P

NEET- 2024
Mark Group Date : 01/04/2024
720 PCB FINAL ROUND - 01 Time : 3 : 20 Hours
Question Booklet Version Roll No. Question Booklet Sr. No

P (Write this number on

your Answer Sheet) 0 4324

This is to certify that, the entries of NEET-IIB 2023-24 Roll No. and Answer Sheet No. have been correctly written and
verified.

Date : 01/04/2024
Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature

1. The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2023 comprises of two Sections. Each subject (Physics, Chemistry, Botany,
Zoology ) will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15
questions, out of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions. So, the total
number of questions and utilization of time will remain the same. Total No. of Questions (200 ), The
duration of the test would be 3 :20 hours.
2. Tile questions paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet is issued separately at the start of the
examination.
3. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.
4. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Questions Booklet and Answer Sheet and
make the correct entries on the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheet are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARK
READER (OMR) SYSTEM, special care should be taken to mark the entries correctly. Special care should be
taken to fill QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION, SERIAL No. and NEET-IIB-2023-24 Roll . accurately. The candidate
must sign on the Answer Sheet and Question Booklet.
5. Determine the one correct answer from out of the four available options given for each question,
6. NEET (UG) – 2023 is a Pen & Paper-based Test, to be answered on the specially designed machine gradable
OMR sheet using Ball Point Pen.
7. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.
8. Rough work should be done only one the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work should
not be done on the Answer Sheet.
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over. the Question Booklet and Answer sheet is to be
returned to the invigilator. Confirm that both the candidate and invigilator have signed on question booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Test Syllabus (PCB NEET - 2024)

Physics : XIth + XIIth Whole Physics
Chemistry : XIth + XIIth Whole Chemistry
Biology : XIth + XIIth Whole Biology

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06. Find out the plant group in which independent

BOTANY and recessive gametophyte is found.
SECTION - A (35 Questions) (1) Sphagnum and Ferns
01. A typical dicotyledonous embryo consists of (2) Marchantia and Sphagnum.
(1) Radicle only (3) Dryopteris and Pteris
(2) Embryonal axis and cotyledons (4) Pinus and Cycas
(3) Cotyledons only 07. Assertion: Deletions and insertions of base
(4) Embryonal axis only pairs of DNA, causes frame-shift mutation.
02. Fusion of one male gamete with egg and other Reason: A classical example of frame-shift
of the same pollen tube with two polar nuclei is mutation is sickle cell anaemia.
(1) Triple fusion (1) If both the assertion and the reason are true
and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(2) Vegetative fertilization
assertion.
(3) Double fertilization
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but
(4) Parthenogenesis the reason is not a correct explanation of the
03. Statement-A: The rate of production of organic assertion.
matter during photosynthesis is the gross primary (3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
productivity of an ecosystem which can be
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false
denoted as net primary productivity plus
08. Mendel’s Law of independent assortment holds

Date : 01/04/2024
respiration losses.
good for genes situated on the
Statement-B: Secondary productivity can be
the available biomass for the consumption to (1) Non-homologous chromosomes
many heterotrophs. (2) Homologous chromosomes
Out of the two statements given above: (3) Extra nuclear genetic element
(1) Statement-A is correct but statement-B is (4) Same chromosome
incorrect.
09. Heterozygous round and yellow seeded pea
(2) Statement-B is correct but statement-A is plants were selfed and total 1600 seeds are
incorrect. collected. What is the total number of
(3) Statement-A and statement-B-both are Recombinant seeds ?
incorrect.
(1) 1900 (2) 600
(4) Statement-A and statement-B both are
correct. (3) 400 (4) 300
04. In the following questions, a statement of 10. If father affected by Down’s syndrome and
Assertion is followed by a statement of Reason. mother is normal, then what is the probability of
progeny having Down syndrome?
Assertion: Cells vary greatly in their shape.
Reason: The shape of cell does not depend on (1) 0% progeny will be produced with Down’s
the function they perform syndrome since father is sterile due to Down’s
syndrome
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is the correct explanation of the (2) 100 %
Assertion. (3) 25 %
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the (4) 50%
Reason is not the correct explanation of the 11. Match the column I with column II and select
Assertion. the correct option:
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false. Column I Column II
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false. (a) Vascular cryptogams I. Marchantia
05. Which of the following is correct? (b) Zygotic meiosis II. Eudorina
(1) The veins are similar in thickness in parallel (c) Dichotomous thallus III. Volvox
venation (except the main veins) (d) Anisogmy IV. Equisetum
(2) The veins are similar in thickness in dicot
(1) a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
leaves
(3) The veins are similar in thickness in monocot (2) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
leaves (except the main veins) (3) a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
(4) Both (1) and (3) (4) a-IV, b-I, c-III, d-II
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12. In Hershey–Chase experiments, 35S labelled 18. Read the following statements carefully -
_____ and 32P labelled ________ respectively. (I) Pneumatophores help mangrove plants for
(1) Bacteria, DNA (2) DNA, Protein fixation of shoot system in muddy soil.
(3) Protein, DNA (4) DNA, mRNA (II) Edible part of Mangifera fruit is mesocarp.
13. Select the correct one with respect to nucleus - (III) Cladodes are green, photosynthetic stems
(1) It was discovered by Robert brown (1831) which have limited growth.
in orchid’s root cell. (IV) Thorn is modification of axillary bud for
(2) Nucleus is bounded by inner membrane only. climbing purpose.
(3) Ribosomes are present on the inner surface How many statements are correct.
of nuclear membrane. (1) One (2) Two
(4) Nucleolus forms a barrier between the
(3) Three (4) Four
materials present inside the nucleus and that of
the cytoplasm. 19. Meiosis involves pairing of homologous
14. Select the INCORRECT one with respect to chromosomes and recombination between-
nucleus. (1) Non-sister chromatids of homologous
(1) Material of the nucleus stained by the basic chromosomes.
dyes like acetocarmine.
(2) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous
(2) The interphase nucleus has highly extended chromosomes.
and elaborate nucleoprotein fibers called

Date : 01/04/2024
chromatin. (3) Sister chromatids of non-homologous
(3) Electron microscopy has revealed that the chromosomes.
nuclear envelope, which consists of two parallel (4) Anywhere in non-homologous chromosomes.
membranes.
20. Monocot seeds are endospermic, except few
(4) The content of nucleolus is not continuous such as __
with the rest of the nucleoplasm.
(1) Wheat (2) Maize
15. What confers additional stability to double helix
model of DNA apart from the H-bond? (3) Orchids (4) Grasses
(1) One base pair provides inductive effect to 21. If the n = 16 in plant cell, then what is possible
the other. in Metaphase -I of meiosis -
(2) One base pair is stacked over the other. (1) 32 bivalents
(3) One base pair is perpendicular to another. (2) 16 tetravalent
(4) One base pair interacts with another base (3) 16 bivalents
pair via steric hindrance
(4) 8 bivalents
16. Assertion: Selaginella and Salvinia shows
22. Which of the following denotes epipetalous
dioecious gametophyte.
condition ?
Reason: Both are heterosporous
pteridophytes. (1) K (2) C
A A
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A (3) P (4) G
A A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
23. Which statement about photosynthesis is false?
explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false (1) The electron carriers involved in
photophosphorylation are located on the
(4) Both A and Rare false. thylakoid membranes as well as on stromal
17. Deoxyribonucleotide triphosphate serves the lamellae
dual purpose of ________ and ________ in the (2) Photosynthesis is a redox process in which
process of replication of DNA. water is oxidised and carbon dioxide is reduced
(1) Enzyme, substrate (3) The enzyme required for carbon fixation are
(2) Catalyst, substrate located only in the grana of chloroplasts
(3) Substrate, energy provider (4) In green plants, both PS-I and PS-II are
(4) Energy, mutage provider required for the formation of NADPH + H+

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24. The given diagram indicates the movement of 28. Match the columns I and II, and choose the
substances into in and out of a chloroplast correct combination from the options given.

Column I Column II
a. Apomixis 1 Mango
b. Polymbryony 2 Seedless fruit
c. Parthenocarpy 3 Asteraceae
(1) a - 3, b - 1, c - 2 (2) a - 2, b - 3, c - 1
(3) a - l, b - 2, c - 3 (4) a - 3, b - 2, c - 1
29. Which of the following statement is correct
regarding ethylene?
(1) It delays senescence or ripening.
(2) It decreases the respiration rate during fruit
What do labels A to D represent? ripening.
(3) It breaks seed and bud dormancy in peanuts
1 2 3 4 and potato respectively.
(1) Sugar H₂O ATP O₂ (4) It inhibits flowering in mango and pineapple.
(2) H₂O O₂ CO₂ Sugar 30. How many statements is/are incorrect regarding
(3) CO₂ H₂O Sugar O₂ respiration in plants?

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(4) CO₂ ATP H₂O Starch i. ATP acts as energy currency of the cell.
ii. The compounds that are reduced during
respiration are known as respiratory substrates.
25. Select the correct statement from the following iii. During oxidation within cell, all energy
for kingdom fungi contained in respiratory substrates is released
A. They are heterotrophic. free into the cell.
B. They show less diversity in morphology and iv. The breaking of the C-C bonds of complex
compounds through oxidation within the cells,
habitat.
leading to release of considerable amount of
C. Yeast is an unicellular fungus. energy is called respiration
D. They prefer to grow in warm and humid v. Usually, carbohydrates are oxidised to release
places. energy, but proteins, fats and even organic acids
can be used as respiratory substrates in some
(1) A and D only
plants, under certain conditions.
(2) C and D only
vi. All cells of green plants can perform
(3) A, C and D only photosynthesis.
(4) A and B only (1) 2 (2) 3
26. The following features belongs to (3) 4 (4) 5
A. Mycelium septate and branched. 31. Match the following.
B. Some members are saprophytes or parasites. i. Glucose to glucose-6 A. Formation of
-phosphate NADH+H
+
C. Reproduce only by conidia.
ii. PEP to Pyruvate B. Utilization of
(1) Ascomycetes
ATP takes place
(2) Deuteromycetes
iii. PGAL to BPGA C. Formation of
(3) Basidiomycetes
ATP molecule
(4) Phycomycetes iv. 2PGA to PEP D. Release of
27. In roots the water molecule
(1) Protoxylem lies towards the periphery (1) i – A , ii – B ,iii – C, iv - D
(2) Metaxylem lies towards the pith (centre) (2) i – B , ii – C , iii – A, iv - D
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) i - C, ii – B , iii- A, iv - D
(4) Endarch condition is found (4) i – B, ii- A, iii- C, iv – D

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32. Chlamydomonas, Chlorella, Paramecium and 38. Euglena posses all except
Amoeba are placed in which kingdom of (1) Pellicle
Whittaker’s classification?
(2) Two equal flagella
(1) Monera
(3) Two unequal flagella
(2) Protista
(3) Fungi (4) Mixotrophic nutrition
(4) Plantae 39. The role of chlorophyll in photosynthesis is
33. Which of the following term include all other (1) Absorption of CO2
terms? (2) Absorption of light
(1) Classification
(3) Absorption of light and photochemical
(2) Nomenclature decomposition of water
(3) Taxonomy
(4) Absorption of water
(4) Systematics
40. The transverse section of a plant material shows
34. In Drosophila crossing over occurs in female
but not in male. Gene A and B are 10 map unit the following anatomical feature.
apart on chromosome. A female Drosophila with (i) Vascular bundles are conjoint open and
genotype . and male Drosophila with genotype . arranged in a ring.
How many type of gametes are produced by (ii) innermost layer of cortex is starch sheath
female and male Drosophila respectively -

Date : 01/04/2024
(1) 4 types : 2 type (iii) Collenchymatous hypodermis
(2) 2 types : 2 types (iv) In between the vascular bundles there are
(3) 4 types : 4 type a few layers of radially placed parenchymatous
cells, which constitute medullary rays.
(4) 4 types : one types
35. KHORANA synthesized two RNAs (a) with What will you identify it as?
repeat sequence of ABC and (b) with repeat (1) Monocot stem
sequence of AB the polypeptides coded by (a) (2) Dicot stem
& (b) are respectively –
(3) Monocot root
(1) Homopolypeptides in both (a) and (b)
(2) Heteropolypeptide in both (4) Dicot root
(3) Homopolypeptide in (a) & heteropolypeptide 41. Names of Schleiden and Schwann are as
in (b) associated with-
(4) Heteropolypeptide in (a) & homopolypeptide (1) Theory of cell lineage
in (b) (2) Nucleus function as controlling center of cell
SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions) (3) Theory of natural selection
36. Incorrect regarding HGP (4) Cell theory
(1) EST is a blind approach to sequencing 42. They do not have father and thus cannot have
Coding region of genome sons, but have a grandfather and can have
grandsons. It is true for
(2) Fewest number of genes present on Y
chromosome (1) Grasshopper
(2) Drosophila
(3) Automated DNA sequencer working at
principle of DNA sequencing developed by F. (3) Honey bees
Sanger (4) Peacock
43. The descending arrangement of categories is
(4) The average gene consists of 3000 bases
called
37. How many Barr bodies are present in a (1) Classification
Klinefelter Male
(2) Taxonomy
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) Hierarchy
(3) 3 (4) 4 (4) Key
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44. Leaves originate from ____ 50. If fatty acids were to be respired they would
(1) Shoot apical meristem & arranged in first be degraded to _____________ and enter
basipetal order the respiratory pathway.
(2) Shoot apical meristem & arranged in (1) Pyruvic Acid (2) Glycerol
acropetal order (3) Acetyl-CoA (4) Amino Acid
(3) Intercalary meristem & arranged in acropetal
order.
(4) Lateral meristem. ZOOLOGY
45. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both SECTION - A (35 Questions)
(1) Autogamy and geitonogamy 51. Primitive atmosphere was reducing because:
(2) Geitonogamy and xenogamy (1) Hydrogen atoms were few
(3) Cleistogamy and xenogamy (2) Hydrogen atoms were active and in greater
(4) Autogamy and xenogamy number
46. Checkout the incorrect statement. (3) Nitrogen atoms were more
(1) Nuclear pores are the passages through (4) Oxygen atoms were more
which movement of RNA and Protein molecules 52. Choose the correct statement.
take place in both the direction. (1) Amphioxus is a lancelet

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(2) Nucleus contains only one nucleolus (2) Ascidia contains paired fins
exclusively (3) Kidney’s are excretory organs of all
(3) Chromosome contains DNA, RNA, histones chordates
and some non-histone proteins. (4) Tunicates are exclusively freshwater.
(4) A single human cell has approximately 2meter 53. Assertion : Maximum movement is possible at
long thread of DNA distributed among 46 the Cartilaginous joint.
chromosomes. Reason : Synovial joints have almost frictionless
movement due to synovial fluid.
47. An ecosystem receives 2,000,000 J of sunlight
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
energy, then what is the energy available at
true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
primary producer (T1) level? Assertion (A).
(1) 20,000 J (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
(2) 2,00,000 J true but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
(3) 2,000 J
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) 200J
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
48. Which of the following is not a function of
54. Main function of secretions of bulbourethral
cytokinin?
gland is
(1) Promotes apical dominance.
(1) Source of fructose
(2) Promotes chloroplast development.
(2) Source of calcium
(3) Promotes movement of nutrients.
(3) Provide nourishment to developing sperms
(4) Delay leaf senescence.
(4) Lubrication of penis
49. In which of the following system of classification
55. Identify correct statement for prawn (palaemon)
each character i.e. vegetative and sexual is given
(1) It is a crustacean and its excretory organs
equal importance.
are malpighian tubules
(a) Numerical taxonomy
(2) It is a Arachnid and its excretory organs are
(b) Phylogenetic system
green glands.
(c) Artificial system (3) It is a gastropod and its respiratory organs
(d) Natural system are gills
(1) a and d (2) Only c (4) It is a crustacean and its excretory organs
(3) a and c (4) a and b are green gland.

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56. Notocord persistent through out life in 63. Which of the following disease can be treated
(1) Ascidia with antibiotics.
(2) Myxine (1) AIDS
(3) Lancelets (2) Genital warts
(4) Rohu fish (3) Syphilis
57. Ammonia is __________, generally excreted by (4) Hepatitis-B
_____
64. Select the incorrect statement from the following:
(1) Highly soluble, active transport
(1) Cellulose does not contain complex helices.
(2) Readily soluble, simple diffusion
(2) Cellulose does not give colour with I2.
(3) Insoluble, gill surface in fishes
(3) Cotton fibre, plant cell wall are made up of
(4) Highly soluble, gill surface in mammals
cellulose.
58. Which of the following is not an organised
endocrine gland. (4) Cellulose is heteropolysaccharide.
(1) Pineal 65. Read the following statements regarding to Rana
(2) Pancreas Tigrina and find out correct statement.
(3) Gonads (1) Rana Tigrina is Bengal tiger
(4) Kidney (2) Bengal tiger never drinks water

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59. Which industrial products are synthesized from (3) Bengal tiger belongs to amphibia
microbes? (4) Rana Tigrina is cold blooded or poikilotherms
A. Antibiotics 66. During sewage treatment, biogas is produced in:
B. Fermented beverages (1) Aeration tank
C. Enzymes and chemicals (2) Anaerobic sludge digesters
D. Bioactive molecules
(3) Settling tank
(1) A, C, D
(4) No biogas production
(2) A, B, C, D
67. Which one of the following is correct ?
(3) A, C
(1) Lymph = Plasma + WBC + Platelets
(4) A, B, C
(2) Plasma = Blood - clotting factor
60. Golden rice will help in:
(1) Producing petrol-like fuel (3) Blood = Plasma + formed elements
(2) Pest resistance (4) Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen
(3) Herbicide tolerance 68. Statement-I : Antibodies against A and B
(4) Alleviation of vitamin a deficiency antigens are found in AB blood group.
61. During contraction and relaxation of the striated Statement-II : Antibodies belongs to specific
muscle, which part of the sarcomere shows no type of immunity.
change in length? (1) Both statement false
(1) I - band
(2) Only statement II is true
(2) A – band
(3) Both statement true
(3) A -I junctions
(4) Statemetn II is false and statement I is true
(4) Total sarcomere
69. Highest cranial capacity was found in which of
62. The number of bones in the lower jaw of human
the following human
is :
(1) 1 (1) Homo habilis
(2) 4 (2) Homo erectus
(3) 6 (3) Homo neanderthalensis
(4) 8 (4) Australopithecines

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70. A narrow duct present in mid brain is 77. Read the following statements regarding to
(1) Neural canal cuboidal epithelium carefully and find out
incorrect one
(2) PCT
(1) Cuboidal epithelium is composed of a single
(3) Cerebral aqueduct layer of cube-like cells.
(4) DCT (2) This is commonly found in ducts of glands
71. There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. and tubular parts of nephrons in kidneys.
What does “co” part in it stand for? (3) Its main functions are secretion and
(1) Coli (2) Colon absorption.
(3) Coelom (4) Coenzyme (4) It found in the walls of blood vessels and air
sacs of lungs and are involved in functions like
72. In a random mating population in equilibrium forming a diffusion boundary.
which of the following brings about a change in
78. Identify the cells given in the figure
gene frequency in a nondirectional manner.
(1) Random drift (2) Selection
(3) Migration (4) Mutation
73. Enzymes are divided into
(1) 6 classes, each with 4–13 subclasses and
named accordingly by a four-digit number.

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(2) 7 classes, each with 3–13 subclasses and
named accordingly by a four-digit number. (1) A- fibroblast, B- macrophage
(3) 7 classes, each with 4–13 subclasses and (2) A- mast cell, B- macrophage
named accordingly by a three-digit number. (3) A- macrophage, B- fibroblast
(4) 6 classes, each with 4–20 subclasses and (4) A- adipocyte, B- fibroblast
named accordingly by a four-digit number.
79. Statement-I: Inspiration occurs due to muscular
74. Counting the number of QRS complex that occur relaxation.
in a given period of time, one can determine the
Statement-II: During exhalation, the diaphragm
(1) Cardiac output
and external intercostal muscle relax
(2) Stroke Volume
simultaneously.
(3) Heart rate
(1) Both statement False
(4) Pulse pressure
75. Amensalism is an association between two (2) Only statement II is true.
species where (3) Both statement true
(1) One species is harmed and other is benefited. (4) Statement II is false and statement I is true
(2) One species is harmed and other is
80. Government of India legalized MTP in..........
unaffected.
(3) One species is benefited and other is (1) 1951
unaffected. (2) 1997
(4) Both the species are harmed (3) 1971
76. What is not true regarding patterns of
(4) 2017
biodiversity?
(1) Species diversity decreases as we move 81. Which is correctly matched
away from equator to poles
Dise ase Causative organism Mode of infection
(2)A stable community must not be resistant to
occasional disturbances . 1 Ascariasis Ascaris lumbricoidis Sandfly bite
2 Ringworm Plasmodium Direct contact
(3) Colombia has 1400 species of birds whereas Elephantisis Wucheria Bancrofti Bite of Aedes
New York has only 105 3
aegypti
(4) Equador has up to 10 times as many species Chikungonia Chikungonya virus Bite of Aedes
as they would be there in Midwest of USA 4
aegypti mosquito

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82. Which of the following are applicable to angina 87. Which of the following statements
pectoris ? regarding biodiversity hotspots are incorrect?
[Link] of lungs (i) High alien species invasion
(ii) High level of species richness
II. Common among middle aged.
(iii) Total number is 03 in the world
III. Blood flow is affected
(iv) Three of 34 occur in India
IV. Acute chest pain. (v) High endemism.
(1) I, II, IV (1) (i) and (iv)
(2) II, III, IV (2) (i) and (iii)
(3) I, II, III (3) (iv) and (v)
(4) I, II, III, IV (4) (iii), (iv) and (v)
83. Which of the following statement is correct. 88. The structure which provides vascular connection
between foetus and uterus is called
(A) The electrical potential difference across the
(1) Yolk sac
polarised plasma membrane is called as action
(2) Amnion
potential in resting stage.
(3) Placenta
(B) Na + ion movement is responsible for
(4) Isthmus

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generating an action potential.
89. Which of the following is not part of uterus.
(C) The impulse is action potential.
(1) Fundus
(1) A & B (2) Corpus
(2) B & C (3) Cervix
(3) C & A (4) Vagina
(4) All 90. Select correctly matched pair.
84. Which of the nervous system transmit impulse
I II
from CNS to involuntary organs & smooth 1 Oxygenated Blood PO₂ - 45, PCO₂ - 40
muscle ? 2 Alveoli PO₂ - 95, PCO₂ - 40
(1) Sympathetic nervous system 3 Tissue PO₂ - 40, PCO₂ - 45
(2) Parasympathetic nervous system 4 Deoxygenated blood PO₂ - 45, PCO₂ - 95

(3) Autonomic nervous system

(4) Somatic nervous system 91. Cockroach is pest because...
85. Which of the following would necessarily (1) It spoils or destroy our food
decrease the density of a population in a given (2) It spread diseases
habitat? (3) It excretes Uric acid in pest form
(1) Natality and Mortality
(4) It feeds on pesticides
(2) Immigration and Emigration
92. Methanogens are found in-
(3) Mortality and Emigration
A. Ethanol
(4) Natality and immigration
B. Organic acids
SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions) C. Anaerobic sludge digester tank
86. Which one was obtained by Stanley Miller in
D. Rumen (a part of stomach) of cattle.
his experimental set up
(1) Polysaccharides (1) A, C, D
(2) Lipids (2) C, D
(3) Amino acids (3) B, C, D
(4) Nucleotides (4) A, B

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93. In Paramoecium, cilia helps in all of the following 97. Identify the correct statement.
activities, except- (1) Ammonia is the major form of nitrogenous
(1) Feeding waste; urea and uric acid are minor forms
(2) Movement (2) Ammonia is formed in liver, urea formed in
kidney and uric acid in lungs.
(3) Excretion
(3) Ammonia, urea, uric acid are major forms
(4) Locomotion of nitrogenous wastes
94. Which one of the following incorrectly match pair (4) Ammonia is the most intoxic form, where as
(1) Amphetamines  Depressant urea, uric acid are less toxic forms
(2) LSD  Hallucinogen 98. Inhibition of succinate dehydrogenase by
malonate is an example of
(3) Morphine  Analgesic
(1) Non-competitive inhibition
(4) Benzodiazepines  Sedative
(2) Negative feedback inhibition
95. In Amphibia heart has
(3) Allosteric inhibition
(1) Two atria and two ventricles
(4) Competitive inhibition
(2) Two atria and one ventricle
99. Homeostasis center of human body is present in
(3) One atrium and one ventricle
(1) Occipital lobe (2) Hippocampus

Date : 01/04/2024
(4) One atrium and two ventricles
(3) Medulla oblongata (4) Hypothalamus
96. Which one of the following is used as vector for
100. _________is under direct neural regulation of
cloning into animals ? hypothalamus
(1) Salmonella typhimurium (1) The posterior pituitary
(2) Rhizopus nigricans (2) The anterior pituitary
(3) Retrovirus (3) Pars distalis
(4) Baculovirus (4) Pars intermedia

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107. The mass of the bob of a simple pendulum of length

PHYSICS L is m. If the bob is left from its horizontal position
then the speed of the bob and the tension in the
SECTION - A (35 Questions) thread in the lowest position of the bob will be
respectively :–
101. Density of wood is 0.5 gm/cc in the CGS system
of units. the corresponding value in MKS units is : (1) 2gL and 3 mg L O

(1) 500 (2) 5

(2) 3 mg and 2gL L
(3) 0.5 (4) 5000
(3) 2 mg and 2gL
102. The number of the significant figures in
11.118 × 10–6V is (4) 2 gL and 3 mg
(1) 3 (2) 4 108. Two particles of masses m1 and m2 separated by
a distance d are at rest intitially. If they move
(3) 5 (4) 6 towards each other under mutual interaction (say
103. Projectile A and B are thrown at angles of 45° and electric, gravitational or elastic), where will they
60° with vertical respectively from top of a 400 m meet?
high tower. If their ranges and times of flight are (1) At the centre of line joining the two particles
same, the ratio of their speeds of projection v A : vB (2) Anywhere in between two masses

Date : 01/04/2024
is :
(3) At the centre of mass of the system of two
(1) 1: 3 (2) particles
2 :1
(4) None of these
(3) not possible (4) 1 : 1
109. A spring is stretched by applying a load to its free
104. If impulse varies with time t as f(kg ms–1) = end. The strain produced in the spring is
20t2– 40t. The change in momentum is minimum
at : (1) Volumetric
(2) Shear
(1) t = 2s (2) t = 1 s
(3) Longitudinal and shear
(3) t = 1/2 s (4) t = 3/2 s
(4) longitudinal
105. If the linear momentum of a body is increased by
100%, then by what percentage will its kinetic en- 110. Three thin rods each of length L and mass m are
ergy increase? placed along x, y and z-axes in such a way that
one end of each of the rods in at the origin
(1) 400% (2) 200%
(3) 300% (4) 100%
106. A ball at rest is released from height 10 m at inclined
plane inclined at an angle 30° with horizontal,
horizontal track is rough with µ = 0.2. Its length is
10 m, then at which point the ball will stop

O
1 kg

10 m The moment of inertia of this system about z-axis

5m 5m is
300 A B C
2 ML2 4 ML2
µ = 0.2, 10 m (1) (2)
3 3
(1) O (2) A
5ML2 ML2
(3) B (4) C (3) (4)
3 3

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111. If the radius of the earth suddenly contracts to half 115. Two identical capacitors have same capacitance
of its present value, then the duration of a day will C. One of them is charged to the potential 3V and
be of other to the potential 2 V. The negative ends of
(1) 6 hours (2) 12 hours both are connected together. When the positive
ends are also joined together, the decrease in en-
(3) 18 hours (4) 24 hours ergy of the combined system is:
112. Statement I : Two sphere of same material have 1
(1) CV 2 (2) 2CV 2
radius r1 and r2 respectively and temperature 4
4000K and 2000K respectively. The energy 1 3
(3) CV 2 (4) CV 2
radiated per second by 1 sphere must be more
st
2 4
than second sphere. 116. Two charges of 5Q and –Q are situated at the
points (3a, 0) and (–5a, 0) respectively. The elec-
Statement II : Energy radiated per second by a
tric flux through a sphere of radius ‘4a’ having cen-
dQ ter at origin is:
body is given by Stefan’s law as   AT . 4

dt 2Q 5Q
(1) (2)
(1) Both Statement I and II are correct. 0 0
(2) Both Statement I and II are incorrect. 7Q 3Q
(3) (4)
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is 0 0

Date : 01/04/2024
correct. 117. Statement I : On going away from a point charge
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is or a small electric dipole, electric field decreases
incorrect. at the same rate in both the cases.
113. The curve between absolute temperature and v2rms Statement II : Electric field is inversely propor-
is tional to square of distance from the charge or an
electric dipole.
(1) Both statement I and II are correct.
(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
(1) (2) (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect.
(4) Statement II is correct but statement I is
incorrect.
118. A simple pendulum has a length , mass of bob m.
(3) (4) The bob is given a charge q. The pendulum is sus-
pended between the vertical plates of the charged
parallel plate capacitor. If E is the field strength
114. Match the following columns. between the plates, then time period T equal to

Process Slope (P v/s V ) 

(1) 2
g
A. Isochoric i. 
B. Isobaric ii. Zero 
(2) 2
C. Isothermal iii. P qE
 g
V m
D. Adiabatic iv. P

V 
(3) 2
qE
(1) A-i ; B-ii ; C-iii ; D - iv g
m
(2) A-ii ; B-i ; C-iv ; D - iii 
(4) 2
2
(3) A-iv ; B-iii ; C-ii ; D - i  qE 
g 
2

(4) A-iii ; B-iv ; C-i ; D - ii  m 
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119. In the circuit element given here, if the potential at
point B, i.e., V B = 0, then the potentials of A and D
are given as

(1) VA = –1.5V, VD = +2V

(2) VA = +1.5V, VD = +2V
With respect to graph the threshold frequency and
(3) VA = +1.5V, VD = +0.5V the Planck's constant are
(4) VA = +1.5V, VD = –0.5 V (1) 2 × 1018 sec –1, 9 × 10 – 34 J-sec
120. An electron moving with a speed u along the positive (2) 6 × 1014 sec –1, 3 × 10 – 34 J-sec
x-axis at y = 0 enters a region of uniform magnetic
(3) 6 × 1014 sec –1, 6 × 10 – 34 J-sec
field which exists to the right of y-axis. The electron
exits from the region after some time with the speed (4) 2 × 1018 Hz, 6 × 10 – 34 J-sec
v at coordinate y, then
125. The first line of Balmer series has wavelength
6563 Å. What will be the wavelength of the first
member of Lyman series

Date : 01/04/2024
(1) 1215.4 Å (2) 2500 Å
(3) 7500 Å (4) 600 Å
(1) v > u, y < 0 (2) v = u, y > 0
126. A student measures the distance traversed in Free
(3) v > u, y > 0 (4) v = u, y < 0
fall of a body, initially at rest, in a given time. He
121. A coil of N turns and mean cross-sectional area A used this data to estimate g, the acceleration due
is rotating with uniform angular velocity  about
to gravity. If the maximum percentage errors in
an axis at right angle to uniform magnetic field B.
measurement of the distance and the time are e1
The induced emf in the coil will be
and e2 respectively, the percentage error in the
(1) NBA sin t (2) NB sin t estimation of g is :

(3) NB / A sin t (4) NBA sin t (1) e2 – e1 (2) e1 + 2e2

(3) e1 + e2 (4) e1 – 2e2
122. In series LCR circuit, the inductance is changed
from L to 4L. To keep the resonance frequency
unchanged, the new capacitance should be:
127.
1
(1) reduced by C (2) increased by 2 C
4
A cyclic process is shown on the P-T diagram.
Which of the curves show the same process on a
(3) reduced by 3 C (4) increased to 4 C P-V diagram?
4

123. If v ,  x and  m represent the wavelength of

visible light x-rays and microwaves respectively,
then (1) (2)

(1)  m   x   v (2)  v   m   y

(3)  m   v   x (4)  v   x   m

124. In the experiment on photoelectric effect, the graph

(3) (4)
between EK (max.) and v is found to be a straight
line as shown in the figure.

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128. The nuclei of which of the following pairs of nuclei 132. Primary side of a transformer is connected to 230
are isotones ? V, 50 Hz supply. Turns ratio of primary to
secondary winding is 1000 : 100. Load resistance
74 71 84 86
(1) 34 Se , 31Ga (2) 38 Sr , 38 Sr connected to secondary side is 46. The power
consumed in it is:
92 92 40 32
(3) 42 Mo , 40 Zr (4) 20 Ca , 16 S (1) 12.5 W (2) 10.0 W
129. Which of the following x-t graph does not (3) 11.5 W (4) 12.0 W
represent periodic motion ? 133. The magnifying power of a telescope with tube
length 60 cm is 5. What is the focal length of its
eye piece?
(1) (1) 20 cm
(2) 40 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 10 cm
(2) 134. A body A of mass m is moving in a circular orbit of
radius R about a planet. Another body B of mass

Date : 01/04/2024
m/2 collides with A with a velocity which is half
 
(v / 2) the instantaneous velocity v of A. The
collision is completely inelastic. Then, which of the
(3) following statement is/are correct(s) :
(i) body continues to move in a circular orbit
(ii) body escape from the Planet's Gravitational field
(iii) linear momentum of system is conserved
(4)
(iv) body starts moving in an elliptical orbit around
the planet
130. A travelling harmonic wave is represented by the (1) (i) and (ii) is correct
equation y(x, t) = 10–3 sin (50t + 2x), where x
and y are in meter and t is in seconds. Which of (2) (i) and (iii) is correct
the following is a correct statement about the wave? (3) (i), (iii) and (iv) is correct
The wave is propagating along the
(4) (iii) and (iv) is correct
(1) negative x-axis with speed 25 ms–1 135. A closed rectangular tank is completely filled with
(2) the wave is propagating along the positive x- water and is accelerated horizontally with an
axis with speed 25 ms–1 acceleration a towards right. Pressure is

(3) the wave is propagating along the positive x- (i) maximum at, and (ii) minimum at
axis with speed 100 ms–1
(4) the wave is propagating along the negative x-
axis with speed 100 ms–1
131. A beam of unpolarised light of intensity I0 is passed
through a polaroid A and then through another
polaroid B which is oriented so that its principal
(1) (i) B (ii) D
plane makes an angle of 45° relative to that of A.
The intensity of the emergent light is : (2) (i) C (ii) D
(1) I0/2 (2) I0/4 (3) (i) B (ii) C

(3) I0/8 (4) I (4) (i) B (ii) A

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SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions) 

If F1 is the force required to just move the block
136. A jar is filled with two non-mixing liquids 1 and 2 
up the inclined plane and F2 is the force required
having densities 1 and 2 respectively. A solid
to just prevent the block from sliding down, then
ball, made of a material of density 3 , is dropped  
the value of F1  F2 is : [Use g = 10 m/s2]
in the jar. It comes equilibrium in the position shwon
in the figure. (1) 25 3N (2) 5 3N
Which of the following is true for 1 , 2 and 3 ?
5 3
(3) N (4) 10 N
(1) 3  1  2 2
139. A shell of mass 20kg at rest explodes into two
(2) 1  3  2 fragements whose masses are in the ratio 2 : 3.
The smaller fragement moves with a velocity of 6
(3) 1  2  3 m/s. The kinetic energy of the larger fragement is

(4) 1  3  2 (1) 96 J (2) 216 J

(3) 144 J (4) 360 J
137. Match the Column I (position-time graph) with

Date : 01/04/2024
Column II (representation) and select the correct 140. A point object O is placed at a distance of 20cm
answer from the codes given below. from a convex lens of focal length 10cm as shown
in figure. At what minimum distancex from the lens
Column-I Column-II should be a convex mirror of focal length 60cm,
A. Position graph of 1. be placed so that final image coincides with the
two objects with object.
equal velocities.

B. Position-time graph 2.
of two objects with
unequal velocities
but in same
direction. (1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm
C. Position-time graph 3. (3) 30 cm (4) none
of two objects with
velocities in 141. The ratio of intensities at two points P and Q on
opposite direction. the screen in a Young’s double slit experiment where
phase difference between two wave of same
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3 amplitude are  / 3 and  / 2 , respectively are
(2) A-2, B-1, C-3
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1
(3) A-1, B-3, C-2
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 2 : 3
(4) A-2, B-3, C-1
142. Given that specific heat in cal/g is c = 0.6t2, where
138. A block of mass 5 kg is placed on a rough inclined
t is temperature on Celcius scale. If temperature
surface as shown in the figure. of 10g water is raised through 10°C, what is the
amount of heat required ?
(1) 60 cal
(2) 200 cal
(3) 0.6 kcal
(4) 2 kcal
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143. In the following circuit, the output Y for all possible (1) 1.4 × 10–4 N towards right
inputs A and B is expressed by the truth table (2) 1.4 × 10–4 N towards left
(3) 2.6 × 10–4 N towards right
(4) 2.6 × 10–4 N towards left
A B Y A B C 147. A uniform string of length 20 m is suspended from
0 0 0
a rigid support. A short wave pulse is introduced
0 0 1
at its lowest end. It starts moving up the string.
0 1 0 0 1 1 The time taken to reach the support is : (take g =
(1) (2)
1 0 0 1 0 1 10 ms–2)
1 1 1 1 1 0 (1) 2 2s (2) 2 s

A B Y A B C (3) 2 2s (4) 2s
0 0 1 0 0 0 148. A particle executes SHM with amplitude of 10cm
0 1 0 and time period of 12s. What is the minimum time
(3) (4) 0 1 1
required for it to move between two points 5cm
1 0 0 1 0 1
on either side of the mean position ?
1 1 0 1 1 1
(1) 6 s (2) 4 s

Date : 01/04/2024
(3) 3 s (4) 2 s
144. In the given circuit if I1 and I2 are the currents in
resistors of resistances R1 and R2, respectively, 149. Three similar bar magnets are placed to form an
equilateral triangle as shown in figure. The magnetic
moment of each magnet is M. What is the
magnitude of magnetic moment of the system?
then
(1) M
(2) Zero
(1) I1 = 3A, I2 = 2A
(3) 2M
(2) I1 = 0, I2 = 2A
(4) M/2
(3) I1 = 2A, I2 = 2A
150. A conducting PQ of length L = 1.0 m is moving
(4) I1 = 2A and I2 can’t be determined with given with a uniform speed v = 2.0 m/s in a uniform
data magnetic field, B = 4.0 T directed into the paper.
145. A proton when accelerated through a potential A capacitor of capacity C = 10 µF is connected
difference of V volt has a wavelength  associated as shown in figure. Then
with it. An  -particle in order to have the same 
must be accelerated through a potential difference
of
(1) V volt (2) 4V volt
(3) 2V volt (4) V/8 volt
146. Three long, straight and parallel wires carrying
current are arranged as shown in figure. The force (1) q A  80C and qB  80C
experienced by 10 cm length of wire Q is
(2) q A  80C and qB  80C

(3) q A  0  qB
(4) charge stored in the capacitor increases
exponentially with time.

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156. For pure water:

CHEMISTRY (1) pH increases while pOH decreases with rise in
SECTION - A (35 Questions) temperature
(2) pH decreases while pOH increases with rise in
151. Generally transition elements form coloured salts
temperature
due to the presence of unpaired electrons. Which
of the following compounds will be coloured in solid (3) both pH and pOH decreases with rise in
state ? temperature
(1) Ag2SO4 (4) both pH and pOH increases with rise in
(2) CuF2 temperature
(3) ZnF2 157. Among the folllowing which are ambidentate ligands
(4) Cu2Cl2 (i) NO2– (ii) NO3–
152. On treating sodium fusion extract with sodium (iii) EDTA4– (iv) C2O42–
nitroprusside solution violet colour is obtained. It (v) SCN– (vi) H2NCH2CH2NH2
indicates the presence of which element(s) in the
organic compound? (1) (i) and (ii)
(1) Nitrogen only (2) (iii) and (iv)
(2) Sulphur only (3) (i) and (vi)

Date : 01/04/2024
(3) Phosphorous only (4) (i) and (v)
(4) Nitrogen and sulphur both 158. Which will give white ppt. with AgNO3?
153. 1 mol of CH4 contains
(1) 6.02 × 1023 atoms of H (1) Cl

(2) 4 g atom of Hydrogen

(3) 1.81 × 1023 molecules of CH4
(2) Cl
(4) 3.0 g of carbon
154. Assertion : Cu cannot liberate hydrogen from acids.
Reason : Because it has positive electrode (3) CH 2Cl

potential.
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
is the correct explanation of the assertion. 159. Among the following, the intensive properties are
(2) Both assertion and reason are ture but reason (i) Molar conductivity
is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(ii) Electromotive force
(3) Assertion is not true but the reason is true.
(iii) Resistance
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
(iv) Heat capacity
155. Which of the following reactions will yield
secondary alcohol (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv) (4) (iii) and (iv)
(1) CH2 =CH–CH3 + H2O 
H 

160. The correct name of [Pt(NH3)4Cl2][PtCl4] is

(2) CH3CHO  
CH Mgl 3
H O 3

(1) Tetraammine dichloro platinum (iv) tetrachloro
platinate (ii)
(3) HCHO  
CH Mgl 3

H O 3

(2) Dichloro tetra ammine platinium (iv) tetrachloro

(4) CH3COCH3  
CH Mgl 3
H O 3
 platinate (ii)
(1) 1 and 2 (3) Tetrachloro platinum (ii) tetraammine platinate
(2) 2 and 3 (iv)
(3) 3 and 1 (4) Tetrachloro platinum (ii) dichloro tetraammine
(4) 2 and 4 platinate (iv)

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161. IUPAC name of the given compound is 165. At the sublimation temperature, for the process

CO 2(s)  CO 2(g )

(1) H, S and G are all positive

(2) H  0, S  0 and G  0

(3) H  0, S  0 and G  0
(1) 4-Ethyl-2-methylaniline
(4) H  0, S  0 and G  0
(2) 4-Amino-1-ethyl-3-methylbenzene
(3) 4-Ethyl-6-methylaniline 166. The pentavalency in phosphorus is more stable as
compared to that of nitrogen even though they
(4) 4-Amino-1-ethyl-5-methylbenzene
belong to the same group. It is due to
162. The correct set of quantum numbers is:
(1) Inert nature of nitrogen
(1) n  2, l  1, m  2,s  0
(2) Reactivity of phosphorus
1 (3) Large size of phosphorus
(2) n  2, l  2, m  1,s  
2 (4) Dissimilar electronic configuration.
1 167. Match the following
(3) n  2, l  2, m  1,s  

Date : 01/04/2024
2 Column-I Column-II
1 OH OH
(4) n  2, l  1, m  0,s   CHO
2 conc.HNO3
(a) (i)
163. Which one of the following has an optical isomer ?
(1) [Zn(en)2]2+ (2) [Zn(en)(NH3)2]2+
OH
(3) [Co(en)3]3+ (4) [Co(H2O)4(en)]3+ OH O 2N NO2

164. Product of the following reaction will be (b) 1) CHCl3+aqNaOH (ii)

2) H +
NO 2
O O
C CH 2 C OH OH 1) NaOH OH
  ?
LiAlH 4
2) CO2 COOH
(c) (iii)
3) H +

CH2 OH OH
OH Br Br
(1) Br 2/H2O
(d) (iv)
Br
OH
(1) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
CH CH 2 CH2 OH
(2) (2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

COOH
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

(3) 168. Which of the following is most soluble in water?

(1) Ba3(PO4)2 (Ksp = 6 × 10–39)
(2) ZnS (Ksp = 7 × 10–16)
OH (3) Fe(OH)3 (Ksp = 6 × 10–38)
(4)
(4) Ag3(PO4) (Ksp = 1.8 × 10–18)

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169. Match the catalyst to the correct process 175. Which of the elements show least values of
Catalyst Process ionisation within their periods?
(A) TiCl4 (i) Wacker process (1) Alkaline earth metals
(B) PdCl2 (ii) Ziegler-Natta (2) Alkali metals
polymerization (3) Noble gases
(C) CuCl2 (iii) Contact process (4) Chalcogens
(D) V2O5 (iv) Deacon’s process 176. Consider the acidity of the carboxylic acids.
(1) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
(i) PhCOOH
(2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
(ii) o–NO2C6H4COOH
(3) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
(iii) p-NO2C6H4COOH
(4) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
(iv) m-NO2C6H4COOH
170. The correct of reactivity of PhMgBr with
Which of the following order is correct ?
O O O
CH 3 C H CH 3 C CH 3
(1) ii > iii > iv > i
Ph C Ph
(I) (II) (III) (2) ii > iv > iii > i
(1) (I) > (II) > (III) (2) (III) > (II) > (I) (3) ii > iv > i > iii
(3) (II) > (III) > (I) (4) (I) > (III) > (II) (4) i > ii > iii > iv
171. For the redox reaction, 177. Rate constant in case of first order reaction is

Date : 01/04/2024
x MnO 4  y C 2 O 4 2  zH   (1) inversely proportional to the concentration units
m Mn 2  n CO 2  p H 2 O (2) independent of concentration units
(3) directly proportional to concentration units
The values of x, y, m and n are
(4) inversely proportional to the square of
(1) 10, 2, 5, 2 (2) 2, 5, 2, 10
concentration units
(3) 6, 4, 2, 4 (4) 3, 5, 2, 10
178. Which of the following has the least bond angle?
172. The correct order of the second ionisation potential
of carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine is (1) BeF2
(1) C > N > O > F (2) O > N > F > C (2) H2O
(3) O > F > N > C (4) F > O > N > C (3) NH3
173. Which of the following dienes is chiral? (4) CH4
(1) CH3–CH=C=CH2 179. Aniline reacts with acetaldehyde to form
(2) CH3–CH=CH–CH=CH2 (1) Schiff’s base
(3) CH3–CH=C=CH–CH3 (2) Carbylamine
(4) CH2=CH–CH2–CH=CH2 (3) Immine
174. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer (4) None of these
using the codes given below the lists:
180. The potential energy diagram for the reaction
List I List II R  P is given below
(Metal ions) (Magnetic moment)
(1) Cr3+ (i) 35
(2) Fe2+ (ii) 30
(3) Ni2+ (iii) 24
(4) Mn2+ (iv) 15
(v) 8

(1) (1)-(i); (2)-(iii); (3)-(v); (4)-(iv)

(2) (1)-(ii); (2)-(iii); (3)-(v); (4)-(i) H o of the reaction corresponding to the energy
(3) (1)-(iv); (2)-(iii); (3)-(v); (4)-(i) (1) a (2) b
(4) (1)-(iv); (2)-(v); (3)-(iii); (4)-(i) (3) c (4) a + b

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181. CH3CH 2CH 2 Br 

[Link]
 A (i) O3
BC SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions)
 (ii) Zn, H O 2
186. Which of the following statements regarding ozone
In the above reaction A, B and C are given by the is not correct ?
set (1) The ozone molecule is angular in shape
(1) Propylene, acetone, formaldehyde (2) The ozone is resonance hybrid of two structures
(3) The oxygen-oxygen bond length in ozone is
(2) Propene, ethanal, methanal
identical with that of molecular oxygen
(3) Propyne, acetaldehyde, formaldehyde (4) Ozone is used as a germicide and disinfectant
(4) Propylene, propionaldehyde, formaldehyde for the purification of air
182. Assertion :– Benzene reacts with Cl2 in presence
187. product
of light to form BHC.
Reason :– Reaction undergoes electrophilic will be:
substitution.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the (1)
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. (2)
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False

Date : 01/04/2024
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false
183. Cu+ + e–  Cu, Eo = x1 volt
Cu2+ + 2e–  Cu, Eo = x2 volt, then for (3)
Cu + e  Cu , E (volt) will be
2+ – + o

(1) x1 –2x2 (4)

(2) x1 + 2x2
(3) x1 – x2
(4) 2x2 – x1 188. A compound (80 g) on analysis gave C = 24 g,
H = 4g, O = 32 g. Its empirical formula is
184. The emf of a Daniel cell at 298 K is E1,
(1) C2H2O2
Zn | ZnSO 4 || CuSO4 | Cu (2) C2H2O
(0.01M) (1.0M)
,
(3) CH2O2
When the concentration of ZnSO4 is 1.0 M and
that of CuSO4 is 0.01 M the emf changed to E2. (4) CH2O
What is the relationship between E1 and E2 ? 189. Which of the following species is paramagnetic?

(1) E 2  0  E1 (1) CO
(2) NO
(2) E1  E 2
(3) O22–
(3) E1  E 2 (4) CN–
190. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(4) E1  E 2
(1)  -D-glucose and  -D-glucose are
185. Which one of the following aqueous solutions will enantiomers
exhibit highest boiling point?
(2) D-Glyceraldehyde and L-glyceraldehyde are
(1) 0.05 M glucose epimers
(2) 0.01 M KNO3 (3) The reserve carbohydrate of animals is glycogen
(3) 0.015 M urea (4) Except glycine, all naturally occurring α -amino
(4) 0.01 M Na2SO4 acids are optically active

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191. Choose the correct set of True/False for following 196. Select the correct statements.
statements: (1) Eclipsed and staggered ethanes give different
(i) Silver chloride is more soluble in very products on reaction with chlorine in presence of
concentrated sodium chloride solution than in pure light
water.
(2) The conformational isomers can be isolated at
(ii) The pH of a buffer solution does not change on
room temperature
addition of small amount of an acid or a base.
(iii) Addition of NH4Cl does not affect the pH of a (3) Torsional strain in ethane is minimum at dihedral
solution of NH4OH. angles 60o, 180o and 300o
(iv) Degree of hydrolysis of ammonium acetate does (4) Steric strain is minimum in eclipsed form of
not depend upon the concentration of ammonium n - butane
acetate solution. 197. Statement I: Addition of ethylene glycol to water
(v) A mixture of acetic acid and sodium acetate can lowers the freezing point of water, therefore, used
act as buffer solution. as anti-freeze.
(1) FTFTT
Statement II: 1, 2-Ethanediol is soluble in water
(2) TTFTT because it can form H-bond with water, therefore,
(3) FTFFF vapour pressure of solution is lowered.
(4) FTTTT
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct
192. The shape of SCl4 is best described as a

Date : 01/04/2024
(2) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect
(1) Square
(3) Statement I is correct and Statement II is
(2) Tetrahedron
incorrect
(3) Square pyramid
(4) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
(4) see-saw correct
193. C 3 H 8 O  KCr
2
  C 3 H 6 O  Iwarm
[O]
O /H SO
2 7 2 4

+NaOH
 CHI 3
2
198. Which of the followong will be planar trigonal?
In this reaction the first compound is : (1) PCl3
(1) CH3CH2CH2OH (2) NH3
(2) CH 3 CH CH 3
(3) ClF3
OH
(3) CH3OCH2CH3 (4) AlCl3
(4) CH3CH2CHO 2NaNO /HCl 2 Cu (CN)
199. C6H5NH2 
0 5 o C
 X 
2
Y
194. What is the strength in g per litre of a solution of
sulphuric acid, 12mL of which neutralise 15 mL of H O/H +
2
N/10 sodium hydroxide solution ? Z
(1) 6.125 g/L
Z is identified as
(2) 4.125 g/L
(1) C6H5 – NH – CH3
(3) 2.125 g/L
(2) C6H5 – COOH
(4) 8.125 g/L
195. In this reaction (3) C6H5 – CH2 – NH2
CH3CHO + HCN (4) C6H5 – CH2COOH
H2O/H+
CH3CH(OH)CN CH3CH(OH)COOH 200. Which of the following reactions occurs at the anode
an asymmetric centre is generated. The acid during the recharging of lead storage battery?
obtained would be
(1) Pb + SO42–  PbSO4 + 2e–
(1) 20%D + 80% L-isomer
(2) D-isomer (2) Pb + PbO2 + H2SO4  2PbSO4 + 2H2O
(3) L-isomer (3) PbSO4 + 2e–  Pb + SO42–
(4) 50% D + 50% L-isomer (4) Pb + PbO2 + 2H2O + 2e–  PbSO4 + 2H2O

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