
medium that was infected by phage radiolabeled
(4) Megaspore in gymnosperms.
with 32P.
20. A dominant gametophytic phase alternating
iii. Used radioisotope to label protein with 35S
multicellular and dependent sporophyte phase
in virus
is represented by:
iv. Radioactive phages were allowed to infect
[Link] bacteria (1) Polysiphonia
v. It is transduction experiment (2) Polytrichum
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) Adiantum
(3) 4 (4) 2 (4) Cedrus

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21. Meiosis occurs during 27. Which of the following examples of intragenic
(1) Gametogenesis inheritance was discovered by Mendel?
(2) Body growth (1) Co-dominance
(2) Incomplete dominance
(3) Tissue repair
(3) Complete dominance
(4) Crossing over
(4) Pleiotropy
22. Which one of the following statement/s is correct
28. Which of the following genotypes represents a
regarding auxin?
pea plant with green pods and green seeds?
(1) Zeatin and Kinetin are natural and 2, 4, 5-T
(1) ggyy
are synthetic auxins.
(2) GgYy
(2) IAA and NAA are natural but IBA, 2, 4, 5-
(3) yyrr
T and 2, 4-D are synthetic auxins.
(4) GGyy
(3) NAA and 2, 4, 5-T are natural but IAA,
29. Which is correctly labelled?
IBA and 2, 4-D are synthetic auxins.
(4) IAA and IBA are natural but NAA, 2 4-D
and 2, 4, 5-T are synthetic auxins.
23. Endosperm, a product of double fertilization in
Angiosperms is absent in the seeds of -

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(1) Coconut
(2) Castor
(3) Maize
(4) Orchids
24. Peacock eats snake and snake eats insects eats
green plant.
Then the position of peacock is
(1) Primary consumer (1) A= G1 phase, B= S phase, C= G2 phase,
(2) Primary producer D= G0 phase, E= M phase
(3) Secondary consumer (2) A= G0 phase, B= S phase, C= G1 phase,
(4) Tertiary consumer D= G2 phase, E= M phase
(3) A= M phase, B= G0 phase, C= G1 phase,
25. Primary productivity depends on the following
D= S phase, E= G2 phase
except-
(4) A= G0 phase, B= G1 phase, C= S phase,
(1) Plant species inhabiting a particular area. D= G2 phase, E= M phase
(2) Variety of environmental factors 30. Number of endospores usually produced by one
(3) Photosynthetic capacity of plants bacterial cell is:
(4) Utilisation of biomass (1) Numerous (2) Three to four
26. In which among the following taxonomic (3) Two (4) One
categories are arranged in correct ascending 31. Flagellated protozoans are
order. (1) Free living
(1) Arthropoda- Insecta – Diptera- Muscidae- (2) Parasites
Musca (3) Either free living or parasites
(2) Musca – Muscidae- Diptera- Insecta- (4) Possess Pseudopodia
Arthropoda 32. Nostoc and Anabaena are
(3) Musca- Muscidae- Insecta- Diptera- (1) Photosynthetic autotrophs
Arthropoda (2) Chemosythetic autotrophs
(4) Insecta- Muscidae- Musca- Arthropoda- (3) Heterotrophs
Diptera (4) Parasites

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33. I. Sieve tube is living but enucleate. 37. Persistent calyx is the characteristic feature of
II. Xylem and phloem constitute the vascular family -
bundle. (1) Malvaceae
III. First formed xylem element and phloem (2) Brassicaceae
element are called metaxylem and metaphloem (3) Asteraceae
respectively.
(4) Solanaceae
IV Phloem fibres are generally absent in primary
phloem. 38. In electron transport system (ETS), which of
the following cytochrome finally gives electron
V. Phloem parenchyma is absent in most of the
monocots. to oxygen?
Which of the above statement/s is wrong? (1) Cyt b
(1) I, II, V (2) III (2) Cyt a3
(3) IV, V (4) III, IV (3) Cyt b6
34. The portion of embryo above the cotyledon is (4) Cyt f
called ________ and below the cotyledon is 39. Average size of bacteria may be-
called as ________ (1) 30 to 50 μ m
(1) Epicotyl, hypocotyl
(2) 300 to 500 μ m
(2) Hypocotyl, epicotyl
(3) 0.3 to 0.5 μ m
(3) Plumule, radical

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(4) Radical and plumule (4) 3 to 5 μ m
35. Match the column - A with column - B 40. The chlorophylls absorb visible light in the
region of following wavelengths
(1) 400 nm to 500 nm only
Column A Column - B
(Family) (Androecium) (2) 600 nm to 700 nm only
A) Asteraceae (i) Polyandrous (3) 400 nm to 500 nm and 600 nm to 700 nm
Epipetalous & (4) 300 nm to 400 nm only
B) Malvaceae (ii) syngesious 41. Which enzyme affect transformation of R type
Epipetalous &
bacteria into S type bacteria
C) Fabaceae (iii) monoadelphous
D) Poaceae (iv) Diadelphous
a. RNase
(v) Tetradynamous b. Protease
c. DNase
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv d. Ribozyme
(2) A-v, B-iv, C-iii, D-i (1) a, b and d
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (2) a and b
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-v
(3) c and d
SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions) (4) c only
36. Which of the following statements is false? 42. Select the mismatching pair
I. Waxy layer cuticle is absent in roots
(1) George Palade – Ribosomes.
II. Root hairs are unicellular, while stem hairs /
(2) Cytoskeleton – Mechanical support
trichomes are multicellular
(3) Centrioles – 9 + 0 array
III. Trichomes are branched/unbranched, soft/
stiff & secretory or transpiration preventive (4) Loose sheath of bacterial envelope –
IV. Guard cells are dumbbell-shaped in dicots, capsule.
and bean-shaped in monocots (e.g., grass) 43. Pollen grains are mature when
(1) Statement I (1) It contains vegetative and generative cell
(2) Statement II (2) It contains only single haploid cell
(3) Statement III (3) Contains two haploid cell
(4) Statement IV (4) Both (1) and (3)
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44. I gene for ABO blood group have Three alleles

in a population, then how many alleles present ZOOLOGY
in a organism for the blood group?
SECTION - A (35 Questions)
(1) 3 (2) 6
(3) 2 (4) 4 51. Which of the following arrangement is correct
from the point of view of decreasing biodiversity
45. Fungi are mostly
in Angiosperm (D), Pteridophytes (P), Lichen
(1) Unicellular (2) Multicellular (L) Algae(A) and Bryophytes(B).
(3) Filamentous (4) Non filamentous
(1) A > D > B > P > L
46. Which of the following events take place during
post- transcriptional modification in eukaryotes? (2) D > A > B > L > P
(1) Exons are removed from primary transcript. (3) D > A > B > P > L
(2) 7-methyl guanosine cap is added at 3’ end (4) D > B > A > P > L
of RNA transcript 52. Hormone which do not promotes RBC formation
(3) Addition of poly ‘A’ Segment at 5’ end of and maturation (or) erythropoiesis
transcript (1) Androgens
(4) In tailing, adenylated residues are added in (2) Thyroid hormones
a template independent manner.
(3) Cortisol
47. Regarding prophase-

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(4) Aldosterone
1. Prophase is the first stage of mitosis
53. Although all mammals whale, dolphin, bat,
2. Prophase follows S and G 2 phases of
monkey and horse have some important common
interphase
characters, but they also show conspicuous
3. Prophase is marked by the initiation of differences. This is due to the phenomenon of
condensation of chromosomal material.
(1) Divergence
4. The centriole which had undergone
duplication during S phase of interphase, now (2) Genetic drift
begins to move towards opposite poles of the (3) Convergence
cell
(4) Normalization
(1) All are correct statements
(2) Only 1,3 are correct statements 54. Which of the following is not under Darwin’s
theory of natural selection?
(3) Only 2,4 are correct statements
(4) Only 1,2,3 are correct statements (1) Over production
48. An abnormal human baby with ‘XXX’ sex (2) Survival of the fittest
chromosomes was born due to (3) Sources of variation
(1) Formation of abnormal sperms in the father (4) Struggle for existence
(2) Formation of abnormal ova in the mother
55. Which of the following statements are related to
(3) Fusion of two ova and one sperm the birds and mammals.
(4) Fusion two sperms and one ovum (a) Breed only once in their lifetime
49. What is wrong about pteridophytes?
(b) Breed many times during their lifetime
(1) Gametophyte is recessive and haploid
(c) Produce a large number of small-sized
(2) Sporophyte phase is dominant and vascular offspring.
(3) Prothallus produces sex cells
(d) Produce a small number of large-sized
(4) Rhizoids are multicellular and attached to offspring.
sporophyte
(1) Statement (a) and (c)
50. Cat and Tiger show maximum similarity at which
level (2) Statement (b) and (c)
(1) Genus (2) Family (3) Statement (b) and (d)
(3) Order (4) Class (4) Statement (a) and (d)

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56. All of the following animals are radially 63. Filtrate becomes concentrated in
symmetrical, except. (1) Descending limb of loop of henle
(1) Sea lily (2) Sea anemone (2) Ascending limb of loop of henle
(3) Sea horse (4) Sea walnuts (3) Descending limb of vasa recta
57. Which animal is acoelomate ? (4) Ascending limb of vasa recta
(1) Fasciola (2) Nereis 64. Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus
(3) Laccifer (4) Salpa occurs
58. Post anal tail is not the feature of (1) After fertilisation
(1) Echinus (2) Amphioxus
(2) Before the entry of sperm into ovum
(3) Canis (4) Labeo
(3) Simultaneously with first cleavage
59. Which of the following is incorrect?
(4) After the entry of sperm but before
(1) All the elements present in a sample of earth’s fertilisation
crust are also present in a sample of living tissue
65. Embryo at 8-16 cells stage is called
(2) The relative abundance of carbon and
hydrogen with respect to other elements is higher (1) Blastula
in an living organism than in earth’s crust (2) Morula

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(3) The % weight of nitrogen in earth’s crust is (3) Trophoblast
very high in comparison to human body
(4) All of these
(4) The % weight of silicon in earth’s crust is
very high in comparison to human body 66. Select the correct sequence for transport of
sperm cells in male reproductive system.
60. Select the correct choice which identifies the
chemical bonds (A, B, C) present in the given (1) Seminiferous tubules  Rete testis  Vasa
molecules: efferentia  Epididymis  Vas deferens 
Fats = A, Protein = B, Polysaccharide = C Ejaculatory duct  Urethra  Urethral meatus

(1) A-Ester, B-Peptide, C-Glycosidic (2) Seminiferous tubules  Vasa efferentia 

Epididymis  Inguinal canal  Urethra
(2) A-Ester, B-Glycosidic, C-Peptide
(3) Testis  Epididymis  Vasa efferentia 
(3) A-Peptide, B-Glycosidic, C-Ester
Vas deferens  Ejaculatory duct  Inguinal
(4) A-Peptide, B-Ester, C-Glycosidic canal  Urethra  Urethral meatus
61. In frogs, testes are attached to kidneys by a (4) Testis  Epididymis  Vasa efferentia 
double fold of peritoneum known as
Rete testis  Inguinal canal  Urethra
(1) Pericardium
67. According to the 2011 census report, India’s
(2) Mesorchium the population growth rate was ........
(3) Urinogenital duct (1) Less than 2 per cent
(4) Vasa efferentia (2) More than 2 per cent
62. The number of incorrect statements is/are
(3) More than 20 percent
i) Lymph contain lesser proteins than blood.
ii) Closure of semilunar valves produce second (4) About 10 percent
heart sound. 68. Tactile organ of cockroach is.........
iii) Difference between systolic and diastolic (1) Ommatidia
pressure called pulse rate.
(2) Fenestrae
iv) AV Bundle is also called Bundle of His.
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Antenna
(3) One (4) None (4) Anal cerci

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69. The site where mature lymphocyte proliferate 75. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive
and differentiate into effector cells molecule is called :
(1) Primary lymphoid organ (1) Clone
(2) Bone marrow & thymus (2) Plasmid
(3) Spleen, lymph node, payer’s patches etc. (3) Vector
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Probe
70. The genes which can lead to the oncogenic 76. Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily
transformation of the cells could be related to
(1) Viral oncognes (1) pO2
(2) Inactive c-onc (2) pO2 and pCO2
(3) Activated protooncogenes (3) pO 2 , pCO 2 , H + ion concentration,
(4) Both (1) and (3) Temperature
71. Health increases (4) None
(1) Maternal mortality 77. Assertion: Receptors respond only to higher
(2) Infant mortality doses of drugs or alcohol leading to greater
intake and addiction.
(3) Longevity of people
Reason : With repeated use of drugs the
(4) Economic Hardship

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tolerance level of receptors present in our body
72. Total number of bone of human face:- increases.
(1) 10 (2) 12 (1) If both the assertion and the reason are true
(3) 14 (4) 16 and the reason is a correct explanation of the
73. Which of the following are controlled by limbic assertion.
system :- (2) If both the assertion and reason are true but
(A) Emotional reaction the reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(B) Sexual behaviour
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(C) Respiration
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
(D) Pleasure
78. Symphysis contains:-
(E) Body balance
(1) Hyaline cartilage
Choose the correct option – (2) Fibrous cartilage
(1) A, B, C, D, E (3) Calcified cartilage
(2) A, B, D (4) Elastic cartilage
(3) A, B, C, D 79. Read the following four statements (A-D) about
(4) A, B, D, E certain mistakes in two of them.
74. The correct sequence for depolarization and (A) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie produced
milk that was human alpha-lactalbumin enriched.
repolarization is
(B) Restriction enzymes are used in the isolation
(A) Stimulus applied at a site on polarized
of DNA from other macromolecules.
membrane
(C) Downstream processing is one of the steps
(B) Increase the permeability for Na+ of R-DNA technology.
(C) Generation of A.P.(Action Potential) (D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used
(D) Increase the permeability for K+ to transfer R-DNA into the host.
(E) Restoration of membrane potential Which are the two statements having mistakes?
(1) A  B  C  D  E (1) Statements (A) and (B)
(2) B  A  C  D  E (2) Statements (B) and (C)
(3) A  D  C  B  E (3) Statements (C) and (D)
(4) A  B  D  C  E (4) Statements (A) and (C)

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80. Transgenic organisms are used SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions)

(1) To study disease 86. Select the correct statements.
(2) To produce a biological product (i) A slow growing animal like elephant could
(3) To test vaccine safety reach enormous numbers in the absence of
(4) All of these checks.
81. Match the following (ii) Any species growing exponentially under
limited resource conditions can reach enormous
Column I Column II population densities in a short time.
a. Tarsal i. 14
(iii) Population of any species in nature has at its
b. Phalanges ii. 1
disposal unlimited resources to permit
c. Coxal Bone iii. 7
exponential growth.
d. Humerus iv. 2
(iv) The ‘S’ shaped growth model is considered
(1) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii) a more realistic one.
(2) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(4) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii)
(3) (i), (iv) and (v)
82. During sewage treatment, biogas is produced in:

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(4) (i), and (iv)
(1) Aeration tank
87. Dendrites transmit impulse ____ cell body and
(2) Anaerobic sludge digesters
axon transmits impulse ____ cell body.
(3) Settling tank (1) Towards, away from
(4) No biogas production (2) Away, towards
83. Choose the correct combination (3) Towards, towards
(1) Aspergillus niger -Citric acid (4) Away, away
(2) Trichoderma polysporum -Butyric acid 88. Evolution of unique groups of mammals in South
(3) Streptococcus -Pectinase America, Africa and Australia is an evidence of
(4) Monascus purpureus -Lactic acid (1) Continental drift
84. Which of the following is incorrectly matched? (2) Crustal movement
(1) Explant – Excised plant part used for callus (3) Glaciation
formation
(4) Earth quake
(2) Cytokinins – Root initiation in callus
89. ...........is found in the walls of blood vessels and
(3) Somatic embryo – Embryo produced from air sacs of lungs and are involved in functions
a vegetative cell like forming a diffusion boundary
(4) Anther culture – Haploid plants (1) Cuboidal epithelium
85. Total lung capacity can be calculated by
(2) Columnar epithelium
A) VC + RV
B) IC + FRC (3) Squamous epithelium
C) IRV + EC + TV (4) Glandular epithelium
D) IRV + FRC + TV 90. Majority of commonly abused drug are obtained
E) VC + TV from ______ and some from _________ .
(1) A | B | C (1) Angiosperm, Algae
(2) A | B | D (2) Gymnosperm, Fungi
(3) B | C | E (3) Flowering plants, Fungi
(4) C | D | E (4) Angiosperms, Bryophytes

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91. In r-DNA technology or genetic engineering 96. ............is specialised procedure to form an
elution means – embryo in the laboratory in which a sperm is
(1) Remove the DNA from centrifuge tube after directly injected into the ovum.
centrifugation
(1) ZIFT
(2) The separated band of DNA are cut out from
the gel and extracted from the gel piece (2) AI
(3) Separation of the recombinant protein from (3) GIFT
the recombinant cell (4) ICSI
(4) Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host
cell 97. Programmes called ..............were initiated in
1951 and were periodically assessed over the
92. Which of the following is mismatched
past decades
(1) Dupp - Second heart sound, due to closure
of semilunar values in the beginning of (1) Family welfare programme
ventricular diastole (2) Family planning programme
(2) Cardiac output - Stroke volume multiplied
(3) Child health care programme
by heart rate.
(3) Ventricular systole - 0.3 sec. (4) National health mission
(4) Lub - First heart sound associated with 98. The number of ‘ends’ in a glycogen molecule

Date : 03/04/2024
closure of AV-valve at the end of ventricular would be:
systole.
(1) Equal to the number of branches plus one
93. Statement I : The two neighbouring vertebrae
articulate with each other through their anterior (2) Equal to the number of branch points
and posterior zygapophyses. (3) One
Statement II : Lower end of Sternum has a
reduced part called xiphoid process. (4) Two, one on the left side and another on the
right side
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect 99. The concept of chemical evolution is based on
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (1) Crystallization of chemicals
incorrect
(2) Effect of solar radiation on chemicals.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct (3) Interaction of water, air and clay under intense
heat
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
94. Choose the correct statement for juxta medullary (4) Possible origin of life by combination of
chemicals under suitable environmental
nephrons.
conditions.
(1) They are most abundant nephrons
100. How much percentage of the species will be lost
(2) Their loop of henle is long and extend upto by end of 21st century on earth if the current
the outer medulla only rate of loss continues?
(3) Their PCT and DCT present in the outer (1) 10%
medulla
(2) 20%
(4) Capillary network present around their loop
of henle are vasa recta (3) 50%

95. Which is not a steroid hormone (4) 40%

(1) Cortisol
(2) Estrogens
(3) Adrenaline
(4) Testosterone

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106. For free expansion of the gas, which of the following

PHYSICS is true ?

SECTION - A (35 Questions) (1) Q = W = 0 and Eint  0

101. A good lubricant should have (2) Q = 0, W > 0 and Eint  W

(1) high viscosity
(3) W = 0, Q > 0 and Eint  Q
(2) low viscosity
(4) W > 0, Q < 0 and Eint  0
(3) moderate viscosity

(4) high density 107. The position vector of a particle is r  at 2iˆ  btjˆ
102. Two particles of masses 4kg and 8kg are separated where a and b are constants and t is in sec. The
by a distance of 12m. If they are moving towards path of particle is :
each other under the influence of a mutual force of (1) straight line (2) parabola
attraction, then the two particles will meet each
(3) hyperbola (4) none of these
other at a distance of
108. The retentivity and coercivity of soft iron as
(1) 6 m from 8 kg mass compared to steel is

Date : 03/04/2024
(2) 2 m from 8 kg mass (1) low retentivity and high coercive force
(3) 4 m from 8kg mass (2) high retentivity and high coercive force
(4) 8 m from 8 kg mass (3) low retentivity and low coercive force
103. A screw gauge has 50 divisions on its circular scale. (4) high retentivity and low coercive force
The circular scale is 4 units ahead of the pitch scale
109. Statement I : Product of mass and velocity (i.e.
marking, prior to use. Upon one complete rotation
momentum) is basic to the effect of force on
of the circular scale, a displacement of 0.5 mm is
motion.
noticed on the pitch scale. The nature of zero error
involved, and the least count of the screw gauge, Statement II : Same force for same time causes
are respectively the same change in momentum for different
bodies.
(1) Positive, 0.1 mm
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Positive, 10 µm
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Negative, 2µm
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Positive, 0.1µm
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
104. A disc is rotating with angular speed  . If a child
sits on it, what is conserved 110. A force F = 20 + 10y acts on a particle in y-direc-
tion where F is in newton and y in meter. Work
(1) linear momentum (2) angular momentum done by this force to move the particle from y = 0
to y = 1 m is:
(3) kinetic energy (4) potential energy
(1) 20 J (2) 30 J
105. A torque meter is calibrated to reference standard
of mass, length and time each with 5% accuracy. (3) 5 J (4) 25 J
After calibration, the measured torque with this
111. A ball of mass m falls vertically to the ground from
torque meter will have net accuracy of
a height h1 and rebound to a height h2. The change
(1) 15 % in momentum of the ball on striking the ground is
(2) 25% (1) mg (h1  h2 ) (2) m( 2 gh1  2 gh2 )
(3) 75%
(3) m 2 g (h1  h2 (4) m 2 g ( h1  h2 )
(4) 5%

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112. A solid material is supplied with heat at constant 116. An object of mass m is displaced on a smooth
rate and the temperature of the material changes bowl of radius R = 12 cm & released then height
as shown in figure. From the graph, the false from the ground at which block will leave the bowl?
conclusion drawn is

(1) 4 cm (2) 8 cm
(3) 6 cm (4) 10 cm
117. A network of six identical capacitors, each of value
(1) AB and CD of the graph represent phase
C is made as shown in the figure. Equivalent ca-
changes
pacitance between points A and B is
(2) AB represents the change of sate from solid to
liquid C
(1)
4
(3) Latent heat of fusion is twice the latent heat of
vaporization

Date : 03/04/2024
3C
(2)
(4) Latent heat of vaporization is twice the latent 4
heat of fusion
4C
113. X = 3YZ2 Find dimension of y in (MKSA) sys- (3) (4) 3C
tem, if x and z are the dimension of capacitance 3
and magnetic field, respectively. 118. A charge Q is placed at a distance a/2 above the
(1) [M L T A ]
–3 –2 –4 –1 centre of the square surface of edge a as shown in
the figure. The electric flux through the square sur-
(2) [ML–2] face is
(3) [M L T A ]
–3 –2 –4 4
Q
(4) [M–3L–2T8 A4] (1)
3 0
114. Shown below are the black body radiation curves
at temperatures T1 and T2 (T2 > T1). Which of the Q
(2)
following plots is correct? 60

Q
(3)
(1) (2) 20

Q
(4)
0

119. Drift velocity vd varies with the intensity of electric

(3) (4) field as per the relation

(1) vd  E
115. A gas mixture consists of 8 moles of argon and 6 1
moles of oxygen at temperature T. Neglecting all (2) vd 
E
vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the
system is (3) vd  constant
(1) 29 RT (2) 20 RT
(4) vd  E 2
(3) 27 RT (4) 21 RT
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120. A potential difference of 600 volt is applied across 124. Match Columns I and II.
the plates of a parallel plate capacitor, where plates Column-I Column-II
are being separated by 3 mm. An electron projected
(A) RL circuit (1) Leading quantity – current
vertically upward, parallel to the plates, with a
velocity of 2 × 106ms–1 moves undeflected between (B) RC circuit (2) Leading quantity – voltage
the plates. The magnitude of the magnetic field in (C) Inductive (3) Phase difference between
the region between the condenser plates is circuit
voltage and current 0o
(D) Resistive circuit (4) Phase difference between
voltage and current 90o

(1) (A)  (2) ; (B)  (3) ; (C)  (1) ; (D)  (4)

(2) (A)  (2) ; (B)  (2) ; (C)  (4) ; (D)  (3)
(1) 0.1 T (2) 0.2 T
(3) (A)  (4) ; (B)  (3) ; (C)  (2) ; (D)  (1)
(3) 2 × 106 T (4) 600 T
(4) (A)  (2) ; (B)  (1) ; (C)  (4) ; (D)  (3)
121. A long thin hollow metallic cylinder of radius R has 125. Given below are two statements :
a current i ampere. The magnetic induction B-away
from the axis at a distance r from the axis varies as Statement I : When electromagnetic waves strike
shown in a surface, a pressure is exerted on the surface.

Date : 03/04/2024
Statement II : Electromagnetic waves carry energy
as they travel through space and this energy is
equally shared by the electric and magnetic fields.
(1) (2) (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(3) (4) correct.
126. The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed.
The wavelength  of the light falling on the cathode
122. Eddy currents may be reduced by using
is gradually changed. The plate current I of the
(1) laminated core of steel photocell varies as follows
(2) laminated core of soft iron
(3) thick piece of cobalt (1)
(4) thick piece of nickel
123. Which of the following graphs represent the
variation of current (I) with frequency (f) in an AC
(2)
circuit containing a pure capacitor?

(1) (2)
(3)

(3) (4) (4)

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127. Mp denotes the mass of a proton and Mn that of a 132. Which of the following are true?
neutron. A given nucleus, of binding energy B,
A. Speed of light in vacuum is dependent on the
contains Z protons and N neutrons. The mass M
direction of propagation.
(N, Z) of the nucleus is given by (c is the velocity
of light) B. Speed of light in a medium is independent of
the wavelength of light.
(1) M (N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + B/c2
(2) M (N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – Bc2 C. The speed of light is independent of the motion
of the source
(3) M (N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + B/c2
D. The speed of light in a medium is independent
(4) M (N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – B/c2
of intensity
128. In the energy band diagram of a material shown
below, the open circles and filled circles denote Choose the correct answer from the option given
holes and electrons respectively. The material is below
(1) A and C only
(2) B and D only
(3) B and C only

Date : 03/04/2024
(4) C and D only
(1) a p-type semiconductor
133. The magnifying power of a telescope with tube
(2) an insulator
length 60 cm is 5. What is the focal length of its
(3) a metal eye piece ?
(4) an n-type semiconductor (1) 20 cm (2) 40 cm
129. The characteristic of the target element that
(3) 30 cm (4) 10 cm
determines the frequency of characteristic X-rays
is 134. A body of density d1 is counterpoised by Mg of
(1) its means number weights of density d2 in air of density d. Then the
true mass of the body is
(2) its atomic number
(1) M
(3) its melting point
(4) its conductivity  
(2) M 1  d 
130. The network shown in figure is part of a complete  d2 
circuit. If at a certain instant, the current I form A
to B is 5A, and is decreasing at a rate 103 A/s,
 d
then (VB – VA) is (3) M 1  
 d1 

M (1  d / d 2 )
(4)
(1) 20 V (2) 15 V (1  d / d1 )
(3) 10 V (4) 5 V
135. In Young’s double slit experiment, the fringe width
131. Which of the following equations represents a is 12 mm. If the entire arrangement is placed in
travelling wave? water of refractive index 4/3, then the fringe width
becomes (in mm)
(1) y  A sin(15 x  2t )
2
(1) 16
(2) y  Ae x (vt  )
(2) 9
(3) y  Ae x (t  ) (3) 48
(4) y  A sin x cos t (4) 12
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SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions) 138. The logic circuit shown below has the input
136. A uniform disc rolls without slipping on a rough waveforms ‘A’ and ‘B’ as shown. Pick out the
horizontal surface with uniform angular velocity. correct output wave form
Point O is the centre of disc and P is a point on A
disc as shown. In each situation of List-I, a
statement is given and the corresponding results 0 0 1 1
are given in List-II.
Match the statements in List-I with the results in B
List-II.
0 1 0 1

(1) (2)

List-I List-II
(A) The velocity of (P) Changes in (3) (4)
point P on disc magnitude with time.

Date : 03/04/2024
(B) The acceleration of (Q) Is always directed 139. A particle of mass m is executing simple harmonic
point P on disc from that point (the oscillations about the origin on the x-axis. Its
point on disc given potential energy is U = k x4, where k is a positive
in List-I) towards
centre of disc. constant. If the amplitude of oscillation is r, then its
time period T is
(C) The tangential (R) Is always zero.
acceleration of (1) proportional to T (2) proportional to 1/r
point P on disc
(D) The acceleration of (S) Is non-zero and (3) proportional to r (4) independent of r
point on disc which remains contant in
is in contact with magnitude. 140. A capacitor of capacitance 4 µF is charged to 80
rough horizontal V and another capacitor of capacitance 6 µF is
surface. charged to 30 V. When they are connected to-
gether, the energy lost by the 4 µF capacitor is
(1) 7.8 mJ (2) 4.6 mJ
(1) (A)  (R); (B)  (Q),(S) ; (C)  (S); (D)  (Q), (S)
(3) 3.2 mJ (4) 2.5 mJ
(2) (A)  (P); (B)  (Q),(S) ; (C)  (P); (D)  (Q), (S)
141. In the given arrangement of a doubly inclined plane
(3) (A)  (Q); (B)  (Q),(S) ; (C)  (S); (D)  (R), (S)
two block of mass M and m are placed. The block
(4) (A)  (P); (B)  (P),(S) ; (C)  (R); (D)  (P), (Q) are connected by a light string passing over an ideal
137. The reading in the ideal voltmeter shown in the pulley as shown. The coefficient of friction between
given circuit diagram is : the surface of the plane and the blocks is 0.25.
The value of m, for which M = 10 kg will move
down with an acceleration of 2 m/s2, is : (take g =
10 m/s2 and tan37° = 3/4)

(1) 5V
(2) 10 V
(1) 9 kg (2) 4.5 kg
(3) 0 V
(3) 6.5 kg (4) 2.25 kg
(4) 3 V
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142. In the figure, the ball A is released from rest when 146. Statement I : The total energy of a particle in
the spring is at its natural (unstretched) length. For SHM is 150J, amplitude is 1m and force constant
the block B, of mass M to leave contact with the is 200 N/m. Then minimum potential energy is zero.
ground at some stage, the minimum mass of A must Statement II : Total energy of a particle = max
be : K.E. of particle.
(1) both, Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) both, Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(1) 2M
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(2) M
147. A cylinder containing water stands on a table of
(3) M/2
height H. A small hole is punched in the side of
(4) a function of M and the force constant of the cylinder at its base. The stream of water strikes
spring the ground at a horizontal distance R from the table.
143. In an experiment of photoelectric effect the stopping Then the depth of water (h) in the cylinder is
potential was measured to be V1 and V2 volts with
incident light of wavelength  and  / 2

Date : 03/04/2024
respectively. The relation between V1 and V2 may (1) H
be
(2) R h
(1) V2 < V1 (2) V1 < V2 < 2V1
(3) V2 = 2V1 (4) V2 > 2V1 (3) RH H

144. Three concentric metallic spherical shells of radii (4) R2/4H R

R, 2R, 3R, are given charges Q 1 , Q 2, Q 3 ,
respectively. It is found that the surface charge 148. A particle is moving in one dimension (along x axis)
densities on the outer surfaces of the shells are under the action of a variable force. The variation
equal. Then, the ratio of the charges given to the of its position (x) with time (t) is given as x = – 3t3
shells, Q1 : Q2 : Q3, is + 18t2 + 16t, where x is in m and t is in s. The
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 3 : 5 velocity of the particle when its acceleration be-
comes zero is
(3) 1 : 4 : 9 (4) 1 : 8 : 18
(1) 52 m/s (2) 25 m/s
145. A uniform ring of mass m and radius r is placed
(3) 55 m/s (4) 54 m/s
directly above a point mass M. The centre of the
ring is directly above the centre of the sphere at a 149. A transverse wave is represented by y =2 sin
distance r 3 as shown in the figure. The (t  kx ) cm. The value of wavelength (in cm)
gravitational force exerted by the sphere on the for which the wave velocity becomes equal to the
ring will be maximum particle velocity, will be
(1) 4  (2) 2 
GMm
(1) (3)  (4) 2
8r 2 r
150. The refractive index of glass is 1.520 for red light
GMm and 1.525 for blue light. Let D1 and D2 be the
(2) angles of minimum deviation for red and blue light
4r 2
3r 2r respectively in the prism of this glass, then :
GMm (1) D1 < D2
(3) 3
8r 2 M (2) D1 = D2
(3) D1 > D2
GMm
(4) 2 (4) D1 can be less than or greater than D2
8r 3
depending upon the angles of the prism

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155. Which of the following triads have approximately

CHEMISTRY equal size?
SECTION - A (35 Questions) (1) Na , Mg2+, Al3+ (isoelectronic)
151. Consider the following statements :
(1) If all the reactants are not taken in their (2) F , Ne, O2– (isoelectronic)
stoichiometric ratio, then at least one reactant will
(3) Fe, Co, Ni
be left behind.
(2) 2 moles of H2(g) and 3 moles of O2(g) produce (4) Mn1+, Fe2+, Cr (isoelectronic)
2 moles of water. 156. The value of IE1, IE2, IE3 and IE4 of an atom are
(3) Equal wt. of carbon and oxygen are taken to respectively 7.5 eV, 25.6 eV, 48.6 eV and
produce CO2 then O2 is limiting reagent. 170.6 eV. The electronic configuration of the atom
will be
(Assume 100% yield in all cases)
The above statements (1), (2) and (3) respectively (1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
are (T = True, F = False) (2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1
(1) TTT (3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3
(2) FTF (4) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
(3) FFF 157. The standard reduction potential values of three

Date : 03/04/2024
(4) TFT metallic cations, X, Y, and Z are 0.52, –3.03, and
152. In the reaction, –1.18 V, respectively. The order of reducing power
of the corresponding metal is
BrO3– (aq) + 5Br– (aq) + 6H+  3Br2 (l) + 3H2O
The rate of appearance of bromine (Br2) is related (1) Y > Z > X (2) X > Y > Z
to rate of disappearance of bromide ions as (3) Z >Y > X (4) Z > X > Y
158. The two Pt electrodes fitted in a conductance cell
d[Br2 ] 5 d[Br  ]
(1)  are 1.5 cm apart while the cross-sectional area of
dt 3 dt each electrode is 0.75 cm. What is the cell constant?
d[Br2 ] 5 d[Br  ] (1) 1.125 (2) 0.5 cm
(2) 
dt 3 dt (3) 2.0 cm–1 (4) 0.2 cm–1
159. Which of the following is best reagent following
d[Br2 ] 3 d[Br  ]
(3)  conversion?
dt 5 dt
O
d[Br2 ] 3 d[Br  ]
(4)  
?

dt 5 dt OH
H
153. The number of alkynes possible with molecular
formula C5H8 is: (1) H2/Ni (2) H3O+
(1) 2 (3) NaBH4 (4) [Link]+HCl
(2) 3 160. Select incorrect statement regarding phenol
(3) 4
(1) Reaction with Br2 and water gives 2, 4,
(4) 5
6-tribromo phenol
154. If isopropyl chloride and ethyl chloride both react
with Na in presence of dry ether which alkanes (2) Reaction with dilute HNO3 gives mixture of o-
are obtained. nitrophenol (minor) and p-nitrophenol (major).
(1) n-Butane
(3) Reaction with nitrating mixture gives picric acid.
(2) 2-Methyl butane
(3) 2, 3-Dimethyl butane (4) Reaction with cone. H2SO4 at 300 K gives
(4) All of them phenol–2,4-disulphonic acid

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161. Which one of following statements about halogens 167. Match the following and choose the correct answer:
is correct?
Column-I Column-II
(1) F2 has lower bond dissociation energy than Cl2.
(A) Borax  Heat
 (1) B2H6
(2) Van der Waal’s forces are the weakest in iodine. (B) B2H6 + H2O  (2) B3N3H6
(3) HF is the strongest hydrohalic acid. (C) 3B2H6 + 6NH3 (3) H3BO3
Heat

(4) All halogens show variable oxidation states. (D) BF3 + NaBH4  (4) NaBO2 + B2O3
162. Among noble gases (from He to Xe) only Xenon
reacts with fluorine to form stable xenon fluorides (1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
because xenon (2) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(1) Has the largest size
(3) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(2) Has the lowest ionisation enthalpy
(4) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(3) Has the highest heat of vapourisation
168. The coordination number and the oxidation state
(4) Is the most readily available noble gas
of the element ‘E’ in the complex
163 . In a mixture of A and B, components show negative
deviation when: [E(en) 2(C 2O 4)]NO 2(where (en) is ethylene
diamine) are, respectively
(1) A – B interaction is stronger than A – A and B
–B (1) 4 and 2 (2) 4 and 3
(2) A – B interaction is weaker than A – A and (3) 6 and 3 (4) 6 and 2

Date : 03/04/2024
B – B interaction 169. When equal volumes of the following solutions are
(3) V  0, S  0 mixed, the precipitation of AgCl
mix mix
(Ksp = 1.8 × 10–10) will occur with:
(4) Vmix  0, Smix  0
(1) 10–4 M (Ag+) and 10–4 M (Cl–)
164. Match the following:
(2) 10–5 M (Ag+) and 10–5 (Cl–)
List I List II
1. Ideal solution (i) 0.9% NaCl solution (3) 10–5 M (Ag+) and 10–6 M (Cl–)
and Blood fluid
2. Positive deviation (ii) Acetone and (4) 10–10 M (Ag+) and 10–10 M (Cl–)
Chloroform 170. Given that heat of neutralisation of strong acid and
3. Negative deviation (iii) Benzene and
Toluene
strong base is – 57.1 kJ. The heat produced when
4. Isotonic solution (iv) Ethanol and Water 0.25 mole of HCl is neutralised with 0.25 mole of
NaOH in aqueous solution is :
(1) (1)-(i); (2)-(iii); (3)-(iv); (4)-(ii)
(1) 14.275 kJ (2) 57.1 kJ
(2) (1)-(iii); (2)-(i); (3)-(ii); (4)-(iv)
(3) 22.5 kJ (4) 28.6 kJ
(3) (1)-(iii); (2)-(i); (3)-(iv); (4)-(ii)
171. Statement-1 : In strongly acidic solutions, aniline
(4) (1)-(iii); (2)-(iv); (3)-(ii); (4)-(i) becomes more reactive towards electrophilic
165. Compare boiling point of isomeric alkyl amines reagents
(1) 1o > 2o > 3o (2) 1o > 2o < 3o Statement-2 : The amino groups being completely
(3) 1o < 2o < 3o (4) 1o < 2o > 3o protonated in strongly acidic solution, the lone pair
Me of electrons on the nitrogen is no longer available

for resonance.
166. Me
N
Et
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true ;
n-Bu
Statement-2 is correct explanation for
The alkene formed as a major product in the given statement-1
elimination reaction is (2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true ;
(1) (2) H2C CH2 Statement-2 is not correct explanation for
Me
statement-1
Me Me
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(3) (4)
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true

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172. Arrange the carbanions, 177. 2-pentanone and 3-pentanone can be distinguished
by :
(CH 3)3C, CCl3, (CH 3)2CH, C 6H 5CH2
(1) Cannizaro’s reaction
in order of their decreasing stability : (2) Aldol condensation
(1) (3) Iodoform reaction
(CH 3)2CH > CCl3 > C 6H 5CH2 > (CH3) 3C
(4) Clemmensen’s reduction
(2) CCl3 > C 6H5CH 2 > (CH 3)2CH > (CH 3)3C 178. IUPAC name of the following compound is

(3) O
(CH3) 3C > (CH 3)2CH > C6H 5CH 2 > CCl 3

(4) C6H 5CH2 > CCl 3 > (CH 3)3C > (CH 3)2CH H

173. Which of the following complex compounds will

exhibit highest paramagnetic behaviour? (1) 2-(2-propenyl) butanal
(1) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (2) 2-(1-propenyl) butanal
(2) [Zn(NH3)6]2+ (3) 4-formyl 4-ethyl but-2-ene

(3) [Ti(NH3)6]3+ (4) 2-ethyl pent-3-en-1-al

179. KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent in alkaline
(4) [Cr(NH3)6]3+

Date : 03/04/2024
medium. When alkaline KMnO4 is treated with KI,
([Link]. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27, Zn = 30) iodide ion is oxidised to ........... .
174. Assertion : Separation of Zr and Hf is difficult. (1) I2 (2) IO–
(3) IO3– (4) IO4–
Reason : Because Zr and Hf lie in the same group
of the periodic table. 180. The correct statement with regard to H2+ and H2–
is
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
(1) Both H2+ and H2– do not exist
is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) H2– is more stable than H2+
(2) Both assertion and reason are ture but reason
(3) H2+ is more stable than H2–
is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(4) both H2+ and H2– are equally stable
(3) Assertion is not true but the reason is true. 181. What will be the wavenumber of yellow radiation
(4) Both assertion and reason are false. having wavelength 240 nm?
(1) 1.724 × 104 cm–1
175. Assertion : A process is called adiabatic if the
system does not exchange heat with the (2) 4.16 × 106 m–1
surroundings. (3) 4 × 1014 Hz
Reason : An adiabatic process does not involve (4) 219.3 × 103 cm–1
increase or decrease in temperature of the system 182. Which one is the wrong statement?
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason (1) The uncertainty principle is E x t  h / 4 
is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Half filled and fully filled orbitals have greater
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
is not a correct explanation for assertion. stability due to greater exchange energy, greater
symmetry and more balanced arrangement
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(3) The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms.
176. In which of the following, oxidation number of
chlorine is +5? h
(4) De-Brogelie’s wavelength is given by   ,
mv
(1) Cl– (2) ClO– where m = mass of the particle, v = group velocity
(3) ClO–2 (4) ClO–3 of the particle.

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183. Which of the following is an example of aldol 187. What weight of CaCO3 must be decomposed to
reaction ? produce the sufficient quantity of carbon dioxide
to convert 21.2 kg of Na2CO3 completely in to
(1) 2CH3COCH3  dil NaOH
 NaHCO3.
CH3
[Atomic mass Na = 23, Ca = 40]
CH 3C(OH)CH2COCH 3

(2) 2HCHO  CaCO3 

 CaO  CO 2
dil NaOH
 CH3OH
Na 2CO3  CO 2  H 2 O 
 2NaHCO3
(3) C6H5CHO + HCHO 
dil NaOH

C6H5CH2OH (1) 100 Kg (2) 20 Kg
(4) None of the above (3) 120 Kg (4) 30 Kg
184. Carbon and hydrogen are estimated in organic 188. A hypothetical reaction ; A2 + B2  2AB follows
compounds by the following mechanism
(1) Kjeldalhl’s method A2  A + A .......... fast
(2) Duma’s method
(3) Leibig’s method A + B2 
 AB + B .......... slow
(4) Carius method
A + B 
 AB .......... fast

Date : 03/04/2024
185. The bond energies NO, NO and NO follow
the order: The order of the overall reaction is

(1) NO   NO  NO  (1) 2 (2) 3/2

(3) 1 (4) 0
(2) NO  NO   NO 
189. The addition of Br2 to cis–2–butene produces
(3) NO   NO  NO 
(1) (+) –2, 3–dibromobutane only
(4) NO   NO   NO
(2) (–) –2, 3–dibromobutane only
SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions)
(3) racemic–2, 3–dibromobutane
MgBr (4) meso –2, 3–dibromobutane
(i) CO 2 190. Assertion :– Benzene does not decolourise Br2-
186. P
(ii) H 3O
water.
Reason :– Benzene is stabilized by aromaticity
In the above reaction product ‘P’ is
and no addition of Br2.
CHO
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
(1) Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
COOH
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(2)
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false
191. Which of the following represents the correct order
OH of decreasing number of S = O bonds?

(3) (1) H2SO4 > H2S2O8 > H2SO4

(2) H2S2O8 > H2SO4 > H2SO3

O
(3) H2S2O8 > H2SO3 > H2SO4
(4) C6H 5 C C6H5 (4) H2SO4 > H2SO3 > H2S2O8

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192. Both geometrical and optical isomerism are (1) A–(1), B–(2), C–(3), D–(4)
exhibited by
(2) A–(2), B–(3), C–(4), D–(1)
(1) Dichlorobis (ethylenediamine) cobalt (III) ion
(3) A–(3), B–(4), C–(1), D–(2)
(2) Pentaamminechlorocobalt (III)
(3) Triamminechlorocobalt (III) ion (4) A–(3), B–(4), C–(2), D–(1)

(4) Tetraamminedichlorocobalt (III) ion 197. Which of the following is a positive overlap which
leads to bonding?
193. Limiting molar conductivity of NH 4 OH
o
(i.e.  m(NH4OH) ) is equal to

o o o (1) (2)
(1)  m(NH4Cl)   m(NaCl)   m(NaOH)

o o o
(2)  m(NaOH)   m(NaCl)   m(NH4Cl)

o o o
(3)  m(NH4OH)   m(NH4Cl)   m(HCl)
(3) (4)
o o o
(4)  m(NH4Cl)   m(NaOH)   m(NaCl)

194. The most stable oxides of nitrogen will be: 198. The type of the following redox reaction is

Date : 03/04/2024
(1) 2NO 2 (g)  N 2 (g)  2O 2 (g); (CN) 2 (g)  2 OH  (aq)  CN  (aq)  CNO  (aq)  H 2 O(l )

K = 6.7 × 1016 mol L–1 (1) Combination

(2) 2N 2O5 (g)  2N 2 (g)  5O 2 (g); (2) Decomposition
K = 1.2 × 1024 mol5 L–5 (3) Displacement

(3) 2NO(g)  N 2 (g)  O 2 (g); (4) Disproportionation

K = 2.2 × 1030 199. 15 mL of aqueous solution of Fe2+ in acidic medium

completely reacted with 20 mL of 0.03 M aqueous
(4) 2N 2 O(g)  2N 2 (g)  O 2 (g); Cr2O72–. The molarity of the Fe2+ solution is
K = 3.5 × 1033 mol L–1 _______× 10–2 M
195. Which of the following pair is used to prepare (Round off to the nearest integer)
2-ethoxy-2-methyl propane? (1) 24 (2) 34
(1) (CH3)3CCl + C2H5ONa
(3) 14 (4) 44
(2) (CH3)3CONa+ C2H5Cl
200. Which of the following pairs of compounds will
(3) CH3CH2ONa + C2H5Cl undergo aldol and Cannizzaro reaction
(4) CH3CH2CH2ONa + C2H5Cl respectively ?
196. Compare vitamin List I with its deficiency disease (i) acetone; benzaldehyde
list II
(ii) acetaldehyde; butan-2-one
Column-I Column- II
(iii) propanone; formaldehyde.
(A) Vitamin-B12 (1) Sterility (iv) cyclopentanone, benzaldehyde
(B) Vitamin-B6 (2) Haemorrhagic (1) (i), (iii) and (iv)
condition
(C) Vitamin-E (3) Pernicious anaemic (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) Vitamin-K (4) Convulsions
(4) (iii) and (iv)

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