C.

T Assignment

1. Ideal gas law is best obeyed by gases at

a. Low pressure, high temperature b. High pressure, low temperature
c. Low pressure, low temperature d. High pressure
2. Second law of thermodynamics is concerned with
a. Amount of energy transferred b. Direction of energy transferred
c. Irreversible processes only d. Non-cyclic processes only
3. Degrees of freedom at triple point will be
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
4. Pick out the extensive property out of the following
a. Surface tension b. Free energy c. Specific heat d. Refractive index
5. Screen efficiency is
a. Recovery/ rejection b. Recovery c. Rejection d. None of these
6. Which equipment is used for solid-liquid separation using a porous medium?
A) Centrifuge B) Filter press C) Cyclone separator D) Distillation column
Answer: B) Filter press
7. The Murphree efficiency is associated with:
A) Distillation B) Absorption C) Filtration D) Drying
Answer: A) Distillation
8. The Schmidt number relates which two properties?
A) Momentum diffusivity and thermal diffusivity B) Momentum diffusivity and mass diffusivity
C) Thermal diffusivity and mass diffusivity D) Viscosity and density
Answer: B) Momentum diffusivity and mass diffusivity
9. Which pump is ideal for high-viscosity fluids?
A) Centrifugal pump B) Reciprocating pump C) Gear pump D) Diaphragm pump
Answer: C) Gear pump
10. Fluidized beds are used in:
A) Drying of granules B) Catalytic cracking C) Combustion of coal D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
11. The loss due to sudden contraction is proportional to
a. Velocity b. Velocity head c. Turbulence d. None of these
12. Newton’s law of viscosity relates
a. Shear stress and velocity b. Velocity gradient and pressure intensity
c. Shear stress and rate of angular deformation d. Pressure gradient and rate of angular
deformation
13. Pressure drop in fluidized bed reactor is _____ that in a similar packed bed reactor
a. Less than b. More than c. Same as d. None of these
14. Unit of mass velocity is
a. Kg/[Link] b. Kg/m².hr c. Kg/hr d. Kg/m²
15. Cavitation occurs in a centrifugal pump when the suction pressure is
a. Equal to the developed head b. Greater than the vapour pressure of the liquid at that temperature
c. Equal to the vapor pressure d. Less than the vapor pressure of the liquid at that temperature
16. A CSTR (Continuous Stirred-Tank Reactor) operates under:
A) Steady-state conditions B) Unsteady-state conditions C) Batch mode D) Plug flow
Answer: A) Steady-state conditions
17. Which catalyst is used in steam reforming of methane?
A) Iron B) Nickel C) Vanadium pentoxide D) Platinum
Answer: B) Nickel
18. The Thiele modulus is used to analyze:
A) Reaction kinetics B) Diffusion limitations in catalysts
 C) Heat transfer in reactors D) Mass transfer coefficients
Answer: B) Diffusion limitations in catalysts
19. Which reactor is best for highly exothermic reactions?
A) Fixed bed reactor B) Fluidized bed reactor C) Tubular reactor D) Batch reactor
Answer: B) Fluidized bed reactor
20. The catalytic cracking of petroleum uses which catalyst?
A) Zeolites B) Iron oxide C) Palladium D) Silica gel
Answer: A) Zeolites
21. CaCO₃ contains ____ percent of Ca by weight
a. 40 b. 48 c. 96 d. 12
22. A limiting reactant is the one which decides the ____ in a chemical reaction
a. Equilibrium constant b. Conversion c. Rate constant d. None of these
23. Fugacity and pressure are numerically equal when the gas is
a. In standard state b. In ideal state c. At low temperature d. At high pressure
24. Number of gm moles of solute dissolved in 1 litre of a solution is called its
a. Equivalent weight b. Molality c. Molarity d. Normality
25. Number of gm moles of solute dissolved in 1Kg of solvent is called its
a. Molality b. Molarity c. Normality d. Formality
26. With the increase in temperature, the heat capacity of a substance
a. Increases b. Decreases c. Remains unchanged d. Depends on the substance
27. The velocity profile for turbulent flow through a closed conduit is
a. Logarithmic b. Parabolic c. Hyperbolic d. Linear
28. In a fluidized bed reactor
a. Temperature is more or less uniform b. Temperature gradients are very high
c. Hot spots are formed d. Segregation of the solids occurs
29. A vapor whose partial pressure is less than its equilibrium vapor pressure is called a____vapor
a. Saturated b. Supersaturated c. Superheated d. Sub-cooled
30. For sizing of fine materials, the most suitable equipment is a
a. Trammel b. Grizzly c. Shaking screen d. Vibrating screen
31. The primary product of Fischer-Tropsch synthesis is:
A) Methanol
B) Synthetic diesel
C) Ethylene
D) Ammonia
Answer: B) Synthetic diesel
32. Which polymer is thermosetting?
A) Polyethylene
B) PVC
C) Bakelite
D) Nylon
Answer: C) Bakelite
33. The monomer of polypropylene is:
A) Ethylene
B) Propylene
C) Styrene
D) Vinyl chloride
Answer: B) Propylene
34. In catalytic reforming, the main reaction is:
A) Isomerization
B) Dehydrogenation
C) Cracking
 D) Polymerization
Answer: A) Isomerization
35. Which process produces synthetic rubber?
A) Ziegler-Natta polymerization
B) Free-radical polymerization
C) Condensation polymerization
D) Anionic polymerization
Answer: A) Ziegler-Natta polymerization
36. Which is most suitable for transportation of sticky material
c. Screw conveyor
a. Apron conveyor
b. Belt conveyor
d. Pneumatic conveyor
37. Ball mill is used for
c. Fine grinding
a. Crushing
b. Coarse grinding
d. Attrition
38. As particle size is reduced
a. Screening becomes progressively more difficult
b. Screening becomes progressively easier
c. Capacity and effectiveness of screen is increased
d. Capacity & effectiveness of screen is decreased
39. Viscosity of gases ____ with increase in temperature
b. Increases slowly
a. Increases very rapidly
c. Decreases slowly
d. Remains unaffected
40. Heat transfer co-efficient for liquid increases with
b. Increase in temperature
a. Decrease in temperature
c. Decrease in Reynolds number
d. Increase in pressure
41. Dropwise condensation occurs on ____ surfaces
c. Contaminated and cooling
a. Clean and dirt free
b. Smooth and clean
d. Polished
42. The number of Kg vaporized per Kg of steam fed to the evaporator is defined as
c. Economy
a. Capacity
b. Rate of evaporation
d. Rate of vaporization
43. The scrubbing of flue gases removes:
A) CO₂
B) SOₓ
C) NOₓ
D) Both B and C
Answer: D) Both B and C
44. The BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) test measures:
A) Organic pollutant levels in water
B) Inorganic salt content
 C) Heavy metal concentration
D) Dissolved oxygen
Answer: A) Organic pollutant levels in water
45. Which gas is a greenhouse gas?
A) O₂
B) N₂
C) CH₄
D) Ar
Answer: C) CH₄
46. The Kyoto Protocol aims to reduce emissions of:
A) CFCs
B) CO₂
C) SO₂
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
47. A flame arrester prevents:
A) Overheating
B) Flashback
C) Corrosion
D) Catalyst poisoning
Answer: B) Flashback
48. Multiple effect evaporators are used to
b. Increase the steam economy & the capacity
a. Increase the steam economy & decrease the capacity
c. Decrease the steam economy & the capacity
d. Decrease steam economy & increase capacity
49. Baffles are provided in heat exchangers to increase the
c. Heat transfer coefficient
a. Fouling factor
b. Heat transfer area
d. Heat transfer rate
50. Finned tube heat exchangers
a. Give larger area per tube
b. Use metal fins of low thermal conductivity
c. Facilitate very large temperature drop through tube wall
d. Are used for smaller heat load
51. As the reflux ratio in a continuous counter current extraction is increased, the number of
stages
b. Decrease
a. Increase
c. Remains unchanged
d. Can either increase/decrease depending on system
52. Flooding results in
b. Low tray efficiency
a. High tray efficiency
c. High gas velocity
d. Good contact between the fluids
53. Very tall packed towers are divided into series of beds to
b. Avoid channelling
a. Reduce the overall pressure drop
c. Reduce liquid hold-up
d. Avoid flooding
54. Reactions with high activation energy are
a. Highly temperature sensitive
b. Temperature insensitive
c. Always irreversible
d. Always reversible
55. With decrease in temperature, the equilibrium conversion of a reversible endothermic reaction
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Remains unaffected
d. Increases linearly with temperature
56. Which of the following is a characteristic of an ideal PFR
b. Flat velocity profile
a. Axial dispersion
c. Uniform mixing
d. Radial dispersion
57. A batch reactor is
b. Suitable for liquid phase reactions involving small production rate
a. Suitable for gas phase reactions on a commercial scale
c. Least expensive to operate for a given rate
d. Most suitable for very large production rate
58. Which of the following is the most suitable for very high pressure gas-phase reactions
b. Tubular flow reactor
a. Batch reactor
c. Stirred tank reactor
d. Fluidized bed reactor
59. Catalyst carriers
c. Provide large surface area with a small amount of active material
a. Have very high selectivity
b. Increase the activity of a catalyst
d. Inhibit catalyst poisoning
60. The rate constant of a chemical reaction decreases by decreasing the
c. Temperature
a. Pressure
b. Concentration of reactants
d. Duration of reaction
61. The Claus process is used to produce:
A) Sulfuric acid
B) Elemental sulfur
C) Ammonia
D) Urea
Answer: B) Elemental sulfur
62. The primary feedstock for urea production is:
A) Ammonia and CO₂
B) Methane and water
C) Nitric acid and ammonia
D) Sulfur and oxygen
Answer: A) Ammonia and CO₂
63. Which fertilizer has the highest nitrogen content?
A) Urea
B) Ammonium nitrate
C) Ammonium sulfate
 D) Calcium nitrate
Answer: A) Urea
64. The Haber process operates at a pressure of:
A) 1–10 atm
B) 100–250 atm
C) 500–600 atm
D) 1000 atm
Answer: B) 100–250 atm
65. Linde’s process is used for:
A) Ammonia synthesis
B) Air liquefaction
C) Sulfuric acid production
D) Polymerization
Answer: B) Air liquefaction
66. The octane number measures:
A) Diesel quality
B) Gasoline knock resistance
C) Coal calorific value
D) Jet fuel viscosity
Answer: B) Gasoline knock resistance
67. Which fuel has the highest calorific value?
A) Coal
B) Natural gas
C) Diesel
D) Kerosene
Answer: B) Natural gas
68. The Cetane number is associated with:
A) Gasoline
B) Diesel
C) LPG
D) Jet fuel
Answer: B) Diesel
69. Incomplete combustion of hydrocarbons produces:
A) CO₂
B) CO
C) H₂O
D) NOₓ
Answer: B) CO
70. Which additive improves gasoline octane rating?
A) Tetraethyl lead
B) Ethanol
C) Both A and B
D) Sulfur
Answer: C) Both A and B
71. The Monod equation describes:
A) Enzyme kinetics
B) Microbial growth
C) Heat transfer
D) Mass transfer
Answer: B) Microbial growth
72. Which microorganism is used in ethanol production?
A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
 B) E. coli
C) Lactobacillus
D) Aspergillus niger
Answer: A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
73. Downstream processing includes:
A) Fermentation
B) Cell disruption
C) Product purification
D) Both B and C
Answer: D) Both B and C
74. The Michaelis-Menten constant (��Km) represents:
A) Enzyme-substrate affinity
B) Inhibitor concentration
C) Reaction rate
D) pH optimum
Answer: A) Enzyme-substrate affinity
75. Batch fermentation is suitable for:
A) High-volume products
B) Lab-scale antibiotic production
C) Continuous ethanol synthesis
D) None of the above
Answer: B) Lab-scale antibiotic production
76. Stainless steel contains chromium to:
A) Increase hardness
B) Prevent corrosion
C) Improve ductility
D) Reduce weight
Answer: B) Prevent corrosion
77. Galvanic corrosion occurs due to:
A) High temperature
B) Electrochemical potential difference
C) Acidic environment
D) Mechanical stress
Answer: B) Electrochemical potential difference
78. Which material is used in cryogenic applications?
A) PVC
B) Teflon
C) Stainless steel
D) Rubber
Answer: C) Stainless steel
79. The passivation of metals involves:
A) Coating with oil
B) Forming an oxide layer
C) Electroplating
D) Heat treatment
Answer: B) Forming an oxide layer
80. Stress corrosion cracking is caused by:
A) High pH
B) Combined tensile stress and corrosive environment
C) High pressure
D) Low temperature
Answer: B) Combined tensile stress and corrosive environment
81. A PID controller adjusts:
A) Pressure, Integral, Derivative
B) Proportional, Integral, Derivative
C) Process, Input, Delay
D) None of the above
Answer: B) Proportional, Integral, Derivative
82. A thermocouple measures:
A) Pressure
B) Temperature
C) Flow rate
D) pH
Answer: B) Temperature
83. The Bourdon tube is used to measure:
A) Temperature
B) Pressure
C) Level
D) Viscosity
Answer: B) Pressure
84. A control valve is characterized by its:
A) Cv (Valve coefficient)
B) Reynolds number
C) Schmidt number
D) Froude number
Answer: A) Cv (Valve coefficient)
85. Feedforward control is used to:
A) Correct errors after they occur
B) Anticipate disturbances
C) Adjust setpoints
D) None of the above
Answer: B) Anticipate disturbances
86. The Siemens process is used to produce:
A) Sulfuric acid B) High-purity silicon C) Ammonia D) PVC
Answer: B) High-purity silicon
87. Green chemistry emphasizes:
A) Waste minimization
B) Use of renewable resources
C) Non-toxic solvents
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
88. Nanotechnology in catalysis enhances:
A) Surface area B) Reactor size C) Temperature resistance D) Pressure tolerance
Answer: A) Surface area
89. The Le Chatelier’s principle is applied in:
A) Reaction equilibrium B) Distillation C) Filtration
D) Drying
Answer: A) Reaction equilibrium
90. Which process is not part of petroleum refining?
A) Cracking
B) Reforming
C) Fermentation
D) Alkylation
Answer: C) Fermentation