SF5 Questions c.

adenocarcinoma
d. squamous cell carcinoma
1. There are 4 cases of people presenting with jaundice RUQ pain and fever, four weeks post
disaster. Blood counts reveal leukocytosis. Which is most likely? 9. A 60 y-o man presents with colicky abdominal pain and constipation. He reports having
a. Hep B vomited foul smelling material. Abd exam reveals abdominal distension and increased bowel
b. Hep C sounds
c. Gastroenteritis
d. Leptospirosis Which of the following would be the most appropriate initial investigation to do?
a. double barium enema
A middle aged chronic smoker presents to his GP complaining of gnawing epigastric pain that b. plain x rays of abdomen
sometimes wakes him up at night, made worse on starvation and dyspepsia. He admits to c. CT abdomen
finding relief with the use of antacids. d. US abdomen

2. The most likely aetiologic agent of his condition is? 10. Which is the most likely dx of the above patient?
a. H. pylori a. small intestinal obstruction
b. Campylobacter jejuni b. hernia?
c. Klebsiella c. Faecal impaction
d. E. coli d. Large bowel obstruction

3. The doctor of course advises him to stop smoking, giving him the spiel about the risk of 11. Which of the following can be used to diagnose Hep D infection?
cardiovascular disease and cancer with smoking and sends him home on Ranitidine. The a) HBV ab
mechanism of action of Ranitidine is b) HDV ab
a. stimulates the formation of mucous barrier c) HAV ab
b. inhibits acid production via action on the vagal nuclei d) HCV ab
c. acts to inhibit gastrin secretion
d. acts on H2 receptors 12. An increase in faecal fats is least likely to be associated with diseases of the
a) Stomach
4. He is later put on Omeprazole. The MOA is b) Ileum
a. inhibits acid production via vagal nuclei c) Jejunum
b. inhibit gastrin secretion d) colon
c. stimulates formation of mucous barrier
d. irreversible inhibits parietal cell proton pump 13. The most significant finding of pancreatic cancer is
a) obstructive jaundice

5. A 60 year old chronic alcoholic comes to hospital with haematemesis. He is found to have 14. The duodenal flexure is identified by?
splenomegaly. He is least likely to have what sign as a result of his chronic pathology?
a. intention tremor 15. The duodenaljejunal flexure is identified by?
b. massive hepatomegaly 16. A 65 year old woman presents with a 6 week history of yellowing of the eyes. As time
c. testicular atrophy progresses, she notices dark orange urine and pale yellow stools. What is the best indication of
d. palmar erythema carcinoma of the head of the pancreas?
a) increase serum glucose
6. What would be most likely in this patient? b) lipase
a. increased albumin. low gamma globulin c) increase serum amylase
b. decreased albumin high gamma globulin
c. decreased albumin low gamma globulin 17. Bleeding per rectum with multinodular liver
d. normal albumin high gamma globulin a) Carcinoma
b) Hepatoellular carcinoma
7. He is found to bleeding oesophageal varices, no doubt on upper GI endoscopy. The vessel c) Metastatic Carcinoma
that is most likely to be implicated is?
a. left gastric 18. Concerning the tongue all of the following are true except:
b. left gastroepiploic a) The main blood supply id the lingual artery
c. right gastric b) Hyoglossus pulls the tongue backward and upward
d. right gastroepiploic c) Genioglossus protrudes the tongue
d) Palatoglossus pulls the tongue backward and upward
8. A 65 y-o man is found to have bleeding per rectum with a friable mass found at 6 cm above
the anal verge. Biopsy most likely uncovered it to be 19. Which part of the thoracic diaphragm contribute to the stability of the cardio-
a. lymphoma esophageal junction?
b. leiomyoma a) Fibres of the xiphisternum
 b) Fibres of the Medial Arcuate Ligament c) mega oesophagus not featured
c) Fibres of the Median arcuate ligament d) causative organism is Trypanosoma cruzzi
d) Right crus
29. Which of the following is associated with chronic duodenal ulcer
20. All of the following are associated with peptic ulcer disease except a) Spicy food and stressful life
a) [Link] b) H. Pylori infection
b) NSAID c) Duodenal gastric reflux
c) Severe Stress d) Pancreatitis
d) Diabetes Mellitis
30. Acute pancreatits is associated with all of the following except
21. Which of the following statements concerning the GI tract is correct? a) Hyperactive bowel sounds
a) Gastric juice is isotonic b) elevated serum amylase
b) Vagus nerve supplies both SI and LI c) low serum calcium
c) ACH cause receptive relaxation of the stomach d) Gall stones
d) NE causes constriction of the external anal sphincter
31. Peyer’s patches are found in the
22. Which of the following nerves innervate the external anal sphincter? a) Large Intestine
a) The pelvic sumpathetic from the sacral plexus b) Jejunum
b) The inferior rectal nerve from the pudendal nerve c) Ileum
c) The hypogastric plexus d) Duodenum
d) The inferior hypogastric plexus
32. Which of the following concerning stones on the common bile duct is correct
a) They often cause jaundice, fever and biliary colic
b) They often result in progressive jaundice
c) They are present in the majority of patients with cholecytitis

23. What is associated with ulcerative colitis? 33. What is most characteristic of peritonitis?
a) Strictures 1. Vomiting and abdominal tenderness
b) fissures 2. Vomiting and muscle rigidity
c) granuloma 3. Muscle rigidity and abdominal tenderness
d) continuous lessions 4. Abdominal distension and increased bowel sounds

24. A 55 year old woman with ulcerative gastric carcinoma presents with 34. Which of the following part of the GI tract is featured with taenia coli?
a) necrosis a. Jejunum
b) ulcers > 4 cm diameter b. Duodenum
c. Caecum
25. Which of the following combinations is most useful for the diagnosis of peritonitis d. Ileum
a) Abd distension and vomiting
b) Muscle guarding and vomiting 35. Which is not true about the relations of the oesophagus?
c) Abd tenderness and gurading (muscle) a. Trachea is ant to it.
d) Abd distension and increase bowel sounds b. Right post intercostals artery behind it
c. Inf. Thyroid artery supplies it
26. Which of the following is a common presentation of pancreatic cancer? d. Lower third has skeletal muscle.
a) Kruckenberg tumour
b) Obstructive jaundice 36. In regards to protein absorption which is not true?
c) Pel Ebstein Fever a. Pepsin is an exopeptidase that acts in the ileum
d) Conj. Hyperalbuminemia b. Proelastase is a pancreatic enzyme
c. Trypsinogen is the inactive form of pancreatic enzyme trypsin
27. Which of the following cases of liver disease lead to the greatest risk of pregnancy to d. Proteins are actively absorbed in the jejunum
cirrhosis?
a) Chronic persistant hepatitis 37. The commonest form of abdominal infection is
b) Chronic active hep a. Primary peritonitis
c) Chronic lobular hep b. Secondary peritonitis
d) alcoholic fatty liver c. Intra-abdominal abscess
d. Pancreatic necrosis
28. In Achlasia of the cardia
a) Patient swallows liquids better than solids 38. Which is the most common cause of bacterial dysentery?
b) Patients swallow solids better than liquids a. Shigella sonnei*
 b. Clostridium dificile a. Diverticular disease
c. Entamoeba hystolytica b. Angiodysplasia
d. Trichuris trichura c. Ischaemic colitis
d. Norwalk virus infection
39. Jaundice may occur in all except:
a. Drugs 49. Digestion and the emulsification of bile salts....?
b. Hemolysis a. AIP
c. Gilbert’s disease b. Lipase
d. Peptic ulcer disease c. Lecithin
d. Bile acids
40. All of the following conditions are associated with Jaundice except
a) Sickle cell anaemia 50. What does not occur during swallowing?
b) H. Pylori a. Passavants’ ridge formed from contraction of superior constrictor
c) Gilbert’s Syndrome b. Tongue pushes bolus against hard palate by action of masticatory muscles
d) Hepatitis B infection c. Cricopharyngeal part of interior constrictor relaxes
d. Tensing and elevation of soft palate by tensor and levator palatini
41. Which is most appropriate for a 3 year old child who is moderately dehydrated? respectively
a. Any soda that is uncolored
b. Commercially prepared rehydration solution 51. Which of the following is most often associated with pancreatic cancer?
c. Apple juice a. Adenoma of the duct cells
d. IV fluid b. Endocrine cell carcinoma
c. Carcinoma of the acini
42. Active absorption of bile salts takes place in the: d. Mixed cell carcinoma
a. Duodenum
b. Jejunum 52. Which is correct about the inguinal canal?
c. Ileum a. The deep inguinal ring is medial to the inferior epigastric artery
d. Colon b. The inferior epigastric artery is medial to the deep inguinal ring
c. The superficial inguinal ring is at the level of the mid-inguinal point
43. Which of the following is a complication(?) of duodenal ulcers: d. The conjoint tendon forms the lateral aspect of the posterior wall of the canal.
a. Reflux oesophagitis
b. Gallstones 53. Which is false about the embryological origin of the gut.
c. Vitamin B12 deficiency a. The anterior surface of the stomach was originally on the left in the embryo
d. Bleeding b. Both lesser and greater omentum originated from the ventral mesogastrium
c. The duodenum has origins from both fore and mid-gut.
44. 75 year old male presented with abdominal pain. After abdominal ultrasound, an abdominal d. The lesser sac was also called the omental bursa and can be assessed by
aneurysm and gallstones were found. Surgical repair of the aneurysm and cholecystectomy the epiploic foramen.
revealed which type of stone:
a. Pure cholesterol stone 54. Which is false about the embryology of the gut?
b. Mixed cholesterol stone a. The falciform ligament contains the ligamentum teres which is the remnant
c. Black pigment stone of the obliterated umbilical artery
d. Brown pigment stone b. The superior mesenteric artery is the origin of mid-gut
55. A 68 year old male had an abdominal obstruction. Which of the following tumours is least
45. Which enzyme catalyzes biliverdin to bilirubin? likely to be the cause?
a. Haem oxidase a. Adeno-carcinoma
b. Biliverdin reductase b. Angio-sarcoma
c. Bilirubin UDP diglucurone transferase c. Carcinoid tumour
d. Gamma glutanyl transferase d. Lymphoma

46. Upper GI haemorrhage due to Curling’s ulcers are as a result of: 56. What statement concerning the stomach is correct?
a. Shock a. The cardioesophageal junction is at 2.5cm left of the midline, posterior to the
b. Hypovolaemic head injury left 7th intercostal cartilage.
47. Which is the best specimen to culture when a patient presents with enteric (typhoid) fever: b. The hepatogastric ligament contains the common hepatic artery with
a. Stools periarterial sympathetic nerve plexus
b. Bile c. The muscularis mucosa contains a significant portion of postganglionic cell
c. Urine bodies of Meissners nerve plexus
d. Blood d. The gastrocolic trunk commonly receives venous blood from the fundus of
the stomach.
48. Lower GI bleeds may be due to all of the following EXCEPT:
57. Which statement concerning the ischiorectal fossa is incorrect? b. Greater omentum is derived from dorsal mesogastrium and is a four layered
a. The anterior boundary is the posterior boundary of the urogenital diaphragm sheet which hangs like an apron over intestinal loops
b. The inferior rectal nerve is commonly found coursing through the ischiorectal pad of c. It covers abdominal and pelvic region sometimes enclosing an organ
fat completely, and sometimes only on one surface
c. The sphincter ani externus forms the medial boundary
d. The nerve to the ischiorectal fossa runs through its connective tissue 67. Which of the following is NOT associated with H. Pylori?
a. Gastric carcinoma
58. Which is false about the liver? b. Gastric lymphoma
a. Hepatocytes radiate out from the efferent vein c. Antral gastritis
b. Bile made by the hepatocytes drains into the sinusoids d. Pancreatic carcinoma
c. A lobule is an efferent vein surrounded by hepatocytes with portal tracts at the
periphery 68. Which of the following is NOT associated with H. Pylori?
e. Gastric carcinoma
59. The maximal absorption of fats takes place in the f. Gastric lymphoma
a. ileum g. Antral gastritis
b. jejunum h. Pancreatic carcinoma
c. duodenum
d. colon

60. Eosinophil bodies are

a. collections of eosinophils in the sinusoids
b. degenerate hepatocytes 69. Vagotomy is associated with
a. protein deficiency
61. Pancreatitis is associated with b. pernicious anaemia
a. Autodigestion of the duodenal mucosa c. Fe deficiency anaemia
b. Phospholipase A, elastin and proteases d. Delayed gastric emptying
c. Increased activation of pepsinogens
70. Which of the following salivary gland tumors is characterized by the presence of perineural
invasion and poor long-term outcome?
a. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
b. Warthin’s tumor
62. Which is paired correctly? c. Adenocystic cacinoma
a. Colangiocarcinoma – d. Malignant mixed tumor
b. Hepatocellular carcinoma – HBV
c. Liver cell carcinoma – thorotrast 71. Which of the following media would grow cultures of Salmonella typhi?
a. Stool
63. All of the following are a source of bilirubin except b. Urine
a. Haemoglobin Haem c. Bile
b. Cytocrhome P450 d. Blood
c. Platelet e. Pus
d. Catalases
72. Achalasia involves
64. Symptoms of acute viral hepatitis include all of the following except a. dysphagia for solids first, then liquids
a. Anorexia b. dysphagia for both liquids and solids
b. Rectal bleeding c. a defect in Meissners plexus
c. Right upper quadrant abdominal pain
d. Myalgia 73. Achalasia cardia is
a. difficulty swallowing solids more than liquids
65. What is the most common pancreatic neoplasm? b. difficulty swallowing equally solids and liquids
a. Acinar cell carcinoma c. Meissners plexus problem
b. Ductal adenocarcinoma
c. Endocrine Cell carcinoma 74. All of the following are chronic sequelae of Hepatitis B EXCEPT
d. Cystadenoma a. Chronic pancreatitis
b. Cirrhosis
66. What is correct about peritoneum? c. Chronic carrier
a. Lesser omentum is derived from ventral mesogastrium and contain hepatic d. Hepatocellular carcinoma
vessels only
75. All statements about esomeprazole are wrong except: b. The inferior epigastric artery is medial to the deep inguinal ring
a. Best drug treatment for Zollinger Ellison Syndrome c. The superficial inguinal ring is at the level of the mid-inguinal point
b. Converted to active metabolite in stomach d. The conjoint tendon forms the lateral aspect of the posterior wall of the canal.
c. Bind reversibly to H2 receptors
d. Has short half life
The enzyme responsible for converting biliverdin to bilirubin is
76. Which is true of esomeprazole? a. heme oxygenase
a. It promotes the production of excess protective mucous b. biliverdin reductase
b. It neutralizes acid on contact c. glucuronyl transferase
c. It it a prodrug that is activated in the stomach
Achalasia involves
d. dysphagia for solids first, then liquids
e. dysphagia for both liquids and solids
Which of the following statements concerning the action of loperimide is correct? f. a defect in Meissners plexus
a. It activates muscarinic receptors
b. It activates peripheral opiate receptors only Which of the following is most often associated with pancreatic cancer?
c. It has a moderate laxative action e. Adenoma of the duct cells
d. It stimulates acetylcholine release f. Endocrine cell carcinoma
g. Carcinoma of the acini
Which statement concerning the ischiorectal fossa is incorrect? h. Mixed cell carcinoma
e. The anterior boundary is the posterior boundary of the urogenital diaphragm
f. The inferior rectal nerve is commonly found coursing through the ischiorectal pad of Which of the following media would grow cultures of Salmonella typhi?
fat f. Stool
g. The sphincter ani externus forms the medial boundary g. Urine
h. The nerve to the ischiorectal fossa runs through its connective tissue h. Bile
i. Blood

What statement concerning the stomach is correct? Taenia coli are found on the
e. The cardioesophageal junction is at 2.5cm left of the midline, posterior to the a. Jejunum
left 7th intercostal cartilage. b. ileum
f. The hepatogastric ligament contains the common hepatic artery with c. rectum
periarterial sympathetic nerve plexus d. caecum
g. The muscularis mucosa contains a significant portion of postganglionic cell
bodies of Meissners nerve plexus
h. The gastrocolic trunk commonly receives venous blood from the fundus of Regarding swallowing, which is incorrect?
the stomach. a. The tongue pushes the bolus against the palate by contraction of the muscles of
mastication
A 68 year old male had an abdominal obstruction. Which of the following tumours is least likely b. The muscles of the inferior constrictor relax
to be the cause: c. The ridge of Passavant is formed by contraction of the superior constrictor
e. Adeno-carcinoma
f. Angio-sarcoma Which is true of esomeprazole?
g. Carcinoid tumour d. It promotes the production of excess protective mucous
h. Lymphoma e. It neutralizes acid on contact
f. It it a prodrug that is activated in the stomach
Which is false about the embryological origin of the gut.
e. The anterior surface of the stomach was originally on the left in the embryo
f. Both lesser and greater omentum originated from the ventral mesogastrium A child with nephritis is likely to develop peritonitis from
g. The duodenum has origins from both fore and mid-gut. a. Escherichia coli
h. The lesser sac was also called the omental bursa and can be assessed by b. Bacteriodes
the epiploic foramen. c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Which is false about the embryology of the gut?
c. The falciform ligament contains the ligamentum teres which is the remnant
of the obliterated umbilical artery Achalasia candia is
d. The superior mesenteric artery is the origin of mid-gut a. difficulty swallowing solids more than liquids
b. difficulty swallowing equally solids and liquids
Which is correct about the inguinal canal? c. Meissners plexus problem
a. The deep inguinal ring is medial to the inferior epigastric artery
 c. Shock
Which of the following salivary gland tumors is characterized by the presence of d. Hypovolaemic head injury
perineural invasion and poor long-term outcome?
a. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
b. Warthin’s tumor
c. Adenocystic cacinoma 75 year old male presented with abdominal pain. After abdominal ultrasound, an abdominal
d. Malignant mixed tumor aneurysm and gallstones were found. Surgical repair of the aneurysm and cholecystectomy
revealed which type of stone:
Active absorption of bile salts takes place in the: e. Pure cholesterol stone
a. duodenum f. Mixed cholesterol stone
b. jejunum g. Black pigment stone
c. ileum h. Brown pigment stone
d. colon

Digestion and the emulsification of bile salts....?

a. AIP Which of the following non-infectious response can trigger response identical to sepsis?
b. Lipase a. Dehydration
c. Lecithin b. Renal failure
d. Bile acids c. Hypotension
d. Pancreatitis
Most common abdominal infection:
a. Primary peritonitis
b. Secondary peritonitis Which of the following is a complication(?) of duodenal ulcers:
c. Intra-abdominal abscess e. Reflux oesophagitis
d. Pancreatic necrosis f. Gallstones
g. Vitamin B12 deficincy
Jaundice may occur in all of the following EXCEPT: h. Bleeding
a. Haemolysis
b. Gilbert’s Disease Which is most appropriate for a 3 year old child who is moderately dehydrated?
c. Drugs e. Any soda that is uncolored
d. Duodenal ulcer disease f. Commercially prepared rehydration solution
g. Apple juice
Vagotomy of the stomach causes: h. IV fluid
a. protein deficiency
b. Iron Deficiency Anaemia Jaundice may occur in all except:
c. Pernicious Anaemia e. Drugs
d. Delayed gastric emptying f. Haemolysis
g. Gilbert’s disease
Lower GI bleeds may be due to all of the following EXCEPT: h. Peptic ulcer disease
a. Diverticular disease
b. Angiodysplasia
c. Ischaemic colitis
d. Norwalk virus infection
Which of the following is affected by prevalence of a disease in a population being screened:
a. Positive predictive value
Which is the best specimen to culture when a patient presents with enteric (typhoid) fever: b. Negative predictive value
e. Stools c. Sensitivity
f. Bile d. Specificity
g. Urine
h. Blood All statements about esomeprazole are wrong except:
e. Best drug treatment for Zollinger Ellison Syndrome
Which of the following is NOT associated with H. Pylori? f. Converted to active metabolite in stomach
i. Gastric carcinoma g. Bind reversibly to H2 receptors
j. Gastric lymphoma h. Has short half life
k. Antral gastritis
l. Pancreatic carcinoma
What is correct about peritoneum
Upper GI haemorrhage due to Curling’s ulcers are as a result of:
 d. Lesser omentum is derived from ventral mesogastrium and contain hepatic
vessels only The maximal absorption of fats takes place in the
e. Greater omentum is derived from dorsal mesogastrium and is a four layered e. ileum
sheet which hangs like an apron over intestinal loops f. jejunum
f. It covers abdominal and pelvic region sometimes enclosing an organ g. duodenum
completely, and sometimes only on one surface h. colon

What does not occur during swallowing?

e. Passavants’ ridge formed from contraction of superior constrictor Pancreatitis is associated with
f. Tongue pushed against hard palate by action of masticatory muscles d. Autodigestion of the duodenal mucosa
g. Cricopharyngeal part of interior constrictor relaxes e. Phospholipase A, elastin and proteases
h. Tensing and elevation of soft palate by tensor and levator palatini f. Increased activation of pepsinogens
respectively
What is the most common pancreatic neoplasm?
a. Acinar cell carcinoma Which is false about the liver?
e. Ductal adenocarcinoma a. Hepatocytes radiate out from the efferent vein
f. Endocrine Cell carcinoma b. Bile made by the hepatocytes drains into the sinusoids
g. Cystadenoma c. A lobule is an efferent vein surrounded by hepatocytes with portal tracts at the periphery

What is the major cause of bacterial dysentery?

a. E. histolytica All of the following are chronic sequelae of Hepatitis B EXCEPT
b. Trichuric tricura? e. Chronic pancreatitis
c. Shigella f. Cirrhosis
g. Chronic carrier
h. Hepatocellular carcinoma
Which of the following organisms is most likely to cause Primary Peritonitis in a child with
nephritic syndrome? All of the following are associated with a lower GI bleed except
a. E. Coli a. Diverticular disease
b. Strep. Pnaemonia b. Angiodysplasia
c. Bacteriodes fragilis c. Ischaemic colitis
d. M. Tuberculosis d. Norwalk virus infection

Symptoms of acute viral hepatitis include all of the following except

a. Anorexia The commonest form of abdominal infection is
b. Rectal bleeding e. Primary peritonitis
c. Right upper quadrant abdominal pain f. Secondary peritonitis
d. Myalgia g. Intra-abdominal abscess
h. Pancreatic necrosis

Which is paired correctly?

d. Colangiocarcinoma –
e. Hepatocellular carcinoma – HBV
f. Liver cell carcinoma - thorotrast Which is a cause of bacterial dysentery?
e. Shigella sonnei
All of the following are a source of bilirubin except f. Clostridium dificile
a. Haemoglobin Haem g. Entamoeba hystolytica
b. Cytocrhome P450 h. Trichuris trichura
c. Platelet
d. Catalases
All of the following are functions of the normal adult spleen EXCEPT:
a. removal of abnormal red blood cell inclusions
b. red blood cell storage
Vagotomy is associated with c. red blood cell production
e. protein deficiency d. removal of abnormal red blood cell
f. pernicious anaemia
g. Fe deficiency anaemia
h. Delayed gastric emptying
 d) The musculature and connective tissue of the lower anal canal is derived from
Class of 2011 splanchnic circulation
Year 2 Semester 1 (Semester 3) 3. Which is most likeli diagnosed by an increase in plasma ALP?
a) biliary atresia
SF5 (SF25C) – Digestive System b) viral hepatitis
c) acute pancreatitis
Spotter d) hemolytic jaundice
Now we don't really do anatomy spotter questions but here's a few from today. Might
help them next year. (Guessing here) 4. Which is most likeli to increase mucosal protection when used in PUD?
a) Bismuth Subsalycilate
Appendix: b) magnesium trisilicate
-Embryological origin c) Misoprostol
-Pain from inflammation located where d) Sucralfate
-Blood supply and thats a branch of....
5. Which of the following is correct about embryology of the GIT.
Identify Right Colic Artery (I think) a. stomach rotates in a clockwise direction
b. stomach rotates in an anticlockwise direction
Fascia connecting rectum to sacrum; dermatomes anus region,,,?
6. Which of the following is true about embryology of the GIT
Structures in bed of palatine tonsil and stomach a. the intestines herniate into the (yolk sac?) at week 6
b. the intestines herniate into the (yolk sac?) at week 8
Blood supply palatine tonsil c. the intestines herniate out of the (yolk sac?) at week 12
d. the intestines herniate into the (yolk sac?) at week 3
Blood supply hard palate??? and soft palate located posterior???
7. which of the following ligaments is a respresentation of the dorsal mesogastrium
Mandibular canal? and content a.) greater omentum
b) linorenal ligament
parotid duct run on muscle? and opens where? c)
d)
gallbladder volume
8. Which one of the following mechanisms does not cause epiglottic deflection?
tip tongue drains unilaterally or bilaterally and to submental lymph nodes drain a. Contraction of the aryepiglottic muscle
to ??? b. Tension of the hyo-epiglottic ligament
c. Contracting of the middle constrictor
MCQ d. Mechanical pressure at the base of the tongue

1. Which of the folllowing markers are specific to liver? 9. Which best describes the vomiting reflex
a. ALT a. It involves anti-peristalsis along the entire intestine
b. AST b. Glottis closure, muscle contraction, forced expiration
c. ALP c. Due to visceral stretching and irritation
d. GGT d. Afferent nerves involved only

2. Which statement concerning the primordial GIT is correct?

a) The mid and hind gut are derived from the yolk sac
b) The midgut epithelium is derived from the yolk sac
c) The upper anal canal develops from proctodeum
10. Which of the following correctly describes the neural innervation of the GI
Tract?
a) The vagus nerve has an inhibitory effect
b) Most gastric nerve supply is from post ganglionic fibres
c) The autonomic nervous system has an excitatory effect on salivary secretion
d) The greater splanchnic nerve terminates in the Auerbach's plexus