Sample Test Paper-2

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 720

 SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Topic : FULL SYLLABUS
1. Choke coil is connected with a tube light to 4. A small body of mass m slides down from the
obtain :- top of a hemisphere of radius r. The surface of
(1) high voltage initially and then low current block and hemisphere are frictionless. The height
(h) at which the body loses contact with the
(2) high current initially and then high voltage surface of the sphere is :- (hemisphere is fixed)
(3) low current initially and then high voltage
(4) high voltage initially and then high current
2. In VC = 4VR and VL = 2VR , then find VAC
(1) 3 r (2) 2 (3) r (4) r
r
2 3 2 3
5. If the maximum compression in the spring is 50
cm then find the value of K(g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) VR (2) √ 2VR

(3) 3VR (4) √ 5VR
3. The given figure shows the wave forms for two
inputs A and B and that for the output Y of a (1) N (2) N
logic circuit. The logic circuit is 7580 7600
m m
(3) N (4) None of these
8420
m
(A) 6. A long solenoid of radius 2 cm has 100 turns/cm
and carries a current of 5A. A coil of radius 1 cm
(B) having 100 turns and a total resistance of 20 Ω
is placed inside the solenoid coaxially. The coil
is connected to a galvanometer. If the current in
the solenoid is reversed in direction, find the
(Y) charge flown through the galvanometer :-
(1) 2 × 10 – 4 C (2) 4 × 10 – 4 C
(1) An AND gate (2) An OR gate
(3) 6 × 10 – 4 C (4) 8 × 10 – 4C
(3) A NAND gate (4) An NOT gate

Space for Rough Work Page 1/30

7. A plane glass plate is constructed by combining 10. In the reading shown in the figure, find the zero
a plane-convex lens and a plane-concave lens of error
different materials as shown in figure. Its focal
length for paraxial rays is:

(1) 0.05 cm (2) – 0.05 cm

(3) 0.03 cm (4) – 0.03 cm
R
(1)
(μc − μd)
(2) ( μ c − μ d )
R
11. A non-viscous fluid of constant density of
1000kg/m3 flows in a stream line motion along a
(3) 2R (4) ( μ c − μ d ) tube of variable cross-section.
(μc − μd) 2R
8. Assertion(A) :- The flux crossing through a
closed surface is independent of the location of
charge within the surface.
Reason(R) :- On displacement of charges within
a closed surface, electric field at any point on
the surface does not change.
The area of cross-section at positions P and Q
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
are 40 cm2 and 20 cm2 respectively. If velocity
correct explanation of (A)
of fluid at P is 3 m/s then find velocity of fluid at
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the Q.
correct explanation of (A)
(1) 3 m/s (2) 4 m/s
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) 5 m/s (4) 6 m/s
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
12. Two blocks of mass 8 kg and 5 kg are connected
9. For a P – N junction diode, its V – I by a heavy rope of mass 3 kg. Complete system
characteristic are shown in figure, when a
forward bias voltage of 1.5 V is applied across is accelerated upwards by 10 m/s2 as shown in
it. The dynamic resistance of diode is given by : the figure. The tension at the point ‘P’ will be :-

(1) 80N (2) 90N

(1) 20 Ω (2) 30 Ω (3) 40 Ω (4) 50 Ω (3) 160N (4) 150N

Page 2/30 Space for Rough Work

13. Liquid reaches an equilibrium as shown, in a 16. The earth is revolving around the sun in an
capillary tube of internal radius r. If the surface OA
elliptical orbit. If = x, the ratio of speeds
tension of the liquid is T, the angle of contact θ OB
and density of liquid ρ , then the pressure of earth at B to the speed at A will be :
differnce between P and Q is :-
A

(1) x (2) x2 (3) √ x (4) x x

√

17. With respect to PEE experiment match the

Column-I with the Column-II
Column-I Column-II
If (frequency) is
stopping
increased keeping I
(1) 2T (2) T (i) (a) potential
( ) cos θ (intensity) and (work
r r cos θ increases
function) constant
(3) 2T (4) 4T
( ) cos θ If I is increased Saturation
r cos θ r
14. In convex lens of focal length F, the minimum
(ii) keeping f and ϕ (b) current
constant. increases
distance between object and its real image :-
maximum
(1) 3 F If the distance b/w
K.E. of
(iii) anode and cathode (c)
(2) 4 F electron
increases
(3) Zero increases
(4) 2 F stopping
If ϕ is decreased
potential
15. In the Young's double-slit experiment, the (iv) keeping f and I (d)
remains the
intensity of light at a point on the screen where constant.
same
the path difference is λ is K, ( λ being the wave
length of light used). The intensity at a point (1) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-d, (iv)-c
where the path difference is λ /4, will be :- (2) (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-c, (iv)-d
(1) K (2) K/4 (3) (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-b, (iv)-a
(3) K/2 (4) Zero (4) (i)-a, (ii)-d, (iii)-b, (iv)-c

Space for Rough Work Page 3/30

18. Which one of the following statements about 21. Which one of the following statement is
photon is incorrect :- WRONG in the context of X-rays generated
(1) Photon's rest mass is zero from an X-ray tube :

(2) Momentum of photon is h ν /c (1) Wavelength of characteristic X-rays

decreases when the atomic number of the
(3) Photon's energy is h ν target increases
(4) Photons exert no pressure (2) Cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-
19. A and B are two light sources. The intensity of rays depends on the atomic number of the
the source A is greater than B, but the frequency target
of the source A is less than that of the source B. (3) Intensity of the characteristic X-rays
The photoelectric current obtained by the photo depends on the electrical power given to the
cell :- X-ray tube
(1) In case of A will be more (4) Cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-
(2) In case of B will be more rays depends on the energy of the electrons
in the X-ray tube
(3) Is the same
(4) None of the above
22. Block B is moving towards right with constant
velocity v0. Velocity of block A with respect to
20. A nucleus of mass m at rest emits a photon of block B is- (Assume all pulleys and strings are
wavelength λ , find recoil energy of the nucleus ideal)
:-
(1) h2
2λ2m (1) v0/2 left
(2) hc2 (2) v0/2 right
2λm (3) 3/2v0 right
(3) h2 c2
2λm
(4) 3/2v0 left
(4) hc2
2λ2m

Page 4/30 Space for Rough Work

23. In a photoelectric experiment, anode potential 25. In a microscope the focal lengths of two lenses
(v) is plotted against plate current (I) are 1.2 cm and 6.25 cm. If an object is placed at
2 cm and the final image is formed at 25 cm
from eye lens. The distance between the two
lenses is
(1) 6.00 cm (2) 8.00 cm
(3) 7.75 cm (4) 9.25 cm
(1) A and B will have different intensities 26. The least coefficient of friction for an inclined
while B and C will have different plane inclined at an angle a with horizontal, in
frequencies order that a solid cylinder will roll down without
(2) B and C will have different intensities slipping is :-
while A and C will have different (1) 2 (2) 2
tan α tan α
frequencies 3 7
(3) A and B will have different intensities (3) 1 tan α (4) 4
tan α
while A and C will have equal frequencies 3 3

(4) A and B will have equal intensities while B

27. Current flowing through the zener diode shown
in circuit is :-
and C will have different frequencies (Given diode is ideal and Vz = 4V)
24. A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod
having spherical end of radius of curvature 30
cm. The image will form at :-
(1) 0.4 A (2) 0.5 A
(3) 0.1 A (4) 0.9 A
28. If the length of a pendulum is made 9 times and
mass of the bob is made 4 times, then the value
of time period becomes :-
(1) 30 cm left
(1) 3T
(2) Infinity
(2) (3/2)T
(3) 1 cm to the right
(3) 4T
(4) 18 cm to the left
(4) 2T

Space for Rough Work Page 5/30

29. A beaker contains 100 gm of water. The water 33. Each element in the finite chain of resistors
equivalent of beaker is 10 gm. The initial shown in the figure is 1 Ω . A current of 1 A
temperature of water in the beaker is 10oC. If flows through the final element. Then what is the
330 gm of hot water at 90oC is poured in it. The potential difference V across input terminals of
final temperature neglecting radiation losses the chain.
will be neared to :-
(1) 58oC (2) 68oC
(3) 70oC (4) 80oC (1) 12 volt (2) 34 volt
30. Two identical square rods of metal are welded (3) 1 volt (4) 16 volt
end to end as shown in figure (1), 20 calories of
heat flows through it in 4 minutes. If the rods
34. The net electric field on two sides of a large
charged nonconducting sheet kept in an external
are welded as shown in figure (2), the same
electric field is shown in the figure. The charge
amount of heat will flow through the rods in -
density on the sheet in S.I. Units is given by ( ε 0
is the Permittivity of free space in S.I. Units) :-

(1) 1 minute (2) 2 minutes

(3) 4 minutes (4) 16 minutes
31. Consider a gas with density ρ and c̄ as the root
mean square velocity of its molecules contained
in a volume. If the system moves as whole with (1) 2 ε 0 (2) 4 ε 0
velocity v, then the pressure exerted by the gas (3) 10 ε 0 (4) Zero
is
35. In a L-R circuit the stored energy in the inductor
(1) 1 ρ (c)
¯2 (2) 1 ρ (c¯ + v)2 coil is 5 Joule and rate of heat generation is 10
3 3
Watt at a charge flow rate of one coulomb per
(3) 1 ρ (c¯ − v)2 (4) 1 ρ (c−2 − v)2 second. The time constant of circuit is :
3 3
32. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a (1) 2 second
process described by the equation PV2 = constant. (2) 1 second
The heat capacity of the gas during this process is
(3) 1.5 second
(1) 2 R (2) R/2 (3) 3 R (4) 5 R
2 2 (4) Data insufficient

Page 6/30 Space for Rough Work

36. A large parallel plate capacitor, whose plates 39. Assertion (A):- Angular momentum of a satellite
have an area of 1 m2 and are separated from remains conserved.
each other by 1mm , is being charged at a rate of Reason (R):- Conservation of linear momentum
25 V/[Link] the dielectric between the plates has leads to conservation of angular momentum.
the dielectric constant 10, then the displacement (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
current at this instant is correct explanation of (A)
(1) 25 μ A (2) 11 μ A (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
(3) 2.2 μ A (4) 1.1 μ A correct explanation of (A)
37. A rod is fixed between two points at 20°C. The (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
coefficient of linear expansion of material of rod (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
is 1.1 × 10 – 5/°C and Young's modulus is 1.2 ×
1011 N/m2. Find the stress developed in the rod 40. If there is no change in the volume of wire
if temperature of rod becomes 10°C : on stretching, then poisson's ratio for material of
wire is :-
(1) 1.32 × 107 N/m2
(1) – 1 (2) 0
(2) 1.10 × 1015 N/m2
(3) 0.5 (4) 0.25
(3) 1.32 × 108 N/m2
41. A ball is thrown from the top of 36 m high tower
(4) 1.10 × 106 N/m2 with velocity 5 m/s at an angle 37° above the
38. A soap bubble of radius R is surrounded by horizontal as shown. Its horizontal range on the
another soap bubble of radius 2R, as shown. ground is closest to [ g = 10 m/s2]
Take surface tension = S. Then, the pressure
inside the smaller soap bubble, in excess of the
atmospheric pressure, will be

(1) 12 m (2) 18 m
(3) 24 m (4) 30 m
(1) 4S (2) 3S (3) 6S (4) 2S
R R R R

Space for Rough Work Page 7/30

42. The refracting angle of a prism is A, and 44. In the branch AB of a circuit, as shown in the figure,
refractive index of the material of the prism is a current I = (t + 2) A is flowing, where t is the time
cot(A/2). The angle of minimum deviation is :- in second. At t = 0, the value of (VA – VB) write
(1) 180° – 2A will be :-
(2) 90° – A
(3) 180° + 2A
(4) 180° – 3A
(1) 3V (2) – 3V (3) – 5V (4) 5V
43. A road of width 20 m forms an arc of radius 15 45. In the given figure force on wire ABC will be (B = 2T) :
m, its outer edge is 2 m higher than its inner
edge. For what speed the rod is banked?
(1) √ 10 m/s
(2) √ 14.7 m/s
(3) √ 9.8 m/s
(4) None of these (1) 4(3+2 π ) N (2) 20 N
(3) 10 N (4) 40 N

Page 8/30 Space for Rough Work

 SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY

Topic : FULL SYLLABUS

46. In a 0.25 litre container dissociation of 4 moles 50. If ksp of CaF2 in pure water is 1.70 × 10 – 10, then
of NO takes place. If its degree of dissociation is find the solubility of CaF2 in 0.10M NaF
10% then Kp for reaction 2NO ⇌ N2 + O2 is :- solution :-
(1) 1 (2) 1 (3) 1 (4) 1 (1) 1.70 × 10 – 10
2 2
(18) (8) 16 32 (2) 1.70 × 10 – 9
47. The initial concentration for a first order
(3) 1.70 × 10 – 8
reaction has been taken equal to M/10. After 8
minutes and 20 seconds the reactant (4) 0.10 M
concentration has become M/100. What is the 51. For a binary ideal liquid solution, the total
velocity constant for reaction. pressure of the solution is given as :-
(1) 5 × 10 – 3 sec – 1 (2) 2.303 × 10 – 5 sec – 1 (1) Ptotal = PAo + (PBo − PAo ) XB
(3) 2.303 × 10 – 4 sec – 1 (4) 4.606 × 10 – 3 sec – 1 (2) Ptotal = PAo + PBo
48. The ratio of weights of hydrogen and (3) Ptotal = PBo + (PBo − PAo ) XA
magnesium deposited by the same amount of
(4) Ptotal = PBo + (PBo − PAo ) XB
electricity from aqueous H2SO4 and fused
MgSO4 is :- 52. In which case number of molecules of water
maximum
(1) 1 : 8 (2) 1 : 12
(1) 18 ml of water
(3) 1 : 16 (4) None of these
49. Following are some of the facts about dry cell :- (2) 0.18 g water
I : It is also called Leclanche cell (3) 10 – 3 mole water
II : It gives constant voltage.
III : Electrolyte is a moist paste of NH4Cl and (4) 0.00224 liter of water vapour at 1 atm and
ZnCl2 in starch 273 K
IV : Cathodic reaction is
2MnO2(s) + 2NH4+ (aq) + 2e – → Mn2O3(s) +
53. Relative atomic mass of Ca-atom is
2NH3(g) + H2O( ℓ ) (1) 400 g
Select the correct facts :- (2) 40
(1) I, II, III (2) I, IV (3) 40 mg
(3) I, II, III, IV (4) I, III, IV (4) 40 kg

Space for Rough Work Page 9/30

54. Column -I Column -II 57.
Aufbau
(i) (a) λ = h/(mv)
principle
B is :-
(ii) de broglie (b) λ = hc/ Δ E (1)
Hund's
(iii) (c) Max. unpaired e –
rule
Planck's (2)
(iv) (d) Electronic configuration
law

(3)
Correct match is :-
(1) (i) d (ii) b (iii) c (iv) a
(2) (i) c (ii) a (iii) d (iv) b
(4)
(3) (i) d (ii) a (iii) c (iv) b
(4) (i) c (ii) b (iii) d (v) a
55. Na(s) → Na(g), the heat of reaction is called as
(1) Heat of vaporisation
58.
HI / Δ
(2) Heat of atomisation −−−−−→
(excess)
(3) Heat of sublimation How many moles of HI consumed in above
(4) Both (2) and (3) reaction ?

56. A reaction has Δ H = – 33 kJ and Δ S = – 58 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

J/K. This reaction would be : 59. Primary and secondary amines can be
(1) spontaneous at all temperatures distinguished by :-

(2) non-spontaneous at all temperatures (1) Hoffmann's mustard oil reaction

(3) spontaneous above a certain temperature (2) carbylamine reaction

(4) spontaneous below a certain temperature (3) Hinsberg reagent

(4) All

Page 10/30 Space for Rough Work

60. The hydrolysis product of (+) lactose is :- 62. Which of the following statement is true :-
(1) β – D(+)glucose + β – D(+)galactose (1) is both stronger base and
(2) α – D(+)galactose + α – D(+)glucose nucleophile than
(3) α – D(+)glucose + β – D(+)galactose (2) is stronger base but is
(4) β – D(+)glucose + α – D(+)glucose weaker nucleophile than
61. Match list - I and List - II :- (3) is a weaker base but is
List-I List-II stronger nucleophile than

(a) (i) Br2/NaOH (4) is both weaker base and

weaker nucleophile than
(b) (ii) H2/Pd-BaSO4 63. How many sigma ( σ ) and pi ( π ) bonds in NC –
CH=CH – CN molecule.:-

(c) (iii) Zn(Hg)/[Link] (1) 3 σ , 3 π

(2) 5 σ , 2 π
(d) (iv) Cl2/Red P, H2O (3) 7 σ , 5 π
Choose the correct answer from the options (4) 2 σ , 3 π
given below : 64. 0.25 gm of organic compound gives 30 ml of N2
(1) (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii) at STP by Duma's method, calculate percentage
(2) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii) of nitrogen :-
(3) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii) (1) 15% (2) 30%

(4) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii) (3) 45% (4) 60%

Space for Rough Work Page 11/30

65. Assertion : – Anisole on reaction with HI gives 68. Assertion : Lattice energy of MgF2 is more than
NaF.
phenol and CH3I.
Reason : MgF2 is more ionic than NaF.
Reason : – Phenyl-oxygen bond is stronger than (1) Assertion and Reason both are correct but
methyl-oxygen bond in anisole and hence is not Reason is not correct explanation of
cleaved by HI. Assertion.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the (2) Assertion and Reason both are correct and
Reason is a correct explanation of the Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
Assertion. (3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but (4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
Reason is not a correct explanation of the 69. Which is incorrect match ?
Assertion. (1) Na+ + H2O dipole - dipole attraction
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (2) HCl + HCl Keesome attraction
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False. (3) Xe + H2O Debye attraction
66. Which of the following order is wrong ? (4) CCl4 + CCl4 London force
(1) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 — acidic 70. Which of the following is not correctly
(2) Li < Be < B < C — (IE1) matched:-
Bond angle Number of
(3) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O — basic
bond angles
(4) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Cs+ — ionic radius (1) CH4 → 109°28' → 6
67. If lattice energy of AlF3 = x, then lattice energy (2) SF6 → 90° → 12
of Al2O3 may be : (K = constant) (3) IF7 → 90° → 10
(4) IF5 → 90° → 8
(1) 2Kx
71. Which of the following complexes has lower Δ 0
(2) 3Kx (splitting energy) than pairing energy :
(3) 4Kx (1) [RhF6]3 – (2) [Fe(NH3)6]2+
(4) 9Kx (3) [Co(OX)3]3 – (4) [Ir(NH3)6]3+

Page 12/30 Space for Rough Work

72. Incorrect statement is :- 77. In the melting of ice, which one of the conditions
(1) Hydrazine can act as bidentate ligand. will be more favourable ?
(2) In oxalate, donor atom is oxygen (1) High temperature and high pressure

(3) All bidentate ligands are chelating ligands (2) Low temperature and low pressure

(4) Number of chelate rings = denticity – 1 (3) Low temperature and high pressure

73. Which compound is used in manufacturing of (4) High temperature and low pressure
K2Cr2O7 ? 78. For a reaction rate law is given as r =
(1) Na2CrO4 (2) CrO5 K[A]3/2[B] – 1[C]1/3[D]2/3 : What will be order of
reaction ?
(3) FeCr2O4 (4) CrO3
(1) 2.5 (2) – 1
74. Assertion : Dimeric halide of sulphur give
disproportionation reaction. (3) 3/2 (4) 2/3
Reason : Both S2F2 and S2Cl2 have half open 79. The pH of a solution is 6.63. This value indicates
book like structure. that the [H+] concentration in solution is :-
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and (1) 2.2 × 10 – 6 (2) 2.2 × 10 – 7
reason is correct explanation for the (3) 2.2 × 10 – 5 (4) None
assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but
80. 2 moles of liquid A is mixed with 3 moles of
liquid B. The mole fraction of A in vapour phase
reason is not correct explanation for is :
assertion.
Vapour pressure of A in pure state (PA0 ) = 100
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect. mm Hg and vapour pressure of B in pure state
0
(4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct. (P ) = 200 mm Hg.
B

75. Which of the following anions is not easily (1) 0.25 (2) 0.75
removed from aqueous solution by precipitation (3) 0.4 (4) 0.6
?
81. The equivalent weight of H3PO4 (Mw = 98
(1) Cl – (2) SO42 – (3) NO3 – (4) CO32 – g/mol) in following reaction is :-
76. The compound present in brorax bead is H3PO4 + Ca(OH)2 → CaHPO4 + 2H2O
(1) B2O3 (2) NaBO2 (1) 98 (2) 49
(3) NaBO3 (4) NaBO2 + B2O3 (3) 32.66 (4) 40

Space for Rough Work Page 13/30

82. Following compounds are given : 85. Match the column :
(a) CH3CH2OH (b) CH3COCH3
(a) CH3 − CN −LiAlH
−−−→
4
(i)
(c) (d) CH3OH
Which of the above compound(s), on being (b) CH3 − COOH −LiAlH 4
−−−→ (ii) CH3 − CH2 − NH2
warmed with iodine solution and NaOH, will
(c) CH3 − CN −DIBAL
−−−→ (iii)
give iodoform?Option :
Zn−Hg/HCl
(1) Only (a) (d) −−−−−−−−→ (iv) CH3 − CHO
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (b) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) (a), (c) and (d) (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
83. pH value at which amino acid does not moves (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
toward any electrode when placed in electric (3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
field is known as :-
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(1) Denaturation point
(2) Isoelectric point
86. Match the column :
Compound B.P./K
(3) Revival point
(A) n-C4H9NH2 (P) 390°
(4) Isomerisation point
(B) C2H5N(CH3)2 (Q) 300.8°
84. The decreasing order of rate of SN2 reaction is :-
(C) C2H5CH(CH3)2 (R) 310.5°
(D) n-C4H9OH (S) 350.8°
(1) A→P, B→Q, C→R, D→S
(2) A→P, B→R, C→Q, D→S
(3) A→S, B→R, C→Q, D→P

(1) IV > III > II > I (4) A→S, B→Q, C→R, D→P

(2) II > III > I > IV

(3) II > I > IV > III
(4) III > II > IV > I

Page 14/30 Space for Rough Work

87. Assertion(A): FeO is more basic the Fe2O3. 89. Find the name of hydrate isomer of CrCl3.6H2O,
Reason (R) : FeO is more paramagnetic than which is having lowest electrical conductivity
Fe2O3. excluding zero value of conductivity :-
(1) If both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the (1) Hexaaquachromium (III) chloride
correct explanation of (A). (2) Tetraaquadichloridochromium (III) chloride
(2) If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not dihydrate
the correct explanation of (A). (3) Pentaaquachloridochromium (III) chloride
(3) If (A) is true but (R) is false. monohydrate
(4) If (A) is false but (R) is true. (4) Triaquatrichloridochromium (III) chloride
88. If the z-axis is taken as the internuclear axis, trihydrate
then which of the following combinations of 90. The number of sigma bonds in H2SxO6 is (x ≥ 2):-
atomic orbitals is a nonbonding combination?
(1) (x – 1) (2) (x + 5)
(1) s and px (2) px and dxy
(3) (x + 7) (4) (x + 11)
(3) px and py (4) all of these

Space for Rough Work Page 15/30

 SUBJECT : BIOLOGY

Topic : FULL SYLLABUS

91. Observe the given diagram carefully and how 93. The packaging of chromatin at higher level
many statements are true about given diagram: requires additional set of proteins that
collectively are referred to as :-
(1) Euchromatin
(2) Histone proteins
(3) Non-Histone chromosomal protein
(a) The position of xylem in the vascular bundle (4) Polyamines
is adaxial
(b) The position of phloem in the vascular
94. The endoskeleton of cell is made up of :-
bundle is abaxial (1) Cell wall
(c) Two distinct patches of parenchyma are (2) Endoplasmic reticulum
present above & below of the large vascular
bundle. (3) Cytoplasm
(d) The adaxially placed palisade parenchyma is (4) Mitochondria
made up of elongated cells which are arranged
vertically and parallel to each other 95. Asexual reproduction takes place in fungi with
the help of :-
(1) Two (2) Three
(1) Ascospores, basidiospores and zoospores
(3) Four (4) One
92. A segment of DNA has a base sequence :
(2) Zoospores, sporangiospores and conidia
(3) Zoospores, oospores and basidiospores
(4) Oospores, ascospores, basidiospores
If a nitrogen base G is deleted from second
codon, what will be correct sequence of DNA
96. Heterocyclic ring is found in :-
segment after frame shift mutation :- (1) Nitrogen bases
(1) AAG GAG GAC CAA CCA (2) Pentose sugar
(2) AGG AGG ACC CAA CCA (3) Lecithin
(3) AAG AGG ACC AAC CA (4) All of the above
(4) AAG AGG ACC CAA CCA

Page 16/30 Space for Rough Work

97. Truffels are the members of class ; 102. If pollen grain contains 30 chromosomes and
50pg DNA, then what will be the number of
(1) Basidiomycetes (2) Ascomycetes chromosome and DNA amount in microspore
(3) Deuteromycetes (4) Phycomycetes (pollen) mother cell in G2 phase and in product
of meiosis-I ?
98. How many of the given below have aseptate G2 phase Meiosis-I product
mycelium ? (1) 60 Chromosomes
Neurospora, Rhizopus, Aspergillus, ,
200 P g DNA
Alternaria, Albugo, Claviceps, Puccinia, Mucor 30 Chromosomes
(1) Four (2) Three 100 P g DNA
(2) 30 Chromosomes
(3) Two (4) Five ,
50 P g DNA
99. Protoplasm is made up of- 15 Chromosomes
100 P g DNA
(1) Cytoplasm & nucleus
(3) 120 Chromosomes
(2) Cytoplasm & nucleolus ,
400 P g DNA
(3) E.R. and Golgi body 60 Chromosomes
100 P g DNA
(4) Mitochondria & plastids
(4) 60 Chromosomes
100. The world famous Watson-Crick double helical 200 P g DNA
,
model of B-DNA exhibits 60 Chromosomes
200 P g DNA
(1) Secondary structure
103. The microtubules from the opposite poles of the
(2) Tertiary structure spindle attach to the pair of homologous
(3) Quaternary structure chromosomes. This statement is correct for:
(4) All of the above (1) Prophase-I (2) Metaphase-I
101. The carbon atoms of the pentose sugar involved (3) Metaphase (4) Anaphase
in phosphodiester bond formation in DNA and 104. Consider the following statements:
RNA are :- (a) Body as a soap box.
(1) C'1 and C'5 (b) Walls possess a large amount of silica.
(c) Two transversely and longitudinally arranged
(2) C'2 and C'3 flagella are present.
(d) They float passively.
(3) C'3 and C'5 How many are correct for chrysophytes.
(4) C'4 and C'5 (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1

Space for Rough Work Page 17/30

105. 108. Which of the following is the product of
oxidation and reduction during photosynthesis :
(1) CO2
(2) Glucose and NADPH2
(3) Oxygen and NADH2
(4) Oxygen and NADPH2
Select option showing correct identification for
above figure from A to D :-
109. Glycolysis operates in :

A B C D (1) Golgi Cisternae (2) Perinuclear space

(1) Bacillus Coccus Spirillum Vibrio (3) Protoplasm (4) E.R

(2) Coccus Bacillus Spirillum Vibrio 110. Net gain of ATP molecules during aerobic
respiration of one molecule of glucose is :
(3) Coccus Spirillum Bacillus Vibrio
(1) 38 (2) 40
(4) Coccus Vibrio Bacillus Spirillum
(3) 34 (4) 8
106. Freshwater organisms found in stagnent water ?
111. Choose the false option :
(a) They have a protein rich layer called pellicle
which makes their body flexible (1) Flow of electrons in ETS is Fe+3 → Fe+2
(b) When deprived of sunlight they behave like → Fe+3
heterotrophs
(c) Pigments are identical to those present in (2) In ETS coenzyme Q and cytochrome C are
higher plants mobile electron carrier
The given statements are the features of :-
(3) Cyt a3 has Fe
(1) Algae (2) Dinoflagellates
(4) Cytochrome are proteinaceous but
(3) Mycoplasma (4) Euglenoids ubiquinone is protenaceous
107. (i) Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous 112. Fermentation is conducted by
plant.
(ii) Gametophyte of pteridophyte is called (1) All fungi
prothallus. (2) All bacteria
(iii) In Cycas, stems are unbranched. (3) Some fungi and some bacteria
(iv) Gymnosperms are heterosporous.
How many statement/s is/are correct ? (4) All micro-organisms
(1) Two (2) Three (3) One (4) Four

Page 18/30 Space for Rough Work

113. Amount of inorganic substances present in an 118. During photosynthesis in chloroplast,
ecosystem is _____which is a _____feature (1) Splitting of H2O
of ecosystem.
(2) To develop proton gradient in lumen of
(1) Standing crop, structural thylakoid
(2) Standing state, functional (3) CO2 reduction in dark reaction
(3) Standing crop, functional (4) Breakdown of proton gradient for ATP
(4) Standing state, structural synthesis
114. Mineralization is performed by: 119. If green plants cell are incubated with O18
(1) Small carnivores labelled CO2 which of the following molecules
will became labelled when the cells are exposed
(2) Detritovores to light.
(3) Saprophytic bacteria and fungi (1) H2O
(4) Earthworm, termites (2) Sugar
115. Which is not found inside the mitochondria ? (3) ATP
(1) Citric acid (4) (1) and (2) both
(2) PEP 120. Importance of air in photosynthesis was
(3) Malic acid explained by :
(4) α -Ketoglutaric acid (1) Bell jar experiment
116. Which of the following is responsible for apical (2) Hill reaction
dominance? (3) Molls half leaf experiment
(1) GA3 (2) IAA (4) Absorption spectrum
(3) ABA (4) Florigen 121. Which of the following scientists found that
117. Maximum growth is in : plots with more species diversity show less year
– to-year variation in total biomass?
(1) Exponential Phase
(1) David Tilman
(2) Lag Phase
(2) Paul Ehrlich
(3) Stationary Phase
(3) Robert May
(4) Decline Phase
(4) Edward Wilson

Space for Rough Work Page 19/30

122. The feeding efficiency of one species might be 126. Which one of not correct with Glyoxysome?
reduced due to the interfering and inhibitory (1) Present in animal cell
presence of the other species even if resources
are abundant. This is referred as (2) Run the glyoxalate cycle
(1) competitive release (3) Fatty seed germination
(2) Resource partitioning (4) It is highly specialised peroxysome
(3) Interference competition 127. Dynine protein is related with :
(4) Competitive exclusion (1) Microtubule
123. The mutase in the following reaction is kept (2) Microfilament
under which class (3) Intermediate filament
3 – PGA → 2 – PGA (4) Endoplasmic reticulum
(1) Lyases (2) Isomerase 128. Which of the following plastids store
(3) Ligase (4) Transaminase carbohydrate?
124. Opening of stomata and counter action on apical (1) Chromoplast (2) Elaioplast
dominance are respectively caused by : (3) Leucoplast (4) Amyloplast
(1) Auxin and ABA 129. Galactans & Mannans are present in/as :
(2) Cytokinin and Auxin (1) Reserve food in alga
(3) Cytokinin and Cytokinin (2) Algal cell wall
(4) Cytokinin and ABA (3) Reserve food in bacteria
125. (I) Help in spindle fibre formation (4) Bacterial cell wall
(II) Accumulates in older leaves.
(III) Components of middle lamella. 130. Centrosome lysosome and microvilli are
(IV) Essential for normal functioning of cell characteristic off :
membrane. (1) Plant cell
The above statement are correct for
(2) Animal cell
(1) Mg (2) Ca
(3) Prokaryotic cell
(3) Fe (4) Cu
(4) Eukaryotic cell

Page 20/30 Space for Rough Work

131. Match the column and select the correct option : 134. If a man of blood group 'AB' marries a woman of
Column-I Column-II blood group 'A' whose father was of blood group
'O', to what different blood groups can this man
and woman expect their children to belong ?
(A) Tulip (i)
(1) A, AB, B (2) A, AB

(B) Trifolium (ii) (3) AB, O (4) A, O, B

135. How many types of gametes will be produced by
(C) Petunia (iii) a plant having genotype AaBbDdEE?
(1) 16 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 2
(D) Brassica (iv) 136. CryIAc endotoxins obtained from Bacillus
thuringiensis are effective against :-
(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) Nematodes (2) Cotton bollworms
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (3) Bacteria (4) Weeds
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) 137. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is known as :-
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (1) Natural genetic engineer of plant
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (2) Natural genetic engineer of animal
132. Which loop of tRNA is also known (3) Symbiotic bacteria
as aminoacyl synthetase recognition loop ? (4) Symbiotic plant
(1) T ψ C loop (2) Acceptor end 138. Match the following with respect to the average
(3) Anticodon loop (4) DHU loop composition of cells.
Component % of the total cellular mass
133. F2 generation in a Mendelian cross showed that
a. Proteins (i) 5-7
both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are same
as 1 : 2 : 1. It represents a case of :- b. Carbohydrates (ii) 3
c. Lipids (iii) 10-15
(1) Complete dominance
d. Nucleic acids (iv) 2
(2) Dihybrid cross
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) Monohybrid cross with co-dominance
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) Incomplete dominance
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

Space for Rough Work Page 21/30

139. Several genes called___ have been identified in 143. Which of the following statement is correct ?
normal cells which when activated will turn into (a) Permeability of urea is found only in the
_____, and under certain conditions, could lead deeper part of thin ascending limbs of Henle's
to cancerous transformation of the cells. loop and collecting ducts.
Complete the above paragraph by selecting (b) Kidney produce a larger volume of dilute
correct sequence of words. urine when more water is taken.
(1) oncogenes, proto oncogenes (c) ADH hormone increase the water
permeability of distal convoluted tubule and of
(2) cellular oncogenes, proto oncogenes the collecting duct.
(3) proto oncogenes, oncogenes (d) When filtrate reaches in proximal tubule it is
(4) oncogenes, proto oncogenes isotonic.

140. Which of the following disease is not an anemic

(1) a, c, d
disease ? (2) b, c, d
(1) Thalassemia (3) a, b, d
(2) G6PD deficiency (4) a, b, c, d
(3) Vitamin B12 deficiency 144. How many of the following non chordates have
flame cells as excretory organs ?
(4) Albinism
Planaria, Earthworm, Amphioxus, Tapeworm,
141. Choose the incorrect regarding decapacitation :- Nereis, Labeo
(1) Occurs in vas deferens before fertilization (1) 1
(2) Sperms motility is suppressed (2) 2
(3) Thin layering (of cholesterol) (3) 3
on apex/acrosome of sperm
(4) 4
(4) Occurs in epididymis before fertilization
142. Which of the following animals are
osmoregulators ?
(1) Human
(2) Frog
(3) Catla
(4) All the above

Page 22/30 Space for Rough Work

145. The given figure represents the Malpighian 147. Proper burial of dead bodies, for the first time,
body. Identify the labelled parts A to D and started by which pre-historic man ?
select the correct option :- (1) Peking man
(2) Java man
(3) Neanderthal man
(4) Cro-Magnon man
148. Which of the following statements are true/false
?
(A) Calcitonin regulates the metabolism of
(1) A-Efferent arteriole, B-Afferent calcium
arteriole, C-Bowman's capsule, D-Proximal (B) Oxytocin stimulates contraction of uterine
convoluted tubule muscles during birth.
(C) Grave's disease is caused by malfunctioning
(2) A-Afferent arteriole, B-Efferent
of adrenal gland.
arteriole, C-Renal corpuscle, D-Proximal
(D) ADH stimulates absorption of water and
convoluted tubule
increase the urine production.
(3) A-Afferent arteriole, B-Efferent
(1) A and C are true, B and D are false
arteriole, C-Bowman's capsule, D-Proximal
convoluted tubule (2) A and B are true, C and D are false
(4) A-Afferent arteriole, B-Efferent (3) A and D are false, B and C are true
arteriole, C-Bowman's capsule, D-Distal (4) A only true, B, C and D are false
convoluted tubule
149. During pregnancy level of how many of the
146. Which of the following are not analogous following hormone increases. estrogen,
organs? thyroxine, prolactin, cortisol, hpl.
(1) Fins of fishes and flippers of whales. (1) two
(2) Stings of honey bee and sting of scorpion. (2) three
(3) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of (3) four
Cucurbita.
(4) five
(4) Wings of insects and wings of birds.

Space for Rough Work Page 23/30

150. Find out wrong statement w.r.t. human evolution 152. Which of the following statements are correct?
:- A. Corpus callosum connects two halves of
cerebral hemisphere.
(1) About 15 mya, Primates B. ADH facilitates water reabsorption from PCT
called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus to increase diuresis.
C. Acromegaly is caused due to the over
were existhing.
production of growth hormone during the
(2) Few fossils discovered in Ethiopia and childhood.
D. Low concentration of oestrogen having
tanzania revealed homonid features. negative feedback on FSH and LH hormone.
E. Abnormal skin and deaf-mutism in baby,
(3) 2 mya Australopithecus probably lived in caused due to hypothyroidism in mother during
west- african grassland pregnancy.
Choose the correct answer from the options
(4) Homo erectus had a large brain around 900 given below?
cc.
(1) A, B and D (2) A, C and E
151. Assertion (A) : Hepatitis B and HIV infections
(3) A, D and E (4) B, C and D
are not completely curable.
153. Read the following statements and select correct
option :-
Reason (R) : HIV and HBV can be transmitted
(A) In our body the neural system and the
by sharing of injection needles and surgical endocrine system jointly coordinate and integrate
all the activities of the organs.
instruments with infected persons. (B) neurons that have one axon and one dendrite;
found usually in the embryonic stage.
(1) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is (C) Oxytocin originating in the hypothalamic
the correct explanation of 'A'. newton reaches the posterior pituitary gland
(2) 'A' is false, but 'R' is true through a portal circulatory system.
(D) Older individuals usually have a weakened
(3) 'A' is true and 'R' is false immune response due to decreased production of
thymosin.
(4) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is not
(1) Only A and D are correct
the correct explanation of 'A'.
(2) Only A, B and D are correct
(3) Only A, C and D are correct
(4) All are correct.

Page 24/30 Space for Rough Work

154. Read the following statements (A-D):- 156. Find the incorrect match :-
(A) The first movement of the foetus and (1) Role of Leydig cells of testis - synthesis of
appearance of hairs on the head are usually androgens
observed during fourth month.
(B) Saheli is a new oral contrapceptive for the (2) Spermiogenesis - spermatids to sperm
females (3) At the end of 6th month of pregnancy - first
(C) MTPs are considered relatively safe during movement of foetus
the second trimester (4) Barrier method of birth control - diaphragm,
D) The corpus luteum secretes large amount of cervical cap, condom
estrogen which is essential for maintenance of
the endometrium 157. Match the following columns-I and II. Choose
How many statement are incorrect in following? the option with all correct match.
(1) Four (2) Three
Column-I Column-II
Inter conversion of
(3) Two (4) One A. Dehydrogenases p
isomers
155. Match the following :-
Oxidoreduction
B. Ligases q between two
substrates
Linking together of
C. Hydrolases r
two compounds
D. Isomerases s Hydrolysis of bonds
(1) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s
(2) A-s, B-r, C-q, D-p
(3) A-q, B-r, C-s, D-p
(1) A – d, B – c, C – b, D – a
(4) A-r, B-q, C-p, D-s
(2) A – c, B – a, C – b, D – d
(3) A – b, B – c, C – a, D – d
(4) A – a, B – c, C – b, D – d

Space for Rough Work Page 25/30

158. Select the correct statement w.r.t enzyme 162. Which statement is true ?
actions. (1) Micturition is carried out by a reflex
(1) Addition of lot of succinate does not (2) Henle's loop play an important role in
reverse the inhibition of succinic concentrating the urine
dehydrogenase by malonate
(3) Protein free fluid is filtered from blood
(2) A non-competitive inhibitor binds the plasma into the bowman's capsule
enzyme at the site of substrate
(4) All of the above
(3) Vmax remains unchanged in presence of
competitive inhibitor 163. Which of the following pair is correct
match according to their cause :-
(4) Vmax decreases and Km increases in
presence of non-competitive inhibitor (1) Tetany - rapid spasm in muscle due to high
Ca2+ level in body fluids
159. MALT stands for
(2) Muscular dystrophy - Auto immune
(1) Muscle-associated with larynx tissue disorder
(2) Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (3) Mysthania gravis - genetic disorder
(3) Muscle and lymphatic tissue (4) Oesteoporosis - age related disorder
(4) Multi-adrenaline lymphatic tissue characterized by decreased bone mass
160. Sterio ciliated columnar epithelium is found in 164. In a standred ECG. Select the correct statement
(1) Rectum for given figure :-

(2) Colon
(3) Epididymis
(4) Trachea
(1) P wave – Represents depolarisation of
161. Withdrawl of which hormone is the immediate ventricals
cause of menstruation ?
(2) Ventricular diastole starts after Q wave `
(1) Estrogen
(3) End of the T wave marks the end of the
(2) FSH systole
(3) FSH-LH (4) T wave represents the repolarisation of atria
(4) Progesterone

Page 26/30 Space for Rough Work

165. How many of the following are viral diseases :- 169. Which points are correct about visceral muscles?
Typhoid, Pneumonia, Common cold, plague, (1) These are located in the inner walls of
Chikun-gunya, diphtheria, Hepatitis-B, dengu- hollow visceral organs of the body
fever, filariasis.
(2) They have both actin and myosin filaments
(1) Four (2) Three
(3) Their activities are not under the voluntary
(3) Two (4) One control of the nervous system
166. In the resting state, a complex protein masks the (4) All of the above
active binding sites for myosin on actin
filament. This protein is 170. Which of the following statements about the
mechanism or ventilation/breathing is false?
(1) Myosin (2) Meromyosin
(1) As the diaphragm relaxes, air is expelled
(3) Troponin (4) HMM from the respiratory system
167. Muscle has special given properties (2) During inspiration the lungs act as suction
a. Excitability pump
b. Elasticity
c. Contractility (3) Inspiration is a passive and expiration is an
d. Extensibility active process
How many of the given properties are shared by (4) For quiet breathing external intercostal
muscle and neuron? muscles and diaphragm play an important
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 3 role

168. Which points are correct with the regard to the

171. Which sequences is correct to initiate expiration?
I. Relaxation of EICM and return of diaphragm
skeletal muscles?
and sternum to their normal position
(A) Their activities are under the voluntary
control of the nervous system II. Air expelled from lungs
III. Volume of thorax decreases
(B) They are located in the inner walls of
IV. Intrapulmonary pressure increases
visceral organs
(C) They are primarily involved in locomotory (1) I, III, IV, II
actions and changes of body postures (2) II, IV, III, I
(D) They have no actin and myosin filaments
(3) IV, III, II, I
(1) B,D (2) A,D
(4) I, II, III, IV
(3) B,C (4) A,C

Space for Rough Work Page 27/30

172. Which of the following statement is not correct 175. Why the chances of pregnency are very low in a
about scrotum ? lactating women till six months after delivery ?
(1) The temperature of scrotum is 2 – 2.5°C (1) High levels of HCG in women kill sperms.
lower than normal body temperature. (2) High levels of estrogen and progesterone,
(2) Scrotum is connected to the abdominal secreted by the corpus luteum, that inhibit
cavity through a passage termed as inguinal the secretion of gonadotropins.
canal. (3) High levels of prolactin, inhibit the
(3) During embryonic stage, testes develop in secretion of gonadotropins.
scrotum and remain in scrotum at the time (4) All of these
of birth.
176. An emergency contraceptive pill is given to a
(4) Scrotum is a small bag like structure female who is 2 weeks pregnant. This will lead
situated below abdominal cavity. to:
173. After some time of ejaculation, semen liquefies (1) Termination of pregnancy.
due to presence of an enzyme which is found in
secretion of :- (2) Prevention of implantation
(1) Vagina (3) Pregnancy is unaffected.
(2) Seminal vesicle (4) Degeneration of corpus luteum due to
negative feedback of LH.
(3) Prostate
177. Which of the following is not considered as a
(4) Cowper's gland secondary sex organ?
174. Match the column-A with column-B :- (1) Breast (2) Vagina
Column-A Column-B
(3) Penis (4) Seminal vesicle
Transfer of sperms in the
(A)
female genital tract
(i) Ejaculation
178. A temporary endocrine gland.........formed after
Sperms released ovulation in ovary and secretes.......hormone
(B) (ii) Spermiation
from seminiferous tubules respectively:-
Expulsion of semen from (1) Corpus albicans & estrogen
(C) (iii) Insemination
body of male
(2) Corpus luteum & LH
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i (2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii
(3) Corpus albicans & progesterone
(3) A-iii, B-ii, C-i (4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii
(4) Corpus luteum & progesterone

Page 28/30 Space for Rough Work

179. A thalidomide drug was prescribed during 180. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the
pregnancy to ease morning sickness but it may human reproductive system get blocked, the
cross the placenta and on reaching into foetus gametes will not be transported from
may cause deformity in foetus. Which of the (1) epididymis to vas deferens
following abnormality mainly occurs :-
(2) ovary to uterus
(1) Shortened of limbs
(3) vagina to uterus
(2) Liver chirrhosis
(4) testes to epididymis
(3) Orchitis
(4) Cleft palate

Space for Rough Work Page 29/30

 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Page 30/30