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Arjuna Batch 3.0

English Medium

MPPSC PRELIMS

GS
2025
UNIT-03
Geography of India
MCQ’s BOOK

@safaltaias

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Malkeet Sir
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INDEX
1 Mountains, Plateau, Hills 2-36

2 Rivers 37-61

3 Lakes 62-70

4 Climate of India 71-86

5 Forest 87-95

6 Mineral Resources in India 96-109

7 Water Resourcess 110-124

8 Major Crops 125-153

9 GREEN REVOLUTION AND FOOD Security 154-157

10 CONVENTIONAL ENERGY 158-168

11 NON - CONVENTIONAL ENERGY 169-180

12 Disaster and Cyclone 181-198

13 Population Growth 199-216

14 Privious year questions 217-219

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Mountains, Plateau, Hill mountain peaks are Kanchenjunga,

Nangaparvat, Nanda Devi, kamet etc.
1. What is the longitudinal valley situated 4. In which state of India is the Kamet peak
between the lower Himalayas and Shivalik of the Himalayas located?
called? (a) Sikkim
(a) Bugyal (b) Panyar (b) Uttarakhand
(c) Doon (d) Marg (c) Arunachal Pradesh
• (c) (d) Himachal Pradesh
• The longitudinal valley situated between • (b)
the lower Himalayas and Shivalik is • Kamet Peak is the second highest peak after
called 'Doon'. For example- Dehradun Nanda Devi in the Garhwal region of
2. Which of the Following Mountain and Uttarakhand.
state/union territory is not correctly • It is located near the border with Tibet in
matched? Chamoli district of Uttarakhand.
(a) Nanda Devi - Uttarakhand • Its height is 7756 meters.
(b) Saser Kangri - Ladakh
5. Which of the following states is not located
(c) Kanchenjunga - Sikkim
in the Indian Himalayan region?
(d) K2 Mountain - Himachal Pradesh
(a) Bihar (b) Sikkim
(d) : (c) Uttarakhand (d) Mizoram
Godwin Austin (K2) is the highest mountain
• (a)
peak of India. It is located in the Karakoram
• Bihar state is not included in the Indian
mountain range.
Himalayan state. The Himalayas are formed
Mountain Peak State
due to the collision of the Indian plate and the
✓ Nanda Devi - Uttarakhand
Eurasian plate. The Himalayas are known as
✓ Saser Kangri - Ladakh
young folded mountains. Mount Everest is its
✓ Kanchenjunga - Sikkim
highest peak. The Himalayas pass through 11
✓ K2 Mountain - Pakistan (Baluchi-stan)
states, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand,
3. ………… is known as the Great Himalayas
Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya,
or Himadri.
Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura and
(a) Longitudinal valley situated between the
Assam and West Bengal.
Lesser Himalayas and Shivalik
6. What is the part of the Himalayas situated
(b) Mountain range situated to the south of
between the Sutlej and Kali rivers called?
the Himalayas
(a) Nepal Himalayas
(c) The outermost mountain range of the
(b) Assam Himalayas
Himalayas
(c) Kumaon Himalayas
(d) The northernmost mountain range of the
(d) Purvanchal
Himalayas
(c)
• (d) :
The Himalayas situated between the Sutlej
• The northernmost mountain range of the
and Kali rivers are called the Kumaon
Himalayas is known as the Great Himalayas
Himalayas.
or Himadri. It is the highest range of the
The classification of the Himalayas is as
Himalayas. Its average height is 6000 meters.
follows on the basis of rivers-
The world's highest peak Everest is located in
✓ Punjab Himalayas - Between Indus -
this mountain range. Other important
Sutlej rivers.

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✓ Kumaon Himalayas - Between Sutlej - • Pir Panjal range is the longest mountain range
Kali rivers. of the lower Himalayas. It extends from
✓ Nepal Himalayas - Between Kali - Himachal Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir
Teesta rivers. of India to Pakistan-occupied Kashmir.
✓ Assam Himalayas - Between Teesta - 10. Kanchenjunga located in ………..is the
Dihang rivers (Brahmaputra River) highest peak of India.
7. Which of the following statements is (a) Himachal Pradesh
incorrect regarding the Himalayas? (b) Arunachal Pradesh
(a) The southernmost range of the Himalayas (c) Uttarakhand
is called Shivalik. (d) Sikkim
(b) Brahmaputra is situated in the • (d)
easternmost range of the Himalayas. • Kanchenjunga located in Sikkim is the
(c) Kumaon Himalaya is situated between highest peak of India in Himalaya and it is
Sutlej and Kali rivers. also the third highst peak of the world, some
(d) Patkai Hills are situated between Lesser part of which falls in Nepal and some part in
Himalayas and Shivalik. Sikkim of India. While Godwin Austin (K-2)
• (d) falls under Pakistan occupied Kashmir,
• The statement regarding Himalayas is which is the second highest peak of the world.
incorrect- Patkai is the name of the mountain 11. Kamet, Namcha Barwa, Gurla mandhata
ranges situated on the international border are the names of which of the following?
area with Burma (Myanmar) in the northeast (a) Rivers originating from the Himalayas
of India. This range includes- Patkai Bum, (b) Volcanoes of the Himalayas
Khasi-Garo-Jaintia range and Lushai hills. (c) Tribes living in the Himalaya
8. Which of the following peaks of the (d) Mountain peaks of the Himalayas
Himalayas is situated in India? • (d)
(a) Annapurna (b) Kamet • Kamet, Namcha Barwa, Gurla Mandhata etc.
(c) Dhaulagiri (d) Makalu are mountain peaks of the Himalayas. The
• (b) highest peak of the world is Mount Everest,
• Kamet Mountain is the highest mountain the highest mountain peak of the Himalayas,
peak after Nanda Devi Mountain in the 8848.86 m, which is located in Nepal. Out of
Garhwal region of Uttarakhand state of India. the 10 highest peaks of the world, 9 peaks are
It is 7756 meters high. It is near the border of located in the Himalayas.
Tibet in Chamoli district of Uttarakhand 12. The Himalayan mountain range is divided
state. It is the third highest peak in India. into -
Atrpurna, Dhaulagiri and Makalu peaks are (a) Himachal, Sahyadri, and Shivalik
located in Nepal. (b) Himachal, Himadri and Shivalik
9. Which of the following is the longest (c) Himadri, Vindhya and Shivalik
mountain range of the lower Himalayas? (d) Satpura, Sahyadri and Himadri
(a) Karakoram mountain range • (b)
(b) Ladakh mountain range • The Himalayan mountain range is divided
(c) Zanskar mountain range into Himachal, Himadri and Shivalik. The
(d) Pir Panjal mountain range Himalayas are geologically young and are
• (d) folded mountain ranges from the point of
view of structure. These mountain ranges

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extend from Indus to Brahmaputra in the (b) Great Himalayas
west-east direction. (c) Kanchenjunga
13. The Dhauladhar mountain range in the (d) Kailash Range
Himalayas is a part of ……….. • (a)
(a) Shivalik • The Shivalik range or Outer Himalayas is the
(b) Trans Himalayas southernmost part of the Himalayas, which
(c) Middle Himalayas extends from west to east. Its average height
(d) Greater Himalayas is 850-1200 meters and it also has many sub-
• (c) ranges.
• The Dhauladhar mountain range in the 17. Which of these mountains is not included
Himalayas is a part of the Middle Himalayas. in the range of main mountains of India?
It is also known as Anchal Madhya or (a) Hindu Kush (b) Vindhya
Himachal Himalayas. The following ranges (c) Aravalli (d) Satpura
come under this - Dhauladhar mountain • (a)
range, Pir Panjal mountain range, Nagtibba • The Hindu Kush mountain range is located
mountain range, Mussoorie mountain range, between Afghanistan and Pakistan. It is the
Mahabharat range. north-west extension of the Karakoram
14. Which of the following is the second Range and the Pamir Plateau and is a sub-
highest peak of the Himalayas? range of the Himalayas. It is considered to be
(a) Mount Everest (b) Dhaulagiri the geographical midpoint of the world
(c) Makalu (d) K2 population.
• (d) 18. Which of the following mountain ranges is
• The second highest peak of the Himalayas is an example of folded mountains?
K2. Its height is 8611 meters. It is the second (a) Sierra Nevada (b) Himalayas
highest peak in the world. The highest peak (d) Vosges (c) Harz
in the world is Mount Everest. The height of • (b)
Mount Everest is 8,848.86 meters. • Mountains formed as a result of folding or
15. Mount Kailash is located in which of the bending of surface rocks by the internal
following regions? forces of the earth are called folded or folded
(a) Uttarakhand (b) Sikkim mountains.
(c) Tibet (d) Nepal • Remains of organisms living in shallow seas
• (c) are found in folded mountains.
• The eastern extension outside the Trans • Folded mountains are the highest and most
Himalayas spread in India is called Mount extensive mountains in the world and their
Kailash, Which is spread in Tibet. Hence it is peaks are always covered with snow.
a mountain range located in Tibet. • Examples of such mountains are Rocky,
Mansarovar is situated to its west and Alps, and Himalayas etc.
Rakastal Lake to its south. Important rivers 19. Which is the second highest peak in the
like Indus, Sutlej, and Brahmaputra originate world?
from these. (a) Mount Everest (b) Anaimudi
16. The southern part of the three mountain (c) K-2 (d) Mount Abu
ranges in the north of India is the Outer • (c)
Himalayas, which is also called ………….. • K-2 is the second highest mountain in the
(a) Shivalik Range world.

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• It is located in Gilgit-Baltistan region of 23. ...........is one of the highest motorable roads
Pakistan occupied Kashmir and its height is in the world, and a mountain pass in the
8611 meters. peaks of the Himalayas, which connects
• Mount Everest is the highest peak in the Sikkim and the Tibet Autonomous Region
world which is located in Nepal. of China.
• Its height is 8848 meters. (a) Chanshal Darsh (b) Baralacha La
20. What is Mount Kanchenjunga? (c) Auden Kol (d) Nathu La
(a) The highest mountain of the Himalayas • (d)
(b) Located to the north of Mount Everest • Nathula Pass is one of the highest motorable
(c) The second highest mountain in the world roads in the world, and a mountain pass in the
(d) The third highest mountain in the world peaks of the Himalayas, which connects
• (d) Sikkim and the Tibet Autonomous Region of
• Mount Kanchenjunga is the third highest China.
mountain in the world. Its height is 8598 m 24. ……….. Pass is a high mountain pass in
and it is located on the border of Nepal in the Himachal Pradesh state, which connects
north-western part of Sikkim. Kullu valley to Lahaul-Spiti valley.
21. Khasi, Garo and Jaintia Hills are located (a) Zojila (b) Lipulekh
in- (c) Rohtang (d) Shipki La
(a) Meghalaya (b) Nagaland • (c)
(c) Assam (d) Shikriya • Rohtang Pass is a high mountain pass in
• (a) Himachal Pradesh, which connects Kullu
• Khasi, Garo and Jaintia Hills are located in valley to Lahaul-Spiti valley. Apart from this,
Meghalaya. People of Khasi, Jaintia and Garo Zojila Pass is located in Kargil district of
tribes basically live here. These hills are Union Territory Ladakh, Lipulekh Pass in
named after these tribes. These hills are part Uttarakhand and Shipkila Pass in Himachal
of the peninsular plateau which is separated Pradesh.
by the Rajmahal Garo Gap. 25. In which state of India are 'Kangra' and
22. On which of these hills is Shillong located? 'Kullu' valleys located?
(a) Khasi Hills (b) Garo Hills (a) Uttarakhand
(c) Naga Hills (d) Mikir Hills (b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Himachal Pradesh
• (a)
(d) Sikkim
• Shillong is the capital of the state of
Meghalaya in northeastern India. The city of • (c)
Shillong is mainly located on the Khasi Hills • Out of the Himalayan ranges, the prominent
of Meghalaya state. During the British rule, Kangra and Kullu valleys are located in the
the British people used to call Shillong Himalayan region. The Kangra valley is also
'Scotland of the East'. According to the known as the Bir Bhumi. The Dhauladhar
Census of India 2011, the population of mountain range is located to the north of this
Shillong is 143229'. Shillong was a small valley. The Kullu valley is also known as the
village till 1864 AD, which is surrounded by Devghati. Pine and apple trees are found in
Khasi and Jaintia Hills. Later Shillong was abundance in this valley. Himachal Pradesh
made the capital of the newly formed state of shares its border with India's two union
Meghalaya in January 1972. territories Ladakh and Jammu and Kashmir

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and the states of Punjab, Haryana, Uttar ✓ Arunachal Pradesh - Diphu Pass,
Pradesh and Uttarakhand as well as China. Pangsau Pass, Bomdila
26. Which of the following is the highest 29. Which of the following mountain passes
plateau in the world? forms the tri-junction of India, China and
(a) East African Plateau Myanmar?
(b) Western Plateau (a) Imis La (b) Pensi La
(c) Tibetan Plateau (c) Diphu (d) Bum La
(d) Deccan Plateau • (c)
• (c) • Natural routes of transportation found in hills
• The Tibetan Plateau is the highest plateau in and mountainous areas are called passes.
the world. It is also known as the 'roof of the Diphu Pass is located in Arunachal Pradesh
world'. Its average height is 4500 m. (North-Eastern Himalayas) near the borders
27. The Lahul and Spiti valleys located in of India, China and Myanmar which forms a
Himachal Pradesh are connected to the tri-junction. It is a traditional route between
Kullu valley by.............. India and Myanmar which remains open for
(a) Rohtang Pass (b) Nathula Pass trade and transport throughout the year.
(c) Bara-Lacha Pass (d) Mayali Pass 30. Which of the following places is not
(a) matched with the pass located there?
The Lahul and Spiti valleys located in (a) Banihal - Pir Panjal
Himachal Pradesh are connected to the Kullu (b) Jelep La - Zanskar
valley by the Rohtang Pass. (c) Zoji La – Zaskar range
✓ Nathula Pass - Sikkim (d) Khardung La - Ladakh mountain range
✓ Baralacha Pass - Himachal Pradesh (b)
✓ Mayali Pass – Uttarakhand • Banihal Pass is located in the Pir Panjal
28. Which of these mountain passes of the range of Himalayas in Jammu and
Himalayas does not connect Uttarakhand Kashmir.
to Tibet? • Jelepla Pass is located in the state of
(a) Shipki La (b) Mana Pass Sikkim. Through this, movement
(c) Mangsha Dhura (d) Niti Pass between Sikkim and Bhutan is possible.
(a) • Khardung La is located in the Ladakh
Shipki La Pass does not connect Uttarakhand mountain range.
to Tibet, but it connects Kinnaur district of • Zoji La Pass connects Kashmir and
Himachal Pradesh to Tibet. Sutlej River Ladakh. It is located near Sonamarg in
enters India from this pass. Jammu and Kashmir.
State Pass 31. Which of the following is not included in
✓ Jammu and Kashmir - Burjil, Banihal, the three trade check posts between India
Pirpanjal and China?
✓ Ladakh – Karakoram - Changla, (a) Lipulekh Pass (b) Khyber Pass
Khardungla, Zojila (c) Nathula Pass (d) Shipki La Pass
✓ Himachal Pradesh - Rohtang, Shipkila, (b)
Baralachala • Khyber Pass is located in the Hindukush
✓ Uttarakhand - Niti Pass, Mana Pass, mountain range on the border of Pakistan
Muling Pass, Mangsha Dhura Pass and Afghanistan.
✓ Manipur - Tuju

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• Lipulekh Pass is located in the state of A transverse narrow trough and lower part
Uttarakhand. It connects India to Tibet situated in a mountain or hill through which a
via the trade route. land route passes is called a 'pass'.
• Nathula Pass is in the state of Sikkim in • Zojila (Jammu and Kashmir) - Srinagar to
India. It connects the state of Sikkim in Leh
India and the Chumbi Valley in South • Baralacha (Himachal Pradesh) - Leh and
Tibet. Mandi
• Shipki La Pass connects Himachal • Nathula (Sikkim) - Chumbi Valley in
Pradesh in India to Tibet. The Sutlej River Sikkim and South Tibet
flows through this pass. • Jalepla (Sikkim) - Sikkim to the
32. The mountain pass called 'Karakoram autonomous region of Tibet
Pass' located between India and China is 35. Khyber Pass connects Pakistan to?
located near which of the following? (a) India (b) Iran
(a) Kargil (b) Pathankot (c) Afghanistan (d) Uzbekistan
(c) Tawang (d) Srinagar (c)
(a) • The Khyber Pass is a historical pass
• The mountain pass named Karakoram located in the Safed Koh mountain range
Pass situated between India and China is of the Hindukush between the
located near Kargil. This pass is the northwestern border of Pakistan and the
highest pass in India. Kabulistan plain of Afghanistan.
• In ancient times, this pass located in • This pass was the means of transport
Ladakh region was the route to Yarkand. between the Indian subcontinent and
• At present, this pass has been encroached Central Asia.
by China. 36. This pass is in the Zaskar range of Jammu
33. Where is Diphu Pass located? and Kashmir. The road from Srinagar to
(a) Pir Panjal range of Himalayas Leh passes through it. It is made by the
(b) Arunachal Himalayas Indus River. Identify the passes-
(c) Kashmir or North Western Himalayas (a) Zoji La Pass (b) Mana Pass
(d) Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas (c) Niti Pass (d) Rohtang Pass
(b) (a)
• Diphu Pass is located in the eastern part • Zojila Pass is located in the Zaskar range
of Arunachal Pradesh. in Jammu and Kashmir, India, made by
• It is a traditional pass between India and the Indus River. The highway from
Myanmar which is used for trade and Srinagar to Leh passes through this pass.
transportation. Its height above sea level is about 3529
• This pass provides the shortest and easiest meters.
route from Arunachal Pradesh to • Mana Pass is located in the Kumaon
Mandalay (Myanmar). range of Uttarakhand. Indian pilgrims go
34. Which of the following passes connects to Mansarovar Lake and Mount Kailash
Srinagar and Leh? through this.
(a) Zoji La (b) Bara La • Nathula Pass is located in the Indian
(c) Nathu La (d) Jalep La state of Sikkim. There is a route to Tibet
(a) through Darjeeling and Chumbi Valley.
37. In which of the following states is
Khardung La Mountain located?

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(a) Uttarakhand (c)
(b) Jammu and Kashmir • Siachen Glacier Area is located near the
(c) Arunachal Pradesh Indo-Pak Line of Control in the eastern
(d) Nagaland Karakoram Range of the Himalayas.
• (b) • It is the largest of the five major glaciers
• Khardung La mountain pass is located in of Karakoram (Siachen, Biafo, Hispar,
Ladakh region of Jammu and Kashmir, this Baltoro, and Chogo Lungma) and the
pass connects Shyok and Nubra valleys. second largest glacier in the world outside
Other passes located in Jammu and Kashmir the Polar Regions.
are Zojila, Karakoram, Pir Panjal Banihal, • Its length is about 75 km.
Burzil etc. • The largest glacier in the world is the
38. In which country is Bolan Pass located? Lambert-Fisher Glacier.
(a) India (b) Bhutan 42. Which of the following is the largest glacier
(c) Pakistan (d) China in India?
• (c) (a) Gangotri Glacier
• Bolan Pass is located in Pakistan. This pass is (b) Drang Drang Glacier
a major pass of Balochistan in western (c) Siachen Glacier
Pakistan, which connects Quetta and (d) Shafat Glacier
Khakkhar of Pakistan. • (c)
• Bolan Pass was also used as a gateway for • The largest glacier in India is Siachen
traders, invaders and nomadic tribes in South Glacier. Its area is 75 km. It is the world's
Asia. highest war zone where the Indian Army has
39. Jelepla and Nathula Pass are located in been deployed since 1984.
which of the following states? 43. Which of the following statements is not
(a) Sikkim correct?
(b) Uttarakhand (a) Millions of years ago, the Indian plate
(c) Himachal Pradesh was located south of the equator.
(d) Jammu and Kashmir (b) The Indian plate moved northwards.
• (a) (c) The Indian plate and the Australian plate
• Jelepla and Nathula Pass are located in the were connected.
state of Sikkim. These passes lead to Tibet via (d) The Himalayas developed as a result of
Darjeeling and Chumbi Valley. the collision between the Indian plate and
40. In which of the following northern states is the Australian plate.
Goecha La pass located? • (d)
(a) Sikkim (b) Assam • The Himalayas developed as a result of the
(c) Meghalaya (d) Uttarakhand collision between the Indian plate and the
• (a) Eurasian plate, not as a result of the collision
• Goecha La Pass is located in Sikkim. Other between the Indian and Australian plates.
passes located in the state of Sikkim are 44. India is divided on the basis of the
Nathula and Jelepla. difference in geological structure and rock
41. Siachen Glacier area is located in which of group. Which of the following is not
the following regions? included in these physical features?
(a) Shivalik Hills (b) Aksai Chin (a) Himalayas and other peninsular ranges
(c) Karakoram Range (d) Jammu Region (b) Peninsular block

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(c) Indo-Ganga Brahmaputra plain northernmost part is commonly known by
(d) Vindhya ranges names such as "Tibet" or "Karakoram".
• (d) 47. Which of the following causes change in
• Though it is an important range, it is not vegetation with increasing altitude in the
usually included directly in the major Himalayan mountain range?
geographical divisions of the geological 1. Fall in temperature
structure of India, rather it is not specifically 2. Change in rainfall
classified as a geological region. 3. Infertility of soil
45. Which statement is incorrect with 4. Strong wind
reference to the Himalayan mountain Code
range? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(a) At present, the actions of exogenous (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
forces are operating in it. (d)
(b) Gorges, V-shaped valleys, rapids and Following are the causes of change in
waterfalls in it are indicative of its youth. vegetation with increasing altitude in the
(c) They have originated as a result of Himalayan mountain range:
volcanic activity. • Temperature falls with increasing
(d) From the geological point of view, they altitude, which changes the vegetation
are young, weak and flexible. type.
• (c) • The amount and type of rainfall also
• In fact, the Himalayan mountain range changes with altitude, which affects the
originated due to the collision between the vegetation.
Indian plate and the Eurasian plate and not as • There is a change in the quality of soil at
a result of volcanic activity. higher altitudes, which affects the
structure of vegetation.
46. Consider the statements given below.
• Wind speed increases at higher altitudes,
1. The Himalayan mountain range
which may affect the vegetation.
extends from Indus in the west to
Brahmaputra in the east. 48. Which of the following statements is false?
2. The width of the Himalayan mountain (a) Lakshadweep group is made up of coral
range is more in the west and less in the deposits
east. (b) Corals grow in deep and cold water
3. The northernmost part of the (c) Australia's Great Barrier Reef is a coral
Himalayan mountain range is called reef
Himachal. (d) Coral polyps live for a short time
Which of the above statements is/are • (b)
correct? • Corals usually grow in shallow, warm and
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 clear water, not in deep and cold water.
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these 49. The correct order of the following islands
• (b) from north to south is
• The northernmost part of the Himalayan (a) North Andaman - Middle Andaman - Car
mountain range is not called "Himachal". Nicobar - Great Nicobar
"Himachal" is a regional name that mainly (b) North Andaman - Car Nicobar - Great
refers to Himachal Pradesh, while the Nicobar - Middle Andaman
(c) Great Nicobar - Car Nicobar - Middle
Andaman - North Andaman

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(d) Middle Andaman - North Andaman - Car A. Saddle Peak 1. Great Nicobar
Nicobar - Great Nicobar B. Mount Harriet 2. Middle
• (a) Andaman
• Correct order of the following islands -- C. Mount Thullier 3. South Andaman
• North Andaman - Middle Andaman - Car D. Mount Diavoli 4. North Andaman
Nicobar - Great Nicobar Code -
50. Coco Channel is located in? A B C D
(a) Between Myanmar and Bangladesh (a) 1 2 4 3
(b) Between India and Myanmar (b) 4 3 1 2
(c) Between India and Sri Lanka (c) 3 4 1 2
(d) Between India and Pakistan (d) 2 1 3 4
Coco Channel is located in: (b)
• Saddle Peak - North Andaman
• (b)
• Mount Harriet - South Andaman
• Coco Channel is a waterway located in the
• Mount Thullior - Great Nicobar
western part of the Bay of Bengal, which lies
• Mount Diavoli - Middle Andaman
between the north-eastern part of India
(especially the Andaman and Nicobar 54. Which is the highest peak of South
Islands) and Myanmar. Andaman?
(a) Mount Koyob (b) Mount Harriet
51. The highest peak of Andaman and Nicobar
(c) Mount Luthier (d) Mount Divoli
is?
(a) Mount Luthier (b) Mount Harriet • (b)
(c) Mount Diovoli (d) Saddle Peak • Mount Harriet is the highest peak of South
Andaman.
• (d)
• Saddle Peak is the highest mountain of 55. The highest peak of Nicobar is?
Andaman and Nicobar Islands, whose height (a) Mount Thullier (b) Mount Divoli
is about 732 meters. It is located on North (c) Mount Harriet (d) Saddle Peak
Andaman Island. • (a)
52. Duncan Pass is located? • Mount Thullier, also known as Thullier Peak,
(a) Between North Andaman and South is the highest peak of the Nicobar Islands.
Andaman 56. Indian subcontinent was originally a part
(b) Between Middle Andaman and North of a huge landmass called-
Andaman (a) Jurassic landmass (b) Aryavart
(c) Between North Andaman and Little (c) Indiana (d) Gondwanaland
Andaman • (d)
(d) Between South Andaman and Little • According to the continental drift theory,
Andaman Indian landmass is a part of Gondwanaland.
• (d) In Gondwanaland, South America, Africa,
• Duncan Pass is a waterway located in the Antarctica, Australia and India were
Andaman Islands, which is located between connected as a single landmass. In the
South Andaman and Little Andaman. This intermediate Mesozoic period (200 million
pass marks the boundary between the years ago), the huge landmass of
northern and southern parts of the Andaman Gondwanaland disintegrated, in which the
Islands. Indian landmass was displaced towards the
53. Match the following mountain peaks. north.

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57. In which part of Uttarakhand are the (b)
Artesian well found? • All the rivers originating from the
(a) In Bhabhar Himalayas are perennial. The main
(b) In Terai reason for this is that the source of these
(c) In Shivalik Hills rivers is located in the glaciers.
(d) None of the above • The Himalayas receive most of their
(b) rainfall from the south-west monsoon.
• Artesian well are such natural water Hence, both the statement and the reason
sources, which appear above the stream are true, but the reason is not the correct
bed automatically and water keeps explanation of the statement.
coming out on the surface, but there is a 60. If the Himalayan mountain range did not
difference between water source and exist, what would have been the most likely
Artesian well - in the first, water comes geographical impact on India?
up automatically, but for the second man 1. Most parts of the country would have
has to first dig a well on the stream bed experienced cold waves coming from
surface and later water starts coming out Siberia.
automatically. Prtesian well are found in 2. The Indo-Gangetic plain would have
the Terai region in India. been deprived of such extensive alluvial
58. Which of the following is a desert? soil.
(a) Indus region 3. The monsoon pattern would have been
(b) Ganga region different from the present pattern.
(c) Assam region Which of the above statements is/are
(d) Central India region correct?
• (a) (a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 3
• The vast desert area of India is 'Thar Desert', (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
which is spread in the Indian state of (d)
Rajasthan and Pakistan. 200,000 sq. km. The • If the Himalayan mountain ranges were
area irrigated by Indus is to the west of this not there, most parts of India would have
extended area. experienced cold waves coming from
59. Consider the following statements and Siberia, the Sindhu-Ganga plain would
choose the correct answer from the code have been deprived of such a vast alluvial
given below: soil and the monsoon pattern would have
Statement (A): All the rivers originating been different from the present pattern.
from the Himalayas are perennial. • The Himalayan Mountains cause rainfall
Reason (R): The Himalayas receive most in the subcontinent by blocking the
of its rainfall from the south-west monsoon winds. Also, the Indus, Ganga
monsoon. and their tributary rivers flowing from the
Code: Himalayan region form alluvial plains
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the through erosion and deposition.
correct explanation of (A). 61. The plain spread along the sub-Himalayan
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not region in North India is called -
the correct explanation of (A). (a) Terai (b) Doon
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect. (c) Khadar (d) Bhabar
(d) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct. (d)

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• The plain spread between Sindhu in the • These geomorphological features are
west and Teesta in the east in the foothills prominent in young fold mountains.
of the sub-Himalayan region is called 64. Which of the following is the correct order
Bhabar. of Himalayan ranges in the western part
• It is generally a belt formed by the from south to north?
deposits of pebbles and gravel in the front (a) Great Himalayas-Lesser Himalayas-
foothilly of Shivalik due to sudden slope Shivalik
breach by Himalayan Rivers, 8 to 16 (b) Shivalik-Lesser Himalayas-Great
kilometers wide. Hence option (d) is the Himalayas
correct answer. (c) Lesser Himalayas-Great Himalayas-
62. The foothills of the Himalayas are - Shivalik
(a) Trans Himalayas (b) Shivalik (d) None of these
(c) Greater Himalayas (d) Aravalli (b)
(b) Among the Himalayan ranges in the western
• The foothills of the Himalayas are part, the Shivalik range is the southernmost.
southern part of the Shivalik range. These After that, towards the north, there are lesser
are the southernmost ranges of the or Middle Himalayas and Great Himalayas
Himalayas. respectively.
• Many flat-bottom structural valleys lie 65. Consider the following relief figures-
between the northern slopes of the 1. Zaskar mountain range
Shivalik and the southern slopes of the 2. Dhauladhar mountain range
Lesser Himalayas. 3. Ladakh mountain range
63. When you travel to the Himalayas, you will 4. Karakoram mountain range
notice the following - Give the correct order of the above relief
1. Deep gorges figures from south to north-
2. U-turn river courses (a) 2, 1, 3, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1
3. Parallel mountain ranges (c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 4, 2, 1, 3
4. Steep slope gradients responsible for (a)
landslides Dhauladhar, Zaskar, Ladakh and Karakoram
Which of the above can be termed as are situated from south to north respectively.
evidence of young fold mountains of the Karakoram, Ladakh and Zaskar ranges
Himalayas? belong to the Trans Himalaya region, while
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1, 2 and 4 Dhauladhar mountain range is situated in the
(c) Only 3 and 4 (d) All lesser or Middle Himalaya range.
(d) 66. Which of the following groups is the
• All of the above can be termed as correct order of mountain peaks from east
evidence of young fold mountains of the to west?
Himalayas. (a) Everest, Kanchenjunga, Annapurna,
• Features like deep ravines, U-turn river Dhaulagiri
courses, parallel mountain ranges and (b) Kanchen Junga, Everest, Annapurna,
steep slope gradients responsible for Dhaulagiri
landslides can be easily seen in the (c) Kanchenjunga, Dhaulagiri, Annapurna,
Himalayas. Everest
(d) Everest, Kanchenjunga, Dhaulagiri,
Annapurna

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(b) 69. Between which two mountain ranges is the

The correct order of the above mountain Kashmir valley located?
peaks from east to west is - Kanchenjunga, (a) Ladakh and Jaskar
Everest, Annapurna, and Dhaulagiri. (b) Greater Himalayas and Pir Panjal
67. Which of the following states is not (c) Greater Himalayas and Jaskar
adjoining the Patkai Hills? (d) Karakoram and Ladakh
(a) Nagaland (b) Tripura (b)
(c) Manipur (d) Mizoram The Kashmir valley, located in Jammu and
(b) Kashmir (Union Territory from 31 October
The Patkai Hills are adjoining Assam, 2019) of India, is located between the Greater
Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Himalayas in the north-east and the Pir Panjal
Nagaland. The state of Tripura is not range in the south-west.
adjoining the Patkai Hills. The Mizo Hills are 70. Which of the following is a part of Aksai
adjoining Tripura. Chin?
68. Consider the following statements related (a) Karakoram range (b) Shivalik range
to 'Atal Tunnel'. Which of them is/are (c) Kashmir valley (d) Ladakh plateau
correct? (d)
1. It has been constructed by the Border • Aksai Chin is located at the meeting point
Roads Organisation. of the borders of India, China and
2. It connects Manali and Lahaul Spiti Pakistan.
Valley. • This Indian Territory was captured by
3. It is located in the middle of the Pir- China in the war of 1962. Since then it is
Panjal mountain range of the a border dispute area between India and
Himalayas. China. Ladakh plateau is situated in Aksai
4. It is strategically important for India. Chin region.
Choose the correct answer from the code 71. Himachal is synonym of -
given below. (a) Great Himalayas
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3 (b) Middle Himalayas
(c) Only 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) Shivalik Himalayas
(d) (d) Trans Himalayas
• The 9.02 km long Atal Tunnel is located (b)
in the eastern Pir-Panjal range of the Himachal is synonym of Middle Himalayas
Himalayas. It connects Manali to Lahaul- among the above. The middle range is also
Spiti Valley throughout the year. known as Mahabharat range or Himachal
• It has been constructed by the Border Himalaya.
Roads Organisation and is strategically 72. Consider the following statements -
important for India. In the year 2002, the 1. In India, Himalayas are spread over
then Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee only five states.
laid the foundation stone of the access 2. Western Ghats are spread over only
road of this tunnel. five states.
• On October 3, 2020, Prime Minister 3. Pulicat Lake is spread over only two
Narendra Modi inaugurated the 'Atal states.
Tunnel' in Rohtang (Himachal Pradesh). Which of the above statements is/are
correct?

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(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 3 (a)
(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 and 3 • The most dense seismic zone in India is
(b) located in the Himalayan region. Most of
• The major Himalayan states/union this region falls in Seismic Zone IV and
territories of India are Jammu and V. This region includes the areas of
Kashmir, Ladakh, (from 31 October, Northeast India, Jammu and Kashmir,
2019) Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand
Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, and the Himalayas are spread in these
Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram and areas in India. Hence statement (A) is
Tripura. Apart from these, the hilly areas correct.
of Assam and West Bengal also come • Many longitudinal thrusts and faults are
under it. Hence, the Himalayas are spread found in the Himalayas. The ‘Main
over more than five states. Frontal Thrust’ (MFT) is found when
• The Western Ghats are spread over the flying from south to north.
states of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, 74. The ‘Imphal Basin’ surrounded by the
Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Thus, Manipur hills is a fine example of.
it is spread over 6 states. (a) Lacustrine plain (b) Loess plain
• Pulicat is the second largest lagoon in (c) Glacial plain (d) Alluvial plain
India (after Chilika). It is spread over (a)
Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh. The plain formed by sediment deposition due
• According to the lecture, statements (1) to the existence of a lake in the past is called
and (2) are wrong, while statement (3) is a lacustrine plain. Kashmir Valley and
correct. Hence, option (b) is the correct Imphal Basin are its best examples.
answer. 75. With regard to the Himalayan mountain
73. Given below are two statements, one of range, which of the following statements
which is labelled as Statement (A) and the is/are correct?
other as Reason (R). 1. The sedimentary rocks of the main
Statement (A): The most dense seismic Himalayas are devoid of fossils.
zone in India is located in the Himalayan 2. Fossils of marine life are found in the
region. sedimentary rocks of the lesser
Reason (R): Many longitudinal thrust Himalayas.
zones are located in the Himalayas. 3. Remains of human civilization have
Code: been found in the outer Himalayas or
(a) Both Statement (A) and Reason (R) are Shivalik Himalayas.
correct and Reason (R) is the correct Choose the correct answer from the code
explanation of ‘ given below-
Statement (A). Codes:
(b) Both Statement (A) and Reason (R) are (a) Only 1 and 2
correct, but Reason (R) is not the (b) Only 2 and 3
correct explanation of (c) Only 1 and 3
Statement (A). (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) Statement (A) is correct, but Reason (R) (b)
is incorrect.
(d) Statement (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R)
is correct.

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• The sedimentary rocks of the main (b) Chandraprabha Aitwal

Himalayas are not devoid of fossils. (c) Jaya Chhetri
Hence statement 1 is false. (d) Santosh Yadav
• Fossils of marine life are found in the (d)
sedimentary rocks of the lesser The woman mountaineer who conquered the
Himalayas. Remains of human world's highest peak Mount Everest twice in
civilization have been found in Burzahom the shortest time interval is Santosh Yadav
and Gufkral situated in the outer (second woman from India to climb Everest).
Himalayas or Shivalik Himalayas. Hence 80. The highest mountain peak of India is -
statements 2 and 3 are correct. (a) Kanchenjunga (b) Makalu
76. In which part of the Himalayas is the (c) Karakoram (d) Mount Everest
‘Karewa’ landform found? (a)
(a) North-Eastern Himalayas The heights and countries of the mountains of
(b) Eastern Himalayas the Himalaya mountain range are as follows -
(c) Himachal-Uttarakhand Himalayas • Mount Everest (8848 m.) - Nepal
(d) Kashmir Himalayas • Godwin Austin (K2 - 8811 m.) - India
(d) • Kanchenjunga (8598 m.) - India/Nepal
‘Karewa’ landform is found in the Kashmir • Makalu (8463 m.) - Nepal
Himalayas part of the Himalayas. These are It is clear that Godwin Austin is the highest
found in the form of sediment deposits. This mountain peak of India, since Godwin Austin
area is famous for the cultivation of Saffron. is not in the options, hence the required
77. The first Indian woman who was answer will be option (a). In the year 2020,
successful in climbing the Everest peak is - Nepal and China have jointly declared the
(a) Bachendri Pal (b) Dikki Dolma official height of Mount Everest as 8848.86
(c) Santosh Yadav (d) P.T. Usha m.
(a) 81. Nanda Devi Peak -
Bachendri Pal is the first Indian woman who (a) is a part of Assam Himalayas
was successful in climbing the Everest peak (b) is a part of Garhwal Himalayas
in the year 1984. (c) is a part of Nepal Himalayas
78. The woman who climbed Mount Everest (d) is a part of Punjab Himalayas
was- (b)
(a) Junko Tabei Nanda Devi is the third highest peak of India
(b) Caroline Mikkelson (after K2 8611 m and Kanchenjunga 8598 m).
(c) Valentina Tereshkov Its height is 7816 m. It is a part of Garhwal
(d) None of the above Himalayas.
(a) 82. Kullu valley is situated between which
Junko Tabei is a Japanese mountaineer. She mounteain ranges -
created history by conquering Mount Everest (a) Dhauladhar and Pir Panjal
on 16 May 1975 and became the first woman (b) Ranjyoti and Nagtibba
to do so. She is also the woman to climb the (c) Ladakh and Pir Panjal
highest peak of all seven continents. (d) Central Himalayas and Greater Himalaya
79. The woman mountaineer who conquered (a)
Mount Everest twice is- Kullu valley is situated between Dhauladhar
(a) Bachendri Pal and Pir Panjal ranges in Himachal Pradesh.

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83. In which state is Nelong Valley situated? (b) Rohtang - Himachal Pradesh
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Sikkim (c) Bomdi La - Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Jammu & Kashmir (d) Uttarakhand (d) Se La - Uttarakhand
(d) (d)
Nelang Valley is situated in Uttarakhand state The correct matching of the passes in
of India (Gangotri National Park situated in question and their respective states is as
Uttarkashi district). follows -
84. Match List I (Valley) with List II (State) • Chang La - Jammu and Kashmir (in the
and select the correct answer using the Union Territory of Ladakh from October
code given below the lists – 31, 2019)
List-I List-II • Rohtang - Himachal Pradesh
(Valley) (State) • Bomdi La - Arunachal Pradesh
A. Markha Valley 1. Sikkim • Se La - Arunachal Pradesh
B. Dzukou Valley 2. Himachal
86. Which of the following pairs is not a
Pradesh
C. Sangla Valley 3. Jammu and match?
Kashmir (a) Bomdi La - Arunachal Pradesh
D. Yumthang 4. Nagaland (b) Nathu La - Sikkim
Valley (c) Bhorghat - Himachal Pradesh
Code -: (d) Palghat - Kerala
A B C D (c)
(a) 2 4 3 1 Bhorghat is not located in Himachal Pradesh
(b) 3 1 2 4 but in Maharashtra state. This 21 km long
(c) 2 1 3 4 pass has 28 railway tunnels. Mumbai-Pune
(d) 3 4 2 1 highway and railway line passes through this
(d) pass. It is located between Karjat and
• Markha Valley - is a famous valley of Khandala.
Ladakh (Jammu and Kashmir). Since 87. Which of the following is not correctly
October 31, 2019, Markha Valley is in the matched?
Union Territory of Ladakh. (a) Lipulekh - Uttarakhand
• Dzukou Valley - is located behind the (b) Nathu La - Arunachal Pradesh
Japfu range in the northeastern state of (c) Rohtang - Himachal Pradesh
Nagaland, India, at an altitude of 2438 (d) Palghat - Kerala
meters above sea level. (b)
• Sangla Valley - is located in Kinnaur • Lipulekh pass is located in Uttarakhand
(Himachal Pradesh). It is surrounded by state on the India-China border
mountain peaks and the Baspa River on • Nathula La Pass is located in sikkim
all sides. Hence the correct answer is option
• Yuthang Valley - Located at a distance 88. Which of the following pairs is not
of about 149 km from Gangtok (capital of correctly matched?
Sikkim). The required match is given in (Mountain Pass) (State)
option (d). (a) Shipki La - Himachal Pradesh
85. Which one of the following is not correctly (b) Bomdi La - Arunachal Pradesh
matched? (c) Nathu La - Meghalaya
(a) Chang La - Jammu and Kashmir (d) Zoji La - Jammu and Kashmir

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(c) • Palghat -Kerala

Shipki La - Himachal Pradesh 91. What are Kingri-Wingri, Niti and Mana?
Bomdi La - Arunachal Pradesh (a) Passes
Nathu La - Sikkim. (b) Rivers
Zoji La - Jammu and Kashmir. (c) Mountains
Since 31 October 2019, Zoji La is located in (d) Religious places
Kargil district of the Union Territory of (a)
Ladakh • Kingri-Wingri (Kungri Bhingri), Niti,
89. List I is placed in List II. Match List I with Mana (Mana) are passes.
List II and select the correct answer using • Niti Pass is a major pass in the Himalayas
the code given below the lists - connecting the Indian state of
List I List II Uttarakhand to Tibet.
(Mountain Pass) (State) • Mana or Mana Pass is located between
A. Banihal 1. Himachal Pradesh India and Tibet in the Himalayan region,
B. Nathu La 2. Jammu and which is also called Chiribitiya or Dungri
Kashmir La. Devtal Lake is in this pass, from
C. Niti 3. Sikkim where Saraswati, a tributary of
D. Shipki La 4. Uttarakhand Alaknanda, originates.
Code -: 92. Identify the correct order of the following
A B C D mountain passes from west to east-
(a) 2 1 4 3 I. Shipki La II. Nathu La
(b) 2 3 4 1 III. Bomdi La IV. Lipulekh
(c) 4 3 1 2 Code:
(d) 3 4 2 1 (a) I, II, III, IV (b) II, III, IV, I
(b) (c) I, IV, II, III (d) III, II, I, IV
Match the given passes and their respective (c)
states as follows - • Shipki La Pass - Himachal Pradesh
(Mountain Pass) (State) • Nathu La Pass – Sikkim
• Banihal - Jammu and Kashmir • Bomdi La Pass - Arunachal Pradesh
• Nathu La - Sikkim • Lipulekh Pass – Uttarakhand
• Niti - Uttarakhand Hence, their correct order from west to
• Shipki La - Himachal Pradesh east will be:
90. Rohtang Pass is located in - Shipki La > Lipulekh > Nathu La >
(a) Himachal Pradesh Bomdi La.
(b) Jammu and Kashmir 93. Chaurabari glacier is located-
(c) Sikkim (a) South of Kedarnath temple
(d) In Uttarakhand (b) West of Kedarnath temple
(a) (c) North of Kedarnath temple
Some inpartant passes and their States - (d) East of Kedarnath temple
(Pass) (State) (c)
• Nathu La -Sikkim • Chaurabari glacier is located north of
• Lipulekh -Uttarakhand Kedarnath temple in Rudraprayag district
• Rohtang -Himachal of Uttarakhand.
Pradesh

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94. The speed of melting of Himalayan • Bandarpoonch and Milam glaciers are in
glaciers- Uttarakhand, Bara Shigri glacier is in
(a) Is the lowest. Himachal Pradesh, Siachen glacier is in
(b) Is the highest. Jammu and Kashmir and Zemu glacier is
(c) Is similar to glaciers in other parts of the in Sikkim.
world. • The source of Mandakini river is Sumeru
(d) Information about the melting of glacier.
Himalayan glaciers is not available. 97. Mount Abu hill station is situated in
(b) which of the following mountain ranges?
• The speed of melting of Himalayan (a) Satpura (b) Maikal
glaciers is the highest. (c) Vindhya (d) Aravalli
• Gangotri glacier located at the origin of Answer - (d):
river Ganga is melting rapidly. As a result • Mount Abu is a hill station situated in the
of this, its expansion has reduced to south-west of the Aravalli mountain
almost half in comparison to the last 50 range bordering Gujarat in Sirohi district,
years. where tourists keep coming throughout
95. Which of the following glaciers is located the year.
in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand? • The highest peak of the Aravalli range
(a) Sispar (b) Zemu 'Guru Shikhar' 1722 meters is situated at
(c) Milam (d) Rupal a distance of 15 km from Mount Abu.
(c) 98. Jaintia is the name of a mountain range
• Milam glacier is the main glacier located as well as a tribe found in the state.
in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand. (a) Karnataka (b) Tamil Nadu
• Sharda river (Kali Ganga) originates from (c) Meghalaya (d) West Bengal
this glacier. Answer - (c) :
96. Consider the following pairs- • The Garo, Khasi and Jaintia Hills were
(Glacier) (River) formed in the same era as the Malwa
1. Bandarpooch Yamuna Plateau.
2. Bara Shigri Chenab • The Garo, Khasi and Jaintia Hills are
3. Milam Mandakini located in Meghalaya.
4. Siachen Nubra • These hills are named specifically after
5. Zemu Manas the tribes found in that area.
Which of the above pairs are correctly • Meghalaya is also called the "Scotland of
matched? the East".
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 99. Guru Shikhar Peak is the highest peak of
(c) 2 and 5 (d) 3 and 5 which of the following mountain ranges?
(a) (a) Western Ghats (b) Himalayan
• The correct matching is as follows- (c) Eastern Ghats (d) Aravalli Range
(Glacier) - (River) Answer - (d) :
1. Bandarpoonch - Yamuna • Guru Shikhar (1722 m/5650 ft high) is the
2. Bara Shigri - Chenab highest peak of Aravalli Mountains,
3. Milam - Gori Ganga which is located in Arbuda Mountains of
4. Siachen - Nubra Rajasthan.
5. Zemu - Teesta
• Thus, option (a) is the correct answer.

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• Aravalli Hills are one of the oldest (c) Cardamom (d) Sahyadri
mountain ranges in the world. Answer - (d) :
100. Taramati Peak is located in which state? • The Western Ghats in Maharashtra are
(a) Haryana (b) Rajasthan locally known as Sahyadri.
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Maharashtra • This mountain range is about 1600 km
Answer - (d) : long, which is a rich area of biodiversity.
• • Taramati Peak is one of the highest [Link] state of India is made up of soft
peaks of Maharashtra State. unconsolidated deposits, also known as
• It is one of the two peaks of 'Molassis basin'?
Harishchandra Mountain. (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Mizoram
• The height of Taramati Peak is 1431 m (c) Sikkim (d) Assam
which is the sixth highest peak of the Answer - (b) :
state. • Mizoram is known as the land of rolling
• The highest peak of the state is Kalsubai hills i.e. there are a large number of hills
(1646 m). here.
101. Anamudi Mountain is located in which of • Most of the mountains here are formed
the following states? along with the formation of foreland
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Karnataka basins, which run parallel to the
(c) Telangana (d) Kerala mountains, these basins get accumulated
Answer - (d) : with unconsolidated deposits which are
• Anamudi/Anamudi Mountain is located known as molasse basins.
in Ernakulam district and Idukki district [Link] is divided into how many physical
of Kerala state of India. Anamudi literally regions?
means "elephant's head". (a) 5 (b) 3
• Anamudi is the highest mountain of (c) 8 (d) 6
peninsular India as well as the largest Answer - (d) :
mountain of Kerala. • On the basis of physical structure and
• Its height is 8842 feet (2695 meters). surface features, India is divided into 6
• It is called the Everest of South India. physical regions,
102. In which state of India are the 1. Mountainous region of the north
Cardamom Hills located? 2. Great plains of north India
(a) Goa (b) Maharashtra 3. Desert region
(c) Karnataka (d) Kerala 4. Peninsular plateau
Answer -(d) : 5. Coastal plains
• Cardamom Hills are located in the state of 6. Island groups
Kerala in India. [Link] peak, which means 'a big
• These are the hills of the Western Ghats mountain', is the highest mountain peak
range of India. of
• It is located south of the Annamalai Hills. (a) Nilgiri Hills (b) Shevaroy Hills
• The Nagarcoil Hills are situated to the (c) Ananthagiri Hills (d) Cardamom
south of the Cardamom Hills. Hills
103. By what name are the Western Ghats Answer - (a) :
locally known in Maharashtra?
(a) Nilgiri (b) Annamalai

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• Doddabetta Peak which means a big • The Himalayas are the newest mountain
mountain is the highest peak of Nilgiri range.
Hills. • The highest peak of the Aravalli
• Doddabetta is the second highest peak of mountain range is Gurushikhar which is
peninsular India. located in Sirohi district of Rajasthan.
• Anaimudi is the highest peak of [Link] peak is located in which of the
peninsular India. following Indian states?
107. The mountain range is surrounded by (a) Odisha (b) Karnataka
Satpura Range in the south and Aravalli (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Rajasthan
Range in the south-west. Answer - (a) :
(a) Vindhyachal (b) Shivalik • Deomali peak is located in the state of
(c) Kailash (d) Gir Odisha.
Answer - (a) : • It is the highest peak of Odisha.
• Vindhyachal Range is surrounded by • It is located at an altitude of 1,672 meters
Satpura Range in the south and Aravalli above sea level.
Range in the south-west. • It is located in Koraput district of Odisha
• The western end of Vindhyachal Range in the Chandragiripottangi subrange of
lies in Gujarat and close to the borders of the Eastern Ghats.
present-day Rajasthan and Madhya • Bauxite, limestone and gemstones are
Pradesh in the east. found in large quantities here.
• It is made of layered rocks and separates • The major tribes living here are Kandha,
North India from South India Parajas, Bhumiya and Mali etc.
108. Mawsynram is the wettest place on earth, [Link] which state are the Mahendragiri hills
and it is located in located?
(a) Mahadeo Hills (b) Lushai Hills (a) Jharkhand (b) West Bengal
(c) Rajmahal Hills (d) Khasi Hills (c) Chhattisgarh (d) Odisha
Answer - (d) : Answer - (d):
• Mawsynram is located 15 km west of • Mahendragiri Hills are located in
Cherrapunji in Khasi Hills in Meghalaya Gajapati district of Odisha state which is
state of India. part of the Northern Government Coast.
• It is considered to be the wettest place or • The highest peak of these hills
rainiest place on earth. 'Mahendragiri Peak' has a height of 1510
• It is the first rainiest place in the world m. Which is the second (first Deomali)
while Cherrapunji is in second place. highest peak of the state.
• Mawsynram receives more than 11872 • This hilly area was designated as a
mm of rainfall in a year. 'biodiversity hotspot' in 1986 and in 2014
109. Which is the oldest mountain range of it was designated as a biosphere reserve.
India? [Link] Nagpur Plateau is located in which
(a) Dhauladhar mountain range of the following Indian states?
(b) Nallamala mountain range (a) Karnataka (b) Jharkhand
(c) Aravalli mountain range (c) Assam (d) Rajasthan
(d) Zanskar mountain range Answer - (b):
Answer - (c) : • Chota Nagpur Plateau is located in India.
• Aravalli mountain range is the oldest
mountain range of India.

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• Most of which is spread in Jharkhand and • 'Garo', 'Khasi' and 'Jaintia' Hills are
some parts in Orissa, Bihar and located in the Meghalaya state in the
Chhattisgarh. north-east of India.
• The area of this plateau is 65,509 square • These hills are part of the Meghalaya
km. Plateau.
• It is located between the basins of Ganga • Garo, Khasi Jaintia are basically part of
and Son in the north and the basin of the north-eastern extension of the
Mahanadi in the south. Peninsular Plateau.
• Copper, limestone, bauxite, iron ore and • The Garo-Rajmahal Gap separates this
coal are found in large quantities. plateau (Meghalaya Plateau) from the
113. Match the mountain ranges given in main block (Peninsular Plateau).
Column-A and the states given in [Link] Shikhar, the peak of the Arbuda
Column-B correctly. Mountains, is the highest point of the
Column-A Column-B Aravalli Mountain Range Situated in -
(Mountain Range) (State) (a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Sikkim
a. Aravalli 1. Himachal (c) Rajasthan (d) Uttarakhand
Mountain Pradesh and
Answer - (c) :
Range Uttarakhand
• The Aravalli mountain range is located in
b. Vindhya 2. Kerala and
Mountain Karnataka the state of Rajasthan.
Range • Its highest peak Gurushikhar (1722 m) is
c. Western Ghats 3. Rajasthan located on the hill of Abu or Arbuda.
d. Himalayan 4. Madhya • This mountain range acts as a water
Mountain Pradesh divider, Mahi and Luni rivers flow on its
Range west side and Banas river flows on its east
(a) a-4, b-3, c-2,d-1
side.
(b) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
[Link] of the following is not the local
(c) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
name used for the Western Ghats?
(d) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(a) Annamalai Hills of Kerala
Answer -(d):
(b) Nilgiri Hills of Karnataka
• The correct match is-
(c) Cardamom Hills of Tamil Nadu
Column-A Column-B
(d) Sahyadri Hills of Maharashtra
(Mountain Range) (State)
a. Aravalli Mountain 1. Rajasthan Answer - (c) :
Range • The Western Ghats extend from the
b. Vindhya Range 2. Madhya Pradesh mouth of the Tapti River to the Cape of
c. Western Ghats 3. Kerala and Kanyakumari.
Karnataka • It is also called Sahyadri.
d. Himalayan Range 4. Himachal Pradesh • The northern latitude line of 16 passes
and Uttarakhand
through Goa and divides Sahyadri into
114. 'Garo', 'Khasi' and 'Jaintia' Hills are
two parts.
part of which physical division of India?
• Nilgiri Hills are situated at the meeting
(a) Himalayan Range
point of Eastern Ghats and Western
(b) Coastal Plains
Ghats.
(c) Northern Plains
• It is situated in Karnataka, Kerala and
(d) Peninsular Plateau
Tamil Nadu.
Answer - (d):

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• The Cardamom Hills spread across it are [Link] Aravalli mountain range does not
considered to be an extension of the pass through which of the following
Ghats. states of India?
• Annamalai Hills are situated in Kerala. (a) Haryana (b) Gujarat
• Anaimudi is the highest peak of South (c) Rajasthan (d) Maharashtra
India on the Atramalai Hills. Answer - (d):
• It is known that Cardamom Hills of Tamil • The Aravalli mountain range is spread
Nadu are not the local name used for the over a length of about 800 km in Gujarat,
Western Ghats. Rajasthan, Haryana and Delhi in India.
117. Saltoro Kangri Peak is situated on which • This range is mainly made up of 'Mr.
of the following? Cambrian era' quartzite, gneiss and schist
(a) India-Nepal border rocks.
(b) India-Pakistan border • Its highest peak 'Guru Shikhar' (1722 m)
(c) India-China border is situated on the hills of Mount Abu.
(d) India-Tibet border • Near Delhi, it is called 'Raisina Hills' on
Answer - (b) : which 'Rashtrapati Bhavan' is situated.
• Saltoro Kangri Peak is situated on the [Link] of the following, name the region
India-Pakistan border. located in the western coast.
• Its height is 7,742 meters. (a) Indus plains
• Located near the Siachen Glacier, it is a (b) Assam region
part of the Karakoram range. (c) Coromandel coast region
118. Which of the following statements is not (d) Malabar region
correct regarding 'Nilgiri Hills'? Answer - (d):
(a) It is located in the Western Ghats of • The plain formed between the Western
India. Ghats and the coast of the Arabian Sea is
(b) Tea and coffee are grown on a large called the Western Coastal Plains.
scale on these hills. • It extends from Surat in Gujarat to
(c) It is a hilly region of Karnataka. Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu.
(d) Doddabetta is the highest peak of these • The western coastal plain is divided into
hills. four categories-
Answer - (c): 1. Gujarat Plain or Coast - Coastal area of
• Nilgiri Hills is a mountainous region of Gujarat (It is also called coastal plain
Tamil Nadu state. of Kutch and Kathiawar or
• The Western and Eastern Ghats meet in Saurashtra.)
these hills. 2. Konkan Plain or Coast - Between
• Doddabetta is the highest peak of the Daman and Maharashtra to Goa
Nilgiri Hills. 3. Kannada Plain or Coast - Between Goa
• The Toda tribe of India lives on the slopes to Mangalore
of these mountain ranges. 4. Malabar Plain or Coast - Between
• Nilgiri Hills are also called 'Blue Mangalore and Kanyakumari (Cape
Mountains'. Comorin)
• Nilgiri Hills are part of the Western [Link] of these hills located in South
Ghats. India has a peak named Doddabetta?
• Tea, cinchona coffee and vegetables are (a) Jaintia Hills (b) Annamalai
widely cultivated on them. Hills

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(c) Cardamom Hills (d) Nilgiri Hills • Western Ghats are locally known as
Answer - (d) : Sahyadri in Maharashtra, Nilgiri in
• Doddabetta located in South India is the Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and Anamalai
highest peak of Nilgiri Hills, the height of and Elachaya Cardamom Hills in Kerala.
this peak is about 2637 meters. • Nilgiri is a mountain range of the Western
• The Nilgiri Mountains are found in Tamil Ghats of India.
Nadu, Karnataka and Kerala. • It is spread in the states of Tamil Nadu,
• Ooty tourist place is situated on the Kerala and Karnataka.
Nilgiri Hills. • Its highest peak is Dodaveha.
• Garo, Khasi and Jaintia Hills are in the [Link] of the following hills does not
state of Meghalaya. belong to the Western Ghats?
• Annamalai Hills are located in the states (a) Annamalai Hills
of Tamil Nadu and Kerala under the (b) Mahendragiri Hills
Western Ghats of South India, the highest (c) Nilgiri Hills
peak of Atramalai is Anaimudi, whose (d) Sahyadri Hills
height is about 2,695 meters. Answer - (b):
• The Cardamom Mountains located in • Mahendragiri Hills is situated in the
Tamil Nadu are known as Cardamom middle of Eastern Ghats at an altitude of
Mountains. 1501 meters in Ramgarh subdivision of
• This mountain extends in the border of Gajapati district of Odisha.
Tamil Nadu and Kerala. • The Western Ghats extend from north to
122. Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats meet south for 1600 km.
in the hills of ……….. • It is also called Sahyadri.
(a) Shivalik (b) Nilgiri • Annamalai, Sahyadri and Nilgiri Hills are
(c) Amarnath (d) Maikal situated on the Western Ghats.
Answer - (b): [Link] is Raisina Hill situated?
• Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats meet in (a) This is the place where the Dogra rulers
the Nilgiri Hills. of Jammu and Kashmir built their fort
• Nilgiri Hills are in Tamil Nadu. in Jammu.
• It is a block mountain. (b) It is located in Srinagar.
• The highest point of Nilgiri Hills is (c) It is located at the place where
Doddabetta (Tamil Nadu), whose height Rashtrapati Bhavan is located.
is 2637 meters. (d) It is a rocky structure located in
• It is the second highest peak of South Kanyakumari, where the statue of
India (first Anaimudi height 2696 m). Swami Vivekananda was installed.
• This hill is located in Tamil Nadu, Kerala Answer - (c):
and Karnataka. • Raisina Hills is the place where
123. Which of the following hills in India is Rashtrapati Bhavan is built.
known as Blue Mountains? • It is the northern extension of Aravali
(a) Nilgiri Hills (b) Khasi Hills Hills.
(c) Garo Hills (d) Shivalik Hills • The official residence and office of the
Answer - (a): President is located in Rashtrapati
• Nilgiri Mountains are known as Blue Bhavan.
Mountains. • Other important buildings near Raisina
Hills are Parliament House, India Gate,

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Rail Bhavan, Udyog Bhavan, Vayu (a) Rajasthan (b) Karnataka
Bhavan, Krishi Bhavan, Sena Bhavan etc. (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu
126. Meghalaya, a hilly belt of eastern India, Answer - (d)
was originally a part of ……….. • Shevaroy Hills is a part of the Eastern
(a) Manipur (b) West Bengal Ghats.
(c) Assam (d) Sikkim • It is spread in Salem district of Tamil
Answer - (c): Nadu.
• Meghalaya, a hilly belt of eastern India, [Link] Hill is located in which district of
was originally a part of Assam. Jharkhand?
• Meghalaya literally means 'home of (a) Lohardaga (b) Ranchi
clouds'. (c) Simdega (d) Gumla
• It is also called 'Scotland of the East'. Answer - (b)
• On 2 April 1970, Meghalaya was given • Tagore Hill is located in Ranchi district of
the status of an autonomous state by Jharkhand state.
cutting off the Garo, Khasi, Jaintia hill • This hill is located four kilometers away
districts of Assam. from the city.
• It was given the status of a full state on 21 • Tagore Hill is also known as Morabadi
January 1972. Hill.
127. The highest mountain of which of the [Link] hills of the north east are called
following mountain ranges is known as …………..
Guru Shikhar- (a) Himadri (b) Purvanchal
(a) Western Ghats mountain range (c) Duns (d) Shivalik
(b) Satpura mountain range Answer - (b):
(c) Aravalli mountain range • After Dihang Gorge, the Himalayas turn
(d) Vindhya mountain range towards south and determine the eastern
Answer - (c) border of India.
• The highest mountain of the Aravalli • This part of the Himalayas is called
mountain range is known as Guru Eastern or Purvanchal Hills.
Shikhar. • It is a part of Dafla, Abor, Mishmi, Patkai
• The Aravalli range was formed in the pre- Bum, Naga, Manipur Mizo Hills.
Cambrian period. [Link] is the newest mountain of India?
• Aravalli is a residual mountain located in (a) Anamudi (b) Satpura
the western part of India, Rajasthan, it is (c) Himalayas (d) Mount Abu
the oldest mountain range in the world. Answer - (c)
• The highest peak of this mountain, Guru • The Himalayas located on the northern
Shikhar, has a height of 1722 meters, border of India are geologically and
which is in Mount Abu, Rajasthan. structurally new folded mountain range,
• Vindhya mountain range The highest which was formed in the Tertiary period
peak is Amarkantak (1066 m). by the convergence of European and
• The highest peak of the Western Ghats Indian plates.
range is Anaimudi (2695 m). [Link] is the highest peak of South
• The highest peak of the Satpura mountain
India?
range is Dhoopgarh (1350 m). (a) Dodda Betta
128. Shevaroy Hills is located in which of the (b) Mullayanagiri
following Indian states?

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(c) Kalasubai • It is the capital of Telangana state and is
(d) Anaimudi Peak the fourth most populous city of India.
Answer - (d) [Link] type of soil is found in most parts
• The highest peak of South India is of the Deccan Plateau?
Anaimudi (2696 m), it is the center point (a) Black soil (b) Alluvial soil
of three hills. (c) Red soil (d) Yellow soil
• From here three hills go in three Answer - (a):
directions, Cardamom hills towards the • Black soil is found in most parts of the
south, Annamalai hills towards the north Deccan Plateau.
and Palani hills towards the north-east. • Black soil is also known as lava soil or
133. Where is India's only confirmed active regur soil.
volcano located, which is located about • This soil is formed by the weathering of
135 km south of Port Blair, the capital of lava rocks of the Deccan Trap.
Andaman and Nicobar Islands? • Black soil is most spread in the state of
(a) Havelock Island (b) Barren Island Maharashtra.
(c) Wilson Island (d) Neil Island • Black soil is most suitable for cotton
Answer - (b): production.
• India's only confirmed active volcano is [Link] mountain range is on the eastern
located on Barren Island, which is located and western edge of the Deccan Plateau?
about 135 km south of Port Blair, the (a) Shivalik and Jaskar
capital of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. (b) Karakoram and Vindhya
• Havelock Island's changed name is (c) Aravalli and Pir Panjal
Swaraj Island. (d) Eastern and Western Ghats
• It is the largest island of the Ritchie Answer - (d):
Islands of the Andaman and Nicobar • The Deccan Plateau is also known as the
Islands of India. Great Peninsular Plateau.
• Neil Island's changed name is Shaheed • It is the largest plateau of India.
Island. • The mainland of South India is located on
• It comes under South Andaman district, this plateau.
which is located 36 km northeast of Port • This plateau is triangular.
Blair. • Its northern boundary is demarcated by
• Wilson Island also comes under South the Satpura and Vindhyachal mountain
Andaman district. ranges and the eastern and western
• Which is located 57 km northeast of Port boundary by the Eastern Ghats and
Blair. Western Ghats respectively.
134. In which plateau is Hyderabad city • This plateau is spread across eight states
located? of India.
(a) Deccan • It is also known as the Maharashtra
(b) Meghalaya Plateau.
(c) Malwa [Link] of the following is the largest river
(d) Chota Nagpur island in India?
Answer - (a): (a) Majuli Island
• Hyderabad is located on the banks of the (b) Nongkhnum River Island
Musi River on the Deccan Plateau. (c) Quibble Island
(d) Bhavani Island

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Answer - (a): • Paradip Port is situated at the mouth of

• The largest river island in India is Majuli, Mahanadi in Orissa state on the eastern
located in Assam in the Brahmaputra coast of India. Its port is the deepest.
River. • Which is most suitable for the disposal of
• It is also called the cultural capital of heavy ships.
Assam. • It has been developed mainly for the
• Its area is 352 square kilometers. export of iron ore on a large scale.
• In 2016, it became the first river island to [Link] Point is situated in the southern
become a district in India. part of which of the following islands?
138. Cape Comorin, the southernmost tip of (a) Great Nicobar Island
the Indian continent, is located in which (b) Car Nicobar Island
of the following states? (c) Little Andaman Island
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Kerala (d) Middle Andaman Island
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Karnataka Answer - (a) :
Answer - (c): • Indira Point is the southernmost point of
• Cape Comorin is a rocky headland in the India which is a small island situated
Indian Ocean in South India, located in south of Great Nicobar Island of
the state of Tamil Nadu, which is the Andaman Nicobar Islands.
southernmost point of the subcontinent. • It is situated at 6°4' North latitude.
• It is the southern tip of the Cardamom • While the southernmost point of the
Hills, an extension of the Western Ghats Indian mainland is Kanyakumari which is
range along the western coast of India. located at 8°4 north latitude.
139. A coastal plain in India is named [Link] ............ located on the western coast
'Northern Circars'. is the central landmass between the
(a) Waterfalls (b) Mountains Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea.
(c) River valley (d) Coastal plain (a) Kannada Plain (b) Utkal Plain
Answer - (d): (c) Barind Land (d) Rohilkhand
• A coastal plain in India is named Plain
'Northern Circars'. Answer - (a):
• Which is along the eastern coast. • The western coast is a narrow plain
• The plain of the eastern coast is divided situated between the Western Ghats and
into two parts - the plain located north of the Arabian Sea.
the Krishna river is called the 'Northern • This plain has three parts - the northern
Circars Coast' and its southern coastal part of the coast is called Konkan, the
plain is called the 'Coromonddal Coast'. central part is called Kannada Plain and
140. Which of the following ports is located on the southern part is called the Malabar
the eastern coast of India? Coast.
(a) Kadla [Link] the Western Ghats mountain range of
(b) Paradip south-west India, which one of the
(c) J.L.N. Port Nhava Sheva following options is an important
(d) Mazagaon mountain pass, which connects the Nilgiri
Answer - (b) : Hills to the north and the Anamalai Hills
to the south?
(a) Thai Ghat (b) Goran Ghat
(c) Palakkad Pass (d) Bhor Ghat

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Answer - (c): • Great Boundary Fault is a major

• Palakkad Pass connects Kerala and Tamil geological structure located between the
Nadu. Aravalli Mountains and the Vindhya
• This pass is situated between the Nilgiri Mountains.
hills in the north and the Annamalai hills • This fault is considered as an important
in the south. indicator of the geological activities of
• Palakkad is also known as Palghat. the Indian subcontinent.
• This pass is a 32 km wide empty space in [Link] Plateau is located in?
the hills of the Western Ghats. (a) North of Chhota Nagpur
• It is noteworthy that due to this gap (b) South of Chhota Nagpur
between the hills of the Western Ghats, (c) East of Chhota Nagpur
heavy rainfall occurs in a large area of (d) West of Chhota Nagpur
Kerala and Tamil Nadu. Answer - (a)
144. Which of the following passes is located • Hazaribagh Plateau is located in
on the peak of the Western Ghats and Hazaribagh district of Jharkhand state and
connects Mumbai to Pune? it is situated to the south of Chhota
(a) Tamhini Ghat Pass Nagpur Plateau.
(b) Amba Ghat Pass • This region is a major geological
(c) Bhore Ghat Pass structure and is a part of Chhota Nagpur
(d) Asirgarh Fort Pass Plateau.
Answer - (c) : [Link] of the following statements is
• Passes connect incorrect with reference to
• Bhorghat Pass - connects Mumbai to Bundelkhand?
Pune. (a) Chambal river forms its north western
• Tamhini Ghat Pass - It connects Mulshi boundary
and Tamhini taluka of Pune district (b) The main feature of this region is saline
• Asirgarh Fort Pass - It connects North topography
India to the Deccan Plateau (c) Gorges and waterfalls have been
145. Jarga Hill is located in? created in this region by Betwa,
(a) Gujarat (b) Rajasthan Dhasan, Ken rivers
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Maharashtra (d) Aravalli mountain is situated to its
Answer - (b) south
• Jarga Hill is located in the state of Answer - (d)
Rajasthan. • Aravalli mountain is not located to the
• It is specifically located in the western south of Bundelkhand; Aravalli mountain
part of Rajasthan and forms a part of the is mainly located in Rajasthan.
Thar Desert. • Vindhya mountain range is located to the
146. Great Boundary Fault is located in? south of Bundelkhand.
(a) Between Aravalli and Vindhya [Link] statement is true with reference to
(b) Between Aravalli and Satpura Chhattisgarh basin?
(c) Between Satpura and Vindhya (a) It is spread to the north of
(d) Between Satpura and Deccan Dandakaranya plateau
Answer - (a) (b) In this basin, sediments have been
deposited by Mahanadi

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(c) It is a rich coal region and agricultural • Kanara Coast - Central Sahyadri
region • Malabar Coast - Southern Sahyadri
(d) All of the above [Link] highest peak of Southern Sahyadri
Answer - (d) is.
• All the options are correct in this. (a) Salher (b)Mahabaleshwar
• Chhattisgarh basin is located to the north (c) Annaimudi (d) Agasthyamalai
of Dandakaranya plateau, sediments have Answer - (d)
been deposited by Mahanadi, and it is also • Agasthyamalai: It is the highest peak of
a rich coal region and agricultural region. Southern Sahyadri, which has a height of
150. Which statement is false with reference about 2,668 meters and is located in the
to Dandakaranya plateau? Western Ghats.
(a) It is spread over Chhattisgarh, [Link] correct statement regarding
Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha Coromandel Coast is.
states (a) It is spread on the eastern coast of
(b) It is divided from Chhota Nagpur Tamil Nadu.
Plateau by Damodar River (b) It includes Palani Pachamalai,
(c) It is a region rich in mineral deposits Shaivaroy, Javadi Hills.
(d) It is also rich in mineral resources (c) It is located to the east of Malabar
Answer - (b) Coast.
• Dandakaranya Plateau is not divided from (d) All of the above
Chhota Nagpur Plateau by Damodar Answer - (d)
River; Damodar River divides • Coromandel Coast is actually located on
Chhattisgarh Plateau from Chhota the eastern coast of Tamil Nadu.
Nagpur Plateau. • It includes Palani, Pachamalai,
151. Which of the following separates Shaivaroy, Javadi hills.
Telangana Plateau from Rayalaseema • The Coromandel coast is to the east of the
Plateau? Malabar coast.
(a) Godavari River • Therefore, all the options are correct and
(b) Mahanadi the correct answer is **(d) All of the
(c) Krishna River above**.
(d) Damodar River [Link] false statement regarding Eastern
Answer - (c) Ghats is.
• Krishna River divides Telangana and (a) It is the area eroded by Godavari,
Rayalaseema Plateau. Krishna, Kaveri and other rivers.
• This river is one of the major river (b) It is also known as Sahyadri.
systems of the Indian subcontinent. (c) Jidhagada is the highest peak of this
152. Which of the following is not correctly region which is located in Andhra
matched? Pradesh.
(a) Konkan Coast - Central Sahyadri (d) The highest peak of Tamil Nadu is
(b) Malabar Coast - Northern Sahyadri Doddabetta.
(c) Kanara Coast - Southern Sahyadri Answer - (b)
(d) All of the above • It is the area eroded by Godavari,
Answer - (d) Krishna, Kaveri rivers.
• Konkan Coast - Northern Sahyadri • These rivers belong to the Eastern Ghats
and erode this region.

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• Sahyadri is the name of the Western • It is a plain land, which has been
Ghats. Eastern Ghats are not known as separated from the Indian peninsula by
Sahyadri. the Malda Gap due to faulting.
• Jiddhagada is the highest peak of this • Hence statement (1) is correct.
region which is located in Andhra • The Kashmir valley was formed in the
Pradesh. convergence of the Himalayas. Hence
• The highest peak of Tamil Nadu is statement (2) is correct.
Doddabetta. • According to Suess, the great plain of
156. Tikrapara Hills are located in. Ganga originated when the solid
(a) Odisha (b) West Bengal landmass of the peninsula prevented the
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu southward expansion of the Himalayas,
Answer - (a) and a foredeep was created in front of the
• Tikrapara Hills are located in the state of high folds of the Himalayas.
Odisha (Orissa). • This foredeep was like a huge
• These hills are part of the geographical geosyncline.
formation of that region and spread over • This foredeep kept filling up gradually
the western part of Orissa. with the sediments brought continuously
157. Which of the following hills is located by the rivers originating from the
northernmost. Himalayas.
(a) Mahendragiri (b) Nallamalai • Later, great plains were formed in this.
(c) Nagari (d) Sirumalai • Hence statement (3) is correct.
• The Himalayas originated due to the
Answer - (a)
collision of the Indian plate and the
• Mahendragiri is located in Odisha and is
Eurasian plate.
a major peak of the Eastern Ghats.
• The description of the Chinese plate is not
• It is located northerly than other hills.
given in the plate tectonic theory.
158. Consider the following statements
• Hence statement (4) is wrong.
regarding the formation of landforms in
[Link] (or Kuttanadu) of Kerala is
India.
famous for-
a. From the structural point of view, the
(a) Freshwater lake
Meghalaya plateau is an extended part of
(b) India's lowest altitude region
the Deccan plateau.
(c) An atoll
b. The Kashmir valley was formed in a
(d) India's westernmost point
convergence.
c. The Gangetic plain was formed in a fore- Answer - (b)
trough. • Kuttanad of Kerala is India's lowest
d. The Himalayas originated as a result of altitude region.
the triangular convergence of the Indian • It is famous for its farming practices
plate, the European plate and the Chinese below sea level.
plate. • It is called the 'rice grove of Kerala'.
Which of these statements are correct? • Kuttanad is also known for sustainable
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1,3 and 4 agriculture and fisheries.
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 • The farming practices of Kuttanad have
been declared as 'Globally Important
Answer - (a)
Agricultural Heritage System' (GIAHS)
• The Meghalaya plateau is an outlier of the
peninsular plateau.

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by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (a) Himalayan mountain region
(FAO). (b) Great Plains of North India
160. Which of the following reef systems is the (c) Indian Peninsular Plateau
newest in India? (d) Eastern Coastal Plains
(a) Vindhyan (b) Cuddapah Answer - (c)
(c) Dharwad (d) Gondwana • Indian Peninsular Plateau is the oldest
Answer - (d) among the given geographical regions.
• Dharwad series rocks were formed by the • It is formed due to the weathering and
transformation or fracture of Archaean drainage of the Gondwana land.
series rocks. [Link] of the following is an example of
• These rocks are highly metallic in which 'Residual Mountain'?
minerals like gold, iron, manganese, (a) Himalayas (b) Kilimanjaro
mica, cobalt, chromium, copper, (c) Etna (d) Aravalli
tungsten, lead etc. are found. Answer - (d)
• Kuddapah series rocks were formed after • Aravalli is an example of Residual
Dharwad series rocks. Mountain.
• Vindhyan series rocks were formed after [Link] between the rivers Narmada
Kuddapah series rocks. and Tapti are -
• Limestone, sandstone, porcelain and (a) Vindhya Mountains (b) Satpura ranges
coloured clay are found in them. (c) Rajmahal Hills (d) Aravalli Hills
• Gondwana series rocks were formed Answer - (b)
much later than Vindhyan series rocks. • Narmada river flows on the northern part
• Most of the coal of India is obtained from of Satpura ranges and Tapti river flows on
the Gondwana region. the southern part i.e. Satpura ranges are
• The coal of this region is of high grade. situated in the middle of both the rivers.
• The maximum amount of bituminous coal • Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
is obtained here. [Link] from north towards south, what
• The amount of sulphur in it is less.
is the correct sequence of the hills given
161. Which of the following is the oldest below?
mountain range? (a) Nallamalai - Nilgiri - Jawadi -
(a) Himalaya (b) Aravalli Annamalai
(c) Vindhya (d) Satpura (b) Annamalai - Jawadi - Nilgiri -
Answer - (b) Nallamalai
• The Aravalli range is spread over a length (c) Nallamalai - Jawadi - Nilgiri -
of about 800 km from Palanpur in Gujarat Annamalai
to Delhi through Rajasthan and Haryana. (d) Annamalai - Nilgiri - Jawadi -
• It was formed in the pre-Cambrian period, Nallamalai
which is believed to be 600 to 570 million Answer - (c)
years ago. • Nallamalai Hills are situated between
• It is the oldest mountain range of India, Krishna and Pennar rivers in Andhra
while it is one of the oldest mountain Pradesh.
ranges in the world. Its highest peak is • Jawadi Hills are located in North Arcot
Guru Shikhar (1722 m). district of Tamil Nadu state.
162. Which of the following geographical
regions in the country is the oldest?

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• Known as the Queen of Hills, Nilgiri Hills [Link] oceanographers have discovered a
are situated at the confluence of Eastern new 1505 meter high mountain at the
Ghats and Western Ghats. bottom of the Arabian Sea, about 455
• Annamalai Hills are situated on the kilometers west-southwest of Bombay.
border of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. This mountain has been named -
• These four hills are mainly located in the (a) Kailash II
states of Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu (b) Raman Sagar Mountain
and Kerala in decreasing order from north (c) Sagar Kanya Sagar Mountain
to south. Thus option (C) will be the (d) Bombay Mountain
correct answer. Answer - (b)
166. Consider the following relief features. • Indian oceanographers have discovered
a. Mahadev mountain range three sea mountain ranges, one in the
b. Maikal mountain range Central Indian Ocean Basin, the second
c. Chotanagpur plateau Sagar Kanya in the Eastern Arabian Sea
d. Khasi Hills and the third 455 km from Mumbai. It
Give the correct order of the above relief was discovered in the south-west.
features moving from west to east- • This mountain is named after the great
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1 scientist C.V. Raman as Raman Sea
(c) 2, 3, 4, 1 (d) 1, 3, 2, 4 mount.
Answer - (a) • The other two are named after Pannikar
• According to the question, the correct and Wadia.
order of the given relief features moving [Link] one of the following statements is
from west to east is- Mahadev mountain not correct?
range, Maikal mountain range, (a) The Western Ghats are relatively
Chotanagpur mountain range and Khasi higher in the northern region.
Hills. (b) Anaimudi is the highest peak in the
• Mahadev and Maikal ranges are situated Western Ghats.
as the eastern extension of the Satpura (c) Tapti River is to the south of Satpura.
range. (d) The Narmada River and Tapti River
• Chotanagpur range is situated to their east valleys are considered to be old rift
and Khasi Hills (Meghalaya) are situated valleys.
to the east. Answer - (a)
167. Which one of the following is located at • Only statement 1 is false because the
the meeting point of Karnataka, Kerala southern part of the Western Ghats is
and Tamil Nadu states? higher than the northern part, especially
(a) Annamalai Hills (b) Palani Hills due to mountains like Anaimudi.
(c) Nandi Hills (d) Nilgiri Hills [Link] one of the following mountain
Answer - (d) ranges of India is spread over only one
• Nilgiri Hills is a mountain range located state?
in the southern part of India. (a) Aravalli (b) Satpura
• This mountain range is a part of the (c) Ajanta (d) Sahyadri
Western Ghats range. Answer - (c)
• It is located at the meeting point of • Ajanta range - located in Aurangabad
Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu states. district of Maharashtra state.
• It is spread only in Maharashtra state.

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• Others are spread in more than one state. • Balaghat Range, Harishchandra Range
171. Western Ghats in Maharashtra and and Satmala Hills are spread in
Karnataka.............are called- Maharashtra, while Mandu Hills are
(a) Nilgiri (b) Sahyadri located in Kathiawar of Gujarat state.
(c) Deccan Plateau (d) None of these [Link] of the following pairs is not
Answer - (b) correctly matched?
• Western Ghats are known as Sahyadri in (a) Gadjat Hills - Odisha
Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka. (b) Mando Hills - Maharashtra
172. Choose the correct positional sequence of (c) Nallamalai Hills - Andhra Pradesh
the following hills from the code given (d) Shevaroy Hills - Tamil Nadu
below, moving from south to north- Answer - (b)
1. Satmala 2. Kaimur Hills • Mando Hills are located in Gujarat state
3. Pir Panjal Range 4. Naga Hills and not in Maharashtra state, hence
Code: option (b) is not correctly matched.
(a) 2, 3, 1, 4 (b) 1, 2, 4, 3 • Gadjat Hills are located in Odisha state,
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1 where Gond tribe resides.
Answer - (b) • Nallamalai Hills, Andhra Pradesh and
• The correct sequence of the following Shevaroy Hills are located in Tamil Nadu
hills moving from south to north is- state.
Satmala Hills (Maharashtra), Kaimur [Link] the following pairs-
Hills (Madhya Pradesh to Bihar), Naga (Hills) (Region)
Hills (India-Myanmar border) and Pir 1. Cardamom Coromandel Coast
Panjal Range (Jammu-Kashmir to Hills
2. Kaimur Hills Konkan Coast
Himachal Pradesh).
3. Mahadev Hills Central India
173. The southernmost mountain range of 4. Mikir Hills Northeast India
India is- Which of the above pairs are correctly
(a) Nilgiri (b) Annamalai matched?
(c) Cardamom (d) Nallamalai (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
Answer - (c) (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
• Cardamom Hills is the southernmost Answer - (c)
mountain range of India. • Cardamom Hills are located between the
• It is located to the south of Annamalai south-east of Kerala and the south-west
Hills. parts of Tamil Nadu, while the
• Cardamom is produced in large quantities 'Coromonddal Coast' is spread in the
here, due to which they are also called south-east of India.
'Cardamom Hills'. • 'Konkan Coast' is the name given to the
174. Which of the following is not located in south-west coast (Maharashtra and Goa)
Maharashtra? line of India.
(a) Balaghat Range • Mahadev Hills are in Madhya Pradesh
(b) Harishchandra Range province of Central India and Mikir Hills
(c) Mandu Hills are in Assam province of North-East
(d) Satmala Hills India.
Answer - (c) • Thus option (c) is the correct answer.
[Link] is the height of Parasnath Hill?

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(a) 1600 meters (b) 1565 meters (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1365 meters (d) 1260 meters Answer - (d)
Answer - (c) • The Western Ghats are spread parallel to
• Parasnath Hill is located in Giridih the western sea coast for a length of about
district of Jharkhand state. 1500 km. from the mouth of Tapi in the
• Its height is about 1365 meters. north to Cape Kumari in the south.
• Shikharji Jain temple is situated on its • It is a fault-formed mountain, which has
peak. been formed due to the dislocation of a
• This hill is situated on the eastern edge of section of the land into the Arabian Sea.
the Chotanagpur plateau. • Its western slope is steep and steep, while
• It is the highest peak of Jharkhand state. the eastern slope is gentle and stepped or
• It is named after Parshvanath, the 23rd a gradually declining plateau.
Tirthankara of Jainism. • Its northern part is mainly made up of
178. Match List-I with List-II and choose the basalt rocks and from Goa to the south is
correct answer from the codes given made up of granite and gneiss rocks.
below the lists- [Link] which hill is ‘Kodaikanal’ situated?
List-I (Hills) List-II (States) (a) Anamalai (b) Bundi
A. Garo 1. Meghalaya (c) Palani (d) Amarkantak
B. Miri 2. Tamil Nadu Answer - (c)
C. Kollai Malai 3. Arunachal • Kodaikanal is situated in Palani Hills in
Pradesh
Dindigul district of Tamil Nadu.
D. Dalma 4. Jharkhand
Code: [Link] of the following hills are the
A B C D extension of Vindhyan mountain ranges
(a) 1 3 2 4 in Rajasthan?
(b) 1 2 3 4 (a) Mukundra Hills (b) Dora Mountain
(c) 1 3 4 2 (c) Alwar Mountain (d) Girwa
(d) 2 1 3 4 Mountain
Answer - (a) Answer - (a)
• Match the hills given in List-I with the • Mukundra Hills are the extension of
states given in List-II as follows- Vindhyan mountain ranges in Rajasthan.
(Hills) (States) • Mukundra Hills are situated between
Garo Meghalaya Kota and Jhalwara.
Miri Arunachal Pradesh [Link] of the following mountain peaks is
Kollai Malai Tamil Nadu not situated in the Eastern Ghats?
Dalma Jharkhand (a) Gali Kaunda (b) Salher
179. Consider the following statements (c) Sinkaram Gatta (d) Madugula
regarding Western Ghats- Kaunda
a. It is a fault-formed mountain. Answer - (b)
b. Its eastern slope gradually becomes • The Eastern Ghats extend parallel to the
lower. eastern coast of the mainland of India
c. Its northern part is covered with lava from Odisha to Tamil Nadu.
(basalt). • The major mountain peaks of the Eastern
Which of the above statements are correct? Ghats include Malayagiri, Mahendragiri,
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 Gali Kaunda (Andhra Pradesh), Sinkaram

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Gatta (Odisha), Madugula Kaunda [Link] of the following is the correct
(Andhra Pradesh). order showing their position from west to
• Salher Peak is located in Maharashtra. east among the ranges situated in
• It is a peak of the Western Ghats. Satpura region?
• Its height is about 1567 m. (a) Barwani Hills - Mahadev Range -
183. Match List-I with List-II and select the Mekal Range
correct answer from the code given below (b) Mahadev Range - Barwani Hills -
the list. Mekal Range
List-I List-II (c) Mahadev Range - Mekal Range -
State Highest peak Barwani Hills
A. Kerala 1. Doddabetta (d) Mekal Range - Mahadev Range -
B. Nagaland 2. Nanda Devi Barwani Hills
C. Uttarakhand 3. Anaimudi Answer - (a)
D. Tamil Nadu 4. Saramati
• The correct order showing their position
Code:
from west to east among the ranges
A B C D
situated in Satpura is as follows- Barwani
(a) 1 3 4 2
Hills - Mahadev Range - Maikal (Mekal)
(b) 2 3 4 1
Range.
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 1 2 3 4 [Link] are the hills adjacent to
Kanyakumari?
Answer - (c)
(a) Annamalai Hills
• The correct matching of the highest peak
(b) Nilgiri Hills
and their respective states is as follows-
(c) Cardamom Hills
State Peak
(d) None of the above/More than one of
Kerala Anaimudi
the above
Nagaland Saramati
Uttarakhand Nanda Devi Answer - (c)
Tamil Nadu Doddabetta • The Western Ghats are the second longest
mountain range in India after the
184. Which one of the following is the correct
Himalayas.
order of hills situated in Central India
• Its length is about 1500 km.
from west to east?
(a) Maikal, Satpura, Mahadev and Chota [Link] of the following hills does not have
Nagpur a tea plantation?
(b) Satpura, Mahadev, Maikan and Chota (a) Kanan Devan (b) Nilgiri
Nagpur (c) Darjeeling (d) Girnar
(c) Mai Kal Mahadev, Satpura and Chhota Answer - (d)
Nagpur • Among the given options, there is no tea
(d) Satpura, Mahadev, Chhota Nagpur and plantation on Girnar hill.
Maikal • All other hills have tea plantations.
Answer - (b) • The Kanan Devan Hills are located in the
• The correct order of the alternative hills Idukki district of Kerala state.
situated in Central India from west to east • Nilgiri is an important mountain range of
is as follows- Satpura, Mahadev, Maikal the Western Ghats located in the south,
and Chhota Nagpur. Nilgiri tea is one of the most distinctive
teas of India.

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• Darjeeling of India, mainly famous for tea (a) Thal Ghat (b) Bhor Ghat
production, is located in the state of West (c) Khyber Pass (d) Palghat
Bengal, south of the state of Sikkim. Answer - (c)
188. Consider the following statements - • Among the given options, Thal Ghat,
a. Silent Valley National Forest is in the Bhor Ghat and Pal Ghat passes are in the
Nallamalai range. Western Ghats range, while Khyber Pass
b. It is proposed to build Pattharkkadavu is in Pakistan.
Hydroelectric Project near Silent Valley • It connects Pakistan and Afghanistan.
National Forest. [Link]-made lava rocks were formed on
c. Kunthi River originates from the rain- the Deccan Plateau of India in -
rich forests of Silent Valley. (a) Cretaceous period (b) Pleistocene
Which of the above statements is/are period
correct? (c) Carboniferous period (d) Miocene
(a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 period
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer - (a)
Answer - (c) • During the Carboniferous period, coal
• Silent Valley or Silent Valley National was formed in the Damodar, Son,
Forest is located in Palakkad/Palghat Mahanadi and Godavari basins, while
district of Kerala. during the Cretaceous period, excessive
• It is located in the Nilgiri Hills of the volcanic eruptions led to the formation of
Western Ghats. the Deccan Trap.
• Not on the Nallamalai Hills/Range. • During this period, basalt-made lava
• Hence statement-1 is incorrect. rocks were formed on the Deccan Plateau.
• Kerala State Electricity Board has • The formation of Deccan Trap began in
proposed to construct ‘Patharakkadavu the last phase of the Cretaceous period.
Hydroelectric Project’ at a distance of [Link] is Dhanbad the most densely
only 1 km from Silent Valley National populated district of the Chotanagpur
Park. Hence statement-2 is correct. Plateau?
• Kunthi river is a tributary of (a) Fertile soil and irrigation facility
Bharatapuzha river, which originates through canals drawn from Damodar.
from the rain forests of Silent Valley. (b) Presence of coal, iron, mica, copper etc.
• Hence statement-3 is correct. (c) Development of mining industry and
• Hence the correct answer will be option industrialization.
(c). (d) All of the above.
189. Palghat is situated between which of the Answer - (c)
following? • Dhanbad is known for coal mining and
(a) Nilgiri and Cardamom Hills industrial establishment.
(b) Nilgiri and Annamalai Hills • Red soil is found in a large area in
(c) Annamalai and Cardamom Hills Dhanbad, which is not useful for
(d) Cardamom Hills and Palini Hills agriculture.
Answer - (b) • Presence of coal, iron, mica, copper etc.
• Palghat pass is situated between Nilgiri cannot be the reason for concentration of
and Annamalai ranges. population.
190. Which of the following passes is not in [Link] plateau is located between the
the Western Ghats mountain range? Aravalli and Vindhya ranges?

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(a) Malwa Plateau
(b) Chota Nagpur Plateau
(c) Deccan Plateau
(d) Peninsular Plateau
Answer - (a)
• Malwa Plateau is situated between the
Aravalli and Vindhya ranges.
• Its northern boundary is determined by
the Aravalli range, southern boundary by
the Vindhya range and eastern boundary
by the Bundelkhand Plateau.
194. Dandakaranya region is situated in:
(a) Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh
(b) Chhattisgarh and Odisha
(c) Jharkhand and Odisha
(d) Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand
Answer - (b)
• Dandakaranya is situated in the central
part of India.
• It is mainly spread over Odisha,
Chhattisgarh, Telangana, Maharashtra
and Andhra Pradesh.
195. Dandakaranya region is situated in
which state?
(a) Telangana (b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) All of the
above.
Answer – (d)
• The Dandakaranya region is an important
forest area located in the central and
eastern part of India.
• This area is mainly spread over four
states: Telangana, Chhattisgarh, Andhra
Pradesh, and Odisha.

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River
1. After entering Bangladesh, the …………. • Son River is a tributary of Ganga and
river is known as the Jamuna river in the Jonk River is a tributary of Mahanadi.
lower course. Subansiri is the largest tributary of
(a) Hooghly (b) Brahmaputra Brahmaputra River.
(c) Yamuna (d) Ganga 3. Bari Doab is located in which of the
(b) : following regions?
• The Brahmaputra River originates near (a) Between Beas and Sutlej
the Mansarovar lake situated on the (b) Between Ravi and Chenab
Tibetan plateau north of the Himalayas (c) Between Chenab and Jhelum
and flows eastwards along the Himalayas. (d) Between Beas and Ravi
• The Brahmaputra turns south near (d):
Namcha Barwa, the easternmost peak of • Bari Doab - Between Beas and Ravi
the Himalayas, and enters Arunachal rivers.
Pradesh. From Sadiya to Dhubri in • Chaj Doab - Between Jhelum and
Assam, the Brahmaputra River flows Chenab.
from east to west in a ramp valley. • Rechna Doab - Between Chenab and
• After flowing from Sadiya to Dhubri, the Ravi.
Brahmaputra River suddenly turns • Bist Doab - Between Beas River and
southwards and enters Bangladesh. Here Sutlej.
the Brahmaputra River is known as 4. Which of the following rivers is the
Jamuna. The Brahmaputra River is westernmost of the Himalayan Rivers of
known by four different names – India?
▪ On the Tibetan plateau of China - (a) Indus (b) Bhagirathi
Tsangpo River (c) Alaknanda (d) Luni
▪ In Arunachal Pradesh - Dihang River (a):
▪ In Assam - Brahmaputra River • Indus River is the westernmost of the
▪ In Bangladesh - Jamuna River Himalayan rivers of India. Indus River
2. Which of the following rivers is a tributary originates from Bokharchu glacier near
of the Indus River? Mansarovar lake in Tibet.
(a) Subansiri (b) Beas • Flowing in the north-west direction, this
(c) Jonk (d) Son river cuts through the Himalayas and
(b) : enters India near Damchok. Jhelum,
• Indus River is one of the three major Chenab, Ravi, Beas and Sutlej etc. rivers
rivers of India, which originates from the come under the Indus river system.
glacier near Mansarovar Lake in Tibet, 5. According to the regulation of the Indus
flows through Ladakh and Jammu and Water Treaty signed in 1960, India can use
Kashmir Union Territory of India, enters only ………….. part of the total water
Pakistan and pours its water into the flowing through the Indus river system
Arabian Sea. (a) 10% (b) 50%
• Its five major tributaries are Jhelum, (c) 40% (d) 20%
Chenab, Ravi, Beas and Sutlej. Apart (d):
from these, Gilgit, Kabul, Swat, Kurram, • According to the regulation of the Indus
Tochi, Gomal etc. are also its tributaries. Water Treaty signed on 19 September

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1960, India can use only 20% of the total 9. ………….. River, known as the 'Sorrow of
water flowing through the Indus river Bihar', causes widespread destruction due
system. to its constantly changing course.
6. Which of the following rivers does not flow (a) Kosi (b) Brahmani
in Punjab? (c) Suvarnarakha (d) Indravati
(a) Chenab (b) Ravi (a) :
(c) Brahmani (d) Beas • The Kosi River, known as the 'Sorrow of
(c): Bihar', causes widespread destruction due
• The Shankh and South Koel rivers to its constantly changing course. The
originating from Jharkhand meet at Kosi River originates from the Himalayas
Nagari village near Rourkela industrial in Nepal. This river is the 'cradle of
city of Orissa. Brahmani River originates culture' of the Mithila region of North
from here. Bihar.
• Brahmani River and its tributaries play an 10. Nubra and Shyok are tributaries of
important role in the entire irrigation ……………… river.
system of Orissa state, while Chenab, (a) Sutlej (b) Narmada
Ravi, Beas are the rivers flowing in (c) Indus (d) Kaveri
Punjab. (c)
7. To which river system does the Son River • Nubra and Shyok rivers are tributaries of
belong? Indus, which originate near Mansarovar
(a) Narmada (b) Godavari in Tibet.
(c) Mahanadi (d) Ganga 11. Which of the following rivers marks the
(d): easternmost boundary of the Himalayas?
• Son River belongs to the Ganga river (a) Chambal (b) Godavari
system. Son River originates from (c) Ganga (d) Brahmaputra
Amarkantak hills located in Madhya (d)
Pradesh. • Brahmaputra River marks the
• It is the main southern tributary of Ganga. easternmost boundary of the Himalayas.
It joins Ganga near Patna district of Bihar. It originates from Chemayungdung
8. Which river system enters Indian glacier near Mansarovar Lake. It is the
Territory in Jammu and Kashmir forming largest among the rivers that join the
a picturesque gorge? Ganga.
(a) Brahmaputra river system • Its drainage system is spread over three
(b) Godavari river system countries, Tibet (China), India and
(c) Indus river system Bangladesh. It flows 1100 km from its
(d) Narmada river system origin to the east from west.
(c) : • It flows parallel to the main Himalayan
• The Indus river water system originates range till 200 km, after which it takes a
from Mansarovar in Tibet and enters sharp turn towards south and forms a deep
India from Jammu and Kashmir forming canyon near Namcha Barwa.
a picturesque gorge. 12. Which river originates from the Gaumukh
• This river flows through all three glacier, and flows for about 193km before
countries, Pakistan, India and China. joining the Alaknanda River to become the
Ganga at Devprayag?
(a) Ghaghra river (b) Gomti river

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(c) Kosi river (d) Bhagirathi 15. Which of the following rivers is not a
river tributary of Yamuna?
(d): (a) Ken (b) Gandak
• The origin of Bhagirathi River is (c) Betwa (d) Chambal
Gaumukh (Gangotri glacier). After (b)
flowing for 193 km, Bhagirathi and • Gandak River is not a tributary of
Alaknanda rivers meet at Devprayag, Yamuna. It is a tributary of Ganga.
their combined stream is known as • Gandak River is known as 'Narayani' in
Ganga. Nepal. The major tributaries of Yamuna
13. What is the main reason for calling Ganga are Ken, Betwa, Chambal, Hindon, Tons
River an endangered river? etc. Yamuna is the largest tributary of
(a) There are many dams on it Ganga.
(b) Aquatic life is decreasing 16. Which group of statements about Ganga
(c) Its water is not potable River is true?
(d) The river is drying up (1) Ganga originates from Gangotri glacier
(b): near Gaumukh. Here it is known as
• Ganga River is today considered an Bhagirathi.
endangered river due to being highly (2) At Devprayag, Bhagirathi meets
affected by human activities, the main Alaknanda, after which, it is known as
reason for which is that due to excessive Ganga.
water pollution and water scarcity, (3) Alaknanda has its source in Satopath
aquatic life is decreasing in it. glacier above Kedarnath.
• Due to the threat to the existence of (4) Ganga enters the plains at Haridwar.
'Ganga Dolphin', which was declared as (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
the national aquatic animal in the year (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
2009, 'Ganga Action' plan was prepared (c)
to preserve life in Ganga and make its • Ganga is the most important river of
water pollution free. India. Ganga River originates from
14. Which program was started as a major Gangotri glacier at a place called
program by the Central Government to Gaumukh in the Himalayas. Dhauliganga
fulfill the main objectives of effective merges with Alaknanda at Vishnuprayag.
mitigation of pollution, protection and • Alaknanda merges with Mandakini at
rejuvenation of Ganga River? Nandprayag. Alaknanda merges with
(a) Clean Ganga Program Pindar River at Karnaprayag. After this
(b) Water for All Bhagirathi and Alaknanda merge at
(c) Namami Gange Program Devprayag and from here the combined
(d) Ganga Action Plan stream is called Ganga River.
(c): • The river Ganga touches the plains for the
• Namami Gange Project is a scheme of the first time at Haridwar after passing
Central Government which was started in through Rishikesh. The origin of
the year 2014. Alaknanda is located in the eastern part of
• This project was started by the Neelkanth, 17-18 km from Badrinath.
government with the aim of reducing Hence statements (1), (2) and 4 are true.
pollution of the Ganga River and reviving 17. The famous Majuli Island is situated on
the Ganga River. which river?

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(a) Godavari (b) Ganga 20. Ganga River is formed by the confluence
(c) Brahmaputra (d) Indus of which of the following two rivers at
(c) Devprayag (Uttarakhand)?
• The famous Majuli Island is situated in (a) Alaknanda and Yamuna
Assam on the Brahmaputra River. (b) Yamuna and Gomti
• Majuli Island has been formed over time (c) Bhagirathi and Yamuna
due to the change in the direction and area (d) Alaknanda and Bhagirathi
of the Brahmaputra River and its (d):
tributaries, especially the Lohit River. • Ganga River originates from Gangotri
• The district headquarters of Majuli is glacier near Gomukh in Uttarkashi
Jorhat city. Majuli is also called the district of Uttarakhand. Here it is known
cultural capital of Assam. Majuli is the as Magirchi.
main center of neo-Vaishnav ideology in • The top streams of Ganga are Alaknanda
eastern Assam. and Bhagirathi, which form Ganga by
18. During its course, the ............... river confluence at Devprayag in Uttarakhand.
passes through Tibet, where it is known as • Ganga originates from the mountains near
Tsangpo, and also passes through the Haridwar and enters the plains.
Indian states of Arunachal Pradesh, 21. Which of the following rivers is not a
Assam and Bangladesh. tributary of Brahmaputra River?
(a) Mahanadi (b) Ramganga (a) Subansiri (b) Lohit
(c) Brahmani (d) Brahmaputra (c) Gandak (d) Manas
(d) (c)
• The Brahmaputra River originates near • Gandak is not a tributary of Brahmaputra
the Mansarovar Lake in Tibet, north of river because Subansiri, Lohit, Manas are
the Himalayas. tributaries of Brahmaputra.
• The Brahmaputra River passes through • Gandak River originates from Nepal and
Tibet, where it is known as Tsangpo, and merges with Ganga River near Patna.
also passes through the Indian states of • The ancient name of this river is Sadanira.
Arunachal Pradesh, Assam and It is known as Shaligram in the hilly areas
Bangladesh. It may be noted that the of Nepal and Narayani in the plains. Kali
Brahmaputra is known as Dihang in Gandak and Trishuli are tributaries of
Arunachal Pradesh, Brahmaputra in Gandak.
Assam and Jamuna River in Bangladesh. 22. Where does Indus River and Zanskar
19. 'Lohit' is a tributary of which of the River meet?
following rivers? (a) Panchanad
(a) Narmada (b) Indus (b) Vijaypura (Bijapur)
(c) Kaveri (d) Brahmaputra (c) Katihar
(d) (d) Ladakh
• Lohit is a tributary of Brahmaputra, (d):
which flows in Arunachal and Assam • Indus and Zanskar River meet in Ladakh.
states of India. • Indus River is one of the longest rivers of
• This river originates from Jayal Chu Asia. It flows in Tibet, India and Pakistan.
mountain range of eastern Tibet. It is also The length of this river is 2880 km.
known as river of blood. 23. Which of the following rivers does not have
its origin in Himalayas?

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(a) Mahanadi (b) Jhelum • This river originates from the Mahabharat
(c) Yamuna (d) Ganga range in Nepal and meets Mahananda in
(a) Kishanganj district of Bihar state.
• Jhelum, Yamuna and Ganga rivers have • Gandak River is a tributary of Ganga.
their origin in Himalayas. Whereas Gandak is a river flowing in Nepal and
Mahanadi has its origin near Sihowa Bihar.
(Chhattisgarh) in Amarkantak plateau. 27. Which of the following forts is built on the
• Sheonath, Hansdeo, Mand and Borai are banks of Chenab River?
its tributaries on the left side while Jonk, (a) Bahu Fort (b) Akhnoor Fort
Doodh and Pairi are its tributaries on the (c) Hari Parvat Fort (d) Chiktan Fort
right side. (b)
24. Which of the following is not a tributary of • Akhnoor Fort is located on the banks of
the Indus River? Chenab River in Jammu and Kashmir.
(a) Beas (b) Chenab The ancient name of this fort is Askini.
(c) Gomti (d) Ravi • The construction of this fort was done by
(c) Raja Leg Singh in 1762 AD and it was
• The Indus system is one of the largest completed by his son Alam Singh in 1802
river systems in the world. AD.
• Indus originates from Bokhar Chu glacier Fort Location River
near Mansarovar Lake in Tibet. • Bahu Fort - Jammu Kashmir - On the
• Its major tributaries are Jhelum, Chenab, banks of Tawi River
Ravi, Beas, Sutlej and Zanskar etc. While • Hari Parvat Fort - Jammu Kashmir - On
Gomti River is a tributary of Ganga. the banks of Dal Lake
25. Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej and Yamuna • Chiktan Fort - Ladakh - On the banks of
rivers flow through which state- Indus River
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Punjab 28. Brahmaputra is one of the major rivers,
(c) Haryana (d) Himachal which flows in many countries with many
Pradesh tributaries. Which of the following is not a
(d) tributary of Brahmaputra?
• Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej and Yamuna (a) Dibang River (b) Subansiri River
rivers flow through Himachal Pradesh. (c) Teesta River (d) Tamsa River
• Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej are tributaries (d):
of Indus. Yamuna river is a tributary of • Brahmaputra River flows through three
Ganga. countries China, India and Bangladesh.
26. Mechi, a river flowing through both India After originating from 'Chemayungdung
and Nepal, is a tributary of which of the Glacier' of Kailash Range near
following? Mansarovar Lake situated in the north of
(a) Ganga (b) Gandak Himalayas, Brahmaputra River flows
(c) Godavari (d) Mahananda eastwards in Tibet under the name
(d) 'Sangpo'.
• The Mechi River flowing through India • After this, cutting through the middle
and Nepal is a tributary of Mahananda. Himalayas near Namcha Barwa, it turns
southwards through Yangyap Pass and
enters Arunachal Pradesh of India.
Subansiri, Kameng, Manas, Sankosh,

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Teesta rivers join its right bank and • Yamuna, Ramganga, Ghaghra, Gandak,
Dibang, Lohit, Dhanshri, Kapili, Meghna Kosi, Mahanadi, Gomti and Son are
and Barak rivers join its left bank. important tributaries of Ganga River.
29. Mahananda River is a tributary of • Manas River is a river flowing in the
…………….. Himalayan foothills between Southern
(a) Damodar River (b) Sutlej River Bhutan and India (in Assam).
(c) Yamuna River (d) Ganga River 32. Ramganga River passes through which
(d) National Park?
• Mahananda River is a river flowing in the (a) Periyar (b) Ranthambore
Indian states of West Bengal and Bihar (c) Kaziranga (d) Corbett
and Bangladesh. (d)
• It is a tributary of Ganga River which is • Jim Corbett National Park is located in
the last tributary of Ganga River Uttarakhand.
originating from the Himalayas. Yamuna • It was established in 1936 as Hailey
River is the largest tributary of Ganga National Park. The Ramganga River
River in India, which meets Ganga River flows through this park. It is India's first
at Prayagraj. Tributaries of Yamuna are national park. Bengal tiger, Asian
Chambal, Betwa and Ken rivers. elephant, wild boar, sloth bear etc. live in
30. Pindar River meets Alaknanda at which of this park.
the following places? 33. Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas and Sutlej are
(a) Vishnuprayag (b) Rudraprayag tributaries of ……….
(c) Karnaprayag (d) Devprayag (a) Indus (b) Brahmaputra
(c) (c) Yamuna (d) Ganga
• Pindar River meets Alaknanda at (a)
Karnaprayag. • Indus River originates from 'Bokhar Chu'
• Pindar River originates from Pindari glacier near Mansarovar Lake in Tibet. It
Glacier located in Bageshwar. is 2,880 km. long and is one of the largest
• Dhauli Ganga meets Alaknanda at rivers of the world. Its length in India is
Vishnuprayag. 1114 km.
• Mandakini meets Alaknanda at • The major rivers that join the Indus River
Rudraprayag. Bhagirathi meets from the left are Sutlej, Beas, Ravi,
Alaknanda at Devprayag. Chenab and Jhelum. The major rivers that
31. Which of the following is not a tributary of join the Indus River from the right are
Ganga? Shyok, Kabul, Kurram and Gomal.
(a) Yamuna (b) Gomti 34. Delhi is situated on the banks of
(c) Kosi (d) Manas …………… river-
(d) (a) Yamuna (b) Kosi
• India has mainly four river systems: Indus (c) Gangotri (d) Yamunotri
in North India, Ganga in Central India, (a)
Brahmaputra in North-East India and • Delhi is situated on the banks of river
rivers like Narmada, Kaveri and Yamuna. In the year 1911, Delhi was
Mahanadi in Peninsular India form a vast made the capital of India (transferred
river system. from Kolkata).

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• Which is still the capital of India. The Bengal and goes to Bangladesh. In
cities of Agra and Mathura are also Bangladesh it is known as Padma.
situated on the banks of river Yamuna. • In Bangladesh, Padma (Ganga), Jamuna
35. Which of the following rivers spreads in (Brahmaputra) and Meghna rivers meet
the Sapta Sindhu region and later dries and fall into the Bay of Bengal forming
up? the world's largest delta. Ganga is the
(a) Jhelum (b) Chenab longest river (2525 km) of India.
(c) Yamuna (d) Saraswati 38. Kalindi is another name of ……………..
(d) river:
• Saraswati River is one of the main rivers (a) Ganga (b) Bhagirathi
described in the mythological Hindu (c) Yamuna (d) Brahmaputra
Vedas and Rigveda. In a verse of the Nadi (c)
Sukta of Rigveda, Saraswati River is said • Kalindi is another name of Yamuna
to flow to the east of Yamuna and west of River. It is named Kalindi because it
Sutlej. originates from Kalind Mountain.
• In later Vedic texts like Tandya and 39. Which of the following statements is not
Jaimini Brahman, Saraswati River is true about Indian rivers?
described as dried up in the desert. (a) Himalayan rivers are perennial
36. Which of the following is the longest river (b) Peninsular rivers are seasonal
that originates in India? (c) Himalayan rivers form very small deltas
(a) Mahanadi (b) Jhelum (d) Peninsular rivers have less water volume
(c) Ganga (d) Brahmaputra (c)
(c) • Himalayan rivers form very large deltas
• Ganga is the longest river of India. It (Ganga-Brahmaputra delta).
covers a total distance of 2525 km in India • The rivers originating from the
and Bangladesh. Himalayas are formed by melting snow
• Its origin is Gangotri glacier in and glaciers. Hence, there is a continuous
Uttarakhand and it drains into the Bay of flow in them throughout the year.
Bengal. Its tributaries are Mahakali, Kosi, • During monsoon, there is heavy rainfall
Gandak, Ghaghara etc. in the Himalayan region. Hence, its
37. By what name is the main branch of the volume fluctuates.
Ganga known after entering Bangladesh? 40. Which is the longest river of India, which
(a) Hooghly River (b) Yamuna River does not flow into the sea?
(c) Meghna River (d) Padma River (a) Ganga (b) Yamuna
(d) (c) Tapti (d) Kaveri
• The Ganga River originates from the (b)
Gangotri glacier near Gomukh on the • Yamuna is the largest tributary of Ganga.
Garhwal Himalayas of Uttarakhand in the Its length is 1385 km.
name of Bhagirathi. • It originates from a glacier called
• After the Bhagirathi and Alaknanda rivers Yamunotri and it meets Ganga at
meet at Devprayag, it is known as Ganga. Prayagraj.
• It passes through Rishikesh, Haridwar, 41. Brahmaputra River does not flow through
Kanpur, Farrukhabad, Prayagraj, which of the following countries?
Ghazipur, Varanasi, Chhapra, Patna, (a) China (b) Bangladesh
Sonpur, Bhagalpur and Farakka in West

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(c) India (d) Nepal Reason (R): The more sacred a river is, the
(d) more polluted it is.
• Brahmaputra River does not flow through Choose the correct answer from the code
Nepal, Brahmaputra river flows through given below -
Tibet, India and Bangladesh. Code:
42. Which of the following rivers originates (a) (A) and (R) both are correct, and (R) is the
from Sikkim and flows through West correct explanation of (A).
Bengal and enters Bangladesh? (b) (A) and (R) both are correct, but (R) is not
(a) Teesta (b) Ghaggar the correct explanation of (A).
(c) Dhansiri (d) Damodar (c) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(a) (d) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
• The Teesta River passes through Sikkim, (c)
West Bengal and Bangladesh. • It is true that Ganga is one of the most
• This river originates from 'Cholamu (Tso polluted rivers in the world, but the reason
Lhamo) Lake' near Kangse Glacier in for this is not its purity.
Sikkim, India. This river is called the • The biggest reason for the pollution of
lifeline of Sikkim and Bengal. Ganga is the mixing of untreated
• The Rangit River is the largest river of pollutants of cities into the river Ganga.
Sikkim which is the largest tributary of 46. Mandakini River is related to which water
Teesta. flow or Main River?
43. Ganga river is an example of - (a) Alaknanda (b) Bhagirathi
(a) Antecedent drainage (c) Yamuna (d) Dhauliganga
(b) Consequent drainage (a)
(c) Non-sequent drainage • Mandakini River originates from
(d) Successive drainage Chorabari lake.
(a) • It meets Kali Ganga at Son Prayag and
• Ganga River is an example of antecedent moves forward. It meets Alaknanda at a
drainage. place called Rudraprayag, south of
44. The rivers forming the Sundarban delta Badrinath.
are - 47. Eastern Dhauliganga is a tributary of -
(a) Ganga and Brahmaputra (a) Alaknanda (b) Kali river
(b) Ganga and Jhelum (c) Gomti river (d) Sharda river
(c) Indus and Jhelum (b)
(d) Ganga and Indus • Eastern Dhauliganga River is a tributary
(a) of Kali River.
• Sunderban delta is the world's largest • Kali River meets Kalapani near Lipulekh
river delta located in India and pass. Its major tributaries are Gori,
Bangladesh. Kuthujangati, Sarju, Lohavati, Ladhiya
• It is formed by the rivers Ganga, etc.
Brahmaputra and Meghna. About two- 48. At which of the following places do
thirds of it lies in Bangladesh and the rest Bhagirathi and Alaknanda rivers meet?
in India. (a) Dev Prayag (b) Karna Prayag
45. Statement (A): Ganga is a very polluted (c) Vishnu Prayag (d) Rudraprayag
river. (a)

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• Dev Prayag is a famous pilgrimage place (b)
located in Tehri Garhwal district of • Among the given options, Son River has
Uttarakhand. It is situated at the the largest catchment area.
confluence of Alaknanda and Bhagirathi • Mahananda - 207.285 sq. km.
rivers. After this confluence, the river is • Son - 70,055 sq. km.
known as 'Ganga'. Dev Prayag is • Ramganga - 30,811.48 sq. km.
considered one of the Panch Prayags of • Gandak - 45,731 sq. km.
Uttarakhand. 53. 'Moribund Delta' is a subdivision of which
• Dhauliganga and Alaknanda rivers meet of the following deltas?
at Vishnu Prayag. (a) Krishna-Godavari Delta
49. Name the river which flows between (b) Mahanadi Delta
Kedarnath and Rudraprayag. (c) Bengal Delta
(a) Bhagirathi (b) Alaknanda (d) Cauvery Delta
(c) Saryu (d) Mandakini (c)
(d) • The two Himalayan rivers Ganga and
• The river flowing between Kedarnath and Brahmaputra together with a non-
Rudraprayag is Mandakini. Himalayan river Meghna form the world's
50. Identify the only tributary of the Ganga largest delta, known as Ganga-
River which has its origin in the plains. Brahmaputra Delta, Ganges Delta,
(a) Son (b) Sharda or Sundarban Delta or Bengal Delta.
Saryu • It is divided into two parts, the western
(c) Gomti (d) Ramganga dormant delta and the eastern active
(c) Meghna delta plain. The western dormant
• The origin of the Gomti River is in delta is further divided into three sub-
Gomttal (Phulhar Lake), district Pilibhit, divisions- moribund delta, mature delta
Uttar Pradesh. and tidal active delta. Moribund delta was
• It is the only tributary of the Ganga River given this name by Bagchi (1944).
which has its origin in the plains. 54. Which one of the following rivers is not a
51. Which range acts as a watershed between part of the Indian Ganga River Basin?
Yamuna and Son? (a) Punpun River (b) Ajay River
(a) Bhander (b) Kaimur (c) Jalangi River (d) Jonk River
(c) Maikal (d) Mukundwara (d)
(b) • Jonk River is a part of Mahanadi Basin
• The Kaimur range acts as a watershed which is a tributary of Mahanadi, which
between Yamuna and Son rivers. flows through Odisha and Chhattisgarh
• The Son River is a major tributary of the states of India.
Ganga flowing in peninsular India. • Punpun, Ajay and Jalangi Rivers are part
• The Kaimur range determines the north- of Ganga River Basin. Punpun River
western boundary of the Son River. It flows in Jharkhand and Bihar, Ajay River
meets the Ganga near Patna. flows in Jharkhand and West Bengal and
52. Which of the following rivers has the Jalangi River flows in West Bengal.
largest catchment area? 55. Consider the following rivers -
(a) Mahananda (b) Son 1. Barak 2. Lohit 3. Subansiri
(c) Ramganga (d) Gandak Which of the above flows through
Arunachal Pradesh?

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(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 and 3 (c) Brahmaputra and Indus
(c) Only 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Indus and Ganga
(b) (c)
• Lohit, Subansiri Rivers flow through • The origin of Brahmaputra and Indus
Arunachal Pradesh, while Barak River rivers is the Tibetan plateau.
originates from Manipur hills and flows 58. Leh is situated in -
through Manipur, Mizoram and Assam (a) On the right bank of Jhelum river
and enters Bangladesh. (b) On the left bank of Jhelum river
56. Consider the following statements with (c) On the right bank of Indus river
reference to the Teesta river - (d) On the left bank of Indus river
1. The Teesta River has the same origin as (c)
the Brahmaputra but it flows through • At the time of question, Leh city was
Sikkim. located on the right bank of Indus River
2. The Rangit River originates in Sikkim in the state of Jammu and Kashmir. Since
and is a tributary of the Teesta River. 31 October 2019, Leh city is located in
3. The Teesta River flows into the Bay of the Union Territory of Ladakh.
Bengal on the border of India and 59. Which one of the following is not correctly
Bangladesh. matched?
Which of the above statements is/are (a) Gorakhpur-Rapti (b) Ludhiana-Ravi
correct - (c) Jabalpur-Narmada (d) Surat-Tapti
(a) Only 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 (b)
(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 • Ludhiana (Punjab) is situated on the old
(b) bank of Sutlej River. The remaining pairs
• The Teesta River originates from the are correctly matched.
Khangchung Chho glacial lake in Sikkim 60. Which one of the following is not situated
as the Chhonbo Chhu River at an altitude on the banks of Mandakini River?
of 5280 meters. (a) Gaurikund (b) Rambada
• The origin of the Brahmaputra River is (c) Govind Ghat (d) Guptkashi
the Angsi Glacier in Western Tibet. Thus (c)
statement (1) is incorrect. • Gaurikund, Rambada and Guptkashi are
• The Rangit River originates in Sikkim.
situated on the banks of Mandakini River,
This river is a tributary of the Teesta while Govindghat is situated on the banks
River. Thus statement (2) is correct. The of Alaknanda and Lakshman Ganga
Teesta River is a tributary of the rivers.
Brahmaputra.
61. Pahalgam in Kashmir is situated on the
• The Teesta River flows through Sikkim
banks of which river?
and West Bengal in India, meets the
(a) Shyok (b) Jhelum
Brahmaputra in Bangladesh and falls into
(c) Lidder (d) Chenab
the Bay of Bengal. Thus statement (3) is
(c)
incorrect. Hence option (b) is the correct
• Pahalgam in Kashmir is situated on the
answer.
banks of Lidder River. Lidder, a tributary
57. Which of the following rivers have almost
of the Jhelum River
the same source point?
(a) Brahmaputra and Ganga
(b) Tapi and Beas

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62. Compare the Himalayan river with the • Chandra and Bhaga rivers flow in the
Peninsular river on the basis of the Lahaul valley of the Himalayan state of in
following comparisons- India.
1. Most of the Himalayan Rivers are • Chandra River originates from a glacier
perennial while most of the Peninsular near Chandra Tal, while Bhaga River
Rivers are rain fed. originates near Bara Lacha La. Chandra
2. The slope of the Himalayan River is and Bhaga meet near Tandi and it is called
steeper than that of the Peninsular Chandrabhaga River/Chenab River.
River. 65. Which of the following rivers of India cuts
3. The Peninsular river cauces more all the Himalayan ranges?
exosion along its path than the (a) Ravi (b) Sutlej
Himalayan river. (c) Beas (d) Chenab
Choose the correct answer from the (b)
options given below- • The Sutlej River cuts the Himalayan
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only ranges and forms a deep gorge. This river
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 is a trans-Himalayan river.
(a) 66. Which of the following rivers is not a
• Most of the Himalayan Rivers are tributary of the Sutlej River?
perennial which derive water from the (a) Baspa (b) Spiti
Himalayan glaciers while most of the (c) Ravi (d) Beas
Peninsular Rivers are rain fed. (c)
• The slope of the Himalayan River is • Ravi is a tributary of Chenab and a sub-
steeper than that of the Peninsular River. tributary of Sutlej.
• Himalayan River is an example of Young • Baspa, Spiti and Beas are tributaries of
River and it causes more erosion than the Sutlej.
Peninsular River. 67. Consider the following rivers -
63. With reference to the Indus river system, 1. Kishanganga 2. Ganga
three of the following four rivers join one 3. Wainganga 4. Penganga
of the following rivers, which join the If these rivers are arranged in order on the
Indus River directly. Which one of the basis of north-south direction, then the
following rivers joins the Indus River correct sequence will be -
directly? (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4
(a) Chenab (b) Jhelum (c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (d) 1 2, 4, 3
(c) Ravi (d) Sutlej
(a)
(d) So, the correct order of the above rivers on
• Ravi and Jhelum rivers join Chenab, the basis of north-south direction is as
Chenab joins Sutlej and then Sutlej joins follows-
the Indus River. 1. Kishanganga (Kashmire region)
64. In which region in India do Chandra and 2. Ganga (Uttrakhand)
Bhaga rivers flow? 3 Wainganga (Madhya Pradesh)
(a) Spiti (b) Ladakh 4. Penganga (Maharashtra)
(c) Lahaul (d) Kargil 68. Match List-I with List-II and select the
(c) correct answer using the code given below-
List-I List-II

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(Doab) (Rivers) (a) Shyok-Spiti- Zanskar -Sutlej

A. Bist Doab 1. Between Ravi (b) Shyok- Zanskar -Spiti-Sutlej
and Chenab (c) Zanskar -Shyok-Sutlej-Spiti
B. Bari Doab 2. Between Ravi (d) Zanskar Sutlej-Shyok-Spiti
and Beas
Central (b)
C. Rachna Doab 3. Between Beas • Therefore, the correct sequence of the
and Sutlej above rivers from north to south is Shyok-
D. Chaj Doab 4. Between Zanskar -Spiti-Sutlej.
Chenab and 72. Kapili is a tributary of -
Jhelum (a) Gandak (b) Kosi
Code:
(c) Ganga (d) Brahmaputra
A B C D
(d)
(a) 3 2 1 4
• Kapili (Kopili) river is a tributary of
(b) 1 2 3 4
Brahmaputra river, Kampur town is
(c) 4 3 2 1
situated on the bank of this river.
(d) 1 4 2 3
73. Match List-I with List-II and select the
(a)
correct answer using the code given below
The correct matching is as follows -
the lists -
(Doab) (Rivers)
List-I List-II
• Bist Doab - Between Beas and Sutlej
(River) (Tributary)
• Bari Doab - Between Ravi and Beas
A. Ganga 1. Bhima
• Rachna Doab - Between Ravi and
B. Godavari 2. Ken
Chenab
C. Krishna 3. Manjira
• Chaj Doab - Between Chenab and
D. Yamuna 4. Son
Jhelum
Code:
69. Which of the following rivers does not have
A B C D
its source in glaciers?
(a) 4 2 3 1
(a) Yamuna (b) Alaknanda
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) Kosi (d) Mandakini
(c) 3 4 1 2
(c) (d) 4 3 1 2
• Kosi River is formed by the confluence of
(d)
three streams, Sun, Arun and Tamor Kosi.
The matching of the above given main rivers
Hence, in the context of this question,
and their tributaries is as follows -
Kosi will be the most appropriate answer.
(Main River) - (Tributary)
70. From which river does water come in • Ganga - Son
Triveni Canal? • Godavari - Manjira
(a) Son (b) Kosi • Krishna - Bhima
(c) Gandak (d) Mayurakshi • Yamuna - Ken
(c) 74. Sankosh River forms the border of whose
• Water comes in Triveni Canal from country?
Gandak River. It is located in West (a) Between Bihar and West Bengal
Champaran district (Bihar). (b) Between Assam and Arunachal Pradesh
71. Which of the following is the correct (c) Between Assam and West Bengal
sequence of the rivers given below from (d) Between Bihar and Jharkhand
north to south in India?

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(c) • Mahanadi - Shivnath

• Sankosh River forms the boundary • Damodar - Barakar
between Assam and West Bengal. • Kaveri - Bhavani
75. Match List-I and List-II and select the 77. Consider the following pairs -
correct answer using the code given below- (Tributary) (Main River)
List-I List-II 1. Chambal Narmada
(Origin area) (River) 2. Son Yamuna
A. Brahmagiri Hills 1. Kaveri 3. Manas Brahmaputra
B. Verinag Sota 2. Jhelum Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
(waterfall) matched?
C. Mahabaleshwar 3. Krishna
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 and 2
D. Chotanagpur 4.
Plateau Subarnarekha (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) Only 3
Codes: (d)
A B C D • The Chambal River originates from
(a) 4 3 2 1 Janapav hill near Mhow (Madhya
(b) 1 2 3 4 Pradesh) and merges with the Yamuna
(c) 2 1 4 3 River near Etawah.
(d) 3 2 1 4 • The Son River joins the Ganga. It is clear
(b) that pairs 1 and 2 are not matched. The
The correct matching is as follows - Manas River is a tributary of the
(Origin area) - (River) Brahmaputra. Hence pair 3 is matched.
• Brahmagiri Hills - Cauvery
• Verinag Sota (waterfall) - Jhelum Peninsular River
• Mahabaleshwar - Krishna
• Chotanagpur Plateau - Subarnarekha 78. Which of the following rivers flows
76. Match List-I and List-II and choose the towards the east?
correct answer from the codes given below (a) Mandvi (b) Tapti
- (c) Damodar (d) Narmada
List-I List-II (c)
(River) (Tributary) • Damodar River is a tributary of Hooghly
A. Godavari 1. Bhavani River. It flows from west to east through
B. Mahanadi 2. Penganga Jharkhand and West Bengal.
C. Damodar 3. Shivnath • This river originates from the hills of
D. Cauvery 4. Barakar Chhota Nagpur plateau of Jharkhand.
Code - • Damodar River is called the sorrow of
A B C D Bengal.
(a) 4 2 1 3 • Narmada, Tapti, Mandvi are the rivers
(b) 2 3 4 1 falling into the Arabian Sea.
(c) 1 2 4 3 79. Which of the following river basins is the
(d) 3 1 2 4 most populated river basin in the world?
(b) (a) Ganga (b) Nile
The correct matching is as follows - (c) Amazon (d) Mississippi
River Tributary (a)
• Godavari - Penganga

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• Ganga is a very important river of India. and this river merges into the Gulf of
One-fourth of the country's water Khambhat.
resources are present in its vast basin and • Banas River is a river flowing in the
more than 40 crore people live in this Indian state of Rajasthan which originates
region, which is the most populated basin from Kumbhalgarh (Aravalli Mountain)
in the world. This river passes through and merges with the Sambal River in
five states of India. Sawai Madhopur.
80. Which of the following is a non-perennial 82. Which of the following rivers is not one of
river? the three major rivers originating from the
(a) Brahmaputra (b) Ganga Western Ghats?
(c) Indus (d) Krishna (a) Godavari (b) Tungabhadra
(d) (c) Mahanadi (d) Kaveri
• Krishna River is the second largest river (c)
of peninsular India, which originates • East flowing rivers, which originate from
from the Western Ghats range near Western Ghats and flow towards east,
Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra and flows three rivers Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri
in the south-east direction for a length of are prominent among them. Other rivers
1400 km. and falls into the Bay of Bengal. include Tungabhadra, Bhima,
• It is a non-perennial river. Its drainage Ghatprabha, Hemavati etc.
area is spread over an area of 258948 sq. • Mahanadi originates from Sihawa
km., which flows in Maharashtra, mountain located in Dhamtari district
Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra near Raipur (Chhattisgarh), whose flow is
Pradesh. from east to south east and forms a delta
• Its major tributaries are Bhima and in the Bay of Bengal near Cuttack.
Tungabhadra. Its other tributaries are Hirakund Dam is situated on this river in
Koyna, Dudh Ganga, Musi, Ghatprabha Odisha. Its tributaries are Hasde,
etc. Perennial rivers have water flow Shivnath, Jonk, Tel etc.
throughout the year while non- 83. Purna and Girna rivers are tributaries of
perennial/seasonal rivers often dry up in which of the following river systems?
the summer season. (a) Tapti (b) Godavari
81. Which of the following rivers originates (c) Kaveri (d) Narmada
from the Aravalli mountain range and (a):
disappears in the Rann of Kutch? • Purna and Girna rivers are tributaries of
(a) Chambal (b) Sabarmati Tapti.
(c) Luni (d) Banas • Other tributaries of Tapti are Panzara,
(c): Waghur Bori and Anar.
• Luni River originates from the Aravalli 84. Which of these rivers originates near
mountain range in Rajasthan. Flowing Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra?
through Rajasthan, Gujarat, it disappears (a) Krishna (b) Tapti
in the Rann of Kutch. Hence, it is also (c) Kosi (d) Narmada
called an inland river. (a)
• Sabarmati River drains the southern • The origin of Krishna River is located
branch of the Aravalli range. Tributary near Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra. Its
rivers join Sabarmati on its eastern side total length is 1400 km. Its tributaries are
Varna, Koyna, Panchganga, Dudhganga,

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Tungabhadra, Ghatprabha, Malprabha, • It originates near Sihawa in Raipur
Musi and Bhima. district of Chhattisgarh and flows through
• Tapti River originates from Multai in Odisha and falls into the Bay of Bengal.
Madhya Pradesh. 88. Lokpavani and Bhavani are tributaries of
• Kosi River originates from Gosaidhan …………. river.
peak (Nepal). (a) Godavari (b) Mahanadi
• Narmada River originates from (c) Krishna (d) Kaveri
Amarkantak hill in Madhya Pradesh. (d)
85. ……… river flows through the Malwa • Lokpavani and Bhavani are tributaries of
plateau. the Kaveri River.
(a) Rangeet (b) Godavari • Other tributaries of Kaveri are Hemavati,
(c) Betwa (d) Bhima Arkavati, Lakshmana Tirtha, Kabini,
(c) Amaravati River etc.
• Betwa River flows through the Malwa • Kaveri River originates from Brahmagiri
plateau and joins Yamuna near Hamirpur hill in Karnataka state.
(UP). 89. Regarding Godavari River, which of the
• Its origin is in Vindhya mountain range following statements is incorrect?
(MP). Its main tributaries are Dhasan and (a) Ghataprabha is one of its many
Jamni. It is worth noting that Rajghat, tributaries.
Pariksha and Matatila dams are built on (b) It originates from the slopes of Western
Betwa River. Ghats.
86. Which of the following rivers flows from (c) Its drainage basin covers Andhra Pradesh
east to west? and some other states.
(a) Godavari (b) Krishna (d) It falls into the Bay of Bengal.
(c) Narmada (d) Mahanadi (a)
(c) • Ghataprabha is a tributary of Krishna
• Narmada River flows from east to west. River. It flows in Karnataka. Hence
In contrast, the direction of flow of other option (a) is not related to Godavari.
rivers of peninsular India is from west to • Godavari River is the longest river of
east. peninsular India. It originates from the
• The Narmada River flows through a rift hill of Trimbak in Nasik district of
valley that is why it does not follow the Maharashtra state.
general slope. • Its major tributaries are Penganga,
87. The Mahanadi river system is the third Wainganga, Pranahita, Indravati, Manjra
largest in the Indian peninsula and the etc.
largest river of -------. 90. Banas is a tributary of which of the
(a) West Bengal (b) Assam following rivers?
(c) Odisha (d) Telangana (a) Chambal (b) Rapti
(c) (c) Tunga (d) Gandak
• The Mahanadi river system is the third (a)
largest in the Indian peninsula and the • Banas River is a tributary of Chambal and
largest river of Odisha. Chambal itself is a tributary of Yamuna.
It is located entirely within the state of
Rajasthan in western India.
• The length of Banas is about 512 km.

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• This river originates from Khamnor Hills • It is also called 'Dakshin Ganga' while
of Aravalli Range, about 5 km from Kaveri River is called 'Ganga of South
Kumbhalgarh in Rajsamand district. India'.
• Chambal River is a tributary of Yamuna 94. Hirakud dam built on .................. river was
River in central and northern India. Total in the news due to dispute over water
length of Chambal is 965 km. Chambal distribution between Odisha and
river joins Yamuna river at Etawah in Chhattisgarh.
U.P.- (a) Mahanadi (b) Indravati
91. Which river system originates from Bastar (c) Damodar (d) Shankh
Hills of Madhya Pradesh? (a)
(a) Mahanadi River System • Hirakud dam built on Mahanadi was in
(b) Krishna River System the news due to dispute over water
(c) Tapti River System distribution between Odisha and
(d) Kaveri River System Chhattisgarh.
(a) • It is the largest and longest dam in the
• Mahanadi used to originate from the world.
Bastar Hills of Madhya Pradesh. At 95. Which of the following statements about
present, Mahanadi originates from the rivers of India is incorrect?
Sihawa Hills situated in the Bastar Hills (a) Mahanadi originates near Sihawa in
of Chhattisgarh. Raipur district of Chhattisgarh.
• Shivnath Hansdev, Mand, Jonk and Tel (b) Krishna river originates near
are its tributaries. Mahabaleshwar in Sahyadri.
92. Name the river of Central India, whose (c) Kaveri river originates in Brahmagiri hills
total length is about 724 km, which in Karnataka.
originates from Betul, Madhya Pradesh, (d) Godavari river originates in Jabalpur
and meets the Arabian Sea? district of Madhya Pradesh.
(a) Tapti/Tapi River (b) Godavari River (d)
(c) Krishna River (d) Kaveri River • Godavari River originates from Trimbak
(a) hill located in Nasik in Maharashtra. It is
• Tapti is an important west-flowing river. the largest and longest river of peninsular
Which originates from Multai in Betul India. It is also called Dakshin Ganga or
district of Madhya Pradesh. Vriddaganga.
• Its length is about 724 km. It flows in a • Godavari flows from its origin towards
parallel valley of Narmada. south-east and east and merges into the
• Its basin covers parts of Madhya Pradesh, Bay of Bengal.
Gujarat and Maharashtra. • The major tributaries of Godavari are
93. Which of the following rivers is called Penganga, Indravati, Wainganga, Manjra,
'Dakshin Ganga'? Pranhita, Wardha etc. Hence option 4 is
(a) Narmada (b) Godavari wrong.
(c) Periyar (d) Tapti 96. Which of the following rivers originates
(b) from Amarkantak hills?
• Godavari River originates from Trimbak (a) Teesta (b) Godavari
hill in Nashik district. (c) Narmada (d) Sutlej
(c)

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• Narmada River is a west flowing river of (a) Luni (b) Ghaggar
Indian peninsula. Which originates near (c) Chambal (d) Banas
Amarkantak range in Madhya Pradesh. (a)
• This river flows through Madhya Pradesh • Among the given options, Luni is the only
and Gujarat states in India. It is also river that flows in the western part of
known as "Lifeline of Madhya Pradesh Rajasthan.
and Gujarat" for its life giving • Luni River originates from the Nag hills
importance. of Ajmer district of Rajasthan. This river
• It is also considered as the divider of flows in the states of Rajasthan and
North India and South India. Its Gujarat.
tributaries are Doodhi, Tawa, Hiran, 100. Which of the following rivers flows
Hathini etc. through Surat?
97. Tapi River originates from................ (a) Kim (b) Rupen
(a) Aravalli mountain range (c) Mahanadi (d) Tapti
(b) Satpura mountain range (d)
(c) Nilgiri hills • Tapti originates from Multai in Betul
(d) Himalaya mountain range district of Madhya Pradesh state and
(b) flows westward through the Satpura
• The Satpura mountain range is situated Mountains, crossing Jalgaon plateau of
between the Narmada and Tapi rivers. Maharashtra and Surat plains and falls
• The Tapi River originates from the into the Arabian Sea.
eastern central part of the Satpura. Its [Link] of the following rivers does not
length is 724 km. and its tributaries are originate in India?
Giran, Panjara and Purna. (a) Koel (b) Sankh
• In India, only Narmada, Tapti and Mahi (c) Brahmaputra (d) Brahmani
rivers are the main rivers that flow from (c)
east to west. • The Brahmaputra River originates from a
98. Which is the largest peninsular river of glacier called 'Chemayungdung' near
India? Mansarovar in the south of Tibet. It flows
(a) Godavari (b) Kaveri through Tibet, India and Bangladesh.
(c) Krishna (d) Narmada • In Tibet it is called 'Sangpo', in Arunachal
(a) Pradesh it is called 'Dihag' and in Assam
• The Godavari River is the largest river of it is called 'Brahmaputra'. Its length is
peninsular India and is famous as about 2900 km. Its major tributaries are
Dakshin Ganga. Dibang, Kameng, Lohit, Manas, Teesta,
• The Godavari basin is the second largest Dhansiri, Barak etc.
basin after the Ganga basin. [Link] of these rivers flows in Dadra and
• This river originates near Trimbakeshwar Nagar Haveli?
in Nasik district of Maharashtra and (a) Mithi (b) Tapti
forms the interstate border between (c) Daman (d) Godavari
Maharashtra and Telangana. Its total (c)
length is 1465 km. • Daman River, which originates from
99. Which of the following is the only river Sahyadri mountain of Gujarat and flows
that flows in the western part of towards Arabian Sea, flows in Dadra and
Rajasthan?

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Nagar Haveli. It is also the main source of [Link] of the following rivers of India
irrigation here. flows from east to west?
• Its total length is 131 km. Vapi and (a) Tungabhadra (b) Godavari
Silvassa cities are situated on its banks. (c) Narmada (d) Mahanadi
103. Which of the following rivers falls into the (c)
Bay of Bengal? • Rivers generally flow following the relief
(a) Indus (b) Kaveri pattern (Slope).
(c) Narmada (d) Tapti • Almost all the peninsular rivers of India
(b) flow from west to east following the
• Kaveri River falls into the Bay of Bengal. peninsular current and fall into the Bay of
• This river originates from Brahmagiri Bengal. Such as Mahanadi, Godavari,
hills in Kodagu district of Karnataka and Krishna, Kaveri etc.
falls into the Bay of Bengal near • Narmada and Tapti rivers are two such
Tiruchirapalli in Tamil Nadu. major rivers of peninsular India which
104. Which of the following rivers is a good flow from the Rift valley and flow from
example of superimposed drainage east to west and fall into the Arabian Sea.
system? [Link] of the following rivers falls into the
(a) Gomti (b) Brahmaputra Arabian Sea?
(c) Swarnarekha (d) Ganga (a) Godavari (b) Luni
(c) (c) Sabarmati (d) Krishna
• When the surface structure in a (c)
geomorphological region is different The rivers of peninsular India are divided into
from the structure below, then the following two parts-
superimposed drainage system develops. • Rivers falling into the Arabian Sea:
• The river becomes quite deep while Sabarmati, Narmada, Tapti, Mahi,
eroding; its example is Son River, Periyar, Mandvi, Zuari etc.
Chambal and Swarnarekha River etc. • Rivers falling into the Bay of Bengal:
105. Luni River originates from which Krishna, Kaveri, Godavari, Mahanadi,
mountain range? Suvarnarekha, Brahmani, Vaitarni etc.
(a) Himalayas (b) Satpura [Link] is the major river flowing through
(c) Vindhyachal (d) Aravalli the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar
(d) Haveli?
• Luni River originates from Nag mountain (a) Pinjal (b) Daman Ganga
of Aravalli range near Ajmer in Rajasthan (c) Narmada (d) Paar
state of northwestern India and flows (b)
through south-western Rajasthan Nagaur, • The Daman Ganga river originates from a
Pali, Jodhpur, Barmer Jalore and place called Ambegaon (Nashik district)
disappears in Rann of Kutch. near the Sahyadri mountain range.
• At its origin, it is called Sagarmati, then • Its drainage area is 2318 sq km and it
Saraswati and later Luni. Due to high flows through Maharashtra, Gujarat and
salinity in the water of this river, it is also the Union Territories of Dadra and Nagar
known as ' Salt River'. Its drainage area is Haveli and Daman and Diu. It falls into
Rajasthan and Gujarat. the Arabian Sea near Daman.

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109. Which of the following rivers flow • Its major tributaries are Ghatprabha,
towards the west and join the Arabian Panchganga, Tungabhadra, Bhima, Musi,
Sea? Malaprabha etc.
(a) Gandak and Kosi • Vijayawada city is situated on the banks
(b) Mahanadi and Krishna of Krishna River. Manjira River is a
(c) Luni and Kaveri tributary of Godavari. It originates from
(d) Narmada and Tapti Balaghat Mountain.
(d) [Link] of the following is not one of the
• Narmada and Tapti rivers flow towards three rivers whose mutual influence is
the west and join the Arabian Sea. responsible for the formation of the North
• Narmada is the largest west flowing river. Indian plains?
Its length is 1312 km. Narmada originates (a) Indus (b) Ganga
from Amarkantak (Madhya Pradesh) of (c) Brahmaputra (d) Godavari
Maikal Hills of Satpura range. (d)
• Tapti is the second largest west flowing River Origin
river. It originates from Multai Hills of • Indus Mansarovar
Betul district of Madhya Pradesh. • Ganga Gangotri Glacier
110. Which of the following rivers flows in the • Brahmaputra Chema Yungdung Glacier
Andaman and Nicobar Islands? • Godavari Trimbak Hills
(a) Simseng (b) Someshwari Among the above rivers, Godavari River is
(c) Kalpong (d) Umkhrah not one of the three major North Indian rivers
(c) whose mutual influence is responsible for the
• Kalpong River originates from the Saddle formation of the North Indian plains.
Mountain peak of the North Andaman [Link] water dispute is between
Islands. …………….
• Kalpong Hydroelectric Project is built on (a) Karnataka and Telangana
the Kalpong River, which is the largest (b) Karnataka and Goa
hydroelectric project in the Andaman and (c) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
Nicobar Islands. (d) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
111. Which of the following is not a tributary (d)
of the Krishna River? • Cauvery is an inter-state river. Kerala,
(a) Ghataprabha (b) Manjira Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Puducherry
(c) Musi (d) Tungabhadra come under this river basin. The Cauvery
(b) water sharing dispute has been going on
• Krishna River is an important river of since the time of the British Raj,
South India. It originates from the particularly between Karnataka and
Western Ghats range near Tamil Nadu.
Mahabaleshwar in the state of • Many districts of both states are
Maharashtra. Its total length is about 1401 dependent on the Cauvery for irrigation.
km. The provision for settlement of inter-state
• It flows through Maharashtra, Karnataka, river water disputes is in Article 262 of
Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and falls into the Indian Constitution.
the Bay of Bengal. [Link] is it called when a river enters the
plains, where its twists and deviations
create wide bends?

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(a) Oxbow lakes (b) Flood plains from the Indore district of M.P. and meets
(c) Meanders (d) Embankments the Chambal River in Mandsaur district
(c) on the border of Madhya Pradesh and
• When a river enters the plains, where its Rajasthan.
twists and deviations create wide bends, it • It is one of the holy rivers described in
is called meanders. In wide flood and Hinduism. The city of Ujjain is situated
delta plains, rivers do not flow in straight on the banks of this river. Every 12 years,
paths. Kumbh Mela is held here.
• Meanders are not a landform but a type of [Link], Betwa and Son are the rivers
channel pattern. The main reason for the flowing towards ……….
formation of a river meander is the (a) East (b) North
tendency of water flowing on a gentle (c) West (d) South
slope to cause horizontal or lateral (b)
erosion on the banks. • The river flowing from south to north in
115. Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area was India is Chambal, Betwa and Son.
formerly known by which name? • Chambal River- It is a tributary of
(a) Rajasthan Canal (b) Punjab Canal Yamuna River in central India. It
(c) Haryana Canal (d) Gujarat Canal originates from Janapaon Hills (Madhya
(a) Pradesh) and meets Yamuna at Etawah
• Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area was (Uttar Pradesh).
formerly known as 'Rajasthan Canal'. • Betwa River- It is a river of North India.
• It was named after Indira Gandhi in the This river originates from the Kamar
year 1984. gaon (Raisen) in Madhya Pradesh.
116. Kolleru Lake located in the southern part • Son River- It originates from
of Andhra Pradesh is situated on the delta Amarkantak Plateau of Anuppur district
of two rivers, which are those rivers? of Madhya Pradesh and goes northwards
(a) Tungabhadra and Chitravali to the Kaimur Hills and joins the Ganga
(b) Godavari and Krishna River near Patna in Bihar.
(c) Godavari and Mahanadi [Link] river is a tributary of
(d) Krishna and Kaveri …………….-
(b) (a) Godavari (b) Kaveri
• Koleru Lake is located on the delta of two (c) Mahanadi (d) Krishna
rivers Godavari and Krishna in Krishna (d)
district of Andhra Pradesh. It is a • Tungabhadra River is a famous river
freshwater lake. flowing in South India. It originates from
117. Kshipra River is located in ……….... the Western Ghats and joins the Krishna
(a) Odisha River in Andhra Pradesh.
(b) West Bengal • Tungabhadra is a tributary of Krishna.
(c) Bihar The major tributaries of Krishna River are
(d) Madhya Pradesh Tungabhadra, Ghatprabha, Musi, Bhima
(d) etc.
• Kshipra River is also known as Shipra [Link] river is located in …
River. It is a river flowing in the Madhya (a) Maharashtra (b) Tripura
Pradesh state of India, which originates (c) Gujarat (d) Goa
(a)

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• Savitri River originates from [Link] of the following rivers among the
Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra state and three rivers of Triveni Sangam of
flows through Raigad to join the Arabian Allahabad is an underground river?
Sea. (a) Ganga (b) Yamuna
121. Which of the following pairs of rivers (c) Saraswati (d) Kaveri
flows in the southern part of India? (c)
(a) Krishna and Ganga • Prayagraj is the confluence of Ganga,
(b) Kaveri and Godavari Yamuna and Saraswati. People believe
(c) Narmada and Tapi that Saraswati flows invisibly under the
(d) Brahmaputra and Yamuna streams of Ganga and Yamuna, so the
(b) confluence here is called Shivni Sangam.
• Kaveri and Godavari rivers flow in the [Link] river is the largest tributary of
southern part of India. Godavari river along with the waters of
• Krishna River- It is the main river of Penganga ……………… river and
South India, it originates from Wainganga river.
Mahabaleshwar mountain of Western (a) Wardha (b) Koyna
Ghats, its length is 1387 km, it flows in (c) Tapti (d) Ulhas
the south-east and falls into the Bay of (a)
Bengal. Tungabhadra, Musi and Bhima • Pranhita is the largest tributary of
are its tributaries. Godavari River. Which covers about 34
• Godavari River- Godavari River is also percent of its drainage basin.
called the Ganga of the South, it [Link] of the following rivers originates in
originates from Trimbak mountain under Tibet?
the mountain range of Western Ghats, it (a) Godavari (b) Mahanadi
originates from Nasik district of (c) Brahmaputra (d) Son
Maharashtra and flows through (c)
Telangana and Andhra Pradesh and falls (River) (Place of Origin)
into the Bay of Bengal. Its tributaries are Godavari Trimbak Hills (Maharashtra)
Pranahita, Indravati, Manjira etc. Mahanadi Sihawa (Chhattisgarh)
122. Godavari River does not pass through Brahmaputra Mansarovar Lake (Tibet)
which state? Son Amarkantak Hills (MP)
(a) Maharashtra (b) Gujarat [Link] of the following rivers originates
(c) Chhattisgarh (d) Andhra from the Western Ghats?
Pradesh (a) Ghaggar (b) Krishna
(b) (c) Damodar (d) Son
• Godavari originates from the (b)
Trimbakeshwar hills of Maharashtra. • Krishna River originates from
• This river flows through the four states of Mahabaleshwar Mountain of Western
India, Maharashtra (Nashik district), Ghats.
Telangana, Chhattisgarh and Andhra • Ghaggar River originates from the
Pradesh and one union territory, Shivalik mountain range of the
Puducherry, and falls into the Bay of northwestern Himalayan region state,
Bengal. Godavari is the longest (1465 while Damodar River originates from the
km) river of South India. Chota Nagpur plateau and Son River

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originates from Maikal Mountain • Sabarmati River is a major river of India.
(Amarkantak). This river originates from the Aravalli
127. Which river is known as 'Sorrow of mountain range in Udaipur district of
Bengal'? Rajasthan state.
(a) Brahmaputra (b) Hooghly • Flowing from Rajasthan, this river flows
(c) Bhagirathi (d) Damodar in the south-west direction and also flows
(d) in the state of Gujarat. Ultimately it falls
• Damodar River is known as 'Sorrow of into the Gulf of Khambhat and merges
Bengal', this river flows in West Bengal with the Arabian Sea.
and Jharkhand. • Major cities like Ahmedabad and
• Before the completion of Damodar river Gandhinagar are situated on the banks of
valley project, this river was notorious for this river.
its barrages, hence it was called 'Sorrow [Link] (A): All the major rivers of
of Bengal'. peninsular India fall into the Bay of
128. Which is the second longest river of India? Bengal, but Narmada and Tapi rivers fall
(a) Narmada (b) Yamuna into the Arabian Sea.
(c) Brahmaputra (d) Godavari Reason (R): Narmada and Tapi rivers flow
(d) through rift valleys.
• The longest river of India is Ganga (2525 Choose the correct answer from the code
km.) and the second longest river is given below:
Godavari (1465 km.). Codes:
• It originates from the Triambak Mountain (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
under the mountain range of Western correct explanation of (A).
Ghats. Its main tributaries are Pranahita, (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is
Indravati, Manjira. not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
129. Which of these rivers flows through
(d) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
Cuttack?
(a) Mahanadi (b) Krishna (a)
(c) Tapti (d) Godavari • All the major rivers of peninsular India
fall into the Bay of Bengal, but the
(a)
Narmada and Tapi rivers fall into the
• Mahanadi originates near Sihawa in the
Arabian Sea.
hills of Chhattisgarh state of Central
• The main reason for this is that these
India.
rivers do not follow the slope of the
• This river is also known as the Sorrow of
plateau but flow through the fault.
Odisha and the Ganga of Chhattisgarh
state. This river merges into the Bay of [Link] of the following rivers splits into
Bengal through several streams. two streams thrice and joins again after
Sambalpur and Cuttack of Odisha are going a few miles ahead and thus forms
located on the banks of Mahanadi. the islands of Srirangapatnam,
Shivasamudram and Srirangam?
130. Sabarmati River originates from which
(a) Kaveri (b) Tungabhadra
state of India?
(c) Krishna (d) Godavari
(a) Rajasthan (b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Bengal (d) Gujarat (a)
• Kaveri River originates from the
(a)
Brahmagiri hills in Kodagu district of

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Karnataka and is 800 km. long and 81155 [Link] the following statements:
sq km. is its drainage area. It merges into 1. There are no east flowing rivers in
the Bay of Bengal near Tiruchirapalli. Its Kerala.
drainage area is spread over Kerala, 2. There are no west flowing rivers in
Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and the Union Madhya Pradesh.
Territory of Puducherry. After Which of the above statements is/are
descending from the hill, the Kaveri river correct?
flows into the Dhak plateau, where it (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
forms the islands of Srirangapatna, (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) neither 1 nor 2
Shivasamudram and Srirangam. (d)
133. What is the correct sequence of Godavari, • The east flowing rivers in Kerala are
Mahanadi, Narmada and Tapti in the Pamabar, Bhavani and Kabani.
descending order of the length of rivers? • In Madhya Pradesh, Narmada, Tapti and
(a) Godavari-Mahanadi-Narmada-Tapti Mahi flow from east to west and fall into
(b) Godavari-Narmada-Mahanadi-Tapti the Arabian Sea. Thus, both the
(c) Narmada-Godavari-Tapti-Mahanadi statements in the question are not correct.
(d) Narmada-Tapti-Godavari-Mahanadi [Link] the following rivers -
(b) 1. Brahmani 2. Nagavali
• The lengths of the above rivers are as 3. Subarnarekha 4. Vansadhara
follows - Which of the above rivers originate from
• Godavari River - 1465 km. the Eastern Ghats?
• Narmada River - 1312 km. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
• Mahanadi - 851 km. (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
• Tapti River - 724 km. (b)
134. The correct north-south order of the east • Brahmani and Subarnarekha rivers
flowing rivers in peninsular India is - originate from the Ranchi plateau, while
(a) Subarnarekha, Mahanadi, Godavari, Nagavali and Vansadhara originate from
Krishna, Pennar, Kaveri and Vaigai the Eastern Ghats.
(b) Subarnarekha, Mahanadi, Krishna, [Link] the rivers given in List-I with their
Godavari, Kaveri, Vaigai and Pennar places of origin given in List-II -
(c) Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Godavari, List-I List-II
Kaveri, Pennar and Vaigai (River) (Place of origin)
(d) Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Krishna, A. Mand 1. Ludeng Hills
Godavari, Kaveri, Vaigai and Pennar B. Banas 2. Sonbera Plateau
(a) C. Jonk 3. Devgarh Hills
• The north to south order of the east D. Kelo 4. Mainpat
flowing rivers in peninsular India is as A B C D
follows: Subarnarekha, Mahanadi, (a) 3 1 4 2
Godavari, Krishna, Pennar, Kaveri and (b) 4 3 2 1
Vaigai. (c) 2 3 1 4
• On looking at the drainage map of India it (d) 1 2 4 3
becomes clear that Subarnarekha river is (b)
flowing towards the northernmost part Correctly matched is -
and Vegai is flowing towards the River Place of Origin
southernmost part. • Mand - Mainpat

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• Banas - Devgarh Hills • Damodar, Koel and Subarnarekha rivers
• Jonk - Sonbera Plateau originate from Chotanagpur Plateau
• Kelo - Ludeng Hills region, Jharkhand. Subarnarekha falls
138. S.P. Chatterjee's scheme of natural independently into Bay of Bengal, while
divisions of India, Mahanadi basin is Damodar joins Hooghly River.
placed in which subdivision of continental [Link] River is a part of which drainage
plateau? system?
(a) Northern Deccan Plateau (a) Arabian Sea
(b) Southern Deccan Plateau (b) Internal drainage
(c) Eastern Plateau (c) Uncertain drainage
(d) Eastern Ghats (d) Bay of Bengal
(a) (d)
• In S.P. Chatterjee's scheme of natural • Khari River is a tributary of Banas and a
divisions of India, Mahanadi basin is sub-tributary of Chambal, Chambal is a
placed in the Northern Deccan Plateau tributary of Yamuna and Yamuna is a
subdivision of continental plateau. tributary of Ganga, which fall into the
139. Which one of the following is not a Bay of Bengal.
tributary of Krishna River? • Thus all these rivers are a part of the Bay
(a) Bhima (b) Dina of Bengal drainage system.
(c) Tel (d) Tungabhadra [Link] List-I with List-II and choose the
(c) correct answer using the code given below
• Tel River is not a tributary of Krishna the lists-
River. List-I List-II
• The major tributaries of Krishna are (Rivers) (Their tributaries)
Koyna, Yerla, Dina, Varna, Panchganga, A. Krishna 1. Chambal
Ghatprabha, Bhima and Tungabhadra. B. Brahmaputra 2. Indravati
Tel River is a major tributary of C. Godavari 3. Teesta
Mahanadi. D. Yamuna 4. Bhima
140. Hangari is a tributary of - Code:
(a) Bhima (b) Godavari A B C D
(c) Krishna (d) Tungabhadra (a) 4 3 2 1
(d) (b) 3 4 1 2
• Hangari River originates from Western (c) 4 3 1 2
Ghats, flows through Karnataka and (d) 3 4 2 1
Andhra Pradesh and joins Tungabhadra (a)
River. The correct matching of the above given main
141. Damodar, Koel and Subarnarekha rivers rivers and their tributaries is as follows -
originate from which of the following? (Main River) (Tributary River)
(a) Deccan Plateau • Krishna - Bhima
(b) Central Highland • Brahmaputra - Teesta
(c) Chotanagpur Plateau • Godavari - Indravati
(d) Meghalaya Plateau • Yamuna - Chambal
(c) [Link] of the following pairs is correct?
(River) (State)
(a) Indravati - Jharkhand

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(b) Bhima - Tamil Nadu
(c) Luni - Rajasthan
(d) Ghatprabha - Kerala
(c)
• Luni River originates from the Aravalli
range in the south-west of Ajmer in
Rajasthan. After flowing for 511 km, it
disappears in the Rann of Kutch region.
Hence, it is not connected to the sea.
• Indravati does not flow in Jharkhand.
• Bhima River is the main river of South
India. This river flows in the states of
Maharashtra, Karnataka and Telangana in
South India, while Ghatprabha River
flows in Maharashtra and Karnataka.
145. Gandikota valley (canyon) of South India
is formed by which one of the following
rivers?
(a) Kaveri (b) Manjira
(c) Pennar (d) Tungabhadra
(c)
• Gandikota valley (canyon) of South India
is formed by Pennar River.
• It is located in YSR (earlier name -
Kadapa) district of Andhra Pradesh.
• Gandikota is made up of two words of
Telugu language 'Gandi' meaning 'Gorge'
and 'Kota' meaning 'Fort'. Gandikota is
called the Grand Canyon of India.
146. Which river has its source near
Mansarovar lake in Tibet?
(a) Brahmaputra
(b) Sutlej
(c) Indus
(d) All of the above
Answer - (d)
• Indus – Origin – Bokhar Chu Glacier
• Sutlej – Rakastal
• Brahmaputra – Chemayugdug, all these
three are near Mansarovar lake.

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Lakes
1. Which of the following is the only lake in • Chilika Lake is Asia's largest and the
India which was formed due to the world's second largest lagoon.
collision of a meteorite on the earth? • Apart from being the largest wintering
(a) Loktak Lake (b) Wular Lake ground for migratory birds (flamingos) in
(c) Lonar Lake (d) Pulicat Lake the Indian subcontinent, it is also home to
(c) many endangered species of plants and
• Lonar Lake is located in Maharashtra. It animals. In the year 1981, this lake was
is a crater lake. Which was formed due to designated as the first Indian wetland of
the fall of a meteorite in the Pleistocene international level under the Ramsar
period. Convention. TamilNadu state has the
2. Where is Kolleru Lake located? highest number of Ramsar sites in India,
(a) Assam 18.
(b) Andhra Pradesh 5. Which of the following lakes of Northeast
(c) Jammu and Kashmir India is the largest freshwater lake?
(d) Gujarat (a) Loktak Lake (b) Pulicat Lake
(b) (c) Dal Lake (d) Kolleru Lake
• Kolleru Lake is located in Andhra (a)
Pradesh. Kolleru Lake is a freshwater • Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake
lake located between the Krishna and of Northeast India located in Manipur.
Godavari deltas. • Floating islands are found in this lake,
• This lake was declared a wildlife which are called 'Phumdis' in the local
sanctuary in 1999 under the Wildlife language.
Protection Act, 1972. After this, it was • The world's only floating park 'Kebul-
declared as a Ramsar site on 19 August Lamjao National Park' is located in
2002. Loktak Lake. This lake is also called the
3. India's largest salt water lake is located in lifeline of Manipur due to its productivity
……. and biodiversity.
(a) Desert region 6. 'Tsomgo Lake' is located in which state of
(b) Krishna Delta India?
(c) Ganges Delta (a) Nagaland (b) Sikkim
(d) Mahanadi Delta (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Goa
(d) (b)
• India's largest salt water lake is Chilika • Tsomgo Lake or Changu Lake is a lake
Lake. This lake is situated on the located at an altitude of 3780 meters in the
Mahanadi Delta in the state of Odisha. East Sikkim district of Sikkim state of
• India's largest inland salt water lake is India. The water of this lake comes from
Sambhar Lake (Rajasthan). the nearby glaciers.
4. Chilika Lake is famous for which of the 7. Which of the following is the largest
following birds/animals? natural freshwater lake in India?
(a) Penguin (b) Flamingo (a) Loktak (b) Wular
(c) Rhinoceros (d) Musk deer (c) Bhimtal (d) Barapani
(b) (b)

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• Wular Lake is the largest natural (c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) Uttar Pradesh
freshwater lake in India. (c)
• Chilika lake of Odisha is the largest in • Dal Lake is a famous lake located in the
India and Asia and the second largest Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
lagoon lake in the world. • This lake is surrounded by hills on three
8. Where is Sambhar Lake located? sides, it is the second largest lake in
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh Jammu and Kashmir.
(c) Gujarat (d) Rajasthan 12. In which state is Nainital Lake located?
(d) (a) Uttarakhand (b) Himachal
• Sambhar Lake is located in Rajasthan. It Pradesh
is the largest inland salt lake in India. (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Assam
• In the year 1990, it was declared a (a)
wetland under Ramsar site. This lake is a • Nainital Lake is located in Uttarakhand.
major source of salt production in the • In Skanda Purana, it is also called Rishi
country. It is the largest salt water lake in Sarovar.
the country. • There are high mountains all around the
9. India's largest coastal salt water lake is lake except the south-eastern part.
located in which of the following states? • The length of this lake is 1500 meters,
(a) Kerala (b) Odisha width is 445 meters and depth is 30
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) West Bengal meters.
(b) 13. Umiam Lake, also known as Barapani
• India's largest coastal salt water lake is Lake, is located in …......
located in the state of Odisha (Chilka (a) Rajasthan (b) Meghalaya
Lake). (c) Uttarakhand (d) Madhya
• Chilika Lake is the largest wintering site Pradesh
for migratory birds on the Indian (b)
subcontinent. • Umiam Lake is a reservoir located in
10. Which Indian waterfall has four different Shillong, the capital of Meghalaya, the
falls namely Raja, Rani, Rocket and northeastern state of India. It is also called
Rorrer? Barapani Lake.
(a) Dudhsagar (b) Hirni • It is a man-made lake. This artificial lake
(c) Achirappilly (d) Jog has been created by blocking the water of
(d) Umiam River coming from the Southern
• Jog Falls is also known as Garsoppa Falls, Khasi Mountains.
it is located in the state of Karnataka. 14. Chitrakoot Falls on the Indravati River,
• It is located at the mouth of the Arabian which is often known as the Niagara Falls
Sea. Its height is 253 m and it is situated of India, is located in ……….-
on the Sharavati River. (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Chhattisgarh
• It is made up of four small waterfalls (c) Uttarakhand (d) Jharkhand
namely Raja, Rani, Rocket and Rorrer. (b)
11. 'Dal Lake' is located in which of the • Chitrakoot Falls on the Indravati River. It
following states of India? is known as the Niagara Falls of India. It
(a) Gujarat (b) Himachal is located in the state of Chhattisgarh.
Pradesh 15. Where is Kunchikal Falls found?

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(a) Kerala (b) Karnataka Kottayam, Alappuzha and Ernakulam
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Telangana districts of Kerala.
(b) 20. Which one of the following is not a lagoon?
• Kunchikal Falls is located in Shimoga (a) Ashtamudi (b) Chilika lake
district of Karnataka. (c) Periyar lake (d) Pulicat lake
• It is officially the highest waterfall in (c)
India. The total height of this waterfall is • Shallow salt water lakes formed in coastal
455 m. And it is situated on the Varahi areas separated from the sea are called
River. lagoon lakes.
16. Choose the odd one out from the following 21. Which of the following is a shared lake of
(a) Dal Lake (b) Sambhar Lake two Indian states?
(c) Vembanad Lake (d) Wullar Lake (a) Chilika (b) Kolleru
(b) (c) Lonar (d) Pulicat
• Sambhar Lake is a salt water lake while (d)
Dal, Wullar and Vembanad lakes are • Pulicat Lake is situated on the border of
fresh water lakes. Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
17. Which of these lakes was formed • Sriharikota Island separates it from the
(developed) by the fall (impact) of a large Bay of Bengal.
meteorite on the basaltic rocks 22. In which state of India is Fulhar Lake
(Cretaceous era) of Deccan? situated?
(a) Lonar (b) Vienna (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Uttarakhand
(c) Rankala (d) Ambazari (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Bihar
(a) (c)
• Lonar Lake was formed by the fall • Gomti River originates in Fulhar Lake, it
(impact) of a large meteorite on the is situated near Mado tanda in Pilibhit
basaltic rocks of Deccan, it is a salt water district (Uttar Pradesh).
lake located in Buldhana district of 23. Which of the following is not correctly
Maharashtra. matched?
18. Khecheopalri Lake is located in which of (a) Vembanad - Kerala
the following states? (b) Loktak - Meghalaya
(a) Nagaland (b) Tripura (c) Dal - Kashmir
(c) Sikkim (d) West Bengal (d) Pulicat - on Andhra Pradesh-Tamil Nadu
(c) border
• Khecheopalri Lake is a beautiful lake in (b)
Sikkim which is considered as a sacred • The matching of the given lakes and their
reservoir by Buddhists as well as Hindus. respective states is as follows –
19. Vembanad lake is in - (Lake) (State/Union Territory)
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Kerala Vembanad Kerala
(c) Odisha (d) Tamil Nadu Loktak Manipur
(b) Dal Jammu and Kashmir
Pulicat on the Andhra Pradesh-Tamil
• Vembanad Lake is the largest lake in
Nadu border
Kerala. It is 83.73 km. long and 14.48 km. 24. Which of the following lakes of India is
wide. Vembanad Lake is surrounded by located in Assam?
(a) Hamirsar Lake (b) Kolleru Lake

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(c) Sala Lake (d) Chapanala (Lakes) (Location)
Lake • Ashtamudi - Kerala
(d) • Pulicut - Tamil Nadu
• Chandubi Lake, Chapanala Lake, • Roopkund - Uttarakhand
Haflong Lake etc. are the prominent lakes • Surajkund - Haryana
of Assam. 28. The snow covered lake Ghepan is situated
25. Which of the following is called in -
'Mysterious Lake'? (a) Uttarakhand
(a) Jor Pokhari Lake (b) Dodital Lake (b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Roopkund Lake (d) Red Hills Lake (c) Sikkim
(c) (d) Jammu and Kashmir
• Roopkund Lake is also called 'Mysterious (b)
Lake'. It is a glacial lake located in the • The snow-covered Ghepan Lake is
state of Uttarakhand, India. located in the Lahaul-Spiti district of
26. Which of the following lakes of India is Himachal Pradesh.
located in Jammu and Kashmir? 29. What is a Kayal?
(a) Fulhar Lake (b) Kolleru Lake (a) Terai Plain
(c) Anchar Lake (d) Hamirsar Lake (b) Ganges Delta
(c) (c) Reghad of Deccan Plateau
• Kolleru Lake is located in Andhra (d) Lagoons of Kerala
Pradesh, Hamirsar Lake in Gujarat, (d)
Fulhar Lake in Uttar Pradesh, while • The lagoon lakes located in Kerala are
Anchar Lake is located in Srinagar addressed as Kayal.
(Jammu and Kashmir). • Many Kayals (lagoons) are found here,
• As of October 31, 2019, Anchar Lake is such as - Punnamad Kayal, Ashtamudi
in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kayal, Vembanad Kayal etc.
Kashmir. 30. Which of the following is an artificial lake?
27. Match List-I with List-II and choose the (a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
correct answer from the code given below (b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
- (c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)
List-I List-II (d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
(Lakes) (Location) (a)
A. Ashtamudi 1. Haryana • Kodaikanal Lake is a man-made
B. Pulicat 2. Kerala freshwater lake.
C. Roopkund 3. Tamil Nadu • This lake is located in Kodaikanal town in
D. Surajkund 4. Uttarakhand Dindigul district of Tamil Nadu.
Code: 31. Match List-I with List-II and choose the
A B C D correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 3 2 1 4 the lists:
(b) 2 3 4 1 List-I List-II
(c) 4 2 3 1 (Lake) (Location)
(d) 1 4 2 3 [Link] Lake 1. Arunachal
(b) Pradesh
The correct matching is as follows - [Link] Lake 2. Haryana

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[Link] Lake 3. Manipur 34. Which is the largest and fresh-water
[Link] Lake 4. Tamil Nadu oxbow lake of Asia in Bihar?
Code: (a) Ghogha Lake
A B C D (b) Kanwar Lake
(a) 1 2 3 4 (c) Anupam Lake
(b) 2 1 3 4 (d) Kusheshwar Lake
(c) 1 3 2 4 (b)
(d) 1 4 2 3 • The largest and fresh-water oxbow lake of
Ans. (a) : Asia is Kanwar (Kanwar) Lake in Bihar.
The correct matching is as follows - • It is the only Ramsar wetland site of Bihar
(Lake) (Location) located in Begusarai, Bihar.
Sala Lake Arunachal Pradesh 35. Consider the following pairs -
Badkhal Lake Faridabad (Haryana) (Wetland/Lake) (Location)
Loktak Lake Manipur 1. Hokera Wetland Punjab
Kaliveli Lake Viluppuram District (Tamil 2. Renuka Wetland Himachal
Nadu) Pradesh
32. Which of the following is not correctly 3. Rudrasagar Tripura
matched? Lake
(State) - (Hot Springs) 4. Sasthamkotta Tamil Nadu
(a) Himachal Pradesh - Manikaran Lake
(b) Odisha - Taptapani How many of the above pairs are correctly
(c) Maharashtra - Vajreshwari matched?
(d) Gujarat - Narayani (a) Only one pair
(d) (b) Only two pairs
• According to the Geological Survey of (c) Only three pairs
India, there are 17 major hot springs in (d) All the four pairs
Gujarat - Chabsar, Cambay Wells, (b)
Godha, Harsan, Kawa, Khedapad, Khar, • Hokera Wetland is located in Jammu and
Muktapur, Varaha, Meenpur, Unai, Kashmir.
Tuwa, Tulsishyam, Savarkundla, • Renuka Wetland is located in Himachal
Lasundra, Lalpur, Dholera. Pradesh.
• Narayani hot spring is not in Gujarat. • Rudrasagar Lake is located in Tripura.
Manikaran is a hot spring located in • Sasthamkotta Lake is located in Kerala.
Himachal Pradesh, Taptapani in Odisha • It is clear from the above statements that
and Vajreshwari in Maharashtra. only two pairs are correctly matched.
33. In the context of India, what are the names 36. Which lake is known for its floating
of Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and phumdis?
Khatu? (a) Dal Lake (b) Loktak Lake
(a) Glacier (b) Mangrove area (c) Vembanad Lake (d) Sukhna Lake
(c) Ramsar area (d) Salt lake (b)
(d) • Loktak Lake is known for its floating
• Sambhar, Didwana, Khatu, Degana, phumdis. The lake is located in Manipur
Kuchaman, Sargol etc. are famous salt and contains floating grass islands, which
lakes of Rajasthan. are important for the local ecology.

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37. Which lake is called the "Swan Lake of (b) Vembanad Lake
India"? (c) Dal Lake
(a) Nainital Lake (b) Kolleru Lake (d) Chilika Lake
(c) Dal Lake (d) Udaipur Lake (c)
(c) • Dal Lake is famous for its houseboats and
• Dal Lake is called the "Swan Lake of shikaras. It is located in Jammu &
India". It is located in Jammu and Kashmir and is famous for its beautiful
Kashmir and is famous for its beauty and scenery.
houseboats. 42. Which of the following lakes is the largest
38. Which lake is often called the 'Lake of coastal lagoon in India?
Swans' in India? (a) Chilika Lake
(a) Dal Lake (b) Nainital Lake (b) Vembanad Lake
(c) Kolleru Lake (d) Udaipur Lake (c) Kolleru Lake
(a) (d) Dal Lake
• Dal Lake is often called the 'Lake of (a)
Swans' in India. It is located in Jammu • Chilika Lake is the largest coastal lagoon
and Kashmir and is famous for its beauty in India. It is located in Odisha and is
and swans. famous for its biodiversity and migratory
39. Which lake serves as an important birds.
stopover for migratory birds in eastern 43. Which lake serves as an important wetland
India under the Asia-Australasia Flyway? for ecological balance in Andhra Pradesh?
** (a) Loktak Lake
(a) Vembanad Lake (b) Chilika Lake (b) Kolleru Lake
(c) Kolleru Lake (d) Loktak Lake (c) Sambhar Lake
(b) (d) Vembanad Lake
• Chilika Lake serves as an important (b)
stopover for migratory birds in eastern • Kolleru Lake serves as an important
India, especially under the Asia- wetland for ecological balance in Andhra
Australasia Flyway. Pradesh. It is important for many
• It is an important refuge for many species migratory birds and aquatic life.
of birds. 44. The 'phumdis' in Loktak Lake are mainly
40. Which of the following lakes is located in composed of which type of vegetation?
Udaipur city? (a) Algae (b) Water lilies
(a) Fateh Sagar Lake (c) Reeds and grasses (d) Mangroves
(b) Vembanad Lake (c)
(c) Nainital Lake • The 'phumdis' in Loktak Lake are mainly
(d) Sukhna Lake composed of vegetation like reeds and
(a) grasses. These floating islands are
• Fateh Sagar Lake is located in Udaipur important for ecology.
city. It is a beautiful and famous lake, 45. Which of the following lakes is mainly used
known for its ambience. for salt production in India?
41. Which of the following lakes is famous for (a) Sambhar Lake
its houseboats and shikaras? ** (b) Vembanad Lake
(a) Loktak Lake (c) Dal Lake

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(d) Wular Lake • Loktak Lake is facing serious
(a) environmental threats due to the
• Sambhar Lake is mainly used for salt increasing spread of water hyacinth.
production in India. It is located in 50. What important step did the Jammu and
Rajasthan and is one of the largest salt Kashmir government take to revive Dal
lakes in the country. Lake in 2023?
46. Which of the following lakes is famous for (a) Banning fishing activities
its annual international boat race? (b) Introducing eco-friendly Shikaras
(a) Vembanad Lake (b) Chilika Lake (c) Launching campaigns to promote tourism
(c) Dal Lake (d) Kolleru Lake (d) Construction of new hotels
(a) (b)
• Vembanad Lake is famous for its annual • The Jammu and Kashmir government
international boat race. It is located in took the step of introducing eco-friendly
Kerala and a large number of people visit Shikaras to revive Dal Lake in 2023.
every year for this event. 51. Which Indian lake was recently included
47. The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands in the list of “Important Bird Areas” by
designates which of the following lakes as BirdLife International due to its
wetlands of international importance? biodiversity?
(a) Wular Lake (a) Kolleru Lake (b) Sambhar Lake
(b) Kolleru Lake (c) Chilika Lake (d) Wular Lake
(c) Sambhar Lake Ans. (c) :
(d) All of the above • Kolleru Lake was recently included in the
(d) list of “Important Bird Areas” by Bird
• Wular Lake, Kolleru Lake, and Sambhar Life International due to its biodiversity.
Lake are all designated as wetlands of 52. Which state of India has the highest
international importance by the Ramsar number of Ramsar sites?
Convention. (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu
48. Which lake in India is known for its rich (c) Gujarat (d) Odisha
biodiversity and is home to the endangered (b)
Irrawaddy dolphin? • The state of Tamilnadu in India has the
(a) Chilika Lake (b) Loktak Lake highest number of Ramsar sites.
(c) Vembanad Lake (d) Sambhar Lake 53. What is the primary objective of the
(a) Ramsar Convention?
• Chilika Lake is known for its rich (a) To promote sustainable agriculture
biodiversity and is home to the (b) To preserve wetland ecosystems
endangered Irrawaddy dolphin. It is (c) To regulate fishing activities
located in Odisha and is important for (d) To promote tourism in wetland areas
many species of birds and aquatic life. (b)
49. As of 2023, which lake in India is facing • The primary objective of the Ramsar
serious environmental threats due to the Convention is to promote the
increasing spread of water hyacinth? conservation and sustainable use of
(a) Dal Lake (b) Loktak Lake wetland ecosystems.
(c) Vembanad Lake (d) Kolleru Lake 54. In 2021, which wetland in India was
(b) designated as a Ramsar site?

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(a) Kolleru Lake (b) Wular Lake • Keoladeo National Park, known for its
(c) Chilika Lake (d) Pichola Lake wetlands, is located in Rajasthan and is a
(b) UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• In 2021 Wular Lake was designated as a 59. In 2022, which state of India added its first
Ramsar site in India. Ramsar site, becoming important for
55. Which of the following is a major threat to wetland conservation?
wetlands in India? (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Assam
(a) Urbanisation (c) Maharashtra (d) Kerala
(b) Pollution (b)
(c) Agricultural runoff • In 2022, Assam added its first Ramsar
(d) All of the above site, becoming important for wetland
(d) conservation.
• Urbanisation, pollution, and agricultural 60. The aim of the Ramsar Convention is to
runoff are all major threats to wetlands in promote the conservation and sustainable
India. use of wetlands. In which year was it
56. Which of the following wetland areas is established?
famous for its biodiversity and migratory (a) 1971 (b) 1980
bird population? (c) 1992 (d) 2000
(a) Chilika Lake (a)
(b) Sambhar Lake • The Ramsar Convention was established
(c) Kolleru Lake in 1971.
(d) All of the above 61. Which of the following Ramsar sites is
(d) known for its brackish water ecosystem
• Chilika Lake, Sambhar Lake, and Kolleru and is a hotspot for biodiversity?
Lake are all famous for their biodiversity (a) Chilika Lake
and migratory bird population. (b) Sambhar Lake
57. What is the main ecological function of a (c) Vembanad Lake
wetland? (d) Both (a) and (b)
(a) Habitat for fishes (d)
(b) Water purification • Both Chilika Lake and Sambhar Lake are
(c) Flood control known for their brackish water ecosystem
(d) All of the above and are hotspots for biodiversity.
(d) 62. In 2023, which Ramsar site was included
• The main ecological function of wetlands for its importance in carbon sequestration
is to provide several important functions and climate change mitigation? **
including habitat for fish, water (a) Chilika Lake
purification, and flood control. (b) Vembanad Lake
58. Which Indian state is home to the famous (c) Wular Lake
Keoladeo National Park, a UNESCO (d) Both (b) and (c)
World Heritage Site known for its (d)
wetlands? • In 2023, Vembanad Lake and Wular Lake
(a) Punjab (b) Rajasthan were included for their importance in
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Gujarat carbon sequestration and climate change
(b) mitigation.

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63. Which Ramsar site is shared by India and
Bangladesh, known for its unique wetlands
and biodiversity?
(a) Chilika Lake (b) Sundarbans
(c) Loktak Lake (d) Wular Lake
(b)
• Sundarbans Ramsar site is shared by
India and Bangladesh, famous for its
unique wetlands and biodiversity.

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Climate of India ELNINO AND LANINA

1. What kind of uncertainty can be created in often dependent on monsoon rains, and in
the prediction of Indian monsoon due to the event of El Nino, this rainfall becomes
the effect of El Nino? weak.
(a) Increase in the duration of rainfall 4. What is the main cause of El Nino?
(b) Increase in the amount of rainfall (a) Cooling of the sea surface
(c) Decrease in the amount of rainfall (b) Warming of the sea surface
(d) Decrease in the temperature (c) Decrease in atmospheric pressure
Ans. (c) (d) Shift in the Earth's axis
• The phenomenon of El Nino has a Ans. (b)
significant effect on the Indian monsoon. • During El Nino, the sea surface
When El Nino occurs, it can reduce the temperature in the eastern part of the
amount of rain of the Indian monsoon. Pacific Ocean increases significantly
This can cause drought in many parts of above normal. This warm water affects
India and negatively affect the crop yield. atmospheric pressure and changes global
2. What kind of effect does the El Nino weather patterns.
phenomenon have on the Indian monsoon? 5. What is the major impact of El Nino that
(a) Makes the Indian monsoon stronger than can affect Indian agriculture?
normal (a) More sunlight (b) More rain
(b) Makes the Indian monsoon rainfall less (c) Drought (d) More cold
than normal Ans. (c)
(c) Makes the Indian monsoon rainfall more • During El Nino, there is a lack of rainfall
than normal in western and southern parts of India,
(d) Has no effect on the Indian monsoon which may lead to drought and reduced
Ans. (b) agricultural production. Which severely
• El Nino is a climate phenomenon in affects food security and agriculture.
which there is an increase in the sea 6. In which ocean region temperature rises
surface temperature in the central and during El Nino?
eastern part of the Pacific Ocean. It (a) Atlantic Ocean (b) Indian Ocean
affects global weather patterns, including (c) Arctic Ocean (d) Pacific Ocean
the Indian monsoon. Ans. (d)
• Indian monsoon rainfall usually • During an El Nino event, sea surface
decreases during El Nino conditions. This temperatures in the eastern part of the
is because El Nino affects the pattern of Pacific Ocean rise above normal, which
the Indian monsoon, which can lead to affects climate patterns and weather.
reduced monsoon rainfall. 7. What type of change in atmospheric
3. Which region of India experiences the patterns can be observed during El Nino?
most rainfall deficit during El Nino? (a) More stable atmospheric pressure
(a) North-eastern India (b) Western India (b) More atmospheric pressure changes
(c) Southern India (d) Eastern India (c) Less atmospheric pressure changes
Ans. (b) (d) Complete loss of atmospheric pressure
• During El Nino, there is a decrease in Ans. (b)
rainfall in western India (especially • During an El Nino event, sea surface
Maharashtra and Gujarat). This region is temperatures in the central and eastern

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part of the Pacific Ocean rise, which • During El Nino, agriculture can be
causes significant changes in atmospheric negatively affected in drought-prone
pressure. areas like western Rajasthan.
• This situation can result in instability and 11. What kind of effect does the positive mode
more changes in atmospheric pressure. of Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) have with El
• El Nino affects atmospheric patterns, Nino?
which can lead to weather anomalies in (a) Enhances El Nino
different regions. (b) Decreases El Nino
8. What is the relationship between Indian (c) Has no effect on El Nino
Ocean Dipole (IOD) and El Nino? (d) Delays El Nino
(a) IOD enhances El Nino Ans.(b)
(b) IOD decreases El Nino • When IOD is positive, it produces more
(c) There is no relationship between IOD and heat in the western part of the Indian
El Nino Ocean and cold water in the eastern part.
(d) IOD delays El Nino This situation helps to balance the effects
Ans. (b) of El Nino.
• There is a complex relationship between • Thus, the positive mode of IOD can
Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) and El Nino. reduce the intensity of El Nino or reduce
• Generally, when IOD is in positive mode, its effect.
it can decrease the intensity of El Nino. 12. What kind of uncertainty can be caused in
9. What types of climate changes can the El the Indian monsoon due to El Nino?
Nino phenomenon induce? (a) More heat
(a) Increase in temperature globally (b) More cold
(b) Change in local weather only (c) Inconsistency in the amount of rainfall
(c) Change in atmospheric pressure only (d) Increase in atmospheric pressure
(d) Change in ocean currents only Ans.(c)
Ans. (a) • During El Nino, there can be irregularity
• Sea surface temperature increases during and unevenness in monsoon rainfall,
El Nino, which affects global leading to drought in some areas and
temperature. This catalyzes climate excessive rainfall in others.
change and changes weather patterns in • This can have a negative impact on
different regions. agricultural production and threaten food
• Although it also affects local weather, its security.
impact is more widespread on a global 13. Which type of agricultural product in
scale. India is most affected as a result of El
10. In which region of India, agriculture can Nino?
be most negatively affected due to the (a) Wheat (b) Rice
effect of El Nino? (c) Maize (d) Sorghum
(a) North-eastern India Ans.(b)
(b) Western Rajasthan • Rice crop in India is mainly dependent on
(c) Mountainous areas of North India monsoon, and El Nino can cause a
(d) Southern India decrease in rainfall, leading to a decline in
Ans. (b) rice yields.

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• Wheat and maize can also be affected, but • This condition often affects various
rice is more monsoon dependent, making meteorological events and agricultural
it particularly vulnerable. patterns.
14. What is the difference between El Nino 17. What kind of impact can the La Nina event
and La Nina? have on Indian agriculture?
(a) El Nino warms the sea surface (a) Increase in crop yield
temperature, while La Nina cools it. (b) Decrease in crop yield
(b) El Nino brings more rain, while La Nina (c) Decrease in crop quality
brings drought. (d) Increase in crop quality
(c) The effect of El Nino does not affect the Ans.(a)
Indian monsoon, while La Nina does. • The Indian monsoon is generally more
(d) Both El Nino and La Nina induce the effective during La Nina, leading to
same weather pattern. increased rainfall. This provides
Ans.(a) favourable conditions for better
• El Nino increases the sea surface agricultural production.
temperature in the eastern part of the • Good rainfall and weather conditions can
Pacific Ocean, affecting global climate increase crop yields, especially for rice
patterns. and other major crops.
• La Nina cools the sea surface 18. What is the relationship between La Nina
temperature, causing different climate and Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)?
effects. (a) La Nina increases IOD
15. What is the effect on the Indian monsoon (b) La Nina decreases IOD
during La Nina? (c) IOD increases La Nina
(a) Decrease in rainfall (d) There is no relationship between IOD and
(b) Increase in rainfall La Nina
(c) Increase in temperature Ans.(c)
(d) Decrease in temperature • When IOD is positive, it affects ocean
Ans.(b) temperatures and atmospheric patterns,
• During La Nina conditions, the Indian which can promote La Nina conditions.
monsoon is often more effective than • La Nina can also affect climate patterns,
normal, leading to increased rainfall. but in the positive mode of IOD, its
• This condition is generally beneficial for intensity is likely to increase.
agriculture, as it improves crop 19. With reference to the ‘Indian Ocean
production. Dipole’ (IOD), sometimes mentioned in the
16. What changes occur in the sea surface news while forecasting the Indian
temperature during a La Nina event? monsoon, which of the following
(a) Increase in temperature statements is/are correct?
(b) Decrease in temperature 1. The IOD phenomenon is characterised
(c) No change by the difference in sea-surface
(d) Sea surface temperature remains constant temperature between the tropical
Ans.(b) western Indian Ocean and the tropical
• During La Nina, the sea surface eastern Pacific Ocean.
temperature in the eastern part of the 2. The IOD phenomenon may influence
Pacific Ocean is cooler than normal, the effect of El Niño on the monsoon.
which affects climate patterns.

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Select the correct answer using the code (d) May increase monsoon summer to above
given below: normal
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Ans.(b)
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 • The conditions of Southern Oscillation
(e) (f) may affect Indian monsoon rainfall, and
• Indian Ocean Dipole is also known as especially during the negative phase of
Indian Niño. It is the result of irregular Southern Oscillation, rainfall may be
oscillation of sea surface temperature, in below normal.
which the temperature of the western 22. The pattern of Southern Oscillation is
Indian Ocean becomes alternately measured in terms of?
warmer and cooler than the eastern Indian (a) Change in atmospheric pressure
Ocean. (b) Change in sea surface temperature
• Hence statement 1 is incorrect. This (c) Change in wind speed
phenomenon can affect the effect of El (d) Geomagnetic changes
Niño on monsoon. Thus statement 2 is Ans.(a)
correct. • Southern Oscillation mainly refers to the
pattern of change in atmospheric pressure
SOUTHERN OSCILATION in different regions of the Pacific Ocean.
It is associated with pressure fluctuations,
20. Southern Oscillation is a major component which influence the occurrence of El
of which weather pattern? Nino and La Nina.
(a) Indian Monsoon • Southern Oscillation is measured in terms
(b) La Nina of change in atmospheric pressure, which
(c) El Nina may influence the Indian monsoon.
(d) Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) 23. What does the Southern Oscillation Index
Ans.(b) (SOI) measure?
• Southern Oscillation is an atmospheric (a) Sea surface temperature
pattern that represents changes in (b) Abnormality in atmospheric pressure
atmospheric pressure in the Pacific (c) Climate change
Ocean. It is associated with the (d) Atmospheric moisture
occurrence of El Nino and La Nina. Ans.(b)
• There is a direct relationship between • The SOI index measures the difference
Southern Oscillation (SO) and La Nina, between the east and west sectors of
as the pattern of Southern Oscillation atmospheric pressure of the Pacific
affects the development of La Nina. Ocean.
21. How can changes in the pattern of • The value of SOI helps in understanding
Southern Oscillation affect the Indian the activities of El Nino and La Nina,
monsoon? which can be used to predict climate
(a) May increase monsoon rainfall to above patterns.
normal 24. Which meteorological pattern is important
(b) May decrease monsoon rainfall to below for understanding the relationship
normal between the Southern Oscillation and the
(c) May change monsoon season from Indian monsoon?
normal (a) Southern Hemisphere
(b) Pacific Oscillation

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(c) Indian Oscillation (d) Increase monsoon summer to above
(d) El Nina normal
Ans.(b) Ans.(b)
• The Pacific Oscillation is a pattern of • Western disturbances are atmospheric
changes in atmospheric pressure and patterns that usually occur in winter, but
fluctuations in sea surface temperature, can have an effect during the monsoon as
associated with El Nino and La Nina well.
events. By studying the Pacific • When western disturbances combine with
Oscillation, we can better understand the the Indian monsoon, they can increase
influence of Southern Oscillation on rainfall during the monsoon, especially in
Indian monsoon, as these phenomena are the hilly areas and plains of North India.
interlinked with each other. • This is beneficial for crops, as it can
25. High value of Southern Oscillation Index reduce drought conditions and improve
(SOI) indicates which condition? the total rainfall amount.
(a) Positive Southern Oscillation • Therefore, western disturbances have a
(b) Negative Southern Oscillation positive effect on the Indian monsoon by
(c) Normal condition increasing rainfall. Western disturbances
(d) Increase in rainfall can bring instability and changes in the
Ans.(a) monsoon season, which can sometimes
• High value of SOI indicates positive make the monsoon rainfall below normal.
Southern Oscillation, which increases the 28. Which is the main source of western
abnormality in atmospheric pressure. disturbance?
26. Why is the study of Southern Oscillation (a) Arctic region
important? (b) Indian subcontinent
(a) For prediction of global temperature (c) Western Eurasian region
(b) For prediction of Indian monsoon (d) South Pole
(c) For prediction of ocean currents Ans.(c)
(d) For prediction of solar activity • The western Eurasian region is the source
Ans.(b) of cold and moist winds which move
• The study of Southern Oscillation is towards the Indian subcontinent, leading
important for prediction of Indian to the formation of western disturbances.
monsoon, as it affects the rainfall and 29. Which type of weather conditions can
pattern of monsoon. occur in India due to western
disturbances?
WESTERN DISTURBANCE (a) Heavy rain and floods
(b) Aridity and drought
27. What type of effect do western (c) Cold and snowfall
disturbances have on the Indian monsoon? (d) High temperatures
(a) Decrease monsoon rainfall to below Ans.(a)
normal • When western disturbances enter India, it
(b) Increase monsoon rainfall to above brings cold and moist winds which can
normal enhance rainfall during monsoon.
(c) Change the monsoon season from normal • Excessive rainfall can cause water levels
in rivers and reservoirs to rise, leading to
flooding

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• Hence, Western Disturbances play a vital (b) Bay of Bengal region
role in influencing weather conditions in (c) Mediterranean region
India, especially in cases of heavy rainfall (d) Arabian Sea region
and flooding. Ans. (c)
30. Western disturbances affect which part of • In India, western cyclonic disturbances
the Indian monsoon? are the seasonal phenomena occurring
(a) Southern India during the winter months.
(b) North-West India • Western cyclonic disturbances originate
(c) Eastern India over the Mediterranean Sea which enter
(d) Western India the Indian subcontinent from the west and
Ans.(b) north during the winter season.
• The North-West India region, which
includes Punjab, Haryana, Himachal CLIMATE CHANGE
Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir, is
affected by western disturbances, which 33. What kind of impact does climate change
may increase the amount of rainfall here. have on the Indian monsoon?
• When a western disturbance comes over (a) Increase in monsoon rainfall
this region, it may cause monsoon rainfall (b) Decrease in monsoon rainfall
to increase and sometimes lead to heavy (c) Ncrease in duration of monsoon
rainfall and flooding. (d) Decrease in duration of monsoon
31. Which of the following factors causes rain Ans. (b)
in the north-western part of India in • Increase in temperature and changes in
winter? other weather patterns due to climate
(a) Subtropical easterly jet change may affect the amount of Indian
(b) Western disturbances monsoon rainfall.
(c) Monsoon winds • This may also result in uneven rainfall,
(d) High pressure over the Indian Ocean leading to drought or flood like
Ans.(b) conditions.
• Western disturbances are storms that • The change may lead to decrease in
originate in low pressure areas in the monsoon rainfall, especially in some
Caspian Sea or the Mediterranean Sea. areas, such as Western Ghats and north-
These winds travel along with the easterly eastern India.
jet streams at high altitudes. 34. Which major change is observed in the
• In the context of India, they are called unevenness of Indian monsoon due to
western disturbances because they enter climate change?
from the west. These western (a) More regular monsoon
disturbances are responsible for sudden (b) Delay in onset and early end of monsoon
rainfall, snowfall and fog in the north- (c) Delay in end of monsoon
western part of India during the winter (d) No change in duration of monsoon
season. Ans. (b)
32. In India, western cyclonic disturbances are • Due to climate change, Indian monsoon
the seasonal phenomena occurring during can be observed to be delayed in onset
the winter months, which come from the and early end, which can lead to problems
western flow coming from ……………. of uneven rainfall.
(a) Pacific Ocean region

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35. How can the intensity of Indian monsoon • This may become a serious problem
change due to the effect of climate change? especially in hilly areas, where landslides
(a) Decrease in intensity of monsoon pose a threat to life and infrastructure.
(b) Increase in intensity of monsoon 39. What is the main reason for the pollution
(c) No change in intensity of monsoon of the Ganga River by coliform bacteria?
(d) Complete end of intensity of monsoon (a) Chemical waste from industries
Ans. (b) (b) Immersion of unburied bodies
• The intensity of Indian monsoon can (c) Discharge of untreated sewage
increase due to climate change, which can (d) Washing clothes
lead to more intense and sudden rainfall Ans. (c)
events. • The main reason for the pollution of the
36. Which extreme events are more frequent Ganga River by coliform bacteria is
in Indian monsoon due to climate change? discharge of untreated sewage. Coliform
(a) Drought and floods is a type of bacteria which is used as an
(b) Cold and snowfall indicator element for the microbiological
(c) High temperatures study of water. Coliform bacteria found in
(d) Dust storms feces are present in large quantities in the
Ans. (a) Ganga River, which is harmful for human
• Climate change can cause irregularities in health.
rainfall pattern, which can lead to drought 40. Which of the following factors does not
conditions. directly affect Indian climate?
• Excessive rainfall can also increase the (a) Snowfall in European countries
incidence of floods, especially in areas (b) Altitude
where there is no proper drainage system. (c) Latitude
37. What kind of challenges can arise in the (d) Pressure and winds
Indian monsoon areas due to climate Ans. (a)
change? • Climate is used to express the condition
(a) Increase in agricultural production of the atmosphere of a place. This word is
(b) Instability of water resources close to weather but still climate is used
(c) Flooding on sea coasts for large land area and period whereas
(d) No change in temperature weather is used for relatively smaller
Ans. (b) period and smaller place.
• Instability in the Indian monsoon due to • The following factors mainly affect the
climate change can lead to increase in the climate of India - latitude, altitude, air
instability of water sources. pressure and winds.
38. Which major weather hazard may 41. Which of the following factors does not
increase during the Indian monsoon due to determine the climate of India?
climate change? (a) Surface area of the country
(a) Landslides (b) Storms (b) Elevation
(c) Cold waves (d) Heat waves (c) Latitude
Ans. (a) (d) Distribution of land and water
• Excessive rainfall and uncertain rainfall Ans. (a)
increases the moisture content in the soil, • The climate of the world is influenced by
leading to higher incidence of landslides. many factors, due to which different

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climates seen in different parts of the monsoon also starts shifting towards the
earth. south.
• Similarly, the climate of India is also • The time of retreat of the monsoon is from
influenced by factors like latitude, October to November. It retreats from all
elevation, pressure and wind. Hence, the the rest of India except Southern India.
surface area of the country does not The retreating monsoon winds collect
determine the climate. water Vapour from the Bay of Bengal and
cause rain in Tamil Nadu in the form of
RAINFALL North-East monsoon.
44. Delhi generally receives monsoon rains
42. Which of the following states of India are from ………….. Till the end of June
associated with the term mango shower? (probable date is 29th June).
(a) Punjab and Haryana (a) Retreating monsoon
(b) Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh (b) Arabian Sea branch
(c) Meghalaya and Assam (c) Bay of Bengal branch
(d) Kerala and Karnataka (d) Mediterranean region branch
Ans. (d) Ans. (c)
• The rain that occurs in summer in Kerala • Delhi generally receives monsoon rains
and Karnataka is called “Mango from the Bay of Bengal branch till the end
Shower”. This rain helps in ripening of of June.
mangoes. 45. In India, the period of ………….. is the
• The hot and dry wind that blows in time of arrival of normal rainfall, which
summer from Punjab to Bihar (in the increases suddenly and continues
plains of North India) is called "Loo". continuously for several days, which is
43. In which of the following months does the called the 'burst' of monsoon.
retreating monsoon season occur in India? (a) From early June to August
(a) Mid-June to mid-September (b) From July to early September
(b) October to November (c) From early July to mid-August
(c) March to mid-June (d) From early June to mid-September
(d) Mid-December to February Ans.(d)
Ans. (b) • India is a country with a monsoon climate
• The process of Returning of monsoon is i.e. the seasons change with the change in
called retreating monsoon. On 21st June, the direction of winds.
the sun shines perpendicularly on the • Most of the rainfall in India occurs in
Tropic of Cancer, i.e. from 22nd June, the summer when the wind direction is from
sun starts returning towards the Equator. sea to land.
On 23rd September, the vertical rays of • The period from early June to mid-
the sun start falling on the equator, as a September is the time of arrival of normal
result of which the Intertropical rainfall which is called the 'burst' of
Convergence Zone (ITCZ) established in monsoon in India.
the summer season in northwestern India 46. In which of the following periods during a
starts shifting towards the south. With the normal monsoon year, the monsoon winds
shifting of the Intertropical Convergence are likely to reach Punjab, western Uttar
Zone (ITCZ) towards the south, the Pradesh and Haryana?
(a) In the first week of May

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(b) In the first week of July • In Kerala and Karnataka, rain occurs in
(c) In the first week of August the form of showers before the monsoon
(d) In the first week of June in summer. Due to which mangoes ripen
Ans. (b) early. Due to which you call this rain as
• In India, during the monsoon year, the rain.
monsoon winds reach Punjab, western 50. In which of the following states will you
Uttar Pradesh and Haryana in the first experience 'Kaal Baisakhi'?
week of July. (a) Gujarat (b) Punjab
• In India, the monsoon usually starts from (c) West Bengal (d) Tamil Nadu
the southern Indian Ocean of the Indian Ans. (c)
peninsula in the first week of June, after • Kaal Vaisakhi refers to fast moving local
which it gets divided into two branches, destructive rain-bearing winds in the
the Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of month of Baisakh. Such winds are
Bengal branch. experienced in West Bengal.
47. In which season, dry and hot winds blow in 51. In which year did the extremely severe
the afternoon, which are known as 'loo'? cyclonic storm 'Fani' hit Odisha?
(a) Retreating monsoon season (a) 2020 (b) 2017
(b) Summer season (c) 2019 (d) 2018
(c) Winter season Ans. (c)
(d) South-west monsoon season • The severe cyclonic storm caused
Ans.(b) massive destruction on the coast of
• In the summer season, dry and hot winds Odisha and Andhra Pradesh in India in
blow in the afternoon, which are known April-May 2019. It was a tropical cyclone
as 'loo'. It blows from north to east and that formed in the Indian Ocean west of
west to east in summer in North India. Sumatra. The name 'Fani' was given by
48. Which of the following states receives Bangladesh which means 'soap'.
rainfall first from the south-west 52. Identify the states from the following,
monsoon? which are related to the pre-monsoon
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Kerala shower 'Kal Vaishakhi (Nor westers)'.
(c) West Bengal (d) Rajasthan (a) West Bengal and Assam
Ans. (b) (b) Rajasthan and Punjab
• The south-west monsoon enters India in (c) Gujarat and Maharashtra
the form of Arabian Sea branch and Bay (d) Kerala and Karnataka
of Bengal branch, which first hits the Ans. (a)
Malabar coast of Kerala and this • The states related to the pre-monsoon
monsoon first rains in Kerala (on 1 June). shower 'Kal Vaishakhi' are West Bengal
49. As summer approaches, pre-monsoon rain and Assam. In Kerala and Karnataka, 'Kal
is a common occurrence, especially in Vaishakhi' is called 'Coffee Shower'.
Kerala and Karnataka. This rain is 53. With reference to the local winds in India,
called........ 'Loo' can be best defined as -----------.
(a) Mango Shower (b) Orange Shower (a) Dry and hot winds
(c) Papaya Shower (d) Grape Shower (b) Hot and humid winds
Ans. (a) (c) Moist and cold winds
(d) Cold and humid winds

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Ans. (a) 57. Loo originates in -------------- during

• With reference to the local winds in India, summer season and blows towards the
Loo can be best defined as Dry and hot adjacent areas.
winds. 'Loo' is a dry and hot wind blowing (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Delhi
in the summer season in the plains of (c) Rajasthan (d) Uttar Pradesh
North India. Ans : (c)
54. Which place receives the highest rainfall in • The intense hot and dry winds blowing
the world? from north-east and west to east in
(a) Dhoopgarh (b) Mawsynram summer in North India are called 'Loo'. It
(c) Kangto (d) Tura Peak originates from Rajasthan during the
Ans. (b) summer season and blows towards the
• Mawsynram, located in the mountainous adjacent areas.
regions of Meghalaya in India, is the 58. ------------ has extreme climate.
place with the highest rainfall in the (a) Delhi (b) Kolkata
world. Mawsynram is a village in (c) Mumbai (d) Cochin
Meghalaya where an average rainfall of Ans: (a)
11871 mm occurs in a year. According to • Delhi's climate has a lot of difference in
the Guinness Book of World Records, a the temperature of summer and winter.
world record of 26,000 mm rainfall was Summer is very long and extremely dry
recorded in Mawsynram in 1985. and December and January are very cold
55. Mumbai is located in the leeward direction and foggy.
of ------------- due to which it rains heavily 59. Southwest monsoon originates in -----------
here. --.
(a) Aravalli (b) Himalayas (a) Arabian Sea (b) Indian Ocean
(c) Eastern Ghats (d) Western Ghats (c) Bay of Bengal (d) Himalayas
Ans : (d) Ans : (b)
• Mumbai is situated on the coast to the • Southwest monsoon usually lasts from
west of Western Ghats due to which June to September. This monsoon
monsoon winds rise along the Western originates from the Indian Ocean.
Ghats and after cooling down cause 60. The word ‘monsoon’ is derived from-
heavy rainfall in Mumbai whereas the (a) Arabic language
eastern part of Western Ghats receives (b) Spanish language
less rainfall as it falls in the rain shadow (c) Hindi language
area. (d) English language
56. During winters in India, winds blowing Ans: (a)
from ---------- cause cold wave. • The word ‘monsoon’ is derived from the
(a) Western Ghats (b) Himalayas Arabic word ‘Mausim’, which means
(c) Vindhyas (d) Aravalli season.
Ans. (b) 61. In India, the summer monsoon first arrives
• Winds blowing from the east direction in?
(Himalayas) in the plains of India during (a) South to North
the winter months of December-January (b) South-west to South-east
are called cold wave. (c) South-east to South-west
(d) South-west to North-east

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Ans: (d) 65. Which are the usual monsoon months in

• The general direction of flow of summer Tamil Nadu?
monsoon in India is from South-west to (a) March-April
North-east. (b) June-July
• In winter, its direction is from North-east (c) September-October
to South-west. Most of the rainfall in (d) November-December
India is received from South-west Ans: (d)
monsoon. • The north-east monsoon season prevails
62. In summers, high temperature and low in South India from October to
pressure on the Indian subcontinent draw December, which is mainly active in
air from the Indian Ocean, which leads to Andhra Pradesh, Rayalaseema and Tamil
the flow of- Nadu. This is the main rainy period of
(a) South-east monsoon Tamil Nadu.
(b) South-west monsoon • It is noteworthy that during this monsoon,
(c) Trade winds on 26 December 2004, tsunami hit the
(d) Western winds coastal areas of Tamil Nadu. Thus, the
Ans: (b) correct answer will be option (a).
• The general direction of flow of summer 66. The Indian monsoon is indicated by
monsoon in India is from south-west to seasonal displacement, the reason for
north-east. In winters, its direction is from which is -
north-east to south-west. (a) Differential heating of land and sea
• Most of the rainfall in India is received (b) Cold wind of Central Asia
from the south-west monsoon. (c) Extreme uniformity of temperature
63. Which of the following is the driest place? (d) None of the above
(a) Mumbai (b) Delhi Ans: (a)
(c) Leh (d) Bangalore • The Indian monsoon is of seasonal
Ans: (c) displacement. Its direction remains from
• Leh is the area with the least rainfall in north-east to south-west for six months
India. It is the driest place in India. (in winter) and from south-west to north-
64. In which part of India is the highest east for the remaining six months (in
diurnal temperature difference found? summer). There are considerable
(a) Eastern coastal region differences on whether these monsoon
(b) Interior areas of Chhattisgarh plain winds originate due to differences in
(c) Andaman Islands temperature or some other reason. For
(d) Desert areas of Rajasthan this, two concepts have been propounded
–
Ans: (d)
✓ Thermal concept, that is, the monsoon
• In India, the highest diurnal temperature
originates due to the unequal
difference is found in the desert areas of
composition of land and water and their
Rajasthan.
opposing nature of being hot and cold,
• The temperature here is abnormally lower
that is, the northward and southward
at night than during the day. Diurnal
movement of the Sun has a considerable
temperature difference is one of the
effect on it.
characteristics of desert climate.
✓ According to the new concept, the
monsoon winds originate due to air

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pressure and the shifting of wind belts. (b) Deccan Plateau
This concept was propounded for the (c) Madhya Pradesh
first time by a scholar named Flon. (d) Chhattisgarh Basin
67. Consider the following statements - Ans (d)
1. The duration of monsoon decreases • Chhattisgarh Basin is not much affected
from Southern India to Northern India. by the Arabian Sea branch of monsoon,
2. The amount of annual rainfall in the because the monsoon rising from the
plains of Northern India decreases from Arabian Sea gets divided into two
east to west? branches after hitting the Western Ghats.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 • The first branch, moving parallel to the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) neither 1 nor 2 Aravalli Mountains, goes up to North
Ans: (c) India and the second branch, after hitting
• The duration of monsoon is shorter in the Vindhya Mountains, causes rainfall in
North India than in South India. the areas of Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and
• Monsoon enters South India in the first Western Chhattisgarh. Hence, it is clear
week of June, while it takes more time to that Chhattisgarh Basin is not much
enter North India than in the South. affected by the Arabian Sea Monsoon.
Similarly, on return also, monsoon winds 70. Withdrawal of monsoon is indicated by-
migrate from North India earlier than 1. Clear sky
from South India. The amount of annual 2. High pressure conditions in Bay of
rainfall in the plains of North India Bengal
decreases from east to west. 3. Increase in temperature at land level
68. Amritsar and Shimla are situated on Choose your answer from the following
almost the same latitude, but the reason for codes-
the difference in their climate is- (a) Only 1 (b) Both 1 and 2
(a) Difference in their altitude (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Both 2 and 3
(b) Their distance from the sea Ans: (c)
(c) Snowfall in Shimla • When monsoon starts retreating from
(d) Pollution in Amritsar northern region, initially there is a slight
Ans: (a) increase in temperature.
• Amritsar (31°29’ - 32°03’N) and Shimla • With the retreat of monsoon, the low
(30°45’ - 31°44′ N) districts are situated pressure area spread in north-west starts
on almost the same latitude, but the moving towards Bay of Bengal. At this
reason for the difference in their climate time sky becomes clear.
is the difference in their altitude. 71. Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ), a
• The altitude of Amritsar is 175-200 low pressure belt, is located-
meters above sea level, while the altitude (a) Between trade and westerly winds belts
of Shimla is 300-6000 meters above sea (b) Between westerly and polar winds belts
level. With the increase in altitude in the (c) In the region near the poles
troposphere, the temperature keeps on (d) On the equator
falling. Ans: (d)
69. Which of the following regions is not much • Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)
affected by the Arabian Sea branch of the is a wide trough and low pressure area in
monsoon? the equatorial latitudes.
(a) Western Ghats

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• It is here that the north-eastern and south- barriers, due to which they do not attain
eastern trade winds meet. This the required height to cool down.
convergence zone is almost parallel to the 74. Arrange the following seasons in
equator, but it shifts north or south with chronological order according to Indian
the apparent motion of the sun. Hence calendar-
option (d) is the correct answer on the 1. Autumn 2. Summer
equator. 3. Spring 4. Rain
72. The reasons responsible for dust storms in (a) 2, 4, 3 and 1 (b) 3, 2, 4 and 1
Rajasthan during May-June are- (c) 4, 2, 1 and 3 (d) 1, 4, 2 and 3
1. Origin of convective currents at some Ans: (b)
places • According to NCERT, according to
2. Aravalli hills are parallel to the south- Indian tradition, the year is divided into 6
west winds. bi-monthly seasons. These are as follows-
3. Origin of very fast easterly winds Seasons Months according to
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3 Indian
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Only 1 calendar
Ans: (d) • Spring - Chaitra – Baishakh
• In May-June, hot winds blow from the • Summer - Jyeshtha – Ashadha
west, which are called Loo. Due to this • Rain - Shravan – Bhadra
Loo, a low pressure area is formed here. • Autumn - Ashwin – Kartik
To compensate for this low pressure, • Hemant - Margashirsha – Paush
winds rise rapidly from high pressure • Shishir - Magh - Phalguna
areas, which bring dust storms with them. 75. Which of the following terms were used by
Hence, the origin of convective currents Koppen for the climate of the vast plains of
at some places is responsible for dust India?
storms in Rajasthan during May-June. (a) Amw (b) As
• The Aravalli mountain ranges do not (c) Cwg (d) Aw
become an obstacle in the path of the Ans: (c)
south-west monsoon winds as they are in • Köppen has used the term Cwg for the
the same direction as the wind blows. climate of the vast plains of India.
Therefore the monsoon winds move • It means monsoon type of climate with
straight. dry winter.
73. Rajasthan receives very little rainfall 76. According to Koppen's climate
because- classification, the climate of North Bihar
(a) Monsoon fails to reach this region can be represented by
(b) It is very hot here (a) Cwg (b) Aw
(c) Water is not available here and hence the (c) CA'w (d) CB'w
winds remain dry. Ans: (a)
(d) Winds do not cross any type of barriers, • According to Koppen's climate
due to which they do not attain the classification, the climate of North Bihar
required height to cool down can be represented by Cwg.
Ans: (d) 77. India receives the maximum rainfall
• Rajasthan receives very little rainfall mainly from -
because winds do not cross any type of (a) North-East monsoon

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(b) Retreating monsoon • These regions receive more than 250 cm
(c) South-West monsoon of rainfall. These regions receive the
(d) Convectional rainfall maximum rainfall due to the south-west
Ans: (c) monsoon.
• According to the data of the year 2021 80. In spite of the abundance of rainfall in
presented by the Meteorological India, this country is considered to be a
Department, most of the total rainfall of thirsty land. The reason for this is -
India is received from the South-West (a) Rapid flow of rain water
monsoon. (b) Rapid evaporation of rain water
• The actual average rainfall in India is (c) Heavy rainfall in a few months
1236.4 mm. India receives 971.8 mm of (d) All of the above
rainfall from the South West, which is Ans: (d)
99% of the long-term average rainfall. • More than 75 percent of the annual
78. The place with the least rainfall in India is- rainfall in India is received from the
(a) Leh (b) Bikaner south-west monsoon between June and
(c) Jaisalmer (d) Cherrapunji September, i.e. most of the rainfall occurs
Ans: (a) in just four months. Also, the rain water
The annual rainfall of the above mentioned from the south-west monsoon either
cities of India is as follows- flows away quickly or evaporates.
• Leh-4.17 cm. (lowest in the whole • Thus, in the remaining eight months,
country) India faces shortage of rain, whereas the
• Bikaner-32.84 cm. annual national rainfall of India is 1236.4
• Jaisalmer-31.67 cm. (lowest in the state mm. Due to these reasons, sometimes it is
of Rajasthan) understood that despite the excess of rain
• Cherrapunji-1100 cm. (Before in India, the earth is thirsty.
Mawsynram-1148 cm. Cherrapunji was 81. Which of the following areas of India
the place with the highest rainfall not only receive an average rainfall of two hundred
in the country but in the world) millimetres?
• Hence, it is clear that Leh is the place with (a) Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka
the least rainfall in India. Since October (b) Jammu and Kashmir
31, 2019, Leh is in the Union Territory of (c) West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar
Ladakh. The figures of Leh, Bikaner and (d) Assam, Manipur, Tripura
Jaisalmer are as per the year 2021. Ans: (b)
79. In India, the maximum rainfall occurs in • During the period of question, an average
the ............... region. rainfall of 200 mm (20 cm) was received
(a) Western Ghats, Himalaya region and in India in the north of the Zaskar range
Meghalaya in Jammu and Kashmir and the western
(b) Madhya Pradesh and Bihar part of Rajasthan. Hence, option (b) can
(c) Uttar Pradesh, Haryana and Punjab be considered the correct answer, but if
(d) Andhra Pradesh and Vidarbha seen from the point of view of the entire
Ans: (a) state, none of the above answers will be
• The regions that receive the maximum correct. According to India's rainfall data
rainfall in India are Western Ghats, 2021, Jammu and Kashmir receives 894.7
Eastern Himalayas and Meghalaya. mm, Assam receives 2083.8 mm, Bihar
receives 1512.7 mm, West Bengal

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receives 2202.7 mm, Manipur receives (b) Punjab-Tamil Nadu
913.6 mm, Tripura receives 1761.1 mm, (c) Arunachal Pradesh-Bihar
Odisha receives 1420.8 mm, Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu-Karnataka
receives 3606.3 mm, Tamil Nadu Ans: (b)
receives 1376.7 mm and Karnataka • In India, during autumn season i.e.
receives 1450.9 mm of rainfall. October-November, the retreating
82. Which monsoon brings rain in monsoon (North-East monsoon) brings
Jharkhand? 65-75 cm rainfall on Tamil Nadu coast
(a) North-East Monsoon which keeps on decreasing towards the
(b) South-West Monsoon interior parts.
(c) Nor'wester • Apart from this, some parts of North-
(d) None of the above West India also receive rainfall due to
Ans: (b) Western disturbances which includes
• Jharkhand receives rain due to South- Punjab. During autumn season, partly
West monsoon. Most of the rainfall here South-East Karnataka also receives
occurs from June to September. rainfall. Hence, the closest answer is
83. Consider the following statements and option (b).
choose the correct answer from the codes 85. The main reasons for autumn rains in
given below- Tamil Nadu are-
Statement (A): Inland waterways have not (a) Western disturbance
been developed enough in India. (b) South-west monsoon
Reason (R): In most parts of India, rainfall (c) North-east monsoon
occurs only in four months of the year. (d) South-east monsoon
Code: Ans: (c)
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the • In India, during autumn season i.e.
correct explanation of (A). October-November, the retreating
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not monsoon (north-east monsoon) brings
the correct explanation of (A). 65-75 cm of rain on the Tamil Nadu coast
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong. which keeps on decreasing towards the
(d) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct. interior parts.
Ans: (a) • Apart from this, some parts of north-west
• Inland waterways have not been India also receive rain due to western
developed enough in India and the main disturbances which includes Punjab.
reason for this is that in most parts of During autumn season, partly south-east
India, rainfall occurs only in four months Karnataka also receives rain. Hence, the
of the year. closest answer is option (b).
• Most of the time, there is a lack of 86. Which of the following states receives rain
transportable water in seasonal rivers, during winter season?
which creates obstacles in the (a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu
development of inland waterways. (c) West Bengal (d) Odisha
Therefore, both assertion and reason are Ans: (b)
correct and the reason is the correct • Out of the given options, Tamil Nadu and
explanation of the assertion. south-eastern Kerala receive rain during
84. The areas of autumn rainfall in India are- winter. Since this rain occurs in a partial
(a) Odisha-Karnataka

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area of Kerala. Hence the more 89. The amount of rainfall caused by the
appropriate answer option would be (b). North Western Disturbance in India
87. In India, which of the following coastal gradually decreases -
regions receives rainfall due to the north- (a) East to West (b) West to East
east monsoon? (c) North to South (d) South to North
(a) Malabar coast (b) Gujarat coast Answer - (b)
(c) Coromandel coast (d) Konkan coast • Western Disturbances originate in the
Ans: (c) Eastern Mediterranean Sea - move east -
• In India, Coromandel coastal region reach Western Asia - Iran - India - North
receives rainfall due to the north-east Western parts.
monsoon. 90. La Nino is sometimes called -
• Apart from this, south-eastern Karnataka, (a) El Niño
south-eastern Kerala also receive rainfall (b) Anti-El Niño
due to the north-east monsoon. (c) A cold phenomenon
88. Assertion (A): Anticyclonic conditions (d) All of the above
develop in winter when atmospheric Answer - (d)
pressure is high and air temperature is • All of the above
low. 91. The Oceanic Nino Index is -
Reason (R): Winter rainfall in north India (a) A device to measure the occurrence of El
is caused by anticyclonic conditions with Niño
low temperatures. (b) A device to measure the occurrence of La
Codes: Niña
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (c) A device to measure the occurrence of
correct explanation of (A). western disturbances
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not (d) All of the above
the correct explanation of (A). Answer - (a)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect. • The Oceanic Nino Index is a device to
(d) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct. measure and forecast each El Niño
Ans: (b) phenomenon.
• Winter rainfall in north India is caused by
western disturbances. Anticyclonic
conditions already exist in India which
are not related to winter rainfall.
• Anticyclonic conditions develop in
winter when atmospheric pressure is high
and air temperature is low. Thus
Statement (A) is correct, but Reason (R)
is wrong.

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Forest
1. Which one of the following is not a Ans. (c)
coniferous tree? • Forest areas under private individuals and
(a) Jatropha (b) Spruce communities are classified as unclassified
(c) Cedar (d) Pine forest area.
Ans. (a) 5. In which type of forests do Royal Bengal
• Plants having cones and needles are Tigers mainly live?
called coniferous trees. These are found (a) Mangrove forests
in high latitudes (50°-70°) in the northern (b) Deciduous forests
hemisphere. These are also known as (c) Mountain forests
taiga. Spruce, cedar and pine are (d) Thorny forests
coniferous trees, while Jatropha is a Ans. (a)
tropical and iodisel plant, which is also • The scientific name of Royal Bengal
known as 'Ratanjot'. Tiger is Panthera tigris. Its original
2. ………… are used to make bidi. habitat is mangrove vegetation,
(a) Chestnut leaves grasslands and forests. It is also the
(b) Tamarind leaves national animal of India. It is found in
(c) Coconut leaves Sundarbans of West Bengal state of India.
(d) Tendu leaves Apart from India, it is also found in
Ans. (d) Bangladesh, Bhutan, Myanmar.
• Tendu leaves are used to make bidi. 6. Which of the following states or union
Bundelkhand is famous for tendu leaves territories has zero percent forest area?
in India. In Bundelkhand it is called green (a) Haryana (b) Lakshadweep
gold. Bidis are made by folding the leaves (c) Chandigarh (d) Goa
and filling tobacco in it. Ans. (b)
3. Major species like teak, sal and sheesham • Lakshadweep has zero percent forest
come under which vegetation found in area. While it is surrounded by 85%
India? forest.
(a) Tropical evergreen forest 7. Where do mangroves grow?
(b) Mangrove forest (a) In coastal areas (b) In deserts
(c) Tropical thorny forest and shrubs (c) In marshes (d) In hills
(d) Tropical deciduous forest Ans. (a)
Ans. (d) • Mangroves are shrubby trees that grow in
• Teak, Sal and Sheesham are the main swampy places in coastal areas of the sea,
trees of tropical deciduous forest. The whose roots are often in salty sediments
leaves of such forests fall every year. The under water. Mangroves grow in tropical
annual rainfall for these trees is 70 to 200 and subtropical latitudes, which is the
cm. most in the continent of Asia.
4. Forest areas under private individuals and 8. Which type of forest is most spread in
communities are classified as …………. India?
(a) Protected forest (a) Tropical deciduous forest
(b) Reserved forest (b) Mountain forest
(c) Unclassified forest (c) Tropical evergreen forest
(d) Permanent forest (d) Mangrove forest

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Ans. (a) 12. Which of the following statements

• Tropical deciduous forests are found in regarding forests is incorrect?
the areas with high rainfall in the (a) They conserve water
peninsula and in the plains of Uttar (b) They maintain a large diversity of flora
Pradesh and Bihar. These forests are and fauna
found in abundance in India. They are (c) They do not conserve soil
also called monsoon forests. These (d) They provide various types of products
forests are found in areas with 70-200 cm Ans.(c)
annual rainfall. • Forests are the symbol of our civilization
9. Tropical evergreen forests are found in and culture, humans get benefits from
which of the following states of India? them in direct and indirect forms. Forests
(a) Kerala (b) Rajasthan conserve water. They maintain a large
(c) Gujarat (d) Uttar Pradesh diversity of flora and fauna, conserve soil,
Ans. (a) various types of products are obtained
• Tropical evergreen forests are found in from forests.
the Indian state of Kerala. Rosewood, 13. Dry deciduous forest, Gir is in …………….
mahogany and palm trees are mainly (a) Goa (b) Gujarat
found in these. Tropical trees are mostly (c) Maharashtra (d) Chhattisgarh
found in coastal areas and plateau Ans: (b)
regions. • Gir National Park was established in
10. In India, mangrove forests are mainly 1965. It is located in Junagadh district of
found in which of the following states? Gujarat state of India. It is a park spread
(a) Maharashtra (b) Telangana over an area of 257 square kilometers.
(c) Nagaland (d) West Bengal Mixed deciduous forest, dry deciduous
Ans. (d) forest and some marshland are present in
• In India, mangrove forests are mainly Gir National Park. Asiatic lion, leopard,
found in the state of West Bengal (about deer, nilgai, wild boar, birds, jackals etc.
42%). After this, the maximum mangrove are found in this park.
forest area is found in Gujarat (about 14. What is the meaning of reforestation?
23%) and Andaman and Nicobar Islands (a) Strengthening forests
(about 12%) respectively. (b) Planting new trees in place of destroyed
11. Which of the following is not correctly forests
matched? (c) Roaming in the forest
(a) Neem - Alpine region (d) Taking care of animals in the forest
(b) Fig (Ficus) - Malabar coastal moist Ans. (b)
forests • Reforestation is a process under which
(c) Indian sandalwood - Deciduous forests of new trees are planted in place of
Deccan plateau destroyed forests. The Indian
(d) Pine - Himalayan subtropical forests Government implemented the Indian
Ans.(a) Forest Policy in 1952, under which 1/3rd
• Neem - does not belong to the alpine of the total land should be covered with
region. Neem is a tropical climate plant. forests, but this target has not been
It can be planted in both hot and cold achieved yet.
climates. 15. The roots of the plants/trees of which of
these forests are submerged in water?

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(a) Mangrove forest of the middle tropical or subtropical
(b) Tropical deciduous forest latitudes. Mangrove forests reduce sea
(c) Thorn forest and shrubs erosion by storm waves and tides of the
(d) Pine forest sea coast. Sundarbans of West Bengal is
Ans. (a) the largest mangrove forest area in the
• The roots of the plants/trees of mangrove world.
forest are submerged in water because 18. To travel from the Arctic Circle to the
these forests are found on the sea coasts, Equator, a person must pass through
mouths of rivers. They mainly grow in which sequence of biomes?
salty water. About 50 species of (a) Tropical rain forest, temperate forest,
mangrove vegetation are found in the taiga, tundra
world. Red mangrove has the highest (b) Taiga, tundra, temperate forest, tropical
ability to tolerate salty water. rain forest
16. Sundarbans located in West Bengal is an (c) Tundra, taiga, temperate forest, tropical
example of... rain forest
(a) Mountain forest (d) Tundra, temperate forest, taiga, tropical
(b) Tropical evergreen forest rain forest
(c) Tropical deciduous forest Ans. (c)
(d) Mangrove forest • To travel from the Arctic Circle to the
Ans. (d) Equator, a person has to pass through the
• Sundarbans located in West Bengal is an following sequence of biomes-
example of mangrove forest. Mangrove • Tundra region - Taiga region - Temperate
forests are mainly found in tropical and forest - Tropical rain forest.
subtropical regions between 25 degrees 19. Where is Tundra vegetation found?
north and 25 degrees south latitudes. In (a) Central Plains
India, the area of Sundarbans is spread (b) Himalayan region
over 9,630 sq. km. of which 4,263 sq. km. (c) Western Ghats
is covered by mangroves. (d) Eastern Ghats
17. Which of the following statements is not Ans. (b)
correct about mangrove forests? • Tundra vegetation is found in the
(a) Mangroves are salt tolerant herbs. Himalayan region (altitude from 4500 to
(b) They cannot tolerate freezing 1800 meters). Apart from this, it is also
temperatures. found in Northern Canada, Alaska,
(c) Mangrove forests maintain the coastline European Russia and Siberia. Tundra is a
and reduce erosion. biome. The reason for low growth of trees
(d) Mangrove trees grow in areas with here is the decrease in temperature. These
oxygen rich soil. vegetation mainly consists of dwarf
Ans. (d) shrubs, marsh plants, grass, moss and
• Mangrove forests include those small lichen.
trees and shrubs which grow along the 20. Which of the following endemic species is
seashore. Mangrove forests can survive not found in the Western Ghats?
even in conditions of high salt and low (a) Nilgiri Langur
oxygen. Oxygen is limited or zero in the (b) Brown Palm Civet
soil of mangrove environment. Mangrove (c) Hispid Hare
forests are found only along the coastlines (d) Nilgiri Tahr

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Ans. (c) (a) Maharashtra

• Western Ghats is spread across 6 states of (b) Madhya Pradesh
India from Tapti river to Kanyakumari. (c) Kerala
Western Ghats is one of the highest (d) Karnataka
rainfall areas of India. It is one of the Ans. (d)
richest hotspots of biodiversity and also • India has the highest position in the
includes many national parks and wildlife production of sandalwood. It is also of
sanctuaries. Nilgiri Langur, Brown Palm economic importance. This tree is mainly
Civet, Nilgiri Tahr etc. are locally found found in the forests of Karnataka and is
in Western Ghats. also found in some places in other parts of
21. Which of the following animal species is India. Some high places from 600 meters
found exclusively in the Western Ghats? to 900 meters in India and the Malay
(a) Elephant (b) Tiger Islands are its native places.
(c) Nilgiri Tahr (d) Hornbill 24. Thorny forests are found in..........-
Ans. (c) (a) Sikkim (b) Rajasthan
• Nilgiri Tahr is a wild animal living in the (c) Kerala (d) Kashmir
Nilgiri Mountains and the southern part Ans. (b)
of the Western Ghats in the Indian states • Situated in the north-west direction of
of Tamil Nadu and Kerala. It is the state India, Rajasthan is the largest state of
animal of Tamil Nadu, which is a type of India in terms of area. Due to less than 60
wild goat. Nilgiri Tahr is also known as cm annual rainfall, the western part of this
Nilgiri Ibex or simply Ibex. It has been state is desert. 'Thorny trees are found in
placed in the endangered category in the this region which are called xerophytes
IUCN. such as cactus, acacia, etc.
22. What types of trees are found in mountain 25. Tropical rainforest can be found in the
forests in India? Silent Valley of..........
(a) Pine (b) Sun tree (a) Kerala (b) Rajasthan
(c) Maple (d) Nagfani (c) Delhi (d) Meghalaya
Ans. (a) Ans. (a)
• Mountain forests in India extend from • Tropical rainforest is found in the Silent
Assam to Kashmir. These forests keep Valley of Kerala. Silent Valley is located
changing with altitude because there is a in the Nilgiri Hills in Palakkad district of
difference in the amount of climatic Kerala which is a part of the Western
elements with altitude. Evergreen and Ghats recognized as a World Heritage
deciduous forests grow up to a height of Site. The number of tree species in the
1500 meters on the Himalayas. Silent Valley is very high.
Temperate broad-leaved forests are found 26. Which state of India has the maximum
from 1500 to 2000 meters. Oak, cedar, forest area?
etc. trees are found in abundance in it. (a) Kerala
Coniferous forests grow up to a height of (b) Madhya Pradesh
2500 to 4500 meters. Fir, spruce, pine, (c) Maharashtra
deodar and blue pine trees are (d) Bihar
predominant in these forests. Ans: (b)
23. Which state is famous for its sandalwood
carving?

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• The states with the maximum forest area (b) Tropical evergreen forest
in India are Madhya Pradesh, Arunachal (c) Tropical thorny forest
Pradesh and Chhattisgarh respectively. (d) Mountain forest
Whereas on the basis of percentage, the Ans: (a)
states with maximum forest are • Tropical dry deciduous forest is found in
Lakshadweep (90.33%), Mizoram the largest area in India. Tropical moist
(85.41%), Andaman Nicobar (81.74%) deciduous forest is the second most
and Arunachal Pradesh (79.63%) extensive forest. Teak and Sal are
respectively. important products of tropical deciduous
27. Which wood is used to make cricket bat? or deciduous (both dry and moist) forest.
(a) Teak (b) Willow According to India Forest Status Report,
(c) Bamboo (d) Rosewood 2019, mountain moist temperate forest is
Ans: (b) found on 2.66 percent area, subtropical
• Willow wood is used to make cricket bat. dry evergreen forest on 0.02 percent area,
The scientific name of this tree is Salix tropical moist deciduous forest on 17.65
Alva. It is mainly found in Jammu and percent and tropical moist evergreen
Kashmir in India. forest on 2.61 percent area.
28. Where is the animal called 'Hoolock 31. In comparison to the Eastern Himalayas,
Gibbon' found? the height of the tree-line in the Western
(a) Kerala Himalayas is-
(b) Uttarakhand (a) Higher
(c) Tamil Nadu (b) Lower
(d) Arunachal Pradesh (c) Same
Ans: (d) (d) unrelated variable
• In Northeast India, the Hoolock Gibbon is Ans: (b)
found south of the Brahmaputra River • Tree-line is the limit of the habitat where
and east of the Dihang River. It is spread trees are able to grow. In the Eastern
across seven states Arunachal Pradesh, Himalayas and Central Himalayas, the
Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, value of natural tree-line is 3600-3800 m.,
Nagaland and Tripura. Both species of whereas in the Western and North-
Hoolock Gibbon are found in India. Western Himalayan region, its value
29. Where is the Bhojapatra tree found? decreases to 3300-3600 m. only. Hence,
(a) Aravali mountain range the value of tree-line is less in the Western
(b) Himalayas Himalayas as compared to the Eastern
(c) Nilgiri ranges Himalayas.
(d) Vindhyachal mountain range 32. The major resources of the Western
Ans: (b) Himalayan Resource Region are-
• The Bhojapatra (Birch) tree is found in (a) Forests
the Himalayan region. The bark of this (b) Metallic minerals
tree, which looks like white paper, has (c) Organic minerals
been used for writing since ancient times. (d) Atomic minerals
This tree is also found in alpine forests. Ans: (a)
30. Teak and Sal are products of what? • The major resources of the Western
(a) Tropical dry deciduous forest Himalayan Resource Region are forests.

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About 65% of the land area of this region (a) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
is covered with forests. (b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
33. In which of the following states does the (c) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
cinchona tree not grow? (d) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(a) Assam (b) Kerala Ans: (a)
(c) Chhattisgarh (d) West Bengal • Most of the teak trees are found in
Ans: (c) Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and
• Cinchona is a tropical evergreen plant. Odisha i.e. Central India. In India, teak
The area of tropical evergreen forest in forests are found the most in Madhya
India is Assam, Kerala, West Bengal, Pradesh.
Andaman and Nicobar Islands, • Cedar tree grows at an altitude of more
Meghalaya, Manipur, Tripura, Mizoram than 1500 meters in the Western
and western coastal plains, while the state Himalayas (high region of Himalayas).
of Chhattisgarh is suitable for tropical dry • Sundari is a tidal tree of the Sundarban
and monsoon forests. Cinchona tree does delta region spread in West Bengal and
not grow in Chhattisgarh, while it is found Bangladesh.
in Assam, Kerala and West Bengal. • Cinchona is also found in the foothills of
34. Which of the following is called 'forest the Himalayas.
fire'? 37. Match List-I with List-II and choose the
(a) Bauhinia variegata correct answer from the codes given below
(b) Jacaranda mammosafolia the lists-
(c) Butea monosperma List-I List-II
(d) Tectona grandis A. Tropical forest 1. Sundarbans
Ans: (c) B. Coniferous 2. Himachal
forest Pradesh
• Butea monosperma is called 'Flame of the
C. Mangrove 3. Rajasthan
forest'. It is also known as Dhak or Palash. vegetation
Palash flower has been declared the state D. Deciduous 4. Silent Valley
flower of Uttar Pradesh. forest
35. Which of the following plants does not Code:
have flowers? A B C D
(a) Jackfruit (b) Sycamore (a) 1 2 4 3
(c) Orchid (d) Fern (b) 2 1 4 3
Ans: (d) (c) 1 4 2 3
• Fern is a vascular plant, these plants are (d) 4 2 1 3
seedless. These plants do not have Ans: (d)
flowers. Hence option (d) is the correct • The correct matching of List-I and List-II
answer. is as follows-
36. Match- List-I List-II
A. Teak 1. Foothills of Himalayas • Tropical forest Silent Valley
B. Cedar 2. Central India • Coniferous forest Himachal
C. Sundari 3. Sundarban Pradesh
D. Cinchona 4. High regions of • Mangrove vegetation Sundarbans
Himalayas • Deciduous forest Rajasthan
Code: 38. Which of the following trees is found at the
highest height above sea level.

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(a) Deodar (b) Pine Ans: (a)
(c) Sal (d) Teak • Resin obtained from pine forests of
Ans: (a) Uttarakhand is an important non-wood
• Deodar trees are found in the western forest product. Resin and turpentine oil
Himalayas at an altitude of more than are made from resin, which is used in
1500 meters. Among the given options, paper industry, soap and paint making.
this is the tree found at the highest altitude Resin is the main means of self-
above sea level. The description of others employment and rural economy in
is as follows - Uttarakhand.
• Pine - It is found in the Himalayan region 42. Tropical rainforests are present in India-
at an altitude of 900-1000 meters. (a) Assam and Nagaland
• Sal - It is mainly found in the sub- (b) Odisha and Chhattisgarh
Himalayan region, eastern part of central (c) Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra
India and Tamil Nadu. (d) Assam and Kerala
• Teak - Its trees are found in Madhya Ans: (d)
Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, • Among the above options, tropical
Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, rainforests are present in Kerala and
Maharashtra etc. Assam. These forests are limited to the
39. The forests of which of the following states high rainfall areas of Western Ghats,
are classified as semi-tropical? Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicobar
(a) Kerala Islands, upper parts of Assam and the
(b) Madhya Pradesh coast of Tamil Nadu. They are well
(c) Tamil Nadu developed in those areas where there is
(d) Karnataka more than 200 cm rainfall with a short dry
Ans: (b) season.
• Tropical dry deciduous forests or semi- 43. 'Khair' is a tree found in which type of
tropical forests are found in most parts of forest?
Madhya Pradesh. (a) Sub-alpine forests
40. Which one of the following is not (b) Cool-temperate forests
essentially a species of Himalayan (c) Subtropical forests
vegetation? (d) Temperate forests
(a) Juniper (b) Mahogany Ans: (c)
(c) Silver Fir (d) Spruce • Khair is a tree found in subtropical
Ans: (b) forests.
• Mahogany is basically a tree of the 44. Which of the following states has the
tropical region of North and South highest area under forests?
America. This tree is mainly found in the (a) Himachal Pradesh
West Indies, Central America and South (b) Assam
America. The rest are trees found in the (c) Andhra Pradesh
Himalayan region. In India, mahogany is (d) Arunachal Pradesh
mainly found in tropical evergreen forest (e) None of the above/More than one of the
areas. above
41. Resin is obtained from- Ans: (e)
(a) Pine tree (b) Deodar tree
(c) Rhododendron tree (d) Rosewood tree

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• According to the India State of Forest 50. In 2023, which new wildlife sanctuary was
Report, 2021, the state of Mizoram has declared in India to protect endangered
the highest area under forests. species?
45. In early 2024, which Indian state (a) Kuno National Park
announced a significant increase in its (b) Rajaji National Park
forest area through a new afforestation (c) Kanchenjunga National Park
drive? (d) Dehing Patkai Wildlife Sanctuary
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra Ans: (d)
(c) Odisha (d) Chhattisgarh • Kuno National Park – Madhya Pradesh
Answer:(a) • Rajaji National Park – Uttarakhand
46. What was the primary focus of the revised • Kanchenjunga National Park – Sikkim
National Forest Policy in 2024? • Dehing Patkai Wildlife Sanctuary –
(a) Industrial development Assam
(b) Biodiversity conservation and sustainable 51. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and
management Climate Change launched which initiative
(c) Urban forestry in 2023 to enhance urban forestry?
(d) Forest revenue generation (a) Urban Greenery Mission
Ans:(b) (b) National Urban Forestry Policy
47. Which initiative was launched in 2024 with (c) Green India Mission 2.0
the aim to protect and restore mangrove (d) Smart Urban Forestry Initiative
ecosystems? Ans: (b)
(a) Coastal Greening Initiative 52. As part of International Day of Forests in
(b) Mangrove Mission 2.0 2023, the theme focused on:
(c) Blue Carbon Project (a) Sustainable Forest Management
(d) Save Our Coasts (b) Forests and Climate Change
Ans: (b) (c) Forests for a Sustainable Future
48. Which project was launched in 2024 to (d) Forests and Biodiversity
address human-wildlife conflict in forest Ans: (c)
areas? 53. According to C.C. Calder, India has been
(a) Project Tiger 2.0 divided into how many vegetation regions.
(b) Wildlife Conservation Programme (a) 9 (b) 8
(c) Human-Wildlife Coexistence Initiative (c) 11 (d) 7
(d) Green Corridor Project (b) 8
Ans: (c) • Eastern Himalayan region
49. Which state of India launched ‘Forest Fire • North-western Himalayas
Prevention and Management Scheme’ in • Assam
2023? • Gangetic plains
(a) Uttarakhand • Indus plains
(b) Rajasthan • Deccan region
(c) Himachal Pradesh • Malabar region
(d) Madhya Pradesh • Andaman Nicobar islands
Ans: (a) • Total forest area of the country's
geographical area - 21.71%

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• Total forest and tree cover of the country 1. The state in which the maximum area of
is 80954372 km. which is 24.62% of the very dense forests is found in India is –
total geographical area. • Institutes – Answer – Forest Status Report – 2021
• Forest Research Institute – Dehradun Arunachal Pradesh – 210582 km.
• Central Arid Region Forestry Research
Institute – Jodhpur 2. Which state of India has the maximum
• Rain and Wet Deciduous Forest Institute percentage of its area covered with forests
– Jorhat –
• Institute of Wood Science and Answer – Mizoram – 84.53%
Technology – Bangalore
• Tropical Forestry Research Institute – 3. The lowest percentage of forest area in the
Jabalpur total geographical area of India is found in
• Forest Genetics and Tree Breeding –
Institute – Coimbatore Answer – Haryana – 3.63% of the total
• Temperate Forest Research Centre – geographical area.
Shimla Arunachal Pradesh – 210582 km.
• Forest Productivity Centre – Ranchi
• Centre for Social Forestry and
Environment – Allahabad
• Forest Biodiversity Institute – Hyderabad
• Forest Policy – 1988
• Green India Mission – 2014

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Mineral Resources in India

1. In which of the following states is the deposits of iron ore. Types of iron ore are
country's only mine involved in industrial hematite, magnetite, limonite and
diamond mining located? siderite. Hematite is considered to be the
(a) Chhattisgarh (b) Tamil Nadu best quality iron ore while siderite is of
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Karnataka the lowest quality.
Ans: (c) • Magnetite is found in India mainly in the
• The only diamond mine of not only the peninsular Indian states of Karnataka,
country but also Asia, which is involved Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Goa. The largest
in industrial diamond mining, is located reserves of copper in India are in the state
in Majhgawan in Panna district of of Rajasthan. The largest reserves of
Madhya Pradesh. monazite are in the state of Kerala in
• It is worth noting that Madhya Pradesh is India.
also the largest cement producing state of 4. Iron and steel industry is most present in
India. which of the following regions of India?
2. Which of the following places is famous for (a) Malwa Plateau
copper mines in India? (b) Bundelkhand Plateau
(a) Ratnagiri (b) Kolar (c) Chota Nagpur Plateau
(c) Kudremukh (d) Khetri (d) Baghelkhand Plateau
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)
• Khetri is a famous copper mine located in • Iron and steel industry is most present in
Rajasthan. It has been a major area of the Chota Nagpur Plateau of India,
copper excavation since the Indus Valley because coal and iron reserves are found
Civilization period. here, so the iron and steel industries are
• Although Madhya Pradesh has the concentrated here the most.
highest production of copper in terms of 5. Which of the following states has the
quantity, but in terms of value, Rajasthan largest reserves of Jet black granite?
ranks first. (a) Rajasthan
• In terms of estimated reserves and (b) Odisha
production of copper, Madhya Pradesh, (c) Karnataka
Rajasthan and Jharkhand rank first, (d) Madhya Pradesh
second and third respectively in India. Ans: (c)
Hence, apart from this, the mines of • Karnataka state has the largest reserves of
Khoh-Dariba (Rajasthan) are also known Jet black granite.
for copper. • After volcanic activity, when hot magma
3. The Ballari-Chikkamagaluru-Tumakuru solidifies inside the earth, granite stone is
belt in Karnataka is famous for the formed.
deposits of which of the following 6. Gua mines of Jharkhand are related to
minerals? which of the following minerals?
(a) Copper (b) Lead and Zinc (a) Coal (b) Iron ore
(c) Iron ore (d) Monazite (c) Bauxite (d) Zinc
Ans: (c) Ans: (b)
• The Ballari-Chikkamagaluru-Tumakuru
region in Karnataka is famous for its

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• Gua mines of Jharkhand are related to • The 'Khetri' mine, famous for copper, is
iron ore mineral. located in the Indian state of Rajasthan.
• It is located in Singhbhum district in • Khetri town was built by "Hindustan
Jharkhand, hematite ore is mined from Copper Limited". Hindustan Copper
here. Limited is a public sector undertaking
7. Monazite ore is found in the sand of which under the Government of India.
of the following states of India? 10. The first oil field of independent India was
(a) Kerala (b) Rajasthan discovered in..........
(c) Punjab (d) Odisha (a) Gujarat (b) Assam
Ans: (a) (c) Maharashtra (d) Rajasthan
• Monazite is the main ore found scattered Ans: (b)
in the sand of Kerala state of India. Rare • The first oil field of independent India
elements like thorium are also obtained was discovered in Assam.
from this. • The first mineral oil well in India was dug
• The world's highest amount of thorium is in Makum area of Assam in 1867.
found in South India. Its atomic number • Thereafter, an oil well was dug in Digboi
is 90 and its colour is brown. in 1889. The major oil producing centers
• It is used in photoelectric cells and as here are Digboi, Naharkatia and Surma
nuclear fuel in the production of nuclear Valley.
energy. 11. Ankleshwar region of Gujarat is famous
8. The most important Gondwana coal fields for which of these energy resources?
located in the Jharkhand-Bengal coal belt (a) Uranium (b) Thorium
of India are located in ………….. (c) Petroleum (d) Coal
(a) Manali Valley Ans: (c)
(b) Damodar Valley • Ankleshwar region is known for
(c) Dehradun petroleum resources. It is the largest oil
(d) Kaveri Basin field of Gujarat. Which is located in
Ans: (b) Bharuch district. Jawaharlal Nehru called
• The most important Gondwana coal fields Ankleshwar oil field 'fountain of
located in the Jharkhand-Bengal coal belt prosperity'.
of India are located in the Damodar 12. Which of the following states has the
Valley. largest coal reserves in India?
• Damodar Valley is considered the main (a) Jharkhand (b) West Bengal
centre of cooking coal in India. (c) Odisha (d) Chhattisgarh
• Important coal areas in the Damodar Ans: (a)
Valley basin are Jharia, Raniganj, West • Jharkhand has the largest coal reserves in
Bokaro, East Bokaro, Ramgarh, South India (24.88%).
Karanpura and North Karanpura. • It is followed by Odisha (24.60%),
9. The famous 'Khetri' mine is located in Chhattisgarh (20.18%) and West Bengal
which state of India? (9.57%).
(a) Rajasthan (b) Chhattisgarh • Jharia coalfield of Jharkhand represents
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Jharkhand the largest coal reserves.
Ans: (a) 13. Which of the following states has the oldest
operating oil refinery in India since 1901?

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(a) West Bengal (c) Gold (d) Iron
(b) Madhya Pradesh Ans: (a)
(c) Assam • The Jadugoda mine is famous for
(d) Mumbai Uranium. Located in Jharkhand, India, it
Ans: (c) is one of the first uranium mines in the
• Digboi (Assam) oil refinery is the oldest country and plays a significant role in
and largest operating oil refinery. India's nuclear energy program.
• It was established in 1901 by Assam Oil • The mine has been a crucial source of
Company Limited. The installed capacity uranium ore, which is used for nuclear
at Digboi oil refinery was 0.50 MMTPA fuel.
million metric tonnes per annum. 17. Which of the following states of India has
Modernisation of the refinery in 1906 become the major producer of vanadium?
increased it to 0.65 MMTPA. (a) Odisha
14. ............, is the leading manganese ore (b) Madhya Pradesh
producing state in India, and its share in (c) Arunachal Pradesh
the total production was 33% in 2018-19. (d) West Bengal
(a) Karnataka Ans: (c)
(b) Madhya Pradesh • Arunachal Pradesh has become the major
(c) Odisha vanadium producing state of India. It is a
(d) Maharashtra high-value metal that is used to
Ans: (b) strengthen steel and titanium.
• Madhya Pradesh is the leading • It is noteworthy that the largest reserves
manganese ore producing state in India, of vanadium are in China, followed by
and its share in the total production was South Africa and Russia. The total
33% in 2018-19. estimated reserves of vanadium metal in
• Manganese ore is found in Balaghat, India are 24.63 million tonnes.
Chhindwara and Jhabua districts in 18. Hasdeo valley situated in Chhattisgarh is
Madhya Pradesh. famous for its mines of..................
• Manganese is used in the production of (a) Silver (b) Emerald
steel along with other works. (c) Coal (d) Silicon
15. Which of the following states is the largest Ans: (c)
producer of bauxite? • Hasdeo valley situated in Chhattisgarh is
(a) Madhya Pradesh famous for its coal mines.
(b) Andhra Pradesh • India ranks third in the world in coal
(c) West Bengal production while China and America are
(d) Odisha at first and second place respectively.
Ans: (d) • Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand rank
• Bauxite is an ore of aluminium. first, second and third respectively in coal
• As per the year 2018-2019, the largest production in India. Anthracite is the best
producer of bauxite in India is Odisha grade of coal. Coal is also called 'bread of
(65.07%). After this comes Jharkhand industry' and 'black gold'.
(10.18%), Gujarat (9.21%), Chhattisgarh 19. Iron ore mine 'Badampahar' is located in
(6.47%) and Maharashtra (6.01%). which state?
16. Jadugoda mine is famous for................ (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Odisha
(a) Uranium (b) Copper (c) Karnataka (d) Maharashtra

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Ans: (b) • Mica is a multi-purpose mineral which is

• States related to iron ore mines found in the form of layers in igneous and
Badampahar, Gurumahisani Odisha metamorphic rocks. It is transparent,
Noamundi, Kotamari, Buru, Jharkhand flexible and thermoelectric resistant.
Palamu • It is made up of iron, potassium, silica and
Dallirajhara, Bailadila, Chhattisgarh magnesium. The share of mica in the
Raigarh earth's crust is 5%.
Bellary, Kudremukh Karnataka
23. Huge deposits of which mineral are
20. Out of the given options, in which country
present in Panchpatmali of Koraput
is the world's largest mica reserve located?
district of Odisha?
(a) England (b) America
(a) Copper (b) Iron ore
(c) South Africa (d) India
(c) Manganese (d) Bauxite
Ans: (d)
Ans: (d)
• Mica is a mineral. India is the largest
• Bauxite is present in Panchpatmali in
country in the world in the production of
Koraput district of Odisha. Bauxite is an
mica.
ore, huge reserves of the mineral are
• The main ore of mica is phymatite found
present which is used in the manufacture
in Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Bihar and
of aluminium.
Rajasthan. 60% of the world's mica is
• Bauxite is mainly found in tertiary
produced in India. There are three main
deposits and is associated with laterite
types of mica.
rocks. It is found in the plateau regions
• White mica - (Ruby mica)
and coastal areas of peninsular India.
• Yellow mica - (Phlogopite)
• Odisha is the largest producer of bauxite
• Black mica - (Biotite)
ore. Kalahandi, Sambalpur, Bolangir and
21. What is the name of the famous petroleum
Koraput areas here are the leading
site located in Gujarat?
producers of bauxite.
(a) Mahabaleshwar (b) Ankleshwar
24. Which of the following states of India has
(c) Amareshwar (d) Jaleshwar
the largest reserves of uranium?
Ans: (b)
(a) Andhra Pradesh
• 'Ankleshwar' is a famous petroleum 'site'
(b) Odisha
located in Gujarat. Ankleshwar oil field is
(c) Punjab
the largest oil field in Gujarat state.
(d) Himachal Pradesh
• It is located in Bharuch district of Gujarat
Ans: (a)
state. India's first Prime Minister Pandit
• Uranium is a black colored nuclear
Jawaharlal Nehru called the Ankleshwar
mineral which is obtained from Archaean
oil field a ‘Fountain of Prosperity’.
and Dharwad rocks.
22. Which of the following statements about
• Uranium is known as the 'Metal of Hope'.
mica is correct?
The largest reserves of uranium are
(a) It is made up of iron, silica and
present in Andhra Pradesh.
magnesium
• The 'Tumlapalli' uranium mine located in
(b) Its share in the earth's crust is 2 percent.
Kadapa district here is the largest
(c) Its share in the earth's crust is 3 percent.
uranium mine in the country.
(d) It is found in sedimentary rocks
• The Jadugoda area of Jharkhand is
Ans: (a)
famous for the production of uranium.

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25. Which of these Indian states has the largest (c) Orissa (d) Chhattisgarh
reserves of hematite? Ans: (b)
(a) Odisha (b) Bihar • Jharkhand has the highest coal reserves in
(c) West Bengal (d) Chhattisgarh India. While Orissa is in second place and
Ans: (a) Chhattisgarh is in third place.
• Mainly four types of iron ores are found • Out of the coal extracted in India, 67% of
in India. the coal is used to generate thermal
✓ Magnetite (Fe3O4) power. Coal extraction in India is done by
✓ Hematite (Fe2O3) Coal India Limited. It was established in
✓ Limonite (FeO (OH).nH2O) 1975. India ranks third in the world in
✓ Siderite (FeCO3) coal production.(1) China, (2) U.S.A, (3)
• Odisha has the largest reserves of India
hematite variety of iron (34%). Top iron • There are 4 types of coal based on the
ore reserves states are Karnataka, Odisha, amount of carbon - anthracite,
Jharkhand Top iron ore producing states bituminous, lignite and peat. The purest
are Odisha, Chhattisgarh and Karnataka. coal is anthracite.
26. Where are most of the chromite reserves 29. Which state of India is the largest
found in India? producer of gold?
(a) Odisha (b) Karnataka (a) Karnataka (b) Telangana
(c) Bihar (d) Kerala (c) Jharkhand (d) Chhattisgarh
Ans: (a) Ans: (a)
• Chromite is an oxide of iron and • Karnataka is the largest gold producing
chromium which is found in igneous state in India.
rocks. As of April 2015, the estimated • About 88.7 percent of the gold of the
resources of chromite in the country are entire country is extracted from here.
344.02 million tonnes, of which 102.21 Gold is extracted from Kolar, Dharwad,
million tonnes are proven and 241.81 Hassan and Raichur districts, while China
million tonnes are proven reserves. is the largest gold producing country in
• Odisha has a monopoly (more than 90%) the world.
on it in terms of both proven reserves and 30. Which of the following Indian mines is one
production. of the largest uranium mines in the world?
27. In which of these districts of Jharkhand is (a) Tummalapalli Mine
bauxite found- (b) Narwapahar Mine
(a) Lohardaga (c) Jaduguda Mine
(b) Gumla (d) Bhatin Mine
(c) Latehar Ans: (a)
(d) All of the options • Tummalapalli uranium ore mine is
Ans: (d) located in the Kadapa district of Andhra
• Lohardaga, Latehar, Gumla etc. districts Pradesh.
of Jharkhand are famous for bauxite 31. In which state of India the oldest and
production. Lohardaga is known as largest oil field is present?
Bauxite City. (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Maharashtra
28. Which state of India has the highest coal (c) Gujarat (d) Assam
reserves? Ans: (d)
(a) West Bengal (b) Jharkhand

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• India's oldest and largest oil producing (c) Aluminium (d) Manganese
area is Digboi. Ans: (d)
• It is located in Tinsukia district of Assam • 'Balaghat Mine' is in Balaghat district of
state of India. Asia's first refinery was Madhya Pradesh state in the Satpura
started here in 1901 AD. mountain range.
32. Which of the following cities located in • Manganese metal is extracted in
Gujarat state is famous for its diamond abundance from this mine. Bharveli and
industry? Ukwa are the main mines here.
(a) Vadodara (b) Ahmedabad • Bharveli is the largest manganese mine in
(c) Rajkot (d) Surat Asia. Madhya Pradesh State Mineral
Ans: (d) Corporation was established in 1962.
• Surat and Navsari cities of Gujarat are 36. ............. mineral is found in Mirzapur and
famous for diamond industry. Diamond Sonbhadra of Uttar Pradesh.
cutting and polishing work is done in (a) Copper (b) Marble
Surat. (c) Manganese (d) Mica
• Currently, out of 10 diamonds prevalent Ans: (b)
in the world, 8 diamonds are cut and • Marble and other building stones are
polished in Surat. found in Mirzapur and Sonbhadra
33. In which state are Singareni mines districts of Uttar Pradesh.
located? • The minerals found in these states are as
(a) Maharashtra (b) Telangana follows:-
(c) Odisha (d) Chhattisgarh ✓ Mirzapur - Limestone, Pyrites, Asbestos
Ans: (b) etc.
• Singareni coal mine is located in ✓ Sonbhadra - China Clay, Sillimanite,
Telangana state. Limestone, Coal, Pyrites etc.
• Odisha is the largest coal producing state 37. A large part of gypsum and silver ore in
of India, Chhattisgarh is in second place India is extracted in-
and Jharkhand is in third place. (a) Bihar (b) Rajasthan
34. Which of the following is found in (c) Jharkhand (d) Odisha
abundance in Digboi mines? Ans: (b)
(a) Petroleum (b) Copper State Mineral
(c) Natural gas (d) Coal • Karnataka - Gold
Ans: (a) • Rajasthan - Gypsum, Silver
• Digboi is a small town located in the • Jharkhand - Coal
north-eastern part of Tinsukia district of • Odisha - Iron Ore, Chromite
Assam state of India. 38. Bauxite is widely distributed in Ranchi,
• Digboi is also known as the oil city of Jamnagar, Jabalpur, Kolhapur and
Assam. Shevaroy Hills as surface deposits occur in
• The first oil well in Asia was mined in these areas where …………. soil is found-
Digboi. In the year 1901, Asia's first oil (a) Mountain (b) Black
refinery was also established here. (c) Laterite (d) Flood soil
35. Which of the following metals is found in Ans: (c)
abundance in Balaghat mines?
(a) Iron ore (b) Bauxite

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• Bauxite belongs to laterite rocks formed (c) Gold field (d) Diamonds
in the Tertiary period, which is an oxide Ans: (c)
of aluminium. • Ramgiri located in Anantapur district of
• It is a byproduct of residual weathering, Andhra Pradesh is famous for gold field.
which leads to leaching of silica. 42. Identify the wrong pair from the
• It is obtained in the form of iron-ash. following-
Bauxite contains 55 to 65 per cent (a) Khetri - Iron
alumina. It is mainly obtained from the (b) Kashmir - Saffron
areas of Ranchi, Jamnagar, Jabalpur, (c) Moradabad - Brass
Kolhapur and Shevaroy Hills. (d) Surat - Diamond
39. Which state is the largest producer of Ans: (a)
manganese in India? • Khetri is located in Jhunjhunu district of
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Odisha India's western province Rajasthan. It is
(c) Maharashtra (d) Karnataka famous for its copper mine.
Ans: (a) • The largest production of saffron in India
• Madhya Pradesh is the largest producer of is in the state of Jammu and Kashmir.
manganese in India. Kolar mine of • Moradabad district of Uttar Pradesh,
Karnataka state is famous for gold India is famous all over the world for
production. brass items and handicrafts done on brass.
• India ranks fourth in the production of • Similarly, Surat city of Gujarat state is
manganese ore globally after South known for diamond trade.
Africa, China and Australia. 43. Rajasthan is known for its reserves.
• Manganese is an important component in (a) Copper (b) Manganese
the manufacture of iron ore. (c) Gold (d) Iron
• Manganese is used in the manufacture of Ans: (a)
dry batteries. • Rajasthan is known for its copper
• Odisha has the largest reserve of reserves, while the leading states in
manganese in India. production are Madhya Pradesh,
40. Which of the following metals is found in Rajasthan and Jharkhand.
abundance in Hazaribagh mines? • The highest production of copper in the
(a) Copper (b) Bronze world is in 'Chile'.
(c) Iron (d) Silver 44. Kolar Gold Field is located in...............
Ans: (a) (a) Madhya Pradesh
• Major copper producing areas of India (b) Andhra Pradesh
State Producing area (c) Tamil Nadu
• Jharkhand Singhbhumi, Hazaribagh (d) Karnataka
• Rajasthan Khetri, Jhunjhunu, Ans: (d)
Alwar, Sirohi • Kolar Gold Field is located in Karnataka.
• Maharashtra Kolhapur • The highest production of gold in India is
• Madhya Pradesh Balaghat in the state of Karnataka. Gold mines in
• Karnataka Chital Durg, Hassan, this state are located in Dharwad, Hassan
Raichur and Raichur districts.
41. Ramgiri in Anantapur district is famous • This state produces 88.7 percent of gold
for................. in India. Apart from this, gold is also
(a) Petroleum (b) Silver

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extracted from some parts of Andhra • After Bombay High, Rajasthan is the
Pradesh and Jharkhand. second largest crude oil producing state
45. In which state is Singhbhum mine located? of India.
(a) Chhattisgarh (b) Orissa 49. Which mineral is present in monazite
(c) Jharkhand (d) Rajasthan sand?
Ans: (c) (a) Thorium (b) Talc
• Singhbhum mine is located in Jharkhand. (c) Mica (d) Galena
Singhbhum is the oldest district of this Ans: (a)
state. • India has the largest reserves of thorium
• Chromite, magnetite, manganese, raw in the world and produces 75 percent of
iron etc. minerals are found in Singhbhum the total thorium in the world.
mine of this district. • In India, thorium is obtained from
46. There are ............ gold areas in India. monazite sand. Monazite is mainly found
(a) 1 (b) 4 in the sand of Kerala (160 km length from
(c) 3 (d) 2 Kanyakumari to Quilon in Kerala). Apart
Ans: (c) from this, thorium is also found in
• At present there are a total of three gold Jharkhand (Hazaribagh), Rajasthan
areas in India, which are as follows- (Bhilwara), Andhra Pradesh
• Kolar and Haddi (Karnataka) (Karimnagar) and Tamil Nadu (Madurai).
• Anantapur (Andhra Pradesh) 50. Which of the following valleys is known for
• Hirabudini (Jharkhand) large amount of coal reserves?
47. Crude oil is.... (a) Godavari Valley
(a) Colourless (b) Damodar Valley
(b) Odourless (c) Mahanadi Valley
(c) Odourful yellow or black coloured liquid (d) Indus Valley
(d) Odourless yellow or black coloured liquid Ans: (b)
Ans: (c) • The main coal region of the Gondwana
• The saturated hydrocarbon found system is the Damodar Valley region,
between the sedimentary layers below the which is known for its large amount of
surface is called petroleum. It is also coal reserves. The largest share of the
called 'crude oil'. total coal production in India is found in
• Crude oil is a smelly yellow or black Gondwana era rocks.
liquid. • Gondwana era coal is mainly of
48. Which is the second largest crude oil bituminous type, which is used in the iron
producing state in India? and steel factories of the country by
(a) Rajasthan (b) Maharashtra making coking coal.
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Goa 51. Mayurbhanj mines are known for which of
Ans: (a) the following metals?
• In India, Bombay High (Maharashtra) is (a) Iron ore (b) Bauxite
the largest crude oil producer of the (c) Copper (d) Aluminium
country, which is included in the offshore Ans: (a)
area. • In India, iron ore is mainly found in
ancient Dharwad rocks. Orissa is the
major iron ore producing state of India.

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• In this state, Keonjhar, Bonai and India, the top iron ore producing states in
Mayurbhanj districts are the major iron India are Odisha (59.64%), Chhattisgarh
ore producing areas. About 20 percent of (14.11%), Karnataka (12.76%) and
the country's iron is obtained from Jharkhand (10.93%) respectively.
Mayurbhanj. Gurumahisani, Badam 55. Iron ore is not available in the following
Pahad and Sulepat are the major Indian states
production centers located in (a) Bihar
Mayurbhanj. (b) Madhya Pradesh
52. Ankleshwar and Kalol are two oil fields of (c) Odisha
................- (d) Punjab
(a) Gujarat (b) Assam Ans: (d)
(c) Mathura (d) Mumbai High • There are four major areas of iron ore
Ans: (a) production in India-
• Ankleshwar and Kalol are two oil fields 1. Eastern India - Jharkhand and Odisha
of Gujarat state. 2. Central India - Madhya Pradesh,
• Ankleshwar is a mineral oil reserve area Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra
spread over an area of 30 sq. km. in 3. Peninsular India- which includes
Bharuch district of Gujarat. Kalol is Karnataka, Goa
located in Ahmedabad. Navgram, 4. Other areas are Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan,
Dholka, Kosamba etc. producing areas Kerala, Gujarat, Haryana and West Bengal. It
come under it. is noteworthy that during the question period,
53. In India, iron ore is found in which of the Jharkhand was a part of Bihar. Hence the
following order of rocks? desired answer will be Punjab.
(a) Vindhyan (b) Cuddapah 56. Which mineral is found in Nathra-ki-Paal
(c) Dharwad (d) Gondwana region of Rajasthan?
Ans: (c) (a) Iron ore (b) Copper
• In India, iron ore is mainly found in the (c) Lead and Zinc (d) Manganese
Dharwad rock system. Dharwad rock Ans: (a)
system is the most economically Nathra-ki-Paal and Thur-Hunder areas
important rock found in India. located in Udaipur district of Rajasthan are
54. According to the Annual Report, 2020-21 famous for iron ore.
of the Ministry of Mines, - Which of the 57. Which of the following is the largest
following two states are the leading mechanized mine in India?
producers of iron ore in India? (a) Ratnagiri Mine (b) Jaipur Mine
1. Odisha 2. Chhattisgarh (c) Sundargarh Mine (d) Bailadila Mine
3. Jharkhand 4. Karnataka Ans: (d)
Select the correct answer from the code • Bailadila Mine is the largest mechanized
given below. mine in India.
Code: • The iron ore produced from here is
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 exported to Japan from Visakhapatnam
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 port.
Ans: (b) 58. Consider the following statements and
• According to the Annual Report, 2020-21 choose the correct answer from the code
of the Ministry of Mines, Government of given below-

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1. The richest reserves of iron ore are found • The states with the highest availability of
in Karnataka. hematite in India are Odisha, Jharkhand,
2. India is the second largest producer of Chhattisgarh, Karnataka and Goa
iron ore in the world. respectively.
3. Odisha is the largest producer of iron ore 61. Which of the following is an ore of iron
in India. metal?
Code: (a) Chromite (b) Malachite
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Bauxite (d) Hematite
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All are correct Ans: (d)
Ans: (c) • According to Indian Minerals Yearbook,
• According to the Indian Minerals 2020, as of April 1, 2015, among the
Yearbook 2020, the richest reserves of given options, hematite has the highest
iron ore in India are in Karnataka, Odisha, reserves of iron ore.
Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh states • The states with the highest availability of
respectively, while Odisha ranks first in hematite in India are Odisha, Jharkhand,
terms of production (quantity and value). Chhattisgarh, Karnataka and Goa
• According to the data of the year 2019, respectively.
India is the fourth largest producer of iron 62. Rajasthan has almost monopoly in-
ore in the world. It is clear from the (a) Copper (b) Mica
explanation that option (c) is the correct (c) Zinc (d) Dolomite
answer. Ans: (c)
59. Which of the following is not correctly • According to the Indian Minerals
matched? Yearbook, 2020, Rajasthan has almost a
(a) Gold – Kolar monopoly on zinc as of April 1, 2015.
(b) Coal – Jharia 63. In which state of India silver is not
(c) Iron ore – Gundur available?
(d) Diamond – Panna (a) Odisha
Ans: (c) (b) Andhra Pradesh
• Gundur is not known for iron ore mining; (c) Gujarat
instead, it is associated with Magnetite (d) Jharkhand
ore deposits minerals. Ans: (c)
• The other options are correctly matched: • According to the 'Indian Minerals
✓ Kolar Gold Fields in Karnataka Yearbook, 2020', as of April 1, 2015,
✓ Jharia coalfields in Jharkhand. silver reserves in India are present in
✓ Panna in Madhya Pradesh is known for Rajasthan (top reserve), Jharkhand,
diamond mining. Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya
60. Which of the following types of iron ore Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Odisha,
has the highest reserves in India? Meghalaya, Sikkim, Tamil Nadu and
(a) Hematite (b) Magnetite Maharashtra.
(c) Siderite (d) Limonite • Hence, it is clear that silver reserves are
Ans: (a) not available in Gujarat.
• According to the Indian Minerals 64. Match List-I and List-II using the codes
Yearbook, 2020, among the given given below the lists- and select the correct
options, hematite has the highest reserves answer
of iron ore as of April 1, 2015.

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List-I (Copper Areas) List-II (States) 66. Match List - I and List - II and choose the
A. Chanderpur 1. Maharashtra correct answer from the code given below
B. Hassan 2. Andhra -
Pradesh List - I List-II
C. Khammam 3. Rajasthan (Mining Area) (Mineral Wealth)
D. Khetri 4. Karnataka 1. Kalahandi i. Gold
Code: 2. Jawar ii. Copper
A B C D 3. Kolar iii. Bauxite
(a) 1 4 2 3 4. Mosabani iv. Zinc and Lead
(b) 2 3 4 1 Code:
(c) 4 2 3 1 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 1 2 4 (a) I ii iii iv
Ans: (a) (b) I iv iii ii
• The correct matching will be as follows- (c) iii iv I ii
(State) (Copper Areas) (d) iii ii iv i
Maharashtra Chanderpur Ans: (c)
Andhra Pradesh (present Khammam • The correct matching is as follows –
Telangana) Mining area Mineral wealth
Rajasthan Khetri (Khetri)
• Kalahandi - Bauxite
65. According to the Annual Report of the
• Jawar - Zinc and Lead
Ministry of Mines 2020-21, which of the
• Kolar - Gold
following two states are the major
• Mosabani - Copper
producers of bauxite in India?
67. Koderma is famous for which mineral?
1. Odisha 2. Andhra Pradesh
(a) Iron ore (b) Mica
3. Chhattisgarh 4. Gujarat
(c) Gypsum (d) Bauxite
Choose the correct answer from the code
given below- Ans: (b)
Code - • Koderma located in Jharkhand is famous
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 for mica mineral
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 68. What is marble?
Ans: (c) (a) Sedimentary rock (b) Valcaric rock
• According to the Annual Report of the (c) Metamorphic rock (d) Igneous rock
Ministry of Mines 2020-21, Odisha Ans: (c)
contributed the most to bauxite • Marble is a metamorphic rock, which is
production in India in the year 2019-20, formed by the metamorphism of
while Gujarat and Chhattisgarh ranked limestone
second and third respectively in this 69. Where was the first coal mine found in
context. India?
• According to the Annual Report of the (a) Jharia (b) Raniganj
Ministry of Mines 2021-22, the top two (c) Dhanbad (d) Asansol
states in the country's total bauxite Ans: (b)
production in the year 2020-21 are • The first coal mine in India was found on
Odisha and Gujarat. the banks of Damodar River in Raniganj.
• This mining was done as commercial coal
mining from 1774 AD.

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70. Which of the following rock systems is the D. Mahanadi Valley 4. Singareni
main source of coal deposits in India? Code:
(a) Dharwad system A B C D
(b) Gondwana system (a) 2 3 4 1
(c) Cuddapah system (b) 3 2 1 4
(d) Vindhya system (c) 1 3 4 2
Ans: (b) (d) 4 1 2 3
• Most of the coal fields of India are related Ans: (a)
to the Lower Gondwana period. • The matching of the coal producing area
• According to the Indian Minerals in question and their respective coal
Yearbook, 2020, as of April 1, 2020, mines is as follows-
Gondwana coal contributes to more than (Coal producing area) - (Coal mine)
99 percent of the country's coal reserves • Damodar Valley – Barakar
and production. • Son Valley – Umaria
71. Which of the following is/are the • Godavari Valley – Singareni
characteristics of Indian coal • Mahanadi Valley - Talcher (Talchir)
1. High ash content 73. Which of the following is the largest area
2. Low sulphur content of lignite coal in India?
3. Low ash fusion temperature (a) Singrauli (b) Makum
Select the correct answer using the code (c) Karnapura (d) Neyveli
given below. Ans: (d)
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 • The largest deposit of lignite coal in India
(c) Only 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 is Neyveli in Tamil Nadu.
Ans: (a) • According to the Indian Minerals
• In India, coal is found mainly in two Yearbook, 2020, Tamil Nadu tops India
regions- Gondwana region and Tertiary in both storage and production of lignite
period region. coal.
• The coal of Gondwana region has less ash 74. Bisrampur is famous for the mining of-
content and high heat-producing power, (a) Copper ore (b) Iron ore
while the coal of Tertiary period region is (c) Coal (d) Manganese
of poor quality. Due to the abundance of Ans: (c)
sulphur in it, it is not used for certain • Bisrampur area of Surajpur district of
industries. Chhattisgarh is famous for coal mining.
• Most of the coal of India is obtained from 75. Match List-I with List-II and select the
Gondwana region (about 99%). Most of correct answer from the codes given below
the bituminous coal is obtained here. It the lists :
has low sulphur content. List-I List-II
72. Match List-I and List-II and choose the (Coal Region) (State)
correct answer from the codes given below (A) Karanpura 1. Chhattisgarh
the lists- (B) Singareni 2. Tamil Nadu
List-I List-II (C) Neyveli 3. Jharkhand
(Coal producing area) (Coal mine) (D) Korba 4. Andhra
A. Damodar Valley 1. Talcher Pradesh
B. Son Valley 2. Barakar Code :
C. Godavari Valley 3. Umaria A B C D

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(a) 4 1 2 3 • Jharia, Dhanbad, Bokaro of Jharkhand
(b) 1 2 4 3 and Raniganj coalfield of West Bengal
(c) 3 4 2 1 fall in Damodar River Valley.
(d) 1 3 2 4 • Raniganj Coalfield is also spread in
Ans: (c) Jharkhand.
• The correct matching of the coal region 78. Match List-I with List-II and select the
and states in question is as follows- correct answer from the codes given below
Karanpura Jharkhand the lists-
Singareni Andhra Pradesh List – I List – II
(now in Telangana) (Coalfield) (Location)
Neyveli Tamil Nadu A. Makum 1. Assam
Korba Chhattisgarh
B. Namchik
76. Consider the following problems of Indian
[Link]
coal industry :
C. Giridih 3. Jharkhand
I. Low grade coal and hindrance in coal
D. Sohagpur 4. Madhya
transportation.
Pradesh
II. Decrease in the utilization capacity of
Code :
washing establishments.
A B C D
III. Increasing dependence on import of
(a) 1 2 3 4
coking coal.
(b) 1 2 4 3
IV. Operational prices.
(c) 1 4 3 2
Which of the above are correct?
(d) 2 1 3 4
(a) II, III and IV (b) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (a)
(c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and III
• Makum is a coalfield located in Assam.
Ans: (b)
• Namchik-Namphuk coalfield is a
• Indian coal industry is currently suffering
coalfield located in Changlang district of
from many problems, the main ones
Arunachal Pradesh.
among which are - low grade coal,
• Giridih district is a coalfield of
decrease in the utilization capacity of
Jharkhand.
washing establishments, increasing
• Other areas in Jharkhand, Bokaro, Jharia,
import of coking coal, hindrance in
Karanpura (Karanpura) are also famous
transportation of coal and operation
for coal production.
prices etc.
79. In which state does underground coal
77. Which of the following river valleys is most
burning take place?
important from the point of view of
(a) West Bengal (b) Bihar
Gondwana era coal reserves?
(c) Jharkhand (d) Odisha
(a) Son River Valley
Ans: (c)
(b) Mahanadi River Valley
• Underground coal burning is taking place
(c) Damodar River Valley
in Jharkhand state.
(d) Godavari River Valley
• This burning is taking place in Jharia
Ans: (c)
coalfield area.
• Damodar River Valley is most important
80. In India, what is the role of Coal
in terms of Gondwana era coal reserves.
Controller's Organization (CCO)?
1. CCO is the main source of coal statistics
in the Government of India.

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2. It monitors the progress of development
of bound coal/lignite block.
3. It monitors any objection to the
Government notification regarding
acquisition of coal bearing areas.
4. It ensures that coal mining companies
deliver coal to the end consumers within
the prescribed time.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below -
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (a)
• The office of the Coal Controller
Organization in India was established in
the year 1916. Earlier it was known as the
Office of the Coal Commissioner.
• The Coal Controller is the statistical
authority in respect of coal and lignite
statistics under the Statistics Collection
Act, 2008. He is entrusted with the task of
editing the Annual Coal and Lignite
Survey and Provisional Coal Statistics
and Coal Directory of the Government of
India.
• It monitors coal and lignite blocks. Under
the Coal Bearing Areas (Acquisition and
Development) Act, 1957, the Coal
Controller is empowered to hear
objections to the Central Government
notification relating to acquisition of coal
bearing land and to make a report to the
Government. But Statement 4 is not the
function or responsibility of the Coal
Controller Organi sation.

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Water Resources
1. Which of the following statements is true • The water footprint measures the total
regarding water availability in India? volume of freshwater that is used directly
(a) India has only 4% of the world's or indirectly in the production of goods
freshwater resources. and services
(b) India is the largest user of groundwater in 5. What is the primary challenge to water
the world. availability in India?
(c) Both (a) and (b) are true. (a) Over-extraction of groundwater
(d) None of the above. (b) Pollution of water bodies
Ans. (C) (c) Climate variability
• India has approximately 4% of the (d) All of the above
world's freshwater resources and is Ans. (D)
indeed the largest user of groundwater, • Over-extraction of groundwater,
primarily for irrigation. pollution, and climate variability are all
2. The main source of freshwater in India is major challenges affecting water
(a) Rainwater (b) Rivers availability in India.
(c) Glaciers (d) Groundwater 6. Which of the following is the largest dam
Ans. (D) in India
• Groundwater is the primary source of (a) Bhakra Nangal Dam
freshwater in India, accounting for a (b) Sardar Sarovar Dam
significant portion of irrigation and (c) Tehri Dam
drinking water supply. (d) Hirakud Dam
3. Which of the following factors primarily Ans. (A)
affects the availability of water resources • The Bhakra Nangal Dam, built on the
in India? Sutlej River in Himachal Pradesh, is one
(a) Population growth of the largest and most important dams in
(b) Climate change India.
(c) Urbanization 7. Which of the following dams is known for
(d) All of the above being the highest in India?
Ans. (D) (a) Tehri Dam
• Population growth, climate change, and (b) Bhakra Nangal Dam
urbanization all significantly impact the (c) Idukki Dam
availability and distribution of water (d) Koynanagar Dam
resources in India. Ans. (A)
4. The concept of "Water Footprint" refers • Tehri Dam, located on the Bhagirathi
to: River in Uttarakhand, is the highest dam
(a) The amount of water available in a region in India.
(b) The total volume of freshwater used to 8. Which dam is associated with the
produce goods and services 'Narmada Bachao Andolan'?
(c) The depth of water in a river (a) Bhakra Nangal Dam
(d) The area covered by water bodies (b) Sardar Sarovar Dam
Ans. (B) (c) Tehri Dam
(d) Koyna Dam

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Ans. (B) Cauvery in Karnataka was the first major

• The Sardar Sarovar Dam has been at the power station in India
center of the 'Narmada Bachao Andolan', • Nathpa Jhakri Hydroelectric Power Plant
a movement against the displacement is the biggest underground hydroelectric
caused by dam construction. power project in the country.
9. The purpose of the Koyna Dam is 13. Which of the following is the largest
primarily: hydroelectric power project in India?
(a) Irrigation (a) Bhakra Nangal Project
(b) Hydropower generation (b) Tehri Hydro Power Complex
(c) Flood control (c) Sardar Sarovar Project
(d) Drinking water supply (d) Koyna Project
Ans. (B) Ans. (D)
• The Koyna Dam in Maharashtra is • The Koyna Hydroelectric Project is
primarily used for hydropower the largest completed hydroelectric
generation, making it one of the key power plant in India. It has a power
sources of electricity in the state. capacity of 1960 MW.
10. Which of the following states has the most 14. The Narmada Valley Development Project
number of major dams? is primarily aimed at:
(a) Maharashtra (b) Tamil Nadu (a) Hydropower generation
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Gujarat (b) Flood control
Ans. (A) (c) Irrigation and drinking water supply
• Maharashtra has the highest number of (d) River conservation
major dams in India, serving various Ans. (C)
purposes including irrigation, • The Narmada Valley Development
hydropower, and water supply. Project focuses on irrigation and
11. The Dam Safety Bill was introduced in providing drinking water to various
which year? regions.
(a) 2000 (b) 2013 15. The National Hydroelectric Power
(c) 2019 (d) 2021 Corporation (NHPC) was established in:
Ans. (C) (a) 1975 (b) 1980
• The Dam Safety Bill, aimed at ensuring (c) 1990 (d) 2000
the safety of dams across the country, was Ans. (A)
introduced in 2019. • The NHPC was established in 1975 to
12. Which is India’s first hydroelectric power promote and develop hydroelectric power
station? in India.
(a) Idukki Hydro Electric Power plant 16. Which project is aimed at interlinking
(b) Shivanasamudra Hydroelectric Power rivers for irrigation and flood control?**
plant (a) Ganga Action Plan
(c) Koyna Hydroelectric Power plant (b) National River Linking Project
(d) Bhakra Nangal Hydroelectric Power plant (c) Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement
Ans. (B) Project
• The 4.5 megawatt hydroelectric power (d) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana
station near Sivasamudram falls of the Ans. (B)

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• The National River Linking Project aims ▪ Tehri Dam Bhagirathi

to interlink rivers across the country for River
better water management, irrigation, and ▪ Hirakund Dam Mahanadi
flood control. ▪ Salal Dam Chenab River
17. Which of the following is a key benefit of ▪ Uri Dam Jhelum River
the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai ▪ Baglihar Dam Chenab River
Yojana? ▪ Nagarjuna Sagar Dam Krishna River
(a) Increasing food production 20. Jayakwadi (Phase-1) Hydroelectric
(b) Providing subsidies to farmers Project is built on which river?
(c) Enhancing irrigation coverage (a) Indus (b) Kaveri
(d) Promoting organic farming (c) Ganga (d) Godavari
Ans. (C) Ans. (D)
• The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai • Jayakwadi Hydroelectric Project is a river
Yojana aims to enhance irrigation valley project of India.
coverage to improve agricultural • This project is located on Godavari River
productivity. near Jayakwadi village in Aurangabad
18. Which of the following dams was built on district of Maharashtra.
Ganga river? • The total length of this dam is about 10
(a) Chamera Dam (b) Koyna Dam km. A reservoir is built behind the dam
(c) Tehri Dam (d) Rihand Dam which is called Nathsagar Reservoir.
Ans. (C): • A power house of 12 MW capacity has
• Tehri Dam is built on Bhagirathi River in been installed on this dam.
Tehri Garhwal district of Uttarakhand. 21. Dulhasti Power Station is located in which
Ganga River is known as Bhagirathi of the following districts?
above Devprayag. (a) Anantnag (b) Kishtwar
• The major dams and the related rivers are (c) Danda (d) Poonch
as follows- Ans. (B):
Dam River Location • Dulhasti Power Station is a run-of-the-river
Chamera Ravi River Himachal water harvesting scheme with an installed
Dam Pradesh capacity of 390 MW (3×130MW) to
Koyna Dam Koyna Maharashtra harness the hydroelectric potential of the
River
Chenab River. It is located in Kishtwar
Rihand Dam Rihand Uttar Pradesh
River district of Jammu and Kashmir.
19. On which river is Bhakra Nangal Dam 22. The impact of the problems arising from
built? the construction of large dams has not
(a) Godavari (b) Sutlej been criticized on which of the following
(c) Brahmaputra (d) Jhelum grounds?
Ans. (B): (a) Economic (b) Environmental
• Bhakra Nangal Dam is situated on Sutlej (c) Psychological (d) Social
River. It is the highest gravity dam in Ans. (C):
India. • The impact of the problems arising from
• The list of major dams and related rivers the construction of large dams has not been
of India is given below- criticized on psychological grounds.
Dam River

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• Its impact has been criticised on economic, • Rana Pratap Sagar, Jawahar Sagar and
environmental and social grounds. Kota Barrage Dams have been
23. Which of the following is the least constructed under the Chambal River
important reason for building a large Project.
dam? 26. What is the main purpose of most of the
(a) Place for boating, fishing and picnics for dams present around the world?
families (a) Drinking water supply
(b) Renewable source of electricity for a (b) Irrigation
region (c) Electricity generation
(c) Flood control in downstream areas (d) All of the options
(d) Guaranteed water supply for households Ans : (D)
Ans. (A) • The purpose of dam construction is- to
• Construction of large dams has a wide make canals for irrigation,
range of economic, environmental and hydroelectricity generation, pure drinking
social benefits including flood control, water supply, flood control, tourism etc.
water supply, hydroelectric power, waste Therefore, dams are also called
management, river navigation and multipurpose projects.
wildlife habitats. 27. Idukki Dam is built on which river?
• While the least important reason for (a) Mahanadi (b) Krishna
building a large dam is place for boating, (c) Ghatprabha (d) Periyar
fishing and picnics for families. Ans. (D):
24. Gosikhurd National Irrigation Project is • Idukki Dam is built on Periyar River.
related to which of the following states? Periyar River is the longest river in Kerala
(a) West Bengal (b) Maharashtra state, whose length is 244 km.
(c) Punjab (d) Uttar Pradesh • Hirakud Dam – Mahanadi
Ans. (B) • Lal Bahadur Shastri Dam (Almatti Dam)
• Gosikhurd National Irrigation Project is - Krishna River Srisailam Dam,
related to the state of 'Maharashtra'. This Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
project is one of the major irrigation • Raja Lakhamgouda Dam (Hidkal Dam) -
projects of the Godavari basin located on Ghatprabha River
the Wainganga River. 28. Which of the following pairs of dams and
• It is also known as "Indira Sagar Irrigation their located states is not correctly
Project". matched?
25. In which state is Gandhi Sagar Dam (a) Stanley Reservoir - Tamil Nadu
located? (b) Govind Sagar - Himachal Pradesh
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (c) Shanti Sagar - Kerala
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) West Bengal (d) Nagarjuna Sagar - Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (a): Ans. (C):
• Gandhi Sagar Dam is located on the Dam - State
Chambal River in Mandsaur, Madhya • Stanley Reservoir - Tamil Nadu
Pradesh. It is the first and major dam of • Gobind Sagar - Himachal
the ambitious multipurpose 'Chambal Pradesh
River Valley Project'. • Shanti Sagar - Karnataka
• Nagarjuna Sagar - Andhra Pradesh

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29. Select the pair which is not correctly Konar and Panchet were constructed.
matched (Dam - River on which it is built). Damodar Valley Project is spread over
(a) Nathpa Jhakri Dam - Jhelum River the states of Jharkhand and West Bengal.
(b) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam - Krishna River 32. The first river dam of independent India
(c) Indira Sagar Dam - Narmada River was built on which of these rivers?
(d) Tehri Dam - Bhagirathi River (a) Krishna (b) Ganga
Ans. (A): (c) Damodar (d) Yamuna
• Nathpa Jhakri Dam is not situated on Ans. (C) :
Jhelum River but on Sutlej River. • Damodar Valley Project is the first
• Whereas Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is multipurpose project of independent
situated on Krishna River and Indira India. Which was started in the year 1948
Sagar Dam on Narmada River and Tehri on the basis of Tennessee River Valley
Dam on Bhagirathi River. Project of America.
30. India and.......signed an agreement to build • Under this project, the first river dam of
the Shahtoot Dam in February, 2021. independent India was constructed on
(a) Bhutan (b) Afghanistan Damodar River. Damodar Valley
(c) Bangladesh (d) Pakistan Corporation has been established to
Ans. (B) : operate this project.
• The MoU for the construction of the • Damodar River originates from the hills
Lalandar (Shahtoot) Dam between of Chotanagpur and meets Hooghly River
Afghanistan and India was signed on in West Bengal. Tilaiya, Konar, Maithan
February 9, 2021. dams have been built in this project.
• The MoU was signed by Indian Foreign While thermal power plants have been
Minister Dr. S. Jaishankar and Afghanistan constructed in Bokaro, Durgapur,
Foreign Minister Hanif Atmar. Chandrapur and Patratu.
• The dam will meet the drinking water 33. Which two rivers have been linked by the
needs of Kabul city, revive the existing Pattiseema Lift irrigation project?
network of irrigation and drainage and (a) Godavari and Kaveri
provide electricity. (b) Godavari and Mahanadi
31. Which of the following is not correct with (c) Godavari and Krishna
reference to PSUs and their (d) Godavari and Narmada
establishment? Ans. (C)
(a) Airports Authority of India 1995 • In the Pattiseema Lift Irrigation Project,
(b) Bamlari & Company Limited 1867 Godavari and Krishna rivers have been
(c) Damodar Valley Corporation 1958 linked under the river linking project.
(d) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation 1956 This project was launched by the Andhra
Ans. (C): Pradesh government on March 24, 2016.
• On the basis of America's 'Tennessee 34. Which of the following projects is in
Valley Authority', 'Damodar Valley Uttarakhand?
Corporation' was established by an Act of (a) Tehri Hydro Power Complex
Parliament in the year 1948 under the (b) Koena Hydroelectric Project
'Damodar Valley Project'. (c) Sharavati Hydroelectric Project
• Seven dams were to be constructed by (d) Chamera Hydroelectric Project
this, out of which 4 are Tilaiya, Maithan, Ans. (A):

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• Tehri Hydroelectric Project is in Krishnaraja Cauvery, Karnataka

Uttarakhand, which is built on Bhagirathi Sagar Dam Hemavati and
River Lakshmana
Tirtha River
• It is the highest dam in India and the 5th
Mettur Dam Cauvery Tamil Nadu
highest dam in the world. This dam 37. Rajghat Dam is situated on.......... river.
produces 2400 MW of electricity. (a) Betwa (b) Narmada
Project Location (c) Sutlej (d) Chambal
Koena Hydroelectric Maharashtra (Satara)
Project Ans : (A)
Sharavati Karnataka (Jog • Rajghat Dam is situated on Betwa River
Hydroelectric Project Falls) and the foundation stone of this dam was
Chamera Himachal Pradesh laid by late Smt. Indira Gandhi in 1971.
Hydroelectric Project (Ravi River) • This dam is situated on the border of Uttar
35. Which of the following is not correctly Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh states.
matched? Three canals distribute water from this
(a) Bhakra Dam - Himachal Pradesh dam, out of which two supply water to
(b) Sardar Sarovar Dam - Gujarat Uttar Pradesh and one to Madhya
(c) Tehri Dam - Maharashtra Pradesh.
(d) Hirakud Dam - Odisha
38. Malampuzha Dam is situated at which of
Ans. (C): the following places?
Dam Related State River (a) Papanasam (b) Chandigarh
Tehri Dam Uttarakhand Bhagirathi (c) Palakkad (d) Pune
Bhakra Dam Punjab, Sutlej
Haryana, Ans : (C)
Himachal • Malampuzha Dam is located in Palakkad,
Pradesh, Kerala in South India. It is on the
Rajasthan Malampuzha River which is a tributary of
Sardar Gujarat, Narmada Kerala's second largest river
Sarovar Maharashtra, Bharatapuzha.
Dam Rajasthan,
Madhya Pradesh 39. Ukai Dam was constructed on the .............
Hirakud Odisha Mahanadi river.
Dam (a) Tapti (b) Godavi
36. ………….. is the largest earthen dam in (c) Narmada (d) Krishna
India and the second largest in Asia. This Ans : (A)
dam was named after the son of King • Ukai Dam has been constructed on the
Mahabali of Kerala. Tapti River. It is located in Surat district
(a) Banasura Sagar Dam of Gujarat state. It was constructed in
(b) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam 1972 AD.
(c) Krishnaraja Sagar Dam 40. Which of the following is an example of an
(d) Mettur Dam arch dam in India?
Ans. (A): (a) Lakhwar Dam (b) Bhakra Dam
Name of the Related river State (c) Tehri Dam (d) Idukki Dam
dam
Ans : (D)
Banasur Karamanathodu Kerala
Sagar Dam River • Idukki Dam is the third arch dam in the
Nagarjuna Krishna River Telangana world and the first arch dam in Asia.
Sagar Dam

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Idukki Dam is built on Periyar River in (b) Odisha
Kerala. This dam is 554 feet long. (c) Gujarat
41. Tipaimukh Dam is located in which of the (d) Andhra Pradesh
following states? Ans. (B)
(a) Tripura (b) Manipur • Rukura Medium Irrigation Dam Project is
(c) Mizoram (d) Nagaland located in the state of Odisha.
Ans : (B) • On July 25, 2018, Odisha Chief Minister
• Tipaimukh Dam is located on Barak Naveen Patnaik inaugurated the Rukura
River in Manipur state. The purpose of Medium Irrigation Project in Sundargarh,
this dam is flood control and Odisha.
hydroelectric power generation. • The cost of this project is Rs 300 crores,
42. Which of the following dams is built on which will irrigate a total of 5800 hectares
Krishna River? of agricultural land.
(a) Narmada Sagar • This project has been started to deal with
(b) Nagarjuna Sagar the problem of drought in Sundargarh
(c) Bhakra Nangal district.
(d) Hirakund • This project has been built on the Rukura
Ans : (B) river in the Brahmani and Vaitarni basin
• Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is located on area.
Krishna River in Guntur, Andhra 45. Rihand River Valley Project is located in
Pradesh. The foundation of this dam was ..............-
laid by the then Prime Minister Pandit (a) Assam
Jawaharlal Nehru on 10 December 1955. (b) Uttar Pradesh
It is named after the Buddhist scholar (c) Haryana
Nagarjuna. (d) Himachal Pradesh
43. 'Kaleshwaram' is an irrigation project Ans: (B)
started by which of the following state • Rihand River Valley Project is located on
governments? Rihand River in Sonbhadra district of
(a) Kerala (b) Telangana Uttar Pradesh. The foundation stone of
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Odisha this project was laid on 13 July 1954. Its
Ans : (B) tributaries are Gowari, Morna, Mohan
• 'Kaleshwaram' is a lift irrigation project etc.
started by the Telangana government. 46. Where is Kandaleru Dam located?
• Under this project, water from the (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala
Godavari river will be lifted from the (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka
Medigadda barrage and supplied to Ans. (C):
Karimnagar, Nizamabad, Warangal and • Kandaleru Dam is an irrigation project,
Medak districts of Telangana. Under this which has been built on Kandaleru River
project, pumps with a capacity of 139 in Rampur Mandal of Nellore district in
MW will be used for the first time in the Andhra Pradesh.
country. 47. In which state is Pagladiya Dam Project
44. In which state is the Rukura Medium located?
Irrigation Dam Project located? (a) Meghalaya (b) West Bengal
(a) Assam (c) Nagaland (d) Assam

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Ans. (D): meters long and 20 meters wide. Which

• The Pagladiya Dam Project is located on covers an area of 146.70 square km.
the Brahmaputra River in Assam state. 51. Sharavati hydroelectric project is in
The height of this dam is 25 m. ...............-
48. Pulichintala Hydroelectric Project is built (a) Puducherry (b) Karnataka
on which river? (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Kerala
(a) Peksha (b) Kaveri Ans : (B)
(c) Godavari (d) Krishna • Sharavati hydroelectric project is located
Ans. (D) at Garsoppa or Jog Falls of Sharavati
• Pulichintala Hydroelectric Project is River in Karnataka state. Which is also
located on the Krishna River in Nalgonda known as Mahatma Gandhi Waterfall.
district of Telangana state. 52. Tungabhadra multipurpose project is
• It was first conceived in 1911 by British established on the bank of the tributary of
engineer Colonel Ellis. It was started by which of the following rivers?
the then Chief Minister of Andhra (a) Godavari (b) Krishna
Pradesh N. T. Rama Rao. It was opened (c) Mahanadi (d) Indus
on 7 December 2013 by the Chief Ans : (B)
Minister of Andhra Pradesh Kiran Kumar • Tungabhadra project is one of the river
Reddy. valley projects of India. Tungabhadra
49. In which state is the Bansagar Dam River is a tributary of Krishna River. The
located? dam built on this river is at a place called
(a) Maharashtra Hospet in Karnataka.
(b) Andhra Pradesh • The construction of this dam was
(c) Gujarat completed in 1953 AD. This dam forms a
(d) Madhya Pradesh very large reservoir on the Tungabhadra
Ans : (D) River.
• Bansagar Dam is located in Madhya 53. Which of the following power houses is
Pradesh state. This dam is situated on the associated with the Damodar Valley
Son River. It is a multipurpose canal Project?
project of the Vindhya region. It is the I. Durgapur II. Chandrapura
largest canal project in Asia. The cost of III. Maitham IV. Hampi
this project is Rs 3500 crore. (a) Only I and II (b) Only II and III
50. Which is the oldest dam in India? (c) I, II and III (d) I, II, III and IV
(a) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam Ans: (C)
(b) Almatti Dam • Damodar Valley Project is the first
(c) Indira Sagar Dam multipurpose project of independent
(d) Grand Anikut (Kallanai) India. It is spread over Jharkhand and
Ans : (D) West Bengal.
• Grand Anikut (Kallanai) is the oldest dam • It was developed in 1948 on the basis of
in India. This dam is built on the river Tennessee Valley Project (1933) of the
Cauvery. United States of America. Damodar River
• This dam was constructed by Karikala originates from the Chhota Nagpur Hills
Chola, the ruler of the Chola dynasty in and meets the Hooghly River in West
the first century BC. This dam is 329 Bengal.

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• In this project, Tilaiya, Konar, Maithon swamps, and estuaries are all types of
and Panchet Dams and thermal power wetlands.
houses were constructed in Bokaro, 58. The purpose of the National Wetlands
Durgapur, Patratu. Conservation Programme in India is to:
54. Kosi flood control and irrigation project is (a) Promote tourism
located in….. (b) Conserve wetland ecosystems
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Increase agricultural productivity
(c) West Bengal (d) Bihar (d) Facilitate urban development
Ans : (D) Ans : (B)
• Kosi project is a joint project of India and • The National Wetlands Conservation
Nepal. Kosi River is known for its Programme aims to conserve and manage
devastating floods. An agreement was wetland ecosystems to protect their
signed between Nepal and the biodiversity and ecological functions.
Government of India in 1954 for the dam. 59. Which wetland is known for its salt
55. Which of the following is a Ramsar site production?
located in India? (a) Chilika Lake (b) Sambhar Lake
(a) Chilika Lake (c) Vembanad Lake (d) Kolleru Lake
(b) Loktak Lake Ans : (B)
(c) Keoladeo National Park • Sambhar Lake in Rajasthan is famous for
(d) All of the above salt production and is the largest salt lake
Ans : (D) in India.
• Chilika Lake, Loktak Lake, and Keoladeo 60. Which of the following is the largest
National Park are all designated Ramsar freshwater lake in India?
sites in India, recognized for their (a) Loktak Lake
importance as wetlands. (b) Vembanad Lake
56. What is the primary ecological function of (c) Wular Lake
wetlands? (d) Chilika Lake
(a) Carbon storage Ans : (C)
(b) Water filtration • Wular Lake, located in Jammu and
(c) Biodiversity support Kashmir, is the largest freshwater lake in
(d) All of the above India.
Ans : (D) 61. The Ramsar Convention, to which India is
• Wetlands play crucial roles in carbon a signatory, focuses on the conservation of:
storage, water filtration, and supporting (a) Forests
diverse ecosystems, making them vital (b) Wetlands
for environmental health. (c) Marine biodiversity
57. Which of the following is NOT a type of (d) Endangered species
wetland? Ans : (B)
(a) Marsh (b) Swamp • The Ramsar Convention is an
(c) Estuary (d) Desert international treaty focused on the
Ans : (D) conservation and sustainable use of
• Deserts are arid regions and do not wetlands.
qualify as wetlands, while marshes,

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62. Which of the following wetlands is known (c) Environment Protection Act, 1986
for its biodiversity and is a UNESCO (d) Wetlands (Conservation and
World Heritage Site? Management) Rules, 2017
(a) Keoladeo National Park Ans : (D)
(b) Chilika Lake • The Wetlands (Conservation and
(c) Loktak Lake Management) Rules, 2017, were
(d) Vembanad Lake established to ensure the protection and
Ans : (A) sustainable management of wetlands in
• Keoladeo National Park in Rajasthan is a India.
UNESCO World Heritage Site known for 67. What is the primary objective of the
its rich biodiversity and bird population. National River Linking Project (NRLP) in
63. Which state is home to the Vembanad India?
Wetland? (a) Flood control
(a) Kerala (b) Water conservation
(b) Tamil Nadu (c) Irrigation and water supply
(c) Karnataka (d) Navigation improvement
(d) Andhra Pradesh Ans : (C)
Ans : (A) • The primary objective of the NRLP is to
• Vembanad Wetland is located in Kerala enhance irrigation and ensure equitable
and is the longest lake in India, known for distribution of water across various
its backwaters and rich ecosystem. regions of India.
64. The phenomenon of phumdis is associated 68. Which of the following rivers is NOT
with which wetland? included in the National River Linking
(a) Chilika Lake (b) Loktak Lake Project?
(c) Sambhar Lake (d) Kolleru Lake (a) Ganga (b) Brahmaputra
Ans : (B) (c) Krishna (d) Godavari
• Phumdis are floating islands of vegetation Ans : (B)
found in Loktak Lake in Manipur, making • The Brahmaputra River is not part of the
it unique. National River Linking Project; the
65. The main reason for wetland degradation project mainly focuses on rivers in
in India is: peninsular India.
(a) Invasive species 69. Which committee recommended the
(b) Climate change interlinking of rivers in India?
(c) Anthropogenic activities (a) Narmada Water Disputes Tribunal
(d) Natural disasters (b) National Commission for Integrated
Ans : (C) Water Resources Development
• Anthropogenic activities, such as (c) Ramaswamy Committee
urbanization, agriculture, and pollution, (d) Gadgil Committee
are the primary causes of wetland Ans : (B)
degradation in India. • The National Commission for Integrated
66. Which of the following acts is crucial for Water Resources Development
the conservation of wetlands in India? recommended the interlinking of rivers to
(a) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 address water scarcity and enhance
(b) Forest Conservation Act, 1980 irrigation.

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70. What is the main concern regarding the • The Indus River basin faces significant
interlinking of rivers in India? water stress due to over-extraction,
(a) Increased biodiversity competing demands, and geopolitical
(b) Potential displacement of communities issues.
(c) Enhanced navigation 74. The National Water Policy of India
(d) Improved water quality emphasizes which of the following?
Ans : (B) (a) Inter-state water disputes
• One of the major concerns regarding river (b) Integrated water resources management
interlinking is the potential displacement (c) Privatization of water resources
of communities living along the rivers (d) Only irrigation
and the ecological impacts on existing Ans : (B)
ecosystems. • The National Water Policy promotes
71. Which of the following statements about integrated management of water
the interlinking of rivers is NOT true? resources to ensure sustainable use and
(a) It aims to provide irrigation in drought- equitable distribution.
prone areas. 75. Which program was launched by the
(b) It is expected to improve the ecological Indian government to provide safe
balance of rivers. drinking water to rural areas?
(c) It may lead to environmental degradation. (a) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
(d) It could help in managing floods in certain (b) National Rural Drinking Water
regions. Programme
Ans : (B) (c) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana
• While interlinking rivers may provide (d) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban
benefits such as irrigation and flood Transformation
management, it is also associated with Ans : (B)
potential ecological degradation rather • The National Rural Drinking Water
than improving ecological balance. Programme aims to provide adequate safe
72. The Ken-Betwa River Linking Project drinking water to the rural population.
primarily aims to benefit which state? 76. Which of the following is NOT a
(a) Rajasthan consequence of groundwater over-
(b) Madhya Pradesh extraction?
(c) Uttar Pradesh (a) Land subsidence
(d) Gujarat (b) Waterlogging
Ans : (B) (c) Reduced water quality
• The Ken-Betwa River Linking Project (d) Increased agricultural productivity
aims to provide irrigation and drinking Ans : (D)
water supply primarily to the • Groundwater over-extraction leads to
Bundelkhand region of Madhya Pradesh. negative consequences such as land
73. Which of the following is a major river subsidence, waterlogging, and reduced
basin facing severe water stress in India? water quality, rather than increased
(a) Ganga (b) Indus productivity.
(c) Godavari (d) Cauvery 77. The Narmada Bachao Andolan is
Ans : (B) primarily associated with which issue?
(a) Water pollution

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(b) Dams and displacement Ans : (B)
(c) Agricultural irrigation • The National Water Mission aims to
(d) Flood management ensure water conservation and
Ans : (B) management as part of the National
• The Narmada Bachao Andolan is a Action Plan on Climate Change.
movement against the displacement of 82. Which of the following practices is NOT
communities caused by dam construction beneficial for water conservation?
on the Narmada River. (a) Mulching
78. Which state in India is most affected by (b) Rainwater harvesting
drought conditions? (c) Flood irrigation
(a) Punjab (b) Maharashtra (d) Using drip irrigation
(c) Rajasthan (d) Kerala Ans : (C)
Ans : (C) • Flood irrigation is not beneficial for water
• Rajasthan is one of the most drought- conservation as it often leads to water
prone states in India, facing severe water wastage and does not efficiently utilize
scarcity due to its arid climate. water resources.
79. The primary aim of the Pradhan Mantri 83. Which program promotes water
Krishi Sinchai Yojana is to: conservation and sustainable agriculture
(a) Increase urban water supply practices in India?
(b) Enhance irrigation coverage (a) Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana
(c) Promote rainwater harvesting (b) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana
(d) Improve drinking water quality (c) Soil Health Card Scheme
Ans : (B) (d) National Food Security Mission
• The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Ans : (B)
Yojana aims to improve irrigation • This program focuses on enhancing
infrastructure and increase the coverage irrigation coverage and promoting
of irrigation in agriculture. efficient water use in agriculture.
80. Which of the following is a method of 84. Which of the following is a traditional
rainwater harvesting? method of water conservation in rural
(a) Groundwater recharge (b) Drip irrigation India?
(c) Canal system (d) Deforestation (a) Check dams
Ans : (A) (b) Borewells
• Groundwater recharge is a method of (c) Surface water diversion
rainwater harvesting that involves (d) Tube wells
collecting rainwater and allowing it to Ans : (A)
percolate into the ground to replenish • Check dams are traditional structures
aquifers. built to slow down water runoff and
81. The National Water Mission is part of facilitate groundwater recharge.
which larger initiative? 85. What is the primary aim of the “Jal Shakti
(a) National Mission for Clean Ganga Abhiyan”?
(b) National Action Plan on Climate Change (a) Promote urban water supply
(c) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (b) Increase water pollution
(d) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban (c) Enhance water conservation efforts
Transformation (d) Develop new dams

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Ans : (C) • Western Rajasthan is one of the most

• Jal Shakti Abhiyan is a campaign aimed water-scarce regions in India,
at promoting water conservation and characterized by arid and semi-arid
rainwater harvesting across India. conditions.
86. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of 90. Which of the following policies aims to
rainwater harvesting? address water scarcity in India?
(a) Reduces soil erosion (a) National Water Policy
(b) Improves groundwater levels (b) National Rural Drinking Water
(c) Increases surface runoff Programme
(d) Provides an alternative water source (c) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana
Ans : (C) (d) All of the above
• Rainwater harvesting reduces surface Ans : (D)
runoff by capturing rainwater for reuse, • All these policies aim to improve water
thus helping to recharge groundwater and management, enhance irrigation, and
prevent erosion. ensure safe drinking water, addressing the
87. The concept of watershed management issue of water scarcity.
focuses on: 91. Which of the following activities
(a) Urban water supply contributes the most to groundwater
(b) Managing the water flow and resources depletion in India?
within a watershed (a) Domestic use
(c) Industrial water usage (b) Industrial use
(d) Desalination of seawater (c) Agricultural irrigation
Ans : (B) (d) Urban infrastructure development
• Watershed management aims to optimize Ans : (C)
the use and conservation of water • Agricultural irrigation is the largest
resources within a specific drainage area. consumer of groundwater in India,
88. Which of the following is the primary leading to significant depletion of
reason for water scarcity in India? aquifers.
(a) Seasonal rainfall 92. What is the role of the National River
(b) Over-extraction of groundwater Conservation Plan in addressing water
(c) Pollution of water bodies scarcity?
(d) All of the above (a) Building dams
Ans : (D) (b) Pollution abatement
• Water scarcity in India is caused by (c) Urban water supply
seasonal rainfall patterns, over-extraction (d) Groundwater recharge
of groundwater, and pollution of water Ans : (B)
bodies. • The National River Conservation Plan
89. Which region in India is most affected by aims to reduce pollution in rivers, which
water scarcity? is crucial for maintaining water quality
(a) Himalayan region and availability.
(b) Eastern plains 93. The concept of "Inter-State River Water
(c) Western Rajasthan Disputes" in India primarily arises from:
(d) Southern peninsular India (a) Flood management
Ans : (C) (b) Irrigation demands

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(c) Conflicts over water sharing • Tamil Nadu is the first state in India to
(d) Water quality issues make rooftop rainwater harvesting
Ans : (C) structures compulsory for all houses
• Inter-State River Water Disputes arise across the state, as part of its efforts to
due to conflicts between states over the conserve water and address water
allocation and usage of shared river scarcity.
waters. 97. In the Sutlej-Beas river basin, the
94. The freshwater is mainly obtained from ________ water is being used both for
surface runoff and groundwater that is hydel power production and irrigation.
continually being renewed and recharged (a) Nagarjuna Sagar project
through the ________ (b) Sardar Sarovar project
(a) Sulfur cycl (c) Kallanai project
(b) Rock cycl (d) Bhakra Nangal project
(c) Hydrological cycl Ans : (D)
(d) None of the above • The Bhakra Nangal project, located in the
Ans : (C) Sutlej-Beas river basin, is used for both
• The hydrological cycle describes the hydropower generation and irrigation
continuous movement of water on, above, purposes.
and below the surface of the Earth, 98. ________ proudly proclaimed the dams
involving processes such as evaporation, as the ‘temples of modern India’ as they
condensation, precipitation, and would integrate the development of
infiltration, which help in renewing and agriculture and the village economy with
recharging freshwater resources. rapid industrialisation and growth of the
95. From ancient times, evidence of urban economy.
sophisticated irrigation works has also (a) Sardar Patel
been found in Nagarjunakonda. It is (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
located in ________. (c) Mahatma Gandhi
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Odisha (d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Karnataka (d) Tamil Nadu Ans : (B)
Ans : (A) • Jawaharlal Nehru famously referred to
• Nagarjunakonda, known for its ancient dams as the "temples of modern India,"
Buddhist heritage and sophisticated emphasizing their role in integrating
irrigation works, is located in the state of agricultural development with
Andhra Pradesh. industrialization and urban growth.
96. _________ is the first state in India which 99. In Phalodi and Barmer, almost all the
has made rooftop rainwater harvesting houses traditionally had underground
structures compulsory for all houses tanks or tankas for storing drinking
across the state. water. Barmer and Phalodi are located in
(a) Karnataka _______.
(b) Tamil Nadu (a) Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra (b) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Andhra Pradesh (c) Uttarakhand
Ans : (B) (d) Rajasthan
Ans : (D)

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• Barmer and Phalodi are both located in

Rajasthan, where traditional underground
tanks (tankas) are used to store drinking
water, especially in arid regions.
100. What is the local name of a rainwater
harvesting structure in Rajasthan?
(a) Nalka (b) Kund
(c) Tanka (d) All
Ans : (D)
• In Rajasthan, rainwater harvesting
structures are locally known as "Nalka"
and "Kund," as well as "Tanka." All these
terms refer to different types of traditional
water storage systems used in the region.
101. The term "water table" refers to:
(a) The surface of a body of water
(b) The top of the saturated zone in the
ground
(c) The amount of water in a reservoir
(d) The depth of a river
Ans : (b)
• The water table is the boundary between
the saturated zone (where all voids are
filled with water) and the unsaturated
zone above it.

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Crops
1. Slash and burn agriculture in Madhya • Kharif- May-June to September-October
Pradesh is also known as................ - rice, millet, maize, groundnut, gram
(a) Jhum (b) Bewar • Zaid- After Rabi and before Kharif (mid-
(c) Kuruwa (d) Walra April to June) - cucumber, watermelon,
Ans. (b) muskmelon, vegetables, fodder, green
• Slash and burn agriculture in Madhya gram etc.
Pradesh is called 'Bewar'. 4. In which of the following sectors in our
• This is a type of shifting agriculture in country is the demand and consumption of
which the farmer cuts and burns the water the highest?
vegetation growing on a piece of land and (a) Industrial (b) Domestic
mixes the burnt ash with the soil and (c) Agriculture (d) Hotels
cultivates it. After cultivating the land Ans. (c)
two-three times, the farmer leaves that • Traditionally India is an agrarian
land and goes in search of new land. This economy and about two-third of its
is also called 'Jhum' agriculture. This type population is dependent on agriculture.
of agriculture is known as 'Kuruwa' or • In our country, most of the surface and
'Khil' in Jharkhand and 'Vatavaran' in ground water is used in agriculture. In
Rajasthan. this, 89 percent of surface water and 92
2. In some parts of which present-day state, a percent of ground water is used.
local system of canal irrigation called • In the industrial sector, only 2 percent of
‘Kulh’ of 400 years ago was developed? surface water and 5 percent of ground
(a) Uttar Pradesh water is used. In the domestic sector, 9%
(b) Himachal Pradesh of surface water is used.
(c) Madhya Pradesh 5. Which of the following crops is a drought-
(d) Jammu and Kashmir tolerant crop?
Ans. (b) (a) Millet (b) Sugarcane
• 400 years ago, a local system of canal (c) Rice (d) Jute
irrigation called ‘Kulh’ developed in Ans. (a)
some areas of Himachal Pradesh. • Millet is a drought tolerant and short
• Through this, water flowing in the springs duration (2-3 months) crop grown mainly
on the hill was brought to the lower in arid and semi-arid areas with adverse
villages situated on the hill through small conditions and limited rainfall.
man-made pipes. • It can be grown in almost all types of
3. Between the Rabi and Kharif seasons, [Link] is used as both grain and fodder. It
there is a short season called.............. is sensitive to waterlogging and acidic
(a) Junaid season (b) Paddy season soil.
(c) Maize season (d) Zaid season 6. Intercropping process represents which of
Ans. (d) the following?
Based on the Indian climatic characteristics, (a) Growing the same plant year after year
there are mainly three cropping seasons: (b) Changing crops every time
• Rabi- November-December to March- (c) Growing two or more crops nearby
April - wheat, gram, peas, mustard etc. (d) Growing different crops at different times
Ans. (c)

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• Intercropping is the cultivation of two or (c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) Bihar
more crops nearby in the same field. For Ans. (b)
example, the germination and growth of • Maharashtra has the highest production
sugarcane crop sown in a field is slow. through viticulture.
Hence, other crops like mustard, garlic (in • Viticulture is a branch of horticulture
winter), green gram, black gram, onion related to grapes. In this, sowing,
(in summer) etc. can be grown in the nutrition, care and fruit production of
vacant space of the field along with grapes are studied.
sugarcane in the same field. 10. What is the 'slash and burn' agriculture
• Its main objective is to utilize the called in Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
resources of ecological processes. (a) Milpa (b) Dipa
7. In India, tea and coffee crops come under (c) Jhum agriculture (d) Palmlou
which category of crops? Ans. (b)
(a) Horticultural crops • In Jhum agriculture or Slash and burn
(b) Cash crops system, farmers clear pieces of land and
(c) Food crops grow grains and other crops on them to
(d) Plantation crops feed their families.
Ans. (d) • When the fertility of the soil decreases,
In India, tea and coffee crops come under the farmers shift from that piece of land and
category of plantation crops. clear another piece of land for agriculture.
Crops of India Crop • In the north-eastern states of Assam,
Horticultural Banana, grapes, potato, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland it is
Crops onion, cardamom, ginger, called Jhum, in Manipur it is called Pamlu
turmeric etc.
and in Bastar district of Chhattisgarh and
Cash Crops Jute, cotton, sugarcane,
orange, mango, cocoa etc. Andaman Nicobar Islands it is called
Food Crops Wheat, barley, paddy, 'Dipa'.
maize, pulses, etc. 11. Which of the following is a crop grown in
8. What is contour ploughing? semi-arid climatic conditions and
(a) Ploughing on sloping land along contour degraded soil, which is a food crop as well
lines. as a fodder crop?
(b) Ploughing on wasteland along contour (a) Jowar (b) Bajra
lines. (c) Maize (d) Wheat
(c) Zig-zag ploughing along contour lines. Ans. (c)
(d) Ploughing on plains along contour lines. • Maize botanical name- Zea Mays is a
Ans. (a) major food crop, which comes in the
• Contour ploughing is an agricultural category of coarse grains. It is mainly a
technique done to plough sloping land Kharif crop, although in some parts of the
along contour lines and to prevent soil country it is also grown as a Rabi crop.
erosion. • Maize is successfully grown in most of
• It includes sowing, ploughing, soil the plains of India as well as hilly areas.
refinement and weed control. It can be grown in all types of soils. 21°
9. Which of the following Indian states has to 30° C. Temperature and 60 to 120 cm.
the highest production through rainfall is required for maize production.
viticulture?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Maharashtra

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• It can be grown throughout the year. 15. Saffron is a product of -----------.
Maize is used as a food crop as well as (a) West Bengal
animal fodder. (b) Goa
12. Which is the largest coffee producing state (c) Jammu and Kashmir
in India? (d) Arunachal Pradesh
(a) Kerala Ans. (c)
(b) Tamil Nadu • Saffron is cultivated in Kishtwar and
(c) Karnataka Pampore of Jammu and Kashmir. Karewa
(d) Integrated Andhra Pradesh soil found in Kashmir is suitable for
Ans. (c) saffron cultivation.
• Most of the coffee in India is grown in • Its botanical name is Crocus Sativus.
South India, out of which Karnataka Major saffron producing countries in the
contributes 71%, Kerala 21% and Tamil world are France, Spain, India, Iran, Italy,
Nadu 5%. Greece, Germany, Japan, Russia etc.
13. ______ is also known as the spice garden of 16. Which state of India is the leading
India. producer of rubber?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Kerala (a) Kerala
(c) Karnataka (d) Maharashtra (b) Himachal Pradesh
Ans : (b) (c) Telangana
• The South Indian state 'Kerala' is also (d) Tamil Nadu
known as the spice garden of India while Ans. (a)
'Jaipur' is also known as the 'Pink City' of • Kerala state produces the highest amount
India. of rubber.
• Mumbai city is known as Hollywood of • The headquarters of the Rubber Board in
India and Pune city is known as the the country is also located in Kerala
'Queen of Deccan'. (Kottayam).
• Ahmedabad city is known as Manchester • Geographically, rubber trees are found in
of India and Jamshedpur city is called equatorial evergreen forests. Rubber is
Pittsburgh of India (Steel City). prepared from its milk (called latex).
• Mussoorie is called the Queen of Hills They are used in making motor tubes,
and Lucknow is called the City of tyres, waterproof, clothes etc.
Nawabs. Bengaluru is known as the 17. Which of these is a Kharif crop?
Electronic City of India and Punjab state (a) Barley (b) Millet
is called the Land of Five Rivers. (c) Onion (d) Wheat
14. Which of the following is not a plantation Ans. (b)
crop? • Kharif crops require high temperature and
(a) Tea (b) Coffee humidity while sowing and dry
(c) Cashew (d) Millet environment while ripening.
Ans : (d) • In North India, they are sown in June-July
• Millet is not a plantation crop. and harvested in October.
• Crops which can be harvested for a long • Kharif crops are paddy, maize, sorghum,
time after sowing once are called millet, green gram, soybean etc.
plantation crops. Such as cashew, tea, 18. Which is known as golden fiber?
coffee, pistachio etc. (a) Wheat (b) Cotton
(c) Jute (d) Rayon

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Ans. (c) • Alphonso variety is called the king of

• Jute is known as golden fiber. India is the mangoes.
largest producer of jute products in the • This mango is also known as Hapus in
world. Maharashtra and Apus in Karnataka.
• The first jute factory was established in Alphonso mango has been given GI tag.
1855 at a place called Risra near Kolkata. 23. --------------- is a plantation crop.
Most of the factories of this industry are (a) Tea (b) Wheat
in West Bengal. (c) Rice (d) Groundnut
19. Which state of India is the leading Ans. (a)
producer of jute? • Tea, coffee, coconut, rubber, cardamom,
(a) West Bengal (b) Sikkim chilli, turmeric etc. come under the
(c) Bihar (d) Tamil Nadu plantation crops of India.
Ans. (a) 24. Which state of India is the leading
• India is the largest jute producing country producer of sugarcane?
in the world. (a) Rajasthan (b) Bihar
• About 60 percent of the world's jute is (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Haryana
produced in India. Jute is mainly grown Ans. (c)
in the Ganges delta. Which requires • Uttar Pradesh is the largest sugarcane
alluvial soil and high rainfall. producing state of India and Maharashtra
• In India, West Bengal is the first state in is in second place.
jute production and Bihar is second. • Sugarcane is a crop with long duration
20. ............, the leading producer of cotton is- and high rainfall requirement.
(a) Gujarat (b) West Bengal 25. Which one of the following is a leguminous
(c) Assam (d) Orissa crop?
Ans. (a) (a) Kiwanch (b) Pulses
• According to the options in the question, (c) Sesame (d) Cereals
Gujarat is the largest producer of cotton Ans : (b)
while West Bengal is the largest producer • Leguminous crops include gram, urad,
of jute and Assam is the largest producer moong, peas, lentils, pigeon peas,
of tea. peanuts, soybean etc. which are
• Maharashtra - 32.1% leguminous crops.
• Gujarat - 24.8% • Indian crops are classified on different
• Telangana - 8.9% basis. Kharif crops are paddy, millet,
21. Nagpur is famous for ------------- maize, cotton, peanuts, sugarcane,
(a) Apples (b) Oranges soybean etc.
(c) Saffron (d) Jute • Rabi crops are wheat, barley, gram,
Ans : (b) mustard, peas, potatoes etc.
• Nagpur is famous for oranges. It is also • Zaid crops are pumpkin, muskmelon,
called the city of oranges. watermelon, gourd, tomato etc. The seeds
of leguminous crops are mainly used as a
22. Alphonso is a variety of which fruit?
source of protein.
(a) Banana (b) Mango
(c) Apple (d) Grape 26. ............... is the main crop of Meghalaya.
(a) Walnut (b) Apple
Ans. (b)
(c) Pineapple (d) Orange

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Ans: (c) • It is a labour intensive agriculture. Assam

• Meghalaya is an agricultural state. 80% of ranks first and West Bengal ranks second
the population here is mainly dependent in tea production.
on farming. 30. Which of the following crops, mostly
• The soil and climate here are suitable for grown in Kerala, Tamil Nadu and
harticulture. Pineapple is the main crop Karnataka, requires 35°C temperature
here, apart from this orange, banana, and more than 200 cm rainfall?
jackfruit etc. are famous fruits of (a) Rubber (b) Rice
Meghalaya. (c) Coffee (d) Cotton
27. Which of the following Indian states is the Ans : (a)
highest producer of raw silk? • Rubber crop requires 35°C temperature
(a) Kerala and 200 cm rainfall. The birthplace of
(b) Andhra Pradesh rubber is Brazil.
(c) Karnataka • It is a tropical plant. Rubber is obtained
(d) Maharashtra from the milk (latex) of the rubber tree.
Ans: (c) About 1.7% of the world's natural rubber
• Karnataka is the highest producer of raw is produced in India. Kerala, Tamil Nadu
silk. and Karnataka states of India are leading
• Silk is a fibre made of natural protein. in rubber production.
These fibres are made by the larvae of 31. Chemical fertilizers improve the yield, but
some insects. The best silk is made by the after some seasons, the yield may reduce
larvae of insects that feed on mulberry due to poor quality of soil. Which of the
leaves. following can be used to improve the
• The rearing of silkworms is called quality of soil?
sericulture. (a) Caustic lime (b) Sugar solution
28. Which of the following is a non-food crop? (c) Vinegar (d) Manure
(a) Fibre crops (b) Coffee Ans : (a)
(c) Oil seeds (d) Sugarcane • Chemical fertilizers are used to increase
Ans : (a) and improve the yield but after some time
• Fibre crops are non-food crops. Fibre the yield may reduce due to poor quality
crops are crops grown for their fibres. of soil.
• Traditionally used to make paper, cloth or • 'Caustic lime' can be used to improve the
ropes. Such as jute, paper, cotton etc. quality of soil.
Whereas coffee, sugarcane, oil, seeds are 32. Sustainable agriculture means
food items. (a) Self-reliance
29. Which one of the following is the major tea (b) Agricultural export and import under the
producing state of India? World Trade Organization
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) West Bengal (c) Using land in such a way that its quality
(c) Orissa (d) Maharashtra remains intact
Ans : (b) (d) Using unused land for agricultural use
• Tea is the main beverage crop of India. Its Ans : (c)
geographical conditions are 150-250 cm. • Sustainable agriculture means using land
annual rainfall, high temperature of 24°C in such a way that its quality remains
to 30°C, green and sulphurous soil etc. intact.

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• This agricultural method conserves 1. Reduced or zero tillage of land
natural resources and is beneficial for the 2. Use of gypsum before irrigation in the
environment. field
33. Total number of agro-ecological zones in 3. Keeping crop residue in the field
India is Codes
(a) 15 (b) 17 (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3
(c) 19 (d) 20 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Ans : (d) Ans : (d)
• National Bureau of Soil Survey and Land All the options among the practices that help
Use Planning (NBSS&LUP) identified 20 in water conservation are correct.
agro-ecological zones based on effective • Reduced or zero tillage of land: Helps in
rainfall, soil groups, growing season as maintaining soil structure and conserving
integrated criteria of fixed boundaries water.
which were adjusted according to district • Use of gypsum before irrigation in the
boundaries with minimum number of field: Helps in maintaining soil structure
zones. and conserving water Improves soil,
• Subsequently, these twenty agro- thereby improving water absorption.
ecological zones were divided into 60 • Leaving crop residues on the field:
sub-zones. Reduces water evaporation by covering
34. Which of the following is not a reason for the soil and helps in water conservation.
the low productivity of Indian agriculture? 37. Which is the first state of India based on
(a) Population pressure organic farming?
(b) Disguised unemployment (a) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Co-operative farming (b) Kerala
(d) Small size of land holdings (c) Sikkim
Ans : (c) (d) Arunachal Pradesh
• The reason for low productivity of Indian Ans : (c)
agriculture is not (c) Co-operative • The first state of India based on organic
farming. farming is Sikkim.
• Co-operative farming generally helps in • Sikkim achieved the distinction of
increasing productivity. Other options becoming the first state to practice fully
like population pressure, disguised organic farming in 2016.
unemployment, and small size of land 38. Which of the following farming practices is
holdings are all the reasons for low helpful in environmental conservation?
productivity. (a) High-yielding variety farming
35. Who wrote ‘History of Indian (b) Growing plants in glass houses
Agriculture’? (c) Shifting cultivation
(a) M S Swaminathan (b) A Ayyappan (d) Organic farming
(c) K B Thomas (d) M S Randhawa Ans : (d)
Ans : (d) • The farming process that is helpful in
• The book “History of Indian Agriculture” environmental conservation is (d)
is written by M S Randhawa. Organic farming.
36. Which of the following practices can help • Chemical fertilizers and pesticides are not
in water conservation in agriculture? used in organic farming, which maintains
the quality of soil, water and air.

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39. Which of the following crops are mostly • Among the manure crops, (a) Dhaincha
produced under subsistence agriculture? contains the highest amount of nitrogen.
(a) Millets and rice • Cowpea is also an important green
(b) Cotton and tobacco manure crop, but generally Dhaincha is
(c) Tea and coffee known for its maximum amount of
(d) Vegetables and fruits nitrogen.
Ans : (a) • Dhaincha (Sesbania) is known for its high
• The crops mostly produced under nitrogen fixation capacity.
subsistence agriculture are (a) Millets and 43. What is/are the advantages of zero tillage
rice. in agriculture?
• These crops are grown mainly for food 1. Sowing of wheat is possible without
security. burning the residues of the previous
40. Crop logging method is - crop.
(a) For soil fertility assessment 2. Direct planting of paddy seeds in moist
(b) For plant analysis to know the soil is possible without creating
requirement of nutrients for crop nursery for rice seedlings.
production 3. Carbon sequestration in soil is
(c) For knowing the damages of crops possible.
(d) For testing the usefulness of fertilizers Which of the statements given above is/are
Ans : (b) correct?
• Crop logging method is (b) for plant (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
analysis to know the requirement of (c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
nutrients for crop production. Ans : (d)
• This method helps in evaluating the All of the following statements about zero
nutritional level of plants. tillage in agriculture are correct.
41. A cropping system in which crops are • Sowing of wheat is possible without
grown in the space between rows of burning the residue of the previous crop.
planted trees is called • Direct planting of paddy seeds in moist
(a) Relay cropping soil is possible without creating nursery
(b) Mixed cropping for rice seedlings.
(c) Intercropping • Carbon sequestration in soil is possible.
(d) Alley cropping 44. Which is the main weed found in the rice
Ans : (d) crop in India?
• Alley cropping is an agricultural method (a) Parthenium hysterophorus (Congress
in which crops are grown in the space Grass)
between rows of trees to make maximum (b) Echinochloa crusgalli (Barnyard Grass)
use of land. (c) Phalaris minor (Small Canary Grass)
42. Which of the following green manure (d) Elymus repens (Quackgram)
crops contains the highest amount of Ans. (b)
nitrogen? • The main weed found in the rice crop in
(a) Dhaincha (b) Shanai India is Echinochloa crusgalli (Barnyard
(c) Cowpea (d) Cluster bean Grass). Its origin is believed to be Japan.
Ans : (a) 45. Which state of India is the leading
producer of rice?

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(a) West Bengal • This region is very famous for rice
(b) Andhra Pradesh production in India and is called the "Rice
(c) Kerala Bowl".
(d) Uttar Pradesh 50. Rice cultivation in India takes place in
Ans :(a) those areas where annual rainfall is
State Leading production (a) More than 20 cm
West Bengal Rice, Jute (b) More than 30 cm
Andhra Maize, Fruits (c) More than 60 cm
Pradesh (d) More than 100 cm
Kerala Pepper, Natural Rubber
Ans: (d)
Uttar Pradesh Food grains, Wheat,
Sugarcane • Rice cultivation in India takes place in
46. Which of the following is not a Kharif those areas where annual rainfall is (a)
crop? more than 100 cm (b) more than 100 cm.
(a) Cotton (b) Peanut • High amount of rainfall is required for
(c) Corn (d) Mustard rice cultivation.
Ans: (d) 51. In which of the following crops, blue-green
• Mustard is a Rabi crop, while cotton, algae are mainly used as biofertilizer?
peanut and corn are all Kharif crops! (a) Wheat (b) Gram
47. The main food crop of India is (c) Paddy (d) Mustard
(a) Wheat (b) Rice Ans: (c)
(c) Corn (d) Pulses • In paddy crop, blue-green algae are
Ans: (b) mainly used as biofertilizer.
• The main food crop of India is (b) Rice. • Blue-green algae, such as Azolla, are
• Rice is the most widely grown food crop helpful in nitrogen fixation for paddy
in India and is used as a staple diet in crop.
many regions. 52. Arrange the following states of India in
48. Rice originated in descending order of their rice production
(a) Europe and choose the correct answer from the
(b) South-East Asia code given below
(c) South America 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Punjab
(d) None of the above 3. Uttar Pradesh 4. West Bengal
Code
Ans: (b)
• Rice originated in (b) South-East Asia.
(a) 2, 1, 4, 3 (b) 3, 4, 1, 2
• This region is considered most suitable
(c) 4, 1, 3, 2 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1
for paddy cultivation and many local Ans: (d)
varieties of it are found here. • The correct order of arranging the states
49. Name the 'Rice Bowl' region of India in descending order of rice production in
(a) Kerala and Tamil Nadu India is: - West Bengal - Uttar Pradesh -
(b) Krishna-Godavari Delta region Punjab - Andhra Pradesh.
(c) North-Eastern region 53. 'Barani Dweep' is a variety of which crop?
(d) Indo-Gangetic Plain (a) Arhar
Ans: (b) (b) Maize
(c) Paddy
(d) None of the above

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Ans: (c) • Punjab has the highest productivity of

• "Barani Dweep" is a variety of paddy. paddy.
54. 'Aman' rice is grown in • Due to advanced agricultural techniques
(a) April-May (b) June-July and suitable climate, the production rate
(c) November-December (d) May-June of paddy is high in Punjab.
Ans: (c) 59. Which of the following is the largest
• 'Aman' rice is mainly grown between producer of rice in India?
November and December. (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Bihar
55. Pusa Sugandha-5 is an aromatic variety of (c) Punjab (d) Tamil Nadu
(a) Maize (b) Pigeon pea Ans: (c)
(c) Paddy (d) Sugarcane The largest producer of rice in India is (a)
Ans: (c) Andhra Pradesh.
• Pusa Sugandha-5 is an aromatic rice Andhra Pradesh is a major state in rice
variety. production, followed by West Bengal and
Punjab.
56. The colour of the tag used on certified seed
bags is 60. In which months is the Rabi crop sown?
(a) Blue (b) Purple (a) March-April
(c) White (d) Golden yellow (b) June-July
(c) October-November
Ans: (a)
(d) January-February
• More information about the colour of the
tag of certified seed: Ans: (c)
• Blue: The blue tag indicates that the seeds • Rabi crops are sown in October-
are certified and as per quality standards. November.
It is an important indication for farmers, • Rabi crops are generally grown in winter
ensuring them that they are buying high and harvested in summer.
quality seeds. 61. Which of the following set of conditions is
• Purple: For mixed seeds. necessary for good cultivation of wheat?
• White: For food crops. (a) Moderate temperature and moderate
• Golden yellow: For hybrid seeds. rainfall
57. What is the rank of India in paddy (b) High temperature and heavy rainfall
production in the world? (c) High temperature and moderate rainfall
(a) First (b) Second (d) Low temperature and low rainfall
(c) Third (d) Fourth Ans: (a)
Ans: (b) • For good cultivation of wheat, moderate
• India ranks second in paddy production in temperature and moderate rainfall are
the world. necessary.
• India ranks second after China in rice • Temperature between 15°C to 25°C and
production. 30 to 40 inches of rainfall is suitable for
58. Which of the following states has the wheat crop.
highest productivity of paddy? 62. The botanical name of macaroni wheat is
(a) Punjab (b) Uttar Pradesh (a) Triticum dicoccum
(c) Haryana (d) None of these (b) Triticum aestivum
Ans: (a) (c) Triticum monococcum
(d) Triticum durum

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Ans: (d) • Wheat has been the most benefited crop

• The botanical name of macaroni wheat is from the Green Revolution. The major
Triticum durum. wheat producing areas in India are
• It is a special variety of wheat, which is Western Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and
mainly used in pasta and other food Haryana.
products. 67. Which of the following is not a Kharif
63. An example of ‘parallel cropping’ is crop?
(a) Potato and Paddy (a) Millet (b) Paddy
(b) Wheat and Mustard (c) Jowar (d) Wheat
(c) Cotton and Wheat Ans. (d)
(d) Jowar and Potato • Rabi crop is sown in October-November
Ans: (b) and harvested in March-April. Its main
• An example of ‘parallel cropping’ is crops are wheat, barley, gram, chickpea,
Wheat and Mustard. peas, mustard, potato, rye, linseed etc.
• Parallel crops are those which are grown • Kharif crop is sown in June-July and
at the same time but are of different types. harvested in November-December. Its
64. Which of the following is a disease of wheat main crops are paddy, oilseeds, jowar,
crop? millet, maize, pigeon pea, cotton,
(a) Rest (b) Blast groundnut, sesame, soybean etc.
(c) Tikka (d) None of these 68. Which state of India is the leading
Ans: (a) producer of wheat?
• The disease of wheat crop is Rest. (a) Haryana (b) Karnataka
• Rest is a common disease in wheat crop, (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Punjab
which is caused by fungus. Ans. (c)
65. Which of the following is correct? • Uttar Pradesh ranks first in the country in
(a) Kharif crops are winter crops the production of the following food
(b) Rabi crops are monsoon crops grains - wheat, barley, sugarcane, potato
(c) Wheat is a Rabi crop and lentil.
(d) Mustard is a Kharif crop 69. Which of the following is correct?
Ans : (c) (a) Kharif crops are winter crops
• Wheat is a Rabi crop. It is generally sown (b) Rabi crops are monsoon crops
in the month of October-November. (c) Wheat is a Rabi crop
• These crops require low temperature at (d) Mustard is a Kharif crop
the time of sowing and dry and hot Ans : (c)
environment at the time of ripening. • Wheat is a Rabi crop. It is generally sown
66. Which of the following is the major wheat in the month of October-November.
producing region of India? • These crops require low temperature at
(a) Sundarban Delta the time of sowing and dry and hot
(b) Eastern Ghats environment at the time of ripening.
(c) Western Coast 70. Which one of the following is not a
(d) Plains of Punjab – Haryana commercial crop?
Ans. (d) (a) Sugarcane (b) Cotton
• Wheat is the main crop of Rabi season. (c) Banana (d) Millet
Ans : (d)

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• Millet is a crop which is grown mainly for The correct match according to List I and List
local use and domestic consumption, II is as follows:
hence it is not considered commercial. • Sugarcane - Red Rot
71. Which one of the following is not a cash • Paddy - Khaira
crop? • Arhar - Wilt
(a) Jute (b) Peanut • Potato - Late Blight
(c) Sorghum (d) Sugarcane 74. Which of the following crops are grown
Ans : (c) mainly in irrigated areas in Zaid?
• Sorghum is grown mainly as a food crop, (a) Arhar and Gram
while jute, peanut, and sugarcane are (b) Moong and Urad
generally considered as cash crops. (c) Rice and Millet
72. One of the goals of the National Food (d) Maize and Groundnut
Security Mission is to increase the Ans : (b)
productivity of some crops by increasing • Moong and Urad crops are grown mainly
the cultivated land and increasing in irrigated areas in Zaid.
productivity in selected districts of the • Zaid crops usually occur in summer and
country in a sustainable manner. require irrigation.
(a) Rice and wheat 75. In the year 2020-2021, which of the
(b) Rice, wheat and pulses following states was the largest producer
(c) Rice, wheat, pulses and oilseeds of groundnut in the country?
(d) Rice, wheat, pulses and vegetables (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Gujarat
Ans : (b) (c) Rajasthan (d) Tamil Nadu
• One of the goals of the National Food Ans : (b)
Security Mission is to increase the • In the year 2020-2021, (b) Gujarat was
productivity of (b) rice, wheat and pulses. the largest producer of groundnut in the
• Under this mission, emphasis has been country.
laid on increasing the productivity of • Gujarat dominates groundnut production.
these crops in a sustainable manner. 76. Which elements are necessary for the
73. Match List I with List II and select the production of pulse crops?
correct answer from the code given below (a) Chromium (b) Cobalt
List I List II (c) Iodine (d) Sodium
(Name of crop) (Name of disease) Ans : (b)
A. Sugarcane 1. Late blight • For the production of pulse crops, (b)
B. Paddy 2. Red rot Cobalt element is necessary.
C. Arhar 3. Khaira • Cobalt helps in nitrogen fixation, which is
D. Potato 4. Wilt important for pulse crops.
Code 77. Pigeon pea is native to
A B C D (a) America (b) India
(a) 1 2 3 4 (c) South America (d) Egypt
(b) 2 3 4 1 Ans : (b)
(c) 3 2 1 4 • Pigeon pea (or Toor) is native to (b) India.
(d) 4 3 2 1 • This crop is an important part of Indian
Ans : (b) agriculture and is believed to have
originated in India.

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78. Which one of the following products is not • This process is important for peanut crop,
commonly exported from India? as it helps in increasing the growth and
(a) Wheat (b) Rice yield of the crop.
(c) Sugar (d) Pulses 83. Large quantity of gypsum is required in
Ans : (d) (a) Paddy crop
• Pulses is not commonly exported from (b) Berseem crop
India. (c) Wheat crop
• Although wheat is produced in India rice, (d) Groundnut crop
sugar and pulses are mostly exported. Ans : (a)
79. The balanced fertilizer (NPK) ratio in • Large quantity of gypsum is required in
leguminous crops is paddy crop.
(a) 1:2:2 (b) 3:2:1 • Gypsum is used to improve the structure
(c) 4:2:1 (d) 2:2:1 of the soil and increase the availability of
Ans : (a) essential nutrients for plants, especially in
• The balanced fertilizer (NPK) ratio in paddy crop.
leguminous crops is (a) 1:2:2. 84. Which of the following region has
• This ratio is for nitrogen, phosphorus and maximum soybean in Madhya Pradesh?
potassium. (a) Malwa (b) Bundelkhand
80. Consider the following crops of India (c) Baghelkhand (d) None of these
1. Cowpea 2. Green gram Ans : (a)
3. Arhar (Pigeon pea) • Maximum soybean is produced in
Which of the above pulses is/are used as Malwa.
fodder and green manure? • Malwa region is known for the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 production of soybean in Madhya
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Pradesh.
Ans: (d) 85. Which one of the following is not a cash
• All the crops (cowpea, green gram, and crop?
pigeon pea) are used as pulses, fodder, (a) Tobacco (b) Cotton
and green manure. (c) Soybean (d) Rubber
• All these crops help in nitrogen fixation Ans : (c)
and are important for agriculture. • Soybean is not a cash crop.
81. ‘Pitambari’ is a species of • Soybean is often grown as food and
(a) Paddy (b) Gram fodder crops, while tobacco, cotton, and
(c) Mustard (d) Wheat rubber are mainly cash crops.
Ans : (c) 86. Which one of the following is an oilseed
• ‘Pitambari’ is a species of mustard. crop?
• It is a famous variety of mustard, which is (a) Lentil (b) Cowpea
used for oil production. (c) Sunflower (d) Berseem
82. ‘Pugging’ is a beneficial process in Ans : (c)
(a) Sugarcane (b) Sweet potato • Sunflower is an oilseed crop.
(c) Peanut (d) Tapioca • Lentil – is a pulse crop.
Ans : (c) • Lobia – is a barvati pulse.
• ‘Pugging’ is a beneficial process in • Berseem – nutritious green
peanut.

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87. Which one of the following crops contains (d) Jute, Wheat, Cotton
the highest amount of oil? Ans : (c)
(a) Peanut (b) Soybean • Cotton, Jute, and Sunai are all fibre crops.
(c) Sunflower (d) Sesame • Jute, Gram and Linseed are mainly oil and
Ans : (d) food crops.
• Sesame has the highest amount of oil. • Lentil, Oats and Dhaicha are also food
Sesame seeds contain about 50-60% oil, and fodder crops.
which makes it the most oily compared to • Among jute, wheat and cotton, wheat is
other crops. not a fibre crop.
88. Which one of the following states in India 91. Which one of the following crops is known
is the largest producer of coconut? as 'White Gold' in Maharashtra?
(a) Kerala (a) Wheat (b) Maize
(b) Karnataka (c) Cotton (d) Sugarcane
(c) Tamil Nadu Ans : (c)
(d) Andhra Pradesh • Cotton is known as "white gold",
Ans : (a) especially in Maharashtra. It is a high
• Kerala is the largest producer of coconut. value cash crop and is used for making
• Coconut is cultivated on a large scale in clothes.
Kerala and it contributes significantly to 92. Which of the following regions of India
the total coconut production of the produces the maximum quantity of
country. cotton?
89. Match List I with List II and choose the (a) North-western India and Gangetic region
correct answer from the codes given below of West Bengal
List – I (Crop) List – II (Season) (b) North-western and western India
(a) Sunflower 1. Kharif (Rainy) (c) Western and southern India
(b) Muskmelon 2. Zaid (summer) (d) Plains of northern India
(c) Cotton 3. Rabi (winter) Ans : (c)
(d) Linseed 4. All Season • In India, the maximum production of
Code cotton takes place in the western (Gujarat,
A B C D Maharashtra) and southern India.
(a) 3 4 1 2 • These regions provide favourable climate
(b) 4 2 1 3 and soil for cotton.
(c) 3 4 2 1 93. Which of the following districts is called
(d) 2 3 4 1 the region of 'white gold' due to cotton
Ans : (b) cultivation?
• (a) Sunflower – All Season (a) Ratlam-Khandwa
• (b) Muskmelon – Zaid (Summer) (b) Khandwa-Khargone
• (c) Cotton – Kharif (Rainy) (c) Ujjain-Shajapur
• (d) Linseed – Rabi (Winter) (d) Dhar-Jhabua
90. Which of the following groups is related to Ans : (b)
fibre crops? • Khandwa and Khargone districts are
(a) Jute, Gram, Linseed famous for cotton cultivation in Madhya
(b) Lentil, Oats, Dhaicha Pradesh, and are called the "white gold"
(c) Cotton, Jute, Sunai

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region as cotton is produced in very high (d) Madhya Pradesh
quantity here. Ans : (b)
94. Which of the following crops is an • Uttar Pradesh is the largest state for
important crop of Barak Valley? sugarcane cultivation in India, where
(a) Jute (b) Tea there is the most land for sugarcane
(c) Sugarcane (d) Cotton production.
Ans : (a) 98. In which states of India is sugarcane
• Barak Valley is located in Assam, where produced the most?
Jute is cultivated mainly. This region is (a) Bihar and Uttar Pradesh
famous for tea production. (b) Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan
95. Consider the following statements about (c) Andhra Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir
jute cultivation (d) Punjab and Himachal Pradesh
1. Jute is a Rabi crop. Ans : (b)
2. Jute crop requires humid climate with • Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of
high temperature. sugarcane in India, followed by
3. Jute cultivation in India is mainly Maharashtra. Therefore, sugarcane is
confined to the eastern region of the produced the most in these two states.
country. 99. The correct descending order of states in
Which of the following statements are sugarcane production is
correct? (a) Karnataka, Maharashtra, Haryana, Uttar
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 Pradesh
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 (b) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka,
Ans : (b) Haryana
• Jute is not a Rabi crop; it is a Kharif crop. (c) Haryana, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Uttar
• Jute crop requires high temperature and Pradesh
humid climate. This is correct. (d) Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, Maharashtra,
• In India, jute is cultivated mainly in the Haryana
eastern region, such as West Bengal and Ans : (b)
Assam. This is also correct. • Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of
96. Which one of the following plants is used sugarcane, followed by Maharashtra and
for making green manure in India? Karnataka, then comes Haryana.
(a) Wheat (b) Sunai [Link] amount of sugar in sugarcane
(c) Cotton (d) Paddy decreases if
Ans : (b) (a) There is excessive rainfall during the
• Sunai (Jute) plant is used for making plant growth period
green manure. It is grown to increase the (b) Frost falls during the ripening period
fertility of the soil. Wheat, cotton, and (c) There is a decrease or increase in
paddy are not usually used for green temperature during the plant growth
manure. period
97. Which state of India has the maximum (d) The temperature is very high during the
land under sugarcane cultivation? ripening period
(a) Maharashtra Ans : (b)
(b) Uttar Pradesh • Frost during the ripening period decreases
(c) Andhra Pradesh the amount of sugar in sugarcane because

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it affects the growth of the crop and List -I List – II
accumulation of sugar. (a) Jute 1. Assam
101. Which of the following states of India is (b) Tea 2. Kerala
called the 'sugar bowl'? (c) Rubber 3. West Bengal
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (d) Sugarcane 4. Uttar Pradesh
(c) Bihar (d) Haryana Code
Ans : (a) A B C D
• Uttar Pradesh is called the 'sugar bowl' (a) 3 1 2 4
because it is the major sugarcane (b) 4 3 1 2
producing state in India and the number (c) 2 4 3 1
of sugar mills here is also high. (d) 1 2 3 4
102. Which of the following statements related Ans : (a)
to sugar industry are correct? • Jute - West Bengal
1. India's share in the world sugar • Tea - Assam
production is more than 15%. • Rubber - Kerala
2. Sugar industry in India is the second • Sugarcane - Uttar Pradesh
largest agro-based industry. [Link] is a dry mixture of
3. India is the largest consumer of sugar. (a) Leaves and stems
4. India is the largest producer of sugar. (b) Petals and roots
Code (c) Seed forming parts of a flower
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 (d) Seeds and buds
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 Ans : (c)
Ans : (a) • Saffron is mainly obtained from the dried
• India's sugar production is more than 20% stigmas (seed forming parts) of the
in the world. saffron flower. These parts are part of the
• Sugar industry in India is the second reproductive system of the flower and
largest agro-based industry. saffron is produced mainly from the
• India is actually the largest consumer of Crocus sativus plant.
sugar. [Link] is produced commercially in
• Although India is the leader in the which of the following states?
production of sugar, Brazil is also in (a) Jammu & Kashmir
competition with it. (b) Himachal Pradesh
103. In an area where annual rainfall is more (c) Punjab
than 200 cm and the land is hilly, whose (d) Kerala
cultivation would be ideal? Ans : (a)
(a) Flax (b) Cotton • Saffron is produced commercially mainly
(c) Tea (d) Maize in Jammu & Kashmir, especially in the
Ans : (c) Kashmir valley. The climate and soil here
• Tea cultivation requires high rainfall provide favourable conditions for the
(more than 200 cm) and hilly areas. Tea cultivation of saffron.
plants grow well in humid climate, [Link], rubber and tobacco are all
making this option most suitable. cultivated in which state of India?
104. Match List I with List II and choose the (a) Karnataka (b) Meghalaya
correct answer from the codes given below (c) Goa (d) Maharashtra

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Ans : (a) [Link] List I with List II and select the

• Tea, rubber, and tobacco are all cultivated correct answer using the code given below
in the state of Karnataka. The climate here the lists.
is favorable for these crops. List I List II
108. The state called the 'garden of spices' is (Agricultural (Leading
Products) Producer)
(a) Karnataka (b) Kerala
(A) Cotton 1. Madhya
(c) Maharashtra (d) Tamil Nadu
Pradesh
Ans : (b) (B) Gram 2. Gujarat
• Kerala is called the 'garden of spices' (C) Black Pepper 3. West Bengal
because spices like black pepper, (D) Pineapple 4. Kerala
cardamom, cinnamon and cloves are Code
produced here on a large scale. A B C D
109. Which of the following states is the largest (a) 2 1 4 3
producer of cardamom and black pepper? (b) 2 1 3 4
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Goa (c) 1 2 4 3
(c) Kerala (d) Maharashtra (d) 1 2 3 4
Ans : (c) Ans : (a)
• Kerala is the largest producer of • Cotton - Gujarat (Gujarat is the leading
cardamom and black pepper. The climate producer of cotton in India)
and soil here are suitable for the • Gram - Madhya Pradesh (Madhya
cultivation of these spices. Pradesh is the leading producer of gram)
110. Where is cardamom not cultivated? • Black pepper - Kerala (Kerala is the
(a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu largest producer of black pepper)
(c) Assam (d) Karnataka • Pineapple - West Bengal (West Bengal is
the leading producer of pineapple)
Ans : (c)
• Cardamom is cultivated mainly in Kerala, [Link] leading Indian state producing
Tamil Nadu and Karnataka, but it is not mulberry silk is
produced in Assam. (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka (d) West Bengal
111. Which spice is known as the 'black gold'
of India? Ans : (c)
(a) Black pepper (b) Cardamom • Karnataka is the leading producer of
(c) Clove (d) Saffron mulberry silk in India. There is a lot of
activity in the cultivation and production
Ans : (a)
of mulberry silk here.
• Black pepper is called 'black gold' in India
because it is an important spice and has a [Link] than three-fourth of India's raw silk
very high commercial value. is obtained from
(a) Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
112. Heroin is obtained from
(b) Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal
(a) Cannabis (b) Opium poppy
(c) Karnataka and Assam
(c) Tobacco (d) Betel nut
(d) West Bengal and Manipur
Ans : (b)
Ans : (a)
• Heroin is extracted from opium poppy
More than three-fourth of India's raw silk is
(Papaver somniferum). It is a narcotic
obtained from Andhra Pradesh and
substance and is used illegally.

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Karnataka. These states play a major role in • Ratna is developed from the cross
silk production. between Neelam and Alphonso mangoes.
116. Arrange the following varieties of silk in It is a popular and tasty variety of mango.
India in the decreasing order of their [Link] one of the following is cultivated by
production transplanting the plant?
1. Moonga (a) Maize (b) Sorghum
2. Eri (c) Onion (d) Soybean
3. Mulberry Silk (Mulberry) Ans : (c)
4. Tussar • Onion is usually cultivated by
Code transplanting the plant. It is first
(a) 3, 2, 4, 1 (b) 3, 4, 2, 1 germinated in the nursery, then later
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3 transplanted in the field. Other crops like
Ans : (a) maize, sorghum and soybean are
The varieties of silk in India can be arranged cultivated from seeds.
in the decreasing order of their production as [Link] one of the following pairs is not
follows:- correctly matched?
• Mulberry Silk (Mulberry) – Eri – Tussar– Crop Largest producer
Moonga (a) Potato - Uttar Pradesh
117. Which of the following is the major (b) Coconut - Kerala
cashew producing state? (c) Banana - Maharashtra
(a) Goa (b) Maharashtra (d) Tobacco - Andhra Pradesh
(c) Kerala (d) Karnataka Ans : (c)
Ans : (b) • The largest producer of banana is not
• Maharashtra is the major cashew Maharashtra but Tamil Nadu. The other
producing state, where cashew is pairs are correct: Potato - Uttar Pradesh,
cultivated on a large scale. Other states Coconut - Kerala, and Tobacco - Andhra
also produce cashew, but Maharashtra Pradesh.
has its own special identity. [Link] first agricultural university of the
118. Which one of the following is produced by country is
'viticulture'? (a) J.N.K.V. Jabalpur
(a) Silk (b) Earthworms (b) G.B.P.A.U. Pantnagar
(c) Honey (d) Grapes (c) P.A.U. Ludhiana
Ans : (d) (d) R.A.U. Bikaner
• Viticulture refers to the cultivation of Ans : (b)
grapes. It is done especially to increase • Govind Ballabh Pant University
the quality and production of grapes. (GBPAU) was established in Pantnagar,
119. Which hybrid variety of fruit is developed Uttarakhand and is the first agricultural
from the cross between Neelam and university of India.
Alphonso mangoes? [Link] Banana Research Centre is
(a) Amrapali (b) Dussehri located in
(c) Ratna (d) Badaami (a) Trichy (b) Musawal
Ans : (c) (c) Saharanpur (d) Pune
Ans : (a)

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• National Banana Research Centre is (a) For cotton crop (b) For paddy crop
located in Trichy, Tamil Nadu. This (c) For sugarcane crop (d) For wheat crop
centre is important for research and Ans : (a)
development of banana. • Black soil of India (Regur soil) is
124. Which of the following crops are mostly considered very suitable for cotton
grown under subsistence agriculture? cultivation.
(a) Millets and rice [Link] of the following states is the largest
(b) Cotton and tobacco producer of cardamom and black pepper?
(c) Tea and coffee (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Goa
(d) Vegetables and fruits (c) Kerala (d) Maharashtra
Ans : (a) Ans: (c)
• Crops like millets and rice are mainly • Kerala is the largest producer of
grown under subsistence agriculture as cardamom and black pepper.
they are essential for food security and are [Link] produces more than its requirement
more for local consumption. of?
125. Which of the following states has the (a) Tea (b) Cereals
maximum area under ‘soybean’ (c) Petroleum (d) Petrochemicals
cultivation? Ans : (a)
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar • India produces more than its requirement
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Maharashtra of tea and is also a big exporter of tea.
Ans : (c) [Link] food industry dominates among
• Madhya Pradesh is the most important the agro-based industries in Bihar?
state for soybean cultivation in India, (a) Sugarcane industry
where its production and area is the (b) Cereal-based industry
highest. (c) Pulses industry
126. Which is the maximum wheat producing (d) None of these
state in India? Ans : (b)
(a) Haryana (b) Punjab • Cereal-based industry dominates among
(c) Bihar (d) Uttar Pradesh the agro-based industries in Bihar.
Ans : (d) [Link] the following statements?
• Uttar Pradesh is the largest wheat 1. India is the only country in the world
producer state in India. which produces all the five known
• First Three commercial types of silk.
• Top States – Uttar Pradesh, Madhya 2. India is the largest producer of sugar in
Pradesh, Punjab the world.
127. Which Indian state is the leading Code
producer of mulberry silk? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) neither 1 nor 2
(c) Karnataka (d) West Bengal Ans : (a)
Ans: (c) • India indeed produces all the five types of
• Karnataka is the leading producer of silk (mulberry, tussar, moonga, eri and
mulberry silk in India. raw silk).
128. Black soil of India is very suitable for the • India is the second largest producer of
production of? sugar in the world.

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133. With reference to production of pulses in C. Coconut 3. Bihar
India, consider the following statements? D. Apple 4. Uttar Pradesh
1. Black gram can be cultivated in both Code
Kharif and Rabi seasons. A B C D
2. About half of the total pulse (a) 4 2 3 1
production is of moong alone. (b) 1 2 3 4
3. While the production of Kharif pulses (c) 4 3 2 1
has increased during the last three (d) 1 2 4 3
decades, the production of Rabi pulses Ans : (c)
has decreased. • Mango - Uttar Pradesh
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 • Litchi - Bihar
(c) Only 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 • Coconut - Kerala
Ans : (a) • Apple - Jammu and Kashmir
• The statement that black gram can be [Link] of the following is not a part of land
cultivated in both Kharif and Rabi is reform in India?
correct. (a) Abolition of Zamindari system
• The statement that moong accounts for (b) Fixation of ceiling on land holdings
half of the total pulses production is (c) Tenancy reform
wrong; moong contributes less. (d) Multiple cropping scheme
• The production of Kharif pulses has Ans : (d)
increased in the last three decades, but • Land reform includes abolition of
there is no clear evidence of a decrease in Zamindari system, fixation of ceiling on
the production of Rabi pulses. land holdings and tenancy reform.
134. According to the International Agreement Multiple cropping scheme is not a part of
on Agriculture, which financial assistance land reform.
is included in the 'Green Box'?
1. Agricultural research GREEN REVOLUTION
2. Fertilizers
3. Irrigation [Link] Ernest Borlaug, who is
4. Plant protection considered the father of Green
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 Revolution, is from which country?
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 (a) United States of America
Ans : (d) (b) Mexico
• The 'Green Box' includes financial (c) Australia
assistance that is related to agricultural (d) New Zealand
research (1) and plant protection (4). Ans. (a)
Assistance such as fertilisers (2) and • Norman Borlaug was born on 25 March
irrigation (3) are not generally considered 1914 in America, but he did his important
under the 'Green Box'. research and agricultural development
135. Match List I with List II and select your work in Mexico. He developed high
answer from the codes given below? yielding wheat varieties which helped in
List I (Fruits) List II (Largest increasing agricultural production not
Producer) only in Mexico but also in other
A. Mango 1. Jammu and Kashmir developing countries.
B. Litchi 2. Kerala

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• He was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in in these states, leading to a huge increase
1970 for his achievements. The Green in agricultural productivity.
Revolution brought unprecedented [Link] the ‘Green Revolution’, high yielding
increase in food production which helped improved seeds were used, which
in eliminating hunger among millions of required?
people. (a) Less fertilizer and less water
138. Green Revolution means (b) More fertilizer and less water
(a) Use of green manure (c) Less fertilizer and more water
(b) Growing more crops (d) More fertilizer and more water
(c) High yielding variety programme Ans. (d)
(d) Green vegetation • In the ‘Green Revolution’, high yielding
Ans. (c) improved seeds required - more fertilizer
• The Green Revolution emphasised on and more water.
increasing food production by using high • These seeds require more nutrition and
yielding seeds, fertilisers and better water for better productivity.
agricultural practices. [Link] most impact of the Green Revolution
139. The success of the Green Revolution was felt in?
depends on the availability of the (a) Production of wheat
following? (b) Production of rice
(a) High yield of seeds (c) Production of pulses
(b) Adequate irrigation facilities (d) Production of oilseeds
(c) Chemical fertilizers and pesticides Ans. (a)
(d) All of the above • The most impact of the Green Revolution
Ans. (d) was felt in the production of wheat.
• The success of the Green Revolution • During the Green Revolution in India,
depends on the availability of the high yielding wheat varieties were
following – developed, which led to a huge increase
• High yield of seeds, adequate irrigation in wheat production.
facilities, and chemical fertilizers and [Link] Revolution is related to
pesticides are all important. (a) Egg production
140. Which states of India benefited the most (b) Milk production
from the Green Revolution? (c) Wheat production
(a) Bihar, West Bengal and Assam (d) Fish production
(b) Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra Ans. (b)
(c) Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar • It specifically refers to the efforts made to
Pradesh increase milk production in India,
(d) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala including the "National Milk Production
Ans. (c) Programme". It was developed under the
• Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar leadership of Bala Saheb Nerulekar and
Pradesh of India benefited the most from V.V. Giri.
the Green Revolution. • Dr. Verghese Kurien is considered the
• High yielding seeds and modern father of 'White Revolution' because he
agricultural techniques were widely used gave a new direction to the Indian dairy
industry.

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• Dr. Kurien's contribution was important (b) Coal production
not only in milk production but also in (c) Crude oil production
rural development and women (d) Mustard production
empowerment. His vision and work style Ans. (c)
helped India take a strong step towards • It represents the initiatives taken to
food security. increase crude oil production and
144. Select the components of Green strengthen energy security in India.
Revolution using the given code [Link] Revolution is related to
1. High yielding variety seeds (a) Green Revolution
2. Irrigation (b) White Revolution
3. Rural electrification (c) Blue Revolution
4. Rural roads and marketing (d) All of these
Code Ans. (d)
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 • It reflects the overall efforts of Green,
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these White and Blue Revolution, which were
Ans. (d) made to improve food security, dairy
• The components of Green Revolution production and fisheries.
include: 149.'Evergreen Revolution' was introduced to
• High yielding variety seeds increase agricultural production in India
• Irrigation by
• Rural electrification (a) Norman Borlaug
• Rural roads and marketing (b) M. S. Swaminathan
• All these components together played a (c) Raj Krishna
vital role in increasing agricultural (d) R. K. V. Rao
production and improving food security. Ans. (b)
145. Which of the following is related to Blue • 'Evergreen Revolution' was introduced to
Revolution in India? increase agricultural production in India
(a) Floriculture (b) Sericulture by M. S. Swaminathan.
(c) Fisheries (d) Horticulture • He developed various methods to
Ans. (c) increase agricultural productivity, which
• This programme was implemented to improved food security in India.
increase marine and fresh water fish 150.'Yellow Revolution' is related to which of
production. The Blue Revolution helped the following in India?
increase fish production and made it an (a) Agricultural production
important food source. (b) Oilseed production
146. Pink Revolution is related to (c) Fish production
(a) Cotton (b) Garlic (d) Pulse production
(c) Grapes (d) Onion Ans. (b)
Ans. (d) • 'Yellow Revolution' is related to oilseed
• It represents the initiatives taken to production in India.
increase the production of onion, which • It represents initiatives taken to increase
improved its quality and production. the production of oilseeds, such as
147. 'Black Revolution' is related to mustard and soybean.
(a) Fish production

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151. Match List I with List II and choose the • Coarse cereals are not covered under
correct answer using the codes given National Food Security Mission.
below the lists. • This mission mainly focuses on
List I List II increasing the production of pulses, rice,
(Revolution) (Related) and wheat.
A. Golden 1. Oilseed [Link] fertilizers are used for?
Revolution production
(a) To increase production
B. Grey 2. Horticulture
(b) To improve the quality of food
Revolution and honey
C. Yellow 3. Petroleum (c) To maintain the productivity of land
Revolution production (d) All of the above
D. Black 4. Fertilizers Ans. (d)
Revolution • Balanced fertilizers are used for all the
Code above purposes.
A B C D • They are used to increase production,
(a) 4 2 1 3 improve the quality of food, and maintain
(b) 2 3 4 1 the productivity of land.
(c) 1 2 3 4 [Link] of the following statements
(d) 2 4 1 3 regarding Green Revolution is not
Ans. (d) correct?
The correct match is as follows: (a) Investment in it keeps on decreasing with
Golden Horticulture and time.
honey (b) Fertilizers and pesticides are required for
Grey Revolution Fertilizers
this.
Yellow Revolution Oilseed production
Black Revolution Petroleum production (c) Crop yield increased in this.
152. ‘Operation Green’ is related to what? (d) Seeds of high yielding varieties are used
(a) Use of paramilitary forces against in this.
Naxalites in Maharashtra Ans. (a)
(b) Use of paramilitary forces against • Green Revolution was a new technology
Naxalites in Chhattisgarh of agricultural production based on high
(c) Tomato, onion, potato quality seeds, chemical fertilizers and
(d) Euergreen Kranti deep irrigation, through which an attempt
Ans. (c) was made to bring about a dynamic
• ‘Operation Green’ is related to tomato, change in Indian agriculture. That is why
onion, potato. it is also called seed-fertilizer irrigation
• The aim of this scheme is to promote the technology.
production, price stability, and marketing • Its credit is given to American citizen
of these crops. Norman Ernest Borlaug in the global
153. Which of the following crops is not context and M. S. Swaminathan in the
covered under National Food Security Indian context.
Mission? [Link]/cocoa was related to which color
(a) Pulses (b) Rice revolution?
(c) Wheat (d) Coarse cereals (a) Gold Revolution
Ans. (d) (b) Black Revolution
(c) Grey Revolution
(d) Brown Revolution

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Ans. (d)
Revolution - Production Second Green Revolution
• Brown Revolution - Cocoa/Leather
• Gold Revolution - Horticulture [Link] of the following is not included in
• Grey Revolution - Fertilizers the Second Green Revolution proposed by
• Black Revolution - Petroleum the Prime Minister?
157. Silver Revolution is related to which of the (a) Universal development of Indian farmers,
following? participation in agricultural trade
(a) Eggs (b) Metal (b) Minimizing post-harvest food losses
(c) Milk (d) Agriculture (c) Improvement in crop storage
Ans. (a): (d) Promotion of direct investment of foreign
• Silver Revolution – Egg production currency in agriculture
• White Revolution – Milk production Ans. (d)
• Green Revolution – Agricultural • The second green revolution proposed by
production the Prime Minister does not include
158. 'Sweet Revolution' is related to the promotion of direct investment of foreign
production of which of the following? currency in agriculture.
(a) Sugarcane (b) Honey • The main focus of the second green
(c) Sugar (d) Jaggery revolution is on the development of
Ans. (b) Indian farmers, reducing post-harvest
• Sweet Revolution is related to honey food losses, and improvement in storage.
production. Its objective is to increase the [Link] is correct regarding the second
income of farmers through scientific green revolution in India?
method of honey production. 1. Its goal is to further increase the
159. Who is the pioneer and famous production of wheat and rice in the
agricultural scientist of Green Revolution areas that have already benefited from
in India? the green revolution.
(a) Gurcharan Singh Kalkat 2. Its goal is to expand seeds, water,
(b) Gudivada Nagaratnam Naidu fertilizers and technology in the areas
(c) R. N. Swamy that have not yet benefited from the
(d) Girish Badragond green revolution.
Ans. (a) 3. Its aim is to increase the production of
• Gurcharan Singh Kalkat was an Indian crops other than those used at the
agricultural scientist and founder beginning of the Green Revolution.
chairman of Punjab State Farmers 4. Its aim is to integrate crop production
Commission in the year 2005. with animal husbandry, social forestry
• He is known for his contribution in the and fisheries.
field of Green Revolution in Punjab. Code
• He has been awarded Padma Shri in 1981 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
and Padma Bhushan in 2007 by the (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
Government of India. Ans. (c)
• 2 and 4 are correct options regarding the
Second Green Revolution in India.
• Here, the goal of the Second Green
Revolution is to expand seeds, water,

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fertilizers, and technology to areas that [Link] main objective of the second green
did not benefit from the first Green revolution is to address which of the
Revolution, and also to integrate crop following issues?
production with animal husbandry, social (a) Food security and climate change
forestry, and fisheries. (b) Urbanisation
162. What was the primary focus of the Second (c) Export promotion
Green Revolution in India? (d) Textile industry development
(a) Increasing crop diversity Ans. (a)
(b) Increasing agricultural productivity • The main objective of the second green
through technology revolution was to ensure food security
(c) Reducing the use of chemical fertilizers and take measures to protect agricultural
(d) Promoting organic farming productivity from the effects of climate
Ans. (b) change.
• The main goal of the Second Green [Link] Indian state has been a pioneer in
Revolution in India was to increase implementing the practices of the second
agricultural productivity, especially green revolution?
through biotechnology and high-yielding (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Punjab
crops. (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Maharashtra
163. Which of the following technologies is a Ans. (b)
major component of the Second Green • Punjab has played a leading role in
Revolution implementing the practices of the Second
(a) Traditional farming techniques Green Revolution, especially in the use of
(b) Genetically modified organisms (GMOs) high-yield crops and modern agricultural
(c) Hand tools techniques.
(d) Livestock integration [Link] term "sustainable agriculture" in the
Ans. (b) context of the Second Green Revolution
• The development and use of crops, means
especially GMOs, was a major (a) Practices that increase yield only
component of the Second Green (b) Farming methods that protect the
Revolution, which helped in increasing environment and promote biodiversity
agricultural productivity. (c) Reliance on traditional farming methods
164. Which crop is often associated with the (d) Monoculture farming methods
Second Green Revolution in India? Ans. (b)
(a) Rice • The aim of sustainable agriculture is not
(b) Wheat only to increase productivity but also to
(c) Pulses maintain environmental balance and
(d) Biotechnology crops like BT cotton promote biodiversity.
Ans. (d) [Link] initiative has been implemented
• The second green revolution in India is with the aim of promoting the Second
usually associated with **biotech crops Green Revolution in India?
like BT cotton** (d). This revolution (a) Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi
focused particularly on increasing the (b) National Agricultural Innovation Project
production of cotton and developing pest (c) Soil Health Card Scheme
resistant crops. (d) National Mission for Sustainable
Agriculture

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Ans. (b) and they also actively participate in the

• This initiative has been implemented with decision making process.
the aim of promoting the Second Green [Link] of the following challenges was
Revolution in India, so that agricultural faced during the second green revolution?
productivity can be increased and (a) Declining rural population
sustainable agricultural practices can be (b) Impact of climate change on agriculture
adopted. (c) Excessive use of manual labour
169. Which of the following practices has been (d) Declining technological progress
encouraged in the second green revolution Ans. (b)
to enhance soil health? • Climate change was a major challenge
(a) Excessive use of chemical fertilizers during the Second Green Revolution,
(b) Crop rotation and cover crops which affected agricultural production
(c) Monoculture planting and sustainability.
(d) Extensive ploughing [Link] Second Green Revolution emphasizes
Ans. (b) the use of which of the following methods
• To enhance soil health, the second green for water conservation?
revolution has encouraged crop rotation (a) Flood irrigation
and cover crops, which help in improving (b) Drip and sprinkler irrigation systems
soil fertility and structure. (c) Traditional water harvesting
170. The focus of the second green revolution (d) Increasing crop coverage
is on: Ans. (b)
(a) Increasing food production only • The Second Green Revolution
(b) Improving agricultural techniques and emphasizes the use of drip and sprinkler
sustainability irrigation systems for water conservation,
(c) Promoting non-food crops exclusively as these help in using water more
(d) Reduction in farmer subsidies efficiently.
Ans. (b) [Link] institution is helpful in promoting
• To enhance soil health, the second green research and development for the Second
revolution encouraged crop rotation and Green Revolution in India?
cover crops, which help improve soil (a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
fertility and structure. (ICAR)
171. What role do women play in the second (b) Food and Agriculture Organization
green revolution in India? (FAO)
(a) They are not involved in agricultural (c) World Trade Organization (WTO)
practices. (d) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
(b) They are mainly engaged in Development (NABARD)
administrative roles. Ans. (a)
(c) They make significant contributions as • ICAR plays a key role in promoting
farmers and decision makers. research and development for the second
(d) They work mainly in agricultural research green revolution in India.
institutes. [Link] term "precision farming" in the
Ans. (c) context of the second green revolution
• Women play a vital role in agricultural means
activities in the second green revolution, (a) Farming based on historical data

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(b) Use of technology for efficient resource (a) Minimum Support Prices
management (b) Recovery Prices
(c) Cultivation of only high value crops (c) Issue Prices
(d) Traditional farming methods (d) Ceiling Prices
Ans. (b) Ans:(a)
• "Precision farming" means efficient • Minimum Support Prices refer to the
management of resources by using prices at which the government purchases
technological tools and data in food grains so that farmers get a fair price.
agriculture. [Link] purpose of increasing the price of
176. What is one of the major goals of the grains distributed through the Public
second green revolution in India? Distribution System is?
(a) Achieving self-sufficiency in rice (a) Farmers should get attractive prices
production (b) The use of grains can be controlled
(b) Increasing farmers' income and rural (c) The burden of production involved in this
development scheme can be reduced
(c) Reduction in agricultural workforce (d) To earn profit from this scheme
(d) Promoting urban agriculture Ans:(b)
Ans. (b) • The correct answer is (b) the use of grains
• One of the major goals of the second can be controlled.
green revolution is to increase farmers' • Increasing prices can help regulate
income and strengthen rural consumption and prevent wastage,
development. making the distribution system more
efficient.
Food Security [Link] is the primary objective of the
National Food Security Act, 2013?
177. Who among the following recommends (a) Increase in agricultural exports
minimum support price fixation of crops? (b) To ensure access to affordable food for all
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research (c) To promote organic farming
(b) NABARD (d) To increase crop yield only
(c) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Ans. (b)
Prices • The purpose of increasing the price of
(d) Indian Agricultural Research Institute grains through the Public Distribution
Ans. (c) System is to control the use of grains and
• The Commission for Agricultural Costs ensure their availability as per
and Prices (CACP) makes requirement.
recommendations regarding fixation of [Link] of the following is a major
minimum support price of crops. component of food security
• This commission analyzes various factors (a) Availability
to fix minimum support price for (b) Affordability
agricultural products. (c) Access
178. The prices at which the government (d) All of the above
purchases food grains to maintain the Ans. (d)
public distribution system and to build
buffer stocks are known as

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• Food security means that all people (b) To increase food exports
always have access to safe and nutritious (c) Global trade agreements
food. It has three major components: (d) Dependence on foreign food aid
• Availability: This ensures that food is Ans. (a)
available in sufficient quantities. It relates • 'Food sovereignty' means that a country
to agricultural production, storage, and should have the right to determine its food
distribution. If the quantity of food is not production and agricultural policies
sufficient, food security is affected. according to its own interests, without
• Affordability: This indicates whether external pressure or interference.
people are able to purchase food based on [Link] of the following is a major
their economic resources. If food is too challenge to food security in India?
expensive, poor people will not be able to (a) Low level of agricultural productivity
purchase it even if it is available. (b) Climate change and natural disasters
• Access: This ensures that people can (c) Urbanisation
access safe and nutritious food. It also (d) All of the above
takes into account geographical Ans. (d)
conditions, transportation, and market • Agricultural productivity, climate
structure. change, natural disasters and urbanisation
182. The main objective of the Public are all major challenges to food security
Distribution System (PDS) in India is: in India. All these factors affect food
(a) To control the rise in food prices security.
(b) To provide subsidized food to the poor [Link] organisation in India is responsible
(c) To promote the export of food grains for implementing food security schemes?
(d) To reduce food wastage (a) Ministry of Agriculture
Ans. (b) (b) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and
• The main objective of the Public Public Distribution
Distribution System (PDS) in India is to (c) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
provide food items to the poor and weaker Development (NABARD)
sections at subsidized rates, so as to (d) Food and Agriculture Organisation
ensure their food security. (FAO)
183. Which of the following schemes is Ans. (b)
associated with increasing food security • Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and
for the weaker sections of the society? Public Distribution**. This ministry is
(a) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana responsible for implementing food
(b) National Rural Livelihood Mission security schemes in India.
(c) Integrated Child Development Services [Link] Act provides the legal right to food
(d) Atal Pension Yojana to the citizens of India
Ans. (c) (a) Food Security Act, 2002
• This scheme is associated with increasing (b) National Food Security Act, 2013
food security and nutrition for the weaker (c) Agricultural Produce Market Act
sections of the society, especially (d) Essential Commodities Act
children and women. Ans. (b)
184. The term 'food sovereignty' refers to: • The National Food Security Act, 2013
(a) The right of a country to determine its provides the legal right to food to the
agricultural policies

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citizens of India, so that they can get food (d) Increase in agricultural employment
items at affordable rates. Ans. (a)
188. Food Security Index measures • An important cause of food insecurity in
(a) Agricultural productivity only India is poor infrastructure and
(b) Performance of food production systems transportation, which affects the proper
in different states distribution and availability of food stuff.
(c) Food prices in different markets 192.'Antyodaya Anna Yojana' focuses on:
(d) International food trade (a) Providing food to all citizens
Ans. (b) (b) Supplying food only to middle class
• Food Security Index measures the food families
security status of different states, (c) Providing highly subsidized food to the
production systems, and other related poorest families
factors. (d) Promoting agricultural exports
189. Which of the following is an important Ans. (c)
factor affecting food security in India? • The objective of 'Antyodaya Anna
(a) Urban development only Yojana' is to provide food stuff at
(b) Agricultural infrastructure and rural subsidized rates to the poorest families.
development [Link] of the following crops is essential
(c) Population control measures for ensuring food security in India?
(d) Globalization of trade (a) Tea (b) Coffee
Ans. (b) (c) Rice (d) Rubber
• Agricultural infrastructure and rural Ans. (c)
development are important factors • Rice is an essential crop for ensuring food
affecting food security in India, as these security in India, as it is the staple food
directly affect food production, for crores of people.
distribution and farmers' income. [Link] Integrated Child Development
190. What is the role of Food Corporation of Services (ICDS) programme aims to:
India (FCI) in food security? (a) Provide food security to farmers
(a) Implementing organic farming practices (b) Enhance nutrition and health for children
(b) Procurement, storage and distribution of and mothers
food grains (c) Increase agricultural production
(c) Promoting food exports (d) Support rural infrastructure development
(d) Regulating food prices in international Ans. (b)
markets • The Integrated Child Development
Ans. (b) Services (ICDS) programme aims to
• The major role of Food Corporation of improve the nutrition and health of
India (FCI) is to procure, store and children and mothers, so as to ensure their
distribute food grains, which helps in overall development.
ensuring food security. [Link] of the following is an important
191. Which of the following is an important factor in assessing food security at the
cause of food insecurity in India? household level?
(a) High per capita income (a) Climate variability
(b) Poor infrastructure and transportation (b) Income level and employment
(c) Surplus food production opportunities

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(c) Agricultural technology [Link] the context of food security the term
(d) National policies 'buffer stock' means:
Ans. (b) (a) Excess food grains stored for emergencies
• Income level and employment (b) Food aid provided by foreign countries
opportunities are important factors in (c) Food grains distributed through PDS
assessing food security at the household (d) Seasonal crop yields
level, as these directly affect the ability to Ans. (a)
purchase food. • 'Buffer stock' means the excess food
196. The objective of the National Food grains stored to ensure availability in case
Security Mission (NFSM) is: of emergency.
(a) To reduce the import of food grains
(b) To increase the production of food grains
through improved technology
(c) To promote food exports
(d) To focus only on horticulture
Ans. (b)
• The objective of the National Food
Security Mission (NFSM) is to increase
the food grain production by using
improved technology and methods, so as
to ensure food security.
197. Which initiative aims to promote food
production through the use of technology?
(a) Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi
(b) National Agriculture Market (e-NAM)
(c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
Employment Guarantee Act
(d) Swachh Bharat Mission
Ans. (b)
• The objective of this initiative is to
facilitate the trade of agricultural products
and promote food production through the
use of technology.

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Green Revolution
1. What are the objectives of Pradhan country for the Intensive Agriculture
Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana? District Programme -
Code – 1 To provide insurance cover and (a) Five districts
financial assistance to farmers in case of (b) Seven districts
any loss of crops notified by the (c) Eleven districts
government due to natural disaster, (d) Twenty five districts
disease and insects. Answer (B)
Code – 2 To make efforts to maintain the • In 1960, 7 districts were selected for the
interest of farmers in farming and to Intensive Agriculture District
provide them with a stable income. Programme. Under this programme,
Code – 3 To ensure the availability of loans finance, seeds, fertilizers, tools etc. were
in the agricultural sector. made available to farmers. Seeing the
Options: success of the programme, it was
(a) Codes 1 and 2 are correct. expanded to other 114 districts of the
(b) Code 1 is correct and Code 3 is incorrect. country under the Intensive Agriculture
(c) Codes 1 and 3 are correct. Regional Programme.
(d) Codes 1, 2, 3 are correct. 4. In 1966, the following were selected for
Answer (D) Green Revolution -
• Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana was (a) Wheat, rice, maize, sorghum and oilseeds
started on 13 February, 2016. (b) Wheat, rice, maize, sugarcane and potato
• Its objective – Natural disaster. (c) Wheat, rice, maize, sorghum, millet
• Main objective – To protect farmers from (d) Wheat, oilseeds, tobacco, rice and
losses due to drought and floods. sorghum
• To provide insurance cover and financial Answer (C)
assistance to farmers in case of loss of any • In 1966, multi-cropping program was
crop notified by the government due to adopted under Green Revolution.
natural disaster, disease and insects and 5. National Seed Corporation was
all the above options are correct. established in -
2. When was the first animal and crop (a) 1963 (b) 1969
insurance scheme proposed in India? (c) 1962 (d) 1965
(a) 1947 (b) 1939 Answer (A)
(c) 1950 (d) 1990 • To prepare good quality seeds, National
Answer (B) Seed Corporation was established in 1963
• Animal and crop insurance was proposed and State Farm Corporation in 1969.
in India in 1939, in which proposals • Seed Corporation provides seed
related to land policy, labor policy and certification services.
insurance policy were put forward, it was 6. Who first used the term Green
implemented under a pilot project in Revolution?
Dewas, Madhya Pradesh, but after this (a) Dr. Norman Borlaug
the scheme was suspended. (b) M.S. Swaminathan
3. In 1960, the Government of India first (c) Dr. William Gaud
selected the following districts of the (d) Dr. Verghese Kurien
Answer (C)

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• The term Green Revolution was first used with the aim of overall development in
by Dr. William Gaud of America. agriculture and related sectors.
• The father of Green Revolution in India is 10. When did the Traditional Agriculture
M.S. Swaminathan. Development Scheme start?
• Father of White Revolution – Dr. (a) 2014 (b) 2015
Verghese Kurien (c) 2007 (d) 2011
7. Under the Green Revolution programme, Answer (b)
a variety of wheat, a crop grown under the • Traditional Agriculture Development
aegis of Rockefeller and Ford Foundation, Scheme is a traditional agriculture reform
was developed which – program. It was started in 2015, this
Code: program is an extended component of
1. Was more productive than the Soil Health Management under the
traditional varieties. National Mission on Sustainable
2. Was less affected by weather changes. Agriculture.
3. Was ready quickly. 4. It showed 11. What is the full form of NMSA?
favourable response with fertilizers. (a) Net Mission for System Agriculture
Which of the above codes is correct - (b) National Mission for System Access
(a) 1, 3, 4 (b) 4, 1, 3 (c) National Mission for Sustainable
(c) 1, 2, 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 Agriculture
Answer (D) (d) Nutrition Mission for Sustainable
• Developed Triticum Estuary wheat Agriculture
variety to be sown under Green Answer (C)
Revolution programme. • National Mission for Sustainable
8. Strategy of second green revolution Agriculture is one of the major missions
includes? of the National Action Plan on Climate
(A) Chemical fertilizers Change. The mission was launched in
(B) Soil health testing 2014.
(C) Less water intensive crops 12. In which five-year plan did the National
(D) Organic fertilizers Mission for Sustainable Agriculture start?
Codes: (a) 11th (b) 10th
(a) A, B, C (b) A, C, D (c) 12th (d) 9th
(c) A, B, D (d) B, C, D Answer (C)
Answer (D) • Started – In 2014
• Strategy of second green revolution • Objective – To make agriculture more
includes organic fertilizers, less water productive, sustainable, profitable and
intensive crops, soil health testing, crop climate friendly.
rotation. 13. National Mission for Sustainable
9. When did the National Agriculture Agriculture has how many components?
Development Scheme start? (a) 5 (b) 4
(a) 2008 (b) 2009 (c) 6 (d) 10
(c) 2006 (d) 2007 Answer (B)
Answer (D) 14. Golden Revolution is related to -
• National Agriculture Development (a) Fruits
Scheme started in 2007. It was started (b) Honey production

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(c) Horticultural products (c) 19 February, 2015 (d) 19 April, 2015
(d) All of the above Answer (C)
Answer (D) • Soil Health Card Scheme was launched
• The period between 1991-2003 in India is on 19 February, 2015.
called Golden Revolution which focused • Main objective – To assist the states in
on unprecedented and sustainable growth providing soil health cards to farmers
in the production of fruits, honey across the country.
production and horticultural products. • Theme – Healthy stream, green fields.
15. Yellow Revolution is related to - 18. When was the Pradhan Mantri Krishi
(a) Fertilizer production Sinchai Yojana started?
(b) Wool production (a) 2014-15 (b) 2013-14
(c) Fruits (c) 2015-16 (d) 2016-17
(d) Oilseeds production Answer (C)
Answer (D) • Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana
• Yellow Revolution is related to the was launched in 2015-16 to ensure
production of pulses. protective irrigation in agricultural fields
• Started – 1986 in the country, so that more crop per drop
• Founder – Sam Pitroda can be ensured.
• Fertilizer – Grey Revolution 19. When did PM Kisan Samman Nidhi start?
16. National Mission for Sustainable (a) 24 January, 2019
Agriculture does not emphasize on which (b) 24 February, 2019
aspect? (c) 24 March, 2019
(a) Pest Management (d) 24 September, 2019
(b) Agricultural Insurance Answer (B)
(c) Improved Crop Seeds • PM Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana started
(d) Emphasis on production of coarse grains on 24 February, 2019. This scheme was
only started to provide income support to
Answer (D) farmer families across the country. Under
• This mission emphasizes on 10 aspects – this scheme, Rs. 9000 each is provided to
1. Improved Crop Seeds all eligible farmer families in three equal
2. Livestock and Fisheries installments.
3. Water Use Efficiency • Objective – To double the income of
4. Pest Management farmers by 2022.
5. Better Agricultural Practices 20. Which revolution is known as the
6. Nutrient Management evergreen revolution?
7. Agricultural Insurance (a) Rainbow
8. Credit Support (b) Green Revolution
9. Market Access Information (c) Second Green Revolution
10. Livelihood Diversification (d) Golden Revolution
• It emphasizes on production of other Answer (C)
crops along with coarse grains. • Second Green Revolution is known as the
17. Soil Health Card Scheme was launched evergreen revolution.
on? 21. Blue Revolution is related to which of the
(a) 19 February, 2016 (b) 19 January, following?
2015

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(a) Fisheries production 22. At present, Minimum Support Price is
(b) Cotton production announced on which crops?
(c) Water pollution (a) On 23 crops (b) On 28 crops
(d) Dairy production (c) On 22 crops (d) On 21 crops
Answer (A) Answer (A)
• Blue Revolution is an explosion in • Minimum support price is announced for
aquaculture and especially fish 23 crops.
production as a means of self-sufficiency, • 7 cereals
nutrients and economic development for • 5 pulses
India. • 7 oilseeds
• It was launched in India during the 7th • 4 commercial crops
Five Year Plan when the Central
Government sponsored the Fish Farmers
Development Agency.
• Other major revolutions –
Green Revolution Foodgrain
production
White milk
Blue fish
Yellow oilseeds
Brown wool
Almond spice
Pink prawns
Rainbow Promoting all
revolutions
Red meat/tomato
Silver egg
Golden honey
Horticultural
fruits
Round potato production
Evergreen promotion of
organic farming
Grey manure production
Saffron saffron production

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CONVENTIONAL ENERGY
1. Which one of the following is the largest Generation Company Limited
source of electricity in India? (MSPDCL).
(a) Hydroelectric power plant 5. Uran is a gas based power project.
(b) Nuclear power plant (a) In Gujarat (b) In Karnataka
(c) Thermal power plant (c) In Maharashtra (d) In Tamil Nadu
(d) Wind energy Ans.(c)
Ans.(c) • Uran is a major gas based power project,
• The largest source of electricity in India which strengthens power generation in
is thermal power plant. There are various Maharashtra and is a step towards clean
sources of electricity generation in India, energy.
but thermal power plants are the most • Along with fulfilling the energy needs of
prominent source. the state, it also contributes to
• Thermal power plants are the largest environmental protection.
source of electricity generation in India, 6. Where is Bokaro Thermal Power Station
which play an important role in meeting located?
its energy requirements. (a) In Bihar
2. Ramagundam Super Thermal Power (b) In Chhattisgarh
Station is located in (c) In Jharkhand
(a) Telangana (b) Jharkhand (d) In Odisha
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Karnataka Ans.(c)
Ans.(a): • Bokaro Thermal Power Station is located
• Ramagundam Super Thermal Power in Bokaro district of Jharkhand state.
Station is located in Telangana. • This power plant is operated by Bokaro
3. Obra Thermal Power Station was Power Supply Company Limited
established with the cooperation of which (BPSCL), a Government of India
of the following countries? company.
(a) America (b) Germany 7. In which state is Barh Super Thermal
(c) Japan (d) Russia Power Station (B.S.T.S.) located?
Ans.(d) (a) Bihar (b) Karnataka
• Obra Thermal Power Station was (c) Rajasthan (d) Punjab
established with the cooperation of Ans.(a)
Russia. • Barh Super Thermal Power Station
4. Where is Koradi Thermal Power Station (B.S.T.S.) is located in Bihar.
located? 8. Super thermal power generation center is
(a) Nagpur (b) Raipur established by National Thermal Power
(c) Mumbai (d) Secunderabad Corporation (NTPC) in West Bengal.
Ans.(a) (a) Asansol (b) Barrackpore
• Koradi Thermal Power Station is located (c) Chandannagar (d) Farakka
in Nagpur. Ans.(d)
• Koradi Thermal Power Station is • Super thermal power generating station
operated by Maharashtra State Power is set up by National Thermal Power

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Corporation (NTPC) at Farakka in West 12. Which of the following pairs is not
Bengal. correctly matched?
9. Which of the following are the essential Thermal Power Station State
pre-requisites for setting up a thermal (a) Badarpur - Delhi
power station? (b) Harduaganj - Uttar Pradesh
1. Availability of fossil fuel (c) Utran - Gujarat
2. Proximity to a river, lake or body of (d) Paras - Andhra Pradesh
water Ans.(d)
3. Good transport network • This pair is not correctly matched. Paras
4. Proximity to an urban centre Thermal Power Station is located in
Code Chhattisgarh, not in Andhra Pradesh.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 13. Match List I with List II
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 List I List II
Ans.(a) A. Ukai 1. Jharkhand
• Availability of fossil fuel, proximity to a B. Patratu 2. Gujarat
river, lake or body of water, and good C. Pench 3. Maharashtra
transport network are essential pre- D. Damol 4. Madhya Pradesh
Code
requisites for setting up a thermal power
A B C D
station.
(a) 2 4 1 3
10. Which of the following statements is/are
(b) 2 1 4 3
correct regarding NTPC's Singrauli unit?
(c) 3 1 4 2
1. It is located in the northern part of
(d) 3 4 1 2
Chhattisgarh state.
Ans.(b)
2. It is the oldest unit of NTPC.
• Ukai -Gujarat
Code
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 • Patratu -Jharkhand
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 • Pench -Madhya Pradesh
Ans.(b) • Damol -Maharashtra
• NTPC's Singrauli unit is located in 14. Match List I with List II and select the
Madhya Pradesh, not in Chhattisgarh, correct answer using the codes given
and it is also the oldest unit of NTPC. below the lists
11. Arrange the total electricity generation of List I List II
(Ultra Mega Power (State)
the following states in India in descending
Project)
order A. Sasan 1. Gujarat
1. Gujarat 2. Maharashtra B. Mundra 2. Madhya
3. Tamil Nadu 4. Uttar Pradesh Pradesh
Code C. Tilaiya 3. Andhra
(a) 4, 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 1, 4, 3 Pradesh
(c) 2, 4, 3, 1 (d) 1, 2, 4, 3 D. Krishnapatnam 4. Jharkhand
Code
Ans.(b)
A B C D
• In terms of electricity generation in
(a) 2 4 1 3
India, Maharashtra is the highest, then
(b) 3 4 1 2
Gujarat, then Uttar Pradesh and finally
(c) 2 1 4 3
Tamil Nadu.
(d) 3 2 4 2

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Ans.(c) important deposits of coal, iron ore, and

(Ultra Mega Power Project) (State) other minerals.
• Sasan Madhya 18. Which of the following river valleys is
Pradesh most important in terms of Gondwana era
• Mundra Gujarat coal reserves?
• Tilaiya Jharkhand (a) Son River Valley
• Krishnapatnam Andhra (b) Mahanadi Valley
Pradesh (c) Damodar River Valley
15. Match List I (Power House) with List II (d) Godavari River Valley
(State) and select the correct answer using Ans.(c)
the code given below the lists. • Damodar River Valley is most important
List I List II in terms of Gondwana era coal reserves.
(Power House) (State) The region is one of the major coal
A. Kothagudem 1. Andhra producing areas of India, with many coal
Pradesh mines located around the Damodar
B. Ramchur 2. Gujarat River.
C. Mettur 3. Karnataka
19. Given our present state of knowledge and
D. Wankabori 4. Tamil Nadu
resource situation, in which of the
Code
following will India be self-sufficient for
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3 thirty years?
(b) 1 3 4 2 (a) Tin (Bung) (b) Coking coal
(c) Copper (d) Petroleum
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 1 2 4 3 Ans.(b)
Ans.(b): • Given India’s present state of knowledge
Kothagudem Andhra Pradesh and resource situation, in coking coal it
Ramchur Karnataka is likely to be self-sufficient for thirty
Mettur Tamil Nadu years.
Wankabori Gujarat • Coking coal is important in power
16. Coal is used the most. generation and metallurgy, and
(a) In power generation substantial reserves of it are available in
(b) Iron and steel plants India.
(c) Railways 20. Korba coalfield is situated in.
(d) Steam ships (a) Odisha (b) Chhattisgarh
Ans.(a) (c) West Bengal (d) Assam
• Coal is most used in power generation. Ans.(b)
17. Which of the following rock systems • The Korba coalfield is located in
provides more than 90% of India's coal? Chhattisgarh, specifically the Korba
(a) Vindhya series (b) Dharwar series district.
(c) Tertiary series (d) Gondwana • It is part of the larger East-Central
series Coalfields and is known for its
Ans.(d) significant coal reserves, mainly
• Gondwana series is a part of the ancient bituminous reserves.
geological era, which mainly contains 21. Bisrampur is famous for the mining of
coal.

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(a) Copper ore (b) Iron ore mainly found in Gujarat, West Bengal,
(c) Coal (d) Manganese and Puducherry.
Ans.(c) 26. The development of Chotanagpur
• Bisrampur is famous for coal mining. industrial region has been related to.
• It is located in the Surguja district of (a) Discovery of bauxite
Chhattisgarh and the region has (b) Discovery of coal
significant deposits of coal, which (c) Discovery of iron-steel
contributes to the coal production in (d) Discovery of manganese
India. Ans.(b)
22. The best coking coal is obtained from • The development of Chotanagpur
(a) Neyveli (b) Raniganj industrial region has been related to the
(c) Singrauli (d) Jharia discovery of coal. This region is famous
Ans.(d) for its deposits of coal and other
• The best coking coal is obtained from minerals, which promoted industrial
Jharia. development.
• Jharia coalfield is located in Jharkhand 27. Talcher is a famous coal region.
and is famous for high quality coking (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Chhattisgarh
coal, which is mainly used in the steel (c) Bihar (d) Odisha
industry. Ans.(d)
23. Bokaro coalfield is located in • Talcher is a famous coalfield located in
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar Odisha.
(c) Jharkhand (d) West Bengal • It is known for its extensive coal
Ans.(c) reserves and is an important region for
• The Bokaro coalfield is located in coal mining in India, contributing
Jharkhand. significantly to the country's coal
• It is one of the major coal-producing production.
regions of India and is associated with 28. Which of the following is the largest
important industrial activities including region of lignite coal in India?
steel production. (a) Singrauli (b) Makum
24. Which of the following coalfields is not (c) Karnapura (d) Neyveli
located in Jharkhand? Ans.(d)
(a) Jharia (b) Ramgarh • The largest lignite coal field in India is
(c) Deogarh (d) Umaria Neyveli, located in Tamil Nadu.
Ans.(d) 29. In which one of the following states is the
• Jharia, Ramgarh, and Deogarh are all Namchik-Namphuk coalfield located?
located in Jharkhand, while Umaria is in (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Meghalaya
Madhya Pradesh (c) Manipur (d) Mizoram
25. Which of the following does not have Ans.(a)
major deposits of lignite? • The Namchik-Namphuk coalfield is
(a) Gujarat (b) West Bengal located in the north-eastern part of India,
(c) Jharkhand (d) Puducherry particularly in Arunachal Pradesh. The
Ans.(c) region is known for its diverse terrain
• Major deposits of lignite are not in and natural resources.
Jharkhand. Major deposits of lignite are

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30. In which part of India is the Kalakote Which of the above statements is/are
tertiary coal field located? correct?
(a) In the Brahmaputra river basin of Assam (a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) In the Damodar river basin in Jharkhand (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
and West Bengal Ans.(b)
(c) In the Himalayan mountain region • Statement 1: Low grade coal and
(d) In the Cardamom Hills of Kerala constraints in coal handling are a major
Ans.(b) problem of the Indian coal industry.
• Kalakote tertiary coal field is located in • Statement 2: Lack of utilisation capacity
the Damodar river basin in Jharkhand of washing facilities is also a serious
and West Bengal. This region is one of issue.
the important coal reserves of India. • Statement 3: Increasing dependence on
31. Consider the following statements import of coking coal is also a problem
1. All the metallurgical coal shale as India is facing shortage of coking
systems in India are found in the coal.
Damuda range. • Statement 4: Operating prices are also
2. Tamil Nadu is the major producer of challenging for the industry.
lignite coal in India. 33. Which of the following is the correct
3. Tertiary coal is mainly confined to descending order of Indian states in terms
peninsular India. of coal reserves?
Which of the above statements is/are (a) Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand,
correct? Madhya Pradesh
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (b) Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh,
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Jharkhand
Ans.(c) (c) Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh,
1. First statement: Most of the Madhya Pradesh
metallurgical coal in India is found in the (d) Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh,
Damuda range, which is correct. Jharkhand, Odisha
2. Second statement: The major producer Ans.(c)
of lignite coal is Tamil Nadu, which is • Jharkhand leads in terms of coal reserves
also correct. in India, followed by Odisha and then
3. Third statement: Tertiary coal is found Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh.
not mainly in peninsular India but also in Hence the correct descending order is
some parts of eastern India and the (c).
north-east, so this statement is incorrect. 34. Match List I with List II and select the
32. Consider the following problems of the correct answer from the code given below
Indian coal industry. the lists?
1. Low grade coal and constraints in coal List I (Coal Fields) List II (Location)
handling A. Talcher 1. Damodar
2. Decrease in utilisation capacity of Valley
washing facilities B. Karanpura 2. Son Valley
3. Increasing dependence on import of C. Singrauli 3. Godavari
coking coal Valley
4. Operating prices

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D. Singareni 4. Mahanadi Code
Valley A B C D
Code (a) 1 2 3 4
A B C D (b) 1 2 4 3
(a) 4 1 2 3 (c) 1 4 3 2
(b) 3 2 1 4 (d) 2 1 3 4
(c) 2 4 3 1 Ans.(a)
(d) 1 3 2 4 Match the details:
Ans.(a) • Makum -Assam
Match the description: • Namchik -Arunachal Pradesh
• Talcher - Mahanadi Valley • Giridih -Jharkhand
• Karanpura -Damodar Valley • Sohagpur -Madhya Pradesh
• Singrauli - Son Valley 37. Match List I with List II and select the
• Singareni - Godavari Valley correct answer from the codes given
35. Match List I with List II and select the below the lists?
correct answer from the code given below List I (Coal Regions) List II (States of
the lists? India)
List I (Coal Region) List II (States) A. Jhilimili 1. Orissa
A. Rajmahal 1. West Bengal B. Karanpura 2. Madhya
B. Sohagpur 2. Chhattisgarh Pradesh
C. Bisrampur 3. Madhya C. Rampur Himgiri 3. Chhattisgarh
Pradesh D. Sohagpur 4. Jharkhand
D. Raniganj 4. Jharkhand Code
Code A B C D
A B C D (a) 3 4 2 1
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 2 4 3
(b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 3 4 1 2
(d) 3 2 4 1 Ans.(d)
Ans.(b) Match the description:
• Rajmahal - Jharkhand • Jhilimili - Chhattisgarh
• Sohagpur - Madhya Pradesh • Karanpura - Jharkhand
• Bisrampur - Chhattisgarh • Rampur Himgiri - Orissa
• Raniganj - West Bengal • Sohagpur - Madhya Pradesh
36. Match List I with List II and select the 38. Statement (A) Inter-state transportation
correct answer from the codes given of coal is a major component of
below the lists? transportation carried out by railways.
List I (Coal field) List II (Location) Reason (R) Bengal-Jharkhand coal mines
A. Makum 1. Assam are the main source of coal supply of the
B. Namchik 2. Arunachal northwestern states.
Pradesh Code
C. Giridih 3. Jharkhand (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the
D. Sohagpur 4. Madhya correct explanation of A
Pradesh

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(b) Both A and R are not correct, but R is Ans.(a)
not the correct explanation of A. • Noonmati Refinery is located in Assam.
(c) A is correct, but R is wrong It is a major refinery located in
(d) A is wrong, but R is correct Dibrugarh district of Assam.
Ans.(a) 42. Which one of the following states is the
• Both A and R are correct and R is the leading producer of petroleum (crude) in
correct explanation of A. India?
• Statement (A) is correct because inter- (a) Assam
state transportation of coal is mainly (b) Bihar
done by railways, which is an important (c) Maharashtra
mode of coal transportation. (d) Andhra Pradesh
• Reason (R) is also correct, because coal Ans.(a):
mines of Bengal-Jharkhand region are • Assam is the leading producer of
the main source of coal for the petroleum (crude) in India.
northwestern states of India. • Several major oil fields, such as Digboi
39. Where is the oldest oil reserve in India? and Numaligarh, are located here, which
(a) Bombay High, Maharashtra contribute significantly to the country's
(b) Ankleshwar, Gujarat oil production.
(c) Navagaon, Gujarat 43. Navagram oilfield is located in
(d) Digboi, Assam (a) Assam
Ans.(d) (b) Gujarat
• Digboi is the oldest oil reserve in India, (c) Maharashtra
where oil production started in the mid- (d) Andhra Pradesh
19th century. Ans.(b)
• The oil discovery here laid the • Navagram oilfield is located in Gujarat
foundation of the Indian oil industry. and is an important petroleum producing
Other options include Bombay High and region of the state. There are many oil
Ankleshwar, but Digboi has more reserves and refineries here, which make
historical importance. it important for oil production.
40. Which of the following oil refineries is not 44. Koyali is
located in Assam? (a) Hydroelectric power plant in Assam
(a) Tatipaka (b) Numaligarh (b) Thermal power plant in Maharashtra
(c) Bongaigaon (d) Digboi (c) Oil refinery in Gujarat
Ans.(a) (d) Bio-gas plant in Andhra Pradesh
• Tatipaka oil refinery is not located in Ans.(c)
Assam; it is in Andhra Pradesh. Other • Koyali Oil refinery is located in Gujarat
options, such as Numaligarh, and is an important energy source for the
Bongaigaon and Digboi, are all located state. The purpose of hydroelectric plants
in Assam. is to generate electrical energy by using
41. Noonmati Refinery is located in the movement of water.
(a) Assam 45. Lunej Petrol producing area is located in
(b) Bihar which state?
(c) Maharashtra (a) Assam (b) Mumbai-High
(d) Andhra Pradesh (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Gujarat

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Ans.(d) in the world. Various types of petroleum

• Lunej Petrol producing area is located in products are produced here.
Gujarat and is one of the major 49. Which of the following does not have an
petroleum producing areas of the state. oil refinery?
Gujarat also has many other petroleum (a) Koyali (b) Noonmati
fields, which contribute to the energy (c) Hatia (d) Barauni
production of the country. Ans.(c)
46. Which one of the following companies is • Hatia is located in Jharkhand but it does
involved in the exploration and not have any major oil refinery. Other
commercial production of oil in the options like Koyali, Noonmati and
Barmer-Sanchor basin of Rajasthan? Barauni have oil refineries.
(a) Cairn Energy 50. Match List I with List II and select the
(b) Unocal Corporation correct answer from the code given below
(c) Reliance Energy Ventures the lists?
(d) ONGC List I (Oil Refinery) List II (States)
Ans.(a) A. Haldia 1. Assam
• Cairn Energy is active in the exploration B. Jamnagar 2. Kerala
and commercial production of oil in the C. Kochi 3. Gujarat
Barmer-Sanchor basin of Rajasthan. D. Numaligarh 4. West Bengal
Other companies are also in the energy Code
sector, but Cairn Energy is especially A B C D
known for this sector. (a) 4 3 1 2
47. Ravva offshore block with high oil (b) 4 3 2 1
potential is located? (c) 1 2 3 4
(a) Krishna-Godavari Basin (d) 3 4 2 1
(b) Cauvery Basin Ans.(b)
(c) Mahanadi Basin Match the information:
(d) Palar Pennar Basin • Haldia - West Bengal
Ans.(a) • Jamnagar - Gujarat
• Krishna-Godavari Basin is a major area • Kochi - Kerala
for oil and gas exploration in India. • Numaligarh - Assam
• The potential for oil and gas is 51. Most of the natural gas in India is
considered very high here, and many produced from which of the following?
large exploration and production projects (a) Andhra Pradesh coast
are being operated in this area. (b) Gujarat coast
48. The largest oil refinery in India is. (c) Mumbai High
(a) Jamnagar (b) Paradip (d) Tamil Nadu coast
(c) Digboi (d) Talipaka Ans.(c)
Ans.(a) • Mumbai High is the main source of
• Jamnagar is located in Gujarat and it is natural gas in India.
the largest oil refinery in India. • This area is located on the western side
• It is operated by Reliance Industries and of the Indian coast and a large amount of
its production capacity is also the largest natural gas and oil is produced from
here.

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52. The KG-D-6 basin, which has been in the (a) Sutlej (b) Beas
news since April, 2009, has huge reserves (c) Ravi (d) Chenab
of Ans.(a)
(a) Coal (b) Crude oil • Luhri Hydroelectric Power Project is
(c) Gas (d) Uranium being constructed on Sutlej River.
Ans.(c) • This project is located in Himachal
• The KG-D-6 (Krishna-Godavari Delta-6) Pradesh and aims to generate electricity
basin is located on the eastern coast of using the water of Sutlej River.
India and is famous for its huge reserves 56. Jawahar Sagar Hydroelectric Project is
of natural gas. located on which river?
• It was developed by Reliance Industries (a) Narmada (b) Chambal
and contributes significantly to the (c) Tapti (d) Mahi
Indian energy market. Ans.(b)
53. Hazira-Bijapur-Jagadishpur (H.B.J.) gas • Jawahar Sagar Hydroelectric Power
pipeline has been constructed by which of Project is located on Chambal River.
the following authorities? • This project generates electricity using
(a) Gas Authority of India Limited the water of Chambal River in
(b) Oil India Limited Rajasthan.
(c) Indian Oil Company 57. Dulhasti Hydro Power Station is located
(d) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation on which river?
Limited (a) Beas (b) Chenab
Ans.(a) (c) Ravi (d) Sutlej
• Hazira-Bijapur-Jagadishpur (H.B.J.) gas Ans.(b)
pipeline has been constructed by Gas • Dulhasti Hydro Power Station is located
Authority of India Limited (GAIL). on Chenab River.
• This pipeline is important for the • This station is located in Jammu and
transportation of natural gas and it Kashmir region of India and generates
supplies gas to various areas. electricity using the water of Chenab
54. Which of the following is the oldest hydro River.
power production center in India? 58. Where are Tapovan and Vishnugad
(a) Mayurakshi Hydroelectric Projects located?
(b) Machkund (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Pallivasal (c) Uttarakhand (d) Rajasthan
(d) Shivasamudram
Ans.(c)
Ans.(d) • Tapovan and Vishnugad Hydroelectric
• The oldest hydro power production Projects are located in Uttarakhand.
center in India is Shivasamudram. • These projects are based on Bhagirathi
• It is located in Karnataka and was River and are important for
established in 1902. It is considered to be hydroelectricity generation.
the first major centre of hydroelectric
59. The Baglihar Power Project, about which
power generation.
Pakistan raised a dispute with the World
55. Luhri Hydroelectric Power Project is Bank, is being built by India on the river
being constructed on which of the which is
following rivers? (a) Jhelum River (b) Indus River

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(c) Chenab River (d) Sutlej River • Reliance Group has discovered coal bed
Ans.(c) methane (CBM) reserves in Sohagpur
• The Baglihar Power Project is being area of Madhya Pradesh.
built on the Chenab River. • Coal bed methane (CBM) is a form of
• Pakistan had raised a dispute with the natural gas in coal layers.
World Bank regarding this project. • Coal bed methane (CBM) is considered a
60. The Rana Pratap Sagar Project is clean source of energy and can be
(a) A nuclear power plant extracted during the production of coal.
(b) A fish conservation scheme 64. Match List I with List II and select the
(c) A hydroelectric power plant correct answer using the code given below
(d) A shipping yard List I (Place) List II (Energy)
Ans.(c) A. Pavagadh - 1. Wind
• The Rana Pratap Sagar Project is a B. Tatapani - 2. Solar
hydroelectric power plant located in C. Moopandal - 3. Geothermal
Rajasthan, built on the Chambal River. D. Kakrapar - 4. Nuclear (Atomic)
• This project is a part of the Chambal Code
Valley Development Project and its main A B C D
objective is to generate hydroelectricity. (a) 3 2 1 4
61. The Tehri Hydroelectric Complex is (b) 1 3 2 4
located on which one of the following (c) 1 2 3 4
rivers? (d) 2 3 1 4
(a) Alaknanda (b) Bhagirathi Ans.(b)
(c) Dhaulaganga (d) Mandakini Match List I and List II and the correct
Ans.(b) answer is as follows:
List I (Place) List II (Energy)
• Tehri Hydroelectric Complex is located
on Bhagirathi River, which is in • Pavagadh - Wind
Uttarakhand. • Tatapani - Geothermal
• This project is one of the major sources • Moopandal - Solar
of Ganga River. • Kakrapar -Atomic
62. Omkareshwar Project is associated with (Molecular)
which one of the following rivers? 65. Which of the following pairs are correctly
(a) Chambal (b) Narmada matched?
(c) Tapi (d) Bhima List I List II
Ans.(b) 1. Idukki - Thermal Power Station
2. Subangiri - Hydroelectric Project
• Omkareshwar Project is associated with
3. Ghatprabha - Irrigation Project
Narmada River.
4. Ramganga - Multipurpose Project
• It is a hydroelectric project located in
Code
Madhya Pradesh.
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
63. Where has Reliance Group found coal
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
bed methane reserves in Madhya
Ans.(a)
Pradesh?
(a) Sohagpur (b) Guna • Idukki: It is primarily a hydroelectric
project, not a thermal power station.
(c) Balaghat (d) Rewa
• Subangiri: It is a hydroelectric project.
Ans.(a)

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• Ghatprabha: It is an irrigation project. B. Mineral 2. Hyderabad

• Ramganga: It is a multipurpose project. Exploration
Corporation
• Hence, the correct pairs are only 2, 3 and
Limited
4. C. National Mineral 3. Nagpur
66. Jadugoda is famous for Development
(a) Iron-ore (b) Manganese Corporation
(c) Gold (d) Uranium D. National 4. New Delhi
Ans.(d) Aluminium
Company
• Jadugoda is located in Jharkhand and is Limited
famous for uranium. Code
• Uranium is mined here, which is A B C D
important for India's nuclear power (a) 4 2 3 1
programme. In other options, other areas (b) 1 2 4 3
are famous for iron-ore and manganese, (c) 4 3 2 1
while other places in India are more (d) 2 3 4 1
famous for gold. Ans.(c)
67. Which of the following statements is/are • Match the information:
correct about Jaitapur, which is located in Oil and Natural Gas New Delhi
Rajapur tehsil of Ratnagiri district of Commission
Maharashtra? Mineral Exploration Nagpur
1. It was an important port in ancient Corporation Limited
and early medieval times. National Mineral Hyderabad
2. It is a proposed nuclear power plant Development Corporation
site to be built with the cooperation of National Aluminium Bhubaneswar
Company Limited
France.
Code
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) neither 1 nor 2
Ans.(c)
• An important port in ancient and early
medieval times: Jaitapur was a historical
port, which was the center of ancient and
medieval trade activities.
• Nuclear power plant with the
cooperation of France Jaitapur is a
proposed nuclear power plant site, which
is to be developed with the cooperation
of France.
68. Match the following
List I List II
(Mineral Exploration (Headquarters)
Agency)
A. Oil and Natural 1. Bhubaneswar
Gas Commission

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NON - CONVENTIONAL ENERGY (c) Increases fossil fuel consumption

(d) Lower cost of operation
69. Which of the following is a non- Ans.(c)
conventional energy source? • Solar energy actually helps in reducing
(a) Coal (b) Natural gas dependence on fossil fuels, thereby
(c) Solar energy (d) Nuclear energy reducing both fossil fuel consumption
Ans.(c) and greenhouse gas emissions.
• Solar energy is considered a non- 74. What is the role of an inverter in a solar
conventional energy source, while coal, energy system
natural gas and nuclear energy are more (a) Storing solar energy
conventional energy sources. (b) Converting DC to AC electricity
70. What is the primary component of a solar (c) Absorbing sunlight
photovoltaic (PV) cell? (d) Tracking the efficiency of solar panels
(a) Copper (b) Silicon Ans.(b)
(c) Aluminium (d) Lead • An inverter converts the direct current
Ans.(b) (DC) generated by solar panels into
• Silicon is the most common alternating current (AC), which is used
semiconductor material used in solar by most household appliances.
photovoltaic cells, as it can effectively 75. Which type of solar technology converts
convert sunlight into electricity. sunlight directly into electricity?
71. Which is a major disadvantage of solar (a) Solar thermal
energy? (b) Concentrated solar power (CSP)
(a) It is a renewable resource. (c) Photovoltaic (PV)
(b) It can be used even in remote areas. (d) Solar heating
(c) It requires large areas. Ans.(c)
(d) It reduces electricity bills. • Photovoltaic technology directly
Ans.(c) converts sunlight into electricity, which
• Setting up large-scale solar farms is used in solar panels.
requires substantial land, which may be a 76. Which of the following technologies
limitation in densely populated areas directly converts sunlight into electricity?
72. Solar thermal energy is primarily used for (a) Solar thermal
what purposes? (b) Photovoltaic cell
(a) Photovoltaic conversion (c) Biomass
(b) Concentrated solar power (CSP) (d) Geothermal
(c) Biomass conversion Ans.(b)
(d) Wind energy conversion • Photovoltaic cell is an important
Ans.(b) technology in the field of renewable
• CSP concentrates sunlight into a small energy, which is helpful in producing
area using mirrors or lenses, producing sustainable and clean energy. Increasing
heat that can be used to produce its development and use can help meet
electricity. future energy needs.
73. Which is not an advantage of solar energy 77. Which state producing the highest solar
(a) Reduces greenhouse gas emissions energy in India?
(b) Provides energy independence (a) Maharashtra (b) Gujarat

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(c) Rajasthan (d) Karnataka (c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
Ans.(c) (d) Ministry of Science and Technology
• Rajasthan has the highest number of Ans.(c)
solar energy panels installed, and the • The Ministry of New and Renewable
state is a leader in solar energy Energy is responsible for the
production. development and management of all
78. Which program has been launched by the renewable energy sources, including
Government of India to promote solar solar energy.
energy? 82. Where was India's first solar energy-
(a) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan based grid-supported power plant
(b) National Solar Mission installed?
(c) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (a) Tamil Nadu
(d) Mudra Yojana (b) Andhra Pradesh
Ans.(b) (c) Gujarat
• The aim of the National Solar Mission is (d) Uttar Pradesh
to increase the production capacity of Ans.(c)
solar energy in India and make it a • The first solar energy based grid-
significant contribution to renewable supported power plant was set up in
energy. Gujarat, which is an important milestone
79. Which is the major technology for solar in the field of solar energy.
energy production in India? 83. In which state of India was the "Solar
(a) Photovoltaic (PV) Village" project launched?
(b) Concentrated Solar Power (CSP) (a) Uttarakhand
(c) Solar Thermal (b) Madhya Pradesh
(d) All of the above (c) Bihar
Ans.(d) (d) Karnataka
• Photovoltaic, concentrated solar power Ans.(a)
and solar thermal are all technologies • The objective of the "Solar Village"
used for solar energy production in project in Uttarakhand is to promote
India. energy self-reliance in rural areas by
80. Which region is most suitable for solar using solar energy.
energy in India? 84. Where is the largest solar energy farm
(a) Hilly regions located in India?
(b) Desert regions (a) Patan, Gujarat
(c) Forest regions (b) Kutch, Gujarat
(d) Coastal regions (c) Bikaner, Rajasthan
Ans.(b) (d) Ranchi, Jharkhand
• Desert regions, such as the Thar Desert, Ans.(b)
are most suitable for solar energy as they • This solar energy farm located in Kutch,
receive maximum sunlight. Gujarat is the largest solar energy
81. Which ministry is responsible for solar producing farm in India.
energy in India? 85. What is the measurement of the efficiency
(a) Ministry of Power of solar panels in solar energy
(b) Ministry of Environment production?

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(a) Kilowatt (kW) relatively low. This makes it
(b) Gigawatt (GW) economically viable in the long term.
(c) Megawatt (MW) 89. What is the main challenge in wind power
(d) All of the above development in India?
Ans.(d) (a) Lack of technology
• The capacity of solar panels can be (b) High availability of wind
measured in kilowatts (kW), megawatts (c) Grid connectivity problems
(MW) and gigawatts (GW), which (d) Low energy demand
indicate different levels of solar energy Ans.(c)
production. • A major challenge to wind energy
86. What is the main reason for the reduction development is the lack of grid
in the production cost of solar energy in infrastructure, which makes it difficult to
India transmit power from remote wind farms
(a) New technologies to urban areas.
(b) Government subsidies 90. What is the objective of the National
(c) Competitive market Wind-Solar Hybrid Policy?
(d) All of the above (a) To harness wind energy only
Ans.(d) (b) To combine wind and solar energy
• The cost of solar energy production in generation
India has come down due to new (c) Export of wind energy
technologies, government subsidies and (d) To harness conventional energy sources
competitive market. Ans.(b)
87. Which state has the highest installed wind • The objective of the National Wind-
power capacity in India? Solar Hybrid Policy is to promote the
(a) Maharashtra (b) Tamil Nadu combined use of wind and solar energy,
(c) Gujarat (d) Karnataka thereby ensuring optimal use of
Ans.(b) resources.
• Tamil Nadu is the leading state in wind 91. Which is the main organisation for the
power generation, where a large part of development of wind energy in India?
India's total wind power capacity is (a) Ministry of Environment
installed. (b) Ministry of Power
• The state has suitable climate and wind (c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
conditions, making it ideal for wind (MNRE)
power. (d) Central Electricity Authority
88. What is the main advantage of wind Ans.(c)
power? • MNRE is responsible for the
(a) High initial cost development and promotion of all
(b) Dependence on fossil fuels renewable energy sources including
(c) Low operating cost wind energy.
(d) Requirement of large land area 92. Which technology is commonly used in
Ans.(c) wind energy generation?
• After installation of wind turbines, their (a) Horizontal axis wind turbines (HAWT)
operation and maintenance cost is (b) Vertical axis wind turbines (VAWT)
(c) Both HAWT and VAWT

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(d) Solar panels (b) Sunlight
Ans.(a) (c) Tidal motion and waves
• Both horizontal axis wind turbines (d) Biomass
(HAWT) and vertical axis wind turbines Ans.(c)
(VAWT) are used in wind energy • Ocean energy is mainly derived from
generation, though HAWTs are more tidal motion and ocean waves, including
efficient and are more common. tidal energy and wave energy.
93. Which Indian state is known for wind 97. Which technology is used to harvest wave
energy due to its coastal location? energy?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Maharashtra (a) Tidal turbine
(c) Gujarat (d) Uttarakhand (b) Oscillating water column
Ans.(c) (c) Photovoltaic cell
• The coastal areas of Gujarat are (d) Wind turbine
important for wind energy, and the state Ans.(b)
has actively invested in wind energy • Oscillating water column (OWC) is a
projects. technology that captures wave energy,
94. What is the primary advantage of wind using the motion of water to drive air
energy? turbines, which generate electricity.
(a) It is abundant and renewable 98. Which are the most effective locations for
(b) It has high carbon emissions tidal energy?
(c) It requires extensive water resources (a) Open ocean
(d) It is the most expensive energy source (b) Coastal areas where tidal variation is
Ans.(a) high
• Wind energy is renewable and available (c) Deep sea
in many areas, making it a sustainable (d) Desert areas
option. Ans.(b)
95. What is the main factor of the efficiency • Tidal energy is most effective in coastal
of a wind turbine areas where there is a significant water
(a) Wind speed level difference between high and low
(b) Colour of the turbine tides.
(c) Height of the turbine 99. What is the major advantage of ocean
(d) Price of electricity energy?
Ans.(a) (a) It is not renewable
• The efficiency of a wind turbine depends (b) It has a high carbon footprint
mainly on the wind speed. Higher wind (c) It can provide a stable and reliable
speeds allow the turbine to generate energy source
more energy. (d) It requires large amounts of land
• The design and size of the turbine are Ans.(c)
also important, but wind speed is the • Ocean energy is considered highly
most important factor, because if the reliable as the nature of tides and waves
wind speed is too low, the turbine will is predictable.
not be able to generate energy. 100. What is the energy generated from the
96. Ocean energy is mainly derived from: temperature difference between surface
(a) Wind water and deep water in the ocean called?

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(a) Tidal energy 104. Which is one of the potential sites for
(b) Wave energy wave energy in India?
(c) Ocean thermal energy conversion (a) West coast (b) East coast
(OTEC) (c) Himalayan region (d) Desert region
(d) Hydroelectric power Ans.(a)
Ans.(c) • The western coast of India, such as
• Ocean thermal energy conversion Gujarat and Maharashtra, is one of the
(OTEC) is a method that generates major potential sites for wave energy.
electricity by using the temperature 105. Which is the main centre for research and
difference between warm surface water development related to ocean energy in
and cold deep water. India?
101. What are the environmental concerns (a) Indian Institute of Science (IISc)
related to ocean energy? (b) Indian Institute of Technology (IIT)
(a) Noise pollution (c) National Institute of Hydrology
(b) Impact on marine ecosystem (d) Energy Research Institute
(c) Change in water quality Ans.(b)
(d) All of the above • IITs, particularly IIT Madras, are
Ans.(d) pioneers in research and development of
• Ocean energy projects may have various ocean energy.
environmental impacts, such as noise 106. Which use of ocean energy has not been
pollution, damage to marine ecosystem, widely used in India yet?
and change in water quality due to (a) Tidal energy
construction and operation. (b) Wave energy
102. What is the main source of ocean energy (c) Climate control
in India? (d) All have been used
(a) Tidal energy (b) Wave energy Ans.(b)
(c) Fossil fuels (d) Both (a) and • There are some tidal energy projects in
(b) India, but wave energy has not been
Ans.(d) widely used yet. Wave energy
• Ocean energy in India is mainly derived technology is still in the development
from tidal and wave energy. Both these stage and needs to be implemented on a
sources can be used along the Indian large scale.
coasts. 107. Geothermal energy is mainly obtained
103. Which is the most suitable location for from?
tidal energy production in India? (a) Solar energy
(a) Goa (b) Heat from inside the earth
(b) Karnataka (c) Wind energy
(c) Maharashtra (d) Hydro energy
(d) Pamban Island (Rameshwaram) Ans.(b)
Ans.(d) • Geothermal energy is obtained from the
• The Pamban Island region is extremely heat from inside the earth, which is
suitable for tidal energy production, generated by the internal activities of the
where the tidal level varies considerably. earth.

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108. What are the most prominent areas of (b) Carbon dioxide
geothermal energy in India? (c) Hydrogen
(a) Karnataka and Uttar Pradesh (d) Nitrogen
(b) Maharashtra and West Bengal Ans.(a)
(c) Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal • The main component of biogas is
Pradesh methane, which helps in producing
(d) Odisha and Gujarat energy when it is burnt.
Ans.(c) 113. Bioenergy can be used in which sector?
• Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal (a) Electricity generation
Pradesh are important sources of (b) Heat generation
geothermal energy, where hot water (c) Transportation
springs are found. (d) All of the above
109. Geothermal energy can be used for what? Ans.(d)
(a) Electricity generation • Bioenergy can be used for electricity,
(b) For thermal energy heat, and transportation, such as
(c) Both (a) and (b) biodiesel and bioethanol.
(d) Only for hot water 114. What is the process of generating energy
Ans.(c) from biomass called?
• Geothermal energy can be used for (a) Biomass conversion
electricity generation as well as for (b) Hydrogenation
thermal energy, such as for heating and (c) Biofuel production
hot water. (d) Bioelectric process
110. What is the main environmental concern Ans.(a)
associated with geothermal energy? • The process of converting biomass into
(a) Water pollution energy is called biomass conversion,
(b) Noise pollution which includes burning, fermentation,
(c) Land use change and gasification.
(d) All of the above 115. What is the largest source of bioenergy in
Ans.(d) India?
• Environmental concerns such as water (a) Solar energy
pollution, noise pollution, and land use (b) Wind energy
change may be associated with (c) Biogas
geothermal energy projects. (d) Hydroelectricity
111. What is the main source of bioenergy? Ans.(c)
(a) Fossil fuels • The largest source of bioenergy in India
(b) Plant and animal waste is biogas, which is used for cooking and
(c) Solar energy power generation in rural and urban
(d) Nuclear energy areas.
Ans.(b) 116. Which non-conventional energy source
• The source of bioenergy is living or uses heat from the interior of the earth?
recently dead biological material, such as (a) Solar energy (b) Wind energy
plants, crops, and animal waste. (c) Geothermal energy (d) Tidal energy
112. Which is the main component of biogas? Ans.(c)
(a) Methane

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• Geothermal energy is obtained from heat Ans. (d)

stored within the earth. Project Location River
117. Hydroelectricity generation mainly
depends on which of the following? (Jayakwadi) Maharashtra Godavari
(a) Sea tides Paithan
(b) Kinetic energy of flowing water Hydroelectric
(c) Combustion of biomass Project
(d) Chemical reactions in batteries Ratle Jammu and Chenab
Ans.(b) Hydroelectric Kashmir
• Hydroelectricity converts the kinetic Project
energy of moving water into electrical
energy. Mahi Rajasthan Anara
118. Which of the following is not a source of Hydroelectric (tributary
renewable energy? Project of Mahi)
(a) Wind energy (b) Solar energy 122. Which of the following pairs of thermal
(c) Geothermal energy (d) Natural gas power plant and its location is not
Ans.(d) correctly matched?
• Natural gas is a fossil fuel and is not (a) Neyveli – Tamil Nadu
considered a renewable energy source, (b) Talcher – Assam
while others are renewable. (c) Panki - Uttar Pradesh
119. Which non-conventional energy source is (d) Korba – Chhattisgarh
mainly harnessed using tidal barrages? Ans. (b) :
(a) Wind energy (b) Solar energy Names of thermal power plants and their
(c) Ocean energy (d) Biomass locations-
energy • Thermal power plant Location
Ans.(c) • Neyveli - Tamil
• Tidal barrages are used to generate Nadu
energy from the movement of tides, • Talcher - Odisha
which is a form of ocean energy. • Unchahar, Parichha, Panki - Uttar
120. International Renewable Energy Agency Pradesh
(IRENA) promotes the adoption of which • Kayamkulam - Kerala
type of energy? • Korba, Lara -
(a) Fossil fuel Chhattisgarh
(b) Non-renewable energy 123. Which of the following is the main source
(c) Renewable energy of electricity generation in India?
(d) Nuclear energy (a) Nuclear energy
Ans.(c) (b) Thermal power
• IRENA is dedicated to promoting the (c) Solar energy
adoption and sustainable use of (d) Hydroelectricity
renewable energy worldwide. Ans. (b) :
121. Where is India's 'Paithan Hydroelectric • Thermal energy is the main source of
Project' located? electricity generation in India. It is based
(a) Rajasthan (b) Uttar Pradesh on fuels like coal, diesel, natural gas etc.
(c) West Bengal (d) Maharashtra

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The contribution of thermal power is • It was India's first commercial nuclear
about 63 percent. power station commissioned on 28
124. Which Indian state has the highest power October 1969.
generation capacity from thermal energy? • It was established under the 123
(a) Gujarat agreements signed between India, the
(b) Uttar Pradesh United States and the International
(c) Maharashtra Atomic Energy Agency.
(d) Andhra Pradesh 127. Which Indian organization related to the
Ans. (c) development of nuclear energy is located
• Maharashtra is the state with the highest in Kolkata?
electricity generation capacity and the (a) Bhabha Atomic Research Center
highest thermal energy generation (BARC)
capacity. (b) Raja Ramanna Advanced Technology
• India ranks third (after China, USA) in Center (RRCAT)
the total production and consumption of (c) Variable Energy Cyclotron Center
electricity in the world. According to the (VECC)
data of July 2021, the total installed (d) Atomic Minerals Exploration and
capacity of India is 3,86,888 MW. Research Directorate (AMD)
125. Which of the following is not an Ans. (c)
environmentally friendly method of • The 'Variable Energy Cyclotron Center
electricity generation? (VECC)' related to the development of
(a) Thermal Power (b) Solar Power nuclear energy is located in Kolkata.
(c) Wind Energy (d) Bio Waste • It is a major component related to
Ans: (a) research and development under the
• Thermal Power is not an Department of Atomic Energy,
environmentally friendly method of Government of India and one of the
electricity generation. constituent institutions of Homi Jhangir
• Thermal energy is obtained by burning Bhabha National Institute.
coal, natural gas etc. and heating water. • This center is dedicated to significant
Thermal power plants increase global research and development in accelerated
warming. science and technology, nuclear science,
material science and other related areas.
ATOMIC ENERGY 128. Which of the following is the oldest
nuclear research reactor in India?
126. India's first commercial nuclear power (a) Dhruv (b) Apsara
plant, Tarapur is located in which of the (c) Kamini (d) Cyrus
following states? Ans. (b)
(a) Maharashtra (b) Jharkhand • India's oldest nuclear research reactor is
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Karnataka Apsara.
Ans. (a) • It was established in the year 1956 at the
• Tarapur Atomic Power Station is located Trombay campus of Bhabha Atomic
in Tarapur, Maharashtra. Research Center.
129. Which of the following is the main hazard
of nuclear energy production?

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(a) Energy requirement Ans. (a)
(b) Limited availability • 'Nuclear Fuel Complex' is a nuclear plant
(c) Storage and dispersion located in Hyderabad, established in
(d) Installation 1971 under the Department of Atomic
Ans. (c) Energy.
• The main hazard of nuclear energy • Nuclear Fuel Complex supplies key
production is storage and dispersion. components for nuclear reactors.
• The waste material produced during 133. Choose the correct statement from the
various stages of nuclear/atomic energy given options.
production is called nuclear waste. This (a) Mundra Thermal Power Station is
waste contains radioactive waste which located in Madhya Pradesh.
can cause environmental problems, (b) Koodankulam Nuclear Power Station is
hence their storage and disposal should located in Kerala.
be done in a good manner so that (c) Talcher Super Thermal Power Station is
radiation does not spread. located in Andhra Pradesh.
130. Which of the following is a research (d) Narora Atomic Power Station is located
reactor established for nuclear research in Uttar Pradesh.
in Kalpakkam? Ans. (d)
(a) Asura (b) Kamini Plant Location
(c) Kiran (d) Apsara Narora Atomic Power Station Uttar
Ans. (b) Pradesh
• Kamini is a research reactor established Mundra Thermal Power Gujarat
Station
for nuclear research in Kalpakkam
Koodankulam Nuclear Power Tamil Nadu
(Tamil Nadu). Which was specially Station
designed to use uranium-233 fuel. Talcher Super Thermal Power Odisha
131. In which year was the International Station
Atomic Energy Agency created? 134. Kaiga located in Karnataka is famous for
(a) 1957 (b) 1958 what?
(c) 1955 (d) 1956 (a) Diamond mining (b) Nuclear plant
Ans. (a) (c) Antibiotics plant (d) Cement plant
• The International Atomic Energy Ans. (b)
Agency is an autonomous global • Kaiga is located in Karnataka state
organization, whose objective is to which is famous for nuclear plant.
ensure the peaceful use of nuclear energy • It is operated by Bharatiya Nuclear
in the world. Power Corporation Limited. It is
• This institution was formed on 29 July operational since 2000. Its capacity is
1957. Its headquarters is in Vienna 880 MW.
(Austria). 135. Nuclear Fuel Complex is located
132. Where is India's nuclear fuel complex in.................
located? (a) Hyderabad (b) Thumba
(a) Hyderabad (c) Kalpakkam (d) Mumbai
(b) Hubli Ans. (a) :
(c) Chennai • Nuclear Fuel Complex is located in
(d) Visakhapatnam Hyderabad city of India. It was

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established in 1971 under the (b) Kaiga - Karnataka
Department of Atomic Energy. (c) Kakrapar - Gujarat
136. In which district of Madhya Pradesh will (d) Kudankulam - Tamil Nadu
the proposed nuclear power plant be Ans. (a)
established? Nuclear Power Plant State (Where
(a) Betul (b) Mandla Located)
(c) Khandwa (d) Neemuch • Kalpakkam - Tamil Nadu
Ans. (b) • Kaiga - Karnataka
• The proposed nuclear power plant is • Kakrapar - Gujarat
under construction in Chutka village of • Kudankulam - Tamil Nadu
Mandla district of Madhya Pradesh. 139. India's largest nuclear power station is
• This place is located near Kanha located in...........
National Park which is a major tiger (a) Mahabaleshwar (b) Tarapur
reserve of India. (c) Panchgani (d) Aurangabad
137. Which of the following is not a major Ans. (b)
disadvantage of nuclear power • Among the given options, India's largest
generation? nuclear power station is located in
(a) Risk of accidental leakage of nuclear Tarapur. This is India's first nuclear
radiation power plant.
(b) Electricity generation • Tarapur is a city located in Palghar
(c) High cost of setting up a nuclear power district of Maharashtra state of India.
plant Tarapur Nuclear Power Station was
(d) Storage and disposal of used fuel established by General Electric of
Ans. (b) America. India has four nuclear reactors
• Nuclear energy is the energy that is here, from which electric power is
produced from controlled nuclear fission generated.
reaction. At present, commercial plants • The total capacity of Kudankulam
use nuclear fission process for electricity Nuclear Power Plant located in Tamil
generation. Nadu is 2000 MW. It is the nuclear plant
• Nuclear power plants produce small with the highest capacity in India.
amount of CFC and CO2 gas. Nuclear 140. When was India's first nuclear station
energy can meet the energy needs for a established?
long time. (a) 1966 (b) 1969
• Disadvantages of nuclear power (c) 1968 (d) 1967
generation - high possibility of nuclear Ans. (b)
accident (Chernobyl nuclear accident), • The first nuclear power plant or station
risk of accidental leakage of nuclear in India was established in 1969 in
radiation, high cost of setting up a Tarapur, Maharashtra with the help of
nuclear power plant, problem of disposal the United States.
of nuclear waste and storage of fuel etc. • NPCIL was established in 1987 to
138. In which of the following options, the pair operate nuclear power plants, follow
of nuclear power plant and its state shown plans and programs or implement
is not correctly matched? projects. India has 8 nuclear power
(a) Kalpakkam - Karnataka

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plants, in which 22 nuclear reactors are Jahangir Bhabha (Indian nuclear
active. physicist).
141. When was the Atomic Energy • On the sudden demise of Dr. Bhabha in
Amendment Bill passed by the Parliament 1966, in honour of his excellent work,
to allow joint ventures between the the then Prime Minister Mrs. Indira
nuclear power generation sector and Gandhi renamed the Atomic Energy
public sector undertakings? Institute, Trombay as Bhabha Atomic
(a) 2012 (b) 2014 Research Centre in the name of Dr.
(c) 2015 (d) 2010 Bhabha.
Ans. (c) 144. In which district of Haryana is the
• The Atomic Energy Amendment Bill nuclear power plant located?
was passed by the Parliament in the year (a) Karnal (b) Rohtak
2015. This amendment is to allow joint (c) Fatehabad (d) Sonipat
ventures between the nuclear power Ans. (c)
generation sector and the public sector. • Gorakhpur Atomic Power Plant is
142. Which one of the following nuclear located in Fatehabad district of Haryana.
research reactors is operated by the The establishment of this plant was
Bhabha Atomic Research Center? started in the year 2014.
(a) Shiva (b) Narayan • In this project, 4 reactors of 700 MW are
(c) Dhruv (d) Vishnu proposed to be installed in two phases.
Ans. (c) 145. Where is Bhabha Atomic Research
• Dhruv Nuclear Research Reactor is Center (BARC) located?
India's main reactor producing nuclear- (a) Hyderabad (b) Mumbai
grade plutonium, which is operated by (c) Chennai (d) Tarapur
the Bhabha Atomic Research Center. Ans. (b)
• Bhabha Atomic Research Center was • Bhabha Atomic Research Center is
established on 19 December 1945. Its located in Mumbai. Which was
main objective is to generate electricity established on 19 December 1945.
through peaceful applications of nuclear • Its main objective is to generate
energy. electricity from the peaceful use of
• Asia's first nuclear reactor is Apsara, nuclear energy.
which was established on August 4, 146. Who established India's three-stage
1956 at Bhabha Atomic Research Centre nuclear power program?
Trombay campus. (a) Dr. Homi Bhabha
143. The Atomic Energy Institute in Mumbai (b) Vikram Sarabhai
was renamed in honour of which Indian (c) K. Kasturirangan
nuclear physicist? (d) APJ Abdul Kalam
(a) C.V. Raman Ans. (a)
(b) Ramakrishna Ramanathan • With the aim of achieving self-
(c) Homi Jahangir Bhabha sufficiency in the field of electricity, Dr.
(d) Raja Ramantra Homi Jahangir Bhabha laid the
Ans : (c) foundation of India's three-stage nuclear
• The Atomic Energy Institute in Mumbai energy program in the 1950s.
was renamed in honour of Homi

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• Its objective was to make India self- 150. Which of the following Indian states does
reliant in the energy sector in the long not have a nuclear plant?
term by using thorium present in (a) Bihar (b) Maharashtra
monazite sand found in the coastal areas (c) Rajasthan (d) Tamil Nadu
of South India. It is worth noting that Ans. (a)
India has huge reserves of thorium. • There are 22 nuclear plants in India
147. The Atomic Energy Act.............. Prohibits operating at 7 different places.
private control of nuclear energy • These seven places are located at
including its production. Kakrapara (Gujarat), Kalpakkam and
(a) 1964 (b) 1963 Kudankulam (Tamil Nadu), Narora
(c) 1962 (d) 1961 (Uttar Pradesh), Kaiga (Karnataka),
Ans. (c) Tarapur (Maharashtra) and Rawatbhata
• The Atomic Energy Act 1962 came into (Rajasthan). There is no nuclear plant in
force for the development, control and the state of Bihar.
use of atomic energy for the welfare of
the citizens of India and other related
peaceful purposes. This Act prohibits
private control of nuclear energy
including its production.
148. Where is Saha Institute of Nuclear
Physics located?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Delhi
(c) Maharashtra (d) West Bengal
Ans.(d)
• Saha Institute of Nuclear Physics is
located in Kolkata city of West Bengal.
• This institute is named after the famous
Indian physicist Dr. Meghnad Saha.
149. Where has India established the CIRUS
reactor?
(a) Jadugoda, Jharkhand
(b) Trombay, Mumbai
(c) Indore, Madhya Pradesh
(d) Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu
Ans. (b)
• CIRUS was a research reactor built at
the Bhabha Atomic Research Center
located in Trombay, Mumbai.
• It was handed over to India by Canada in
1954. Which was operated in 1960. It
was the second nuclear reactor to be
established in India.

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Disaster
1. India has been divided into how many (d) All of these
seismic risk zones? Answer: (b)
(a) 5 (b) 6 • The north-western part of the Indian
(c) 4 (d) 7 subcontinent is prone to earthquakes, the
Answer: (c) main reason for which is plate tectonic
India has been divided into 4 seismic risk activity
zones. These zones are as follows: 5. Statement (a) Koyna region of
• Zone II – Low seismic risk zone Maharashtra is likely to be affected by
• Zone III – Medium seismic risk zone more earthquakes in the near future.
• Zones IV and V – High seismic risk zone Reason (R) Koyna Dam is located on an old
2. Which organization is responsible for fault plane, which may become more active
monitoring seismic activity in India and with the change of water level in the Koyna
providing information about it? reservoir.
(a) Indian Meteorological Department Code -
(IMD) (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the
(b) National Disaster Management Authority correct explanation of A
(NDMA) (b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the
(c) National Centre for Seismology (NCS) correct explanation of A
(d) Indian Space Research Organization (c) A is correct but R is wrong
(ISRO) (d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer: (c) Ans: (a)
• National Centre for Seismology (NCS) is • Both the statement and the reason are
responsible for monitoring seismic correct and the reason is the correct
activity in India and providing explanation of the statement.
information related to earthquakes. • Statement (A): Koyna region is
3. Which tectonic plate boundaries affect the seismically sensitive, especially due to
earthquake activity in India? seismic activities that started from 1967.
(a) Indian plate and Pacific plate The region has experienced many
(b) Indian plate and Eurasian plate earthquakes in the last few decades,
(c) Indian plate and African plate making it prone to earthquakes in the
(d) Indian plate and South American plate future.
Answer: (b) • Reason (R): Koyna Dam is located on an
• The collision between the Indian plate old fault line, and the fluctuations in the
and the Eurasian plate is a major factor water level of the dam may increase the
affecting the earthquake activity in India, stress in the faults, which may affect the
especially in the Himalayan region. seismic activities. This fact is a valid
4. The north-western part of the Indian explanation to explain the seismic
subcontinent is prone to earthquakes, the activities.
main reason for which is? • Thus, both the assertion and reason are
(a) Volcanic activity correct and reason is the correct
(b) Plate tectonic activity explanation of the assertion.
(c) Coral formation 6. Consider the following statements -

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1. India has been divided into five seismic • A part of Gujarat, especially the Kutch
zones. region, falls under the high seismic risk
2. The north-eastern provinces and areas zone. However, other parts such as
near the Indo-Nepal border fall under Saurashtra and some other areas may be
high damage risk zones. at moderate seismic risk.
3. The stable terrain of the Deccan • Most of Bihar, especially the foothills of
Plateau is a safe zone from the Himalayas, falls under moderate to
earthquakes. high seismic risk.
Which of the above statements is/are 8. Which of the following measures can be
correct? adopted to promote earthquake
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 mitigation?
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Establishment of earthquake control
Answer: (c) centres
• Statement 1 is incorrect, India has been 2. Mapping of earthquake prone areas
divided into 4 zones (Zone II to Zone V) 3. Construction of earthquake resistant
on the basis of seismic risk, not 5 zones. buildings
• Zone II (Moderate risk zone): This zone Code -
is prone to mild earthquakes. It includes (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
some northern and western parts. (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
• Zone III (High risk zone): This zone is Answer: (d)
prone to moderate to high intensity The following measures can be adopted to
earthquakes. It includes parts of Kashmir, promote earthquake mitigation:
Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. 1. Establishment of earthquake control
• Zone IV (Extreme risk zone): The risk centres
of earthquakes is very high here. This 2. Mapping of earthquake prone areas
zone is mainly the hilly areas of North 3. Construction of earthquake resistant
India and especially around the Nepal buildings
border. All these measures play an important role in
• Zone V (Extremely high risk zone): earthquake mitigation.
This is the most dangerous zone, which 9. The word tsunami is related to which of the
includes Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh, following languages?
and the north-eastern states. (a) Arabic (b) Japanese
7. Which of the following states/areas fall (c) Hebrew (d) Latin
under the moderate damage risk zone of Answer: (b)
earthquake? • Tsunami is a Japanese word, in which
(a) Bihar (b) Uttar Pradesh (tsu-nami) means "harbour wave". The
(c) Gujarat (d) All of these word is derived from the Japanese words
Answer: (d) (tsu) meaning "harbour" and (nami)
• The following states/regions fall under meaning "wave".
the moderate damage risk zone of 10. Tsunamis are caused by
earthquakes (a) Shrinking of the Earth's crust
• A part of Uttar Pradesh, especially the (b) Cyclones
eastern part, falls under the moderate (c) Undersea earthquakes
seismic risk zone. (d) Tides

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Answer: (c) Answer: (C)

• When an earthquake occurs under the sea, • Rapid upwelling of water from the coast:
it can shake the surface of the sea, causing This may be the initial warning of a
massive waves called tsunamis. tsunami.
11. What is the effect on the depth of water • When tsunami waves approach the coast,
when tsunami waves approach the coast? first the sea level drops suddenly (called
(a) Decreases "upwelling of water"), and then heavy
(b) Increases waves hit the coast.
(c) Increases and decreases alternately 14. Where is the Tsunami Warning Centre
(d) Neither increases nor decreases located in India?
Answer: (B) (a) Chennai
• Tsunami waves have little effect on the (b) Visakhapatnam
depth of water when they approach the (c) Hyderabad
coast. Although tsunami waves have a (d) Port Blair
characteristic that as they approach the Answer: (C)
coast, their height increases and speed • The Tsunami Warning Centre in India is
slows down, but their effect on the depth located in Hyderabad.
of water is generally minimal. 15. Which of the following coasts of India was
12. Which of the following statements is not most affected by the 2004 tsunami?
correct regarding tsunami? (a) Malabar Coast
(a) Tsunamis have very long wavelengths (b) Konkan Coast
(b) Tsunamis have a typical rise of about (c) Coromandel Coast
twelve inches above the sea surface (d) Northern Circar Coast
(c) Tsunamis increase in height when they Answer: (c)
reach relatively shallow water • The Coromandel Coast, which is part of
(d) Tides also play an important role in the Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh, was
origin of tsunamis worst hit by the 2004 tsunami. There was
Answer: (d) heavy damage and widespread loss of life
• Tides also play an important role in the in the coastal areas of Tamil Nadu and
origin of tsunamis: This statement is Andhra Pradesh.
incorrect. 16. Which organisation in India is responsible
• Tsunamis are mainly caused by undersea for monitoring tsunamis and issuing early
earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, or warnings?
changes in the sea floor, while tides cause (a) Indian Space Research Organisation
regular changes in the sea level and do not (ISRO)
play any important role in the origin of (b) National Disaster Management Authority
tsunamis. (NDMA)
13. Which one of the following can be (c) Indian National Centre for Ocean
considered as an early warning of an Information Services (INCOIS)
impending tsunami? (d) Geological Survey of India (GSI)
(a) Thunderstorm noise Answer: (c)
(b) Cyclonic winds and rainfall • Indian National Centre for Ocean
(c) Rapid upwelling of water from the coast Information Services (INCOIS) is
(d) Rapid movement of water towards land responsible for monitoring tsunamis,

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issuingwarnings and providing Answer : (D)
information on seismological and • The Krishna Basin, which stretches
oceanographic activities. across several states including Karnataka,
17. Which organisation was formed for the Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh, is
early warning system in the Indian Ocean frequently affected by drought
region due to the 2004 Indian Ocean conditions.
tsunami? 21. Which term is used to describe a situation
(a) International Tsunami Warning System where both water availability and water
(ITWS) demand are below normal levels, leading
(b) Indian Ocean Tsunami Warning System to drought?
(IOTWS) (a) Hydrological drought
(c) Pacific Tsunami Warning Center (b) Meteorological drought
(PTWC) (c) Agricultural drought
(d) Global Tsunami Warning System (d) Socio-economic drought
(GTWS) Ans : (B)
Answer: (b) • Meteorological drought refers to a
• In response to the 2004 tsunami, the situation where both water availability
Indian Ocean Tsunami Warning System and water demand are significantly below
(IOTWS) was established to provide normal levels, leading to widespread
early warning and mitigate the impact of water shortages.
future tsunamis in the region. 22. Which Indian government agency is
18. Which of the following Indian states is primarily responsible for monitoring and
most frequently affected by drought? assessing drought conditions?
(a) Punjab (b) Kerala (a) India Meteorological Department (IMD)
(c) Rajasthan (d) West Bengal (b) National Disaster Management Authority
Answer: (c) (NDMA)
Rajasthan is one of the Indian states most (c) Central Water Commission (CWC)
affected by drought due to its arid and semi- (d) Ministry of Agriculture
arid climate. Ans : (C)
19. What is the primary indicator of drought? • The Central Water Commission (CWC)
(a) Excessive rainfall plays a key role in monitoring water
(b) Abnormally high temperatures resources and assessing drought
(c) Prolonged period of low rainfall conditions in India.
(d) Strong winds 23. What is a common agricultural practice
Answer : (C) used to conserve soil moisture in drought-
• The main feature of drought is a prone areas?
prolonged period of abnormally low (a) Crop rotation
rainfall, which leads to water shortage (b) Drip irrigation
and adversely affects agriculture and (c) Burning of crop residues
water resources. (d) Flood irrigation
20. Which Indian river basin is frequently Answer : (B)
affected by drought? • Drip irrigation is a water-efficient method
(a) Ganga Basin (b) Godavari Basin used to conserve soil moisture and reduce
(c) Yamuna Basin (d) Krishna Basin

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water wastage, especially in drought- 27. Which region of Uttar Pradesh state in
prone areas. India is most affected by floods?
24. In response to severe drought, which of the (a) Western region
following measures is typically (b) Eastern region
implemented to provide relief to affected (c) Central region
farmers? (d) Northern region
(a) Increasing taxes on agricultural products Answer: (B)
(b) Provision of drought-resistant crop • The eastern region of Uttar Pradesh,
varieties especially the border areas of Bihar, is
(c) Restricting the use of water for irrigation most affected by floods. Flood problems
(d) Restricting the sale of agricultural arise here regularly due to the floods of
produce Ganga and its tributaries like Ghaghara,
Answer : (B) Gomti and Yamuna.
• Providing drought-resistant crop varieties 28. Statement (a) the frequency of floods has
helps farmers adapt to adverse conditions increased in the North Indian plains in the
and reduce the impact of drought on last two decades. Reason (R) Silt
agricultural production. deposition has reduced the depth of river
25. Which term is used to describe the impact valleys.
of drought on the economy and society, Code-
including a decrease in agricultural (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the
production and an increase in food prices? correct explanation of A
(a) Economic drought (b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the
(b) Social drought correct explanation of A
(c) Environmental drought (c) A is correct but R is incorrect
(d) Socio-economic drought (d) A is incorrect but R is correct
Answer: (D) Ans: (A)
• Socio-economic drought refers to the • Statement A is correct, the incidence of
effects of drought on the economy and floods in the North Indian plains has
society, including reduced agricultural increased in the last two decades, one of
production, increased food prices, and the reasons for which can be climate
other related impacts. change, increasing population, and
26. Which is the most flood-prone state in accumulation of silt in river valleys.
India? • Reason R is also correct, Silt deposition
(a) Assam reduces the depth of river valleys,
(b) Andhra Pradesh increasing the chances of flood events.
(c) Bihar When the depth of the river is reduced,
(d) Uttar Pradesh the flow of water is limited, and the
Answer: (C) incidence of floods increases.
• Bihar is the most flood-prone state. This 29. Which term is used to describe floods
state is severely affected by floods caused by overflowing of rivers and
especially during monsoon, mainly due to streams due to excessive rainfall?
Ganga and its tributaries. Uttar Pradesh is (a) Coastal flooding (b) Flash flooding
also affected by floods, but less than (c) River bank flooding (d) Urban flooding
Bihar. Answer : (C)

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• River bank flooding occurs when rivers (c) 2013 (d) 2017
overflow their banks due to excessive Answer : (C)
rainfall or snow melt, causing widespread • Heavy rainfall and landslides caused
waterlogging in the surrounding areas. floods in Uttarakhand in 2013, causing
30. Which river causes devastating floods in widespread devastation and loss of life
Assam and other northeastern states of and property in the region.
India? 34. Which Indian state is known for frequent
(a) Yamuna (b) Godavari floods due to the confluence of rivers and
(c) Brahmaputra (d) Krishna heavy monsoon rains in the region?
Answer : (C) (a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra
• The Brahmaputra River causes (c) Assam (d) Haryana
devastating floods in Assam and other Answer : (C)
northeastern states of India, especially • Assam is known for frequent floods due
during the monsoon season. to the confluence of several rivers,
31. What is the main cause of flash floods in including the Brahmaputra, and heavy
urban areas? monsoon rains in the region.
(a) Excessive snow melt 35. Which river system is responsible for
(b) Swelling of large rivers floods in the Sundarbans region of West
(c) Sudden waterlogging due to fast and Bengal?
intense rainfall (a) Yamuna
(d) Coastal storm surges (b) Ganga-Brahmaputra
Answer: (C) (c) Godavari
• Flash floods in urban areas are mainly (d) Indus
caused by fast and intense rainfall, which Answer : (B)
overwhelms the drainage systems and • The Ganga-Brahmaputra system,
causes sudden waterlogging. including its many tributaries, is
32. Which Indian organisation is primarily responsible for floods in the Sundarbans
responsible for forecasting and giving region of West Bengal, especially during
early warning of floods? the monsoon season.
(a) India Meteorological Department (IMD) 36. What is the main objective of floodplain
(b) National Disaster Management Authority zoning as a flood management practice?
(NDMA) (a) Promote urban development in flood-
(c) Central Water Commission (CWC) prone areas
(d) Geological Survey of India (GSI) (b) Prevent deforestation in flood-prone
Answer: (C) areas
• Central Water Commission (CWC) is (c) Restrict construction and activities in
responsible for forecasting and giving flood-prone areas so as to reduce the risk
early warning of weather conditions, and loss from floods
including heavy rainfall that may lead to (d) Increase agricultural productivity in
floods. flood-prone areas
33. In which year heavy rainfall and landslides Answer : (C)
caused floods in Uttarakhand, causing • Floodplain zoning is a flood management
huge loss of life and property? practice that aims to restrict construction
(a) 2004 (b) 2010

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and activities in flood-prone areas so as to crops, especially wheat and mustard, as
reduce the risk and loss from floods. well as property damage.
37. Which Indian state is particularly known 41. What is the usual size of hailstones that
for experiencing severe hailstorms during cause damage during hailstorms?
the winter months? (a) 1-5 mm (b) 10-20 mm
(a) Maharashtra (b) Punjab (c) 20-50 mm (d) 50-100 mm
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) West Bengal Answer: (C)
Answer : (B) • Hailstones with a diameter of 20-50 mm
• Punjab, along with parts of Haryana and are considered large enough to cause
Uttar Pradesh, is known for experiencing significant damage to crops, vehicles and
severe hailstorms during the winter property.
months, which can cause considerable 42. Which Indian agricultural sector is most
damage to crops. vulnerable to damage caused by
38. What is the main cause of hailstorm? hailstorms?
(a) High temperature (a) Rice (b) Wheat
(b) Low temperature (c) Sugarcane (d) Tea
(c) High wind speed Answer: (B)
(d) Excessive humidity • Wheat is particularly vulnerable to
Answer: (B) damage caused by hailstorms, especially
• Hailstorm occurs when there is extremely during the critical stages of growth and
cold temperature within the cloud. High maturity when hailstones can cause
humidity and cold conditions are severe damage to the crop.
necessary for the formation of hailstones, 43. Which is the most commonly used
which turn into solid form due to cold meteorological tool for predicting the
temperature. probability of hailstorms?
39. Which season is most associated with (a) Doppler radar (b) Barometer
hailstorm in India? (c) Thermometer (d) Anemometer
(a) Summer (b) Monsoon Answer : (A)
(c) Winter (d) Spring • Doppler radar is used to detect and track
Answer: (C) severe storms that produce hail, providing
• In India, hailstorms are most associated crucial information for predicting
with the winter season, particularly from hailstorm events.
December to February, when atmospheric 44. Which Indian state experienced a notable
conditions are favourable for their hailstorm event in March 2022 that
formation. affected agriculture and infrastructure?
40. In April 2019, which Indian state (a) Himachal Pradesh
witnessed heavy hailstorm causing (b) Madhya Pradesh
extensive damage to crops and property? (c) Assam
(a) Gujarat (b) Uttar Pradesh (d) Bihar
(c) Karnataka (d) Maharashtra Answer : (B)
Answer: (B) • In March 2022, Madhya Pradesh
• In April 2019, heavy hailstorms in Uttar experienced a significant hailstorm that
Pradesh caused extensive damage to caused considerable damage to crops and
infrastructure in the region.

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45. Which Indian city is famous for 49. Which meteorological instrument is used
experiencing severe fog conditions during to monitor and provide information on fog
winters, leading to major disruptions? conditions?
(a) Mumbai (b) Kolkata (a) Barometer (b) Thermometer
(c) Delhi (d) Chennai (c) Visibility sensor (d) Anemometer
Answer: (C) Answer : (C)
• Delhi is known to experience severe fog • Visibility sensors are used to monitor and
conditions during winters, causing provide information on fog conditions by
significant disruptions to transportation measuring how far a person can see
and daily activities. through the fog.
46. What is the primary cause of formation of 50. Which type of road safety measures are
dense fog? commonly used to reduce accidents during
(a) High temperature dense fog?
(b) Low temperature and high humidity (a) Installing more traffic lights
(c) Strong winds (b) Increasing road signs and reflective
(d) Heavy rainfall markers
Answer: (B) (c) Reducing the number of traffic police
• Dense fog is formed when the air (d) Increasing road cleaning
temperature falls to the dew point and the Ans : (B)
humidity level is high, causing water • Increasing road signs and reflective
vapour to condense into tiny droplets. markers helps improve visibility for
47. Fog is most commonly observed in India drivers during dense fog, reducing the
during which season? risk of accidents.
(a) Summer (b) Monsoon 51. Which Indian state is least likely to
(c) Winter (d) Spring experience fog conditions?
Answer: (C) (a) Punjab
• Fog is most commonly observed in India (b) Himachal Pradesh
during the winter season, especially in the (c) Kerala
northern parts, due to the combination of (d) Uttar Pradesh
low temperature and high humidity. Answer: (C)
48. What is the effect of dense fog on • Kerala, because of its tropical climate, is
transportation? likely to experience less severe fog
(a) Improved visibility for vehicles conditions than northern states like
(b) Increased fuel efficiency Punjab, Himachal Pradesh and Uttar
(c) Reduced visibility, leading to delays and Pradesh.
accidents 52. What is the primary impact of dense fog on
(d) Improved aircraft takeoff and landing air travel?
performance (a) Increased flight visibility
Answer : (C) (b) Increased flight delays and cancellations
• Dense fog reduces visibility, leading to (c) Improved aircraft performance
transport delays, increased risk of (d) Reduced flight time
accidents, and disruptions to both road Answer: (B)
and air travel. • Dense fog can lead to increased flight
delays and cancellations due to reduced

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visibility, affecting takeoff and landing Answer : (B)
operations at airports. • Intense rainfall caused by cloudburst can
53. What is cloud burst? lead to widespread flooding and
(a) A sudden and intense rainfall event landslides, especially in mountainous
occurring over a small area areas.
(b) A gradual increase in rainfall over 57. Which Indian city witnessed severe
several days flooding in July 2021 due to cloudburst?
(c) A prolonged drought condition (a) Mumbai (b) Leh
(d) A type of snowfall (c) Chennai (d) Delhi
Answer: (A) Answer : (B)
• Cloudburst is characterised by fast, • Leh in the Union Territory of Ladakh
intense rainfall that can cause flash witnessed severe flooding due to
flooding in a localised area. cloudburst in July 2021, causing
54. Which Indian state witnessed a extensive damage to infrastructure and
devastating cloudburst in August 2020, property.
resulting in considerable damage and loss 58. Which meteorological conditions are
of life? generally associated with cloudburst?
(a) Gujarat (a) High pressure system
(b) Himachal Pradesh (b) Hot and dry conditions
(c) Uttar Pradesh (c) Low pressure system and steep terrain
(d) Rajasthan (d) Stable weather system
Answer: (B) Answer : (C)
• Himachal Pradesh witnessed a • Cloudbursts are often associated with low
devastating cloudburst in August 2020, pressure systems and steep terrain which
resulting in considerable damage to can enhance convection and cause fast,
infrastructure and loss of life. intense rainfall.
55. Which region of India witnesses the most 59. Which agency of the Government of India
number of cloudbursts? is responsible for monitoring and issuing
(a) Coastal regions warnings related to cloudbursts?
(b) Plain regions (a) India Meteorological Department (IMD)
(c) Hilly and mountainous regions (b) Central Water Commission (CWC)
(d) Desert regions (c) National Disaster Management Authority
Answer: (C) (NDMA)
• Cloudbursts are most commonly (d) Geological Survey of India (GSI)
observed in hilly and mountainous Answer : (A)
regions of India, such as the Himalayas, • The India Meteorological Department
where the terrain is conducive to intense (IMD) is responsible for monitoring
convective storms. weather conditions including cloudbursts
56. Which of the following is the primary and issuing early warnings to mitigate
consequence of cloudburst? their effects.
(a) Long-term drought 60. Which of the following is the usual
(b) Widespread flooding and landslides immediate response to a cloudburst
(c) Slight fluctuations in temperature disaster?
(d) Gradual freezing of snow (a) Long-term agricultural planning

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(b) Provision of emergency relief and rescue • Thunderstorms are characterised by
operations heavy rain, thunder, lightning and often
(c) Increasing water storage capacity strong winds.
(d) Enhancing tourism infrastructure 64. Which Indian state is known for severe
Ans : (B) thunderstorms that can cause large-scale
• Immediate responses to cloudburst destruction?
disasters usually involve emergency (a) Rajasthan (b) Tamil Nadu
relief and rescue operations to assist (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Sikkim
affected communities and post-event Answer: (C)
management. • Uttar Pradesh often experiences severe
61. What is the usual duration of intense thunderstorms, especially during the
rainfall during a cloudburst? monsoon season, which can cause
(a) Several hours considerable damage.
(b) One to two days 65. Which term is used to describe severe
(c) Few minutes to few hours thunderstorms that produce hailstorms
(d) Continuous for weeks larger than 2.5 cm in diameter?
Answer : (C) (a) Microburst (b) Tornado
• Cloudbursts are characterised by (c) Supercell (d) Hailstorm
extremely intense rainfall that occurs in a Answer: (C)
very short period, usually from a few • A supercell is a type of severe
minutes to a few hours. thunderstorm characterized by a curved
62. Which of the following measures can help updraft and can produce large hail, strong
reduce the impact of cloudbursts in winds, and even tornadoes.
vulnerable areas? 66. Which Indian city was hit by a deadly
(a) Expansion of urban areas storm in 2018, causing casualties and
(b) Construction of more high-rise buildings damage?
(c) Developing early warning systems and (a) Mumbai (b) Delhi
improving drainage infrastructure (c) Kolkata (d) Jaipur
(d) Limiting agricultural activities Answer: (B)
Answer : (C) • Delhi was hit by a deadly storm in May
• Developing early warning systems and 2018, causing casualties, property
improving drainage infrastructure can damage and disruption in the city.
help reduce the impacts of cloudbursts by 67. What is the main cause of lightning during
providing timely information and a storm?
managing the resulting floodwaters. (a) Strong winds
63. What is the characteristic of a (b) High temperature
thunderstorm? (c) Electrical discharge between clouds or
(a) Strong winds and clear skies between a cloud and ground
(b) Heavy rain, thunder and lightning (d) High humidity
(c) Mild temperatures and light winds Answer: (C)
(d) Persistent fog and high humidity • Lightning is caused by electrical
Answer: (B) discharge between clouds or between a
cloud and ground, caused by the build-up
of static electricity during a thunderstorm.

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68. Which meteorological instrument is (b) Increased urbanisation
generally used to detect and track (c) Implementing early warning systems and
thunderstorms? strengthening infrastructure
(a) Thermometer (b) Barometer (d) Reducing agricultural activities
(c) Doppler radar (d) Anemometer Answer: (C)
Answer: (C) • Implementing early warning systems and
• Doppler radar is used to detect and track strengthening infrastructure can help
thunderstorms by measuring rainfall and reduce the effects of thunderstorms by
wind patterns, which provides valuable providing timely information and
information for weather forecasting. increasing resilience to storm-related
69. Which season in India receives the most damage.
thunderstorms? 73. Which of the following coastal areas of
(a) Winter (b) Summer India was affected by Cyclone Hudhud?
(c) Monsoon (d) Spring (a) Andhra Pradesh coast (b) Kerala coast
Answer: (C) (c) Chennai coast (d) Bengal coast
• Thunderstorms in India are most common Answer: (A)
during the monsoon season, which lasts • Cyclone Hudhud severely affected the
from June to September, because of high coastal areas of Andhra Pradesh,
humidity and convective activity. especially Visakhapatnam and its
70. Which Indian state experienced severe surrounding areas in October 2014. The
thunderstorms in April 2022, causing cyclone caused heavy rainfall, strong
widespread damage and power outages? winds, and landslides.
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Maharashtra 74. Why are cyclones more frequent in the
(c) West Bengal (d) Bihar coastal areas of the Bay of Bengal?
Answer: (B) (a) Due to high heat in the Bay of Bengal
• Maharashtra witnessed heavy (b) Chemicals in the water of the Bay of
thunderstorms in April 2022, causing Bengal help in the formation of cyclones
widespread damage, power outages and (c) The long island chain of Andaman and
disruptions in various parts of the state. Nicobar causes the onset of cyclones
71. What is the primary impact of (d) Due to being conical in shape, cyclones
thunderstorms on agriculture? formed in the Bay of Bengal move
(a) Increase in crop yield towards the north.
(b) Improvement in soil fertility Answer: (A)
(c) Damage to crops due to strong winds, • The sea surface temperature in the Bay of
hailstorms and heavy rainfall Bengal is warm, which provides
(d) Increase in irrigation favorable conditions for the formation of
Answer: (C) cyclones. Warm sea water provides
• Thunderstorms can cause considerable energy and moisture to the cyclones,
damage to crops due to strong winds, which leads to the formation and growth
hailstorms and heavy rainfall, thereby of cyclones.
affecting agricultural productivity. 75. The sea cyclonic storm ‘Tauktae’
72. Which of the following measures can help originated from which sea?
reduce the effects of thunderstorms? (a) Bay of Bengal (b) Indian Ocean
(a) Construction of more roads (c) Caspian Sea (d) Arabian Sea

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Answer: (D) • Tropical cyclones derive their energy

• Cyclonic storm 'Tauktae' originated from from warm sea water, which provide the
the Arabian Sea in 2021 and impacted the heat and moisture needed for the storm to
western coast of the Indian subcontinent. develop and intensify.
76. What is a tropical cyclone? 80. Which organisation in India is responsible
(a) A type of earthquake for forecasting and monitoring tropical
(b) A severe storm characterized by high cyclones?
winds, heavy rainfall and low pressure (a) India Meteorological Department (IMD)
(c) Volcanic eruption (b) National Disaster Management Authority
(d) Prolonged drought (NDMA)
Answer: (B) (c) Geological Survey of India (GSI)
• A tropical cyclone is a severe storm (d) Central Water Commission (CWC)
system characterized by high winds, Answer: (a)
heavy rainfall and low pressure that forms • The India Meteorological Department
over warm sea water. (IMD) is responsible for forecasting and
77. Which Indian state is frequently affected monitoring tropical cyclones, providing
by tropical cyclones originating from the warnings and information to mitigate
Bay of Bengal? their impacts.
(a) Punjab 81. Which was one of the deadliest tropical
(b) Rajasthan cyclones in India's recent history, which
(c) Odisha struck Gujarat in 1998?
(d) Himachal Pradesh (a) Cyclone Amphan (b) Cyclone Gonu
Answer: (C) (c) Cyclone Ockhi (d) Cyclone Kosi
• Odisha is frequently affected by tropical Answer: (C)
cyclones originating from the Bay of • Cyclone Ockhi, which struck Gujarat in
Bengal, causing severe impact on the 1998, was one of the deadliest tropical
coastal areas of the state. cyclones to strike Gujarat, causing
78. Which Indian city suffered heavy damage widespread damage and loss of life and
due to Tropical Cyclone Fani in May 2019 property.
(a) Mumbai 82. What is the primary impact of tropical
(b) Chennai cyclones on coastal areas?
(c) Kolkata (a) Improved agriculture
(d) Visakhapatnam (b) Flooding, storm surges and strong winds
Answer: (C) (c) Better fishing conditions
• Tropical Cyclone Fani in May 2019 (d) Reduction in air pollution
caused heavy damage in Kolkata as well Answer: (B)
as other parts of West Bengal and Odisha. • The primary impacts of tropical cyclones
79. What is the primary source of energy for on coastal areas include flooding, storm
tropical cyclones? surges and strong winds, which can cause
(a) Cold sea water considerable damage to infrastructure and
(b) Warm sea water communities.
(c) High altitude winds 83. Which Indian state is known for frequent
(d) Solar radiation tropical cyclones originating from the
Answer: (B) Arabian Sea?

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(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Kerala (c) A is correct but R is wrong
(c) West Bengal (d) Gujarat (d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer: (D) Ans: (A)
• Gujarat is known to experience frequent • Statement A is correct. The incidence of
tropical cyclones originating from the landslides has increased in the Himalayas
Arabian Sea, which affect its coastal due to reasons such as increasing
areas. population, haphazard development and
84. What is “storm surge” in the context of climate change.
tropical cyclones? • Reason R is also correct, large scale
(a) Sudden increase in sea temperature mining in the Himalayas has increased
(b) Rapid rise in sea level due to strong the incidence of landslides because
winds and low pressure mining reduces geological stability and
(c) Decrease in atmospheric pressure increases pressure on slopes
(d) Increase in atmospheric humidity • Reason (R) actually explains Statement
Answer: (B) (a) correctly because mining is an
• Storm surge is a rapid rise in sea level due important reason for the increase in the
to strong winds and low pressure frequency of landslides. Mining changes
associated with a tropical cyclone, the structure of soil and rocks, which
leading to coastal flooding. encourages landslides.
85. Which of the following statements is/are 87. Which of the following statements about
correct regarding cloudburst? landslides is/are correct?
1. It is defined as a sudden locally very 1. They are sudden and infrequent.
heavy torrential rainfall accompanied 2. They occur when the slope is gentle.
by thunder and lightning. 3. Mining activity is also responsible for
2. It occurs mostly in hilly areas. landslides.
3. It results in very intense rainfall (i.e. 250 Code-
mm to 300 mm in a few hours). (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
4. It happens only during day time. (c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Code - Ans: (B)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 • Statement 1 is correct, Landslides are
(c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 2 often sudden and may occur very quickly
Answer: (A) in a short period of time. These are natural
• Statement 4 is incorrect, cloud burst phenomena which are difficult to predict.
incidents can occur at any time of the day • Statement 2 is incorrect, Landslides
or night. usually occur when the slope is steep.
86. Statement (a) the frequency of landslides Landslides are less likely to occur on
has increased in the Himalayas. gentle slopes because the slope stability is
Reason (R) Large scale mining has taken high
place in the Himalayas in recent years. • Statement 3 is correct, Mining activity
Code- reduces geological stability, which may
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the increase the incidence of landslides.
correct explanation of A Mining causes additional pressure on
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the slopes and affects the structure of soil and
correct explanation of A rocks.

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88. What is a landslide? 92. What is the general impact of landslides on
(a) Sudden flooding infrastructure?
(b) Collapse of a rock or steep slope (a) Improved transportation networks
(c) A type of severe storm (b) Damage to roads, buildings, and utilities
(d) Prolonged drought (c) Increased property values
Ans: (B) (d) Increased agricultural productivity
• A landslide is the sliding of rock, earth or Answer: (B)
debris down a slope, usually caused by • Landslides typically cause significant
gravity, heavy rainfall or other damage to infrastructure, including roads,
destabilizing factors. buildings, and utilities, causing disruption
89. Which Indian state is frequently affected to communities and services.
by landslides due to its hilly terrain and 93. Which of the following is not considered a
heavy monsoon rains? natural hazard?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Punjab (a) Earthquakes (b) Floods
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Gujarat (c) Epidemics (d) Landslides
Answer : (C) Answer: (C)
• Himachal Pradesh is frequently affected Epidemics are important health problems,
by landslides due to its hilly terrain and they are not generally classified as natural
heavy monsoon rains, which can hazards. Earthquakes, floods and landslides
destabilise slopes. are examples of natural hazards.
90. What are the common causes of 94. In which year did the Bhopal gas tragedy
landslides? occur?
(a) Earthquakes, heavy rainfall and (a) 1982 (b) 1986
deforestation (c) 1984 (d) 1980
(b) High temperatures and drought Answer: (C)
(c) Strong winds and volcanic eruptions • On the night of 2 and 3 December 1984,
(d) Solar radiation and changes in air pressure methyl isocyanate gas leaked from the
Answer : (A) Union Carbide India Limited (UCIL)
• Landslides are usually caused by plant in Bhopal, leading to the tragedy.
earthquakes, heavy rainfall and 95. Which of the following statements are
deforestation, which can destabilise soil correct?
and rock on slopes. 1. Natural disasters cause the most
91. What is the role of deforestation in damage in developing countries.
increasing the risk of landslides? 2. The Bhopal gas tragedy is man-made.
(a) It increases soil fertility 3. India is a disaster-free country.
(b) It stabilizes slopes 4. Mangroves reduce the impact of
(c) It reduces soil stability and increases cyclones.
runoff Codes -
(d) It reduces the frequency of rainfall (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (C) (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
• Deforestation reduces soil stability by Answer: (A)
removing vegetation that holds the soil in • India is a disaster-free country, this is
place, thereby increasing runoff and the wrong. Natural and man-made disasters
likelihood of landslides. keep happening in India, such as

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earthquakes, floods, cyclones, etc. India 99. Where has the country's first disaster
is not disaster-free. management training institute been
96. Which of the following is a post-disaster established?
measure? (a) Hyderabad (Telangana)
(a) Early warning (b) Bangalore (Karnataka)
(b) Zoning (c) Latur (Maharashtra)
(c) Reconstruction (d) Chennai (Tamil Nadu)
(d) Planning and policies Answer: (C)
Answer: (C) • The country's first disaster management
• Reconstruction is a post-disaster measure training institute has been established in
in which the affected areas are repaired Latur (Maharashtra).
and rebuilt, so that the process of [Link] Indian Meteorological Department is
improving and restoring the condition of established in?
the affected people can be completed. (a) New Delhi (b) Nagpur
97. Disaster Management Act was enacted in? (c) Jodhpur (d) Pune
(a) Year 2006 (b) Year 2003 Answer: (A)
(c) Year 2005 (d) Year 2009 • The India Meteorological Department
Answer: (C) (IMD) was established in New Delhi.
• Disaster Management Act was enacted in • Established – 1875
India in the year 2005.
98. National Disaster Management Division is
a nodal division in the Ministry of Home
Affairs for disaster management in India.
Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the
National Disaster Management Authority?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Home Minister
(c) Defence Minister
(d) Health and Family Welfare Minister
Answer: (A)
• The Chairman of the National Disaster
Management Authority is always the
Prime Minister of India. This authority
establishes the national policy and
strategies of disaster management and
provides leadership in the preparation and
management of disasters.

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Cyclone
1. Major cyclonic storm Mocha originated (a) Western Ghats, Himalaya region and
in which ocean? Meghalaya
(a) Bay of Bengal (b) Indian Ocean (b) Madhya Pradesh and Bihar
(c) Caspian Sea (d) Arabian Sea (c) Uttar Pradesh, Haryana and Punjab
Answer (A) (d) Andhra Pradesh and Vidarbha
• Cyclone Mocha originated in the Bay of Answer (A)
Bengal. Yemen suggested the name • The highest rainfall in India occurs in the
Mocha. Western Ghats, Himalaya region and
• The cyclone is named after the Red Sea Meghalaya region. Cherrapunji and
port city known for coffee production. Mawsynram located in Meghalaya
• With a recorded wind speed of 277 kmph, receive the highest rainfall. The average
Mocha became the most powerful all- annual rainfall here is more than 1080 cm.
season cyclone in the Arabian Sea and 4. Tropical cyclones are found between how
Bay of Bengal in the North Indian Ocean many degrees of latitude?
since 1982. (a) 5°N to 5°s (b) 8°N to 10°s
• Providing insurance cover and financial (c) 5°E to 5°W (d) 30°N to 30°s
assistance to farmers in case of loss of any Answer (D)
of the government notified crops due to • The cyclones that originate and develop
natural calamity, disease and pests and all in the oceans of tropical regions are called
the above options are correct. tropical cyclones. These are formed
2. In tropical latitudes, cyclones do not between 5° to 30° North and 5° to 30°
develop in the South Atlantic and South- South latitudes.
east Pacific regions. What is the reason • It is noteworthy that these cyclones are
for this? usually absent in the areas with 5° to 8°
(a) Sea surface temperature is low. latitudes on both sides of the Equator due
(b) Inter-tropical convergence zone rarely to minimum Coriolis force. Tropical
occurs. cyclones are extremely destructive
(c) Coriolis force is very weak. atmospheric storms, which originate in
(d) Lack of land in those regions. the oceanic region between the Tropic of
Answer (B) Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
• The most important reason for the lack of Thereafter, their flow is towards the
cyclones in the South Atlantic and South- terrestrial area.
east Pacific Ocean is the rare presence of 5. Why are cyclones more common in the
inter-tropical convergence zone in this coastal areas of Bay of Bengal?
region. (a) Due to excessive heat in the Bay of
• It becomes very difficult to trace the Bengal
origin of tropical cyclones unless (b) Chemicals present in the water of Bay of
synoptic vorticity (it is clockwise or Bengal help in the formation of cyclones.
counterclockwise rotation in the (c) The long island chain of Andaman-
troposphere) and convergence are Nicobar causes the onset of cyclones.
provided by ITC2. (d) Due to the shape of the Saturn, cyclones
3. The highest rainfall in India occurs in the formed in the Bay of Bengal move
following regions - towards the north.

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Answer (A) 10. Which state is affected by Cyclone Asani?

• Due to excessive heat in the Bay of (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
Bengal and the direction of trade winds is (c) Gujarat (d) Kerala
from east to west, due to which more Answer (A)
cyclones occur in the Bay of Bengal and • Cyclone Asani originated in the Bay of
the eastern coast of India is a highly Bengal on May 8, 2022. The states
cyclone affected area. affected by Cyclone Asani are Andhra
6. Which of the following coastal areas of Pradesh and Odisha. It was named by Sri
India was affected by Hudhud cyclone? Lanka.
(a) Andhra Pradesh coast (b) Kerala coast 11. In which year did Cyclone Amphan
(c) Chennai coast (d) Bengal coast occur?
Answer (D) (a) 2019 (b) 2020
• Hudhud is a tropical cyclone. It is the (c) 2021 (d) 2022
most powerful cyclone of 2014 so far Answer (B)
formed in the North Indian Ocean. • Cyclone Amphan affected the west coast
• Its name is taken from the name of a bird in the year 2020.
named Hudhud, its name was suggested 12. The cyclone that will occur in the year
by Oman. 2024 is -
7. Which coastal area of India was affected (a) Asana (b) Hamun
by Cyclone Asana - (c) Asani (d) Michong
(a) Andhra Pradesh coast (b) Kerala coast Answer (A)
(c) Western coast (d) Chennai coast • Cyclone Asana occurred from 27 August
Answer (C) to 2 September 2024. • Affected areas –
• Western coast, it originated in the Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh
Arabian Sea and the name – has been • Origin – Arabian Sea
suggested by Pakistan. • Named – Pakistan
• Affected areas – Gujarat, Rajasthan, 13. Cyclone Gulab affected which of the
Madhya Pradesh. following coasts of India?
8. Which country has named the Remal (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Maharashtra
cyclone? (c) East Coast (d) West Coast
(a) Bangladesh (b) Oman Answer (C)
(c) Pakistan (d) Iran • In the year 2021, Cyclone Gulab affected
Answer (B) the east coast.
• Cyclone Remal hit West Bengal on 24-28 14. Which state was affected by Cyclone
May 2024. It originated in the Bay of Biparjoy -
Bengal and was named by Oman. (a) Odisha (b) Tamil Nadu
9. Which of the cyclones that occurred in the (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Gujarat
year 2023 includes? Answer (D)
(a) Remal (b) Asana • Cyclone Biparjoy originated in the
(c) Dana (d) Hamoon Arabian Sea. It is a very severe cyclonic
Answer (D) storm.
• Cyclone Hamoon originated in the Bay of 15. Which country has named Cyclone Dana,
Bengal in the year 2023. which came in the year 2024.
• It was named by the country Iran. (a) Iran (b) Oman

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(c) Pakistan (d) Qatar 18. Which area is affected by Mandous
Answer (D) cyclone?
• The World Meteorological Organization (a) Maharashtra (b) Kerala
says that Cyclone Dana was named by (c) Gujarat (d) Tamil Nadu
Qatar. Answer (D)
• Dana in Arabic means - Generosity. • Mandous cyclone originated in the Bay of
16. Which is not a condition for the formation Bengal, it was named by UAE.
of a cyclone? • The area affected by Mands cyclone is
(a) A large sea surface with temperature Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh.
more than 27°C 19. The area affected by cyclone Dana is -
(b) Absence of Coriolis force (a) Chennai (b) Maharashtra
(c) Divergence over the sea surface system (c) Gujarat (d) Odisha
(d) Pre-existing weak low-pressure area or Answer (D)
low level cyclonic circulation • It originated in the northern Indian Ocean
Answer (B) and affected the eastern coast region.
• Presence of Coriolis force is essential for
the formation of a cyclone.
17. In which months does divergent monsoon
occur?
(a) January – February
(b) March – April
(c) June – July
(d) October – November
Answer (D)
• Diverging monsoon starts in the months
of October and November. • In the end of
September, when the Sun moves
southwards, the low pressure belt situated
on the Gangetic plain starts shifting
towards the south, due to which the
southwest monsoon starts weakening.

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Population Growth
1. Natural increase of population is a result time is called **Demographic
of which of the following? Transition**.
A. Crude birth rate • This concept refers to the change between
B. Crude death rate birth rate and death rate, which generally
C. Migration occurs with development and
D. Marriage industrialization.
Select the correct answer from the code given 4. T Malthus propounded the famous theory
below - called ‘The Malthusian Theory’, which is
(a) Only A (b) Only C related to
(c) B and D (d) A and B (a) Population
Answer (D) (b) Poverty
• Natural increase of population results (c) Economy
from the difference between crude birth (d) Unemployment
rate and crude death rate. Answer (A)
• It means that if the birth rate (number of • Thomas Malthus propounded the
births) is more than the death rate ‘Malthusian Theory’ in the context of
(number of deaths), then the population population.
will increase. Migration and marriage • According to this theory, population
may affect this increase, but they are not growth occurs at a constant rate
directly a measure of natural increase. (geometric progression), while the
2. Choose one of the following mechanisms resources increase at a constant rate
for stable population structure (arithmetic progression).
(a) Increasing birth rate and stable death rate • Due to this imbalance, a time will come
(b) Decreasing birth rate and increasing death when the population will exceed the
rate resources, which may lead to poverty,
(c) Stable birth rate and death rate food crisis and other social problems.
(d) Stable birth rate and decreasing death rate 5. In which year did regular and scientific
Answer (C) census start in India?
• Stable population structure occurs when (a) 1861 AD (b) 1871 AD
the birth rate and death rate remain (c) 1881 AD (d) 1891 AD
constant, so that the size of the population Answer (C)
remains stable and neither increases nor • Regular and scientific census in India
decreases. started from 1881 AD.
3. The gradual change in the pattern of • From this time onwards, census is done as
population growth over a long period of a regular and systematic process.
time is called 6. The first census in India during the British
(a) Demographic Transition period was done
(b) Population Explosion (a) During the tenure of Lord Dufferin
(c) Demographic Dynamics (b) During the tenure of Lord Lytton
(d) Demographic Transformation (c) During the tenure of Lord Mayo
Answer (A) (d) During the tenure of Lord Ripon
• The gradual change in the pattern of Answer (C)
population growth over a long period of

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• The first census in India during the British Answer (A)

period was done in 1871-72 during the 11. What was the rate of population growth in
tenure of Lord Mayo. India in 2011?
• Lord Mayo started the process of census (a) 1.64% (b) 1.34%
and it was conducted for the first time as (c) 1.46% (d) 1.56%
a systematic and comprehensive census. Answer (A)
7. According to the 2011 census report, the • The population growth rate is decreasing
population of India between 2001-2011 with time.
increased by • India's population growth rate in 2011
(a) 21.5 percent (b) 19.3 percent was about 1.64%.
(c) 17.7 percent (d) 16.9 percent 12. In which year the new National Population
Answer (C) Policy was implemented to control the rate
• According to the 2011 census, the of population growth in India?
population of India between 2001 and (a) 1990 (b) 1995
2011 increased by 17.7 percent. (c) 2000 (d) 2002
8. The highest growth rate of population in Answer (C)
India was during • India adopted the new National
(a) 1961-71 (b) 1971-81 Population Policy in the year February
(c) 1981-91 (d) 1991-2001 2000.
Answer (a) • The target of population stabilization has
• The highest growth rate of population in been set by 2070.
India was during 1961-71. 13. What does 'Demographic Dividend' mean
9. Which census year is known as the in India
'Demographic Divide' in the population (a) More number of youth
study of India? (b) More number of old population
(a) Year 1911 (b) Year 1921 (c) Increase in birth rate
(c) Year 1931 (d) Year 1941 (d) Increase in death rate
(e) None of these/More than one of these Answer (A)
Answer (B) • 'Demographic Dividend' means when the
• The census year known as the working age population (15-64 years) is
'Demographic Divide' in the population more and this population contributes to
study of India is 1921. economic growth.
• After this year there was a significant 14. According to the 2011 census, in which
change in the rate of population growth in decade was India's urban population
India and it is considered as an important growth rate the highest?
demographic turning point. (a) 1961-71 (b) 1971-81
10. According to Census 2011, which of the (c) 1981-91 (d) 1991-2001
following is not correct? Answer (D)
(a) India has 18.5% of the world's population. • According to the 2011 census, India's
(b) India's population is 121 crore. urban population growth rate was the
(c) In the decade 2001-2011, the population highest in the decade 1991-2001
growth was 18.1 crores.
(d) The highest density of population is in
Delhi.

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15. The states in which more than one-third of • According to the 2011 census, the highest
the population in India is concentrated increase in the growth rate of urban
are: population in India was observed in
(a) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar Maharashtra.
(b) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh 19. Which of the following measures is
(c) Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal effective in controlling the growth of
(d) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Madhya population in India
Pradesh (a) Birth control programmes
Answer (a) (b) Spread of education
• More than one-third of India's population (c) Improvement in health services
is concentrated in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, (d) All of the above
and Maharashtra. Answer (D)
16. By which year has the target of achieving • Birth control programmes, spread of
stabilization in the rate of population education, and improvement in health
growth been set in India? services are all important measures to
(a) 2045 (b) 2050 control population growth.
(c) 2055 (d) 2065 • Population growth can be controlled by
Answer (A) the combined effect of these measures.
• According to the National Population 20. Which type of survey is used to measure
Policy, the target of achieving population the percentage rate of population growth
stabilization in India was set by the year per year in India?
2045. (a) Census
• However, as per recent reforms, this (b) Primary Health Survey
target has been revised. By the year 2070 (c) National Family Health Survey
17. What are the main factors affecting the (d) Socioeconomic Census
rate of population growth Answer (C)
(a) Birth rate and death rate • National Family Health Survey (NFHS)
(b) Education and health services and Census are used to measure the
(c) a and b percentage rate of population growth per
(d) Neither a nor b year in India.
Answer (C) 21. The rate of population growth of India is
• The main factors affecting the rate of calculated by
population growth are birth rate and death (a) Birth rate
rate. (b) Death rate
• Change in these rates directly affects the (c) Difference between birth rate and death
rate of population growth. rate
18. According to the 2011 census, the highest (d) Urban growth only
increase in the growth rate of urban Answer (C)
population in India was observed in which • The rate of population growth of India is
state? calculated by the difference between birth
(a) Gujarat (b) Uttar Pradesh rate and death rate.
(c) Maharashtra (d) Tamil Nadu 22. According to the 2011 census, in which
Answer (C) state of India, the population growth rate
was the lowest?

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(a) Goa of different states of India during the year
(b) Sikkim 2001-2011. The population growth rate
(c) Kerala figures here are as follows:
(d) Himachal Pradesh • Madhya Pradesh: The population growth
Answer (C) rate was high in this state too, but was less
• According to the 2011 census, Kerala had than that of Bihar.
the lowest population growth rate. (4.9) • Rajasthan: Here too the growth rate was
23. According to the 2011 census, what is the quite high, but was less than that of Bihar.
main trend of population growth in India • Uttar Pradesh: The population growth
(a) Rapid growth rate was quite high in this state too, but
(b) Moving towards stability was less than that of Bihar.
(c) Decrease in growth • Bihar recorded the highest increase in
(d) Irregular growth population growth rate during the period
Answer (C) 2001-2011, making it the fastest growing
• According to the 2011 census, the trend state during this period.
of population growth in India is
decreasing. Population Distribution
24. According to the forecast of India's
population growth, what could be the 27. According to the 2011 census, which of the
population of India by 2030? following states of India has the highest
(a) 1.4 billion (b) 1.6 billion population?
(c) 1.8 billion (d) 2.0 billion (a) Madhya Pradesh
Answer (B) (b) Andhra Pradesh
• According to the forecast of India's (c) Odisha
population growth, India's population (d) Uttar Pradesh
could be around 1.6 billion by 2030. Answer (D)
25. Under the National Population Policy, • According to the 2011 census, Uttar
2000, the target was to achieve population Pradesh is the most populous state in
stability by the year 2045, now the target India.
year has been kept as • According to the data of this census, the
(a) Year 2055 (b) Year 2060 population of Uttar Pradesh was the
(c) Year 2065 (d) Year 2070 highest.
Answer (D) 28. According to the 2011 census, the highest
• Under the National Population Policy, percentage of population in India lives in
2000, the target was to achieve population which area?
stability by the year 2045, now the target (a) Urban area (b) Rural area
year has been kept as **year 2070**. (c) North India (d) West India
26. The decadal growth rate of population was Answer (B)
highest during the year 2001-2011 in • According to the 2011 census, the highest
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Rajasthan percentage of population in India, 68
(c) Bihar (d) Uttar Pradesh percent, lives in rural areas.
Answer (C) 29. Which is the most urbanized state in
• Bihar recorded the highest growth rate in India?
comparison to the population growth rate (a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu

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(c) Maharashtra (d) Gujarat • More than one-fourth of the urban
Answer (b) population resides in the Indian states of
• According to the 2011 census, Maharashtra and Gujarat.
Maharashtra is the most urbanised state in 34. According to the 2011 census, which region
India. contributes the most to the population
30. According to the 2011 census, which state distribution in India?
in India has the lowest percentage of urban (a) South India (b) Eastern India
population? (c) North India (d) Western India
(a) Nagaland (b) Manipur Answer (C)
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Bihar • According to the 2011 census, North
Answer (d) India contributes the most to the
• According to the 2011 census, Bihar in population distribution in India.
India has the lowest percentage of urban 35. According to the 2011 census, which is the
population. urban region with the highest population
31. According to the 2011 census, which state density in India?
in India has the highest rural population? (a) Mumbai (b) Delhi
(a) Uttar Pradesh (c) Kolkata (d) Chennai
(b) Madhya Pradesh Answer (A)
(c) Bihar • According to the 2011 census, the urban
(d) Rajasthan region with the highest population density
Answer (A) is Mumbai.
• According to the 2011 census, Uttar 36. According to the 2011 census, which state
Pradesh is the state with the highest rural in India has the largest difference between
population. urban and rural population?
• States – Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
Bengal. (c) Delhi (d) Bihar
32. According to the 2011 census, which state Answer (C)
in India has the highest percentage of • Delhi has a very high urban population
urban population? while the rural population is very low,
(a) West Bengal (b) Tamil Nadu thus having the largest difference
(c) Delhi (d) Goa between urban and rural population.
Answer (C) 37. According to the 2011 census in India,
• According to the 2011 census, Delhi has which of the following states has the
the highest urban population in India with highest rural population density?
97.5%. (a) Uttar Pradesh
• Delhi > Chandigarh > Puducherry (b) Madhya Pradesh
• Goa > Mizoram > Tamil Nadu (c) Bihar
33. Which two states of India have more than (d) Rajasthan
one-fourth of the urban population? Answer (C)
(a) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar • Bihar has the highest rural population
(b) Maharashtra and Gujarat density, according to the 2011 census.
(c) Punjab and Haryana • States with high density –
(d) West Bengal and Tamil Nadu Bihar – 1106
Answer (B) West Bengal – 1028

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Kerala – 860 Population Density
Uttar Pradesh – 828
Madhya Pradesh – 236 42. According to the 2011 census in India,
Rajasthan – 200 which state has the lowest population
38. According to the 2011 census, which state density?
in India has the lowest urban population (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Sikkim
density? (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Mizoram
(a) Himachal Pradesh Answer (A)
(b) Sikkim • According to the 2011 census, Arunachal
(c) Mizoram Pradesh has the lowest population density
(d) Arunachal Pradesh of 17.
Answer (B) 43. According to the 2011 census, on what
• According to the 2011 census, Sikkim has basis is population density calculated in
the lowest urban population density. India?
39. According to the 2011 census, which union (a) Total population / total area
territory in India is the most urbanised? (b) Total population / agricultural area
(a) Chandigarh (b) Daman and Diu (c) Rural population / urban area
(c) Puducherry (d) Lakshadweep (d) Urban population / total area
Answer (A) Answer (A)
• Chandigarh is the most urbanised union • Population density is calculated by
territory. dividing the total population by the total
40. According to the 2011 census, what area.
percentage of people in India live in rural 44. According to the 2011 census, what was the
areas? value of population density in India?
(a) About 60% (b) About 70% (a) 325 persons per square kilometer
(c) About 80% (d) About 90% (b) 335 persons per square kilometer
Answer (B) (c) 382 persons per square kilometer
• According to the 2011 census, about 70% (d) 385 persons per square kilometer
people live in rural areas. Answer (C)
41. According to the 2011 census, which two • According to the 2011 census, the
states of India contribute more than one- population density in India was 382
fourth of the rural population persons per square kilometer.
(a) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar 45. According to the 2011 census, what is the
(b) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan name of the metropolis with the highest
(c) Maharashtra and Gujarat population density in India?
(d) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka (a) Mumbai (b) Delhi
Answer (A) (c) Kolkata (d) Chennai
• Uttar Pradesh and Bihar contribute more Answer (A)
than one-fourth of the rural population. • Mumbai metropolis has the highest
population density.
46. According to the 2011 census, which state
in India has the largest in terms of
population density?
(a) Uttar Pradesh

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(b) Madhya Pradesh (d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(c) Rajasthan Answer (C)
(d) Bihar • Lakshadweep has the lowest population
Answer (D) density.
• Rajasthan has the largest area, but Bihar
has the highest population density. Rural-Urban Migration
47. According to the 2011 census, which state
in India has the highest population density, 51. Which of the following is correct for the
and what is its estimated value? major reasons of migration from rural to
(a) Bihar, 1102 persons per square kilometer urban areas?
(b) West Bengal, 1029 persons per square (a) Better health services
kilometer (b) Higher education opportunities
(c) Punjab, 550 persons per square kilometer (c) Job opportunities
(d) Uttar Pradesh, 829 persons per square (d) All of the above
kilometer Answer (D)
Answer (A) • The major reasons for migration from
• According to the 2011 census, Bihar has rural to urban areas include better health
the highest population density, and its services, higher education opportunities,
estimated value is 1102 persons per and job opportunities.
square kilometer. 52. Which problem is most commonly faced in
48. According to the 2011 census, which state urban areas due to rural to urban
in India witnessed the highest increase in migration?
population density? (a) Urban expansion
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Increasing population
(b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Increasing crime rate
(c) Bihar (d) Lack of education
(d) Rajasthan Answer (B)
Answer (C) • The most common problem faced in
• Bihar has seen the highest increase in urban areas due to rural to urban
population density. migration is the increasing population,
49. According to the 2011 census, which state which increases the pressure on
of India has the lowest rate of growth in infrastructure.
terms of population density? 53. Which demographic survey is particularly
(a) Haryana (b) Punjab important for Indian rural-urban
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Rajasthan migration?
Answer (A) (a) Census
• Haryana has seen the lowest rate of (b) National Family Health Survey (NFHS)
growth in population density. (c) National Labour Survey
50. According to the 2011 census, which union (d) Agricultural Census
territory in India has the lowest population Answer (A)
density? • Census is important for measuring the
(a) Chandigarh status of rural-urban migration in India as
(b) Daman and Diu it provides comprehensive demographic
(c) Lakshadweep data.

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54. What types of settlements are formed in difficulties, and problems of social
urban areas due to rural-urban integration.
migration? 58. Through which type of policies can the
(a) Hi-tech settlements problems of rural-urban migration be
(b) Formal settlements addressed?
(c) Unorganised settlements (a) Restructuring of urban plans
(d) Suburbs (b) Rural development schemes
Answer (C) (c) Social security schemes
• Rural-urban migration leads to the (d) All of the above
formation of unorganised settlements Answer (D)
(slums), where most of the new migrants • Restructuring of urban plans, rural
find shelter. development schemes, and social security
55. What can be one of the main social impacts schemes may all be effective in
of rural to urban migration? addressing the problems of rural-urban
(a) Increased social cohesion migration.
(b) Preservation of traditional lifestyles 59. Which type of schemes may be more
(c) Disruption of traditional social structures effective in reducing the impact of rural-
(d) Climate change in urban areas urban migration?
Answer (C) (a) Microfinance schemes
• One of the main social effects of rural to (b) Urban development schemes
urban migration can be the disruption of (c) Employment generation schemes
traditional social structures, as integration (d) All of the above
of new migrants into society may be Answer (D)
difficult. • Microfinance schemes, urban
56. What kind of inequality problem can arise development schemes and employment
due to rural-urban migration? generation schemes can all be effective in
(a) Urban and rural income inequality mitigating the impact of rural-urban
(b) Education inequality migration.
(c) Health service inequality 60. Which problem is most difficult to solve
(d) All of the above due to rural to urban migration
Answer (D) (a) Housing problem
• Problems like urban and rural income (b) Lack of urban infrastructure
inequality, education inequality and (c) Quality of education
health service inequality can arise due to (d) Social cohesion
rural-urban migration. Answer (B)
57. What is the major challenge faced by • Lack of urban infrastructure may be the
migrants during rural to urban migration? most difficult problem to solve due to
(a) Language barriers rural to urban migration, as rapidly
(b) Economic difficulties increasing population puts pressure on
(c) Social integration infrastructure.
(d) All of the above 61. What is a common cause of problems faced
Answer (D) by rural migrants in urban areas?
• During rural to urban migration, migrants (a) Inadequate social security
may face language barriers, economic (b) Access to higher education

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(c) Better health care • Occupational structure
(d) Better job opportunities • Physical expansion is not accepted as a
Answer (A) criterion to define an urban centre.
• Inadequate social security is a common • The criteria of urbanisation are mostly
cause of problems faced by rural migrants population,
in urban areas, leaving them deprived of 65. According to the Indian Census 2011,
social security and services. which of the following Indian states has the
62. What could be a long-term effect of rural highest number of towns?
to urban migration? (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh
(a) Increase in urbanisation (c) Gujarat (d) Maharashtra
(b) Increase in agricultural production Answer (B)
(c) Increase in rural population • According to the Indian Census 2011,
(d) Improved social cohesion **Uttar Pradesh** has the highest
Answer (A) number of towns.
• A long-term effect of rural to urban • Uttar Pradesh is a large and populous
migration could be increased state with many towns.
urbanisation, causing urban areas to grow 66. Which of the following cities has the
faster. highest slum population?
63. Which of the following is not a (a) Bengaluru (b) Chennai
characteristic of urban life? (c) Delhi (d) Surat
(a) Competition Answer (C)
(b) Impersonal relationships • According to the 2011 Census and other
(c) Loss of human values sources, **Delhi** has the highest slum
(d) Informal relationships population.
Answer (D) • Delhi has a large number of slums,
• Informal relationships are not usually a forming a large urban slum area.
characteristic of urban life. • Urban life is 67. In terms of urbanisation, India is
often characterised by competition, (a) A medium-low urbanised country
impersonal relationships, and the (b) A very-low urbanised country
destruction of human values, but the (c) A highly urbanised country
tendency for informal relationships is not (d) None of the above
a general feature of urban life. Answer (A)
64. Which of the following criteria is not • In terms of urbanisation, India is
accepted as a criterion to define an urban classified as a medium-low urbanised
centre of a settlement in India? country.
(a) Physical expansion • The rate of urbanisation in India is lower
(b) Population size than other developed countries, but it is
(c) Population density higher than normal in developing
(d) Occupational structure countries.
Answer (A)
• The following criteria are used to define
an urban centre of a settlement in India:
• Population size
• Population density

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OTHER’s • The literacy rate takes into account the

number of people aged 7 years and above,
68. According to the 2011 census, the sex ratio as children of earlier age are generally not
(number of females per 1000 males) in included in the calculation of literacy rate.
India is 72. According to the provisional data of
(a) 925 (b) 943 Census 2011, what is the literacy rate in
(c) 916 (d) 940 India?
Answer (B) (a) 82.14% (b) 74.04%
• According to the 2011 census, the sex (c) 65.46% (d) 75.14%
ratio in India is 943 females per 1000 Answer (B)
males. • According to Census 2011, the literacy
69. Which of the following states has the rate in India was 74.04%.
lowest ratio of females per 1000 males? 73. According to Census 2011, which of the
(a) Haryana following States has the maximum
(b) Punjab difference between male and female
(c) Rajasthan literacy rate?
(d) Jammu & Kashmir (a) Kerala (b) Uttar Pradesh
Answer (A) (c) Mizoram (d) Gujarat
• According to the 2011 census, the sex Answer (B)
ratio of females per 1000 males is lowest • According to Census 2011, the highest
in Haryana. difference between male and female
• The sex ratio in Haryana was much lower literacy rate was found in **Uttar
than in other states. Pradesh**.
70. According to the 2011 census, which of the 74. According to Census 2011, which Union
following union territories of India has the Territory has the lowest literacy rate?
lowest sex ratio? (a) Chandigarh
(a) Chandigarh (b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(b) Daman and Diu (c) Daman and Diu
(c) Andaman-Nicobar Islands (d) Lakshadweep
(d) Lakshadweep Answer (B)
Answer (B) • According to Census 2011, the literacy
• According to the 2011 census, among the rate was lowest in **Dadra and Nagar
union territories of India, **Daman and Haveli**.
Diu** has the lowest sex ratio. 75. Which of the following states in India has
71. The effective literacy rate in India is the highest rural literacy rate?
calculated from (a) Maharashtra (b) Manipur
(a) Total population (c) Goa (d) Gujarat
(b) Child population Answer (B)
(c) Adult population • The state of Goa in India has the highest
(d) Population above 7 years of age rural literacy rate.
Answer (D) 76. According to Census 2011, which of the
• The effective literacy rate in India is following states had the lowest infant
calculated from the population above 7 mortality rate?
years of age. (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Punjab

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(c) Kerala (d) Karnataka
Answer (C) Rural Urban Migration
• According to Census 2011, **Kerala**
had the lowest infant mortality rate. 80. According to Census 2011, the correct
• Kerala has controlled infant mortality to a sequence of metros in descending order is?
great extent due to its health management (a) Mumbai, Delhi, Chennai, Kolkata
and social services. (b) Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai
77. Which state of India has the highest (c) Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Mumbai
percentage of children suffering from (d) Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai
malnutrition? Answer (D)
(a) Bihar • Mumbai – 18.41
(b) Madhya Pradesh • Delhi – 16.31
(c) Rajasthan • Kolkata – 14.11
(d) Jharkhand • Chennai – 8.70
Answer (B) 81. Which one of the following statements
• Madhya Pradesh in India has the highest regarding migration is not correct?
percentage of children suffering from (a) Migration started being recorded from the
malnutrition. 1951 census.
78. According to Census 2011, which of the (b) In the first census conducted, migration
following religious groups has recorded data was recorded on the basis of place of
the highest literacy rate? birth.
(a) Christian (b) Hindu (c) Information on reasons for migration was
(c) Sikh (d) Jain included in the 1981 census.
Answer (B) (d) The first major revision in the census was
• According to the 2011 census, the done in the 1961 census.
**Jain** religious group has the highest Answer (A)
literacy rate percentage. • Migration was started to be recorded from
• The Jain community has given high the first census of India in 1881, hence (a)
priority to education, due to which their is not correct.
literacy rate is higher than other religious • In the first census, migration data was
groups. recorded on the basis of place of birth, but
79. According to the 2011 census, which of the the first major revision was done in the
following states has the lowest child sex 1961 census and two components were
ratio in both rural and urban areas? included, place of birth i.e. village or
(a) Uttar Pradesh town and period of residence if born
(b) Kerala elsewhere.
(c) Haryana • Information on reasons for migration was
(d) Jammu and Kashmir included in the 1981 census, which was
Answer (C) revised in successive censuses.
• According to the 2011 census, 82. Which of the following statements is not
**Haryana** has the lowest child sex true?
ratio in both rural and urban areas. 1. The number of men in rural-to-rural
• Haryana has a high problem of sex ratio, migration streams is less than that of
in which the child sex ratio is also low. women.

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2. The reason for the highest inter-state • Bihar – 25.41%
migration by men from rural to urban • Punjab – 13.73%
stream has been education. 85. According to the Census 2011, which of the
Code: following states has the highest female
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 literacy rate (percentage)?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Mizoram (b) Goa
Answer (B) (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Maharashtra
• The reason for the highest inter-state Answer (C)
migration by men from rural to urban • Mizoram – 89.3%
stream has been adverse economic • Goa – 84.7%
conditions. Hence statement 2 is not true, • Top five states – Kerala, Mizoram, Goa,
statement 1 is true. Tripura, Nagaland.
83. On what basis is migration counted in the 86. What was the level of urbanisation
Census of India? (percentage) in India’s total population of
(a) Place of birth, if the place of birth is 121 crore in Census 2011?
different from the place of enumeration. (a) 33.15% (b) 32.15%
(b) Place of residence, if the previous place of (c) 30.15% (d) 31.15%
residence is different from the place of
Answer (D)
enumeration.
• 31.15% Urbanization level
(c) Both (a) and (b)
87. In which of the following census decade,
(d) None of these
the maximum decline in sex ratio was
Answer (C)
recorded in India?
• Migration census is done on two basis –
(a) 1931-41 (b) 1961-71
1. Place of birth, if the place of birth is
(c) 1981-91 (d) 2001-11
different from the place of
Answer (B)
enumeration. (This is known as
88. According to the 2011 census, what is the
lifelong migrant.)
percentage of India's population in the
2. Place of residence, if the previous
world population?
place of residence is different from the
(a) 17.31% (b) 18.50%
place of enumeration. (This is known
(c) 18.90% (d) 19.05%
as migrant from previous place of
residence.) Answer (A)
89. Which of the following is the most
urbanized state?
Population Questions (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra (d) West Bengal
84. According to the 2011 census, which of the Answer (C)
following states had the highest population 90. According to the Census 2011, which of the
growth rate? following states has the highest percentage
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Bihar of Scheduled Tribe people?
(c) Meghalaya (d) Punjab (a) Nagaland (b) Mizoram
Answer (C) (c) Manipur (d) Tripura
• Meghalaya – 27.9% Answer (B)
• Arunachal Pradesh – 26%

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91. Census 2011 in India According to the Answer (B)
Census 2011, which of the following states • Kerala – 93.9%
has the lowest urban population? • Mizoram – 91.3%
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Assam • Goa – 88.7%
(c) Odisha (d) Maharashtra • Arunachal Pradesh – 72.6%
Answer (A) 96. Arrange the states in descending order
• Himachal Pradesh – 10.04% with the highest female literacy percentage
• Assam – 14.10% in India?
• Odisha – 16.6% (A) Mizoram (B) Goa
• Maharashtra – 45.2% (C) Kerala (D) Nagaland
92. According to the Census 2011, which of the Code –
following states in India has the highest (a) C A D B (b) B C A D
urban population? (c) C A B D (d) C B A D
(a) Goa (b) Mizoram Answer (C)
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Sikkim • Kerala – 92.1%
Answer (A) • Mizoram – 89.3%
• Goa – 62.1% • Goa – 84.7%
• Mizoram – 51.5% • Nagaland – 76.1%
• Tamil Nadu – 48% 97. Name the states with the highest sex ratio
• Sikkim - in ascending order?
93. Which state in India has the highest (a) Chhattisgarh, Manipur, Tamil Nadu,
population density? Andhra Pradesh
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Mizoram (b) Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh,
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Sikkim Manipur, Tamil Nadu
Answer (D) (c) Chhattisgarh, Manipur, Kerala, Andhra
• Sikkim – 86 Pradesh
• Jammu and Kashmir – 56 (d) Chhattisgarh, Manipur, Andhra
• Mizoram – 52 Pradesh, Kerala
• Arunachal Pradesh – 17 Answer (D)
94. According to Census 2011, what is the • Chhattisgarh – 991
percentage of increase in literacy rate in • Manipur – 992
India? • Andhra Pradesh – 993
(a) 11.79% (b) 16.8% • Kerala – 1084
(c) 27.07% (d) 9.21% 98. Which of the following states has the least
Answer (D) population, tell them in descending order?
• Increase in female literacy rate – 11.79% (a) Mizoram, Sikkim, Goa, Arunachal
• Increase in literacy rate of Bihar – 16.8% Pradesh
• Literacy rate difference in Rajasthan – (b) Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh,
27.07% Goa
95. Which state has the highest literacy rate? (c) Goa, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim,
(a) Mizoram Mizoram
(b) Kerala (d) Goa, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram,
(c) Goa Sikkim
(d) Arunachal Pradesh Answer (D)

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• Goa – 14.57 lakh (c) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Sikkim,

• Arunachal Pradesh – 13.82 lakh Nagaland
• Mizoram – 10.9 lakh (d) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Sikkim,
• Sikkim – 6.1 lakh Manipur
99. Which of the following states has the Answer (D)
highest population? • Arunachal Pradesh – 17
(a) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar • Mizoram – 52
(b) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra • Sikkim – 86
(c) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Maharashtra • Manipur – 115
(d) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, West Bengal • Nagaland – 119
Answer (A) • Tripura – 350
• Uttar Pradesh – 16.51% 103. The states with the highest population
• Maharashtra – 9.28% density are -
• Bihar – 8.6% (a) Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala
100. According to Census 2011, which state (b) Bihar, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh
in India has the highest population (c) Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala
density? (d) Bihar, Haryana, Maharashtra
(a) Bihar (b) West Bengal Answer (C)
(c) Kerala (d) Uttar Pradesh • Bihar – 1106
Answer (A) • West Bengal – 1028
• According to Census 2011, Bihar has a • Kerala – 860
population density of 1102. • Uttar Pradesh – 829
• West Bengal has 1030. • Maharashtra – 365
• Kerala – 859 and Uttar Pradesh has 828. • Haryana – 573
• Hence option (a) is correct. 104. Which Union Territory has the highest
101. According to the 2011 census, which population density?
state had the lowest population density? (a) Puducherry (b) Lakshadweep
(a) Himachal Pradesh (c) Chandigarh (d) Delhi
(b) Arunachal Pradesh Answer (D)
(c) West Bengal • State Population Density
(d) Mizoram • Delhi 11320
Answer (B) • Puducherry 2598
• Himachal Pradesh has a population • Chandigarh 9252
density of – 123. • Lakshadweep 2013
• Arunachal Pradesh – 17 105. Statement-1 There is wide variation in
• West Bengal – 1030 population density in India.
• Mizoram – 52 Statement-2 Factors like agricultural
102. If the following states have the lowest productivity and history of settlements
population density, then the correct have greatly influenced the pattern of
answer will be – population density in India.
(a) Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Manipur, Code -
Tripura (a) Both the statements are individually true
(b) Sikkim, Manipur, Arunachal Pradesh, and Statement 2 is the correct
Tripura explanation of Statement 1.

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(b) Both the statements are individually 108. What is the population density in India
true, but Statement 2 is not the correct as per Census 2011?
explanation of Statement 1. (a) 325 (b) 335
(c) Statement 1 is true, but Statement 2 is (c) 382 (d) 385
false. Answer (C)
(d) Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is • Population density in India is 382
true. persons/km2.
Answer (B) • In the year 2001 – Population density was
• There is a wide variation in population – 325 persons/sq. km.
density in India. 109. According to Census 2011, which state
• The plains of North India are more in has the highest population density?
Bihar, Uttar Pradesh. (a) Bihar (b) Kerala
• Factors like agricultural productivity and (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) West Bengal
history of cities also affect the pattern of Answer (A)
population density. • The state with the highest population
106. Under the population policy of India, density is Bihar – 1106.
by which year the target of population • Top five states -
stability is to be achieved? 1. Bihar – 1106
(a) 2047 (b) 2030 2. West Bengal – 1028
(c) 2070 (d) 2050 3. Kerala – 860
Answer (C) 4. Uttar Pradesh – 829
• According to the population policy of 5. Haryana – 573
India 2000, the target of population 110. Which one of the following pairs is not
stability is to be achieved by the year correctly matched?
2070. Census Sex ratio in India
• India has to be made a developed India by (a) 1951 946
the year 2047. (b) 1971 930
107. The states with maximum and (c) 1991 927
minimum population density in India are (d) 2011 925
respectively - Answer (D)
(a) Uttar Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh • All the three pairs given below are
(b) West Bengal and Arunachal Pradesh correctly matched. Option D is not
(c) Uttar Pradesh and Sikkim correctly matched as the sex ratio of India
(d) Western West Bengal and Sikkim is 943 as per Census 2011.
Answer (B) 111. In which one of the Indian Union
• The states with maximum and minimum Territories, the sex ratio is more than 1000
population density in India are West females per 1000 males?
Bengal and Arunachal Pradesh (a) Puducherry (b) Delhi
respectively. (c) Chandigarh (d) Lakshadweep
• Population density of West Bengal – Answer (B)
State with maximum population density – • In Puducherry, the sex ratio is more than
Bihar – 1106 1000 females per 1000 males.
• State with minimum population density – • Top five union territories with sex ratio –
Arunachal Pradesh is 17. 1. Puducherry – 1037

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2. Lakshadweep – 947 Gujarat - 890
3. Andaman Nicobar – 876 115. What is the literacy rate of India as per
4. Delhi – 868 Census 2011?
5. Chandigarh – 818 (a) 73% (b) 69%
112. Which of the following states has the (c) 75% (d) 78%
highest child sex ratio? Answer (A)
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Meghalaya • The literacy rate of India is 73% which
(c) Chhattisgarh (d) Bihar was 64.84% in 2001. The literacy rate has
Answer (A) increased by 9%.
• Arunachal Pradesh 972 116. Which is the state with the highest
• Meghalaya 970 literacy rate in rural areas as per Census
• Chhattisgarh 2011?
• Bihar (a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Punjab
113. According to the 2011 census, which of (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Kerala
the following union territories of India has Answer (D)
the lowest sex ratio? • The state with the highest literacy rate in
(a) Chandigarh rural areas is Kerala with 93%.
(b) Daman and Diu 117. Arrange the states with the highest
(c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands literacy percentage in ascending order.
(d) Lakshadweep (A) Goa (B) Mizoram
Answer (B) (C) Himachal Pradesh (D) Tripura
• According to the 2011 census, the lowest Code –
sex ratio is found in the Union Territory (a) A B C D (b) C B D A
of Daman and Diu in India. (c) C D A B (d) C D B A
• The Union Territories in India with the Answer (C)
lowest sex ratio are as follows – • Himachal Pradesh – 82.8%
Union Territory Sex Ratio • Tripura – 87.2%
Daman and Diu 618 • Goa – 88.7%
Dadra and Nagar Haveli 774 • Mizoram – 91.3%
Chandigarh 818 • According to Census 2011, the top five
Delhi 868 states with the highest literacy percentage
Andaman and Nicobar 876 are –
114. Which of the following states has the 1. Kerala – 94%
lowest child sex ratio? 2. Mizoram – 91.3%
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Rajasthan 3. Goa – 88.7%
(c) Haryana (d) Punjab 4. Tripura – 87.2%
Answer (C) 5. Himachal Pradesh – 82.8%
• Haryana has the lowest child sex ratio. 118. According to the final data of Census
• States with lowest sex ratio as per Census 2011, what was the decadal growth rate of
2011 – India’s population in the decade 2001-11?
Haryana - 834 (a) 17.11% (b) 17.70%
Punjab - 846 (c) 16.74% (d) 16.05%
Jammu Kashmir - 862 Answer (B)
Rajasthan - 888

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• India's decadal growth rate was 17.70 Answer (B)

which in 2001 – Decadal growth rate – • Year 1921 is called the dividing year of
21.54% demography.
• Top five states with decadal growth – 123. According to the 2011 census, what is
1. Meghalaya - 25.9% the percentage of people aged 20 years and
2. Arunachal Pradesh - 26% above in the total population of India?
3. Bihar - 25.4% (a) 59.29% (b) 60.81%
4. Jammu and Kashmir - 23.6% (c) 61.05% (d) 61.17%
5. Mizoram - 23.5% Answer (A)
119. Which state in India has the highest 124. In the British period, the first census
percentage of Scheduled Caste was conducted in India?
population? (a) During the tenure of Lord Dufferin
(a) West Bengal (b) Uttar Pradesh (b) During the tenure of Lord Lytton
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Punjab (c) During the tenure of Lord Mayo
Answer (D) (d) During the tenure of Lord Ripon
• Punjab - 31.9% Answer (C)
• Himachal Pradesh - 25.2% • The first census in India was conducted in
• West Bengal - 23.5% the year 1871 by Lord Mayo.
• Uttar Pradesh - 20.7% 125. According to Census 2011, which of the
120. Which state has the highest ST following Indian states had the lowest
population? female literacy?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (a) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Odisha (d) Rajasthan (b) Rajasthan
Answer (A) (c) Kerala
• Top five states with ST population (d) Andhra Pradesh
1. Madhya Pradesh Answer (B)
2. Maharashtra • According to Census 2011, female
3. Odisha literacy in Rajasthan is 52.1%. • 5 states
4. Rajasthan with lowest female literacy percentage in
5. Gujarat India –
121. In which decade was negative growth 1. Bihar - 51.5%
rate recorded in India's population? 2. Rajasthan - 52.1%
(a) 1921-31 (b) 1911-21 3. Jharkhand - 55.4%
(c) 1941-51 (d) 1931-41 4. Jammu Kashmir - 56.4%
Answer (B) 5. Uttar Pradesh - 57.2%
• Negative growth rate was recorded in 126. According to the census of 2011, what
India in the decade 1911-21. was the percentage of urban population in
• Reasons – famine, starvation, lack of India to the total population of the
health facilities country?
• 1911-21 growth rate - (a) 28.50% (b) 31.16%
122. Which year is called the dividing year (c) 37.60% (d) 39.20%
of India's demography? Answer (B)
(a) Year 1901 (b) Year 1921 • States with highest urban population –
(c) Year 1951 (d) Year 1971

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Goa, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, the death rate and high fertility rate of the
Mizoram, Kerala. population in the country between the
127. Which state ranks second in India in decades of 1951-81. In these decades,
terms of literacy rate and urbanization there was a sharp decline in the death rate,
level in 2011 census? not an increase. Hence statement 2 is
(a) Mizoram (b) Maharashtra wrong.
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Tripura • During these decades, the annual growth
Answer (A) rate was as high as 2.2%
128. Which state of India has recorded the • After independence, developmental work
lowest population growth during 2001- was initiated through a centralized
2011? planning process during the period 1951-
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Odisha 81.
(c) Kerala (d) Nagaland • After 1951-81, the growth rate of the
Answer (D) population of the country has remained
• According to the final data, the states with high till date, but gradually it started
the lowest decadal population growth rate declining at a slow pace.
between 2001-11 are Nagaland (-0.61%), • The downward trend of the crude birth
Kerala 4.91%, Goa - 8.23% in increasing rate is considered responsible for such
order. population growth. This in turn was
129. Consider the following statements influenced by the increase in the average
regarding the phases of population age at marriage in the country,
growth: improvement in the quality of life,
1. The decade of 1951-81 is known as the especially in women's education.
period of population explosion in India. 130. Which of the following physical factors
2. There was a sharp increase in the death determines the patterns of population
rate between the decades of 1951-81. distribution?
3. The population growth rate has been (a) Landform
decreasing at a slow pace since 1981. (b) Availability of water
4. The main reasons for the decrease in (c) Climate
the population growth rate in the (d) All of the above
decades after 1981 are the increase in Answer (D)
the average age of marriage, increase in • Where there are favourable conditions for
the quality of life and improvement in life, the population density will be high.
women's education. • Topography, water availability and
Which of the statements given above are climate largely determine the distribution
correct? patterns, with the plains, deltas and
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1, 3, 4 coastal plains of northern India having a
(c) Only 2, 3, 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 higher proportion of population than the
Answer (B) interior districts of the states of southern
• The decades of 1951-81 are known as the and central India, the Himalayan north-
period of population explosion in India. eastern and western states.
This happened due to a sharp decline in

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Previous Year Questions

1. Which of the following states has the Answer (A)
largest reserves of bauxite? • Anaimudi – 2696 meters
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Odisha • Gurushikhar – 1722 meters
(c) Jharkhand (d) Gujarat • Mahendragiri – 1501 m
Answer (B) • Pachmarhi – 1350 m
2. Which of the following statements is not 6. Which of the following is the longest river?
correct? (a) Kaveri (b) Tapti
(a) El Niño is a sea current that appears on the (c) Narmada (d) Son
Peruvian coast. Answer (C)
(b) El Niño weakens the Indian monsoon. • Narmada – 1312 km.
(c) El Niño event occurs every year.
• Kaveri – 800 km.
(d) La Niña strengthens the Indian monsoon.
• Tapti – 724 km.
Answer (C)
• Son – 784 km.
• El Niño occurs on an average about once
7. Which of the following cyclones hit the
every three to four months. It occurs
west coast of India in the year 2021?
irregularly at an interval of 2 to 7 years.
(a) Amphan (b) Tauktae
3. Which state of India was the largest (c) Michong (d) Fani
producer of rice in the year 2021-22?
Answer (B)
(a) Punjab (b) Bihar
• Tauktae is a tropical cyclone, named by
(c) Telangana (d) West Bengal
Myanmar, in Burmese language. It means
Answer (D)
Gecko -, a very noisy lizard.
4. According to Census 2011, which of the
• It developed in Arabian Sea.
following states of India had the lowest
8. In which part of Himalayas Karewa
population density?
topography is found?
(a) Tripura
(a) North-Eastern Himalayas
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Eastern Himalayas
(c) Mizoram
(c) Himachal Uttarakhand
(d) Meghalaya
(d) Kashmir Himalayas
Answer (B)
Answer (D)
• Arunachal Pradesh - 18
• Karewa topography is found in Kashmir
• Mizoram - 52
Himalayas, it is divided into two stages,
• Meghalaya - 103 Karewa means high plateau land.
• Tripura • Karewa – present above the plains of
5. Arrange the following mountain peaks in Jhelum river and its tributaries, Karewa
descending order on the basis of their soil is suitable for saffron cultivation.
height – 9. Choose the correct answer –
(I) Gurushikhar (II) Mahendragiri
List - I List - II
(III) Anaimudi (IV) Pachmarhi Natural disaster Affected areas
(a) (III) (I) (II) (IV) 1. Floods I. Himalayan
(b) (I) (III) (IV) (II) region
(c) (II) (I) (III) (IV) 2. Earthquakes II. Plains of Uttar
(d) (IV) (II) (I) (III) Pradesh and
Bihar

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3. Drought III. Areas of West 14. Two statements – A is called Assertion and
and Central the other is called Reason R. Choose the
India correct answer from the given code.
4. Tsunami IV. South Coastal Assertion (A) – Punjab, Haryana, Uttar
region of India
Pradesh are the major wheat producing
Code:
states of India.
1 2 3 4
Reason R – Well-drained fertile land,
(a) II I III IV
temperature of 10-15°C in winter and
(b) I II III IV
average annual rainfall of about 75 cm are
(c) IV I II III
necessary for the production of wheat.
(d) III I II IV
Code:
Answer (A)
(a) A&R – is correct and R is the correct
• Floods – Plains of Uttar Pradesh and
explanation of A.
Bihar
(b) A&R – is correct but R is not the correct
• Earthquakes – Himalayan region explanation of A.
• Droughts – Areas of West and Central (c) A is correct but R is wrong.
India (d) A is wrong but R is correct.
• Tsunami – South Coastal region of India Answer (A)
10. In which census decade the maximum 15. Which crop is not commercial?
decline in sex ratio was recorded in India? (a) Sugarcane (b) Banana
(a) 1931 – 1941 (b) 1981 – 1991 (c) Cotton (d) Millet
(c) 2001 – 2011 (d) 1961 – 1971
Answer (D)
Answer (D)
16. Non-metallic mineral is -
11. Which region is called the storehouse of (a) Marble (b) Manganese
Indian minerals? (c) Silver (d) Lead
(a) Chota Nagpur Plateau
Answer (A)
(b) Bundelkhand Plateau
• Silver – is also a precious mineral.
(c) Malwa Plateau
17. In which year Bharat Heavy Electricals
(d) Baghelkhand Plateau
Limited got the status of Maharatna
Answer (A)
enterprise?
• Chota Nagpur Plateau is called the Ruhr
(a) 2011 (b) 2012
region of India.
(c) 2013 (d) 2014
12. Chambal Canal Irrigation Project is
Answer (C)
related to?
18. Truck agriculture is related to?
(a) Sindh Basin (b) Ganga Basin
(a) Vegetables (b) Milk
(c) Yamuna Basin (d) Tapti Basin
(c) Grains (d) Poultry
Answer (C)
Answer (A)
13. Which state of India has the highest area
19. What is the position of Madhya Pradesh in
of teak forest?
terms of gross production of coal in India?
(a) Jharkhand
(a) 2 (b) 3
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) 4 (d) 5
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Madhya Pradesh Answer (C)
20. Which of the following statements is not
Answer (D)
correct regarding iron ore in India?

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(a) Our country has mainly hematite and 25. Match correctly -
magnetite iron ore reserves. Location State
(b) About 80% of the total iron ore reserves 1. Bailadila A. Odisha
of the country are in Jharkhand and 2. Kendujhar B. Karnataka
Odisha. 3. Balaghat C. Chhattisgarh
(c) Vellari in Karnataka state is the main 4. Kundremukh D. Madhya Pradesh
Code:
mining area of iron ore.
1 2 3 4
(d) Mayurbhanj district has an important
(a) A B C D
place in Odisha in iron ore.
(b) C A D B
Answer (B)
(c) C A B D
21. Sundarban is which of the following types (d) A C D B
of forest?
Answer (B)
(a) Tropical Central dry deciduous forest
26. Which of the following is also known as
(b) Alpine forest
Molasses Basin?
(c) Subtropical pine forest
(a) Manipur (b) Tripura
(d) Coastal or tidal forest
(c) Mizoram (d) Nagaland
Answer (D)
Answer (C)
22. Which of the following canals transformed
• The state of Mizoram is known as the
the agricultural activities of the western
Molasses Basin.
districts of Rajasthan?
27. Match the following pairs and identify the
(a) Kanhar Canal
correct code -
(b) Ramganga
Rivers Origin Area
(c) Sharda Sahayak
1. Kaveri I. Satpura Range
(d) Indira Gandhi Canal
2. Sabarmati II. Brahmagiri Hills
Answer (D) 3. Balaghat III. Mewar Hills
23. Which is the correct sequence of 4. Damodar IV. Chota Nagpur
agricultural practices - Plateau
(a) Soil preparation – irrigation – sowing – Code:
harvesting 1 2 3 4
(b) Soil preparation – sowing – irrigation – (a) I II III IV
harvesting (b) III IV I II
(c) Sowing – harvesting – irrigation – soil (c) II III I IV
preparation (d) IV II III I
(d) Soil preparation – irrigation – harvesting Answer (C)
– sowing 28. Which state is first in the production of
Answer (B) pulses in India in the year 2021-22?
24. Where is Tatipaka oil refinery located? (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Rajasthan
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Gujarat (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Gujarat
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Maharashtra Answer (C)
Answer (C)
• Established – 3 September, 2001
• It is the first oil refinery of ONGC to
produce petro products.

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