AIIMS

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01. If current vs. angular frequency curve for an 04. Assertion : Goggles have zero power.
AC circuit is shown then quality factor will be
: Reason : Radius of curvature of both sides of
lens is same.

Imax (1) If both assertion and reason are true and

reason is the correct explanation of
Imax assertion.
Imax/ 2 (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
 1=16  r 2=25 (3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false
9 20
(1) (2) 05. Two thin lenses of power +6D and –2D are placed
20 9 in contact with each other. Focal length of the
combination will behave like a :
18 41
(3) (4) (1) Convex lens of focal length 4 m
41 18
(2) Concave lens of focal length 25 cm
02. As the frequency of an ac circuit increases, the
current first increases and then decreases. (3) Convex lens of focal length 25 cm
What combination of circuit elements is most (4) None of the above
likely to comprise the circuit?
06. A transformer step down 220 volt to 11 volt to
i. Inductor and capacitor light a lamp. If current in primary winding of
ii. Resistor and inductor transformer is 5 A. and that in secondary
winding is 90 A then effeciency of transformer
iii. Resistor and capacitor is
iv. Resistor, inductor and capacitor (1) 50% (2) 60%
(1) i and iii are correct (3) 90% (4) None
(2) iii and iv are correct 07. The number of turns in coil of AC generator is
(3) i and iv are correct 5000 and area of coil is 0.25 m2. If coil is rotated
at the rate of 100 revolution per second in uni-
(4) Only iv form magnetic field of 0.2 wb/m2 Then peak
03. Wavelength of given light waves in air and in value of emf generated is nearly.
o o (1) 786 KV (2) 440 KV
a medium are 6000 A and 4000 A respectively.
(3) 220 KV (4) 157 KV
The critical angle is:
08. Maxi mum KE of emi tted electron in
1  2  1  3  photoelectric experiment is 5eV and work
(1) tan   (2) tan   function of metal is 2 eV then stopping potential
3 2
will be :
1  2  1  3  (1) 7 volt (2) 3 volt
(3) sin   (4) sin  
3 2 (3) 5 volt (4) 2 volt

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09. If the wavelength of light in an experiment on 13. Ratio of longest wavelengths corresponding to
photoelectric effect is doubled : lyman and balmer series in hydrogen spectrum
is
i. The photoelectric emission will not take
place (1) 7/29 (2) 27/5
ii. The photoelectric emission may or may not (3) 5/27 (4) 5/23
take place
14. A nuclear reaction along with the masses of the
iii. The stopping potential will increase particle taking part in it is as follows :
iv. The stopping potential will decrease
A  B  C  D  Q
1.002amu 1.004amu 1.001amu
Which of the above is correct? 1.003amu

(1) Only i is correct The energy Q liberated in the reaction is

(2) Only ii is correct (1) 1.234 MeV (2) 0.931 MeV
(3) ii and iv are correct (3) 0.465 MeV (4) 1.862 MeV
(4) i, ii and iv are correct 15. In one  and 2 emissions :
10. In which of the following situations the heavier
of the two particles has smaller de-Broglie (1) Mass number reduces by 2
wavelength? The two particles : (2) Mass number reduces by 6
i. Move with the same speed (3) Mass number reduces by 4
ii. Move with the same linear momentum (4) atomic number remians by unchanged
iii. Move with the same kinetic energy 16. Assertion: A Thermonuclear fusion reactions
iv. Have fallen through the same height may become the source of unlimited power for
the mankind.
Which of the above is correct?
Reason: A single fusion event involving isotopes
(1) i and iii are correct of hydrogen produces more energy than energy
(2) i and iv are correct from nuclear fission of 235
92 U
(3) i, iii and iv are correct (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(4) All are correct reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
11. If a0 is the bohr radius, then radius of singly
ionised helium ion for the n = 2 electronic orbit (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
will be : reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
(1) 4a 0 (2) 2 a 0
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(3) a 0 / 4 (4) a 0 /16 (4) If both assertion and reason are false
12. Why do we not use X-rays in the RADAR? 17. In a p-n junction :
(i) Because of high frequency i. Diffusion current is equal to drift current
when it is unbiased
(ii) They are absorbed by the air.
ii. Free charge carriers are available in
(iii) They are not reflected by the target.
depletion region
(1) (i) only (2) (i) and (iii)
iii. Holes and conduction electrons recombine
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii) continuously throughout the material.
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iv. Holes and conduction electrons recombine 20. An AND gate can be prepared by repetitive use
continuously throughout the material of :
except in the depletion region. i. NOT gate ii. OR gate
(1) Only i is correct
iii. NAND gate iv. NOR gate.
(2) i and iii are correct
Which is correct?
(3) ii and iv are correct (1) i and ii are correct
(4) i and iv are correct
(2) iii and iv are correct
18. In the network shown :
(3) i, ii and iv are correct
D1 (4) All are correct.
4 21. Given below are two statements :
Statement I: The temperature of a gas is –73oC.
D2 When the gas is heated to 527oC, the root mean
square speed of the molecules is doubled.
Statement II: The product of pressure and
volume of an ideal gas will be equal to
5V
translation kinetic energy of the molecules.
i. The potential difference across D2 is 5 V In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
ii. Current through resistor equals 1.25 A
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
iii. Current through diode D1 is 1.25 A
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
iv. Current through diode D2 is 1.25 A
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(1) i, ii (2) ii, iii
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is true
(3) ii, iv (4) i, iv
22. Match the Cp/Cv ratio for ideal gases with
19. The correct Boolean operation represented by
different type of molecules :
the circuit diagram drawn is :
Column-I Column-II
+6V
Molecule Type Cp/Cv
A. Monatomic I.7/5
A
LED Y B. Diatomic molecules (low tem.) II. 9/7
C. Diatomic molecules (higher temp.) III. 4/3
D. Triatomic molecules(Non linear) IV. 5/3
B
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(1) NAND (2) NOR
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) AND (4) OR
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

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23. An ideal gas in a closed container is slowly 28. In the given figure, a body of mass M is held
heated. As its temperature increases, which of between two massless springs, on a smooth
the following statements are true? inclined plane. The free ends of the spring are
attched to firm supports. If each spring has
1. The mean free path of the molecules
spring constant k, the frequency of oscillation
decreases
of given body is :
2. The mean collision time between the
molecule decreases
3. The mean free path remains unchanged
4. The mean collisi on time rema ins
unchanged
(1) 2 and 3 (2) 1 and 2
(3) 3 and 4 (4) 1 and 4
24. When a monoatomic gas is heated at constant
pressure then the fraction of heat that does work
against external pressure M 1 2k
(1) 2 (2)
2k 2 Mg sin 
2 3
(1) (2)
5 2
1 2k 1 k
(3) (4)
3 2 2 M 2 Mg sin 
(3) (4)
5 3 29. A bob of mass ‘m’ suspended by a thread of length
25. In an adiabatic process, the density of a diatomic l undergoes simple harmonic oscillations with
gas becomes 32 times to its initial value. The time period T. If the bob is immersed in a liquid
final pressure of the gas is found to be n times 1
the initial pressure. The value of n is : that has density times that of the bob and
4
(1) 32 (2) 326 the length of the thread is increased by 1/3rd
of the original length, then the time period of
1 the simple harmonic oscillations will be :-
(3) 128 (4)
32
3
26. The end correction of a resonance column is (1) T (2) T
2
1 cm. If the shortest length resonating with the
tuning fork is 10cm, the next resonating length 4
3
should be (3) T (4) T
4 3
(1) 32 cm (2) 40 cm
30. I n simple harmonic motion, the total
(3) 28 cm (4) 36 cm mechanical energy of given system is E. If mass
27. A string 2.0 m long and fixed at its ends is driven of oscillating particle P is doubled then the new
by a 240 Hz vibrator. The string vibrates in its energy of the system for same amplitude is:
third harmonic mode. The speed of the wave
and its fundamental frequency is :
(1) 180 m/s, 80 Hz (2) 320 m/s, 80 Hz
(3) 320 m/s, 120 Hz (4) 180 m/s, 120 Hz

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33. The equat ion of two light wave ar e

y1  A1 sin(2t) and y 2  A 2 cos (2t ) . What
6
will be the value of phase difference at time t.

K 3 2
(1) (2)
2 3


(3) (4) 
m P 3
34. In young’s experiment a plate of thickness “t”
E having retractive index  is placed in front of
(1) (2) E one slit. Find the minimum thickness fo plate
2
which will make the intensity at centre of
(3) E 2 (4) 2E screen zero.

31. one end of a thermally insulated rod is kept at 

a temperature T1 and the other at T2. The rod (1) (  1) (2) (  1)
2
is composed of two sections of length l1 and l2
and therm al conducti vities K 1 and K 2  
respectively. The temperature at the interface (3) (4)
2(  1)  1
of the two section is
35. Two polaroid are oriented in such a way that
their transmission axis make an angle of 30o
with each other the percentage of incident
unpolarised light transmitted is
(1) 37.5% (2) 25%
(3) 62.5% (4) 75%
(K1l1T1  K 2l 2 T2 ) (K 2l 2 T1  K1l1T2 )
(1) (K1l1  K 2l2 ) (2) (K1l1  K 2l2 ) 36. In a circuit alternating and direct current are
supplied together. The expr ession of
inst antaneous cur rent i s given as
(K 2l1T1  K1l2 T2 ) (K1l 2 T1  K 2l1T2 )
(3) (K 2l1  K1l2 ) (4) (K1l 2  K 2l1 ) I  3  6 sin(t  /3) . Then reading of hot wire
ammeter connected to circuit is
32. When 100 g of a liquid At 100oC is added to 50
(1) 3 (2) 6
g of a liquid B at temperature 75 o C, the
temperature of the mixture becomes 90oC. The (3) 3 3 (4) None of these
temperature of the mixture, if 100 g of liquid
A at 100oC is added to 50 g of liquid B at 50oC, 37. Which EM radiation has a role in lasik eye
will be : surgery
(1) 85oC (2) 60oC (1) U.V ray (2) X-ray
(3) 80oC (4) 70oC (3) Microwave (4) None
38. A lamp radiate power P 0 uniformly in all
direction. the amplitude of electric field
strength E0 at a distance “r” from it is.

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P0 P0 2L
(1) E0  2 (2) E0  42. The current in DC LR circuit in time t 
8 0 Cr 2 0 Cr 2 R
reduces hearly to
P0 P0 (1) 36.5% of maximum
(3) E0  2 (4) E0 
40 Cr 8 0 Cr 2
(2) 13.7% of maximum

39. Assertion: A glowing bulb become dim when an (3) 0.50% of maximum
iron rod is put in the inductor in an series AC (4) 36.1%of maximum
circuit.
43. The self inductance and resistance of coil are
Reason: Resistance of circuit increases 5H and 20 respectively on connecting with
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and a battery of voltage 100 volt. The magnetic
reason is the correct explanation of potential energy final stored in inductor coil will
assertion. be :-
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but (1) 62.5 J (2) 62.5 erg
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion (3) 62.5  103 J (4) Zero

(3) If assertion is true but reason is false 44. A straight long conductor carrying current I and
a loop closed by a sliding connector of resistance
(4) If both assertion and reason are false “R” lie in same plane. The connector slide with
40. In an AC circuit R  6 . XL  4 . XC  12 are a constant velocity v towards negligible. Then
induced current in loop as a function of distance
connected in series to an AC some of 100volt X from wire is
The average power dissipated in circuit will be
(1) 600 watt (2) 500 watt
(3) 400 watt (4) 1000 watt
41. Match the column.

 0 Il v  0 Il
(1) (2)
2x 2xR

 0 I lv  0 Il v
(3) (4)
2xR xR
45. Light from a hydrogen discharge tube is incident
on the cathode of a photoelectric cell. The work
fucntion of the cathode surface is 4.2eV. In order
(1) A–(p, r); B–(q, r); C–(p, q); D–(p, s) to reduce the photocurrent to zero, the voltage
of the cathode relative to the anode must be
(2) A–(p, s); B–(p, r); C–(q, s); D–(q, r) made
(3) A–(r, s); B–(p, r); C–(q, s); D–(q, r) (1) – 4.2 V (2) – 9.4 V
(3) – 17.8 V (4) + 9.4 V
(4) A–(q, s); B–(s, p); C–(p, r); D–(p, q)

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46. Select correct statement(s) 50. Match the items of column I and Column II
(1) When solid CaCl2 is added to liquid water, Column I Column II
the boiling point temperature rises
(A) Lead storage cell (1) High efficiency
(2) When solid CaCl2 is added to ice at 0°C the
feezing point temperature falls (B) Mercury cell (2) Prevented by
galvanisation
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(C) Fuel cell (3) Gives steady
(4) None of the above
potential
47. Match the following terms given in column I
(D) Rusting (4) Pb is anode, PbO2 is
with column II (vant Hoff factor approx)
cathode
Column I Column II
Codes
(A) KCl in water (1) 0.5
A B C D
(B) Ethanoic acid (2) 2.0
(1) 1 2 4 3
in benzene
(2) 2 4 1 3
(C) K2SO4 is water (3) 3.0
(3) 3 1 4 2
(D) C12H22O11 in water (4) 1.0
(4) 4 3 1 2
Codes
51. Which is a consistent set of values for a specific
(1) A – 2, B – 3, C – 1, D – 4 redox reaction carried out under standard
condition
(2) A – 1, B – 3, C – 2, D – 4
(3) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3, D – 4 E° G  Description

(4) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4 (1) + – Spontaneous

48. Assertion (A) : HClO4 is stronger acid than (2) – + Spontaneous
HClO3 . (3) + + non spontaneous
Reason (R) : oxidation state of Cl in HClO4 is (4) – – Non spontaneous
+ 7 and in HClO3 is + 5
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the corerct 1
52. Which plot of lnk Vs is consistent with
explanation of (A) T
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the Arrhenius equation ?
correct explnation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(1) (2)
49 Statement I : copper sulphate can be stored
in zinc vessel.
Statement – II : Zinc is less reactive than
copper
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(2) Statement is true, but Statement II is false (3) (4)
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are ture
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53. Match column I with Column II (1) 1 M CuSO4 solution and IM CuCl2 solution
Column – I (Rate) Column – II (Unit) (2) 1M KCl solution and 1M NaCl solution

(A) K NH3   (1) L1/2 mol 1/2S1 (3) 1M AgNO 3 solution and 1M Cu(NO 3 ) 2
solution
(B) K[H2O2 ][I ] (2) mol L1S1 (4) 1M KCl solution and 1M CuSO4 solution
3 58. If x is the specific resistance of the soltion and
(C) K[CH CHO]2 (3) S–1 M is the molarity of solution, the molar
3
conductivity of the solution is given by
(D) K[C2H5Cl] (4) L mol–1 s–1
1000 X 1000
Codes (1) (2)
M MX
A B C D
(1) 3 2 1 4 1000 M MX
(3) (4)
X 1000
(2) 2 4 1 3
59. The half life of two samples are 0.1 and 0.4
(3) 4 1 3 2
seconds their respective cencentration are 200
(4) 3 4 1 2 and 50 respectively. What is the order of
reaction.
54. Asesrtion (A) : Order can be different from
molecularity of reaction (1) 0 (2) 2
Reason (R) : Slowert step is rate determining (3) 1 (4) 4
step and may involves lesser number of
60. In a first order reaction, the concentration of
reactants
the reactant, decreases from 0.8 M to 0.4 M in
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (2) is not correct 15 minutes. The time taken for the
explanation of (A) concentration to change from 0.1 M to 0.025 M
is
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct
correct explanation of (A) (1) 30 min (2) 15 min
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) 7.5 min (4) 60 min
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true 61. What is the change in oxidation number of
carbon in the following reaction ?
55. A 5% solution of cane sugar ([Link] = 342) is
isotonic with 1% solution of a substance X. The CH4  4Cl2  CCl4  4HCl
molecular weight of “X” is
(1) + 4 to – 4 (2) 0 to + 4
(1) 34.2 (2) 171.2
(3) – 4 to + 4 (4) 0 to – 4 `
(3) 68.4 (4) 136.8
56. One molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of 62. What is the equivalent mass of IO3 when it is
solute, there is converted into I2 in acidic medium ?
(1) 500 g of solvent (2) 10 ml of solvent
M M
(3) 1000 g of solvent (4) 500 ml of solvent (1) (2)
8 5
57. Whi ch pair of electr olyte s could not be
distinguised by the product of electrolysis using M M
(3) (4)
inert electrodes 6 7
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63. Which of the following compound is not coloured 67. The electronic configuration of cerium is

(1) Na 2 [CuCl4 ] (2) Na 2 [CdCl 4 ] (1) [Xe]4f 0 5d1 6s 2 (2) [Xe]4f 1 5d1 6s 2

(3) K 4 [Fe(CN)6 ] (4) K 3 [Fe(CN)6 ] (3) [Xe]4f 2 5d 0 6s 2 (4) Both (2) and (3)
68. Which one of the following ions does not give
64. Arrange Ce 3 ,La 3 , Pm3 and Yb 3 in increasing
borax bead test ?
order of their ionic radii
(1) Zn2+ (2) Cu2+
(1) Yb 3
 Pm 3
 Ce 3
 La 3
(3) Mn2+ (4) Cr3+
(2) Ce3  Yb3  Pm3  La 3 69. Turnbull’s blue is

(3) Yb3  Pm3  La 3  Ce 3 (1) Ferricyanide

(2) Ferrous ferricyanide
(4) Pm3  La 3  Ce3  Yb3
(3) Ferrous cyanide
65. Match the following and select the correct
(4) Ferri ferrocyanide
option.
70. What happens when solution of KCl, KF and KBr
are treated with I2 ?
(1) Cl2 and Br2 are evolved
(2) Cl2 is evolved
(3) Cl2, F2 and Br2 are evolved
(4) None of these
71. A gas turns lime water milky and acidified
(1) A – (p); B – (q); C – (r); D – (s) K2Cr2O7 solution green. Then gas is
(2) A – (r); B – (p); C – (q); D – (s) (1) HCl (2) H2S
(3) A – (p); B – (s); C – (q); D – (r) (3) SO2 (4) CO2
(4) A – (r); B – (s); C – (q); D – (p) 72. A gas has smell like rotten egg and turns lead
66. Match the catalysts given in Column – I with acetate paper black. The gas is
the processes given in Column – II (1) NO2 (2) H2S
(3) CO2 (4) SO2
Column - I Column - II
73. Which of the following hydrides has the lowest
A. Ni in the presence of hydrogen p. Ziegler Natta catalyst
melting point ?
B. Cu2Cl2 q. Contact process
(1) NH3 (2) PH3
C. V2O5 r. Vegetable oil to ghee

D. Finely divided iron s. Sandmeyer reaction

(3) AsH3 (4) SbH3
E. TiCl4 + Al(CH3)3 t. Haber's Process 74. For H3PO3 , the correct choice is
(1) Dibasic and non – reducing
(1) A – (r), B – (s), C – (q), D – (t), E – (p)
(2) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (t), E – (r) (2) Dibasic and reducing
(3) A – (r), B – (q), C – (s), D – (p), E – (t) (3) Tribasic and reducing
(4) A – (p), B – (s), C – (q), D – (t), E – (r)
(4) Tribasic and non – reducing
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75. Strongest reducing agent of the following is (1) Acetylation reaction
(2) Schotten-Baumen reaction
(1) H2O (2) H2S
(3) Friedel-Craft’s reaction
(3) H2Se (4) H2Te (4) Perkin’s reaction
76. Bond dissociation energies of HF, HCl, HBr follow 80. The intermediate compound ‘X’ in the following
the order chemical reaction is :
(1) HCl > HBr > HF (2) HF > HBr > HCl
(3) HF > HCl > HBr (4) HBr > HCl > HF
77. In the preparation of compounds of Xe, Bartlett
had taken O2 [PtF6 ] as a base compound. This
is because
(1) both O2 and Xe have same size (1)
(2) both O2 and Xe have same electron gain
enthalpy
(3) both O2 and Xe have almost same ionisation (2)
enthalpy
(4) both Xe and O2 are gases
78. The correct statement regarding the basicity (3)
of arylamines is
(1) Arylamines are generally more basic than
alkylamines, because the nitrogen atom in (4)
arylamines is sp-hybridized
(2) Arylamines are generally less basic than
alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair 81. Match List-I with List-II
electrons are delocalized by interaction with
the aromatic ring  electron system
(3) Arylamines are generally more basic than List-I List-II
alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair
electrons are not delocalized by interaction a. i. Hell-
with the aromatic ring  electron system Volhard-
(4) Arylamines are generally more basic than Zelinsky

Co,HCl
 
alkylamines because of aryl group
Anhyd. AlCl3 /
CuCl reaction
b. ii. Gattermann-
79. The following reaction
Koch
+ reaction
NaOX 
c. R–CH2–OH + iii. Haloform
R’COOH reaction
Conc.H2 SO 4

d. R–CH2COOH iv. Esterification

(i)X2 /RedP
(ii)H2O

is known by the name

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Choose the correct answer from the options

given below.
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (3)
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
82. Reaction between acetone and
met hylmagnesium chlor ide followed by (4)
hydrolysis will give :
(1) Sec. butyl alcohol (2) Tert. butyl alcohol
(3) Isobutyl alcohol (4) Isopropyl alcohol NaOH,  ?
86. CH3CH2COO– Na  
Heat
 CH3 CH3  Na 2CO3
83. A tribasic acid is
(1) Oxalic acid (2) Tartaric acid Consider the above reaction and identify the
(3) Lactic acid (4) Citric acid missing reagent/chemical.
(1) DIBAL-H (2) B2H6
(3) Red Phosphorus (4) CaO
P2 O5
84.  A 

B 

C

C is
 A   B 
CO2 
87. 
NaOH H
C

(1) (2)
C is
(3) (4) CH 3 –CH3
85. The product formed in the following chemical
reaction is :
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

88. Which of the following reagent attack on the

benzene ring in Reimer-Teimann reaction ?
(1) (1) :CH2 (2) 
CCl2
(3) :CCl2 (4)
89. In the following reaction,
C6H5CH2Br 
[Link],Ether
2.H2O
 X,
the product ‘X’ is
(2) (1) C6H5CH2OCH2C6H5
(2) C6H5CH2OH
(3) C6H5CH3
(4) C6H5CH2CH2C6H5
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90. Which of the following reactions is an exampleof
nucleophilic substitution reaction ? Non-
Endospermic
endospermic
(1) 2 RX  2 Na  R – R  2 NaX seeds Perispermic
seeds
(Albuminous seeds
(Nonalbuminous
seeds)
(2) seeds)
Black pepper,
(1) Maize, Wheat Pea, Groundnut
Beet
(3) RX  Mg  RMgX Black pepper,
(2) Maize, Wheat Pea, Groundnut
(4) RX  KOH  ROH  KX Beet
Black pepper,
(3) Maize, Wheat Pea, Groundnut
91. Which of the following statements regarding Beet
Black pepper,
microsporogenesis is incorrect? (4) Pea, Groundnut Maize, Wheat
Beet
(1) As the anther developes, the cells of the
sporogenous tissue undergo mitotic 97. I. In most of the water pollinated species
divisions to form microspore tetrads. pollen grains are
(2) Each cell of the sporogenous tissue is a protected from wetting by a
potential pollen mother cell. ___(i)___.

(3) The microspores, as they are formed, are II. Pseudocopulation act for pollination is
arranged in a cluster of four cells - the performed by ____(ii)____ in ____(iii)____.
microspore tetrad. (1) (i) Sporopollenin (ii) wasp (iii) Ophrys
(4) As the anthers mature and dehydrate, the (2) (i) Sporopollenin (ii) Moth (iii) Ficus
microspores dissociate from each other and
develop into pollen grains. (3) (i) Mucilagenous sheath (ii) wasp (iii) Ophrys

92. One pollen mother cell may produce four (4) (i) Mucilagenous sheath (ii) Moth (iii) Ficus
germinating pollen grains, each with two male 98. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
nuclei and one tube nucleus. How many meiotic correct option from the codes given below.
divisions are necessary to bring this about?
Column-I Column-II
(1) Two (2) One
A. Tallest flower i. Maize
(3) Three (4) Four
B. Pronuba moth ii. Amorphophallus
93. If diploid chromosomes number in a flowering
plant is 12, then which one of the following will C. Anemophily iii. Salvia
have only 6 chromosomes? D. Entomophily iv. Yucca
(1) Endosperm (2) Leaf cells (1) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(3) Cotyledons (4) Synergids (2) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
94. The process of transfer of pollen grains from (3) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
anther to stigmatic surface of the flower with
the help of water is called- (4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

(1) Anemophily (2) Zoophily 99. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
correct option from the fiven codes.
(3) Hydrophily (4) Ornithophily
95. Aleurone layer in maize is present towards-
(1) Periphery of endosperms Column-I Column-II
Seed formation
(2) Periphery of scutellum A. Parthenocarpy i.
without fertilisation
(3) Periphery of coleoptiles
More than one
(4) Periphery of coleorhiza B. Polyembryony ii.
embryo in same seed
96. Which one of the following options gives the
correct categorisation of six plants according to Seedless fruits
C. Apomixis iii.
the type of seeds (A, B, C) they have? without fertilisation
Somatic Embryo develops
D. iv.
embryogenesis from a somatic cell

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A B C D N is a form of asexual reproduction that
xii.
(1) iv ii iii i mimics sexual reproduction.
(2) iii ii i iv Choose the correct option given below.
(3) i iv iii ii (1) A-Nuclear, D-Hypocotyl, G-Coleoptile, I-10-
(4) ii iii i iv 15
100. “In western countries a large number of _____ (2) C-Micropylar, F-Scutellum, J-Pericarp, K-
product in the form of tablets and _____ are Thalamus
available in marked. Their pollen consumption (3) B-Nuclear, C-Chalazal, E-Plumule, M-Dead
claimed to increase the _____ of athelete.” The sea
words to fill the blanks in sequential order are-
(4) A-Free nuclear, H-Pericarp, L-Arctic tundra,
(1) Pistil, syrup, power N-Amphimixis
(2) Stamen, food, sexual urge 102. ABO blood group in human beings are controlled
(3) Carpel, yoghurt, labido by the gene I. The gene I has three alleles-IA,IB
and i. How many phenotypes can occur?
(4) Pollen, syrup, performance
(1) Six (2) Two
101. Fill in the blanks
(3) Three (4) Four
i. The coconut water from tender coconut is
103. Mother and father of a person with ‘O’ blood
A endosperm and the surrounding white
group have ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group respectively.
kernel is B endosperm. What would be the genotype of both mother and
father?
ii. Embryo develops at the C end of the embryo
(1) Mother is homozygous for ‘A’ blood group
sac where zygote is situated.
and father is heterozygous for ‘B’
iii. The portion of embryonal axis above the
(2) Mother is homozygous for ‘A’ blood group
level of cotyledons is the D which and father is homozygous for ‘B’
terminates with the E or shoot tip. (3) Both mother and father are heterozygous
iv. Inthe grass family, the cotyledon is called for ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group, respectively
F that is situated towards one side of the (4) Both mother and father are homozygous for
embryonal axis. ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group, respectively

v. Epicotyl has a shoot apex and a few leaf 104. Which of the following characteristic represent
primordia enclosed in a hollow foliar ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in humans?
structure the G . A. Dominance

vi. In some seeds such as black pepper and B. Co-dominance

beet, the residual persistent nucellus is H . C. Multiple allele
vii. As the seed mature, it becomes relatively D. Incomplete dominance
dry and contain I % moisture by mass. E. Polygenic inheritance
(1) B, D and E (2) A, B and C
[Link] wall of the ovary develops into the wall
of fruit called J . (3) B, C and E (4) A, C and E
105. The unmodified (functioning) allele, which
ix. In a species like apple, cashew etc the K represents the original phenotype is the ___
allele and the modified allele is generally the
contributes to fruit formation which are
___ allele.
false fruits.
(1) Recessive, dominant
x. The oldest viable seed is that of lupinus
arcticus excavated from L . (2) Dominant, recessive
(3) Inherited, non inherited
xi. A 2000 years old viable seed phoenix
dactylifera was discovered at king herod’s (4) Non inherite, inherited
palace near M .
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106. The fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster was found

to be very suitable for experimental varification I
of chromosomal theory of inheritance by 1 2
morgan and his colleagues because-
(1) It reproduces parthenogenetically II
1 2 3 4
(2) A single mating produces two young flies
(3) Smaller female is easily recognizable from III
larger male 1 2 3 4 5
(4) It completes life cycle in about two weeks
I-2 II-3 III-1
107. A colourblind manmarries a daughter of normal
(1) aa Aa Aa
woman and colourblind man. The ratio of carrier
daughters, colourblind daughters, normal sons (2) aa AA AA
and colourblind sons born to this couple will be-
(3) Aa Aa Aa
(1) 1 : 0 : 1 : 0 (2) 2 : 1 : 1 : 2
(4) aa Aa aa
(3) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1
110. A person with unknown blood group under ABO
system, has suffered much blood loss in an
accident and needs immedi ate bl ood
108. A. transfusion. His own friend who has a valid
certificate of his own blood type, offers for blood
donation without delay. What would have been
the type of blood group of the donor friend?
(1) Type A (2) Type B
(3) Type AB (4) Type O
111. A homozygous recessive with cd genes was
crossed with dominant (++). If their hybrid is
test crossed and the following result was
obtained-

Tall stature
Short stature and
underdeveloped
++ –900
with feminised feminine character
character cd –880
B. C.
+d –115
+c –105
than what will be the distance between genes
c and d.
In above given figure, find out correct option for (1) 5.75 unit (2) 11 unit
A, B and C-
(3) 44 unit (4) 90 unit
(1) A-represents Down’s syndrome, B-
represents Klinefelter’s and C-represents 112. Four genes A, B, C and D located on chromosome
turner’s Syndrome and cross over frequencies between different
genes are-
(2) A-represents klinefelter’s, B-Down’s and
C-Turner’s syndrome A–D=20%, A–C=4%
(3) A-represents turner’s syndrome B- C–D=16%, B–C=9%
represents Down’s and C-represents A–B=5%
Klinefelter’s syndrome
Based on above data, what is the arrangement
(4) A-represents Klinefelter’s B- of linked gene on chromosome?
represents turner’s and C-represents
down’s syndrome (1) A – B – C – D (2) B – A – C – D
109. Fused ear lobes appear in the progeny due to (3) C – B – A – D (4) C – A – B – D
an autosomal recessive gene. Work out the
genotypes of members in the given pedigree.

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113. In this pedigree, if III–2 married to a normal 117. How many species got extinct in last 500 years
female, what will be the chances of first child according to IUCN data
being a diseased child? (1) 338 vertebrates (2) 349 invertebrates
(3) 77 plants (4) All of above
I
1 2 118. Match the following

II
1 2 3 4 5 6 Column-I Column-II
Joining of DNA
A. Helicase 1
III fragments
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 DNA dependent Polymerisation of
B. 2
DNA polymarase deoxynucleotides
(1) 25% (2) 50%
C. DNA ligase 3 Transcription
(3) 100% (4) 0% DNA dependent Unwinding of DNA
D. 4
114. Given pedigree (a) and (b) shows the inheritance RNA polymarase Helix
of a particular genetical disorder. Choose the
correct combination. A B C D
(1) 4 2 1 3
(2) 4 2 3 1

a. (3) 4 1 2 3
(4) 2 3 1 4
119. Select the correct statement from the following
regarding transcription-
A. In transcription only a segment of DNA and
only one of the strands is copied into RNA.
b. B. Terminator is located at upstream of the
structural gene.
C. Intervening sequences do appear in
(1) a – Sickle cell Anaemia, processed RNA.

b – Myotonic dystrophy D. In Bacteria, translation can begin much

before the mRNA is fully transcribed.
(2) a – Myotonic dystrophy,
(1) A and D (2) B and C
b – Sickle cell Anaemia
(3) A and C (4) B and D
(3) a – Pseudoricketes,
120. Match the column-I with column-II and select
b – Colourblindness the correct answer-
(4) a – Colourblindness, Column-I Column-II
b – Pseudoricketes A. Replication i. RNA  DNA
115. A segment of DNA molecule contains 20,000 B. Transcription ii. m-RNA  Protein
base pairs. What is the number of phosphate
molecule in this DNA molecule? C. Translation iii. DNA  mRNA

(1) 20,000 (2) 40,000 D. Reverse iv. DNA  DNA

(3) 10,000 (4) 5,000 transcription

116. In a segment of DNA molecule there are 200 E. Ribosome v. m-RNA + protein
molecules of adenine nitrogen bases and 200 vi. DNA + protein
molecules of cytosine nitrogen bases. What will
be the total number of purine nitrogen bases vii. t-RNA
in this segment? [Link] r-RNA
(1) 800 (2) 400 ix. sn-RNA + proteion
(3) 100 (4) 200 x. r-RNA + protein
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(1) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv, E – v (1) Temperature
(2) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – iv, E – vi (2) Temperature and water
(3) A – iii, B – iv, C – ii, D – i, E – vii (3) Temperature, water and light
(4) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i, E – x (4) Water only
127. Predators in nature are prudent, because-
121. 5' 3' P=Promoter
ATGCT (1) They keep prey population under control
T TACGA P
T=Terminator
3' 5' (2) They do not over exploit their prey
(3) They increase inter specific competition
The m-RNA produced by transcription of above among prey species
given DNA is-
(4) All of the above
(1) 5’ AUGCU 3’ (2) 5’ AGCAU 3’
128. The prickly pear cactus introduced into
(3) 3’ UCGUA 5’ (4) 5’ UACGA 3’ Australia in the early 1920’s caused havoc by
122. Amino acid leucine is coded by 6 triplet codons- spreading rapidly in to millions of hectares of
UUA, UUG, CUU, CUC, CUA and CUG. Which rangeland because-
of the following is most relevant for the (1) There is no competitor
statement given?
(2) Due to less intra specific competition
(1) Codes are non overlapping
(3) Absence of natural predator
(2) Degeneracy of code
(4) Availability of high nutrient
(3) Codes are commales
129. Two insect species were used in a laboratory
(4) Three adjacent nitrogen bases specifies one experiment. For one treatment both species
amino acid were grown by themselves (in separ ate
123. How many amino acid can be translated from chambers)on a suitable food source. For the
the given sequence of nucleotides in mRNA if second treatment, the two species were grown
6th nucleotide undergoes deletion? together (in the same chamber)on the same
type and amount of food as in the first treatment.
AUG UGC ACU AUA GCG UAA
The given figure shows the results (the number
(1) Two (2) One of individuals of each species in the two
(3) Four (4) Three treatments) at the end of the experiment. Based
on these results the two species should be
124. I n DNA fingerprinting, hybri dised DNA classified as-
fragments are detected by-
(1) Adding chilled ethanol
B
Nu mber of I ndividuals

(2) Adding X-gal A and B - Species

A B
(3) Adding H2O2
A
(4) Autoradiography
125. When population reaches carrying capacity?
(1) Mortality rate = Birth rate Growth together Growth alone

(2) Mortality rate > Birth rate

(1) Competitors (2) Predators
(3) Mortality rate < Birth rate
(3) Mutualism (4) Commensalism
(4) None of these
130. If 10 joules of energy is available at the producer
126. I. Snow leopards are not found in kerala level, then amount of energy present at the level
forests. of secondary consumers is-
II. Tuna fish are rarely caught beyond tropical (1) 10 J (2) 1 J
latitudes in the ocean.
(3) 0.1 J (4) 0.01 J
Which factor is/are responsible for it?
131. The best arrangement of an energy system
consisting of hawks, snakes, mice and grasses
is-
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(1) Grass  mice  snake  hawks ii. Tropics generally (latitudinal range of 23.5o
N to 23.5o S) harbour more species of animal
(2) Grass  snake  mice  hawks but less plant than temperate or polar areas.
(3) Grass  mice  hawks  snake iii. India, with much of its land area in the
(4) Mice  snake  hawks  grass temperate latitudes, has more than 1,200
species of birds.
132. The four pyramids (A, B, C and D) given below
represent four different type of ecosystem iv. A forest in a tropical region like equador
ecological pyramids, which one of these is has up to 10 times as less species of
correctly identified in the options given, along vascular plants as a forest of equal area in
with its correct ecosystem and type of pyramid? a temperate region.
v. Amazonian rain forest in south america is
TC T 3
4
home to more than 40,000 species of plants,
PC 21
SC T3 354000 3,000 of fishes, 1,300 of birds, 427 of
A. PC T2 708000 B. mammals, 427 of amphibians, 378 of
PP 4 reptiles and of more than 1,25,000
PP T1 584000
invertebrates.

TC T 10J TC T 1.5 kg vi. Constant environments promote niche

SC
4

100J SC
4

11 kg
specialisation and lead to a greater species
T3 T3
C. D. diversity.
PC T2 1000J PC T2 37 kg
PP T1 10,000J PP T1 809 kg (1) i, ii, iii and vi (2) ii, iii and iv

Type of pyramid Ecosystem (3) i, v and vi only (4) All of these

(1) A. Pyramid of number Tree ecosystem 136. Body is covered with fine hair, eye-lids separate
and eyelashes are formed by the end of :
(2) B. Pyramid of biomass Grassland (1) 24 weeks of pregnancy
(3) C. Pyramid of energy Grassland (2) 20 weeks of pregnancy
(3) 12 weeks of pregnancy
(4) D. Pyramid of number Tree ecosystem (4) 32 weeks of pregnancy
137. As a first step towards gene therapy, transgenic
133. A AA
AB AB lymphocyte was used. Which of the following
ABE AAB
ABC DC BF AAB genetic m aterial was used t o produce
EF E
CD AB transgenic cell using retroviral vector ?
A B C D (1) dsDNA (2) cDNA
(3) ssRNA (4) dsRNA
In above diagram four areas are given. In which
area has maximum and minimum species 138. Term “disarmed” means :
diversity respectively. (1) Removal of T-DNA from T plasmid
(2) Removal of pathogenic genes from
(1) Maximum = B, Minimum = D
retroviral genome
(2) Maximum = A, Minimum = D (3) Inactivation of antibiotic resistant genes
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Maximum = A, Minimum = B
139. Choose correct statement :
(4) Maximum = C, Minimum = D
(1) Mammals originated from Sauropsidan
134. How many example given below are the example ancestor
of in-situ conservation? (2) Dicotyledons originated from seed ferns
(3) Fer ns and coni fers originated f rom
Tissue culture, pollen bank, national park, Psilophyton ancestor
(4) Both (2) and (3) are correct
Biosphere reserve, Botanical garden
140. Choose incorrect match w.r.t convergent
(1) Three (2) Two evolution :
(1) Flying squirrel - Flying phalanger
(3) One (4) Five
(2) Anteater - Numbat
135. Which of the following is true about pattern of (3) Lemur - Spotted cuscus
biodiversity? (4) Sugar glider - Flying phalanger
i. In general, species diversity decreases as
we move away from the equator towards the
poles.
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141. At present ........ recombinant therapeutics have (2) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at identified
been approved globally and ....... of these are position within the DNA.
marketed in India. Fill the blanks : (3) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and
cuts only one of the two strands.
(1) 20, 10 (2) 30, 12 (4) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate
(3) 40, 15 (4) 30, 16 backbone at specific sites on each strand.
142. Restriction’ in Restriction enzyme refers to : 150. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments
(1) Cleaving of phosphodiester bond in DNA by can be visualized with the help of :
the enzyme (1) Acetocarmine in bright blue light
(2) Cutting of DNA at specific position only (2) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
(3) Prevention of t he multipli cation of (3) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
bacteriophage by the host bacteria (4) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
(4) All of the above
151. The size of 16 celled stage human embryo is :
143. Choose correct statement :
(1) To produce 101 spermatozoa, 26 (1) Two times larger than fertilized egg
spermatogonia are required (2) Four times larger than fertilized egg
(2) To produce 101 ova, 101 oogonia are (3) Same as the fertilized egg
required (4) Smaller than the fertilized egg
(3) To produce 100 zygotes 125 meiotic division 152. Which of the following hormones is functionally
are required similar of LH ?
(4) All of these (1) hCG (2) hPL
144. Oral contraceptive pills are taken orally for : (3) Progesterone (4) FSH
(1) 28 days : 1st day to 27th day of cycle 153. Which of the following is not the function of
(2) 21 days : 1st day to 20th day of cycle placenta ?
(3) 15 days : 7th day to 21st day of cycle (1) It acts as foetal lung
(4) 21 days : 5th day to 25th day of cycle (2) It acts as foetal liver
145. Read following statements w.r.t. Saheli and (3) It acts as foetal kidney
identify them as true (T) or false (F) : (4) It acts as barrier for passage of all
i. Non–steroidal preparation immunoglobulins
ii. “Once a week” pill 154. Statement A : Darwinian variations are random
iii. Low contraceptive value and directionless.
iv. Few side effects Statement B : Evolution is a directed process
v. Developed by Central Drug Research in the sense of determinism.
Institute, Varanasi (1) If both statements are correct
i ii iii iv v (2) If both statements are incorrect.
(1) T F T F T (3) If only statement A is correct.
(2) T F T T T (4) If only statement B is correct.
(3) T T T T T
(4) T T F T F 155. Male and female gametocytes in Plasmodium is
produced in :
146. Complications of STI may include : (1) Stomach of mosquito
(1) Still births (2) Salivary gland of mosquito
(2) Infertility (3) Liver cells of human
(3) Pelvic inflammatory diseases (4) RBC of human
(4) All of these
156. If any protein encoding gene is expressed in a
147. In vitro fertilization is followed by : ......... it is called a ....... Fill the blanks :
(1) ET (2) GIFT (1) Symbiotic host, synthetic protein
(3) ICSI (4) AI (2) Analogous host, synthetic protein
148. Polar bodies are produced during formation of: (3) Homologous host, artificial protein
(1) Oogonium (2) Primay oocyte (4) Heterologous host, recombinant protein
(3) Secondary oocyte (4) Both (2) and (3) 157. Read following statements (i to v) :
149. Foll owing statements describe the (i) Heroin is chemically diacetylmorphine.
characteristics of the enzyme restriction (ii) Morphine is extracted from the leaf of
endonuclease. Identify the incorrect statement. Papaver somniferum
(1) The enzyme recognises a specific (iii) Heroin is colourless crystalline compound
palindromic nucleotide sequence in the which is bitter in taste.
DNA. (iv) Heroin is a depressant.
(v) Opioid raceptors are present only in our CNS

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Choose the correct option : (3) Uptake of DNA through transient pores in
(1) i, ii, iii and iv are correct the bacterial cell wall
(2) ii and v are incorrect (4) Expression of antibiotic resistant gene
(3) i, iii and v are correct 165. Identify the wrong statement with regard to
(4) All statements are correct restriction enzymes.
158. Sel ect incorrect response w.r. t. cancer (1) Each restriction enzymes functions by
detection: inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
(2) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic
(1) CT uses X-rays to generate 3D image of sites.
internal organ. (3) They are useful in genetic engineering.
(2) MRI uses strong magnetic field and ionizing (4) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA
radiation to accurately detect pathological Ugases.
and physiological changes in the living
tissue. 166. Which of the following step is odd for primary
(3) Antibodies against cancer specific antigen treatement in STPs :
are also used for detection of certain cancer. (1) Floating debris is removed by sequential
(4) Biopsy is a process to study histological slide filteration
of a tumor (2) The grit are removed by sedimentation
(3) All solids that settle form the primary sludge
159. In 1963, two enzymes responsible for restricting and the supernatant form the effluent
the growth of bacteriophage in [Link] were (4) The primary effluent is passed in to
isolated. One of these added : secondary settling tank for flocs formation
(1) Methyl group to RNA
(2) Ethyl group to RNA 167. If pBR 322 is cut by Bam HI and then a foreign
(3) Methyl group to DNA gene is ligated by ligase then this plasmid will
(4) Ethyl group to DNA be :
(1) Sensitive for ampicillin and tetracycline
160. Choose incorrect match : (2) Sensitive for ampicillin but resistant for
(1) Passive immunity - Antibody of milk to tetracycline
infants. (3) Resistant for ampicillin and tetracycline
(2) Active immunity - Antibody produced due (4) Sensitive for tetracycline but resistant for
to immunization. ampicilline
(3) Passive immunity - Foetus receiving antibody
through placenta. 168. To get 1 billion copies of DNA; approximately how
(4) Active immunity - ATS providing immunity much cycles of PCR will be required :
against tetanus. (1) 20 cycles (2) 30 cycles
(3) 70 cycles (4) 100 cycles
161. How many of the following organs act as
secondary lymphoid organ ? 169. Statement A : Adaptive ability is inherited.
Spleen, Thymus, Bone marrow, Lymph nodes, Statement B : It has genetic basis.
Tonsils, Appendix, Peyer’s patches, mucosa of (1) If both statements are correct
urinogenital tract. (2) If both statements are incorrect.
(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) If only statement A is correct.
(3) 4 (4) 7 (4) If only statement B is correct.

162. For how many of the following diseases 170. In the periodic abstinence method, the couple
interferon is produced in our body ? should refrain from intercourse :
Measles, TB, Tetanus, Dengue, Chikungunya, (1) One day before and after ovulation
Diphtheria, Chicken pox (2) Two days before and after ovulation
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) Three days before and after ovulation
(3) 5 (4) 2 (4) Five days before and after ovulation

163. To inactivate tetR gene in pBR 322 which of the 171. Choose correct statement w.r.t. assisted
following enzymes can’t be used ? reproductive technologies :
(1) Bam HI (2) Sal I (1) IVF is followed by ET
(3) Pst I (4) Both (1) and (2) (2) Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is
placed in uterus in the process called IUT.
164. Significance of ‘heat shock’ method in bacterial (3) Semen can be introduced directly into
transformation is to facilitate : uterus
(1) Binding of DNA to the cell wall
(2) Uptake of DNA through membrane transport (4) All of these
proteins

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 AIIMS
FLASH _ 10.05.2019
BACK - II [18.03.2025] SPOT TEST
172. Pre-historic cave art developed about : 177. Match the column-
(1) 12000 years ago (2) 10000 years ago
(3) 18000 years ago (4) 22000 years ago Column-I Column-II Column-III
(i) Lactobacillus (a) (1) Curd
173. Choose incor rect statement wrt RNA Saccharomyces
interferance: cerevisiae
(1) Takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as (ii) (b) Dough (2)
a method of cellular defence Propionibacterium Production of
(2) Involves silencing of a specific mRNA due shermanii CO2
to complementary dsRNA (iii) Dosa and Idli (c) Large holes (3) Swiss
cheese
(3) The source of complementary RNA could be
(iv) Baker yeast (d) Milk (4) Bread
from RNA virus of transposons
(4) It prevents transcription of mRNA
(1) i-d-1, ii-c-3, iii-b-2, iv-a-4
174. Which of the following statement is incorrect (2) i-d-1, ii-c-2, iii-b-3, iv-a-4
about mi- crobes as biocontrol agents : (3) i-d-3, ii-c-2, iii-b-2, iv-a-4
A. Biocontrol refers to the use of physio- (4) i-d-3, ii-c-3, iii-b-2, iv-a-4
chemical methods for controlling plant
178. Which of the following is not an example of
diseases & pests.
analogous organ ?
B. The soil remains unpolluted after our use
(1) Flipper of penguin and fliper of dolphin
of weedicides to remove weeds.
(2) Eye of Octopus and eye of vertebrates
C. In agriculture, there is a method of
(3) Wing of birds and wing of insects
controlling pests that relies on natural
(4) Wing of bat and leg of cheetah
predation rather than introduced
chemicals. 179. If M and N alleles are for MN blood groups and
the frequency of M allele is 20% then the
(1) A & B (2) B & C
frequency of individuals with MN blood group will
(3) C & A (4) A, B & C
be :
175. Bioactive molecule cyclosporin A is used :
(1) 4% (2) 16%
(1) To remove clots from blood vessels
(3) 32% (4) 64%
(2) As blood-cholesterol lowering agent
(3) As fungicide 180. Which of the following events are correct for
(4) As immunosuppressive agent biogas pro- duction :
A. Microbes produce same types of gaseous end
176. Choose incorrect statement :
products during growth and metabolism.
(1) Single step large mutation was called as
B. The gas produced depends upon the
saltation by Hugo de Vries
microbes only.
(2) Gene frequency of population remains
C. Certain bacteria, which grow anaerobically
unchanged in absence of natural selection,
on cellulose material, produce large
mutation and gene flow
amount of methane only.
(3) Change in frequency of all eles in a
(1) A & B are incorrect, C is correct
population results in evolution
(2) B & C are correct
(4) Gene frequency of a large randomly mating
(3) A, B & C are incorrect
population changes rapidly as compared to
(4) All are correct
that of small and non-randomly mating
population.

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