KCSE PHYSICS TOPICAL QUESTIONS GOLDLITE ONLINE SERVICES

FORM ONE PHYSICS TOPICAL QUESTION

CELLS AND SIMPLE CIRCUITS QUESTIONS

1. A form two student from Kimomo Secondary School found his dry cells leaking on removing from his
torch. What would be the possible cause of the leakage (2 marks)

2. Figure 3 shows a set up of a simple cell.

Bulb
Figure 3

Zinc
A
B

(a) Name the electrode A and electrolyte B. (2marks)

(b) State two reasons why the bulb goes off a short time. (2marks)
(c) Give one method of minimizing the defect that occurs in plate A. (1mark)

3. State one advantage of a lead acid accumulator over nickel-iron accumulator. (1 mark)

4. State one defect of a simple cell and explain how it can be minimized. (2 marks)

5. Figure 2 below shows two identical bulbs connected in two circuits. The cells are of the same e.m.f.

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Compare the brightness of the bulbs in (a) and (b). (1mk)

6. Describe two defects in simple cells and ways in which they can be minimized.
(2mk)

7. State the purpose of manganese (IV) oxide in a dry cell. (1 mark)

8. Figure 1 shows a circuit contains a battery of cells V, a 3A fuse, F, a switch S, and two identical lamps
L1 and L2. A current of 2A flows through lamp L2 when the switch is open.

Figure 1
Explain why the fuse may blow when the switch is closed. (2mks)

9. State the major difference between a dry cell and a wet cell. (1mk)

10. Give a reason why it is necessary to leave the caps of the cells open when charging an accumulator. (1
Mk)

11. Explain why the e.m.f of a dry cell drops if a large current is drawn for a short time and then recovers if
allowed to rest. (2marks)

12. In large current circuits large resistors in parallel are preferred to low resistors in series. Explain. (2mks)

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13. Explain how polarization reduce current in a simple cell. (1 mark)

14. The figure below shows a dry cell.

X

Powdered carbon
+
Manganese (iv) Oxide

Ammonium
Chloride paste

Name the parts X and Y

State the function of the powdered carbon and manganese (IV) oxide. (2 marks)

15. A student making a simple cell in the laboratory realised that the current quickly falls to a very small value.
State a possible cause for this. (1 mark)

16. State how polarization is reduced in wet Leclanche cell (1 mark)

17. Give a reason why it is not advisable to smoke a cigarette near a charging battery. (1 mark)

18. A certain car battery is rated 30Ah. Determine the amount of current it can supply in 10 minutes.

19. How much current is taken by a bulb rated 100w, 250V. (2 marks)

20.

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ELECTROSTATICS QUESTIONS

21. The figure 3 below shows a positively charged metal plate with an earthing connection. Using an arrow,
show the direction of charges through the earth connection and explain the final charge of the plate.
(2 marks)
+++++++++++++++++
Metal plate
+++++++++++++++++
+++++++

22. Give a reason why a candle flame is blown when a highly charged conductor is brought close to it as
shown in Figure 9. (2marks)

Figure 9
++++++
++++++
Highly charged conductor

Flame

Candle

23. A negatively charged polythene rod is placed on a pan of electric balance. State and explain what
happens to the balance reading if a positively charged glass rod is brought closer to the polythene rod.
(2 marks)

24. In figure 15 below, a sharp pin is fixed on a cap of a leaf of electroscope. The electroscope is highly
charged and then left for some time.
Fig. 15 Sharp pin

Charged electroscope

State and explain the observation made after sometime. (2marks)

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25. Draw the electric field pattern in figure 3 (3 marks)

Figure 3 +
+

26. Figure 1 below shows a negatively charged particle close to a positively charged plate.

Draw the electric field pattern. (2mks)

27. Describe how you would charge a gold leaf electroscope by induction method
(2mks

28. It is observed that when a rod A is brought near the cap of a negatively charged electroscope, the
divergence of the leaf decreases. State two deductions that can be made about rod A from this
observation. (2 marks)
29. A positively charged rod is brought close to the cap of a gold leaf electroscope, it is observed that the
gold leaf diverged further. Explain this observation.
(2mks)

30. A positively charged rod is brought close to two spheres A and B, held by insulating handles as shown
below.

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Indicate the charge on A and B (2 marks)

31. Figure 5 shows two charged identical conducting spheres on insulating stands. Each cross represents a
charge. The spheres are briefly brought into contact.

Figure 5
Sketch in the space provided the diagrams of the spheres showing charge distribution after separating.
(2mks)

32. An uncharged metal rod brought close but not touching the cap of a charged electroscope causes a
decrease in the divergence of the leaf. Explain. (1 mark)

33. When the cup of an uncharged electroscope is irradiated with light of high frequency the leaf of the
electroscope rises. Explain this observation. (3 marks)

34. Explain with the aid of diagrams how you can charge an electroscope negatively by induction method.
(3 marks)

35. i) State the basic law of electrostatics. (1 mark)

ii) In testing for the sign of charge on a body, explain the behaviour of a positively charged electroscope when
charged bodies are brought closer to the electroscope. (2 marks)

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36. The figure below shows a highly positively charged rod being moved slowly downwards towards the cap
of a negatively charged leaf electroscope. It is observed that the leaf initially falls then rises.

Explain this observation. (2 marks)

37. The figure below shows two spherical materials, one an insulation conductor and the other a conductor.
Negative charges are introduced at point A in each case.

On the same figure indicate the final position of the charges. Explain your answer. (2 marks)

38. Figure 1 show a method used to charge conductors. The procedure follows steps a, b and c

Fig
i)State the method of charging above. (1 mark)
ii) Explain what happens in step (b) above. (1 mark)

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QUESTIONS ON FORCE

1. The figure 2 below shows a match stick floating on the surface of water in a basin,

Fig. 2
When a drop of soap solution was carefully added to the water at A, the match stick is observed to move
in a certain direction. State the direction of this match using A and B and explain this observation.(2mks)

2. The figures a and b below shows capillary tubes inserted in water and mercury respectively.

Capillary
tubes

Water Mercury

(a) (b)
It is observed that in water, the Meniscus in the capillary tube is higher than in the beaker, while in
mercury, the Meniscus in the capillary tube is lower than the meniscus in the beaker. Explain these
observations. (2 marks)

THERMAL EXPANSION AND HEAT TRANSFER QUESTIONS

Specific Objectives
➢ Temperature
➢ Thermometers:
- liquid - in - glass,
- clinical,
- six’s maximum and minim
➢ Expansion of solids, liquids and gases
➢ Effects of expansion and contraction
➢ Unusual expansion of water (Anomalous expansion)

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➢ Applications of thermal expansion include Bimetallic strip

HEAT TRANSFER
Specific Objectives
➢ Heat and temperature
➢ Modes of heat transfer
➢ Factors affecting heat transfer (experimental treatment required)
➢ Applications of heat transfer on:
- Vacuum flask,
- Domestic hot-water system,
- Solar concentrators
1. An electric kettle with shiny outer surface is more efficient than one with a dull outer surface, give a reason
for this. (1 mark)

2. (a) A student obtained ice at 0oCfrom a refrigerator and placed it in a beaker on a bench. After 4 minutes,
the temperature rose to
4oC. State the changes that would be observed in the water in terms of;
(i) density (1 mark)
(ii) mass (1 mark)
(ii) volume (1 mark)

3. A faulty thermometer reads 2oC when dipped in ice at 0oC and 95oC when dipped in steam at 100oC. What
would this thermometer read if placed in water at room temperature at 18 oC? (3 marks)

4. In a clinical thermometer state how the thermometer can be made.

(1marks)
a) Move sensitive
b) Quick acting

5. The figure below shows a flat bottomed flask containing some water. It is heated directly with a very
hot flame

Flask

Water

Hot flame

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Explain why the flask is likely to crack

(2marks)

6. In a faulty mercury-in-glass thermometer it was found that the mercury level stands at 2 cm mark in
the tube at 00C and 20cm when in steam above boiling point water at normal atmospheric pressure.
Calculate the temperature when the mercury stands at 13cm mark. (2
marks)

7. Figure 2 shows a flask filled with water. The flask is fitted with a cork through which a tube is
inserted. When the flask is cooled, the water level rises slightly, and then falls steadily.

Explain this observation. (3mks)

8. Explain why copper is a better conductor of heat than iron. (1mk)

9. A faulty thermometer reads 20C when dipped in ice a 00C and 950C when dipped in steam at 1000C.
what would this thermometer red if placed in water at room temperature of 18 0C? (3 marks)

10. Sauce pans have a plastic or wooden handles. It is observed that in the morning the pan feels colder
than the wooden handle. Explain the difference in this observation. (2
marks)

11. In the set up shown below, it is observed that the level of the water initially rises before starting to
drop when the flask is dipped in ice cold water.
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Glass tube Water level

Cork

Coloured water

Glass flask

Explain this observation. (2mks)

12. When a Bunsen burner is lit below wire gauze, it is noted that the flame initially burns below the
gauze as shown in Figure (i). After sometime, the flame burns below as well as above the gauze as
shown in Figure (ii).

Explain this observation.

13. Explain why a thick glass is more likely to break when hot water is poured on it than thin glass.
(2mks)

14. The figure below shows two identical burning splints. Placed on wood and metal blocks respectively
it was observed that when the flame reached the edge of the metal block the splint was extinguished
while the other on the wooden block continued to burn. Explain this observation.
(1mk)

15. Give a reason why water is not a suitable liquid for use in a barometer.
(2mks)
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16. (a) State two factors that affects conductivity in metals. (2mks)
(b) You are provided with a metallic ball, a metallic ring and a source of heat. Describe how you
would show that solids expand.
(3mks)
(c) Figure below shows how water expands from lower temperatures.

0 4 Temperature (0C)
On the axes below sketch a graph of density against temperature.

Temperature 0C
(d) Explain briefly why concrete walls are reinforced with steel and not other metals. (1mk)

17. Explain how heat loss by ;

(i) Radiation is minimized in a vacuum flask. (1 Mk

(ii) Conduction is minimized in a vacuum flask. (1 Mk)

18. Explain why it is sometimes easier to remove a metallic lid from a tightly closed glass jar after
warming it under hot running water.
(2mks)

19. Heat transfer by radiation is faster than heat transfer by conduction. Explain. (2mks)
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20. Some candle wax is placed at one end of each of the aluminium rods with different thickness. The
rods are than heated in a candle flame as shown in the figure below.

State and explain the observation made. (2mks)

MEASUREMENTS QUESTIONS
4. A micrometer screw gauge has a zero error of -0.02mm. It is used to measure the diameter of a wire. If the
actual diameter of the wire is 0.28mm. Draw the micrometer screw gauge showing the diameter of the
wire. (2 marks)

5. The diagram below shows a micrometer screw gauge. What is the reading in SI units? (2 marks)

6. What is the reading on the Vernier caliper shown in figure 1 below? (1mark)

0 10

cm

0 1 2 3

7. State the name of the instrument used to take the following readings;
(i) 10 kg (1 mark)
(ii) 0.00245m (1 mark)

8. A micrometer screw gauge which had an error of +0.02mm was used to measure the diameter of a spherical
marble. If the actual diameter was 3.67mm, draw a micrometer screw gauge showing its reading. (2
marks)

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9. Figure 1 below shows a burette that was initially filled to 12ml with a liquid of density 0.8g/cm³.

Figure 1

The liquid is allowed to run out for some time. If the volume of liquid removed from the burette has a
mass of 14g, determine the final reading on the burette. (3mks)

10. The figure below shows a burette partly filled with a liquid. The burette was initially full to the mark 0.
If the quantity of the liquid removed has a mass of 20g, determine the density of the liquid.
(2mks)

11. The figure below shows a measuring cylinder with some water in it.

A metal cube of mass 18g is submerged in it. Given that the density of the metal is 4.167 g/cm 3, indicate
the new level of the liquid. (2 mks)

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8. Figure 1 shows a measuring cylinder, which contains water initially at level A. A solid of mass
0.32g is immersed in the water, the level rises to B.

Figure 1
Determine the density of the solid. (Give your answer to 3 significant figures).
(2mks)

9. The figure 2 below shows part of micrometer screw gauge with 50 divisions on the thimble scale.
Complete the diagram to show a reading of 5.73mm.
(1mk)

Figure 2
10. . cm of substance A of density 800kg/m³ is mixed with 1000cm³ of water of density 1000kg/m³. The
density of the mixture is then 0.96/cm³. Determine the value of  (3mks)

11. Figure 1 below shows a section of a micrometer screw gauge used by a student to measure the
diameter of a wire. Determine the cross-sectional area of the wire.
(2mks)

12. The figure below shows a spherical ball placed between 2 wooden blocks and a metre rule.

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What is the volume of the ball? (3 Mks)

13. The figure below shows part of the main scale of vernier valipers.

Insert the vernier scale to the main scale, to show a reading of 3.62 C.M (1 Mk)

14. In the space below give a sketch of a closed micrometer screw gauge showing an error of +0.02. (1mk)

15. The figure 1 below shows a measuring cylinder which contains water initially at level A. When a
solid of weight 0.3N was immersed in the water, level rose to B.

Fig. 1
Use this information to answer the question that follow.
Determine the density of the solid mass giving your answer in g/cm 3. (3mks)

16. The figure below shows the reading obtained on a vernier caliper that has a zero error of -0.12cm,
when measuring the diameter of a metal ball

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Determine the diameter of a metal ball.

17. The figure 1 below shows a micrometer screw gauge that has a zero error of +0.02. State the actual
reading of the micrometer screw gauge. (1 mark)
25

20

15

Fig 1
18. Atomic physics is a branch of physics. State what it deals with. (1 mark)

19. (a) Draw a vernier calliper to show a reading of 7.36cm (1 mark)

(a) What is the micrometer screw gauge reading in the figure shown below. (1 mark)
11 12 13 14 0

mm
45

20. State the name of the instrument used to take the following readings:
i) 0.035m (1 mark)
ii) 0.00245m (1 mark)

PARTICULATE NATURE OF MATTER QUESTIONS

Specific Objectives
➢ Experiments to show that matter is made up of tiny particles (e.g cutting papers into small pieces
dilution experiments
➢ Brownian motion
➢ States of matter
➢ Diffusion (Graham’s law not required)
1. Diffusion in gases is faster than in liquids; state two reasons why this is so. (2 marks)

2. State two factors which affect the rate of diffusion in gases (2marks)

3. Explain the reason why a dropping dust particle in a still room does not trace a straight vertical path.
(1mk)

4. The figure below shows an arrangement of demonstrate diffusion through solids.

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The hydrogen gas is supplied for sometimes then stopped and the beaker removed. State and explain
what is likely t be observed when the hydrogen gas supply is stopped. (3 marks)

5. Seen through a hand lens pollen grains particles in water move about randomly. Explain this
observation. (1mk)

6. In terms of intermolecular forces, explain the difference between liquid and gaseous state.
7. Explain the cause of random motion of smoke particles as observed in Brownian motion experiment using
a smoke cell.
(1 mark)
8. A bottle containing a smelling gas is opened at the front bench of a classroom. State the reason why the
gas is detected throughout the room. (1 mark)

9. In figure 2, a porous pot with a straw connected to it was filled with hydrogen gas to a pressure equal to
atmospheric pressure. The pot was inverted such that the straw was immersed in water as shown.

Porous Pot

Straw

Water

The water was found to soon rise up the straw to a great height. Explain this observation. (3 marks)

10. Using particulate nature of matter, explain why a solid expands when heated? (2 marks)

11. Dust particles in air appear to move randomly, explain this observation. (2 marks)
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PRESSURE QUESTIONS
Specific Objectives
➢ Definition of pressure
➢ Pressure in solids
➢ Factors affecting pressure in fluid (Experimental treatment required)
➢ Derivation of P = rgh
➢ Atmospheric pressure
➢ Simple mercury barometer, manometers
➢ Applications of pressure: drinking straw, syringe, siphon, hydraulic press, hydraulic brakes, bicycle
pump, force pump, lift pump

12. Air is trapped in a thin capillary tube by a thread of mercury 5cm long as shown in figure 4.

Air
16cm
5cm
Mercury
14cm 5cm
Air

Figure 4
Use the information in figure 6 to calculate the value of the value of the atmospheric pressure in mmHg
(3 marks)

13. The diagram below shows a braking system.

Why is the master piston, made smaller than the slave piston? (1 mark

3. (a) Give reason why ink is most likely to ooze out of a pen when one is up in an airplane.
(1mark)

(b) The figure below is a simple hydraulic machine used to raise heavy loads.
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Calculate;
(i) The pressure exerted on the oil by the force applied at A (2marks)
(ii) The load raised at B (2marks)
(iii) Give two properties which make the oil suitable for use in this machine
(2marks)
(c) The height of a mountain is 1360m. The barometer reading at the base of the mountain is 74cmHg. Given
that the densities of mercury and air are 13,600Kgm -3 and 1.25Kgm-3 respectively, determine the
barometer reading at the top of the mountain.
(3 marks)

4. The figure below shows a U-tube manometer containing a gas, mercury and water. Calculate the gas
pressure acting on the mercury. (Take atmospheric pressure to be 1.05 x 105 pa, density of mercury
and water to be 13600kg/m3and 1000kg/m3 respectively).
(3mks)

Water
25cm
Gas
10cm Mercury

5. A vacuum pump was used to pump out air from the glass tube immersed in liquids as shown below.

After sometime the level of water rose to position X. Mark Y the corresponding position for the paraffin
level. Give a reason for your answer.
(2mks)

6. The figure below shows a simple instrument designed by a student for weighing objects.

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a) State what happens if one places an item on the weighing pan. (1 mark)
b) State two properties of water that make it suitable for this purpose. (2 marks)

7. Figure below shows a u-tube upon which a gas has been enclosed on one end with mercury in it.
Calculate the pressure of the gas.

8. The figure below shows water level in limb Q of a glass tube. Indicate the corresponding water
levels in limb N, O and P. Explain your answer.
(2mks)

9. The barometric height in a town is 65cmHg. Given that the standard atmospheric pressure is
76cmHg and the density of mercury is 13600kg/m3, determine the altitude of the town. (Density of
air is 1.25kg/m3) (2mks)

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10. The figure below shows two cylinders containing a liquid and connected with a tight – fitting flexible
tube. The cylinders are fitted with air – tight pistons A and B as shown.

When equal forces, F are on the pistons as shown, what is observed? Explain the observation. (3 Mks)

11. Use the figure below to answer the questions that follow.

(i) What is the pressure resting on point A? (1mk)

(ii) What is the value of pressure difference in the instrument reading? (1mk)
(iii) If the atmosphere pressure is 760mm of mercury, what is the value of gas pressure? (2mks)

12. The figure below show a glass tumbler filled with water to the brim, a card made of manila paper is
then placed on top of a glass tumbler as shown in figure 1.

Tumbler filled with water Tumbler filled with water

upright upside down
While supporting the card with one hand the glass tumbler is carefully inverted as shown in figure
(ii). It is observed that the card remains in place without being support. Explain this observation.
(2mks)

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13. In the figure 2, below, U-tube contains two immiscible liquids P and Q. If the density of Q is
900kg/m³ and that of P is 1200kg / m³, Calculate the height of liquid Q. (3 marks)

P
Q

9cm
3cm

Fig 2

14. Pressure of a laboratory water tap in a school in Nakuru is 40,000 N/m². Calculate the height of the
tank from which the water is supplied.( density of water = 1g/cm³, g=10N/kg)
(2 marks)

15. The barometric height in a town is 65cmHg. Given that the standard atmospheric pressure is 76cmHg
and the density of mercury is 13600 kg/m³, determine the altitude of the town. (Density of air is
1.25kg/m³) (2 marks)

16. A student wearing sharp pointed heeled shoes is likely to damage a soft wooden floor. Explain
(2 marks)

17. State the reason why trucks carrying heavy loads are fitted with many tyres. (1 mark)

18. The figure below shows a manometer attached to a gas supply. If the atmospheric pressure is
103,360Pa, calculate the pressure of the gas supply. (Take density of mercury = 13,600kgm -3) (3
marks)

Atmospheric
pressure
Rubber

Gas
supply

10cm
A

Mercury

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19. A tall building has two barometers, one at the ground floor reading 750mmHg and the other at the top
reading 748mmHg. Determine the height of the building. (2 marks)

20. a) State the principle of transmission of pressure in liquids. (1 mark)

b)A mass of 80kg is being lifted by a force F applied on the other piston of the machine as shown in
figure 9.

Fig 9

Determine the value of F needed to just lift the 80kg mass given the density of the liquid is 1.2g/cm³.(4
marks)
c) Give one reason why a lift pump raises water to heights less than 10m. (1 mark)
d) In an experiment, it was observed that soapy water placed on a wet smooth surface displaced the
particles of non-soapy water. Sate and explain this observation. (2 marks)
RECTILINEAR PROPAGATION OF LIGHT AND REFLECTION AT PLANE SURFACE

Specific Objectives

➢ Rectilinear propagation of light (experimental treatment required)

➢ Formation of shadows and eclipses (umbra and penumbra)
➢ Pin-hole camera image formation and magnification
➢ Laws of reflection
➢ Images formed by plane minors, ray diagrams, parallel and inclined mirrors
➢ Devices based on reflection: periscope, kaleidoscope
➢ Problems on pin-hole camera and mirrors inclined at an angle
1. Figure 1 show a ray of light incident on a plane mirror.

Plane mirror
Figure1

(a) On the diagram, indicate the direction of the reflected ray. (1mark)
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(b) Give reason for the path shown above. (1mark)

2. State what happens to the image when one moves closer to the object when using a pinhole camera.
(1mark)

3. Figure 1 shows a ray of light XY striking the mirror CD held at an angle of 108 0 to mirror DE.
D

Y 108°

42°
C

Fig 1 X
E

Complete the path of the ray XY and state the final angle of reflection. (2 marks)
Complete the path of the ray XY and state the final angle of reflection (3 marks)

4. Figure 6 represents a pinhole camera.

Fig 6

Sketch rays to show the formation of an enlarged image in the camera. Label both the image and the
object. (2 marks)

5. State one difference between an image formed by a pinhole camera and the viewed through a magnifying
glass.
(1 mark)

6. State the property of light associated with formation of shadows.

(1mk)
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7. A ray of light makes an angle of 60° with a plane mirror as shown in Figure 1 below. The mirror is
rotated through an angle of 20° about the point O in a clockwise direction.

60°

Figure 1
Determine the new angle of reflection.
(2mks)

8. State one property of light that a pinhole camera illustrates. (1 mark)

9. A plain sheet of paper and a plane mirror both reflect light yet only the plane mirror forms images.
Explain why the paper cannot form images.
(2mks)

10. State two factors affecting the type of shadow formed by a fixed size object placed in front of a source of
light. (2 Mks)

11. The figure below shows the image in front of a mirror M.

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By ray diagram construction, locate the position of the object.

(2marks)

12. Figure 1 below shows an object in front of plane mirror.

Figure 1
Sketch image of object using mirror shown. (1mk)

13. The figure 1 below shows the image I behind a mirror M

M

Eye

Fig 1
Using ray diagram construction, locate the position of the object. (2 marks)

14. State one differences between an image formed by a plane mirror and that observed through a pinhole
camera.(1 mark)

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15. The diagram below shows two parallel mirrors M1 and M2 and a ray of light being incident on one of the
mirrors as shown. Trace the ray of light through the mirrors. (2
marks)

M1

20°
M
2

16. a) i) Figure 7 shows a ray of light incident on a plane mirror at O.

50°
Figure 7 O
The mirror is rotated clockwise through angle 30° about an axis perpendicular to the paper and through
O, determine the angle through which the reflected ray rotates. (2 marks)

ii) Find the number of images formed when an object is between two mirrors placed 45°. (2 marks)
iii) In a certain pinhole camera, the screen, is 10cm from the pinhole. When the camera is placed 6m
away from a tree a sharp image of the tree 16cm high is formed on the screen. Determine the height of
the tree. (2 marks)

17. Figure 1 below shows two rays from a mirror forming an image of some object placed in front of the
plane mirror. Complete the ray diagram to show the position of the object. (2 marks)

Eye

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Fig 1

18. i) State the characteristics of images formed by a pinhole camera. (2 marks)

ii) What is the effects on the image when the camera is elongated ? (1 mark)

19. State two modifications that can be done to a pinhole camera in order to be used to fake still photographs.
(2 marks)

20. A vertical object placed on a bench is observed to have three shadows of different sharpness in different
directions. Explain this observation. (3 marks)

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FORM TWO PHYSICS TOPICAL QUESTION

NAME
ADMISSION NUMBER
EQUILIBRIUM CENTRE OF GRAVITY QUESTIONS

1. The figure 2 below show three wooden blocks resting on a flat surface. (They are of the same material).

Figure 2

20cm 20cm 20cm

(i) Arrange them starting from the least stable. (1mark)

(ii) State the factor that you have considered in 2(i) above. (1mark)

2. The figure below shows a cuboid in two positions. Explain how the stability of the cuboid changes when it is changed from
position ‘a’ to ‘b’. (2 marks)

(a) (b)
(b) How does the area of support affect the stability of a body? (1 mark)

3. The figure below shows a solid sphere with its centre of gravity marked with a dot. The sphere is rolled on a horizontal
ground and comes to rest after. Some time.
c.o.g

On the space provided below sketch the sphere and mark with a dot the most likely position of the c.o.g after it comes to rest.
(1mk)

4. Fig 3 shows a solid cylinder standing on a horizontal surface. The cylinder is in stable equilibrium.

Fig 3
On the horizontal space provided, sketch the cylinder in neutral equilibrium (1 mark)
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5. A person carrying a heavy luggage using one hand leans away from the luggage. State the reason for this. (1 mark)

6. State the reason why a steel sphere resting on a horizontal surface is said to be in neutral equilibrium.
(1 mark)

7. Figure 2 shows a marble placed on an inverted bowl.

Fig. 2
State and explain the type of equilibrium the marble is. (3 marks)

8. ( i)State two conditions necessary for equilibrium of a body acted upon by a number of forces.
ii) Figure 7 shows beaker containing a block of ice.

Fig 7

State and explain the change in stability when the ice melts. (3 marks)

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FLUID FLOW QUESTIONS

1. A pipe of radius 3mm is connected to another pipe of radius 9mm. If water flows in the water pipe at a speed of 2ms -1, what is
the speed in the narrower pipe (2 marks)

2. A tube of radius 9 mm has a constriction of diameter 10mm. Water flows in the tube at 3ms-1. Determine the velocity of water
in the constriction. (3 marks)

3. Figure 3 below shows water flowing through two sections A and B of a pipe having different cross-sectional area.

Figure 3

Water
B
A
Indicate and explain the water level in manometer B. (2marks)

4. Trees planted along a busy road are observed to lean towards the road as they grow. Explain this observation. (2mks)

5. The figure below shows light balls resting on a flat surface. A filter funnel is then inverted over them. State what is observed
when air is blown through the funnel. (1mk)

6. The figure 6 below shows parts A, B and C of a glass tube.

Fig. 6
State with a reason the part of the tube in which the pressure will be lowest when air is blown through the tube from A
towards C. (1mk)

7. (a) Distinguish between streamline and turbulent flow. (2mks)

(b) The figure below shows two light sheets of paper arranged as shown.
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Explain the observation made when air is blown at the same speed and time at point A and B. (2mks)
(c) The figure below shows an incompressible fluid moving through a tube of varied cross section area. If the area of the small
tube is 0.05m2, Calculate the diameter of the large tube in cm. (3mks)

8. A liquid flows along a horizontal pipe of cross-section area of 20cm2 at a speed of 3.0m/s. If the speed increases to
9.0m/s when it reaches a narrow section, determine the cross-section area of the narrow section. (2mks)

9. A pipe of radius 2mm is connected to another pipe of radius 6mm. If water flows in the narrow pipe at a speed of 3m/s,
determine the speed of water in the wider pipe. (3 marks)

10. Air is blown over a piece of paper as shown below. State what is observed.
Piece of paper held horizontal here

Piece
Air blown of paper
horizontally

11. The figure below shows a pithball being lifted into a funnel end of a blower.
Air blower

Air blow

Pith ball

Explain this observation. (2 marks)

12. a) An aero plane is moving horizontally through still air at a uniform speed. It is observed that when the speed of
the plane is increased, its height above the ground increases. State the reason for this observation.
(1 mark)

b) Figure 4 shows parts A, B and C of a glass tube.

A B C
Figure 4

State with a reason the part of the tube in which the pressure will be lowest when air is blown through the tube

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from A towards C. (2 marks)

13. State how the pressure in a moving fluid changes when the velocity of the fluid increases. (1 mark)

14. A lawn sprinkler has 20 holes each of cross-sectional area 1.25 × 10-3 cm² and is connected to a horse-pipe
of cross-section area 2.4cm². If the speed of the water in the horse pipes is 1.5m/s, calculate the speed at
which the water emerges from the holes. (3 marks)

15. Water flows through a narrow pipe of radius 6cm connected to another pipe of radius 9cm. If the speed of
water in the narrow pipe is 3m/s, determine the speed of water in the wider section. (3 marks)

16. Explain how the propellers on top of a helicopter help in lifting the helicopter above the ground.(2 marks)

17. Water flows along a horizontal pipe of cross-sectional area 30cm². The speed of the water is 4m/s but it
reaches 7.5m/s in a constriction in the pipe. Calculate the area of the constriction in m² (3 marks)

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HOOKE'S LAW QUESTIONS

7. The spiral springs shown in the figure 2 below are identical. Each spring has a constant K = 300N/m.

150N

Figure 2
Determine the extension caused by the 150N weight (Ignore weight of springs and connecting rods) (3 marks)

2. (a) State Hooke’s Law (1mark)

(b) The diagram below shows a graph of force against extension for a certain spring.
Force
(N)

Extension (cm)
(i) What is the spring constant of the spring? (2 marks)
(ii) What force would cause two such springs placed side by side to stretch by10cm (3 marks)

3. a) State Hooke’s law. (2marks)

b) The graph shows how extension e of a helical spring varied with load, hanging on it. (cm)

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5, 23.2

4,,18.5
3,,13.8
Extension (cm)

2,9.2
1,4.5

Load ( N)

(i) Determine from the graph, the proportionality constant of the spring. (3marks)
c) State three factors that affect the proportionality constant of a helical spring. (3marks)
d) Two spring Q and R have proportionality constants 20Nm-1 and 25Nm-1 respectively. Q weighs 0.2 N while the weight of R is
negligible. The two springs are arranged to support a load of 3.0N as shown in the diagram that follows.

Determine the extension in

3.0N
i) Q (2marks)
ii) R (2marks)

4. (a) The spiral springs shows in the figure below are identical. Each spring has a spring constant K = 200N/m. Each
rod weighs 0.1N and each spring weigh 0.1N.

150N
Determine the total extension caused by the 150N weight. (2 marks)
(b) Apart from length of the spring and nature of material, state one other factor affecting the spring constant.
(1 mark)

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5. When a mass of 2kg is hang from a single spring, the spring extends by a distance  = 5cm. Determine the total
extension in the set up below given that the springs are identical and weightless. (2mks)

6. A steel ball of mass 0.05kg was placed on top of a spring on a level ground. The spring was then compressed through a
distance of 0.2m.

If the spring constant is 15N/m. Calculate the maximum height reached when the spring is released. (3mks)

7. A spring has a spring constant 4N/m. Two identical springs are connected end to end. Find their effective spring
constant. (2mks)

8. The figure below shows a spring balance, its spring constant is 225N/m. The scale spreads a distance of 20cm.

Determine the maximum weight that can be measured using the spring balance. (2mks)

9. The three springs shown below are identical and have negligible weight. The extension produced on the system of
springs is 20cm.

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Determine the constant of each spring. (2 Mks)

10. A spring of spring constant 60n/m is extended through 50cm. Calculate the amount of work down in stretching.(2mks)

11. A spring has a spring constant of 40N/m, if the extension on the spring is 6.0cm, determine the tension on the spring.
(2mks)

12. A spring extends by 4cm when a load of 10N is suspended from it. Six similar springs are used in the system shown in
figure 5. Determine the total extension. (3 marks)

Fig 5
50 N

13. The three springs shown below are identical and of negligible weight. The extension on the system of springs is 20cm.

20N

Determine the 20N

constant of each spring.

14. Three identical springs each of spring constant 10Nm-1 and weight 0.5N are used to support a load as shown.

B C

6N
Determine the total extension of the system.

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MAGNETISM QUESTIONS

1. State the law of magnetism. (1mark)

2. State and explain the functions of the keeper when storing magnets. (2marks)

3. Figure 2 shows a steel bar to be magnetized.

Steel bar

Figure 2
P Q

Complete the circuit such that both poles P and Q acquire opposite polarity (North- south respectively).(1mark)

4. The figure 2 shows a bar magnet. Point A and B are in front of the magnet.

Fig. 2 A S N B

On the axis provided, sketch a graph showing how the magnetic field strength changes from A to B.(2marks)
Magnetic field

B
A
Distance

5. Figure 3 below shows a block of copper placed between two poles of a magnet.

Sketch the magnetic field between the poles. (2mks)

6. Figure 5 below shows a metre rule suspended by a thread such that it is in equilibrium balanced by a permanent magnet
attached to the metre rule and some weight.

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If the soft iron is fixed to the bench, state and explain the effect on the metre when the switch is closed.(2mks)

7. A soft iron ring is placed between two poles of a magnet as shown in the figure below.

(a) Show on the figure the magnetic field pattern between the poles. (2 marks)
(b) State one application of soft iron in magnetism. (1 mark)

8. Two magnets A and B in figure 2 were brought from a point high above a table towards a steel pin.

State with a reason which magnet will attract the pin at a bigger height above the table. (2mks)

9. Explain In terms of domain theory what happens when a bar magnet is placed in a solenoid in which an alternating
current flows. (2 Mks)

10. Figure 4 shows conductor carrying current in magnetic field and moves in direction shown.

Figure 4
Identify polarities X and Y. (2mks)

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11. An electromagnet is made by winding insulated copper wire on an iron core. State two changes that could be made to
increase the strength of the electromagnet. (2 marks)

12. The figure below shows two magnets being used to strike a steel bar.

Magnet

N P Q
S

N
S

Steel bar
Identify he method of making magnets represented by the diagram. (1 mark)

13. The figure shows an electromagnet. State the polarities at X and Y. (2 marks)

X Y

14. One method of producing a weak magnet is to hold a steel rod in the North -South direction and then hammer
it continuously for some time. Using domain theory of magnetism explain how this method works.
(2 marks)
15. Use domain theory to differentiate between magnetic and non-magnetic materials.(1 mark)

16. An electromagnet is made by winding insulated copper wire on an iron core. State three changes that could be
made to increase the strength of the electromagnet. (3 marks)

17. Figure below shows a U-shaped magnet stored with a keeper.

Keeper

Explain how this method helps to retain magnetism longer. (2 marks)

18. A soft iron bar AB is placed in a magnetic field of a horse shoe magnet as shown below.

What are the polarities of A and B. (1 mark)

19. Give a reason why attraction in magnetism is not regarded as a reliable method of testing for polarity.

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REFLECTION AT CURVED SURFACES QUESTIONS

1. Figure 1 below shows a parabolic surface with focal point F. A small source of light is placed at F.

Fig. 1
Complete the ray diagram to show the incident rays are reflected by the surface.

2. An object of height 2 cm is placed 25 cm in front of a concave mirror. A real image is formed 75 cm from the mirror.
Calculate the height of the image. (2marks)

3. Figure 3 below shows two parallel light rays incident on a concave mirror.

Fig 3
C F
Sketch on the same diagram the path of the rays after striking the mirror and show the image. (2marks)

concave mirror

4. State one application of each the following mirrors. (2 marks)

(i) Convex mirror
(ii) Parabolic reflector

5. Figure 4 below shows an object placed infront of a concave mirror.

Use rays to locate the position of the image.

6. An object O is placed in front of convex mirror as shown in the diagram below.

(a) Complete the diagram to locate the position of the image, 1. (3 marks)
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(b) State one practical application of a convex mirror. (1 mark)

7. A student holds a large concave mirror of focal length 1M, 80cm from her face. State two characteristics of her image in
the mirror.
(2mks)

8. The figure below shows the image formed when an object is placed in front of a concave lens.

Using suitable rays, locate the position of the object. (3mks)

9. Figure 2 below shows an object infront of concave mirror and it’s image.

Figure 2
Locate position of its principal focus. (2mks)

10. A lady holds a large concave mirror of focal length 80cm, 60cm from her face. State two characteristics of her image in
the mirror. (2mks)

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11. The figure which is drawn to scale 1 : 5, represents an object O and its image I formed by a concave mirror.

(i) By drawing suitable rays, locate the mark on the figure the position of the principal focus F of the mirror. (3 marks)

12. The figure below shows two parallel rays incident on a concave mirror. F is the focal point of the mirror.

C F

Sketch on the same diagram the path of the rays after striking the mirror. (2 marks

13. A diverging lens of focal length 10cm produces a virtual image half the size of the object. Find the distance
between the object from the lens. (3 marks)

14. The figure below shows the object O and its image O 1 formed by a concave mirror. Locate the position of the
principle focus. (2 marks)

O1
O

15. The figure below shows an image I formed by an object placed infront of a convex mirror. C and F are the
centre of curvature and principal focus of the mirror respectively. Using appropriate rays locate the object
position. (3 marks)

16. State one reason why convex mirrors are used as driving mirrors. (1 mark)

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SOUND QUESTIONS

20. The range of audible frequencies varies from 20 Hz to 20 kHz. If the speed of sound is 340 m/s, what is the corresponding
range of wavelength? (3marks)

21. Explain how an increase in temperature affects the speed of sound in air. (1 mark)

22. (a) Figure 13 shows a loudspeaker producing sound waves in air.

X X
Wave motion
Fig 13

(i) Explain how

Loudcompression
speakerandY rarefactions are formed. (2 marks)
(ii) Show on the diagram the wavelength Yof the wave. (1 mark)
compressions
(iii) The wavelength of the waves produced is [Link] the frequency of the waves if the speed of sound in air is
330m/s. Rarefactions (2 marks)
Y
23. A fathometer produces sound in a ship and receives two echo’s where there is a raised sea bed. One after 2.5 seconds
and the other after 3.0 seconds. Find the height of the raised sea bank if the velocity of sound in water is 1460m/s.
(4mks)

24. A hunter standing some distance from a cliff blows a whistle and hears its echo 2 seconds later. How far is the cliff from
the hunter? (speed of sound in air=340m/s) (2mks)

25. State one factor that affects the speed of sound in a solid. (1 mark)

26. A policeman standing between two high walls fires a gun. He hears the first echo after 3 seconds and the next 2 seconds
later. What is the distance between the wall. (Take velocity of sound = 330m/s). (2mks)

27. A student shouts and hears an echo after 0.6 seconds. If the velocity of sound is 330m/s. Calculate the distance between
student and reflecting surface. (3mks)

28. A soldier standing some distance from a wall blows a whistle and hears its echo 3.6 seconds later. How far is the wall
from the soldier?(Speed of sound in air is 360m/s) (3mks)

29. The diagram below shows a set up that was used to demonstrate that sound requires a material medium for
transmission.

Elastic support

Bell jar

Electric bell
Give two possible reasons why it is not possible to reduce the sound completely when air is pumped out.
Pump plate
(2 marks)
To vacuum pump
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TURNING EFFECT OF FORCE QUESTIONS

Specific Objectives
➢ Moment of a force, unit of moment of a force
➢ Principle of moments
➢ Problems on principle of moments (consider single pivot only)

8. A uniform 120m metal rod is pivoted near one of its ends and kept in equilibrium by a spring balance as shown in figure 3.

26cm

12cm

Figure 3
The reading indicated by the spring balance is 2.0N. Work out the mass of the metal rod. (g = 10N/kg)(3 marks)

9. The diagram below shows a uniform 5m long metal rod of mass 800g. It is suspended by a string tied at a point 3.5m from
one end. Determine the load which should be hung at point X to keep the plank horizontal. (3 marks)

10. The figure below show a uniform metre rule balanced when pivoted at the 30cm mark under the conditions of forces as
shown below.

R
30
0 10cm 70cm 100
A P B
50g
Calculate4.8N
the weight W of the rule. (3marks)
Pivot

11. The figure below shows a uniform rod AE which is 40cm long. It has a mass of 2kg and pivoted at D. If 2N is acting at point
E, and 30N force is passed through a frictionless pulley.

10cm 10cm
A E

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Find the force X acting at end A. (3 marks)

12. A uniform metre rule is supported by force of 3N and 2N as shown in figure 3 below.

Determine the weight of the half metre rule. (3mks)

13. The figure below is a uniform bar of length 2.0m pivoted near one end. The bar is balanced horizontal by a spring.

Given that the tension on the spring is 1.2N, determine the weight of the bar. (3mks)

14. The figure below shows a uniform metal rod of mass 100g balanced over a pivot using a spring balance and a mass of 300g.

Calculate the tension in the spring. (3mks)

15. The figure below shows a uniform metre rule of weight 1N with two weights 0.18N and 0.12N suspended from its ends.
0 100cm

0.18N 0.12N

Determine how far from the 0.18N weight a pivot should be placed in order to balance the metre rule. (3 Mks)

8. In the figure 5 below distance AC = kB, calculate the force F that will keep the system in equilibrium. (2mks)

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9. A uniform metre rule is balanced as shown below.

Find the weight of the metre rule. (2mks)

10. A Planck of negligible weight is kept in a horizontal position by the forces shown in the diagram below.

Y 8N 2m

Q 6N
(i) Calculate the magnitude of force Q. (1 mark)
(ii) Calculate the value of Y. (2 marks)

11. The figure below shows a uniform bar of length 1.4m pivoted near one end. The bar is kept in equilibrium by a string as
shown.

30cm 20cm

Given that the weight of the bar is 1.5N, determine the tension in the string. (3 marks)

12. Figure 5 below shows a uniform metre rule of weight 3N supporting two weights. The metre rule is pivoted
somewhere such that it is horizontally balanced. (pivot not shown)

15cm 70cm 100cm

6N 4N

The 6N weight is at 15cm mark while the 4N weight is at 70cm mark. Determine the position of the pivot from zero
cm mark. (3 marks)

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WAVES QUESTIONS
6. A vibrator is sending out 8 ripples per second across a ripple water tank. The ripples are observed to be 4cm apart. Calculate
the velocity of the ripples (2 marks)

7. The range of audible frequencies varies from 20 Hz to 20 kHz. If the speed of sound is 340 m/s, what is the corresponding
range of wavelength? (3marks)

8. Distinguish between transverse waves and longitudinal waves. (1mark)

9. Plane water waves produced in a ripple tank are passed from a region of deep water into a region of shallow water. Figure 5
shows the top view of the tank.
Boundary

Fig 5

State what happens at the boundary to.

(a) The frequency of the waves. (1 mark)
(b) The speed of the waves. (1 mark)
Deep water Shallow water
(c) The wavelength of the waves. (1 mark)

10. Distinguish between longitudinal and transverse waves giving one example of each. (3 marks)

11. Figure 1 represents a displacement – time graph for a wave.

Determine the frequency of the wave. (3 marks)

12. Figure 6 below shows a progressive wave incident from a shallow end to a deep end.

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(a) Sketch the appearance of the wave in the deep region. (1mk)

(b) State the property of waves demonstrated in the figure above. (1mk)

13. (a) The figure below show the displacement time graph of a wave traveling at 400cm/s.

Determine for the wave the:

(i) Amplitude (1mk)
(ii) Period (1mk)
(iii) Frequency (2mks)
(iv) Wavelength (3mks)

14. State one example of a transverse-progressive wave. (1 mark)

15. The figure shown below illustrates crests of circular water wave-fronts radiating from a point source O in a pond.

State how the depth of the pond at A compares with that at B. (1 mark)

16. The graph in the figure below shows the displacement of a pendulum bob from its rest position as it varies with time.

(i) Determine the amplitude of the oscillation. (1 mark)

(ii) What is the time for one complete oscillation? (1 mark)

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(iii) On the same graph, draw a sketch graph which represents a pendulum swinging with half the amplitude and twice the
frequency. (2 marks)
(iv) Plane water wave fronts are incident onto reflector SR as shown in the figure below. Show on the diagram the nature
and direction of the reflected wave fronts. (1 mark)

17. (a) The figure below shows the cross-section of a ripple tank full of water. a piece of cork floats
on the surface of water and a straight edge vibrator placed at shallow end A to generate waves that travel to deep end B.

Name the type of wave generated on the water surface. (1mk)

The cork is observed to stay put despite passing water waves. Explain this observation. (2mks)

It was estimated that successive waves pass the cork every 0.25 seconds. If the speed of the waves is 0.28m/s, determine the
frequency and wave length of the waves at that point. (4mks)

In the space provided, sketch the wavelength as viewed from a point above the ripple tank. (1mk)

A B

(a) A ship sends out an ultrasound whose echo is received after 10 seconds. If the wavelength of the ultrasound in water is
0.05m and the frequency of the transmitter is 50KHz, determine the depth of the ocean.

18. Use figure 5 to answer following question.

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Figure 5

Determine the frequency of wave. (3mks)

19. Figure 6 shows water waves moving towards barrier.

Figure 6

20. Figure 4 shows water waves incident on a shallow region of the shape shown with dotted line

Figure 4
On the same diagram, sketch the wave pattern in and beyond the shallow region. (1mk)

21. Figure 4 shows how the displacement varies with time for a certain wave.
Displacement(m)

0.4
0.2

0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5

-0.2
Time(minutes)
Fig 4
-0.4
Determine the frequency of the wave. (2 marks)

22. The receiving part of a TV aerial should have a length equal to half the wavelength of the incoming waves. What is the ideal
aerial length for reception of TV transmission of frequency 400MHz. (Speed of radio waves = 3 × 108m/s) (3 marks)

23. Water waves are produced in a ripple tank. The following is an example of the wave from that was observed.
Displacement (m)

0.02 0.04 0.08 0.1 time (s)

(a) (i) From the graph determine the frequency of the wave. (2 marks)

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(ii) Derive an equation relating velocity of a wave, frequency and wavelength. (2 marks)

(b)Ultrasound scanning can be used by doctors to obtain information about internal structure of human body without the need
of surgery. Pulses of ultrasound are sent into the body from the transmitter placed on the skin.
(i) The ultrasound used has a frequency of 4.5MHz. State why waves of this frequency are called ultrasound.(1 mark)

(ii) A pulse of ultrasound enters the body and its reflection returns to the transmitter after a total time of 1.6×10 -4S.
Calculate how far the reflecting surface is given that the average speed of ultrasound in a body = 1500ms-1(3 marks)

(iii) State why the ultrasound sources are transmitted in pulses. (1 mark)

24. The figure below shows the displacement-time graph for a certain wave.
8
Displacement

1 2 3 4 5
Time|(s)

Determine the frequency of the wave. (2 marks)

25. Figure 1 below shows a vibrating hack saw blade.

K

The time interval for the blade to move from K to L is 0.008 seconds. Determine the frequency of vibration. (3
marks)

26. Figure 8 is an illustration of a wave pattern.

25 50 75 Distance(cm)

i) State with reason the type of wave shown. (2 marks)

ii) Determine the wavelength of the wave. (1 mark)

iii) Calculate the frequency of the wave given that the speed of the wave is 9m/s. (3 marks)

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22. (a)Distinguish between transverse and longitudinal waves. (2 marks)

b) Figure below shows part of wave profile produced by a vibrator on the surface of water.
0.6

Displacement (m)
0.4

0.2

0
0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0
Time(s)
-0.2.

-0.4

-0.6

Calculate the
i) Period (1 mark)
ii) Frequency (1 mark)
iii) Wavelength if velocity of the wave is 330m/s (3 marks)

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FORM THREE PHYSICS TOPICAL QUESTION

NAME
ADMISSION NUMBER

CURRENT ELECTRICITY QUESTIONS

1. A current of 0.7A flows through a wire when a potential difference of 0.35V is applied at the ends of the wire. If the wire is
0.5m long and has a cross-sectional area of 8.0 x 103mm2, determine its resistivity. (3 marks)

2. (a) Define electric resistance. (1mark)

(b) Figure 11 shows three resistors as shown.

V

6
8

Fig. 11
3
If the voltmeter reads 4V, find the
(i) Effective resistance (2 marks)
(ii) Current through the 3 resistor (2 marks)
(iii) Potential difference across the 8 resistor. (2 marks)
(c) (i) What is meant by the term “lost volts”? (1 mark)
(ii) A cell supplies a current of 0.5A when connected to a 2 resistor and 0.25A when connected to a 5 resistor.
Find the e.m.f and the internal resistance of the cell. (4 marks)

3. (a) Differentiate between an Ohmic and non-ohmic conductor giving one example in each case.(2marks)
(b) Figure 7 shows a circuit with resistors and voltmeter connected to a battery.
Figure 7 S
3Ω

6.0V
V 5Ω
2Ω

(i) If each cell has an internal resistance of 0.7Ω, determine the total resistance in the circuit. (3marks)
(ii) What amount of current flows through the 3Ω resistor when the switch is closed? (3marks)
(iii) What is the reading of the voltmeter when the switch S is
(I) Open (1mark)
(II) Closed (1mark)
(iv) Account for the difference between the answers in (I) and (II) above. (1mark)

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4. A wire of resistance 20Ω is connected to a battery of 12V. Determine the heat dissipated in the wire in one minute.
(3 marks)

5. (a) The following graph shows the potential difference, V against current, I for a certain device.
4.5
4.0
3.5
3.0
P.d (v)

2.5
2.0
1.5
1.0
0.5
0
1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 5.0 6.0 7.0
Current (A)
(i) State with a reason whether the device obeys Ohm's law. (1 mark)
(ii) Determine the resistance of the device when current is 1.0A. (1 mark)
(iii) State how resistance of the device varies as current increases from zero to 5.0A. (1 mark)
(b) When the switch S is kept open in the circuit shown in figure 12 the voltmeter reads 1.5V. When the switch is closed, the
readings drops to 1.3V and the current through the resistor is 0.5A.
V
S

Fig 12
(i) What is the e.m.f of the cell? (1 mark)
(ii) What the terminal voltage of the cell? (1 mark)
(iii) Calculate the value of R. R (2 marks)

6. A wire of resistance 27 ohms is cut into three equal lengths. If the three wires are connected in parallel, what is the effective
resistance? (2 marks)

7. A heater of resistance R1 is rated P watts, V volts while another of resistance R2 is rated 2P watts, V/2 volts. Determine the
ratio R1 to R2. (3mks)

8. (a) State ohms law. (1mk)

(b) Figure 8 below shows a large battery connected a resistor of 1000. The potential difference across the resistor is 50V.

50V

Determine:

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(i) The ammeter reading (A). (3mks)

(ii) The electrical energy dissipated by the resistor in one minute. (3mks)
(c) Figure 9 below shows some resistors connected in part of a circuit.

Determine the effective resistance. (3mks)

(d) Four 40w bulbs and six 100w bulbs were switched on for 2 hours in the morning and 3 hours at night each day for
domestic use in a certain institution. Find the monthly bill for the consumer given that the cost of electricity in the
country is at Sh.6.50 per unit. (Take one month to be of 30 days). (3mks)

9. The figure 4 shows a circuit with a coil used to warm oil in a beaker.

Figure 4

(a) State the Ohm’s Law. (1mk)

(b) (i) Explain how heat is produced in the coil. (2mks)
(ii) Given that the reading of the ammeter is 2.5A, determine the resistance of the coil. (3mks)
(iii) How much heat is produced in the coil in a minute? (3mks)
(iv) Give two changes that can be made in the set-up in order to produce more heat per minute. (2mks)
(c) Figure 5 below shows a circuit used to study behaviour of diode.

Figure 5

State the behaviour of voltmeter reading as Jockey J is moved from S to R. Explain. (2mks)

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10. In the circuit shown below, the battery has an e.m.f. of 6.6V and internal resistance of 0.3Ω.

Determine the reading of the ammeter. (3mks)

11. (a) The circuit diagram in the figure below shows three identical resistors connected to a cell of e.m.f 12V
P Q

R V
R

R
T S
(i) Determine the reading of the voltmeter. (2 Mks)
(ii) If another identical resistor R is connected parallel to PT, determine the potential difference across Qs.(3 Mks)
(b) Explain why the earth pin in the mains plug is longer than the neutral and live pins. (1 Mk)
(c) Give one example of a semi conductor and one example of a conductor. (2 Mks)
(d) A hair dryer rated 1000W, 240V runs for 3 hours per day for 7 days. Calculate;
(i)The number of KWh used. (2 Mks)
(ii)The cost of electricity paid at the rate of Ksh 5.50 per unit. (2 Mks)

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NAME
ADMISSION NUMBER

ELECTROSTATICS II QUESTIONS

1. The figure below shows part of an electric circuit. The charge stored in the 9 F capacitor is 1.4 micro coulombs
( C)

Determine the p.d across the 5 F capacitor. (3 (marks)

2. a) The distance of separation between the plates of a certain capacitor is reduced. State how this affects the
capacitance of a capacitor. (1 mark)
b) You are provided with the following apparatus used for studying charging of a capacitor.
An uncharged capacitor, voltmeter, milliameter, 6V battery, connecting wires, a switch and a load resistor R.
i) Draw a circuit diagram that can be used to charge the capacitor. (2 marks)
ii) Use the circuit diagram drawn above to explain how the capacitor gets charged. (3 marks)
iii) State the purpose of resistor R. (1 mark)

3. The figure below shows two spherical materials, one an insulation conductor and the other a conductor.
Negative charges are introduced at point A in each case.

On the same figure indicate the final position of the charges. Explain your answer. (2 marks)

4. Figure 5 shows a relationship between potential difference V and the charge Q across and stored in a
capacitor.

Fig 5

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Determine the capacitance C of the capacitor. (3 marks)

5. Figure 10, shows a circuit that may be used to charge a capacitor.

S
mA

C
5v

Figure 10 R

i) State the observation on the milliameter when the circuit is switched on. (1 mark)
ii) Explain the observation (i) above. (2 marks)
b) The circuit in figure 10 is left on for some time. State the value of p.d across;
i) The resistor R. (1 mark)
ii) The capacitor C (1 mark)
c) Sketch the graph of potential difference (V) across R against time. (1 mark)

d) Figure 11 shows three capacitors connected to a 10V battery.

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10V
- +

3.0 F

4.0 F 5.0 F

Figure 11
Calculate
i) the combined capacitance of the three capacitors. (3 marks)
ii) the charge of the 5.0 f capacitor. (3 marks)

6. i)The figure below shows a pair a parallel plates of a capacitor connected to a battery, the upper plate is
displaced slightly to the left.

State with reason the effect of this movement on the capacitance. (2 marks)
ii) The figure below shows an electrical circuit with three capacitor X, Y and Z of capacitance 8.0 F, 10.0 F and
6.0 F respectively connected to a 24V battery

Determine
I. the combined capacitance of the three capacitors. (3 marks)

II. The charge on the capacitor Z (2 marks)

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iii) The graph below shows the variation of capacitance of a capacitor with voltage supplied across it.

Capacitance
-6
(X10 F)
6

10 20 Voltage

Use the graph to determine the quantity of charge stored in the capacitor. (3 marks)

7. a) i) State the basic law of electrostatics. (1 mark)

ii) In testing for the sign of charge on a body, explain the behaviour of a positively charged electroscope when charged
bodies are brought closer to the electroscope. (2 marks)
b) The figure below shows an arrangement which may be used to charge a capacitor of capacitance 50 F and then to
connect it to a capacitor of capacitance 20 F.
A SB

50 f 20 f
12V
C1 C2

i) The switch S is first placed at position A, so that the capacitor C is connected to the 12V dc supply. Calculate the
charge stored in the capacitor. (3 marks)
ii) The switch S is now changed to position B. Calculate the final potential difference across the capacitors.(3 marks)

8. Figure 3 shows a combination of capacitors across a power supply.

100 f

100 f

200 f 400 f

Fig 3 20V

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Determine the energy stored in the system of capacitors. (3 marks)

9. (a) The figure shows the charged plates of a parallel plate air capacitor when the distance of separation is d.

Area = A
Air d
Area = A

Complete the diagram to show the electric field pattern in the space between the plates. (1 mark)
(b) Without changing the area of overlap, suggest two methods by which you would increase the capacitance of a capacitor.
(2 marks)
(c) Three capacitors A, B and C are connected as shown in the figure.
8 F

4 F
6 F

90v

Calculate
(i) the charges on each capacitor. (3 marks)
(ii) the potential difference across each capacitor (3 marks)

10. i) State three factors affecting the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor. (3 marks)
ii) The figure below shows a circuit containing two capacitors of 2F and 3F respectively.

Determine the pd across AB given that the total charges in the capacitors is 1 × 10 -4 coulombs. (3 marks)

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NAME
ADMISSION NUMBER

GAS LAWS QUESTIONS

1. State a reason why an air bubble increases in volume as it rises up the surface in a boiler. (1 mark)

2. (a) State Pressure Law (1mark)

(b) The following diagram shows a set up of apparatus used to verify Charles Law.

(i) Give the name of part labelled X (1 mark)

(ii) What is the function of the part named in (i) above? (1 mark)
(iii) Briefly explain how the set up above is used to verify Charles Law (3 marks)
(c) A certain mass of hydrogen gas occupies a volume of 1.6m3 at a pressure of 1.5x105Pa and a temperature of 120c. Determine
the volume when the temperature is 00c at a pressure of 1.0x103Pa. (2 marks)

3. When temperature of a gas in a closed container is raised, the pressure of the gas increases. Explain how the molecules of the
gas cause the increase in pressure (2marks

4. A balloon with argon gas of volume 199cm3 at the earth’s surface where the temperature is 210C, and the pressure 760mm of
mercury. If it is allowed to ascend to a height where the temperature is 20C and the pressure 100mm of mercury, calculate the
volume of the balloon. (2 marks)
5. Bubbles of gas escaping from the bottom of a fish pond rises to the surface. It is observed that as bubbles rise, they get larger.
Explain this observation. (2mks)

6. a) State the pressure law. (1 mark)

b) The pressure (P) of a fixed mass of a gas at constant temperature T=300k is varied continuously. The corresponding
values of P and volume (v) of the gas are shown below.

Pressure (x105 Pa) 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0 4.5

Volume (m3) 0.025 0.02 0.017 0.014 0.012 0.011
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(i) Plot a graph of P against 1⁄v using grid provided below. (5 marks)
(ii) Given that P = 2RT , Find the constant R from the graph. (2marks)
V
(b) A tin with an air tight lid contains air at a pressure of 1.0 x 105 Pa and a temperature of 120C. The air is heated in water
bath until the lid opens. If the temperature at which the lid opens is 880C,
Determine the pressure attained by the gas. (3marks)

7. (a) When the temperature of water reaches the boiling point, bubbles rise to the surface.
(i) State what is contained in the bubbles. (1mk)
(ii) State the reason why bubbles rise to the surface only at the boiling point. (1mk)
(b) Figure below shows a graph of vapour pressure against the temperature of water vapour at Kerugoya town where mercury
barometer indicates a height of 650mm.

(i) Determine the atmospheric pressure of the town in Nmˉ².

(Take g = 10m/s² and density of mercury = 13600kg/m³). (3mks)
(ii) Use the graph to determine the boiling point of water in the town. (1mk)
(c) The pressure of helium gas of volume 10cm³ decreases to one third of its original value at constant temperature.
Determine the final volume of the gas. (3mks)

8. The figure below shows a set-up used to investigate Charles Law.

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(i) State one missing item in the set-up. (1mk)

(ii) Name two measurements to be taken in this experiment. (2mks)
(iii) Explain how the measurements stated above may be used to investigate Charles Law. (4mks)
9. When the temperature of a gas in a closed container is raised, the pressure of the gas increases. Explain in terms of
kinetic energy how the molecules of the gas cause an increase in pressure. (2mks)
10. (a) An air bubble of volume 0.5cm3 when released from the bottom of a lake rises to the surface of the lake.
(i) Explain why the bubble rises up. (2 Mks)
(ii) Calculate the volume of the bubble at the surface of the lake given that the lake is 92.7m deep and the atmospheric
pressure is equivalent to 10.3m of water pressure. (4 Mks)
(iii) What assumption have you made in arriving at your answer? (1 Mk)
(b) A fixed mass of gas at constant pressure has a volume of 600cm3 at 0oC. At what temperature will its volume be 1099
cm3. (3 Mks)

11. (a) What is meant by absolute zero temperature. (1mk)

(b) The figure below shows a set up to investigate the relationship between volume and temperature of a certain gas.

(i) State two factors that are kept constant in order to determine the relationship. (2mks)
(ii) Explain the function of the sulphuric acid. (1mk)
(iii) State the law being investigated in the experiment. (1mk)
(iv) The volume of the gas at 200C was found to be 100cm3. What would be its volume at 400C.
(2mks)
(c) A mixture consist of 40cm3 of water and 60cm3 of liquid x. If the density of water and liquid x are 3
1.0g/cm and
0.8g/cm3 respectively, calculate the density of the mixture. (3mks)
12. (a) The figure below shows a set-up that may be used to verify pressure law.
Pressure gauge

Stirrer

Glass flask
Thermometer

Water bath

(i) State the measurements that should be taken in the experiment. (2 marks)
(ii) Explain how the measurements in (i) above may be used to verify pressure law. (3 marks)
(b) A column of air 26cm long is trapped by mercury 5.0cm long as shown in the figure (a) below. When the tube is inverted as in
figure (b) the air column becomes 30cm long. What is the value of atmospheric pressure. (3 marks)
30cm Air

5cm

5cm

26cm

a) b)
c) A steel cylinder capacity 0.5m³ contains nitrogen at a pressure of 30,000 pa when the temperature is 27°C. What will be the
pressure of nitrogen if it is allowed to flow into another cylinder of capacity 9.5m³ with the temperature reduced to -23°C.
(3 marks)

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d) State the difference between the temperature measured in Kelvin scale and Celsius scale. (1 mark)

13. In verifying the pressure law of gases, the temperature and pressure of a gas are varied at constant volume.
State the condition necessary for the law to hold. (1 mark)
14. a)Figure 9 shows a set up to investigate one of the gas laws.

i) Name the gas law being investigated. (1 mark)

ii) Give two reasons for using the concentrated sulphuric acid index. (2 marks)
iii) What is the purpose of the water bath ? (1 mark)
iv) State two measurements that should be taken in this experiment. (2 marks)
v) Explain how the measurements taken in (iv) above may be used to verify the law. (3 marks)
b) A gas has a volume of 30cm3 at 18oC and normal atmospheric pressure. Calculate the new volume of the gas if it
is heated to 54oC at the same pressure. (3 marks)
15. a) What is meant by absolute zero temperature? (1 mark)
b) The set up below was used by a group of form three students to verify pressure law.

Bourdon gauge

Thermometer

Flask

Dry gas

Heat

Describe briefly how the set-up can be used to verify pressure law. (4 marks)
c)A 4.5cm³ bubble released at the bottom of a dam measured 18cm³ at the surface of the dam. Work out the depth
of the dam taking atmospheric pressure to be 10 5 Pa and the density of water as 1g/cm³.(3 marks)

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NAME
ADMISSION NUMBER

HEATING EFFECT OF ELECTRIC CURRENT QUESTIONS

1. An electric kettle is rated at 1.8 kW, 240 V. Explain the choice of the safest fuse for the kettle. (the available fuses are 5
A, 10 A, and 20 A)
2. A wire of resistance 20Ω is connected to a battery of 12V. Determine the heat dissipated in the wire in one minute.
(3 marks)
3. An electric immersion heater rated 240V, 3kW is to be connected to a 240V mains supply, using a 10A fuse. Showing your
working, state whether the fuse is suitable or not for circuit. (3 marks)

4. A heater of resistance R1 is rated P watts, V volts while another of resistance R2 is rated 2P watts, V/2 volts. Determine
the ratio R1 to R2. (3mks)

5. Four 40w bulbs and six 100w bulbs were switched on for 2 hours in the morning and 3 hours at night each day for domestic
use in a certain institution. Find the monthly bill for the consumer given that the cost of electricity in the country is at
Sh.6.50 per unit. (Take one month to be of 30 days). (3mks)

6. A cooker rated 2.0kW was operated for 40minutes each for 30days. If the cost of each kilo – watt – hour unit is Shs.
15.50, Calculate the cost of electricity used. (4 marks)

7. The figure 4 shows a circuit with a coil used to warm oil in a beaker.

Figure 4

(a) State the Ohm’s Law. (1mk)

(b) (i) Explain how heat is produced in the coil. (2mks)
(iii) Given that the reading of the ammeter is 2.5A, determine the resistance of the coil.
(3mks)
(iii) How much heat is produced in the coil in a minute? (3mks)
(iv) Give two changes that can be made in the set-up in order to produce more heat per minute. (2mks)

8. The element of an electric hot plate has a resistance of 120Ω. What is the energy dissipated when element is kept on for
10 minutes on a 240V supply? (2mks)

9. A hair dryer rated 1000W, 240V runs for 3 hours per day for 7 days. Calculate;
(i)The number of KWh used. (2 Mks)
(ii)The cost of electricity paid at the rate of Ksh 5.50 per unit. (2 Mks)

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10. The diagram below shows an electrical appliance connected to the mains.

Fuse
A
Casing

Heating
B element
Fig 2
I. Name the colour codes for leads A and B (2 marks)
II. What is the purpose of the fuse? (1 mark)
11. In a laundry four electric irons each rated 750W, 240V are connected to the 240V mains supply using a 13A fuse.
(i)Can the 13A fuse be suitable for the circuit when all the electric ions are being used (support your answer) (2 marks)
(ii)Calculate the cost of using all the electric ions everyday for 3 hours. If the cost of electricity is shs 15.00 pre kilowatt
hour. (2 marks)

12. An electric heater is found to have a resistance of 950W when operating normally on a 240V mains. Determine the
power rating of the heater. (2 marks)

13. A step up transformer connected to a 40V supply is designed to deliver power to a lamp rated 240V 100W.
Given that transformer is 95% efficient, determine the current in the primary winding when the lamp is
connected. (3 marks)

14. A current of 13A flows through a heating element of resistance 8.5 for 1.5 minutes. Calculate the quantity of
heat supplied. (3 marks)

15. a)i) A transformer is connected to an a.c source of 240V to deliver 12A at 120V to a heating coil. If 20% of
energy taken from the supply is dissipated in the transformer, calculate the current in the primary coil.
(4 marks)

ii) If the wire in the primary coil is charged to have a 2 determine the power dissipated as heat in the coil. (2
marks)

b) A house has three rooms each with two 240V, 60W bulbs. If the bulbs are switched on from 7.00p.m to
10.00pm daily.
i) Calculate the power consumed per day in kilowatt-hours. (3 marks)

ii) Find the cost per week for lighting these rooms at sh.6.30 per kilowatt hour. (2 marks)
c) What is the purpose of earthing in domestic wiring circuit? (1 mark)

16. How much current is taken by a bulb rated 100w, 250V. (2 marks)

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NAME
ADMISSION NUMBER

LINEAR MOTION QUESTIONS

6. (a) State the physical quantity represented by the gradient of a displacement – time graph (1 mark)
(b) Figure 6 shows the displacement – time graph of the motion of a particle

Displacement (m) C

A
B

O D
Figure 6 Time (s)
State the nature of the motion of the particle between? (3 marks)
(i) AB
(ii) BC
(iii CD
(c) A car decelerates uniformly from a velocity of 20m/s to rest in 4 seconds. It takes 4 seconds to reverse with uniform
acceleration to its original starting point.
(i) Sketch a velocity time graph for the motion of the car. (3 marks)
(ii) Use your sketch in c (i) to determine the total displacement of the car. (3 marks)
(d) A ball slides off a horizontal table 4m high with a velocity of 12m/s, find;
(i) the time it takes to hit the floor. (g = 10ms-2) (2 marks)
(ii) the range (2 marks)

7. The figure below shows a sketch graph of velocity-time graph for a body falling through a liquid. Explain the motion of the motion
between.
Velocity (m/s)

C D
B

A Velocity (m/s)

(a) B and C (1 mark)

(b) A and B (1 mark)
(c) C and D (1 mark)

8. (a) The figure below shows dots which were made by a ticker timer – tape attached to a trolley. The trolley was moving in
the direction shown.

A B C

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If the frequency used was 60Hz, distance AB = 12cm and BC = 7.2cm, determine
(i) The velocities between AB and BC (2 marks)
(ii) The acceleration of the trolley. (2 marks)
(b) An object is projected horizontally with a velocity of 40m/s at the top of a cliff 100m from the ground. (Take g = 10m/s2)
(i) Calculate the time taken for the object to hit the ground (3 marks)
(ii) What is the range of the object from the foot of the cliff (2 marks)
(b) State two assumptions that were made when deriving the equation of continuity? (2 marks)

9. A particle starts from rest and accelerates uniformly in a straight line. After 3 seconds, it is at a distance of 9m from the
starting point. Determine the acceleration of the particle. (3mks)

10. A constant force is applied to a body moving with a constant speed. State one observable change in the state of motion of the
body likely to occur? (1mk)

11. (a) The figure below shows a displacement-time graph of the motion of a particle.

Describe the motion of the particle in the region. (3mks)

(i) OA……………………………………………………………………….…
(ii) AB…………………………………………………………………………..
(iii) BC…………………………………………………………………………..

12. The figure 7 below shows a velocity-time graph of a moving body.

Describe the motion of the body over

i) region DE (1mk)
ii) region EF

13. A body of mass 5kg is placed at a height 20m above the ground. Calculate the velocity at which it strikes the ground when it
is released to fall freely. (2mks)

14. Sketch a velocity-time graph for an object thrown vertically upwards until it gets back to it’s back to it’s initial position.
(2mks

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15. A stone is released from the top of a cliff 45m high with a horizontal velocity of 20m/s as shown in the figure below.

Calculate:-
(i) the time it takes to hit the water surface. (2mks)
(ii) the velocity with which it hits the water. (2mks)

11. (a)Under what conditions can a feather and a stone released from the same height land on the ground at the same time?
(b) On the axis on figure 4 below, sketch displacement time graph for accelerating body. (1 mark)
Displacement
(m)

Time (s)

12. The figure 8 below shows a tape from a trolley accelerating at 5m/s and the timer is vibrating at 100HZ.

A B Tape
0.125
Fig 8
(i) Change in velocity from A to B. (2 marks)
(ii) The final velocity of the trolley. (2 marks)

13. The figure represents the velocity-time graph for a lift in a department store. Use the graph to calculate
Velocity
(m/s) 5

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Time (s)
(i) The acceleration of the lift. (1 mark)
(ii) The total distance travelled by the lift. (1 mark)

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14. A car runs at a constant speed of 15m/s for 300s and then accelerates uniformly to a speed of 25mls over a period of 20s.
This speed is maintained for 300s before the car is brought to rest with uniform deceleration in 30s.
(i) Draw a velocity-time graph to represent the journey described above. (3 marks)
From the graph above
(ii) find the acceleration while the velocity changes from 15m/s to 25m/s (2 marks)
(iii) the total distance travelled in the time described. (2 marks)
(iv) the average speed over the time described. (1 mark)

15. The graph below is a sketch of a velocity-time graph of a car which was travelling at a constant velocity before the
brakes were applied. Calculate the distance travelled after the brakes were applied. (3 marks)
Velocity (M/s)

20

10

0 5 Time(s) 10

NEWTONS LAWS OF MOTION QUESTIONS

16. A car of mass 800kg is initially moving at 25m/s, calculate the force needed to bring the car to rest over a distance of 20m.
(2 marks)

17. A bullet of mass 24g travelling in a horizontal path with a velocity of 450ms-1 strikes a wooden block of wood of mass 976g
resting on a rough horizontal surface. After impact, the bullet and the block move together for a distance of 7.5m before coming
rest.
(a) Name the type of collision which takes place above (1 mark)
(b) What’s the velocity of the two bodies when they start sliding (2 marks)
(c) Calculate the force which brings the two bodies to rest (3 marks)
(d) Determine the coefficient of friction between the block and the surface during this motion. (2 marks)

18. The figure below shows a simple pendulum of length 80 cm. the pendulum bob whose mass is 50 g oscillates between points
A and B, through its rest position C. A and B are both 10 cm higher than C

C A

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(a) (i) indicate with an arrow, on the path ACB, the direction of the greatest velocity of the bob as it moves from A to B. (1mk)
(ii) State the form of energy possessed by the pendulum bob at point A (1 mark)
(b) Determine
(i) The velocity of the bob at point C (2 marks)
(ii) The tension in the string as the bob passes point C (2 marks)
(Take acceleration due to gravity g=10m/s2
(c) State two characteristics of perfectly inelastic collisions (2 marks)
(d) A body of mass 4.0 kg held at a vertical height of 500cm is released to travel along a frictionless curved path as shown in the
figure below.

Mass = 4.0 kg

Mass =6.0 kg

The 4.0kg mass strikes body of mass 6.0kg at rest immediately it reaches the horizontal. The bodies stick together and move in the
same direction. Determine the velocity of the bodies immediately after collision. (4 marks)

19. (a) State Newton’s second law of motion in terms of in momentum. (1mk)

(b) A trolley of mass 5kg travelling to the right at 2m/s collides heads on with another trolley of mass 3kg travelling at 4m/s
to the left. Find their velocity after collision if the collision is perfectly inelastic. (3mks)

(c) A bullet of mass 2g is fired with a velocity of 300m/s into a wooden block of mass 5kg suspended from a long string.
The bullet sticks into the wood and the two moves together.
(i) Find the velocity of the block and the bullet immediately after collision took place. (3mks)
(ii) Calculate the height to which both swings upwards. (3mks)

20. A bullet moving at a velocity of 350m/s hits a tree trunk of diameter 70cm. It emerge from the opposite side with a velocity
of 180m/s. Determine the average deceleration of the bullet in the trunk. (3 marks)

21. The table below shows the value of the resultant force F and time t for a bullet raveling inside the gun barrel after the trigger
is pulled.
Force F (N) 360 340 300 240 170 110

Times t (ms) 3 4 8 12 17 22
(a) On the grid provided plot a graph of force F against time t. (5 marks)
(b) Determine from the graph:
(i) The time required for the bullet to travel the length of the barrel assuming that the force becomes zero just at the end of
the barrel. (1 mark)
(ii) Impulse of the force. (2 marks)
(c) Given that the bullet emerges from the muzzle of the gun with a velocity of 200m/s,
Calculate the mass of the bullet. (3marks)

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22. A constant force is applied to a body moving with a constant speed. State one observable change in the state of motion of the
body likely to occur? (1mk)

23. (a) The figure below shows a displacement-time graph of the motion of a particle.

Describe the motion of the particle in the region. (3mks)

(iv) OA……………………………………………………………………….…
(v) AB…………………………………………………………………………..
(vi) BC…………………………………………………………………………..
(b) A hot air balloon falling through the air attains terminal velocity after a short-time. State the reason why it attains terminal
velocity. (1mk)
(c) State Newton’s second law of motion. (1mk)
(d) A ball of mass 0.2kg is thrown vertically upwards with velocity of 8msˉ¹. The air resistance is 0.5N. Determine:
(i) the resultant force on the ball as it moves up;
(Take acceleration due to gravity g = 10msˉ²). (2mks)
(ii) The acceleration of the ball. (3mks)
(iii) The maximum height reached by the ball. (2mks)
24. (a) Give a reason why the inside of a helmet is lined with sponge. (1mk)
(b) The figure below shows a balloon filled with air.

When the mouth is suddenly opened, the balloon moves in the direction shown above by the arrow. Explain that observation.
(2mks)
(c) A rock of mass 150kg moving at 10m/s collides with a stationary rock of mass100kg. They fuse after collision.
Determine the
(i) Total momentum before collision. (2mks)
(ii) Total momentum after collision. (1mk)
(iii) Their common velocity after collision. (2mks

25. (a) State two factors that influence fractional force between two surfaces.
(b) Figure below shows a rectangular block of wood attached o a spring balance being pulled gently by a pulling force P
at a steady velocity.

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i.A graph of pulling force against time was drawn as shown below.

FB

FA P Q

Time
I. State the forces FA and FB.
FA :………………………………………………………………. (1mk)
FB :………………………………………………………………. (1mk)
II. From the graph, state what happens to the block of wood between point P and Q. (1mk)
ii. Given that the wooden box has a mass of 2.0kg and requires force of 5N to pull it with uniform speed along a horizontal
surface, calculate the coefficient of friction between the surface and the block. Take (g = 10N/kg (3mks)

(c) Figure below shows a steel bearing moving through glycerine at a steady velocity.

Steel ball bearing

Glycerin

Tall measuring cylinder

Indicate on the diagram the forces with directions acting on the ball bearing. (2mks)

26. (a) A bullet of mass 20g moving with a velocity of 100m/s embed on a stationery object of mass 900g suspended so that it
can swing freely as shown in the figure below.

Determine
i) the velocity of the bullet and block immediately after collision. (3mks)
ii) the height through which the block rises. (3mks)
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(b) A train travelling at 100km/h increases its velocity to 132km/h in 8 minutes. Calculate its acceleration in m/s. (3mks)

27. A bullet of mass 10g is fired at 200m/s from a pistol of mass 1.0kg. What is the recoil velocity of the piston. (2mks)

28. A body of mass 5kg is placed at a height 20m above the ground. Calculate the velocity at which it strikes the ground when it
is released to fall freely. (2mks)

29. The figure below shows two trolleys of mass 5.0kg and 3.0kg travelling towards each other at 0.60m/s and 0.5m/s
respectively.

If the trolleys fuse on collision. Calculate the velocity of the combined trolleys. (2mks)
(ii) A goalkeeper catches a ball of mass 450g moving with a velocity of 20m/s. Determine
(I) momentum of the ball. (2mks)
(II) the average force applied by the goalkeeper hands to stop the ball in 0.4 seconds. (2mks)

30. A stone thrown vertically upwards from the base of a mountain with an initial velocity of 100m/s. The stone just stopped as
the apex and came back. Another boy projected a stone horizontally from the top of the mountain. Calculate:
(a) Height of the mountain. (2 marks)
(b) Time taken for the stone to follow the trajectory. (2 marks)
(c) The range if the horizontal velocity is 20m/s. (2 marks)
(d) Calculate the impulse of force produced when a table is pulled for 3 seconds by a constant force of 10N towards the right
and then for 2 seconds by a constant force of 20N towards the left. (2 marks)

31. (a)An object which is moving over a horizontal surface slows down until the motion finally gets to zero. Explain what is
responsible for this observation. (1 mark)
(b) A trolley of mass 5.00 kg rests at a plain horizontal shown below.

(i) Show on the sketch, the forces acting on it when pulled in one direction. (4 marks)
(ii) When the trolley is pulled with a horizontal force of 24N, the trolley accelerates at 3m/s². Find the frictional force
acting on the trolley. (2 marks)
(c) An automobile of mass 500 kilograms is accelerated from rest along a horizontal surface. The force produced by the engine
is 300N and that due to friction is 50N. What is the accelerated force and what is the acceleration produced? (2 marks)

32. a) What is meant by perfectly inelastic collision. (1 mark)

b) A minibus of mass 1600 kg travelling at a constant velocity of 20mls collides with a stationary car of mass 800kg. The
impact takes 2 seconds before the two move together and come to rest after 15 seconds.
Determine
i)The common velocity. (3 marks)
ii) The distance moved after the impact. (3 marks)

33. A students pulls a block of wood along a horizontal surface by applying a constant force. State the reasons why
the block moves at a constant velocity. (1 mark)

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34. A force of 200N is applied on a 10kg block on a horizontal surface. The body attains an acceleration of 16m/s 2.
Determine the coefficient of friction between the block and the surface. (3 marks)

20. a)What is the meaning of term uniform acceleration ? (1 mark)

b) The motion of a body is described by the graph shown in the figure 6(a).

Velocity m/s
Displacement (m)

Time (s) Time (s)

Sketch a velocity-time graph for the motion on the set of axes in figure 6(b) (1 mark)
c) A body of mass 0.5kg falls from an 80m tall building and penetrates to the ground to a depth of 20cm.
Determine :
i)The velocity at which the body strikes the ground. (3 marks)
ii) The average retardation as the body penetrates the ground. (3 marks)
iii) The retarding force on the body. (2 marks)

21. A train of mass 400 tonnes starts from rest and accelerates uniformly at 1.5ms -2. Determine the momentum after
moving 400m. (2 marks)

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NAME
ADMISSION NUMBER

QUANTITY OF HEAT

1. State a reason why more energy is required to change ice from 00C to water at 10C, than to change equal mass of water
from 00C to 00C. (1 mark)

2. (a) Distinguish between boiling and evaporation. (2 marks)

(b) A solid of mass 1kg was heated uniformly by a 100W heating element until it melts. The graph in
figure 5 shows the variation of temperature with time.
Z

Temp (0C) X Y
80

20 W

Figure 5 100 200 Time (s)

300 400 500
(i) Explain what is happening in the regions
WX:
XY:
(ii) Calculate the specific heat capacity of the solid. (3 marks)
(iii) Calculate the specific latent heat of fusion of the solid (2 marks)

(c) A substance of mass 2kg and specific heat capacity 400Jkg-1k-1 initially at 800C is immersed in water at 190C. If the final
temperature of the mixture is 200C. Calculate the mass of water. (Specific heat capacity of water = 4200Jkg-1k-1)
(3 marks)

3. (a) What is meant by specific latent heat of fusion of a substance? (1mark)

(b) In an experiment to determine the specific latent heat of vaporization of water, steam at 100ºC was passed into water
contained in a well-lagged copper calorimeter. The following measurements were made:
• Mass of calorimeter = 60g
• mass of water + calorimeter = 145g
• Final mass of calorimeter + water + condensed steam = 156g
• Final temperature of the mixture = 48oC
[Specific heat capacity of water = 4200JKgˉ¹kˉ¹ and specific heat capacity of copper = 390JKgˉ¹kˉ¹]
Determine the;
(i) mass of condensed steam. (1mark)
(ii) The heat gained by the water and calorimeter if the initial temperature of the calorimeter and water is 20ºC. (3marks)
(iii) Given that Lvis the specific latent heat of vaporization of steam, write an expression for the heat given out by steam.
(1mark)
(iv) Determine the value of Lv above (2marks)
(v) State the assumption made in the above experiment (1 mark)

4.
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(a) Define the term heat capacity (1mark)

(b) A block of metal of mass 150g at 100oC is dropped into a logged calorimeter of heat capacity 40Jk-1 containing 100g of
water at 25oC. The temperature of the resulting mixture is 34oC. (Specific heat capacity of water = 4200J/KgK)
Determine;-
(i) Heat gained by calorimeter (2mks)
(ii) Heat gained by water (1mark)
(iii) Heat lost by the metal block (1mark)
(iv) Specific heat capacity of the metal block (3marks)
(b) Differentiate between boiling and evaporation (2mark)

5. (a) Define specific latent heat of fusion (1 mark)

(b) Given the following. A filter funnel, a thermometer, a stop watch, ice at 00C, an immersion heater rated P watts, a beaker,
a stand, boss and clamp and weighing [Link] an experiment to determine the specific latent heat of fusion of ice.
Clearly state the measurements to be made. (4 marks)

(c) 200g of ice at 00C is added to 400g water in a well lagged calorimeter of mass 40g. The initial temperature of the water
was 400C. If the final temperature of the mixture is X0C, (Specific latent of fusion of ice L = 3.36 x 105JKg-1, specific heat
capacity of water, c = 4200Jkg-1K-1, specific heat capacity of copper = 400Jkg-1K-1)
(i) Derive an expression for the amount of heat gained by ice to melt it and raise its temperature to X0C (2 marks)
(ii) Derive an expression for the amount of heat lost by the calorimeter and its content when their temperature falls to X0C.
(2 marks)
(iii) Determine the value of X. (3 marks)

6. a) Explain why a drop of methylated spirit on the back of the hand feels colder than a drop of water at the same
temperature. (2mks)
(b) A block of metal of mass 150g at 100C is dropped into a lagged calorimeter of heat capacity 40J/k containing 100g of
water at 25C. The temperature of the mixture is 34C. (s.h.c of water = 4200J/kgK).
Determine:
(i) Heat gained by the calorimeter. (2mks)
(ii) Heat gained by water. (2mks)
(iii) Heat lost by the metal block. (2mks)
(iv) Specific heat capacity of the metal block. (3mks)
(c) A student heated some water and noticed that it boiled at 102ºC. State one possible reason for this observation.
(1mk)

7. a) A liquid at 80o in a cup was allowed to cool for 20 minutes. State two factors that determine the final temperature.
(2 marks)
b) What is meant by specific latent heat of evaporation? (1 mark)
c) In an experiment to determine the specific latent heat of vaporization L of water, steam at 100oC was passed into water
contained in a well lagged copper calorimeter. The following
Measurements were made:
Mass of calorimeter = 80g
Initial mass of water = 70g
Initial temperature of water = 5oC
Final mass of calorimeter + water + condensed steam = 156g
Final temperature of mixture = 30oC
(Specific heat capacity of water = 4200JKg-1k-1 and specific heat capacity for copper =390J/kg/k)
Determine:
(i) Mass of condensed steam. (2 marks)
(ii) Heat gained by the calorimeter and water. (2 marks)
(iii) Given that L. is the specific latent host of vaporization of steam.
a) Write an expression for the heat given out by steam. (1 mark)
b) Determine the value of L. (3marks)

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8. (a) (i) Define the term latent heat of fusion. (1mk)

(ii) 9816J of heat energy is required to completely convert m kg of ice at 0ºC to steam. Determine the value of m.
(Take latent heat of fusion of ice = 2.34 x 105Jkgˉ¹; specific heat capacity of water = 4200Jkgˉ¹kˉ¹, latent heat of vaporization
of steam = 22.26 x 106Jkgˉ¹). (4 marks)
(b) The cooling curve shown in figure below is for a pure substance.

(i) What is the melting point of the substance? (1mk)

(ii) Explain what happens in the region. (3mks)
I CD……………………………………………………………………
II AB…………………………………………………………………….
III BC…………………………………………………………………….
(c) A beaker containing ether was placed on some water on a wooden block. Air was then blown through the ether using a
pump as shown in figure below.

State and explain what observation is made after sometime. (2mks)

9. (a) A certain powder of mass 100g was heated in a container by an electric heater rated 100w for some time. The
graph below shows the variation of the temperature of the powder with time.

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Use the graph to:

(i) Determine the melting point of the powder ……………………… (1mk)
(ii) Determine the quantity of heat supplied by the heater from the time the powder starts to melt to the time it has melted.
(3mks)
(iii) Determine the specific latent heat of fusion of the powder assuming the container absorbs negligible amount of heat.
(3mks)
(b) State one application of cooling caused by evaporation. (1mk)
(b) Water of mass 2kg at 100°C is allowed to cool for 20 minutes. State two factors that determine the final temperature.
(2mks)

10. (a) State any two factors that affect the melting point of a liquid. (2mks)
(b) 600g of a solid X was heated by an electric heater rated 500W until it melted, temperature readings taken as it heats
from room temperature. The graph shown below shows variation of temperature against time.
Graph of Temperature 0C against time (minutes)

(a) From the graph, determine the melting point of the solid X. (1mk)
(b) I. Determine the heat supplied by the heater for solid X to melt. (2mks)
II. Hence determine the specific latent heat of fusion for solid X. (2mks)
(c) I. State the room temperature. (1mk)
II. From the graph, determine the temperature change between the time t = 0 minutes and t = 4.0 minutes.
(2mks)
III. Hence determine the specific heat capacity of the solid X. (3mks)

11. A block of metal of mass 5 kg is heated to 1100 and then gently immersed in 2kg of water in a container of negligible
heat capacity. The final temperature of water is found to be 500C. What was the initial temperature of the water? Specific
heat capacity of metal = 840jKg-1K-1 Specific heat capacity of water = 4200jKg-1K-1 (3mks)

12. (a) Define the term specific latent heat of fusion. (1mk)
(b) The figure below show an incomplete set up that can be used in an experiment to determine the specific latent heat of
fusion of ice by electric method.

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i) Complete the diagram by inserting the missing components for the experiment to work. (2mks)
ii) The following readings were noted after the heater was switched on for 10 minutes.
Mass of the beaker 150g
Mass of beaker + melted ice 200g
Current through the heater 2A
Voltage across the heater 15V
Determine the
(I) Energy supplied by the heater in the 10 minutes. (2mks)

13. (a) What is meant by term specific latent heat of vaporization? (1 mark)
(b) In an experiment to determine the specific latent heat of vapourisation of water, steam at 100°C was passed into water
contained in a well lagged copper calorimeter. The following measurements were made :-
Mass of calorimeter = 50g
Initial mass of water 70g
Initial temperature of water = 5°C
Final mass of water + Calorimeter + condensed steam = 123g
Final temperature of mixture = 30°C
Specific heat capacity of water = 4200jKg-1k-1
Specific heat capacity of copper = 392jKg-1k-1
I. Determine the:-
(i) Mass of condensed steam. (1 mark)
(ii) Heat gained by water and calorimeter. (2 marks)
II. Given that L is the specific latent heat of vaporization of steam.
(i) Write an expression for the heat given out by steam. (1 mark)
(ii) Determine the value of L. (3 marks)
III. The specific latent heat of fusion of ice is 334J/g. Explain what this means. (1 mark)
IV. The specific heat capacity of pure water is 4200J/ kg /k while that of sea water is 3900J/kg/k. Which of the two
liquids is the most appropriate to be used in cooling systems. Give a reason. (2 marks)

14. (a) Define the term specific heat capacity of a substance. (1 mark)

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(b) In an experiment to determine the specific latent heat of vaporisation of water, stream at 100°C was passed into water
contained in a well lagged copper calorimeter.
The following measurements were obtained.
Mass of calorimeter = 52g
Initial mass of water = 72g
Initial temperature of water = 6°C
Final mass of water + calorimeter + condensed steam = 127g
Final temperature of mixture = 34°C
(Specific heat capacity of water = 4200J/kgk)
(Specific heat capacity of copper = 390J/kgk)
Determine
(i) Mass of condensed steam. (2 marks)
(ii) Heat gained by water and calorimeter. (2 marks)
(iii) Given that LV is the specific latent heat of vaporization of steam, write an expression for the heat out by steam.
(1 mark)
(iv) Determine the value of L. (2 marks)

15. (a) State the unit specific latent heat of a substance. (1 mark)
(b) In an experiment to determine specific heat capacity of liquids, a student used 2.0 kg each of the liquids water glycerine
and paraffin. Each of the liquids was supplied with 21600J of heat energy under the same conditions. The table below
shows the temperature rise for the liquids.
Liquid Water Glycerine Paraffin
Temperature rise (°C) 2.6 4.4 4.9

(i) Suggest a reason for the difference in the rise in temperature. (1 mark)
(ii) Calculate the specific heat capacity of paraffin. (3 marks)

(a) 5g of water at 20°C is heated until it boils at 95°C. On further heating, the temperature of the water does not change until it
has all vapourised. Calculate the amount of heat required to convert all the 5g of water to steam, given that the latent heat
of vaporisation of water is 2.26 × 106 J/kg and specific heat capacity of water is 4200J/kg°C (4 marks)

(b) State one physical property of a good thermometric medium which may be used to measure temperature. (1 mark)
REFRACTION OF LIGHT QUESTIONS
12. The following figure 4 shows the path of a ray of light through a transparent material placed in air.

Air

Ray of light 420 Transparent

Material

Fig. 4
Determine the refractive index of the transparent material (2 marks)
13. (a) A coin is placed at the bottom of a tall jar. The jar is filled with paraffin to a depth of 32.4 cm and the coin is apparently
seen displaced 9.9 cm from the bottom. Determine the refractive index of air with respect to paraffin.(3marks)
(b) Define the term critical angle. (1mark)
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(c) Figure 6 shows a ray of light passing through a glass prism.

θ
Figure 6

600 600

If the speed of light in prism is 2.0 x 108m/s

(i) Determine the refractive index of the prism material given that the speed of light in air is 3.0 x 108m/s. (2marks)
(ii) Determine the value of the critical angle c and show it on Figure 6. (2marks)
14. (a) Two coins were placed at the bottom of two jars each containing a different clear liquid as shown in figure 7.

Jar P Jar Q

Fig 7 Liquid A Liquid B

Coin Coin

The liquids in the two jars are at the same level. The coin in jar Q appears shallower than that in jar P. Explain.
(2 marks)
(b) The figure 8 shows a ray of light incident on a water-air interface from a source 8m deep.

Air

Water 52.50

8m

Fig 8
(i) Ray A is observed to bend as it enters the air. Give a reason why this occurs. (1 mark)
(ii) If the refractive index of water is 1.35, calculate the angle of refraction of ray A (3 marks)
(iii) Find the critical angle of water. (3 marks)
(iv) Give a reason why ray B is not travelling out of water. (1mark)

(c) Figure 9 below shows a ray of light incident on a triangular prism and a white screen is placed in front of the prism.

white ray

Fig 9

screen
Complete the diagram to show the path followed by the ray up to the screen. (2 marks)

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15. A ray of light makes an angle of 350 with the glass surface. Calculate the total distance the ray covers through a glass of
refractive index 1.45, given that the width of the glass is 6cm. (3 marks)

16. Figure 6 below shows the path of light through a transparent material placed in air.

Calculate the refractive index of the transparent material. (3mks)

17. (a) State the meaning of the term critical angle as applied in refraction of light. (1 mark)
(b) The figure shows a ray of light incident on a glass-air interface.

(i) Show on the diagram the critical angle, c. (1 mark)

(ii) Given that the refractive index of the glass is ag, and that the critical angle c = 42º, determine the value of is ag.
(3 marks)

18. Figure 7 below shows a narrow beam of white light onto a glass prism.

Figure 8


r

(i) What is the name of the phenomenon represented in the diagram? (1mk)
(ii) Name the colour at X and Y. Give a reason. (3mks)
(iii) What is the purpose of the slit? (1mk)

(b) Figure 8 below shows the path of ray of yellow light through a glass [Link] speed of yellow light in the prism is 1.8 x
108m/s.

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
r
 KCSE PHYSICS TOPICAL QUESTIONS GOLDLITE ONLINE SERVICES

Figure 8
(i) Determine the refractive index of the prism material (speed of light in vacuum C = 3.0 x 108m/s). (3mks)
(ii) Show on the same diagram, the critical angle, c, and hence determine its value. (3mks)
(iii) Given that r = 31.2°, determine the angle . (3mks)

19. A ray of light incident on the surface of a glass prism is observed to behave as represented in figure 2 below.

Figure 2
Explain this observation. (3mks)

20. Figure 3 shows a cross-section of an optical fibre made of two types of glass A and B. The refractive index of B is lower than
that of A.

Figure 3
A ray of light enters the optical fibre at P and emerges from Q.
(i) Sketch the path of the ray through the fibre. (1mk)
(ii) State the reason why light travels through the fibre as in (i) above. (1mk)

21. Figure 6 shows an object placed infront of a prism as shown.

eye

45° 45°

Using two rays show the image of the object as observed by an observer at E.
(2 marks)
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22. State the two conditions for total internal reflection in a triangular glass prism. (2 marks)
23. The figure below shows a path of a ray of light through a rectangular block of perspex placed in air.

42.5°

Calculate the refractive index of perspex. (2 marks)

24. A pin is placed at the bottom of the beaker of depth 14.5cm. The beaker is then filled with Kerosene. By using
another pin on the side of the beaker and observing from the top, the distance of image of the pin in the beaker is
found to be 4.5cm from the bottom.
Determine the refractive index of kerosene. (3 marks)

14. a) Define the term critical angle. (1 mark)

b) A ray of light passes in a glass block as shown in the figure 6 below.

Glass

Given that the refractive index of glass is 1.5, determine angle . (3 marks)
c) Figure 7 shows a ray of light travelling through successive media.

Air c

Water b

Glass a

Air 70°

Given that the refractive index of glass is 3/2 while that of water is 4/3 determine :
i)angle a (2 marks)
ii)angle b (2 marks)
iii)angle c (2 marks)

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Air c

Water b

Glass a

Air 70°

15. The diagram below shows a ray of light xy travelling through a glass block of critical angle 42° to pointA.

On the same diagram, draw the path of the ray as it travels past point A. (2 marks)

16. The figure below shows a ray of white light dispersed in a triangular prism. The speed of violet light in the prism is
1.88 x 108m/s.

Screen
Glass prism

White light 
r

a) Explain how glass disperses white light into read and violet bands. (1 mark)
b) Determine the refractive index of the prism material for violet light. (Take speed of violet light in vacuum = 3.0 x
108m/s)
(3 marks)
c) Show on the figure the critical angle, c, for violet light and determine its value. (3 marks)
d) Given that r = 21.5o determine the angel . (3 marks)
e) On the same figure, sketch the part of red light after white light strikes the prism if the prism was replaced by another
of similar shape but lower refractive index. (use dotted line for the answer)(2 marks)

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NAME
ADMISSION NUMBER

WORK, ENERGY, POWER AND MACHINES QUESTIONS

3. Figure 11 shows a load of 50N being raised by pulling it along an inclined plane of length 2.0m.

h = 0.5m
2.0m

Figure 11
Determine
i. The work done by the 22N force (2 marks)
ii. The work done against the load (2 marks)
iii. The efficiency of the system (3 marks)

4. Apart from friction, name another factor that reduces efficiency in machines. (1 mark)

5. The figure below shows a machine being used to raise a load. Use the information given in the figure to answer
questions below.

Determine the efficiency of the machine. (3 marks)

6. The figure below shows an inclined plane and a load of mass 15kg pulled by an effort of 100N.
100N
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15kg

) 300

Find the efficiency of the machine (3marks)

7. (a) Sketch a block and tackle pulley with three movable pulleys in the lower block and two fixed pulleys in the upper
block, to give a velocity ratio of 6. (3 marks)
Find:
(i) An effort of 450N is used to raise a load of 2700N. Determine:
• Mechanical advantage (M.A) (2 marks)
• Efficiency of the pulley system. (2 marks)
(ii) If all the wasted energy is used to raise the lower block and the frictional force between pulleys and moving parts is
3.6N; determine the weight of the lower block. (2 marks)
(c) If the load moved through a distance of 50cm, determine the useful work done by the effort. (3 marks)
(d) James applied a force of 400N in pushing a stationery wall. If he took one hour to push the wall, calculate the power
developed. (1 mark)

8. (a) State two factors that affect the efficiency of a pulley system. (2mks)
(b) Figure 5 below shows a pulley system with the load rising at uniform speed.

From the information given, calculate:

(i) The velocity ratio of the machine. (1mk)
(ii) Mechanical advantage of the machine. (2mks)
(iii) Efficiency of the machine. (3mks)
(c) The handle of the screw-jack in figure 6 below is 42cm long and the pitch of the screw is 0.5cm.

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(i) Calculate the V.R of the screw jack. (2mks)

(ii) Calculate the effort needed to lift the load of 1188N. (2mks)

7. (a) Distinguish between load and effort. (2 marks)

(b) A mason uses a six wheel pulley system to raise a weight of 250N through a vertical height of 2.5m using the machine. If
the mason pulls using an effort of 500N. Calculate:
i) The velocity ratio of the pulley system. (2 marks)
ii) The work done by the mason. (3 marks)
iii) The useful work done by the pulley system. (2 marks)
iv) The efficiency of the system (3marks)

8. Figure below shows a graph of how the vertical height through which a machine raises a mass 30kg varies with time.

Determine the power output of the machine after 40 seconds. (3mks)

9. (a) Draw a single pulley arrangement with a velocity ratio of 2. (2mks)

(b) Figure shows a wheel and axle being used to raise a load W by applying an effort F. the radius of the large wheel is R
and of the small wheel r as shown.

(i) Shows that the velocity ratio (V.R) of this machine is given by R/r. (3mks)
(ii) Given that r = 5cm, R = 8cm, determine effort required to raise a load of 20N if the efficiency of the machine is 80%.
(4mks)
(iii) It is observed that the efficiency of the machines increases when it is used to lift large loads. Give a reason for this.
(1mk)

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i. (a) Using the pulley system shown a mass of 10kg is raised 2M by effort of 80N.

(i) Calculate the distance the effort moves. (2mks)

(ii) How much potential energy does the load gain. (1mk)
(iii) How much work is done by the effort? (1mk)
(iv) What is the efficiency of these pulleys? (2mks)
(b) A small pump develops an average power of 100w it raises water from a borehole to a point 10M above the water level.
Calculate the mass of water delivered in 30 minutes. (3mks)
ii. Figure below shows a wheel and axle of radius R and r respectively.

R
(a) Show that the velocity ratio of the system is given by  . (2mks)
r
(b) Given that r = 5cm, R = 20cm and an effort of 1200N is used to lift a load of 3000N. Determine:
The work done by effort to raise the load through a distance of 2m. (3mks)
The efficiency of the system. (3mks)
State two ways in which the efficiency in (ii) above can be increased. (2mks)
(c) A stretched spring with a load attached to one end and fixed at the other is released as shown below.

Sketch on the same axis below the graph of potential energy and kinetic energy with time(2mks)

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Potential energy

iii. (a) In a car, the engine drives an alternator which produces electricity that lights the headlights. List the energy changes
involved. (3 Mks)
(b) What is the power output of a pump which can raise 60kg of water to a height of 10m every minute. (3 Mks)
(c) If the efficiency of the pump in 11(b) is 80%, how much power must be supplied (2 Mks)

iv. (a) The figures below shows a student of mass 60kg sliding freely down the slope AB. She continues and stops at point C.

Fig. 8
The frictional force is one-third of the students weight and acts uniformly all along the slide A to C. Take g = 10m/s 2.
(i) How much potential energy is lost by the student in sliding from A to B. (2mks)
(ii) Calculate the horizontal distance BC. (3mks)
(iii) Ignoring friction along AB and air resistance find the maximum velocity with which the student slides at any one point along
the path. (2mks)

(b) The figure 9 shows a set of gears used to lift a load attached to the axle P by applying an effort to the axle.

(i) In order to lift the load through a distance of 2m, the axle P must rotate 5 times. How many times must axle Q be rotated.
(2mks)
(ii) Through what distance must the effort be applied of the axles P and Q have the same diameter. (2mks)

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14. (a) Define the term efficiency of a machine. (1mk)

0
b) The figure below show a drum of mass 80kg being rolled up a plane inclined at 30 to the horizontal. The force applied is
420N and the distance moved by the drum along the plane is 5.0m.

Calculate :
(i) The work done by the effort (2mks)
(ii) the work done in rising the drum. (2mks)
(iii) the efficiency of the inclined plane as a machine. (2mks)

15. (a) Two gear-wheel have 80 teeth and 20 teeth and they lock with each other. They are fastened on axles of equal diameter
such that equal weight of 150N attached to the string around the axle will just raise 450N on the other axles. Calculate
(i) The mechanical advantage. (2 marks)
(ii) The velocity ratio. (2 marks)
(iii) The efficiency of the machine. (2 marks)
(b) (i) A loudspeaker is a transducer. Explain. (1 mark)
(ii) Explain the energy change that occur when a man climbs the mountain. (1 mark)
(c) Calculate the total power in lifting 0.2kg of metal cane containing 2000cm³ of ice onto a lorry as shown below within 4S.
Density of ice is 0.9g/cm³ (3 marks)
open

Closed

3m

2m

16. (a) State the energy changes that occur when

(i) A man climbs a mountain. (1 mark)
(ii) A woman addresses a crowd using a microphone. (1 mark)
(b) A machine with a wheel of diameter 1.6m and axle of diameter 0.4m lifts a load of mass 12kg with an effort of 120N.
Given that the acceleration due to gravity is 10m/s².
Calculate
(i) The velocity ratio of the machine. (2 marks)
(ii) The mechanical advantage of the machine. (2 marks)
(iii) The efficiency of the machine. (2 marks)
(a) A bullet of mass 8 × 10-³ kg is fired horizontally into a block of wood of mass 0.6kg which it knocks and moves with an
initial speed of 6m/s. Calculate
(i) The speed of the bullet. (2 marks)
(ii) The kinetic energy lost in the impact. (2 marks)

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FORM FOUR PHYSICS TOPICAL QUESTION

NAME
ADMISSION NUMBER

CATHODE RAYS AND CATHODE RAY TUBE QUESTIONS

1. (a) Figure 12 below shows a cathode ray tube (C.R.O).

(i) Name the parts labelled A and B. (2mks)

(ii) What are the functions A and C? (2mks)
(iii) Explain how electrons are produced. (2mks)
(iv) Give a reason why the tube is evacuated. (1mk)

2. The figure 7 below represents a cathode ray oscilloscope (C.R.O)

i) Name the parts labeled A and B (2mks)

ii) What are the functions of parts labeled C and D (2mks)
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iii) Explain how electrons are produced. (2mk)

iv) Give a reason why the tube is evacuated.
(1mk)
((b) i) Distinguish between cathode rays and light rays
(2mks)
(ii) State the function of A (1mk)
(iii) An alternating p.d is applied across the Y-plates. State what is the effect on the position of the spot
on the screen? (1 mark)
(iv) A signal with a frequency of 50Hz is applied across the Y-plates. If the time base with a period of
0.04s is applied across the X-plates, sketch a graph of p.d against time showing the number of waves
that can be seen on the screen of the C.R.O (2 mks)

v) The tube of the CRO is coated with graphite. State three functions of the graphite coating
(3mks)

3.
(a) The figure below shows the vertical deflection system of a Cathode Ray Oscilloscope (C.R.O).

(i) State how cathode rays are produced in Cathode Ray Oscilloscope. (1 mark)
(ii) Show on the diagram the path of the cathode rays when the switch S is closed. (1 mark)
(iii)State what is observed on the screen if the d.c. supply is replaced with a high frequency a.c. supply. (1
mark)
(b) An electric filament bulb is rated 24V, 0.5A.
Calculate:
(i) The power of the bulb. (2 marks)
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(ii) The energy dissipated by the bulb in 80 minutes. (2 marks)

4. In a cathode ray oscilloscope the time base is set at 25ms/mm. Given that crest to crest of a signal
covers a length of 6cm, determine the frequency of the signal. (3mks)

5. Figure 11 shows cathode ray oscilloscope (CRO)

Figure 11
(a) Name parts labelled A and B (2mks)
(b) What are the functions of parts labelled C and D? (2mks)
(c) Why is the tube evaluated? (1mk)
(d) Four 40w bulbs and six 100w bulbs were switched on for 5 hours a day for domestic use in an
institution. Find the monthly bill for 30 days at rate of sh 5.50 per unit with standing charge of
sh 150. (3mks)

6. Figure 9 below shows a cathode ray tube in which a beam of electrons is cast on the screen

Figure 9
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(a) State how the electrons are produced in the tube. (1mk)
(b) State how the electron beam is detected. (1mk)
(c) State the reason for having a variable potential difference (p.d) at the:
(i) Grid (1mk)
(ii) Anodes (1mk)
(d) Figure 10 shows the waveform of a signal applied at the Y- plates of an oscilloscope whose
time-base is switched to the scale of 2 milliseconds per centimetre.

Figure 10
Determine
(i) the period of the signal (2mks)
(ii) the frequency of the signal. (3mks)

7. The graph in figure shown was obtained on a cathode ray oscilloscope (CRO) screen when the output
of an a.c. generator was connected to the input of the CRO. The time-base calibration of the CRO
was set at 20 milliseconds per centimetre and the y-gain at 5 volts centimetre.

Determine the frequency of the voltage. (2 marks)

8. Figure 9 is a diagram of cathode ray tube. M and N are parallel vertical plates.

S Screen seen
N from front
Spot
M
F
~ M N

+ High voltage

Figure 9(a) Figure 9(b)

a) When switch S is open, spot is seen at the centre of the screen as shown in figure 9.
i) State what happens to the spot when S is closed. (1 mark)
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ii) State what would happen to the spot if the potential difference across MN is increased. (1 mark)
iii) State what would be seen on the screen if the battery is replaced with an alternating e.m.f of;
I) a low frequency of about 1HZ (1 mark)
II) a high frequency of about 50HZ. (1 mark)
b) Explain the process by which electron are produced at F. (2 marks)
c) State with a reason how the brightness of the spot can be increased. (2 marks)
d) The accelerating voltage of the tube is 1000V and the electron current in the beam is 1.5mA.
Determine the energy to the screen per second. (3 marks)

9. The figure below shows the displacement of a spot on a cathode ray oscilloscope screen.

3cm

The spot appears on the CRO at position A. When DC voltage is applied to Y-plates the spot is displaced
to position B. The Y-gain is set at 20V/cm.
i) State the type of voltage applied. (1 mark)
ii) Find the voltage applied. (2 marks)

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NAME
ADMISSION NUMBER

UNIFORM CIRCULAR MOTION QUESTIONS

1. (a) State two factors that reduce the stability of a vehicle while going round a banked bend. (2 marks)
(b) Three insoluble powders A, B and C of densities dA, dB and dC, such that dA> dB > dC, are mixed and
put into a container. The container is then whirled in a horizontal circle as shown in figure 7.

Centre of rotation

Container

Figure 7
(i) Label on figure 7, the positions of the powders after some time. (1 mark)

(ii) Give a reason for your answer in b (i) (2 marks)

(c) Figure 8 shows two masses 0.1kg and 2kg connected by a string through a hole on a smooth horizontal
surface.

0.1kg
3cm
Smooth horizontal surface

2kg
Figure 8
The 0.1kg rotates in a horizontal circle of radius 3cm. Calculate the angular velocity of the 0.1kg mass,
when the system is in equilibrium. (3 marks)
(d) A bicycle wheel makes 300 revolutions per minute. Calculate the angular velocity of the wheel. (3
marks)
2. (a) Give reason why a body moving in a circular path with constant speed is said to be accelerating.
(1mark)
(b) A stone of mass 40g is tied to the end of a string 50cm long such that it is 20m above the ground at its
lowest level as shown in the diagram below. It is whirled in a vertical circle at 2rev/s.

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(i) If the string breaks at its lowest levelas shown, what is the velocity with which it travels?
(2 mark)
Calculate the maximum tension in the string. (3marks)
(ii) Calculate the maximum tension in the string. (2 marks)
(d) Determine the maximum horizontal distance it travels from the breaking point (2 marks)

3. (a) Distinguish between angular velocity and linear velocity.

(1marks)
(b) A pendulum bob is whirled with uniform speed in a horizontal circle of radius [Link] bob
describes an arc of length 5cm within 15 seconds.
Calculate
i) Angular velocity (3marks)
ii) The uniform speed of the bob along the circular path (2marks)
iii) The frequency with the bob moves along the circular path (2marks)
iv) State why the bob is accelerating yet it moves with the uniform speed along its path (1mks)

4. (a) The moon goes round the earth at constant speed. Explain why it is true to say that the moon
is accelerating. (1 mark)
(b) A string of negligible mass has a bucket tied at the end. The string is 60cm long and the bucket has a
mass of 45g. The bucket is swung horizontally making 6 revolutions per second. Calculate:
(i) The angular velocity. (1 mark)
(ii) The centripetal acceleration. (2 marks)
(iii) The tension on the string. (2 marks)
(iv) The linear velocity. (1 mark)
(c) Figure 6 shows of mass m = 200g attached to the centre of a rotating table with a string. The radius
of the spring was varied and different values of angular velocity recorded. The mass of the body
remained constant throughout the experiment.

String

Figure 6
The results obtained for angular velocity and radius were used to plot the following graph.
From the above graph;
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(i) Calculate the value of the slope. (2 marks)

1 𝑝 1
(ii) If 𝜔 and 𝑟 are related by the equation; 𝜔2 = 𝑟 𝑥 𝑚, find the value of P.
2
(2 marks)
(iii) State the significance of P. (1 mark)
5. (a) Define angular velocity. (1mk)
(b) A string of length 70cm is used to whirl a stone of mass 0.5kg in a circle of a vertical plane at 5
rev/s. Determine.
(i) The period. (2mks)
(ii) The angular velocity. (3mks)
(iii) The centripetal force. (3mks)
(c) (i) Explain why bodies in a circular motion undergo acceleration even when their speed is
constant.(1mk)
(i) The figure below shows a container with small holes at the bottom in which wet clothes have
been put.

When the container is whirled in air at high speeds, it is observed that the clothes dry faster. Explain
how the rotation of the container causes the clothes to dry faster.
(2mks)

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6. (a) One of the factors that affect the centripetal force is the mass of the body. State two other factors.
(2mks)
(b) A mass of 400g is rotated by a string at a constant speed V in a vertical circle of radius 100cm. The
minimum tension in the string is 7.2N which is experienced at point T.
T
•

(i) Determine the velocity V of the mass at point T. (3mks)

(ii) Determine the maximum tension in the string. (2mks)
(c) The anchor of a ship is made of steel and has a weight of 3200N in air. A ship floating in water is
held by the anchor submerged in water. (Density of steel is 8000kgmˉ³).
Calculate.
(i) The volume of the anchor. (2mks)
(ii) The up thrust on the anchor. (2mks)
(iii)The apparent weight of the anchor. (2mks)

7. The figure below shows an object of mass 1kg whirled in a vertical circle of radius 0.5m at a uniform
speed of 5m/s.

r = 0.5m

(i) Determine:
I the centripetal force on the object. (3mks)
II the tension in the string when the object is at A. (2mks)
III the tension in the string when the object is at B. (2mks)
(ii) The speed of rotation is gradually increased until the string snaps. At what point is the string likely to
snap. Explain. (2mks)

8. (a) State the factors affecting centripetal force. (3mks)

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(b) A mass of 0.4 kg is rotated by a string at a constant speed V in a vertical circle of radius 1 m.
The minimum tension in the string is 6N.
(i) Indicate on the diagram below the position of the object for the minimum tension, (1mk)
(ii) Write an expression for this uniform force experienced. (1mk)
(iii) Use your expression to determine the velocity V. (3mks)
(iv) Determine maximum tension on the string. (2mks)
c) Using the kinetic theory of gases explain how a rise in temperature of a gas causes arise in the volume
of the gas if the pressure is kept constant. (3mks)

9. (a) Name two forces acting on a racing car, when racing along curved road. (2mks)
(b) A particle on a wheel moves through an angle of 600 in 0.2 seconds, if the radius of the wheel is
30cm determine the
(i) Angular velocity of the wheel. (2mks)
(ii) Linear speed of the particle. (2mks)
(c) The figure below shows two trolleys of mass 5.0kg and 3.0kg travelling towards each other at
0.60m/s and 0.5m/s respectively.

If the trolleys fuse on collision. Calculate the velocity of the combined trolleys. (2mks)
(ii) A goalkeeper catches a ball of mass 450g moving with a velocity of 20m/s. Determine
(I) momentum of the ball. (2mks)
(II) the average force applied by the goalkeeper hands to stop the ball in 0.4 seconds. (2mks)

10 (a) A stone of mass 450g is rotated in a vertical circle at 3 revolutions per second. If the string has a
length of 1.5m, determine:
(i) the linear velocity. (3 marks)
(ii) the tension of the string at positions A and B. (4 marks)
A

(b) State two factors affecting centripetal force. (2 marks)

c) (i)When a planet, orbits the sun, it experiences a centripetal force. State what provides the centripetal
force. (1 mark)
(ii) State the purpose of banking roads at bends. (1 mark)
( iii)A student whirls a stone of mass 0.2kg tied to a string of length 0.4m in a vertical plane at a constant
speed of 2 revolutions per second. (Take acceleration due to gravity g as 10ms-2)
I. State two forces acting on the stone when it is at the highest point. (2 marks)
II. Determine the angular velocity of the stone. (2 marks)

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NAME
ADMISSION NUMBER

ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION QUESTIONS

1. One of the factors that affect efficiency of a transformer is hysteresis losses. What is hyteresis losses

2. (a) A bar magnet is pushed into a coil as shown in Figure 5 below.

Figure 5

N S
Motion

Explain what happens to the pointer of the galvanometer when the magnet is:
(i) Moved into the coil rapidly? (1mark)
Galvanometer
(ii) Remains stationary inside the coil? (1mark)
(b) State two ways of increasing the magnitude of induced current in a generator. (2marks)
(c) A transformer has 200 turns in the primary coil and 1000 turns in the secondary coil. The primary coil
is connected to an a.c source producing 100 V and rated 500 W. The current delivered by the secondary
circuit was found to be 0.95 A.
(i) Determine the efficiency of this transformer. (3marks)
(ii) Explain why the efficiency is less than 100%. (2marks)

3. (a) The two free ends of a coil are connected to a center – zero galvanometer. When the north pole of
magnet is moved towards the coil, the pointer deflects in the direction shown in figure 2.

Figure 2
State with a reason the behaviour of the pointer inn the following cases:
(i) The north pole of the magnet is held stationary near P. (2 marks)
(ii) The north pole of the magnet is made to approach the coil from end Q (2 marks)
(b) State Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction. (1 mark)
(c) A transformer supplies 12V when it is connected to 240V supply of electricity. The output of the
transformer is connected to 12V 36W bulb. The current drawn from the supply by the transformer is 0.5A.
Calculate:
(i) the input power of the transformer. (3 marks)
(ii) the current drawn from the transformer. (3 marks)
(iii) The output power of the transformer. (1 mark)

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(iv) the efficiency of the transformer (3 marks)

4. (a) State lenzes law of electromagnetic induction. (1mk)

(b) Figure 11 below show a magnet being pulled from a coil connected to a centre zero galvanometer.

(i)\State the observation made. (1mk)

(ii) Explain what would happen if the magnet was moved out faster.
(1mk)
(iii)\Explain the observation in b(i) above. (2mks)
(c) (i) The turns ratio of primary to secondary coils in a 100% efficient transformer is 3: 1. Calculate the
current through the primary coil if the current in the secondary coil is 5A.
(3mks)
(ii) State how the energy losses are minimized in a transformer.
I Eddy current. (1mk)
II Flux linkage. (1mk)

5. Differentiate between Faradays law of electromagnetic induction and Lenz law.

(2mks)

6. (a) State Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction. (1 mark)

(b) The figure below shows a 12V, 24W lamp operated by a step-down transformer that is connected to
a 240V mains supply.

(i) Explain what is meant by the term ‘laminated core’ and state its significance in a transformer.(2
marks)
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(ii) Calculate the efficiency of the transformer if the current through the primary coil is 0.12A. (3
marks)
(c) The figure below shows a conductor AB placed in a magnetic field.

State the direction in which the wire must be moved for the induced current to flow in the direction shown.
(1 mark)
(d) Explain the meaning of the term ‘Hysteresis loss’ as applied in transformers and state how it can be
reduced.(2 marks)
7. (a) State one difference between a transformer and an induction coil. (1mk)
(b) State two energy losses in a transformer. (2mks)
(b) A transformer has 1000 turns in its secondary coil and 10 turns on its primary coil. An alternating
current of 2.5A flows in the primary circuit when it is connected to a 12V a.c. supply.
(i) State the type of transformer. (1mk)
(ii) Calculate the power input to the transformer. (3mks)
(iii)Calculate the e.m.f. across the secondary coil. (3mks)
(iv) Determine the maximum current that could flow in a circuit connected to the secondary coil if the
transformer is 80% efficient. (Use the e.m.f in secondary as calculated in (iii) above).
(3mks)
(v) In transmitting power why is it necessary to step up before transmission. Explain.
(2mks)
8. (a) What do you understand by the term mutual induction? (1mk)
(b) State two factors that determine the magnitude of e.m.f. induced in a coil. (2mks)
(c) The diagram below shows an induction coil used to produce sparks.

[Link] the parts labeled A, B and C. (3mks)

[Link] the purpose of device C. (1mk)
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(d) A transformer is used on a 240V A.C. supply to deliver 12A at 120A to a hating coil. If 20% of
energy taken from the
supply is dissipated in the transformer.
(i) What is the current in the primary coil? (3mks)
(ii) Give two causes of 20% energy dissipation in the transformation above.
(2mks)

9. a) The figure 6 shows two coils A and B placed close to each other. A is connected to a
steady D.C supply and a switch B is connected to a sensitive galvanometer.

Coil A Coil B
sensitive
galvanometre

Figure 6
i) The switch is now closed. State the observation made on the galvanometer. (2 marks)
ii) Explain what would be observed if the switch is then opened. (2 marks)
b) The primary coil of a transformer has 1000 turns and the secondary coil has 200 turns. The primary
coil is connected to a 240V ac mains supply.
i) Explain how e.m.f is induced in the secondary coil. (2 marks)
ii) Determine the secondary voltage. (3 marks)
iii) Determine the efficiency at the transformer gives that the current in the primary coil is 2.0A and in
secondary coil is 0.80A. (2 marks)

10. a) State Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction. (1 mark)

b)
G

A wire placed between the poles of two permanent magnets is connected as shown in figure 10.
i) State and explain what is observed when the wire is moved up and down. (2 marks)
ii) Suggest two ways of altering the magnitude of the effect you have stated in (i) above. (2 marks)
c) Explain why the core of a transformer is :
i)\laminated (1 mark)
ii) made of soft iron (1 mark)
d) A heater rated 3KW is used for 30 minutes everyday for 30 days. Calculate the cost of the electricity
consumed in the 30 days given that its charged at Ksh.7.00 per unit. (3 marks)

11. State two conditions necessary for electromagnetic induction to occur. (2 marks)
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12. The figure below shows a simple form of an a.c generator.

B C

N A
S
D
P

X
Q
Lamp
Y

a) Name the parts P and Q (2 marks)

b) State the functions of P and Q (1 mark)
c) State two ways of increasing the e.m.f produced by this apparatus. (2 marks)
d) Which terminals X and Y is positive if the coil is rotating in the direction shown ? (1 mark)
e) State one use of electricity where it is essential to use a direct current. How will you modify the above
apparatus to obtain a d.c output? (2 marks)
f) Differentiate between a generator and a motor. (2 marks)

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ADMISSION NUMBER

ELECTROMAGNETIC SPECTRUM QUESTIONS

7. Below is part of a circuit that was setup by form four students of Okok Seconday School during a physics
practical lesson to demonstrate full wave rectification using two diodes. Complete the circuit by correctly
placing the load R and two diodes.

Fig. 5

8. The chart below shows part of the electromagnetic spectrum.

A B Visible light UV light C
(a) Identify the radiation marked A and C. (1mark)
(b) Give one application of the radiation marked B. (1mark)

9. (i) Arrange the following waves in order of decreasing wavelength.

Infrared, X-rays, microwaves, yellow light, radio waves, red light. (1 mark)
(ii) State one application of infrared wave. (1
mark)

10. Complete the following table

(2 marks)
Radiation Source Detector Application
Radio Communication
Hot body Drying clothes

11. State one use of microwaves. (1mk)

12. State:
(a) Two applications of microwaves. (2 marks)
(b) one detector of infrared radiation. (1 mark)

13. The chart below shows an arrangement of different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum.

Radio wave Infrared rays B Ultra-violet -Rays Gamma-Rays

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Name the radiation represented by B. (1mk)

14. Arrange the following in order of increasing wavelength: Visible light, X-Ray, Ultra Violet Radiation
and Radio Waves. (1mk)

15. Figure 3 shows an electromagnetic spectrum.

A B C Visible light D E F

Figure 3
Given that F has the shortest wavelength;
a) Identify radiation B (1 mark)
b) State one application of E. (1 mark)

16. State one use of ultra violet waves. (1 mark)

17. i) Arrange the following waves in order of increasing frequencies. (1 mark)

Gramma rays, radio waves, infrared, UV and X-rays
ii) Name the electromagnetic radiation used in heating. (1 mark)

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ELECTRONICS QUESTIONS

1. Explain briefly how a p-type semiconductor is made. (1 mark)

2. Explain how doping a pure semi-conductor produces on n-type semi-conductor. (3 marks)
3. Explain how a P-type semiconductor is made from a pure semiconductor. (2mks)
4. Sketch diode circuit in reverse biased mode. (1mk)
5. (a) When a germanium crystal is doped with arsenic, it becomes an N-type semiconductor. Explain how
the change occurs. (Number of electrons in the outmost shell for germanium 4, Arsenic = 5)(2mks)
(b) The graph shows current against voltage for a semiconductor diode.

In the space provided, draw a circuit diagram that may be used to obtain values needed to draw the
above graph. (2mks)
6. Explain why a p-n junction diode will conduct when connected in forward bias. (1 mark)
7. Using the components symbols shown in the figure 1, sketch a series circuit diagram for a forward
biased diode.

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MAINS ELECTRICITY QUESTIONS

1. An electric kettle is rated at 1.8 kW, 240 V. Explain the choice of the safest fuse for the kettle. (the
available fuses are 5 A, 10 A, and 20 A) (3marks)

2. An electric immersion heater rated 240V, 3kW is to be connected to a 240V mains supply, using a
10A fuse. Showing your working, state whether the fuse is suitable or not for circuit. (3
marks)

3. A heater of resistance R1 is rated P watts, V volts while another of resistance R 2 is rated 2P watts, V/2
volts. Determine the ratio R1 to R2. (3mks)

4. (a) What is the purpose of a fuse? (1 mark)

(b) The diagram in figure 9 below shows a ring – main circuit used by an electrician in a certain house.
(i) Identify two faults in the installation. (2 marks)

Fig 9

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ii) Explain why the 3 – pin plug fuse has a longer earth pin than the live and neutral pins. (2 marks)
iii) Identify the type of transformer T used in the diagram in Fig. 9 (1 mark)
(c) A cooker rated 2.0kW was operated for 40minutes each for 30days. If the cost of each kilo – watt –
hour unit is Shs. 15.50, Calculate the cost of electricity used. (4 marks)

5. (a) The figure below shows the inner parts of a three-pin plug.

(i) Identify the pins A and B. (2 marks)

(ii) State the reason why the pin B is normally longer than the other two pins A and C. (1 mark)

6.

Identify and explain two faults in the light circuit shown in the figure above. (2mks)

7. (a) State two factors that determine the magnitude of an induced emf in a conductor. (2mks)

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(b) A power station has input of 50kw at p.d. of 10 Kv. A transformer with secondary coils of 1000 turns is
used to step down the voltage to 1000v for transmission along grid. Assuming there is no power loss,
calculate:
(i) Current in primary coil. (2mks)
(ii) Number of turns in primary coil. (2mks)
(iii) Current in secondary coil. (2mks)
(c) State which of coils in thicker and why. (2mks)

8. Figure 8 shows a section of a house wiring system.

a) Name the
(i) circuit labelled
(1mk)
(ii) terminals labelled X and Y (2mks)
(b) i) State the purpose of R in the circuit. (1mk)
(ii) Give a reason why R is connected to Y but not to X. (1mk)
(c) Determine the cost of using the electric iron rated 150W for a total of 30 hours given that the cost
of electricity per KWh is Ksh 8. (1mk)

9. The diagram below shows an electrical appliance connected to the mains.

Fuse
A
Casing

Heating
B element
Fig 2
I. Name the colour codes for leads A and B (2 marks)
II. What is the purpose of the fuse. (1 mark)

10. (a) Figure 7 shows a connection of the three pin plug.

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Brown
Green/ Blue
Yellow

(i) Identify two mistakes in this wiring. (2 marks)

(ii) What would happen if this plug was connected to the mains of the socket? (1 mark)
(iii) State two reasons why the earth pin is normally longer than the other two pins. (2 marks)
(b) A house has five rooms with 240V, 60W bulbs. If the bulbs are switched on from 7.00pm to 10.30pm
(i) Calculate the power consumed per day in kilowatt-hours. (3 marks)
(ii) Find the cost per week for lighting these rooms at Kshs 670 per unit. (2 marks)
11. An electric heater is found to have a resistance of 950W when operating normally on a 240V
mains. Determine the power rating of the heater. (2 marks)
12. (a) The figure below shows part of the lighting circuit of a house.
i) Explain why a fuse is included in the circuit. (1 mark)
ii) Explain why the fuse is placed in the live wire rather than in the neutral wire. (1 mark)
iii) Each lamp has a power of 60W. Calculate the current through one lamp when it is switched on. (2
marks)
iv)The fuse has a rating of 4A. Calculate the maximum number of lamps that can be connected and
switched on without the
fuse blowing. Each bulb is parallel with the power supply. (2 marks)

b) i) The figure below shows a step-up transformer commonly used at a power station.

Input Output
AC AC

What is meant by a step-up transformer

ii) Why does a transformer work with AC only? (1 mark)
iv) State two ways in which power is lost in a transformer. (2 marks)
v) Explain why the emf produced at a power station is stepped up. (2 marks)

13. A device is marked 1000W 240V. What fuse rating would be suitable for the device.(3 marks)

14. A heater rated 3KW is used for 30 minutes everyday for 30 days. Calculate the cost of the electricity
consumed in the 30 days given that its charged at Ksh.7.00 per unit. (3 marks)

15. An electric iron box has a resistance of 60 . For how long should it be switched on in order to
dissipate 288,000 joules of energy if it operates at 240V. (3 marks)

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PHOTOELECTRIC EFFECT QUESTIONS

18. Figure 10 shows photocell used in a set-up for a burglar alarm.

UV Light

Relay

To burglar alarm

Fig. 10

(i) Give a reason why the photocell is usually evacuated. (1

mark)
(ii) State the function of the resistor R in this circuit (1 mark)
(iii) Explain why a particular radiation such as ultra-violet light is used to strike a given cathode surface.
(2 marks)
(iv) Explain how the set-up in the figure can be used as a burglar alarm. (3 marks)
14
(b) Light of frequency 5.50 x 10 Hz is incident on a surface whose work function is 2.5ev.
(i) Determine the energy of photons of light in eV. (Take h = 6.63 x 10 -34 Js) and 1eV (3 marks)
(ii) Will photoelectric emission occur? Explain (2 marks)

19. (a) Figures 5(a) and 5(b) shows ultra violet radiation striking polished zinc plates placed on negatively
and positively charged
gold leaf electroscopes respectively.

Explain why the leaf collapses in fig (a) but does not collapse in fig (b) (4 marks)
(b) (i) State two factors which determine the speed of photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface. (2
marks)

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(ii) In an experiment using a photocell, u.v. light of varying frequency but constant intensity was made to
strike a metal surface. The maximum kinetic energy (K. E. max) of photoelectrons for each frequency,
f, was measured. The graph in figure 6 shows [Link] varies with f.

Given [Link] = hf - ∅, from the graph, determine the values of:

(a) The h (planks constant) (3 marks)
(b) The ∅ from the graph. (3 marks)
14
(c) Light of frequency 5.5 x 10 Hz is made to strike a surface whose work function is 2.5Ev. Show that
photoelectric effect will not take place. (Use the values of h from (b) above.
(Take e = 1.6 x 10-19C) (3 marks)

20. In an experiment using a photocell, ultraviolet light of varying frequency strikes a metal surface. The
maximum kinetic
energy (K.E max) of photoelectrons for each frequency, f, is measured. The graph below shows
how the maximum kinetic energy varies with the frequency, f.

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(a) Use the graph to determine:-

(i) Planck’s constant, h. (3mks)
(ii) Work function of the metal. (3mks)

21. In an experiment to find the relationship between frequency of radiation and kinetic energy of
photoelectrons in a photoelectric device, the following graph was obtained.

Use the graph to answer the following questions.

(i) Determine the threshold frequency. (1 mark)
(ii) Find the plank’s constant h. (Take the charge of an electron to be 1.6 x 10 C).
-19
(3 marks)
(iii)Calculate the work function of the metal in joules. (2 marks)

22. In an experiment to find the relationship between frequency of radiation and kinetic energy of
photoelectrons in a photoelectric device, the following graph was obtained.

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Use the graph to answer the following questions.

(a) (i) Determine the threshold frequency. (1mk)
(ii) Find the plank’s constant h. (3mks)
(Take the charge of an electron to be .6 x 10-19C)
(iii) Determine the work function of the metal in joules. (2mks)
(b) Determine the threshold wavelength of a metal whose work function is 2.4 x 10-18J. (3mks)
(Take the plank’s constant to be 6.63 x 10-34Js)
23. Define the term threshold wavelength as used in photoelectric emission. (1mk)

7. (a) Define photoelectron. (1mk)

(b) State two factors affecting photoelectric effect. (2mks)

(c) Figure 8 on graph paper shows graph of stopping potential against frequency (graph paper)

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(i) Define stopping potential. (1mk)

(ii) Given that stopping potential (Vs) is related to frequency by equation.
Vs = hf – Wo
e e where e = 1.6 x 10-19 C
Determine from graph
i) Planck’s constant (h) (4mks)
(ii) Work function (wo) in (ev) (3mks)

8. (a) State two factors that determine the speed of photoelectrons emitted by a metal surface. (2mks)
(b) In an experiment using a photocell, a u.v. light of varying frequency but constant intensity was
made to strike a metal surface. The maximum kinetic energy (k.e. max) of photoelectrons for each
frequency, f, was measured. The graph shows how KE max varies with f.
Given that KE max = h f – O, determine the values of h and O from the graph.
h= (3mks)
O= (3mks)
(c) Light of frequency 5.5 x 1014Hz is made to strike a surface whose work function is 2.5 eV. Show
that photoelectric effect will not take place. (3mks)

9. (a) (i) Distinguish between threshold frequency and threshold wavelength. (1 mark)
(ii)The maximum wavelength required to cause photoelectric emission on a metal surface is 8.0 × 10 -
7
m. The metal surface is irradiated with light of frequency 8.5 × 10 14HZ. (Take h = 6.62 × 10-34Js,
C=3.0 ×108ms-1)
Determine
I. The threshold frequency. (2 marks)
II. Maximum kinetic energy of the electrons. (3 marks)

b) The graph below in figure 7 shows the variation of stopping potential Vs, against reciprocal of the
wavelength, 1/l for a certain metal. If the work function of the metal was 2.08 × 10 -19 and velocity of
electromagnetic wave is 3.0 × 108 ms-1
30
-1
VS X 10 (V)

25

20

15

10

0 5 10 15 20 25 30
1 -1 7
/ (m ) X 10

-5

-10

Fig. 7 -15

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hc W
V( S ) =by − O
The equation of the graph is given use the graph to determine
e e
(i) the slope of the graph. (3 marks)
(ii) the value of the electronic charge. (4 marks)

10. In an experiment involving photo electric emission from a metal surface the following readings were
obtained.
Stopping voltage Vs / 0.2 0.6 1.0 1.8 2.2
v
Frequency f/1014Hz 8.0 9.0 10.0 12.0 13.0

(a)Explain how you would change the frequency of the incident radiation, without changing the source of
radiation. (1 mark)
(b) Plot a graph of slopping voltages, VS, (y-axis) against frequency, f, (5 marks)
c) Use Einstein's equation of photoelectric effect, namely hf = hfo + ev S and your graph in part (b) to
determine a value for
(i) Planck's constant. (3 marks)
(ii) Work function of the metal. (2 marks)
RADIOACTIVITY QUESTIONS
24. Figure 12 shows a diffusion cloud chamber for detecting radioactivity.
6Perspex lid

Felt ring soaked in alcohol

Source

Dry ice (Solid CO2)

Sponge
Fig. 12
(a) State the function of the following.
(I) Alcohol (1 mark)
(II) Solid CO2 (1 mark)
(b) When radiation from the source enters the chamber, some white traces are observed.
(I) Explain how the traces are formed. (1 mark)
(II) State how the radiation is identified (1 mark)
(c) A leaf electroscope can be used as a detector of radiation. State two advantages of the diffusion cloud
chamber over the leaf electroscope.

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25. Below is radioactive decay.

232 K 228  𝑔𝑎𝑚𝑚𝑎 𝑦
𝐴 B 𝐶
90 88 𝑥

(i) Identify radiation K (1 mark)

(ii) Determine the values of x and y
(2marks)

26. A radioactive sample of half life 130 days initially has 1.0 x 10 20 radioactive atoms. Determine
the number of radioactive atoms that would have decayed after 390 days. (3 marks)

27. (a) Figure 13 below shows a diagram of a Geiger Muller tube connected to a power supply and a pulse
counter.

(i) Why should the argon gas be at low pressure? (1mk)

(ii) State the purpose of the bromine gas in the tube. (1mk)
(iii) Suggest one way of increasing the sensitivity of the tube.
(1mk)
(iv) Find the value of a and b in the following equation. (2mks)

234 U → a X + 2
92 b

5. a) Name any two types of radiations given out in a radioactive process. (2mks)
b) The half – life of cobalt – 60 is 5years.

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How long will a sample take for the activity to decrease to 1/16 of its original value.
(3mks)
c) The graph below shows radioactive decay of iodine.

Use the graph to determine the:-

(i) Fraction of the amount remaining after 16.2 days. (2mks)
(ii) Determine the half – life of iodine. (2mks)
(iii)Mass remaining after 17 days.
(1mk)

6. The following reaction is part of a radioactive series.

(a) Identify the radiation z. (1 mark)

(b) Determine the values of  and y. (2 marks)

7. A radioactive sample of half-life 260 days initially has 2.0 x 1020 radioactive atoms. Calculate the
number of atoms that would decay after 780 days.
(3mks)

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226 206
8. Radium Ra disintegrates into a new stable element lead Pb. How many Alpha and Beta
88 82
particles are emitted? (2mks)

9. Define half life as used in radioactivity. (1mk)

10. (a) Define radioactivity. (1mk)

b) Identify the radiations of tracks in figure 9 below.
Figure 9 (1mk)

(i)

(ii) (1mk)

(c) Identify radiations using figure 10 below. (3mks)

Figure 10
X Y and Z
(d) The following reaction is part of radioactive series

Identify radiation h and values of b and c (3mks)

11. (a) The initial mass of a radioactive substance is 20g. The substance has a half-life of 5 years.
Determine the mass remaining after 20 years. (2mks)
(b) When a radiation was released into a diffusion cloud chamber, short thick track were observed.
State with a reason, the type of radiation that was detected. (2mks)
(c) Radium undergoes radioactive decay by emitting an alpha particle to form a daughter nuclide Q as in
the reaction.

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Determine the values of

(i) x (1mk)
(ii) y
(1mk)

12. a) The diagram below shows the path taken by three radiations X, Y and Z from a radioactive source,
through an electric
field.
(+) Z

(-ve) X

(i) Identify X, Y and Z. (3 marks)

(ii) Give a reason for the differences in deviation shown by X and Z. (1 mark)
b)A radioactive source infront of a Geiger-muller tube shows a high count rate. The count rates are then
taken from the source after placing a thin paper, then a thin aluminium foil and finally a thick lead slab,
one at a time between the source and the G - M tube. It was observed that the paper had no effect on the
count rate, aluminium had a small effect while the count rate was reduced greatly with lead.
(i) Give reasons for the three observations. (2 marks)
(ii) Deduce the possible radiations from the source. (2 marks)
(iii) State any two applications for the radiations entitled. (2 marks)

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THIN LENSES QUESTIONS

28. Some students wish to determine the focal length of a convex lens of thickness 0.6cm using an optical pin
and a plane mirror. Figure 6 shows the experimental set up when there is no parallax between the pin and
the image.

Pin Image of pin

20cm

Plane mirror

Fig. 6
Determine the focal length of the lens (2 marks)
(b) An optician in Eldoret Hospital examined an eye of a patient and made the following observations:
Eye too short and the focal length of the eye lens short
(i) State the eye defect the patient could be having. (1 mark)
(ii) Use a diagram to describe how the defect could be corrected. (2
marks)
(c) The graph below shows the variation of 1/v and 1/u in an experiment to determine the focal length of a
lens.

0.3
1 0.2
m-1
𝑣

0.1

1
0.1 0.3 0.3 m-1
𝑢

Fig. 7

(i) Use the graph to determine the focal length (3 marks)

(ii) What is the power of the lens used? (2 marks)

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(d) A converging lens forms an image which is three times the object. Determine the focal length of the lens
if the distance between the object and the screen is 80cm. (3 marks)

29.
(a) Figure 12 shows an object O placed in front of a diverging lens whose principal focus is F.
Figure 12

O F

On the diagram, draw rays diagram to locate the image formed. (3marks)
(b) Figure 13 shows a defective eye focusing a distant object.
Figure 13

Rays from a distant object

(i) Name the defect. (1mark)

On the same diagram, sketch the appropriate lens to correct the defect and sketch the rays to show the effect
of the lens. (2marks)
30. (a)Figure 10 shows a glass lens in air and its two focal points F1 and F2.

Three rays of light pass through F1 to the lens, on the figure show the path followed by the three rays
through the lens and into the air. (3 marks)

(b) I State one possible cause of myopia. (1 mark)

II. State the type of lens that is used to correct myopia. (1 mark)

(c) The figure 11 below shows a pin 60mm long placed along the principal axis of a lens of focal length
50mm. The near end of the pin is 80mm form the lens.
principal axis

Fig 11
600mm 800mm

Determine the length of the image. (4 marks

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(d) In an experiment to determine the focal length of a converging lens several values of image distance and
the corresponding magnification were obtained. A graph of magnification m against image distance (V)
was plotted as shown below.

From the graph determine the focal length of the converging lens. (4 marks)

31. State the name of the eye defect corrected by convex lens. (1mk)

32. (a) State one similarity and one difference between a concave lens and a convex mirror (2mks)

(b) A lens forms a focused image on a screen when the distance between the object and the lens is
100cm. the size of the image is twice that of the object.
(i) What kind of lens was used? Give a reason (2mks)

(ii) Determine the distance of the image from the lens (2mks)

(iii) Determine the power of the lens (3mks)

(c) The figure shown in figure 9 shown below is a human eye with a certain defect

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(i) Name the defect (1mk)

(ii) On the same diagram, sketch the appropriate lens to correct the defect and sketch rays to show
the effect of the lens. (2mks)

33. The figure shows an experimental set up consisting of a mounted convex lens L, cardboard screen with
cross-wires at the centre, a plane mirror, a metre rule and a candle.

Describe how the set-up may be used to determine the focal length, f, of the lens. (4 marks)

34. The figure below shows the image formed when an object is placed in front of a concave lens.

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Using suitable rays, locate the position of the object. (3mks)

35. (a) An object is placed 30cm in front of a thin converging lens of focal length 20cm. The set up is
represented in the [Link]
(i) On the same figure construct a ray diagram to locate the position of the image. (3
Mks)
(ii) Determine the magnification produced. (2 Mks)
(b) An object 6cm tall is placed 40cm from a convex lens of focal length 50cm.
Find the position of the image. (2Mks)
(c) State two differences between the human eye and the camera. (2
Mks)
(d) The figure below shows an eye defect.

(i) Identify the defect. (1 Mk)

(ii) State the cause of the defect. (1 Mk)

9. (a) Define refractive index. (1mk)

(b) The critical angle of a material is 43.20. Determine the refractive index of that material. (2mks)
(c) Define the term accommodation as used in lenses. (1mk)
(d) Figure 7 shows eye deflect

Figure 7
(i) Identify the defect.
(1mk)
(ii) Show how the defect can be corrected on same diagram. (2mks)
(e) An object is placed 40cm in front of concave lense of focal length 20cm. Determine the position of
the image. (3mks)

10. You are provided with the following apparatus to determine the focal length of a lens.
✓ A biconvex lens and lens holder
✓ A lit candle
✓ A white screen
✓ A metre rule
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(a) State two measurements that you would take. (2mks)

(b) Explain how the measurements in (a) above would be used to determine the focal length of the
lens. (2mks)
(c) Describe the procedure you would follow in determining the focal length of the above lens. (2mks)
(d) Draw a diagram to show how you would arrange the above apparatus to determine the focal
length of the lens. (1mk)
11. Figure 10 below shows parallel rays of light incident on a convex lens.

F F

Complete the ray diagrams to show the emergent beam in each case. (2 marks)
(b)Table 2 below shows values of object distance U and corresponding value of image distance V for a
convex lens.
Object distance U (cm) 10 15 20 25 30 35
Image distance V (cm) 24.6 17.1 13.3 11.8 10.9 10.4

Table 2
(i)Plot a graph of (U + V) against UV. (5 marks)
(ii) Determine the focal length of the lens. (3 marks)
(c) Give one difference between the eye and the camera. (1 mark)
12. a)An object O placed in front of a converging lens LO forms an image I on the other side of the lens.
Another converting lens
Le is placed such that the two lenses form a compound microscope.
(i) Draw a reason of the set up and sketch the rays to show how the final image is formed.
(5 marks)
(ii) What is meant by virtual image? (1 mark)

(iii) A lens forms a clear image on a screen when the distance between the screen and the object is 80cm.
If the image is 3 times the height of the object, determine. The distance of the image from the lens. (2
marks)
13. a) Distinguish between seal image and a virtual image. (1 mark)
b)The distance between an upright image and the object produced by a thin lens is 40cm. The image is 3
times as tall as the object.
i) State the type of lens used. (1 mark)
ii) Determine the object distance. (2 marks)
iii) Determine the radius of curvature. (3 marks)
iv) State one application of the lens as used in question (b) above. (1 mark)

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 KCSE PHYSICS TOPICAL QUESTIONS GOLDLITE ONLINE SERVICES

NAME
ADMISSION NUMBER

X-RAYS QUESTIONS

1. (a) State what determines the quality of X-rays in an X-rays tube.

(1mk)
(b) State one use of X-rays in industry. (1mk)
(c) An X-ray tube operates with a p.d. of 200kv. Only 0.5% of the kinetic energy of the electrons is
converted into X-rays.
Calculate the frequency of the X-rays produced, take planks constant = 6.63 x 10-34Js. (3mks)

2. (a) State the property of lead that makes it a suitable material for shielding an x-ray tube. (1 mark)
(c) State how an increase in temperature of the filament in an x-ray tube affects the nature of x-rays
produced. (1 mark)
(a) State two properties of -rays. (2mks)
(b) Figure 6 below shows an -ray tube. Use it to answer questions that follow.

Figure 6

(i) Name parts labelled A and B. (2mks)

(ii) Explain how a change in the potential across P changes the intensity of the -rays produced in the
tube. (2mks)
(iii)During the operation of the tube, the target becomes very hot. Explain how this heat is caused.
(2mks)
(iv) Name a suitable material for the target. (1mk)
(v) Name the part labelled T. (1mk)
(vi) Why is the tube evacuated? (1mk)
(c) In a certain -ray tube, the electrons are accelerated by a p.d. of 24000V. Assuming all the energy
goes to produce -rays, determine the frequency of the -rays produced. (Plank’s constant h = 6.62 x
10¯34Js and charge on an electron, e = 1.6 x 10¯19C).
(3mks)

3. State one property of high quality X-rays. (1mk)

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4. State the energy transformations when fast moving electrons are suddenly stopped by metal target.
(1mk)

5. (e) Figure 12 shows X-ray tube

Figure 12
(i) Identify parts A and B. (2mks)
(ii) Calculate the number of electrons hitting the anode per second. (2mks)
(iii) X-ray tube is operating at 15kV and current of 15mA. Determine the velocity of electrons as they
strike the target. (e = 1.6 x 10-19, Me = 9.1 x 10-13 kg) (3mks)

6. In an X-rays tube it is observed that the intensity of X-rays increases when the potential difference across
the filament is increased. Explain this observation. (2 marks)

7. Explain how the intensity of X-rays in an X-ray tube can be controlled. (1 mark)

8. Distinguish between x - rays and g - rays based on production. (1 mark)

9. Figure 11 shows the main parts of an X-ray tube.

EHT
Q
Low D.C
Oil in
Voltage
R

A
Oil out
Q
Y Shield
a) Name the parts labelled Q and R. (2 marks)
b) Explain the effects on the X-rays produced when :

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 KCSE PHYSICS TOPICAL QUESTIONS GOLDLITE ONLINE SERVICES

i) The ammeter reading is raised. (2 marks)

ii) The extra high tension voltage (EHT) is increased. (2 marks)
c) State with reason the material used to make the part labelled P. (3 marks)
d) The Y-gain of a C.R.O is connected at 50V/cm. An alternating voltage source connected to the input
terminal produces a sine wave curve with an amplitude of 3.5cm. Determine the highest voltage produced
by the source. (3 marks)
10. Distinguish between soft and hard x-rays in terms of their production. (1 mark)

11. a) The diagram below shows an X-ray tube drawn by a student. Use it to answer the questions which
follow.
EHT

S
R
Heating
P

State with reason the material used for the Evacuated

part labelled R. (2 marks)
ii) Why is the tube evacuated? (1 mark)
iii) How can the wavelength of the X-rays emitted from this tube be reduced. (1 mark)
2
b) X-rays are emitted when a tube operates at 3 × 10 V and a current of 0.01 A is passing through it (take e
= 1.6 × 10-19C, Me = 9 × 10-31). Calculate;
i) the velocity of the electron on hitting the target (3 marks)
ii) the minimum wavelength of the x-rays emitted. (3 marks)
c) i) State two properties of x-rays. (2 marks)
ii) State two uses of X-rays. (2 marks)

12. State the energy transformation when fast moving electrons are suddenly stopped by a target in an X-ray
tube. (1 mark)

13. a) The figure below shows an X-ray tube.

E.H.T

Vacuum

i) Name the parts labelled

B
A and
A
B cathode (2 marks)
ii) Suggest with a reason the material used for A (1 mark)
iii) State the reason why the X-ray tube is evacuated. (1 mark)
iv) For the X-ray tube, how would the following be controlled
a) The intensity (1 mark)
b) Quality of X-ray (1 mark)
b) A potential difference of 50KV is applied across CRO tube. Given that the charge of an electrons
e = 1.6 x 10-19C and the mass of the electron Me = 9.1 x 10-31kg. Calculate the kinetic energy of the
electrons (3 marks)
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